BSN 2_ P3 WEEK1 POST TEST

HES 007 LABORATORY

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Shade only those that apply to each question on your answer sheet. Read the
question carefully and choose the best answer.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES.

1. You are preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who is on contact
and airborne precautions. In which order will you remove the PPE?
I. Take off the gown.
II. Remove N95 respirator.
III. Perform hand hygiene.
IV. Take off goggles.
V. Remove gloves.

a. II, IV, II, I,III c. I, II, IV, V, III

b. IV, V, II, I, III d. V, IV, I, II, III

Answer: D
Rationale: The sequence will prevent contact of the contaminated gloves and gowns with areas (such as your hair) that cannot be easily
cleaned after client contact and stop transmission of microorganisms to you and your other clients.

2. To prevent COVID-19 social distancing must be followed. What is the safe distance to prevent the transmission of the virus?
a. 1 foot c. 6 feet
b. 1 meter d. 6 meters

Answer: B
Rationale: Physical distancing helps limit the spread of COVID-19 – this means we keep a distance of at least 1m from each other
and avoid spending time in crowded places or in groups.

3. In which order will the nurse perform the following actions as she prepares to leave the room of a client with airborne
precautions?
I. Take off goggles
II. Take off gown
III. Remove gloves
IV. Remove N95 respirator
V. Perform hand hygiene
a. I, II, III, IV, V c. III, IV, I, II, V
b. IV, III, II, I, V d.II, I, IV, II, V

Answer: D
Rationale: This order will prevent contact of the contaminated gloves and gown with areas like the hair that cannot be readily cleaned
after client contact and stop transmission of microorganisms to the nurse and the client. The correct order for donning and removal of
PPE has been standardized by agencies such as the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Occupational Safety
and Health Administration.

4. The following are the clinical manifestations of SARS except:

A. Headache and body aches
B. Mild respiratory symptoms at the onset
C. Sudden onset of high-grade fever, greater than 42C
D. Two days after: dry cough and respiratory difficulty.

Answer: C
Rationale: The first symptom was a high fever of more than 100.4°F (38.0°C). Other mild respiratory symptoms were similar to
those of flu.
5. Which of the following best describes COVID-19?
A) It is caused by bacteria.
B) It is a fake disease.
C) It is just like the flu.
D) It is caused by a virus.

Answer: D

6. What is the dengue fever incubation period?

A. 1-12 days
B. 3-14 days
C. 14-28 days
D. 28-32 days
ANSWER: B. 3-14 days

7. What is the vector of the dengue virus?

a. Female Aedes aegypti mosquito.
b. Male Aedes aegypti mosquito.
c. Any Aedes aegypti mosquito.
d. All of the above.

Answer: a
Rationale: The vector of dengue virus is the female Aedes aegypti mosquito.

8. There are how many serotypes of the dengue virus?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

Answer: A
Rationale: The dengue virus has 4 serotypes.

9. What is the causative agent of diphtheria?

a. Vibrio coma
b. Culex Tritaeniorhynchus
c. Herpes virus varicellae
d. Klebs-Loeffler bacillus

Answer: D
Rationale: The causative Agent of diphtheria is Corynebacterium Diphtheriae also known as Klebs-Loeffler bacillus.

10. What is the poisonous substance produced during the growth of a microorganism which is responsible for major pathologic
changes?
A. Exotoxin C. Choleragen
B. Endotoxin D. A and B

Answer: A

11. What is the mosquito responsible for Japanese encephalitis?

A. Malassezia furfur
B. Loa loa
C. Aedespolynensis
D. Culex Tritaeniorhynchus

Answer:D
Rationale: Japanese Encephalitis is a potentially severe viral disease spread by mosquito bite Culex Tritaeniorhynchus that live in
rice fields and pig farms.

12. What causes Encephalitis or Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES)?

A. Inflammation caused by an infection in the brain.
B. The main causative agents of this disease are the viruses.
C. Both A and B

Ans. C
Explanation: Encephalitis or Acute Encephalitis Syndrome is caused by an infection invading the brain or through the immune system
attacking the brain. And the main causative agents of AES are the viruses like herpes virus, Japanese encephalitis etc.

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES)?
i. AES is linked to children eating unripe litchi fruit on an empty stomach.
ii. Toxin hypoglycin A and MPCG are present in an unripe fruit which causes vomiting.
iii. These toxins cause sudden high fever and seizures and affect especially malnourished children.
A. i, ii C. i, iii
B. ii, iii D. i, ii, iii

Ans. D
Explanation: AES outbreaks in north and eastern parts of India and is linked to children eating unripe litchi fruit on an empty
stomach. Toxins hypoglycin A and MCPG are present in an unripe fruit which causes vomiting if ingested in large quantities. These
toxins also cause sudden high fever and seizures and require immediate treatment, mainly malnourished children.

14. A fungal infection which usually appears between the toes and can also affect the toenails characterized by red, dry, cracked
and itchy skin is called .
a. Tinea pedis
b. Tinea cruris
c. Tinea versicolor
d. Trichophytosis
Answer: A
Rationale: Athlete’s foot (Tinea pedis) is an infection usually appears between the toes characterized by red, dry, cracked, and itchy
skin between the toes and can also affect toenails.

15. What is the fungal infection of the groin and upper thighs?
a. Tinea cruris c. Trichophytosis
b. Tinea versicolor d. Tinea pedis

Answer: A
Rationale: Jock itch (Tinea Cruris) is the infection of the groin and upper thighs. Both men and women can be infected with the
disease.

16. Which of the following is not associated with measles?

a) Red and watery eyes
b) Runny nose
c) High-grade fever
d) Enlarged salivary glands

ANSWER: D

17. What is the common complication that may occur during chronic infection of measles to infants and children?
a) Kidney failure c) Encephalitis
b) Liver damage d) Paraplegia

ANSWER: C Encephalitis ( infection in the brain)

18. What do you call the pinkish rash on the soft palate of a patient diagnosed with German measles?
a. Petechial spot c. Blueberry spot
b. Forchheimer’s spot d. Koplik spot

Answer: B
Rationale: Forchheimer’s spot is a pinkish rash on the soft palate an exanthematous rash that appears first on the face,spreading to the
neck, the arms, trunk, and legs.
19. When maternal rubella infection occurs during the first month or first trimester of pregnancy the risk of congenital
malformation is?
a. 100% b. 95% c. 90% d. 85%

Answer: A
Rationale: 100% risk for congenital malformation when maternal infection occurs during the first month or first trimester of pregnancy

20. What type of hepatitis is transmitted through blood transfusion from asymptomatic donors and by receiving tattoos from
infected needles?
a. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis A d. Hepatitis D

Answer: A
Rationale: Hepatitis C is transmitted through blood transfusion from asymptomatic donors and by receiving tattoos.

21. What type of herpes simplex virus can be transmitted by kissin, sharing kitchen utensils and towels?
a. Type 1 c. Type 4
b. Type 3 d. Type 2

Answer: A
Rationale: HSV type 1 can be transmitted by kissing and sharing kitchen utensils and towels. Patients usually catch the infection from
family members or friends who carry the virus

22. What do you call the condition in which the 5th cranial nerve is affected and is characterized by corneal anesthesia?

a. Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome
b. Epstein Barr virus
c. Gasserian ganglionitis
d. La Grippe

Answer: C
Rationale: Gasserian ganglionitis is characterized by corneal anesthesia due to ophthalmic branch (5th cranial nerve) is affected
23. What do you call the paralysis of the facial nerve and vesicles in the external auditory canal?
a. Gasserian ganglionitis
b. Epstein Barr virus
c. La Grippe
d. Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome

Answer: D
Rationale: Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome is the paralysis of the facial nerve and vesicles in the external auditory canal that affects the 7th
cranial nerve.

24. What is the incubation period of hookworm after the larval penetration?
a. 2 to 4 weeks
b. 6 to 8 weeks
c. 8 to 10 weeks
d. 4 to 6 weeks
Answer: D
Rationale: Incubation period is 4 to 6 weeks after the larvae penetrate the skin. Generally, 40 to 100 days or 2 to 8 weeks.

25. What is the mode of transmission of hookworm disease?

a. Indirect contact
b. Droplet infection
c. Airborne spread
d. Direct Contact

Answer: D
Rationale: Hookworm disease is accomplished directly through the skin of the foot (ground itch).

1. What is the causative agent of Influenza?

A. RNA-containing Myxovirus
B. A1 viruses
C. Protozoa of Genus Plasmodia
D. Filtrable virus

2. What is the causative agent of measles?

a. RNA-containing Myxovirus
b. A1 viruses
c. Protozoa of Genus Plasmodia
d. Filtrable virus

3. What can the nurse tell the mother of a school-age child who received a rubella (measles) vaccine as an infant,
but was recently exposed to someone with the infectious disease?

a. The child needs to be revaccinated

b. The earlier vaccination protects the child
c. The child may develop a milder case
d. Confine the child to avoid exposing others

4. What is the best nursing response when a pregnant woman asks if she can obtain an injection of influenza
vaccine?
a. Wait until after your baby is born to avoid fetal harm
b. You are protected if you recently had the flu
c. An injected influenza vaccine is safe during pregnancy
d. An injection of gamma globulin is better

5. What is the Most serious and most infectious type of leprosy?

a. Lepromatous Leprosy (Multibacillary)
b. Tuberculoid leprosy
c. Borderline (Dimorphous) Leprosy

6. What is the incubation period of P. Falciparum?

a. 12 days
b. 14 days
c. 30 days
d. 40 days

7. What type of malaria does the persons infected with this species of Plasmodium remain asymptomatic for a
much longer period of time than those infected with P. Vivax or P. Ovale?
a. Plasmodium Malariae (Quartan)
b. Plasmodium Knowlesi
c. Plasmodium Falciparum
d. Plasmodium Vivax
8. How can we prevent malaria? Select all that apply.

1. All malaria cases must not be reported.

2. Destruction of breeding sites of mosquitoes.
3. Insecticide spray.
4. Use of mosquito nets
5. Use of insect repellants in the exposed portion of the body.

A. 2,3,4,5
B. 3, 4, 5
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,2,5

9. What is the incubation period of measles?

a. 10-12 days
b. 5-10 days
c. 1-5 days
d. 12- 15 days

10. A child with rubeola (measles) is being admitted to the hospital. When preparing for the admission of the
child, which precautions should be implemented? Select all that apply.
1. Enteric
2. Contact
3. Airborne
4. Protective
5. Neutropenic

a. 1,2
B. 2, 3
C. 1,4
D. 4,5

Rationale: Rubeola is transmitted via airborne particles or direct contact with infectious droplets. Airborne
precautions and contact precautions are required; a mask and gloves are worn by those who come in contact with
the child. Gowns and gloves are not indicated. Articles that are contaminated should be bagged and labeled.
Options 1, 4, and 5 are not indicated for rubeola

11. The nurse assesses a patient for signs of meningeal irritation and observes for nuchal rigidity. What indicates
the presence of this sign of meningeal irritation?

A. Tonic spasms of the legs

B. Curling in a fetal position
C. Arching of the neck and back
D. Resistance to flexion of the neck

Rationale: D
Nuchal rigidity is a clinical manifestation of meningitis. During assessment, the patient will resist passive flexion of the
neck by the health care provider. Tonic spasms of the legs, curling in a fetal position, and arching of the neck and back are
not related to meningeal irritation.
12. The mother of a toddler with mumps asks the nurse what she needs to watch for in her child with this disease.
The nurse bases the response on the understanding that mumps is which type of communicable disease?

A. Skin rash caused by a virus

B. Skin rash caused by a bacteria
C. Respiratory disease caused by virus involving the lymph nodes
D.Respiratory disease caused by a virus involving the parotid gland

13. The school nurse prepares a list of home care instructions for the parents of school children who have been
diagnosed with pediculosis capitis (head lice). Which should be included in the list? Select all that apply.
1. Siblings may also need treatment. 2. Use a pediculicide shampoo and repeat treatment in 14 days.
3. Grooming items such as combs and brushes should not be shared. 4. Launder all the bedding and clothing in hot
water and dry on high heat.
5. Vacuum floors, play areas, and furniture to remove any hairs that may carry lice nits.

A. 1, 3, 4, 5
B. 1,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 1,5

14. A 6-month-old infant receives a diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) immunization at the well-
baby clinic. The parent returns home and calls the clinic to report that the infant has developed swelling and redness at
the site of injection. Which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?

A. Monitor the infant for a fever.

B. Bring the infant back to the clinic. C. Apply an ice pack to the injection site.
D. Leave the injection site alone, because this always occurs.

15. A child is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. The nurse reinforces homecare instructions to the parents
about the care of the child. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the parents?

A. Maintain the child on bed rest for 2 weeks.

B. Maintain respiratory precautions for 1 week.
C. Notify the pediatrician if the child develops a fever.
D. Notify the pediatrician if the child develops abdominal or left shoulder pain.

RATIONALE:
The parents need to be instructed to notify the pediatrician if abdominal pain (especially in the left upper
quadrant) or left shoulder pain occurs, because this may indicate splenic rupture. Children with enlarged spleens
are also instructed to avoid contact sports until the splenomegaly resolves. Bed rest is not necessary and children
usually self-limit their activity. Respiratory precautions are not required, although transmission can occur via
direct intimate contact or contact with infected blood. Fever is treated with acetaminophen

16. What infectious disease that is characterized by repeated attacks of spasmodic coughing w/c consists of a series
of explosive expirations, typically ending in a ling-drawn forced inspiration which produces a crowing sound, the
“whoop”, and is usually followed by vomiting.
a. Tetanus
b. Pertussis
c. Mumps
d. Pneumonia

17. The nurse reviews the home care instructions with a parent of a 3-year-old with pertussis. Which statement by the
parent indicates a need for further teaching?

a. "I know that my child will make a loud whooping sound."

b. "I understand this whooping cough is viral and I have to let it run its course."
c. "I understand that I need to watch for respiratory distress signs with pertussis."
d. "I can reduce the environmental factors that can trigger coughing, like dust and smoke."

18. Which of the following vaccines should be given to prevent whooping cough for infants?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. OPV
d. IPV

Answer: D
Rationale: Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus are given to prevent whooping cough usually at 6 weeks after birth.

19. Which of the following modes of transmission does not belong to tetanus?
a. Wounds
b. Umbilical Stump
c. Saliva
d. Dental extraction

Answer: C
Rationale: Modes of transmission of tetanus includes punctured wounds contaminated by dust, soil, or animal excreta
containing C. Tetani, rugged, traumatic wounds and burns, umbilical stump of newborn, babies delivered to mothers
without tetanus toxoid immunizations, unrecognized wounds (cleansing the ears with sharp materials) and dental
extraction, circumcision, and ear piercings.

20. What teaching would the nurse provide to a client receiving tetanus toxoid?
A. "You will have lifetime immunity from this injection."
B. "Soreness at the injection site is a common reaction."
C. "This medication must be repeated weekly for 4 weeks."
D. "Increase fluid and fiber in your diet to prevent constipation."

21. Which patient is at higher risk for developing pneumonia?

A. any hospitalized patient between 19 - 64 y.o.
B. 36 y.o. trauma patient on mechanical ventilator
C. disabled 51 y.o. with abdominal pain, d/c home
D. Any pt who has not received the pneumonia vaccine

22. What kind of pneumonia that refers to the pulmonary consequences resulting from entry of endogenous or
exogenous
substances into the lower airway?
a. Aspiration Pneumonia
b. Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia
c. Community-Acquired Pneumonia
d. Pneumonia in the Immunocompromised Host

23. Which statement best describes pneumonia?

A. an infection of just the windpipe because the lungs are clear of any problems
B. a serious inflammation, caused by various things, of the bronchioles
C. only an infection of the lungs with mild to severe effects on breathing
D. an inflammation resulting from damage to the lungs due to long-term smoking

24. The nurse is reviewing a pneumonia patient's lab results. What does she expect to see?
A. decreased Hgb
B. increased RBCs
C. decreased neutrophils
D. increased WBCs

25. Which conditions does the nurse recognize as a risk for developing aspiration pneumonia? Select All That Apply
1. continuous tube feed
2. bronchoscopy procedure
3. MRI
4. decreased LOC
5. Stroke

A. 1,2,4,5
B. 1,2
C. 145
D. 4,5

Answer: 1,2,4,5
continuous tube feed
bronchoscopy procedure
decreased LOC
Stroke

BSN 2_ P3 WEEK 3 POST TEST HES

007 LECTURE

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Shade only those that apply to each question on your answer sheet.
Read the question carefully and choose the best answer.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES.

1. The client has been taking Isoniazid for a month and a half. The client complains to the nurse about numbness, paresthesia,
and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:
a. small blood vessel spasm
b. impaired peripheral circulation
c. hypercalcemia
D.peripheral neuritis
Answer: D
Rationale: INH is a bactericidal agent that is used as prophylaxis for neuritis, and has side effects of peripheral neuritis, hepatic enzyme
elevation, hepatitis, and hypersensitivity.

2. Prevention of TB includes the following measures:

a. BCG vaccination newborns
b. Public education about TB and its mode of transmission, methods of control and early diagnosis.
c. Availability and accessibility of medical, laboratory and x-ray facilities for examination.
d. All of these
Answer: D
Rationale: All are correct ways of preventing TB.

3. A client with TB who is taking anti-TB drugs who calls the nurse because of urine discoloration. According to the client his urine
turned reddish orange. The nurse told the client that the reddish-orange discoloration of urine is the side effect of which anti-TB drug?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol
Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin is a bactericidal agent that turns the urine and other body secretions into orange or red, and has common side
effects of hepatitis, febrile reaction, purpura, nausea, and vomiting.

4. Zika Virus was first discovered in?

a. Kenya
b. Congo
c. China
d. Uganda
Answer: D
Rationale: Zika Virus was first discovered in a monkey in the Zika Forest of Uganda in 1947. Before 2007, at least 14 cases of Zika
had been documented, although other cases were likely to have occurred and were not reported.

5. What is the incubation period of Zika virus?

a. 3-14 days
b. 1 week
c. 1 – 7 days
d. 2 weeks
Answer: A
Rationale: Incubation period for Zika virus disease is 3–14 days. Zika viremia ranges from a few days to 1 week

6. Which of the following congenital defects are associated with zika virus?
a. microcephaly
b. decreased brain tissue

c. limited range of joint motion

D. too much muscle tone
E. All of these
Answer: E
Rationale: genital Zika syndrome is associated with five types of birth defects that are either not seen or occur rarely with other
infections during pregnancy: Severe microcephaly (small head size) resulting in a partially collapsed skull, decreased brain tissue
with brain damage (as indicated by a specific pattern of calcium deposits), damage to the back of the eye with a specific pattern of
scarring and increased pigment, limited range of joint motion, such as clubfoot and too much muscle tone restricting body movement
soon after birth.

7.. What is the drug of choice for typhoid fever?

a. Ampicillin
b. Co-trimoxazole
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Chloramphenicol
Answer: DRationale: Chloramphenicol an antibiotic is the drug of choice for typhoid fever

8.. What type of syphilis starts with one or more chancres that erupt in the genitalia, anus, nipples, tonsils, or eyelids?
a. Latent syphilis
b. Late syphilis
c. Primary syphilis
d. Secondary syphilis
Answer: C
Rationale: Primary Syphilis starts with one or more chancres that erupt in the genitalia, anus, nipples, tonsils, or eyelids. Painless
chancre develops, starts as a papule and then erodes.

9. What type of syphilis is asymptomatic until death?

a. Latent syphilis
b. Late syphilis

c. Primary syphilis
c. Secondary syphilis
Answer: A
Rationale: Latent Syphilis has no clinical symptoms occur, but a serologic test will prove reactive and the patient is asymptomatic until
death

10. The clinic nurse inspects the skin of a client suspect of having scabies. Which of the following assessment findings would the
nurse note if this disorder were present?
a. the appearance of vesicles or pustules with a thick, honey colored crust
b. the presence of white patches scattered about the trunk
c. multiple straight or wavy, threadlike lines beneath the skin
d. patchy hair loss and round neck macules with scales
Answer:
Rationale: Multiple straight or wavy, threadlike lines beneath the skin is a clinical manifestation of scabies.

11. Which of the following species of schistosomiasis is endemic in the Philippines?

a. S. Japonicum
b. S. Mansoni
c. S. Haematobium
Answer: A
Rationale: Schistosoma Japonicum infects the intestinal tract (Katayama disease). Also known as oriental schistosomiasis and endemic
in the Philippines.

12. What is the confirmatory test for schistosomiasis?

a. Fecalysis
b. Kato-Katz technique
c. COPT
d. ELISA
13. The poliovirus is transmitted though person-to-person by the following except:
a. Direct contact
b. Droplets
c. Indirect contact
d. Through carriers.
Answer: B
Rationale: Poliomyelitis is transmitted through person-to-person by direct, indirect contact and through carriers.

14. The most definitive diagnostic exam for rabies is?

a. Virus Isolation
b. Negri bodies
c. Culture and sensitivity
d. Fluorescent rabies antibody
Answer: D
Rationale: FRA (Fluorescent rabies antibody) most definitive diagnosis of rabies.

15. The following are the prevention and control for rabies. EXCEPT?
a. Vaccination of all dogs
b. Unleashing dogs
c. 10 to 14 days confinement of any dog that has bitten a person.
d. Responsible pet owner.
Answer: B
Rationale: Unleashing dogs increases the incidence of rabies especially in urban areas.

16. Aseptic meningitis without paralysis (nonparalytic poliomyelitis) resembles other viral meningitides. When it is
suspected, which of the following diagnostic tests is usually done?

A. Blood culture
B. Lumbar puncture
C. Serial antibody titers
D. Throat culture

Answer: B: Lumbar puncture is usually done; typical CSF findings are normal glucose, mildly elevated protein, and a cell count of 10
to 500/μL (predominantly lymphocytes). Detection of the virus in a throat swab, feces, or CSF or demonstration of a rise in specific
antibody titer confirms infection with poliovirus but is usually not needed in patients with uncomplicated aseptic meningitis.

17. After a patient sustains a bite from an animal infected with the rabies virus, the virus is initially transported to the brain through
which of the following?

A. Circulatory system
B. Lymphatic system
C. Peripheral nervous system
D. Spinal cord
Answer: C: Peripheral nervous system. The virus travels from the site of entry via peripheral nerves to the spinal cord (or to the brain
stem when the face is bitten), then to the brain. It then spreads from the CNS via peripheral nerves to other parts of the body Choices
A, B, and D are incorrect.

18. Postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) following possible rabies exposure involves wound care and passive and active
immunoprophylaxis. If promptly and meticulously executed, PEP almost always prevents human rabies, a fatal disorder. It is most
appropriate to initiate PEP if a bite from which of the following animals is confirmed or suspected?

A. Bat
B. Pet
C. Livestock
D. Mouse

Answer: A: Bat. PEP should be initiated if a bat is involved. Because detecting bat bites is difficult, PEP is indicated if a bite is
reasonably likely, such as when a person awakens with a bat in the room, or a young child is found with a bat. PEP may not need to be
initiated with a bite from choices B, C, and D; public health protocols for animal testing should be followed in each individual case.

19. Which of the following tests identifies the presence of syphilis in the latent period?

A. Urine test
B. Spinal tap
C. Serologic test
D. Saliva culture

Answer: C, Serologic test, since antibodies persist. A, B, and D are not used to confirm the presence of syphilis in the latent period.

20. Which of the following stages of syphilis is asymptomatic and not contagious?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Latent
D. Tertiary

Answer: C, The latent stage, which may persist indefinitely or be followed by late-stage disease. Choices A, Primary, and B,
Secondary, are contagious. D, The tertiary stage is symptomatic but not contagious.

21. In developed countries, Salmonella typhi is most likely transmitted via which of the following pathways?

A. Food
B.Sexual contact
C. Soiled clothing
D. Water
Answer: A: Food. Typhoid fever is most commonly transmitted via contaminated food in developed countries. Occasional transmission
may occur with direct fecal-oral contact during sexual activity (choice B). Typhoid fever is very rarely transmitted via choice C. The
disease is transmitted via choice D most often in endemic areas.

22. Onset of typhoid fever is usually gradual, with fever and which of the following additional symptoms occur most often?

A. Arthralgia
B. Blanching lesions (rose spots)
C. Diarrhea
D. Delirium
Answer: A: Arthralgia. Typhoid fever has a gradual onset that includes fever and arthralgia in addition to headache, pharyngitis,
constipation, anorexia, and abdominal pain. B: Blanching lesions, which appear in about 10 to 20% of patients, typically occur in the
2nd week of the disease rather than at onset. C and D: Diarrhea and delirium may occur later in the disease.

23. Which of the following is the preferred antibiotic for treatment of patients with typhoid fever?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Levofloxacin
D.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Answer: B: Ceftriaxone. This is the first-line therapy when treating patients with typhoid fever. Choices A and D have high resistance
rates and may not be effective. Choice C is still widely used, but resistance is increasing.
24. You can prevent mosquitoes from breeding outside your home by removing which of the following from your yard?

A. Old tires
B. Standing water like puddles and pools
C. Buckets and potted plant trays
D. All of the above

The correct answer is D. All of the above

Common mosquito breeding sites can also include tree holes, toys left outdoors, or even bottle caps. Keep mosquitoes from laying
eggs near your home by emptying, covering, throwing away, or turning over any items that hold water.

25. To protect yourself from mosquito-borne diseases, how often should you apply insect repellant? A.Every

30 minutes
B.Every hour
C.It depends on the percentage of active ingredient in the product
D.Insect repellant does not protect against mosquito-borne diseases
The correct answer is C. It depends on the percentage of active ingredient in the product
Insect repellants that have a higher percentage of an active ingredient, such as DEET (a chemical that repels mosquitoes), give
longer-lasting protection. Simply apply the repellant according to the label instructions.
Your score was: 29%