STUDENT ASSESSMENT GUIDELINE

FOR ACADEMIC STAFF

Second Edition

Hatijah Basri, Norhayati Muhammad, Saliza Asman, Faridah Kormin, Suhadir Shamsuddin,
Noor Azliza Abd Latif, Khuneswari Gopal Pillay, Hazel Monica Matias Peralta

OUTCOME BASED EDUCATION (OBE) COMMITTEE

FACULTY OF APPLIED SCIENCES AND TECHNOLOGY
2018

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 TABLE OF CONTENT

1.0 Introduction 5

2.0 Objectives of the Guideline 5

3.0 Validity and Reliability of Assessment 6

3.1 Validity of Assessment 6
3.2 Reliability of Assessment 6

4.0 Cognitive and Affective Domain Skills Level 7

4.1 Cognitive Domain 7
4.2 Affective Domain 13

5.0 Objective Question 14

5.1 Multiple choice 14
5.2 Multi-Joint / Item Listing 14

6.0 Subjective Question 17

6.1 Structured question 17
6.2 Limited response question 17
6.3 Open response question 17
6.4 General guidelines for the construction of structured question 18

7.0 Guide on the Technical Aspects 19

7.1 Format 19
7.2 Font 19
7.3 Punctuation marks, capital/ small letters 19
7.4 General Guide 19

8.0 Marking Scheme and Rubric 20

8.1 Marking methods 21

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 8.2 Scoring rubric for limited response item and open response item 21

9.0 Rules for inspection of evaluated answer scripts 23

9.1 Objective 23
9.2 Moderation of examination paper marking 24
9.3 Task and responsibility 25
9.4 Rules of moderation of examination paper marking 25
9.5 Guide for evaluating script examination paper marking 25
9.6 Flow of moderation of examination paper marking 25

10.0 Conclusion 27

11.0 References 27

APPENDICES

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 LIST OF TABLES

Table 1: Six levels of Bloom's Taxonomy 8

Table 2: Examples of items according to the skill levels of Bloom's Taxonomy 10
Table 3: Aspects of affective domain 13
Table 4: Multiple choice item development guide 15
Table 5: General guideline for the construction of structured items 18
Table 6: Example of the expected responses for the evaluated skills 21
Table 7: Holistic marking rubric example 22
Table 8: Moderation of examination paper marking 25
Table 9: Tentative schedule of preparation, approval and submission of
draft for final examination paper 26

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1.0 Introduction

Student assessment is a crucial aspect of quality assurance due to its role to measure the
achievement of learning outcomes (LOs). It is also important because the results of
assessment form the basis in awarding qualifications. The methods for student assessment
should be consistent, effective, reliable and in line with current practices. Therefore, this
assessment should be able to provide clear evidence on the achievement of LOs.
Assessment, in general, serves the purposes to:
i. promote learning;
ii. measure a student’s performance, by awarding grades which indicate how much a
particular student has attained the stated LOs;
iii. determine whether a particular student is sufficiently well prepared in a subject area
to proceed to the next level of instruction;
iv. provide feedback to students which indicates levels of attainment and diagnoses
misunderstandings and learning difficulties; and
v. provide feedback to teaching staff to identify and diagnose ineffective teaching
methods/ techniques.

Outcomes-Based Assessment (OBA) is a systematic assessment approach to find out the

extent to which students attain the intended CLOs and PLOs by holistically judging their
LO attainment. Evidence gathered through OBA is used to judge how well the criteria
specified by the LOs are attained. In OBA, the assessment methods should be
constructively aligned with the achievement of the LOs. The assessment methods should
also support the learners in their learning progress (formative assessment) and validate their
achievement of the LOs at the end of the process (summative assessment).

An OBA is criterion-referenced, where the LOs are the criteria to be assessed. This
contrasts with norm-referenced assessment, where students’ achievements are compared
with each other. It requires academic staff to focus on the achievement of LOs (Malaysian
Qualifications Agency, 2013).

2.0 Objectives of the Guideline

i. To produce a question papers of high quality according to MQA standard.

ii. To increase the validity and reliability of examination questions according to MQA
standard.
iii. To specify the methods of constructing the questions, marking scheme and examining
the answer script by following the specific format.
iv. To standardize the format of final examination paper for all programs in the Faculty
of Applied Sciences and Technology (FAST).

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3.0 Validity and Reliability of Assessment
Validity and reliability are two important assessment principles, apart from flexibility and
fairness. To ensure that the assessment can provide sufficient evidence of students’
competence, it must be both valid and reliable.

3.1 Validity of Assessment

Validity refers to the ability of the assessment to measure what it is supposed to measure.
Among the three types of validity; construct, content and criterion validity, content validity
may be the most important type of validity to ascertain in developing assessment tasks
especially for examinations and tests. Content validity is based on the extent to which a
measurement reflects the specific intended domain of content.

In other words, content validity shows the extent the measurement matches the learning
outcomes. The questions covered may just be a sample of contents covered in a course, the
selected questions actually reflect the entire contents indicating the content validity.
Content validity of assessment tasks is determined by the assessment vetting committee.
The vetting committee should also judge the fairness in terms of distribution of marks for
each question.

The validity issue in questions will focus on two areas: relevancy and representative.
“Relevancy” is the extent to which the assessment is appropriate with the student’s ability.
“Representative” is concerned with whether the assessment can represent a group of
students or body of opinions.

Some key factors to determine validity in questions are as follows:

i. Assessment methods and instruments must be appropriate with the desired levels
of learning outcomes to be achieved.
ii. Assessments given throughout the semester should be in various forms (such as
tests, quizzes, final examination and assignments) to assess the different learning
domains and the CLOs determined for the course. More than one task is needed as
a basis of judgement of students’ competence.
iii. Assessment coverage must be balanced, covering most of the main ideas and
important concepts in proportion to the emphasis they received in class.
iv. An expert academic staff in the particular area should validate the assessment
prepared.

3.2 Reliability of Assessment

Reliability refers to the degree of consistency and accuracy of the assessment outcomes. It
reflects the extent to which the assessment will provide similar outcomes for candidates
with equal competence at different times or places, regardless of the assessor conducting
the assessment.

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 Thus, reliability includes consistency in assessment and grading. It reflects the assessment
by an examiner is accurate, consistent, reliable, fair and acceptable. This could be easily
established through conformity to the answer and marking schemes or rubrics. It is
recommended to provide sufficient and timely feedback on assessment tasks to allow
students to improve their performances and progress.

Several approaches which can be applied to increase reliability in assessment are illustrated
below:

i. Provide clear instructions on how to answer questions in all assessments.

Ambiguous questions and unclear instructions must be avoided. For assignments,
provide students with specific guidelines on requirements and expectations,
including information on how to ensure authenticity.
ii. Develop marking schemes/rubrics as a guide to ensure standardization in marking.
Vague scoring criteria will threaten the reliability.
iii. Ensure a fair distribution of marks for each question.
iv. Provide clear guidelines for observing and recording evidences of assessment.
v. In cases of where multiple examiners are involved, conduct moderation in marking.
The appointed moderators will determine appropriateness of marking standards.
vi. Develop assessment with appropriate length of time. Very short assessments are
less reliable.

In order to maintain a high validity and reliability of assessment, students undertaking a

particular course with few sections must get the same opportunities in terms of contents,
coverage, resources, and expertise of academic staff. Tests and examinations should be
given and submitted/administered at the same time and under the same conditions
Malaysian Qualifications Agency (2013).

4.0 Cognitive and Affective Domain Skills Levels

4.1 Cognitive Domain

Cognitive domain covers the development of knowledge and intellectual skills which
include memory and knowledge of the facts as well as a concept that are the basis for the
development of intellectual abilities and skills. Cognitive level involves Remembering,
Understanding, Applying, Analysing, Evaluating and Creating. The skills of item level for
Taxonomy Bloom and example used for guideline on preparing the final examination
questions are shown in Table 1 and Table 2 respectively. While, the summary of cognitive
domain of original version and revised version level of Taxonomy Bloom are attached at
APPENDIX A and APPENDIX B respectively.

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Table 1: Six levels of Bloom's Taxonomy

No Skill Level Synonyms/Elaboration of skill level

1. Remembering
 Recognising  Locating
Remembering is when  Recalling  Matching
memory is used to  Bookmarking  Memorising
produce definitions,  Bullet pointing  Naming
facts, or lists, or to  Copying  Networking
recite or retrieve  Defining  Numbering
information.  Describing  Quoting
 Duplicating  Reading
Can the student  Favouring  Reciting
RECALL  Finding  Recording
information?  Googling  Retelling
 Highlighting  Repeating
 Identifying  Retrieving
 Labelling  Searching
 Liking  Selecting
 Listening  Tabulating
 Listing  Telling
 Visualising

2. Understanding
 Interpreting  Discussing
Understanding is  Summarising  Discovering
about constructing  Inferring  Distinguishing
meaning from  Exemplifying  Estimating
different types of  Classifying  Expressing
function, be in written  Comparing  Extending
or graphic.  Explaining  Gathering
 Advanced search  Generalising
Can the student  Annotating  Grouping
EXPLAIN ideas or  Association  Identifying
concepts?  Boolean search  Indicating
 Categorising  Journaling
 Commenting  Paraphrasing
 Contrasting  Predicting
 Converting  Relating
 Demonstrating  Subscribing
 Describing  Tagging
 Differentiating  Tweeting

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3. Applying

Applying refers to  Executing  Examining

situations where the  Implementing  Explaining
learned material is  Acting out  Interviewing
used in products such  Administering  Judging
as diagrams, models,  Applying  Editing
interviews,  Articulating  Experimenting
simulations, and  Calculating  Hacking
presentations.  Carrying out  Loading
 Changing  Operating
Can the student USE  Charting  Painting
the new knowledge in  Choosing  Playing
another familiar  Collecting  Preparing
situation?  Completing  Presenting
 Computing  Running
 Constructing  Sharing
 Demonstrating  Sketching
 Determining  Uploading
 Displaying  Using

4. Analysing
 Differentiating  Distinguishing
Analysing is about  Organizing  Estimating
breaking material into  Attributing  Explaining
parts, and then  Advertising  Illustrating
determining how the  Appraising  Inferring
parts interrelate to  Breaking down  Integrating
each other or to an  Calculating  Linking
overall structure or  Categorizing  Mashing
purpose.  Classifying  Mind mapping
 Comparing  Ordering
Can the student  Concluding  Outlining
DIFFERENTIATE  Contrasting  Planning
between and RELATE  Correlating  Pointing out
constituent parts?  Deconstructing  Prioritising
 Deducing  Questioning
 Discriminating  Separating
 Dividing  Structuring
 Surveying
5. Evaluating
 Checking  Justifying
Evaluating is about  Critiquing  Measuring
making judgements  Arguing  Moderating
based on criteria and  Assessing  Monitoring
standards through  Criticising  Networking
 Commenting  Persuading
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 checking and  Concluding  Posting
critiquing.  Considering  Predicting
 Convincing  Rating
Can the student  Debating  Recommending
JUSTIFY an opinion,  Defending  Reflecting
decision or course of  Detecting  Reframing
action?  Editorialising  Reviewing
 Experimenting  Revising
 Grading  Scoring
 Hypothesising  Supporting
 Judging  Testing
 Validating

6. Creating
 Generating  Leading
Creating is about  Planning  Making
putting elements  Producing  Managing
together to form a  Adapting  Mixing/remixing
functional whole, and  Animating  Modifying
reorganizing  Blogging  Negotiating
elements into a new  Building  Originating
structure or pattern  Collaborating  Orating
by planning or  Composing  Planning
producing.  Constructing  Podcasting
 Designing  Producing
Can the student  Developing  Programming
GENERATE new  Devising  Publishing
products, ideas or  Directing  Roleplaying
ways of viewing  Facilitating  Simulating
things?  Filming  Solving
 Formulating  Structuring
 Integrating  Video blogging
 Inventing  Wiki building
 Writing

Table 2: Examples of items according to the skill level of Bloom's Taxonomy

No Skill Level Examples of Items

1. Identify THREE (3) general types of polymer molecular
structure.
1. Remembering
2. During photosynthesis, plants and algae uptake CO2 from
the water. This in turn changes water pH according to the

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 time of day. Predict what will happen to the pH on a sunny
midday and during the dusk.

3. Name ONE (1) common fatty acid as stated below:

(i) Mono unsaturated fatty acid
(ii) Essential Omega 6 fatty acid

1. Explain THREE (3) casting techniques and include

appropriate diagram in your explanation.

2. Dasima Oil Sdn Bhd is a manufacturing company of

cooking oil. One of the major non-TAGs is phospholipids
which classified as waste products at their factory plant.
As food technologist, do you agree with Dasima Oil Sdn
Bhd?. Justify your answer.
2. Understanding
3. Biodiversity loss has become one of the greatest
environmental concerns of the last century; owing to
increasing pressure on the environment by humans,
activities can seriously threaten the future sustainability of
marine species and ecosystems. Describe TWO (2) major
threats to marine ecosystem stability

1. Determine the inverse Laplace transform of the given

expressions.
3
(i) .
2( s  4) 2

1
3. Applying s
(ii) 3 .
( s  3) 2  2

2. Sketch the specific heat, cv versus temperature, T for a

metal in normal and superconducting state at zero
magnetic field.
1. Compare and contrast between phytosterols and
cholesterols.

2. The ionic radius of Na+ and Cl- are 0.102 nm and 0.181
4. Analysing nm respectively. Meanwhile the atomic weight for Na and
Cl are 22.99 g/mol and 35.45 g/mol respectively. Based
on these information, analyse the theoretical density of
sodium chloride.

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 3. Solve the following differential equations by using
Laplace transform.
y   2 y   5 y  sin 2t , y(0)  0, y (0)  0 .

1. A number of factors influence the mechanical

characteristics of polymer materials. For example, the
effects of temperature and strain rate on stress–strain
behaviour. The increasing of the temperature or
diminishing the strain rate leads to a decrease in the tensile
modulus, a reduction in tensile strength, and an
enhancement of ductility. Justify how structural and
processing factors affect the mechanical behaviour of
polymers.
5. Evaluating
2. By using Laplace transform, solve the system of linear
differential equations given as

2 x' y' y  t ,
x' y '  t2,

subject to conditions x(0)  1, y(0)  0 .

1. Suggest ONE (1) method to prepare the high temperature

superconductor (HTSC) of TlBa2CaCu2O7 (Tl1212) and
construct a flow chart based on the preparation technique
used.

2. Dasima Oil Sdn Bhd plans to develop a new product of

6. Creating cooking oil that incorporates natural antioxidant from the
mixtures of plant extracts to prolong the shelf life. Suggest
TWO (2) methods of experiment used to evaluate the
effectiveness of the incorporated antioxidant. Explain
your answer.

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4.2 Affective Domain
Affective domain includes feelings, values, appreciation, enthusiasm, motivation, and
attitude. Affective level involves receiving, giving feedback, evaluating, organizing and
appreciate the value. Table 3 shows five levels in the affective domain from the lowest to
the highest order processes.

Table 3: Aspects of affective domain

Category Explanation The explicit
assignment
Give
Questions related to the student’s skills to provide
Identify
care and receive ideas without questioning. Student’s
Name
Receiving actions reflect an awareness / attention towards the
Select
stimulus and event / environment in relation to the
Explain
affective domain.

Read
Discuss
Students follow or comply with the regulations, Label
Responding respond and engage in voluntary activities based on Make
their interests. Report
Present
Written
Shape
Provide
Participation of the student in an activity not only for
Justification
pleasure but also due to the commitment and
Valuing Recommend
appreciation based on the principles that have
Elaborate
conscience up a trust.
Welfare
Complete
Explain
Differentiate
Combine
The establishment of a consistent value system in a Relate
person with some other values that are intertwined Organize
Organising
with each other. Preserve
Synthesize
Arrange
Modify
Recommend
Students know themselves as an individual and their Discriminate
Characterising
stand if the behaviour in line with the philosophy of Story
life chosen and held. Settle
Verification

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5.0 Objective Question

Objective questions are items that have multiple-choice of answers, where candidates have
to choose only one correct answer. The objectives item consist of multiple-choice and
combination.

5.1 Multiple Choice Items/Multiple Choice Questions

5.1.1 Multiple-choice items have three components:

a. Stimulus
- Specific information which the item was based on
- In the form of text, graphics, tables, conversation etc.

b. Stem / principal question

- Part that contains the assignment
- Form the complete sentences, incomplete sentences, questions etc.

c. Choices of answer alternatives

- In the form of numbers, symbols, diagrams, phrase, tables etc.
- Consist of the key component namely the correct answer choice.
- Distractor which is the incorrect or inferior alternatives to the answers.

However, if the stem questions / principal questions are complete and carry a clear
meaning, stimulus are not required. Table 4 shows multiple choice items
construction guide.

5.1.2 Example of multiple-choice-question:

Which of the following is a bad food handling practice?

A. thoroughly cooking poultry before eating

B. prompt refrigeration of fresh and cooked foods in separate containers
C. cleaning cutting boards and knives thoroughly after using with fresh meat
D. storing cooked and fresh meat in the same container

5.2 Multi-Joint / Item Listing Question

i. Various combination items require candidates to make one accurate choice

of answer from a combination of the given four elements

ii. The combination of elements is required to be distributed equally in the

answer choice.
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 iii. The answers are arranged according to the following order of preference:
- Short to long
- Small to big quantities
- Small to big numbers

5.2.1 Example of Multi-Joint / Item Listing question

The following statements are special regulation required for a proper slaughtering
of permitted animals.
I. animal must be of halal species
II. animal must be slaughtered by adult and sane Muslim (e.g. mentally
competent)
III. God must be involved by name at the time of slaughter (bless in the name
God)
IV. slaughter must be done by cutting the throat in the manner that induces rapid
and complete bleeding resulted in the quickest death

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. I,II and III only
D. II,III and IV only
E. I,II,III and IV

Table 4: Guide for multiple choice item development

No. Characteristics General Guidelines

- Ensure the questions are testing one of the important
learning outcomes
- Ensure the questions are according to the Test
The contents and skills Specification Table (JSU) in terms of content and
1
that should be tested skills level
- Ensure the questions are testing more than just the
knowledge facts

- Principal question illustrates the only most obvious

problem
- The principal question contains only the relevant
Principal question / information
2
Stem - Diagram, the actual situation scenario, table etc. can
clarify /enhance the requirements and level of
questions it is attached with
- The principal question must be in positive form
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 - The proposed number of negative form items
(Example - EXCEPT) only cover 5% of the total
number of items for a paper. For instance, 5% of the
20 questions are equal to only 1 negative form
question.
- If the question is negative, the negative words in the
principal question must be highlighted.
- The word to be highlighted in the principal question
such as NOT, THE MOST and NUMBERS (e.g.
TWO) ought to be in capital and bolded.

- Distractor needs to function and reasonable

- Homogeneous answer alternatives
- Answer alternatives within the handouts
- All answer alternatives should be in line/parallel in
terms of grammar with the principal questions
- There is no hint in the answer alternatives ("verbal
clues')
- There is no answer hint in other questions
- Avoid using the options "All of the above" or "No
right answers"
- Answer alternatives should be about the same length
- Answer alternatives are sorted by chronological /
3 Answer alternatives numeric / alphabet / long / short
- Repeated word in all answer alternatives is
transferred to the principal question
- There are only four options A, B, C and D assigned to
each question
- The number of combination items does not exceed
5% of the overall question objectives. For example,
5% of the 20 questions is equal to 1 question
combination item only.
- Four elements only (I, II, III, and IV) are available as
option for the questions with multiple
joined/combination form
- Four elements (I, II, III, and IV) are joined and
distributed equally either 2 or 3 elements
- Diagrams, tables, maps and quotes for all questions
The use of quotations,
are placed before the principal question/stem and are
4 diagrams, vocabulary
numbered if there is more than one
and grammar
- The use of easy and comprehensible language

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 - The structure of language and definition is
correct/appropriate
- Correct and consistent spelling
- Abbreviation (acronym) is used properly and has
been stated prior to its use
- The passage or reference materials should be cited
accordingly

6.0 Subjective questions

Subjective questions are questions that require answers in the form of explanations
Students can demonstrate the acquisition of knowledge and skills through responses to
higher order thinking skills questions. Subjective questions consist of structured questions,
limited response questions and open response questions (Table 5).
6.1 Structured question
Structured questions are a series of consecutive questions, which are related to each other.
It provides a situation that requires student to answer in terms of process or related aspects.
This type of question can be used to assess problems with a more complex situation. The
following are types of structured questions:
 Question with/without statement.
 Question with figure/table/graph/diagram.
 Application question.
 Matching question.

6.2 Limited response question

Limited response question requires students to select from a limited list of predetermined
categories in the aspect of scope of the questions and the allocation of marks. The provided
space is usually limited. The answer that is required can be a phrase, a sentence or a
paragraph. Therefore, the expected response is structured or guided according to the
requirements of the question.

6.3 Open response question

Open response question is a type of unstructured question in which possible answers are
not suggested. Students should not write a simple yes-no answer, instead, they must
provide the answer with their own thoughts, ideas, and should organize answers critically,
and express arguments rationally according to the requirements of the question. This type
of question encourages student to demonstrate reasoning process in higher order thinking

17
skills. Example of open response questions are short essay questions that require answers
between 300 to 400 words and long essay questions that require answers between 500 to
700 words.

6.4 General guidelines for the construction of structured question

 Use of quotes, diagrams or tables as a stimulus to the question is allowed.
 The fractions of questions should be relevant to each other and is suitable with theme.
 Breakdown of questions should cover different levels according to appropriate order.
 Allocation of marks should be provided at the end of each question.
 Diagrams, tables, maps, graph or other illustrations should be placed in the space
provided after ‘END OF QUESTIONS’ and should be labelled accordingly.
 When a quote/quotation is used, its source should be cited appropriately.

Table 5: Guidelines in formulating of essay items.

No. Characteristic Specific guidelines for the construction of essay
questions
 No sub-questions are allow in any essay questions.
1. Essay

 Each question constructed must be clear in terms of

aim and objectives of the question.
2. Clarity of the question  Each question constructed should have a clear
scope, aspects and significance.

3. The scope of the

questions are based on  Each question constructed is based on learning
the learning objectives objectives (determined in TOS/JSU).

 Each question constructed should comprise more

than one aspects, to allow students to analyse,
create, synthesise or evaluate the relationship
Challenging and between aspects.
4. higher order thinking  Each question constructed should have a
type of questions requirement for students to apply knowledge to new
situations.

 The complete marking scheme should be prepared

Marking scheme together with questions.
5. prepared for the  For essay question (open response question),
questions sample of argument should be
suggested/recommended.

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7.0 Guide on the Technical Aspects
7.1 Format
 Final examination paper should be typed according to the latest template
provided by faculty/UTHM in terms of page setup, spacing and numbering
system.
7.2 Font
 Malay/ English font Times New Roman and size 12

7.3 The use of punctuation marks, capital/ small letters:

 Assignment/question in the form of questions ended with a question mark (?)
 Assignment/question in the form of complete sentence ended with a full stop.
 Assignment/question in an incomplete sentence ended without any punctuation.
 All optional answers are not necessary to end with a full stop.
 Capital letters are used in the beginning of the sentence, noun, after punctuation,
after the question mark, the beginning of each graphs/figures and a selection of
multiple choice answers questions.
 Lowercase is used in the beginning of each of the questions and answers
questions for amalgamation of objectives in the form of complementary.

 7.4 General Guideline

 Start the page number on the second page at centre of the footer. First page
number should not be printed even though the page is included in the calculation
of the pages.
 Header No. code: BWB22502 (example) should be written on the left side of
each page of question papers.
 Front page of the booklet for all final examination papers should be in English.
 The word CONFIDENTIAL should be placed at the header on the left side of
the front page booklet and on the right side of the footer on each page in the
booklet by using font Times New Roman (16).
 All the figures and tables should be provided at the appendix of the booklet.
 At the end of each booklet, the answer recommendations and scoring scheme,
CONFIDENTIAL is written.
 The examination paper must end with “-END OF QUESTIONS-” by using
font Times New Roman (12) and centred.
 Question number is assigned to each question correctly and bold, e.g.: Q5.
 The body of the questions should be justified.
 The marks should be placed at the end of each question. It should be left aligned
and written as (2 marks).
 Figures and Tables should be separated from the main text. The label should
follow the question numbering and bold, e.g.: Figure Q2(a).

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  Please refer to APPENDIX C on the template of final examination questions.
 APPENDIX D, APPENDIX E, APPENDIX F, APPENDIX G and
APPENDIX H are examples of final examination paper of BWA, BWC, BWD,
BWW and BWQ programs respectively.

8.0 Marking Scheme and Rubric

Marking scheme is a document that contains answers and guideline to award marks based
on the student’s responses and the scores division for each answer. Marking involves a
process of determining a score for each response given by the students. Therefore, it is
important to indicate clearly the detailed aspects that are required in a task item. An ideal
structure of the answers should also be included as a reference for the examiner when
considering marks for the students. Guidelines and examples of answers will help the
examiners to examine consistently and fairly.
The marking scheme must meet the requirements of the question and has high objective
characteristics. This means that the scores assigned to each question is consistent by all
examiners. To ensure the objectivity standard, the marking scheme needs to state the rules
of scoring in detail. The marking scheme comprises various examples and answers where
scores are given for each fact/content and description for a structured item question. For
example, if Question 1 has 2 parts, 1(a) and 1(b) in which an overall score of 20. Scoring
stated as follows and is written on the bottom right of answer.

Example Question 1(a):

1 fact / content x 1 mark = 1 mark
1 fact + description x 2 = 2 marks
5 facts + description x 2 = 10 marks
Grand Total = 10 marks

Example Question 1(b):

1 fact / content x 1 mark = 1 mark
1 fact + description x 2 = 2 marks
5 facts + description x 2 = 10 marks
Total = 10 marks
Grand Total = 20 marks

Subjective item (Limited responses item and Open response items) encompasses marking
scheme consisting of answer examples, guidelines and scoring rubric for scoring student’s
responses for each assignment in every item.

20
8.1 Marking methods

i. Analytic method

 Marks are given according to the facts determined for a particular item
regardless of the quality of overall response.
 The marks are allocated for each fact.
 The total marks will determine the student’s performance compared to the other
students.

ii. Holistic method

 Scores will take into account the quality of overall response based on a
predetermined standard.
 Qualities that should be considered in determining the standard must be initially
identified, then the level of achievement is later decided, which is known as the
grade (Example: A+, A, A-, B+, B, B-,C+).
 Examiners should evaluate the answers by reading it as a whole and then, decide
the grade based on the standards set.
 Range of marks must be provided for each standard grade (Example: A+ = 85%
- 100%).

8.2 Scoring rubric for limited response item and open response item
The rubric is a procedure and a set of criteria established for the purpose of evaluating
student’s work or performance in an answer. A rubric will detail the expected responses in
skills that are being evaluated as shown in Table 6 and 7.

Table 6: Examples of expected responses for the evaluated skills

No Skills Description
 Specific facts-terminology, facts, ways, sequence, trends,
Content categorization, methodology theory, principles, structures
1
Knowledge and generalization.

21
  Demonstrate the ability to translate from one form to
another (transformation/translation).
 Demonstrate how to answer questions with their own
approach.
Conceptual  Interpret the meaning of the key issues or key words in the
2 question/assignment.
Comprehension
 Extrapolate by extending particular points from available
information.
 Extend the information given to the future or the past
based on their own expectation.

 Apply one’s knowledge, skills, and understanding to a

particular situation.
 Provide examples of experience in providing their
argument.
 Explain the reasons, factors or elements involved in an
issue that was discussed.
Critical Thinking  Explain the relationship of the issues that was discussed.
3
Process  Discuss the current scenario in the organization.
 Resolve issues and ability to make suggestions for
improvement.
 Clarify own stand regarding particular issue that was
discussed together with the assessment criteria used.
 Describe the impact and consequences by stating their
own opinion to support the conclusion of each argument.

Communication  Present a clearly organized set of ideas.

4
Skills  Write ideas with clarity, coherently and systematically

Table 7: Holistic marking rubric example

Grade Scale 100 Descriptors

marks
 Demonstrate an accurate and comprehensive
understanding of the question.
 Comprehend upon the relevant content.
 Apply many arguments with examples and data to
A+ 85-100
supports the conclusion.
 Answer accurately and communicate ideas brilliantly.
 Comprehend interpretation and progress coherent
logical ideas.
 Demonstrate an accurate and good understanding of
A and A- 75-84
the question.

22
  Comprehend upon the relevant content.
 Apply multiple arguments with examples and data to
supports the conclusion.
 Answer accurately and communicate ideas effectively.
 Interpret clearly and progress logical ideas.
 Demonstrate a good understanding of the question.
 Comprehend averagely upon the relevant content.
B+, B and  Apply few arguments with examples and data to
60-74
B- supports the conclusion.
 Answer fairly accurate and communicate ideas clearly.
 Interpret and process logical ideas fairly.
 Demonstrate a minimum understanding of the
question.
 Comprehend minimally upon the relevant content.
C+, C, C-
40-59  Apply only small number of arguments with examples
and D and support data to the conclusion.
 Progress few inaccuracies in answers and ambiguity in
ideas.
 Interpret ideas weakly.
 Does not demonstrate an understanding of the question.
 Does not address the issues in the questions and a weak
understanding of the relevant content.
E <40  Arguments are not supported with examples and data.
 Many irrelevant arguments, vague answers, and
ambiguous ideas progression.
 Very weak interpretation of ideas.

9.0 Rules of Inspection of Evaluated Examination Answer Scripts

9.1 Objective
 To create uniformity to all FAST academic staffs in evaluating an examination answer
scripts of final examination papers.
 To ensure the legal learning outcome is reliable and flexible parallel with standard,
principles and assessment ethics.

9.2 Moderation of examination answer scripts

Moderation of examination answer scripts is applied to all undergraduate coursework and
postgraduate final examination papers. All departments in the faculty need to plan
moderation process for examination answer scripts for coordination purposes.

23
9.3 Task and responsibility

Task and responsibility to meet the requirements of examination answer scripts are as
follows:

Deputy Dean of academic

 Responsible to ensure the moderation of examination answer scripts is implemented
by the Faculty (if necessary).

Head of department/ panel

 Responsible in monitoring and regulating moderation process smoothly at department/
panel level (if necessary).
 Responsible in providing the form of moderation coordination of examination answer
scripts during moderation process.
 Responsible to store the original/hardcopy form of moderation coordination of see
above example.

Course coordinator
 Responsible to review the marking rule and examination answer scripts with examiners
during moderation process.
 Responsible to ensure that the examination answer scripts are revised by the examiner.
 Responsible to confirm rechecking on an examination answer scripts script.
 Responsible to keep the original/hardcopy forms of coordination of examination
answer scripts in course coordinator file.

Examiner
 Responsible to attend the moderation briefing, collect the examination answer scripts
and final examination papers from course coordinator before moderation process.
 Responsible in inspecting an examination answer scripts within stated duration.
 Fill the form of moderation coordination.
 Give comment/suggestion to revise an examination answer scripts.
 Re-examine an examination answer scripts if ordered.

Second examiner
 Responsible to attend a moderation briefing, collect an examination answer scripts and
question paper from course coordination before moderation process, after first
evaluation by first examiner.
 Fill the form of moderation coordination.
 Give comment/suggestion to revise an examination answer scripts, in case a total marks
is difference > 5 after referring to course coordinator.

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9.4 Rules of moderation of examination answer scripts
1. Examiners must be more than one person.
2. Ensure there is coordination between examiners (first and second/third examiners).
3. Fill the form of moderation coordination by second examiner.
4. Update final examination total marks, and finalize the marks after referring with course
coordinator.

9.5 Guide for evaluating an examination answer scripts during moderation

process
1. Use a red ink pen (first examiner).
2. Use a green ink pen (second examiner).
3. Use a purple ink pen (third examiner, if necessary)

9.6 Guide for moderation of examination answer scripts

Table 8 shows the activities involve in moderation of examination answer scripts, while
Table 9 shows an example of tentative schedule of preparation, approval and submission
of draft final examination paper.

Table 8: Activities in moderation of examination answer scripts.

No Activities Action

1 Appoint a course coordinator Dean

2 Appoint moderation coordinator and examiners Dean

3 Plan vetting meeting in department Head of department

4 Give moderation briefing to all lecturers who are involved. Course coordinator

Take an examination answer scripts and a rule of marking

5 Examiners
scheme (rubrics).
Review a rule of making scheme to be applied as marking
6 Examiners
rule (rubrics) for an examination answer scripts.
Refer to course coordinator (in case of any error on Examiners and
7
marking rule) for marking rule changes confirmation. course coordinator
Make sure that the examination answer scripts are tally
8 Examiners
with every question.

25
 Marking scheme and examination answer scripts sample
Course coordinator
9 that has been confirmed will become a new reference for
the final examination paper.
Recheck the fixed examination answer scripts (choose
three examination answer scripts from three score Examiners and
10
category: a high, a medium and a low) based on a score course coordinator
record by examiner of answer script.

11 Fill a form of coordination of examination answer scripts Examiners

If there is different of total marks ≤ 5, the original marks is

maintained. If total marks difference > 5, the examination
12 answer scripts needs to be revised by second examiner of Examiners
examination answer scripts by referring to rubric or course
coordinator.
Update examination total marks as final/rigid marks after Examiners and
13
approval by examiner committee. Course coordinator

Table 9: Tentative schedule of preparation, approval and submission of final examination

paper

Tentative
No Item Action
Date*

 Faculty issues to prepare final

examination paper
 Discussion and distribution of writing
final examination paper
Week 4-6 Faculty
1.  Preparing examination questions
(followed by format)
 Preparing an examination answer
scripts.

Lecturer submits the first final examination

paper to course coordinator. (Moderation Lecturer, examination
2. of examination paper marking scheme for Week 7 coordinator
course teaching by more than one
lecturers.)
Check of the final examination paper for Lecturer, examination
3. the first time by the first examiner and Week 7 coordinator
immediate correction by paper provider

26
 Recheck a revised final examination paper Lecturer, examination
4. by second examiner and immediate Week 7 coordinator
correction by paper provider
Examination
Vetting of the final examination papers at
5. Week 8 coordinator and panel
panel level.
of department
Examination
Vetting of the final examination papers at
6. Week 8 coordinator and head
department level.
of department
Examination
Submit the final examination paper to the
7. Week 8 coordinator of
faculty academic officer.
department
Vetting of the final examination papers at Academic committee
8. the faculty level. Week 9 of faculty
Approval of the final examination paper at Academic committee
9. the faculty level. Week 9 of faculty
Submission of the final examination paper
10. in hardcopy and softcopy with answer Week 10 Course coordinator
scheme to the academic office
Submission of the final examination papers
11. Week 10 Academic office
to PPA state in full first.
*Note: Subject to schedule issued by PPA

10.0 Conclusion
This guideline details procedures for marking student assessment according to MQA
standard. The guideline consists of validity and reliability of assessment, cognitive and
affective domain skills levels, structuring questions and guide on the technical aspects. A
guideline of marking scheme according to rubric and rules of inspection of evaluated
answer scripts is also provided.
11.0 References
1. Guideline to good practices: Assessment of students (2013). Malaysian
Qualifications Agency.
2. Anderson, L.W., & Krathwohl, D.R. (2001). A taxonomy for learning, teaching and
assessing: A revision of Bloom’s Taxonomy of educational objectives. New York:
Longman.
3. Development and Training, Centre for Academic (CAD), UTHM.

27
 APPENDIX A
BLOOM TAXONOMY – original version
(1956) Cognitive levels
Knowledge Comprehension Application Analysis Synthesis Evaluation
the recall of specifics and a type of understanding such that the use of abstractions in particular and breakdown of a communication into its putting together of elements and creates judgments about the value of
universals, the recall of individual knows what is being concrete situations constituent elements or parts such that the parts so as to form a whole material and methods for given purposes
methods and processes, or the communicated & can make use of the relative hierarchy of ideas is made clear
recall of a pattern, structure, or idea being communicated without and/or the relations between ideas
setting necessarily relating it to other expressed are made explicit
material
Synonyms/Elaboration of skill level
Bookmark Arrange Apply Analyse Adapt Appraise
Bullet point Classify Articulate Attribute Animate Argue
Copy Categorise Calculate Advertise Arrange Assess
Define Comment Carry out Appraise Assemble
Check
Describe Convert Change Break down Build
Duplicate Demonstrate Chart Calculate Categorise Critique
Find Describe Choose Categorise Collaborate Criticise
Highlight Discuss Collect Classify Collect Comment
Identify Discover Complete Compare Combine Conclude
Indicate Distinguish Compute Conclude Compile Consider
Label Defend Construct Contrast Compose Convince
Listen Diagram Demonstrate Correlate Construct Decide
List Exemplify Determine Criticise Create
Defend
Locate Explain Discover Debate Design
Match Estimate Display Deconstruct Develop Detect
Memorise Express Employ Deduce Devise Discriminate
Name Extend Execute Determine Direct Estimate
Network Gather Examine Diagram Explain Evaluate
Number Generalise Explain Discriminate Facilitate Grade
Outline Give examples Edit Divide Formulate Hypothesise
Quote Group Experiment Distinguish Generate Judge
Read Infer Illustrate Differentiate Integrate
Justify
Recite Identify Implement Estimate Invent
Record Indicate Interpret Examine Lead Interpret
Recognise Interpret Interview Experiment Manage Measure
Recall Locate Investigate Identify Mix/remix Network
Relate Outline Judge Illustrate Modify Predict
Repeat Paraphrase Load Infer Negotiate Rate
Reproduce Predict Manipulate Inspect Organise Recommend
Retrieve Relate Modify Integrate Originate Reflect
Search Report Operate Inventory Perform
Reframe
Select Restate Organise Linking Plan
State Review Prepare Mind map Produce Review
Tabulate Summarise Present Organise Prepare Revise
Underline Suggest Practise Order Propose Score
Visualising Subscribe Predict Outline Program Select
Translate Produce Point out Publish Summarise
Sketch Prioritise Rearrange Validate
Schedule Question Reconstruct Value
Solve Relate Relate
Translate Select Reorganise
Use Separate Revise
Structure Structure
Solve
Test

28
 APPENDIX B
BLOOM TAXONOMY – revised version (2001)
Cognitive levels
Remembering Understanding Applying Analysing Evaluating Creating
RECALL information EXPLAIN ideas or concepts USE the new knowledge in DIFFERENTIATE between and JUSTIFY an opinion, GENERATE new products, ideas
another familiar situation RELATE constituent parts decision or course of action or ways of viewing things

Synonyms/Elaboration of skill level

Bookmarking Advance searching Acting out Attributing Arguing Adapting
Bullet pointing Annotating Administering Advertising Assessing Animating
Copying Association Applying Appraising Checking Blogging
Defining Boolean search Articulating Breaking down Critiquing Building
Describing Categorising Calculating Calculating Criticising Collaborating
Duplicating Classifying Carrying out Categorising Commenting Composing
Favouring Comparing Changing Classifying Concluding Constructing
Finding Commenting Charting Comparing Considering Designing
Googling Contrasting Choosing Concluding Convincing Developing
Highlighting Converting Collecting Contrasting Debating Devising
Identifying Demonstrating Completing Correlating Defending Directing
Labelling Describing Computing Deconstructing Detecting Facilitating
Liking Differentiating Constructing Deducing Editorialising Filming
Listening Discussing Demonstrating Differentiating Experimenting Formulating
Listing Discovering Determining Discriminating Grading Generating
Locating Distinguishing Displaying Dividing Hypothesising Integrating
Matching Estimating Editing Distinguishing Judging Inventing
Memorising Exemplifying Examining Estimating Justifying Leading
Naming Explaining Executing Explaining Measuring Making
Networking Expressing Experimenting Illustrating Moderating Managing
Numbering Extending Explaining Inferring Monitoring Mixing/remixing
Quoting Gathering Hacking Integrating Networking Modifying
Reading Generalising Implementing Linking Persuading Negotiating
Reciting Grouping Interviewing Mashing Posting Originating
Recording Identifying Judging Mind mapping Predicting Orating
Recognising Indicating Loading Ordering Rating Planning
Recalling Interpreting Operating Organising Recommending Producing
Retelling Inferring Painting Outlining Reflecting Podcasting
Repeating Journaling Playing Planning Reframing Producing
Retrieving Paraphrasing Preparing Pointing out Reviewing Programming
Searching Predicting Presenting Prioritising Revising Publishing
Selecting Relating Running Questioning Scoring Roleplaying
Tabulating Subscribing Sharing Separating Supporting Simulating
Telling Summarising Sketching Structuring Testing Solving
Visualising Tagging Uploading Surveying Validating Structuring,
Tweeting Using Writing

29
 APPENDIX C
CONFIDENTIAL

Times New Roman (16) Bold

UNIVERSITI TUN HUSSEIN ONN MALAYSIA

Times
New
Roman
FINAL EXAMINATION (20) Bold
SEMESTER II
SESSION 2017/2018

COURSE NAME : FOOD ANALYSIS II

COURSE CODE : BWD 20603

PROGRAMME CODE : BWD

Times
EXAMINATION DATE : JUNE 2018 New
Roman
DURATION : 3 HOURS (14)

INSTRUCTION : ANSWERS FIVE (5) QUESTIONS

ONLY
ANSWER FIVE (5) QUESTIONS ONLY (given Times New Roman (14); Bold; All caps
option to choose 5 questions out of 6 questions) Times New Roman (12); Bold; All caps

THIS QUESTION PAPER CONSISTS OF FOUR (4) PAGES

No page number
30
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 CONFIDENTIAL BWD 20603 Times New Roman (10)
Times New Roman (12)

Q1 Space arrangement of triacylglycerol (TAG) crystals or polymorphs plays important

………..……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
1 line spacing
(a) Give FOUR (4) examples of ……….…………………………
(8 marks)
Times New Roman (12); Bold; All caps 1 line
spacing
(b) The towing ………………………………………………………… Figure Q1(b).
If the ………………………………………………………….,
(i) …………………………. Times New Roman (12); Bold;
(ii) ………………………… Sentence case
(ii) ………………………………
(12 marks)
2 lines
spacing
Q2 (a) Determine ………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
(10 marks)

(b) The manufacturer attempts ……………………………….. (see Figure Q2(b)). If

the …………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………..…………………………………………………………..
(10 marks) No
spacing

Q3 (a) List of types ………………………………………..

(4 marks)

(b) Define the ………………………………………….

(4 marks)

(c) Compare and contrast …………………………………………………………

(12 marks)

Q4 (a) Define the term ……………………………………………………..

(2 marks)

(b) Consider
………………………………………………………….………………………….
…..…………………………………………………………………………………
(10 marks)

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1
Page number; Centred; Times New31
Roman (12)
CONFIDENTIAL
(c) The flow …………………………………………………………… Table Q4 (c).
If it is ….…………………………………………………………………………
(8 marks)

Q5 Chromatography has a great impact on all areas of analysis, including in food and food
product analysis. The most ……………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(a) Describe:

(i) …………………..;
(3 marks)

(ii) …………………………...
(3 marks)

(b) Figure Q5 (b) shows the chromatogram of food sample

………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………....

State the separation………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………………………
(14 marks)

Q6 Fats and oils are important ingredients in a variety of foods. They provide specific
functional properties to food products. Relate ………………...............................................
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(20 marks)

Times New Roman (12); Bold; All caps; Centered

- END OF QUESTIONS –

2
32 CONFIDENTIAL
CONFIDENTIAL
Times New Roman (12); Bold; All
FINAL EXAMINATION
caps; Centered

SEMESTER / SESSION : SEM II / 2016/2017 PROGRAMME CODE : BWD

COURSE NAME : FOOD ANALYSIS II COURSE CODE : BWD 20603

Figure Q1(b)

Times New Roman (12); Bold; Centered; Sentence case

Figure Q2(b)

33
CONFIDENTIAL

FINAL EXAMINATION

SEMESTER / SESSION : SEM II / 2016/2017 PROGRAMME CODE : BWD

COURSE NAME : FOOD ANALYSIS II COURSE CODE : BWD 20603

Crude oil Phospholipids content, % FFA content, %

Canola oil 1.80-3.50 0.50-1.50
Palm oil 0.06-0.95 1.00-4.00
Soybean oil 1.00-3.00 0.30-1.10
Coconut oil 0.07-0.98 1.30-3.80

Table Q4(c)

Figure Q5(b)

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 APPENDIX D

CONFIDENTIAL

UNIVERSITI TUN HUSSEIN ONN MALAYSIA

FINAL EXAMINATTION
SEMESTER II
SESSION 2016/2017

COURSE NAME : INVESTMENT ANALYSIS

COURSE CODE : BWA 30503
PROGRAMME CODE : BWA
EXAMINATION DATE : JUNE 2017
DURATION : 3 HOURS
INSTRUCTION : ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

THIS QUESTION PAPER CONSISTS OF SIX (6) PAGES

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CONFIDENTIAL BWA 30503

Q1 (a) Suppose a company pays a dividend at the end of each year. Let Dt denote a
dividend to be paid t years from now, and let P0 represent the present value of the
future dividend stream. Also, let k denote the appropriate risk-adjusted discount
rate. Using the dividend discount model, the present value of a share of this
company’s stock is measured as this sum of discounted future dividends:

D1 D2 D3 DT
P0      .
(1  k ) (1  k ) (1  k )3
2
(1  k )T

It is assumed that the last dividend is paid T years from now. The value of T
depends on the time of the terminal, or last, dividend. Calculate the present value
P0 if T = 3 years and D1 = D2 = D3 = RM100, where the discount rate is k = 10
percent.
(5 marks)

(b) Assume the firm will pay dividends that grow at the constant rate g forever. In
this constant perpetual growth model, stock prices are calculated using the
following formula:

D0 (1  g )
P0  , gk.
kg

Suppose dividends for a particular company are projected to grow at 5 percent

forever. Calculate the value of the stock if the discount rate is 15 percent and the
current dividend is RM10.
(4 marks)

(c) A two-stage dividend growth model assumes that a firm will initially grow at a
rate g1 during a first stage of growth lasting T years and thereafter grow at a rate
g2 during a perpetual second stage of growth. The formula for the two-stage
dividend growth model is stated as follows:

D0 (1  g1 )   1  g1    1  g1   D0 (1  g 2 ) 
T T

P0  1       .
k  g1   1  k    1  k   k  g 2 

Suppose a firm has a current dividend of D0 = RM5, which is expected to

“shrink” at the rate g1 = –10 percent for T = 5 years and thereafter grow at the rate
g2 = 4 percent. With a discount rate of k = 10 percent, calculate the value of the
stock.
(11 marks)

2
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Q2 (a) Suppose that a company has come up with the following dividend forecasts for
the next three years as shown in Table Q2(a).

Table Q2 (a): Dividend Forecasts

Year Expected Dividend (in RM)

1 1.00
2 2.00
3 2.50

After the third year, the dividend will grow at a constant rate of 5 percent per year.
The required return is 10 percent. Calculate the value of the stock today.
(8 marks)

(b) Chain Reaction, Inc., has been growing at a phenomenal rate of 30 percent per
year because of its rapid expansion and explosive sales. It is believed that this
growth rate will last for three more years and that the rate will then drop to 10
percent per year. Chain Reaction’s situation is an example of supernormal growth.
It is unlikely that a 30 percent growth rate can be sustained for any extended
length of time. Given that total dividends just paid were RM5 million, and the
required return is 20 percent.

(i) Calculate the total dividends over the supernormal growth period in order
to value the equity in this company.
(3 marks)

(ii) Calculate the total value of the stock if the growth rate then remains at 10
percent indefinitely.
(9 marks)

3
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CONFIDENTIAL BWA 30503

Q3 (a) One popular technical indicator is called the advance/decline line. This indicator
shows, for some given period, the cumulative difference between advancing
issues and declining issues. Table Q3 (a) contains advance and decline
information for the May 1, 2017, to May 5, 2017, trading week.

Table Q3 (a): Advance/Decline Line Calculation

Issues Issues
Weekday
Advancing Declining
Monday 2,511 809
Tuesday 1,922 1,375
Wednesday 1,233 2,068
Thursday 2,023 1,248
Friday 2,505 815

This cumulative advance/decline number, once plotted, is the advance/decline line.

A downward-sloping advance/decline line would be considered a bearish signal,
whereas an upward-sloping advance/decline line is a bullish signal. Calculate
difference and cumulative difference for these advancing issues and declining
issues.
(10 marks)

(b) Relative strength charts illustrate the performance of one company, industry, or
market relative to another. Consider the following series of monthly stock prices
(in RM) for two hypothetical companies as shown in Table Q3 (b).

Table Q3 (b): Monthly Stock Prices

Month Company A Company B

1 25 50
2 24 48
3 22 45
4 22 40
5 20 39
6 19 38

Compare the performance of Company A with Company B on a relative basis.

Suppose four shares of Company A and two shares of Company B for an
investment of RM100 in each had been purchased.
(10 marks)

4
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CONFIDENTIAL BWA 30503

Q4 (a) Moving averages are used to generate price reversal signals. As the name implies,
a moving average is simply the average closing price of a stock over a fixed
length of time, say 20 days. Moving averages are either simple or exponential. In
a simple moving average, all days are given equal weighting. In an exponential
moving average, more weight is given to the most recently observed price. Market
technicians, like many investors, often believe that the latest price observed for a
stock is the most important piece of information about the stock. Table Q4 (a)
shows the closing price of a stock.

Table Q4 (a): Closing Price

Day Closing Price

1 89.00
2 88.44
3 87.60
4 86.20
5 85.75
6 84.57
7 83.64
8 76.70
9 76.65
10 75.48

(i) Calculate the price for a three-day simple moving average.

(8 marks)

(ii) Calculate the price for a three-day exponential moving average, where
two-thirds of the average weight is placed on the most recent price.
(9 marks)

(b) Market technicians are interested in  because:

(  1) /   0.618 /1.618  0.382

1/   1.000 /1.618  0.618    1

Market technicians use these numbers to predict support and resistance levels. For
example, as a stock increases in value over time, it will occasionally pull back in
value. Suppose a stock has increased from RM40 to RM60, and has recently
begun to fall a bit in value. Calculate the primary and secondary support areas for
the stock.
(3 marks)

5
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CONFIDENTIAL BWA 30503

Q5 (a) Consider the following information as shown in Table Q5 (a).

Table Q5 (a): Rate of Return

State of Probability of Rate of Return If State Occurs

Economy State of Economy Stock A Stock B Stock C
Boom 0.20 0.18 0.48 0.33
Good 0.40 0.11 0.18 0.15
Poor 0.30 0.05 –0.09 –0.05
Bust 0.10 –0.03 –0.32 –0.09

The portfolio is invested 25 percent each in A and C, and 50 percent in B. Hence,

calculate the expected return and the variance for this portfolio.
(15 marks)

(b) In essence, the Value-at-Risk (usually abbreviated VaR) method involves

evaluating the probability of a significant loss. The returns on an investment
follow a normal distribution, then we can state the probability that a portfolio’s
return will be within a certain range. Here, a stock has an annual return mean and
standard deviation of 11 percent and 34 percent, respectively.

Calculate the smallest expected loss in the coming year with a probability of 5
percent. Use Z0.05 = 1.645 in your calculation.
(5 marks)

– END OF QUESTIONS –

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Solution Scheme

Sol Q1 (a)
100 100 100
P0    = 248.69 1M+1M+1M+2M
(1.10) (1.10) (1.10)3
2

Sol Q1 (b)
10(1.05)
P0   105 1M+1M+2M
0.15  0.05

Sol Q1 (c)
5(0.90)   0.90  5
  0.90 5  5(1.40) 
P0  1        6M
0.10  (0.10)   1.10    1.10   0.10  0.04 
= 14.25 + 31.78 4M
= 46.03 1M

Sol Q2 (a)
The price in three years
D (1  g ) 1.05
P3  3  2.50   52.50 2M
kg (0.10  0.05)
The value of the stock today
D1 D2 D3 P3
P0     1M
(1  k ) (1  k ) (1  k ) (1  k )3
2 3

1 2 2.5 52.50
   
(1.10) (1.10) (1.10) (1.10)3
2 3

= 0.91 + 1.65 + 1.88 + 39.44 4M

= 43.88 1M

Sol Q2 (b) (i)

Total dividends (in millions):
Year 1: 5.00 x 1.3 = 6.500 1M
Year 2: 6.50 x 1.3 = 8.450 1M
Year 3: 8.45 x 1.3 = 10.985 1M

Sol Q2 (b) (ii)

The price at Year 3
D (1  g ) 1.10
P3  3  10.985   120.835 millions 2M
kg (0.20  0.10)
The total value of the stock
D1 D2 D3 P3
P0     1M
(1  k ) (1  k ) (1  k ) (1  k )3
2 3

6.50 8.45 10.985 120.835

    1M
(1.20) (1.20)2 (1.20)3 (1.20)3
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= 5.42 + 5.87 + 6.36 + 69.93 4M

= 87.58 millions 1M

Sol Q3 (a)
5M 5M
Issues Issues Cumulative
Weekday Difference
Advancing Declining Difference
Monday 2,511 809 1,702 1,702
Tuesday 1,922 1,375 547 2,249
Wednesday 1,233 2,068 –835 1,414
Thursday 2,023 1,248 775 2,189
Friday 2,505 815 1,690 3,879

Sol Q3 (b)
2M 2M 6M
Company A Company B Relative
Month
(4 shares) (2 shares) Strength
1 100 100 1.00
2 96 96 1.00
3 88 90 0.98
4 88 80 1.10
5 80 78 1.03
6 76 76 1.00

Sol Q4 (a)
8M 9M
Day Closing Three-Day Simple Three-Day Exponential
Price Moving Average Moving Average
1 89.00
2 88.44 88.72
3 87.60 88.35 87.97
4 86.20 87.41 86.79
5 85.75 86.52 86.10
6 84.57 85.51 85.08
7 83.64 84.65 84.12
8 76.70 81.64 79.17
9 76.65 79.00 77.49
10 75.48 76.28 76.15

Sol Q4 (b)
Using the (  – 1)/  ratio, market technicians would predict the primary support area would
occur at 52.36
(60 – 40 = 20; 20 x 0.382 = 7.64; 60 – 7.64 = 52.36). 2M
A similar calculation that uses the 1/  ratio of 0.618 instead of 0.382 results in the secondary
support area of 47.64
(60 – 40 = 20; 20 x 0.618 = 12.36; 60 – 12.36 = 47.64). 1M
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Sol Q5 (a)
Expected return:
Boom: (0.25)(0.18)+(0.50)(0.48)+(0.25)(0.33)=0.3675 2M
Good: (0.25)(0.11)+(0.50)(0.18)+(0.25)(0.15)=0.155 2M
Poor: (0.25)(0.05)+(0.50)(-0.09)+(0.25)(-0.05)=-0.045 2M
Bust: (0.25)(-0.03)+(0.50)(-0.32)+(0.25)(-0.09)=-0.190 2M
Portfolio: (0.20)(0.3675)+(0.40)(0.155)
+(0.30)(-0.045)+(0.10)(-0.190)=0.103 2M
Variance:
(0.20)(0.3675-0.103)2+(0.40)(0.155-0.103)2
+(0.30)(-0.045-0.103)2+(0.10)(-0.190-0.103)2=0.03023 5M

Sol Q5 (b)
P( R  0.11  1.645(0.34))  5% 3M
P( R  0.4493)  5% 2M
We can expect a loss of 44.93% or worse over the next year with a 5% probability

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 APPENDIX E
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UNIVERSITI TUN HUSSEIN ONN MALAYSIA

FINAL EXAMINATION
SEMESTER II
SESSION 2017/2018

COURSE NAME : ELECTRONIC I

COURSE CODE : BWC 10703

PROGRAMME CODE : BWC

EXAMINATION DATE : JUNE/ JULY 2018

DURATION : 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTION : ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

THIS QUESTION PAPER CONSISTS OF SIX (6) PAGES

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CONFIDENTIAL BWC 10703

Q1 (a) (i) What is inductance?

(2 marks)

(ii) By sketching a simple diagram, explain the method of constructing an

inductor.
(3 marks)

(iii) Explain the process of generating induced voltage in an inductor.

(5 marks)

(b) Figure Q1 (b) shows the DC series-parallel circuit. Calculate

(i) total resistance, RT,

(ii) total current, IT,
(iii) current at R3, I3,
(iv) current at R45, I45.
(10 marks)

Q2 (a) What is capacitive reactance, XC?

(2 marks)

(b) Figure Q2 (b) shows the AC circuit in parallel. Determine the

(i) branch current at R, IR,

(ii) branch current at XC, IXc,
(iii) branch current at XL, IXL,
(iv) total current, IT.
(8 marks)

(c) What is the differences between

(i) n-type and p-type semiconductor?

(ii) intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductor?
(4 marks)

(d) (i) Skecth a current-voltage (I-V) characteristics curve for silicon, Si

semiconductor under forward and reverse biased.
(2 marks)

(ii) Explain the I-V characteristics curved as sketched in Q2(d)(i).

(4 marks)

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Q3 (a) Consider the following diode circuit as shown in Figure Q3 (a).

(i) Calculate the current, Ix when diode, D is switched on and off at Vx = ±1V.
Assume the diode is ideal.
(ii) Plot the current-voltage (Ix-Vx) characteristics curve of this circuit.

Given the circuit parameters are R1 = 25 kΩ and R2 = 25 kΩ.

(8 marks)

(b) Figure Q3 (b) shows the input voltage, vs(t) and the output voltage, vo(t) of triangle
wave shape spectrum.

(i) What operation of this diode circuit?

(ii) Analyse the value of the voltage involve with this circuit.
(iii) Design a suitable circuit to generate the triangle wave shape spectrum
(12 marks)

Q4 Figure Q4 shows the DC base bias circuit with Bipolar Juntion Transistor (BJT) which has
β = 100. This circuit has base resistor, RB = 200 kΩ, collector resistor, RC = 1 kΩ and input
voltage, VCC = 15 V. Solve for base current, IB, collector current, IC and collector-emitter
voltage, VCE by using the following assumptions with the aid of circuit diagrams

(i) Cut off

(ii) Saturation
(iii) Active region

Based on these assumptions, evaluate which one is valid and why?

(20 marks)

Q5 (a) List three differences of Junction Field Effect Transistor (JFET) and Bipolar Juntion
Transistor (BJT)
(3 marks)

(b) Figure Q5 (b) shows n-channel Junction Field Effect Transistor (JFET) is
characterized by VDD = 5 V, RD = 2.2 kΩ, RG = 1 MΩ.

(i) Calculate the ID, VDS and VGS for the JFET if, VGS(off) = -8 V and IDSS = 16 mA.
(ii) Determine the range of Q-point values and assume that the JFET has ranges
of VGS(off) = -1 to -7 V and IDSS = 2 to 9 V. Tabulate the VGS (V) value from 0
to -7 with 0.5 increment against ID for sketching maximum transconductance
curve.
(17 marks)

– END OF QUESTIONS –

3
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CONFIDENTIAL BWC 10703

FINAL EXAMINATION

SEMESTER / SESSION : SEM II / 2017/2018 PROGRAMME CODE : BWC

COURSE NAME : ELECTRONICS I COURSE CODE : BWC 10703

Figure Q1(b)

Figure Q2(b)

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CONFIDENTIAL BWC 10703

FINAL EXAMINATION

SEMESTER / SESSION : SEM II / 2017/2018 PROGRAMME CODE : BWC

COURSE NAME : ELECTRONICS I COURSE CODE : BWC 10703

Figure Q3 (a)

Figure Q3(b)

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CONFIDENTIAL BWC 10703

FINAL EXAMINATION

SEMESTER / SESSION : SEM II / 2017/2018 PROGRAMME CODE : BWC

COURSE NAME : ELECTRONICS I COURSE CODE : BWC 10703

Figure Q4

RG= 1 MΩ

Figure Q5 (b)

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 APPENDIX F
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UNIVERSITI TUN HUSSEIN ONN MALAYSIA

FINAL EXAMINATION
SEMESTER I
SESSION 2017/2018

COURSE NAME : OIL AND FATS TECHNOLOGY

COURSE CODE : BWD 30503

PROGRAMME CODE : BWD

EXAMINATION DATE : DECEMBER 2017 / JANUARY 2018

DURATION : 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTION : ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

THIS QUESTION PAPER CONSISTS OF FOUR (4) PAGES

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CONFIDENTIAL BWD 30503

Q1 Oils and fats are the raw materials for varieties of food products in food industries.

(a) Define oils/fats.

(2 marks)

(b) With suitable graphic organizer, differentiate the terms oils and fats in food
industries.
(8 marks)

(c) Write the abbreviated form of each following fatty acids:

(i) -Linolenic acid

(ii) Stearic acid
(iii) Docosahexaenoic acid
(iv) Elaidic acid
(4 marks)

(d) Draw ONE (1) structure of oil that contain any suitable fatty acid of your choice in
Q1(c).
(2 marks)

(e) Choose omega-3 fatty acid in Q1(c).

(4 marks)

Q2 Analytical procedures for oils and fats are driven partly by the desire to identify and
quantify materials being examined in the research laboratory and commercial demands.

(a) Describe briefly FOUR (4) important properties of oil and fat of concern to the food
analyst.
(8 marks)

(b) Figure Q2(b) demonstrate the graph of temperature dependence of the ultrasonic
velocity of fish analogs (A - F) containing the same overall solid-non-fat content, but
different oil content. Rank in descending order the oil content of fish sample A to
F. Justify your answer.
(6 marks)

(c) Pagoh Snack Sdn. Bhd. is a manufacturer of varieties of fried snack and
confectionary. They usually use imported vegetable oil as cooking oil. However,
their earning is become lower due to decreasing value of Malaysian ringgit. So, to
overcome the problem, they decided to change to local supplier for the cooking oil
without jeopardize the quality and customer acceptance. As quality assurance
officer, outline the methodology of sensory evaluation should be conducted before
selection is made.
(6 marks)

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Q3 Reactions of oils and fats could be occurred during processing and storage.

(a) Explain FOUR (4) types of fats deterioration.

(8 marks)

(b) With suitable graphic organizer, compare and contrast between saponification,
peroxide, thiobarbituric acid and iodine value test.
(12 marks)

Q4 Panchor Margarine Sdn. Bhd. produce margarine by using a mixture of olive oil and palm
oil with partial hydrogenation process.

(a) Describe margarine according to Food Act 1983 (Act 281).

(4 marks)

(b) Two form of crystal nucleus was found as the major cause to grainy texture of the
margarine. The crystals structure were identified as POP and StOSt (where P =
palmitic, O = oleic, St = stearic). Predict and draw the stable space arrangement of
each of the crystal structure.
(6 marks)

(c) During hydrogenation process, the company used nickel as catalysts. The condition
for temperature, pressure and agitation speed were set at 400°C, 20 psig and 60 rpm
respectively. Explain how the selection of the condition of the variables can affect
the trans-fat formation in the margarine product.
(10 marks)

Q5 Tangkak Oil Sdn. Bhd. is a manufacturer of palm oil based products that are cooking oil,
margarine and vanaspati. Their plant consists of oil mill processing section and products
manufacturing section. After five years operation they realize that such wastes/ by-products
could be changed to valuable products. As food technology consultant,

(a) Determine and explain FOUR (4) types of promising by-products could be turned to
valuable products might be produced by the factory plant.
(8 marks)

(b) Propose the valuable products that could be obtained from each by-product. Justify
your answer.
(12 marks)

-END OF QUESTIONS –

3 CONFIDENTIAL
CONFIDENTIAL BWD 30503

FINAL EXAMINATION
SEMESTER / SESSION : SEM I / 2017/2018 PROGRAMME : 3 BWD
COURSE : OIL AND FATS TECHNOLOGY COURSE CODE : BWD30503

Figure Q2 (b)

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 APPENDIX G
CONFIDENTIAL

UNIVERSITI TUN HUSSEIN ONN MALAYSIA

FINAL EXAMINATION
SEMESTER I
SESSION 2017/2018

COURSE NAME : TERRESTRIAL ECOLOGY

COURSE CODE : BWJ 20503

PROGRAMME CODE : BWW

EXAMINATION DATE : DECEMBER 2017 / JANUARY 2018

DURATION : 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTION : ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

ONLY

THIS QUESTION PAPER CONSISTS OF FOUR (4) PAGES

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CONFIDENTIAL BWJ 20503

Q1 (a) Define ‘ecology’ and list TWO (2) types of ecological study.
(4 marks)

(b) Based on Figure Q1(b), explain the theory of competitive exclusion.

(6 marks)

(c) Compare TWO (2) types of mutualism.

(4 marks)

(d) Life history strategies is important in determining the success and survival of
population in an ecosystem. Distinguish THREE (3) characteristics of two
types of life history strategies.
(6 marks)

Q2 (a) The Lowland Rain Forest in Malaysia is listed as one of the twelve mega
diversity country in the world. However, due to several human activities such
as deforestation and forest fragmentation, it threatens the biodiversity of this
forest. Explain TWO (2) ways on how habitat conservation through
implementation of protected areas in Malaysia helps in conservation of
biodiversity.
(4 marks)

(b) State THREE (3) characteristics of a Lowland Tropical Rainforest.

(3 marks)

(c) Deforestation is the major cause of habitat fragmentation. Explain THREE (3)
ways on how forest fragmentation affects the organism in Lowland Rain Forest
ecosystem.
(3 marks)

(d) Analyze TWO (2) threats specifically happening to Highland Tropical Rain
Forest.
(4 marks)

(e) Classify THREE (3) forest types in Sabah according to Sabah Forest
Enactment 1968.
(3 marks)

(f) List THREE (3) agencies that are involved in management and conservation of
Highland Rain Forest at National level.
(3marks)

Q3 (a) Limestone rock is made up of TWO (2) types of minerals. Name them.
(2 marks)

(b) Discuss the formation of a sinkhole.

(8 marks)
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(c) Explain your understanding of limestone forest ecosystem.

(4 marks)

(d) Explain the formation of peat swamp forest.

(6 marks)

Q4 (a) (i) State TWO (2) main challenges for plant and animals living in the desert.
(2 marks)

(ii) Describe the adaptations of plants inhabiting the desert.

(3 marks)

(b) Tropical grassland or savannah have a very dry and hot climate. The frequency
of fire is also prevalent in this ecosystem. Besides fire, overgrazing,
desertification and soil erosion is also the problems of this ecosystem. By using
your current knowledge, develop FIVE (5) ideas of sustainable management of
savannah ecosystems.
(10 marks)

(c) (i) Construct TWO (2) ideas on why the productivity is slow in taiga or boreal
forest.
(4 marks)

(ii) State TWO (2) types of tundra ecosystem.

(1 marks)

Q5 (a) Analyze your understanding on mangrove forest.

(10 marks)

(b) Categorize FOUR (4) the permanent forest reserve in Peninsular Malaysia.
(4 marks)

(c) Using your knowledge on land use policy, propose THREE (3) impacts of
unsustainable land use.
(6 marks)

– END OF QUESTIONS –

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FINAL EXAMINATION

SEMESTER/SESSION : SEM I/ 2017/2018 PROGRAMME CODE : BWW

COURSE NAME : TERRESTRIAL ECOLOGY COURSE CODE : BWJ 20503

Figure Q1(b)

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 APPENDIX H
CONFIDENTIAL

UNIVERSITI TUN HUSSEIN ONN MALAYSIA

FINAL EXAMINATION
SEMESTER II
SESSION 2017/2018

COURSE NAME : PROBABILITY & STATISTIC II

COURSE CODE : BWB 10303

PROGRAMME CODE : BWQ

EXAMINATION DATE : JUNE/JULY 2018

DURATION : 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTION : ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

THIS QUESTION PAPER CONSISTS OF FOUR (4) PAGES

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CONFIDENTIAL BWB 10303

Q1 (a) Explain the difference between Binomial distribution and negative Binomial
distribution.
(2 marks)

(b) Explain the difference between Geometric distribution and negative Binomial
distribution.
(2 marks)

(c) Given x “successes” in n trials, construct the maximum likelihood estimate of the
parameter 𝜃 of the Binomial Distribution.
(10 marks)

Q2 (a) Explain the difference between estimator and estimate.

(2 marks)

(b) Suppose a random sample of size n is drawn from the two-parameter normal
probability density function which given as follow:

1 1 𝑥−𝜇 2
− [ ]
𝑓(𝑥, 𝜇, 𝜎) = 𝑒 2 𝜎 , − ∞ < 𝑥 < ∞; −∞ < 𝜇 < ∞; 𝜎
𝜎√2𝜋

(i) Construct the maximum likelihood estimator for the two parameters, 𝜇𝑒 and 𝜎𝑒 .
(11 marks)

(ii) Show that the estimators of 𝜇 and 𝜎 by using method of moments.

(8 marks)

Q3 (a) A soft-drink machine is regulated so that it discharges an average of 200 millilitres

per cup. If the amount of drink is normally distributed with a standard deviation equal
to 15 millilitres,

(i) Compute the probability that the cups will contain more than 224 millilitres.
(5 marks)

(ii) Estimate the probability that a cup contains between 191 and 209 millilitres?
(6 marks)

(iii) How many cups will probably overflow if 230 millilitre cups are used for the
next 1000 drinks?
(4 marks)

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(b) Suppose that only 40% of all drivers in a certain state regularly wear a seat belt. A
random sample of 500 drivers is selected. What is the probability that between 180
and 230 (inclusive) of the drivers in the sample regularly wear a seat belt?
(5 marks)

(c) A sugar refinery has three processing plants, all of which receive raw sugar in bulk.
The amount of sugar that one plant can process in one day can be modeled as having
an exponential distribution with a mean of 4 tons for each of the three plants. If the
plants operate independently, find the probability that exactly two of the three plants
will process more than 4 tons on a given day.
(5 marks)

Q4 (a) A study of the ability of individuals to walk in a straight line (“can we really walk
straight?” Amer. J. of Physical Anthro., 1992:19-27) reported the accompanying data
on cadence (strides per second) for a sample of n=13 randomly selected healthy men.

0.95 0.78 0.85 0.92 0.95 0.93 0.93

0.86 1.00 0.92 0.85 0.81 0.93

Assume that the population distribution of cadence is approximately normal.

(i) Determine a 95% confidence interval for population mean cadence.
(6 marks)

(ii) Estimate a 95% confidence interval for the standard deviation of the
population cadence.
(5 marks)

(b) Assume that the helium porosity (in percentage) of coal samples taken from any
particular seam is normally distributed with true standard deviation 0.75.

(i) Compute a 95% CI for the true average porosity of a certain seam if the
average porosity for 20 specimens from the seam was 4.85 and interpret the
confidence interval you have obtained.
(5 marks)

(ii) How large a sample size is necessary if the width of the 95% interval is to be
0.40?
(4 marks)

(iii) Determine the necessary sample size that will be used to estimate true
average porosity to within 0.2 with 99% confidence?
(4 marks)

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Q5 (a) The accompanying data on cube compressive strength (MPa) of concrete specimens
appeared in the article “Experimental Study of Recycled Rubber-filled High-strength
concrete” (Magazine of concrete res., 2009:549-556).

112.3 97.0 92.7 86.0 102.0

99.2 95.8 103.5 89.0 86.7

The concrete will be used for a particular application unless there is strong evidence
that true average strength is less than 100MPa. Should the concrete be used? Justify
your answer by conduction an appropriate hypothesis testing.
(10 marks)

(b) A random sample of 150 recent donations at a certain blood bank reveals that 82 are
type A blood. Does this suggest that the actual percentage of type A donations is
more than 40%, the percentage of the population having type A blood? Carry out an
appropriate testing to support your answer.
(6 marks)

– END OF QUESTIONS –
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