Directions (1-5): Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to fill the

space provided out of the four alternatives.

Self-confidence is ____________ (1) to almost every element involved in a happy and fulfilling
life. I highlight five key rewards of self-confidence below. Understanding these benefits is
an important first step toward living your best life with confidence.

The more confident you become, the more you’ll be able to calm the voice inside you that
says, “I can’t do it.” You’ll be able to _____________ (2) from your thoughts and take action in
line with your values.

If you’ve suffered from low self-confidence, you’re _______________ (3) familiar with
rumination, or the tendency to mull over worries and perceived mistakes, replaying them
ad nauseam. But by filling up your tank with confidence, you’ll be able to break the cycle of
over-thinking and quiet your inner critic.

______________ (4) confidence means taking small steps that leave a lasting sense of
accomplishment. If you’ve ever learned a language, mastered a skill, reached a fitness goal,
or otherwise overcome setbacks to get to where you wanted to be, you’re well on your way.

As your confidence _____________ (5), you’ll find yourself more driven to stretch your abilities.
“What-if” thoughts will still arise: “What if I fail?” “What if I embarrass myself?” But with
self-assurance, those thoughts will no longer be paralyzing. Instead, you’ll be able to grin
and act anyway, feeling energized by your progress in pursuing goals that mean something
to you.

Q1. Select the most appropriate option for blank No.1.

(a) Establish
(b) Linked
(c) Brining
(d) Controlled

Q2. Select the most appropriate option for blank No.2.

(a) Unhook
(b) Examine
(c) Diverted
(d) Forget

Q3. Select the most appropriate option for blank No.3.

(a) Entirely
(b) Occasionally
(c) Probably
(d) Frankly
Q4. Select the most appropriate option for blank No.4.
(a) Growing
(b) Knowing
(c) Boosted
(d) Building

Q5. Select the most appropriate option for blank No.5.

(a) Grows
(b) Uproot
(c) Reverts
(d) Transform

Q6. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Kick one’s heels
(a) relaxing without any thoughts
(b) wait impatiently to be summoned
(c) to hurt oneself
(d) to hit something in one’s leg
Q7. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct or indirect)
of the given sentence.
She said, “I am having tea.”
(a) She said that she was having tea.
(b) She said that she must be having tea.
(c) She said that she will be having tea.
(d) She said that she could be having tea.

Q8. Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active or passive) form
of the given sentence.
He had caught the thief.
(a) The thief was caught by him.
(b) The thief could have been caught by him.
(c) The thief had been caught by him.
(d) The thief was being caught by him.
Q9. Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
Your baby is crying, please take him.
(a) Your baby is
(b) crying,
(c) please take
(d) him.

Q10. Select the most appropriate word(s) to fill in the blank.

The Gujarat High Court had in May, 2020 ________________ the Rupani administration for
the "alarming number of deaths in Ahmedabad hospitals".
(a) Castigated
(b) Acquitted
(c) Foretold
 (d) Accredited

Q11. There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelled. Find the correctly
spelled word.
(a) Suprintendent
(b) Superintendent
(c) Superintendant
(d) Superentendent

Q12. In the following questions four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly
spelt. Find the incorrectly spelt word.
(a) Luminiscent
(b) Lusciousness
(c) Lavatory
(d) Localization
Directions (13-15): Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for the given words/sentences.

Q13. Involving or showing violence and bloodshed

(a) inundate
(b) gory
(c) sanguine
(d) imbrue

Q14. The action of making amends for something wrong, one has done
(a) reparation
(b) extortion
(c) reclamation
(d) retrieval

Q15. Unable to be destroyed or removed

(a) ineradicable
(b) habit
(c) worn
(d) fixed

Q16. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank in the given sentence.
Children are innocent souls __________ need the right guidance and role models in life.
(a) Which
(b) Why
(c) Who
 (d) What

Directions (17 – 21): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

John Baird is the father of television. British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) of Britain, UK
began the first television service in 1936. By 1939, television broadcasts began in the
United States also. These two countries were clearly ahead in the race. Other countries
began television broadcasting on a wide scale only by the 1950s. Though the second World
War slowed down the rapid development of the new medium, the post war years made up
for it.

The first successful programme in colour was transmitted by Columbia

Broadcasting System (CBS) in the USA in 1953. In today’s world, television has become one
of the most powerful means of mass communication. It can impart education, information
and entertainment. Television has become an integral part of our lives.

Television began in India on 15th September 1959 as an experiment. It offered a two-hour

programme for a week. Initially the authority was AIR. The early programmes on these
experimental broadcasts were generally educational programmes for school children and
farmers. By the 1970s, television centres were opened in other parts of the country also.
Television services were separated from Radio in 1976.

Doordarshan, which was All India Radio’s television arm until then became a separate
department. Each office of All India Radio and Doordarshan were placed under the
management of two separate Director Generals in New Delhi. Finally, its existence came
into being when Doordarshan became a National Broadcaster. It is one of the largest
broadcasting organizations in the world in terms of the infrastructure of studios and
transmitters. Recently it has also started digital Terrestrial Transmitters. Doordarshan is
the only network that is permitted to broadcast television signals domestically. In a
communications breakthrough for Indian Television in July 1995, Doordarshan agreed, for
a US $1.5 million annual fee and 50 percent of advertising revenue when it exceeds US$1.5
million, to allow CNN to broadcast twenty-four hours a day via an Indian satellite. Indian
television channel Doordarshan offers national, regional, and local service for Indian
television viewers. DD became national when it started to telecast national programmes in
the year 1982. In the same year, colour TVs were introduced in the Indian markets.

Several community television sets were distributed as a part of one of the important
landmarks in the history of Indian television, the Satellite Instructional Television
Experiment (SITE). It was conducted between August 1975 and July 1976. Under this
programme, the Indian government used the American satellite ATS-6 to broadcast
educational programmes to Indian villages of six states. The telecasts happened twice a
day, in the morning and evening. In 1982, Doordarshan telecasted the 9th Asian Games
using INSAT 1A satellite.

In 1997, Prasar Bharati, a statutory autonomous body was established. Doordarshan

along with AIR was converted into government corporations under Prasar Bharati.
From its humble beginning as a part of All India Radio, Doordarshan has grown into a
major television broadcaster with around 30 or more channels. This includes Regional
Language Satellite Channels, State Networks, International Channel and All India
Channels like DD National, DD News, DD Sports, DD Gyan darshan, DD Bharati, Lok
Sabha Channel and DD Urdu.

The introduction of communication channels has been a revolution step in bringing so

many private channels in our country. The advent of private channels started in India
on the 1990՚ s after CNN broadcasted The Gulf War. Hong Kong based STAR (Satellite
Television Asian Region) entered into an agreement with an Indian company and Zee
TV was born. It became the first privately owned Hindi satellite channel of India.
Several regional channels also came into being during this period. Apart from the
regional channels, a host of international channels like CNN, BBC and Discovery are
also available to the Indian television audience. With different categories of channels
like 24-hour news channels, religious channels, cartoon channels and movie channels.
There is something for everyone to watch.

TV has been an integral part of our lives. It has influenced our lives in so many ways. We
are now addicted to this mode of entertainment. This has resulted in positive and negative
influences. The availability of multiple channels in regional languages has made television
more popular than any other medium. And the programme producers of the channel cater
to the needs of the people after understanding the taste requirements of their audience.

Q17. As per the passage, which country began the first television service?

(a) United States

(b) India
(c) China
(d) United Kingdom

Q18. As per the passage, which is one of the largest broadcasting organizations in the
world in terms of the infrastructure of studios and transmitters?

(a) Doordarshan
(b) CNN
(c) BBC
(d) Discovery

Q19. As per the passage, television in India began as?

(a) A mode of entertainment

(b) An experiment
(c) A mode of education
 (d) A source of information

Q20. As per the passage, what causes the slowed down the rapid development of the
television?

(a) The post second World War.

(b) The Gulf War.
(c) The second World War.
(d) None of these

Q21.Which of the statement(s) is (are) true as per the context of the passage?

(i) Zee TV became the first privately owned Hindi satellite channel of India.
(ii) Several community television sets were distributed as a part of one of the important
landmarks in the history of Indian television, (SITE).

(iii) In 1976, colour TVs were introduced in the Indian markets.

(a) Both (ii) & (iii)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) Only (iii)

Q22. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct
order.
P. History is narratives.
Q. From chaos comes order.
R. We seek to understand the past by determining and ordering ‘Facts.’
S. From these narratives we hope to explain the decisions and processes which shape our
existence.
(a)RQPS
(b)SPQR
(c)QPSR
(d)PQRS

Q23. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Excessively concerned with minor details or rules.
(a) Arbitrator
(b) Pedantic
(c) Invigilator
(d) Curator

Q24. Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
Food meant for malnourished children from the tribal belt is being siphoned to feed
chicken pigs and cattle.

(a) Food meant for

(b) is being siphoned
(c) from the tribal belt
(d) to feed

Q25. Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active or passive) form
of the given sentence.
Did she remember the date & the venue of the examination?
(a) Are the date & the venue of the examination remembered by her?
(b) Was the date & the venue of the examination remembered by her?
(c) Were the date & the venue of the examination remembered by her?
(d) Did the date & the venue of the examination be remembered by her?

Q26.In the following questions, a sentence or a part of a sentence is made bold. Below
are given alternatives to the bold part which may improve the sentence. Choose the
correct alternative. In case no improvement is required, choose “No Improvement.’’
By the start of 2021, there had been a series of forest fires in Himachal Pradesh, Nagaland-
Manipur border, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat, including in wildlife sanctuaries.
(a) For the start of
(b) No Improvement
(c) Since the start of
(d) Started off

Directions (27-32): Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the
grammatical error.

Q27. Another baffling change that I noticed in Dev now-a-days is that he avoids screaming
on anyone.

(a) Another baffling change that

(b) I noticed in Dev now-a-days is that

(c) he avoids screaming on anyone.

(d) No error

Q28. It is understood that much of the group members were in favour of continuing the
pressure on Pakistan to execute all the measures suggested against funding to banned
terror outfits.
(a) It is understood that much of the group members were

(b) in favour of continuing the pressure on Pakistan to execute

(c) all the measures suggested against funding to banned terror outfits.

(d) No error

Q29. Thirty–five thousand rupees is a large sum of money to earn in a month.

(a) Thirty–five thousand rupees

(b) is a large sum of money

(c) to earn in a month.

(d) No error

Q30. There is no dispute between you and I so we better act maturely to resolve this
situation.

(a) There is no dispute between you

(b) and I so we better act

(c) maturely to resolve this situation.

(d) No error

Q31. I have been working as relationship manager for eight months.

(a) I have been working

(b) as relationship manager

(c) for eight months.

(d) No error
Q32. Some players of the team were opposed to use their money to redecorate the locker
room.

(a) Some players of the team were opposed

(b) to use their money to

(c) redecorate the locker room.

(d) No error

Q33. Identify the best way to improve the bold part of the given sentence. If there is
no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’.

As far as women of India do not take part in public life, there can be no salvation for the
country.
(a) No improvement
(b) No sooner
(c) As long as
(d) As soon as

Q34. In the following question, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can
be substituted for the given words or sentence.
Pertaining to cattle.
(a) Canine
(b) Feline
(c) Bovine
(d) Verminous

Q35. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct or indirect)
of the given sentence.
Anuj said, “I was walking along the Street.”
(a) Anuj said he has been walking along the Street.
(b) Anuj said he would be walking along the Street.
(c) Anuj said he might be walking along the Street.
(d) Anuj said he had been walking along the Street.

Q36. Select the most appropriate idiom (in the context) to fill in the sentence.
Many people ________________ when they lost their job in the pandemic.
(a) Bit the dust
(b) Decked up
(c) Out of the wood
(d) Went to the moon

Q37. Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
Fish and chips are the favourite dish of many people in Britain.
(a) Fish and chips
(b) many people
(c) in Britain.
(d) are favourite

Q38. Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active or passive) form
of the given sentence.
Indian bowlers thrashed Pakistan batsmen.
(a) Pakistan batsmen are thrashed by the Indian bowlers.
(b) Pakistan batsmen were thrashed by the Indian bowlers.
(c) Pakistan batsmen were being thrashed by the Indian bowlers.
(d) Pakistan batsmen are being thrashed by the Indian bowlers.

Q39. Select the most appropriate idiom (in the context) to fill in the sentence.
Rajesh ___________________ to get a job.
(a) Bite the bullet
(b) Strained every nerve
(c) Can’t cut the mustard
(d) Doing the rounds

Q40. Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
As Poland's Constitutional Court declared the Polish Constitution superior than EU laws,
France is reportedly planning to slap sanctions.
(a) reportedly planning
(b) Constitution superior
(c) than EU laws
(d) No error

Q41. ହାତ କରି ବା – ଏହି ରୂଢି ଟି ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ ?

(A) କକୌଶଳକର ଆୟତ୍ତ କରି ବା
(B) କକୌଶଳକର ଜଞ୍ଜାଳ ଗ୍ରସ୍ତ କରାଇବା
(C) କକୌଶଳକର ଜୀବିକାରୁ ଉକେଦ କରି ବା
(D) କେହୁ ରା କହବା

Q42. େିମ୍ ନଲି ଖତ

ି ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କକଉଟିଁ ଠିକ୍ େୁ କହ ?ଁ
(A) ଉଦୟ-ଅସ୍ତ
(B) ଉଢ-ଅେୁ ଢ଼
(C) ଉତ-ଅେୁ ତ
(D) ଇଷ୍ଟ- ଅବିଷ୍ଟ

Q43. ଆମିସ୍କାର – ଏଠାକର କି ପ୍ରକାର ଅଶୁଦ୍ଧି ଅଛି ?

(A) ବିକଶଷ୍ୟ ଗତ
(B) ଣତ୍ବବିଧ ି ଗତ
(C) ଷ୍ତ୍ବବିଧ ି ଗତ
(D) ଲି ଙ୍ଗଗତ

Q44. େିମ୍ ନଲି ଖତ

ି ପଦ ମାେଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଭୁଲ ବିକଶଷ୍ୟ ରୂପ ଚିହ୍ନାଅ |
(A) ସ୍ଥଳ
(B) ଲାଘବ
(C) ଘାତ
(D) କୃତି

Q45.'ମହା+ଓଜ' ମିଶ ି କକଉ ଁ ଶବ୍ଦ କହବ ?

(A) ମଜ୍ଜା
(B) ମଉଜ଼
(C) ମକହୌଜ
(D) ମହାଜ

Q46. _______ + ତେ = ପ୍ରାକ୍ତେ | ଶୂେୟ ସ୍ଥାେ ପୂରଣ କର |

(A) ପ୍ରା
(B) ପ୍ରାକ୍
(C) ପାକ
(D) ପୃଅ

Q47.'ବୀଣାପାଣି' – ଏହା କି ପ୍ରକାର ସମାସ ଅକଟ ?

(A) ବହୁ ବ୍ରୀହି
(B) ଉପମିତକମଥ ଧାରୟ
(C) ଅବୟୟୀଭାବ
(D) ଦ୍ୱିଗ ୁ

Q48. ବିଶାଖା + ଅ = କବୈଶାଖ | ଏର୍ ିକର 'ଅ' ପ୍ରତୟୟ ଟି କକଉ ଁ ଅର୍ଥକର କହାଇଛି ?
(A) ଭାବ ଅର୍ଥକର
(B) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ଅର୍ଥକର
(C) ଯୁକ୍ତ ଅର୍ଥକର
(D) ସ୍ୱାର୍ଥ ଅର୍ଥକର

Q49. ଅମ୍ବାେୀ ଭାଇ ଜକଣ ଧେୀ କଲାକ | ଏହିବାକୟ କର 'ଧେୀ' କି ପ୍ରକାର ବିକଶଷ୍ଣ ?
(A) ବିକଶଷ୍ଣର ବିକଶଷ୍ଣ
(B) ବିକଶଷ୍ୟର ବିକଶଷ୍ଣ
(C) ବିକଧୟ ବିକଶଷ୍ଣ
(D) ସବଥୋମ ବିକଶଷ୍ଣ

Q50. ପ୍ରସ୍ତୁ ତ କହାଇ ରହିବା – ଏହି ଅର୍ଥପ୍ରକାଶ କରୁର୍ ିବା ରୂଢିଟି କଣ ?

(A) କଗାଡ କଟକି ବସି ବା
(B) କାେକର ହାତ କଦବା
(C) ଗାଲକର ହାତ କଦବା
(D) କାମକର ହାତ କଦବା

Q51. ବିପରୀତାର୍ଥକ ଶବ୍ଦ କକଉଟିଁ - ଅେନ୍ତ ?

(A) ଅନ୍ତ
(B) ପ୍ରଶାନ୍ତ
(C) ଚିରନ୍ତେ
(D) ସାନ୍ତ

Q52. ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ବୋେ ଟି ବାଛ |

(A) ଶିକ୍ଷୟତ୍ରୀ
(B) ସି କ୍ଷୟି ତ୍ରୀ
(C) ଶିକ୍ଷୟି ତ୍ରି
(D) ଶିକ୍ଷୟି ତ୍ରୀ

Q53. ଦୃ ଶ ୍ + ତି = ________ | ଶୂେୟସ୍ଥାେ ପୂରଣ କର |

(A) ଦୃ ଷ୍ଟ
(B) ଦୃ ଷ୍ଟି
(C) ଦୃ ଶୟଟି
(D) ଦୃ ଶୟମାେ

Q54. 'ଘରମହଁୁ ା' – ଏହି ସମସ୍ତପଦ ଟିର ବୟାସବାକୟ କ'ଣ କହବ ?

(A) ଘରକୁ ମହଁୁ ା
(B) ଘରଆକଡ ମହଁୁ ା
(C) ଘରର ମହଁୁ ା
(D) ଘରପାଇ ଁ ମହଁୁ ା

Q55. କକଉଟିଁ 'ଆକାଶ' ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ େୁ କହ ?ଁ

(A) କବୟାମ
(B) େଭ
(C) ତଡିତ୍
(D) ଖ

Q56. ପାଠୁ ଆ – ଏର୍ ିକର ର୍ ିବା ପ୍ରତୟୟ ଟି କଣ ?

(A) ଠୁ ଆ
(B) ଉଆ
(C) ଇଆ
(D) ଆ
Q57. କକଉ ଁ ସନ୍ଧିଟି ଠିକ ?
(A) ସ୍ୱ + ଇୋ
(B) କବବ + ୋ
(C) ସ୍ୱ + ଆୋ
(D) କବବ + ଇୋ

Q58. 'କଚତୁ ଆଳ' କି ପଦ ?

(A) ସନ୍ଧିପଦ
(B) ତଦ୍ଧିତ
(C) କୃଦନ୍ତ
(D) କମୌଳିକ

Q59. ଧ ିକ ଆମର ବିକବକ କୁ – ଏହି ଉକ୍ତି ର କଶଷ୍କର କକଉ ଁ ଚିହ୍ନଟି କଦବା ?

(A) ?
(B) ,
(C) !
(D) |

Q60. ସୁୋମ ଅଜଥେ କରି ବା ଅର୍ଥକର େିକମ୍ନାକ୍ତ କକଉ ଁରୂଢିଟି ପ୍ରଯୁଜୟ ?

(A) ୋ ଁ କରି ବା
(B) ୋ ଁ ରଖ ିବା
(C) ୋ ଁ ପକାଇବା
(D) କକଉଟିଁ େୁ କହ ଁ

Q61. ଅକମଳ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ବାଛ |

(A) ରାତ୍ରି
(B) ରାତି
(C) ରଜେୀ
(D) ଅରାତି

Q62. କକଉଟିଁ 'ଜୀବିତ' ଶବ୍ଦର ବିପରୀତ ଅର୍ଥ କବାଧକ ଶବ୍ଦ ?

(A) ଅଦ୍ଧଥମତୃ
(B) ମୃତପ୍ରାୟ
(C) ମୃତ
(D) ମୃତବତ

Q63. କକଉଟିଁ ବିବୃତିସଚୂ କ ବାକୟ ?

(A) ମଲ୍ଲୀଫୁ ଲ ରାତିକର ଫୁ କଟ |
(B) ମଲ୍ଲୀର ମହକ କକକଡ ମଧୁର !
(C) ଏ ମଲ୍ଲୀଫୁ ଲ କକଉଠୁଁ ପାଇଲ ?
(D) ତୁ କମ ମଲ୍ଲୀଫୁ ଲ ଛିଣ୍ଡାଇବା ଉଚିତ େୁ କହ |ଁ

Q64. କଯଉଟିଁ ବିକଶଷ୍ଣ େୁ କହ ଁ ଚିହ୍ନାଅ |

(A) ବର୍ଣ୍ଥେୀୟ
(B) ବିଜୟୀ
(C) କଲେଶ
(D) ଅକମଥଣୟ

Q65. େିକମ୍ନାକ୍ତ କକଉ ଁ ଶବ୍ଦଟି 'ପଦ୍ମ' ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ?

(A) ରାଜୀବ
(B) ଅରୁଣ
(C) ସଲି ଳ
(D) ସମୀର

େିମ୍ ନଲି ଖ ିତ ଅେୁ କେଦ ପଢି ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ (66 - 70) ର ଉତ୍ତର ଦିଅନ୍ତୁ |

ବାଳକ-ବାଳିକା ମାେଙ୍କୁ ପଠେ, ଲି ଖେ ଓ ଗଣିତ ଶିକ୍ଷା କଦବାକୁ ପ୍ରାର୍ମିକ ଶିକ୍ଷା କହନ୍ତି | ଚାଷ୍ୀ ସତ୍ ଉପାୟ କର
ମୁଣ୍ଡଝାଳ ତୁ ଣ୍ଡକର ମାରି ତାହାର ଜୀବିକାଜଥେ କକର | ସଂସାର ବିଷ୍ୟକର ତାହାର ସାଧାରଣ ଜ୍ଞାେ ର୍ାଏ | େିଜର
ପି ତାମାତା, ସ୍ତ୍ରୀ, ସନ୍ତାେ, ସାର୍ୀ ଗ୍ରାମବାସୀ ମାେଙ୍କ ସହ କିପରି ବୟବହାର କରି ବାକୁ ହୁ ଏ ତାହା କସ ଜାକଣ | କେୈତିକ
େିୟମମାେ କସ ଜାକଣ ଏବଂ ପାଳେ କକର | ମାତ୍ର କସ େିଜର ୋମ କଲଖ ି ଜାକଣ ୋହି |ଁ ତାକୁ ଅକ୍ଷର ଜ୍ଞାେ କଦଇ
ତାହାର କ'ଣ କରି ପାରି କବ କବାଲି ଆପଣ ଭାବୁ ଛନ୍ତି ?ଆପଣ ତାହାର ସୁଖକର କାଣିଚାଏ କଯାଗ କରି କବ କି
?ତାହାର କୁଡିଆଘର ଓ ଆପଣାର ଭାଗୟବିଷ୍ୟ କର ଆପଣ ତାହା ମେକର ଅସକନ୍ତାଷ୍ ଜନ୍ାମ ଇବାକୁ ଚାହାନ୍ତି କି
?ଆପଣ ତାହା କରି ବାକୁ ଚାହୁ ର୍ଁ ିକଲ ସୁଦ୍ଧା, ଚାଷ୍ୀ ଏପରି ଶିକ୍ଷା ଚାକହ ଁ ୋହି |ଁ ପାଶ୍ଚାତୟ ବିଚାର ବେୟାକର ଭାସି ଯାଇ
ଆକମ ସପକ୍ଷ ଓ ବିପକ୍ଷକର ଯୁକ୍ତି ଗୁଡିକ ଓଜେ େ କରି ଆକମ ସି ଦ୍ଧାନ୍ତ କରି ପକାଉଛୁ କଯ କଦଶବାସୀଙ୍କୁ ଏହି ଶିକ୍ଷା
କଦବା ଉଚିତ ଅକଟ |
ବତ୍ତଥମାେ ଉଚ୍ଚଶିକ୍ଷାର କର୍ା ବିଚାର କରାଯାଉ | ମ ଁୁ ଭୂକଗାଳ, ଗଣିତ, କଜୟାତିଷ୍, ବୀଜଗଣିତ, ଜୟାମିତି ଆଦି ପଢିଛି |
କସର୍ ିକର କମାର କ'ଣ କହାଇ ଯାଇଛି ? ମ ଁୁ ଏ ସବୁ ପଢିବା ଦ୍ୱାରା କମା େିଜର ବା ପକଡାଶୀ ମାେଙ୍କର କି ଉପକାର
କହାଇଛି ? ଅଧ୍ୟାପକ ହକଲେ ଶିକ୍ଷାର ସଂଜ୍ଞା େିମ୍ ନ ମକତ କଦଇଛନ୍ତି କଯ; କିକଶାର ଅବସ୍ଥାକର ଏପରି ତାଲି ମ ପାଇଛି
କଯ ତାହାର ଶରୀର େିଜର ଇୋଶକ୍ତି ର ସଦା ଆଜ୍ଞାବହ : କଗାଟିଏ ଯନ୍ତ୍ର ଭାବକର କଦହ ଯାହା କରି ବାକୁ ସମର୍ଥ
ତାହା କସ ଅୋୟାସକର ଓ ଆେନ୍ଦକର କରି ଯାଉର୍ାଏ, ଯାହାର ବୁ ଦ୍ଧି ସ୍ୱେ, ଶାନ୍ତ (ଉକତ୍ତଜୋ ଶୁେୟ) ତକଥର ଇଂଜିେ୍
ଏବଂ କଯଉ ଁ ଇଂଜିେ୍ ର ସକଳ ଅଙ୍ଗ ସମାେ ଶକ୍ତି ଯକ୍ତ ୁ ଓ ସୁନ୍ଦର କାଯଥୟକାରୀ ଅବସ୍ଥାକର ଅଛି, ପ୍ରକୃତିର କମୌଳିକ
ସତୟ ଗୁଡିକର ଜ୍ଞାେକର ଯାହାର ମାେସ ପରି ପର୍ଣ୍ ୂ ଥ, ଯାହାର ପ୍ରବଳ ଇୋଶକ୍ତି ଉଗ୍ରବାସୋ ଗୁଡିକୁ େିଜର ଆୟତ୍ତକର
ରଖ ିପାରି ଛି, କଯ କକାମଳ ବିକବକର ଶାସେ ଦ୍ୱାରା କସଗୁଡକ ି ୁ ବଶକରି ରଖ ି ଅଛି, କସ ସକଳ ପ୍ରକାର େୀଚତାକୁ
ଘୃଣା କକର ଏବଂ ଅେୟକୁ ଆପଣା ପରି ସମ୍ମାେ ଦିଏ- ଏପରି ବୟକ୍ତି ଯର୍ାର୍ଥ କର ଉଦାର ଶିକ୍ଷାଲାଭ କରି ଛି କବାଲି ମ ଁୁ
କହିବି ୋହି |ଁ କାରଣ କସ (ପ୍ରକୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷାର ବୟକ୍ତି ) ପ୍ରକୃତି ସହ ଐକୟସ୍ଥାପେ କରି ପାରି ଛି | କସ ପ୍ରକୃତିର ଓ ପ୍ରକୃତି
ତାହାର ସକବଥାକୃଷ୍ଟ ବୟବହାର କରି ପାରି ବ |
ଏହାକୁ ହି ଁଯଦି ଯର୍ାର୍ଥ ଶିକ୍ଷା କୁହାଯାଏ, କତକବ କଯଉ ଁବିଜ୍ଞାେ ଗୁଡିକର କର୍ା କହିଲି, କମାର ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରିୟ ଗୁଡିକୁ ସଂଯତ
କରି ବା ପାଇ ଁ ମ ଁୁ କସଗୁଡିକୁ ବୟବହାର କରି ପାରି ୋହି |ଁ କତଣୁ ପ୍ରାର୍ମିକ ଶିକ୍ଷା କହଉ ବା ଉଚ୍ଚଶିକ୍ଷା କହଉ, ଅସଲ
ଉକେଶୟ ପାଇ ଁ ଏହା କଲାଡା ୋହି |ଁ ଏ ସବୁ ଆମକୁ ମଣିଷ୍ କରାଇପାରି ବ ୋହି |ଁ ଆପଣା କତ୍ତଥବୟ କରି ବାକର ଏହା
ଆମକୁ ଅଧ ିକ ସମର୍ଥ କରି ପାରି ବ ୋହି |ଁ
Q66. କଲଖକଙ୍କ ମତକର ପାଶ୍ଚାତୟ ଶିକ୍ଷା ଦିଆଗକଲ କ'ଣ କହବ ?
(A) ଚାଷ୍ୀର ମଙ୍ଗଳ କହବ |
(B) କେୈତିକତାର ପୁେରୁତର୍ାେ କହବ |
(C) ସାଧାରଣ ଜେତାର ବିକଶଷ୍ ଉପକାର କହବ ୋହି |ଁ
(D) ସମକସ୍ତ ଶିକ୍ଷିତ କହାଇଯି କବ |

Q67. ପ୍ରକୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷିତ ବୟକ୍ତି ଟି କଣ କରି ପାରି ବ ?

(A) ପ୍ରକୃତିର କହାଇପାରି ବ ଓ ପ୍ରକୃତି ତାହାର କହବ |
(B) ପ୍ରକୃତିକୁ ଆପଣାର ଆୟତ୍ତକର ରଖପ ି ାରି ବ |
(C) ତା'ର ପ୍ରବଳ ଇୋଶକ୍ତି ଓ ଉଗ୍ର ବାସୋ ଜାଗ୍ରତ କହବ |
(D) କସ ସମସ୍ତଙ୍କୁ ଘୃଣାକରି କକବଳ ଶିକ୍ଷିତ ବୟକ୍ତି ଙ୍କ ସହ ରହିବ |

Q68. 'କଯ କକାମଳ ବିକବକର ଶାସେ ଦ୍ୱାରା କସଗୁଡିକୁ ବଶ କରି ରଖଛ ି ି, କଯ ସକଳ ପ୍ରକାର େୀଚତା କୁ ଘୃଣା
କକର ଏବଂ ଅେୟକୁ ଆପଣା ପରି ସମ୍ମାେ ଦିଏ – ଏପରି ବୟକ୍ତି ଯର୍ାର୍ଥକର ଉଦାର ଶିକ୍ଷାଲାଭ କରି ଛି କବାଲି ମ ଁୁ କହିବି
|' ଏହା କକଉ ଁ ପ୍ରକାର ବାକୟ ?
(A) ସରଳ
(B) କଯୌଗି କ
(C) ମିଶ୍ର
(D) ଜଟିଳ

Q69. "ତାହାର କୁଡିଆଘର ଓ ଆପଣା ର ଭାଗୟ ବିଷ୍ୟକର ତାହାର ମେକର ଅସକନ୍ତାଷ୍ ଜନ୍ାମ ଇବାକୁ ଚାହାନ୍ତି
ଁ କି ?"
ଏହି ବାକୟକର କରଖାଙ୍କି ତ 'ଆପଣାର' କି ପ୍ରକାର ସବଥୋମ ?
(A) ଆତ୍ମବାଚକ
(B) ପୁରୁଷ୍ବାଚକ
(C) ଆକପକ୍ଷି କ
(D) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବାଚକ

Q70. େିକମ୍ନାକ୍ତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କକଉଟିଁ 'ସଂଯତ' ର ଅର୍ଥପ୍ରକାଶ କରୁଅଛି ?

(A) ଜିକତନ୍ଦ୍ରିୟ
(B) ସଂଶୟ
(C) େିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ
(D) ସ୍ଥିରମୋ

େିମ୍ ନକର ଦିଆଯାଉର୍ ିବା ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ େଂ (71-75) କର ର୍ ିବା ଇଂରାଜୀ ବାକୟର ସଠିକ୍ ଓଡିଆ ଅେୁ ବାଦ କର |

Q71. India's population is growing rapidly.

(A) ଭାରତର ଜେସଂଖୟା ଦ୍ରୁତଗତିକର ବଢିଚାଲି ଛି |
(B) ଭାରତର ଜେସଂଖୟା କ୍ଷି ପ୍ରଗତିକର ବଢିଚାଲି ଛି |
(C) ଭାରତର ଜେସଂଖୟା ଦ୍ରୁତଗତିକର କମିଚାଲି ଛି |
(D) ରାଜୟର ଜେସଂଖୟା ଦ୍ରୁତ ଗତିକର ବଢିଚାଲି ଛି |

Q72. The wind always blows from the South in Spring.

(A) ଶୀତ ଋତୁ କର ସବଥଦା ଦକ୍ଷି ଣ ଦିଗକୁ ପବେ ବକହ |
(B) ବସନ୍ତ ଋତୁ କର କବକଳକବକଳ ଦକ୍ଷିଣ ଦିଗକୁ ପବେ ବକହ |
(C) ଶରତ ଋତୁ କର ସବଥଦା ଉତ୍ତର ଦିଗକୁ ପବେ ବକହ |
(D) ବସନ୍ତ ଋତୁ କର ସବଥଦା ଦକ୍ଷିଣ ଦିଗକୁ ପବେ ବକହ |

Q73.Radhanath enjoyed the beauty of the lake Chilika.

(A) ରାଧାୋର୍ ଚିଲିକା ଯାଇ ରୂପ କସୌନ୍ଦଯଥୟ ଉପକଭାଗ କକଲ |
(B) ରାଧାୋର୍ଙ୍କ ଚିଲିକାର ରୂପ କସୌନ୍ଦଯଥୟ ଉପକଭାଗ କକଲ |
(C) ରାଧାୋର୍ ଚିଲିକା ର ରୂପ କସୌନ୍ଦଯଥୟ ଉପକଭାଗ କକଲ |
(D) ରାଧାୋର୍ ଚିଲିକା ର ରୂପ କସୌନ୍ଦଯଥୟ କଦଖକି ଲ |

Q74. This country of ours was ones most prosperous.

(A) ଆମର ଏଇ ରାଜୟ ଦିକେ ସମୃଦ୍ଧିଶାଳୀ ର୍ ିଲା |
(B) ଆମର ଏଇ କଦଶ ଦିକେ ସମୃଦ୍ଧିଶାଳୀେ ର୍ ିଲା |
(C) ଆମର ଏଇ କଦଶ ଦିକେ ସମୃଦ୍ଧଶାଳୀ ର୍ ିଲା |
(D) ଆମର ଏଇ କଦଶ ଦିକେ ସମୃଦ୍ଧିଶାଳୀ ର୍ ିଲା |

Q75. Independence Day is a national festival.

(A) ଗଣତନ୍ତ୍ର ଦିବସ ଏକ ଜାତୀୟ ପବଥ |
(B) ସ୍ୱାଧୀେତା ଦିବସ ଏକ ଅନ୍ତଥଜାତୀୟ ପବଥ |
(C) ସ୍ୱାଧୀେତା ଏକ ଜାତୀୟ ପବଥ |
(D) ସ୍ୱାଧୀେତା ଦିବସ ଏକ ଜାତୀୟ ପବଥ |

Q76.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
Q77. The ratio of two numbers A and B is 5: 8. If 25 is added to each of A and B. then the
ratio of A and B becomes 2: 3. The sum of A and B is:
(a) 342
(b) 325
(c) 391
(d) 378
Q78. Mukul saves 25% of her income. If her expenditure increases by 20% and her income
increases by 29%, then her savings increase by:

(a) 70%
(b) 52%
(c) 65%
(d) 56%

Q79.
(a) 14.22
(b) 15.22
(c) 13.22
(d) 12.22

Q80.If a : b = 5 : 7, b : c = 8 : 15, then find the value of 8c : 5a.

(a) 8 : 21
(b) 21 : 5
(c) 176 : 65
(d) 24 : 5

Q81. The amount of Rs. 15000 compounded annually with the rate of interest being 5%
during the first year and 12% per annum during the second year. What would be interest
for 2 years?
(a) Rs. 2120
(b) Rs. 2700
(c) Rs. 2640
(d) Rs. 2550
Q82. How many mili - grams are in 800 grams of rice?
(a) 800000
(b) 80000
(c) 8000
(d) 800
 Q83. Simple interest on a sum of Rs 50200 for 3 months is Rs 1380.5. What is the
rate (in percentage) of interest per annum?
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 9.5
(d) 8.5

Q84. On selling 120 bottles, Vijay earns profit equal to the cost price of 10 bottles. What is
the profit percentage?
(a) 8.33
(b) 9.09
(c) 7.7
(d) 12.5

Q85. The marked price of a shirt is Rs 1800 and retailer gets a discount of 40%. If he sells
that shirt for Rs 1800, then what is the profit percentage of retailer?
(a) 40
(b) 66.66
(c) 37.5
(d) 62.5

Q86.
(a) 1.39
(b) 1.278
(c) 2.139
(d) 1.69

Q87. Simple interest on a sum for 10 years is equal to 5% of the principal. In how many
years interest will be equal to the principal?
(a) 100
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 250
Q88. The ratio of selling price to the cost price is 21 : 16. What is the profit percentage?
(a) 35.75
(b) 21.75
(c) 27.75
(d) 31.25

Q89. Dinesh purchases 10 dozens of apples at the rate of Rs 180 per dozen. He sold each
one of them at the rate of Rs 19.5. What is the profit (in percentage) of Dinesh?
(a) 30
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 25

Q90. If x = 4 + √15, then what is the value of [x² + (1/x² )]?

(a) 62
(b) 64
(c) 34
(d) 36

Q91.
(a) 3
(b) √5
(c) 2√5
(d) 6

Q92.
(a) 1
(b) 9990000
(c) 9988999
(d) 9999000
Q93.
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6

Q94. Determine the value of m for which is a perfect square.

(a) 1/24
(b) 1/12
(c) 12
(d) 24

Q95. For any integers ‘a’ and ‘b’ with HCF (a, b) = 1, what is HCF (a + b, a – b) equal to?

(a) It is always 1

(b) It is always 2

(c) Either 1 or 2

(d) None of the above

Q96. What is the HCF of 8 (x 6 − x 3 + x) and 28 (x 6 + 1) ?

(a) 4 (x 4 − x 2 + 1)

(b) 2 (x 4 − x 2 + 1)

(c) (x 4 − x 2 + 1)

(d) None of the above

Q97. For any integer n, what is HCF (22n + 7, 33n + 10) equal to?

(a) n

(b) 1

(c) 11

(d) None of the above

Q98. If difference of square of two consecutive natural numbers is 1371. Find the sum of
digits of smaller number
(a) 13
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19

Q99. In how many ways can 572 laptops be distributed equally to the students in the class?
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 18

Q100. The amount triples itself under compound interest in 5 years. In how many years
will it become 27 times of it?
(a) 30
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 20

Q101. The salary ratio of Ram, Priya and Ritika is 3: 5: 7. If Ritika is getting Rs 900 more
than Ram, what is the salary of Priya? (in Rs.)
(a) 1125
(b) 1155
(c) 1145
(d) 1135

Q102. Simplify : 17.53+15.23+17.63–26.84=3×?

(a) 6.85
(b) 5.79
(c) 4.89
(d) 7.85

Q103. Which of the following is divisible by 24?

(a) 884307
(b) 780834
(c) 780384
(d) 730884

Q104. Difference between the place value of 9 and 5 in the number

308758229
(a) 59998
(b) 48889
(c) 50001
(d) 49991

Q105. If 123 × 456 = 56088, then 12.3 × 0.456 = ?

(a) 56.088
(b) 0.56088
(c) 0.056088
(d) 5.6088

Q106. The square root of 4489 is:

(a) 69
(b) 57
(c) 67
(d) 53
4 7 1
Q107. LCM of 5 , 9 , 18 is :
(a) 28
(b) 49
(c) 14
(d) 28/3

Q108. 29% of a number is 435. Find twice the number.

(a) 2700
(b) 1550
(c) 3000
(d) 4500

Q109. Solve the following

1
19 − 4 {12 − (−56) ÷ (−7)}
(a) 21
(b) 18
(c) 7
(d) -22
Q110. The price of a commodity increased by 5% from 2010 to 2011, 8% from 2011 to
2012 and 77% from 2012 to 2013. What is the average price increase (approximate) from
2010 to 2013?
(a) 26%
(b) 32%
(c) 24%
(d) 30%

Q111. Consider the following statements with reference to the Tidal Vegetation in India
1. It is found in abundance in the lower Ganga delta of West Bengal

2. They are practically evergreen with thin leaves

3. Palm, keora, and agar are some important species of tidal forest

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q112. Which of the following rivers have their origin in Kanchenjunga?

1. Kosi

2. Gandak

3. Tista

4. Dhubri

5. Rapti

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 3, 4, and 5 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 4, and 5 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Q113. Consider the following statements with reference to Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) :

1. ESZ must be at least 1 km around any protected wildlife area.

2. The size of ESZ around any protected area need not be uniformly fixed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q114. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Southwest Monsoon Season in India?

(a) There may be dry spells in between rainy periods.

(b) These winds generally strike the Indian coast in the first week of June.

(c) It gives rainfall to all parts of India except the Coastal regions of Tamil Nadu and Andhra

Pradesh.

(d) The Quantity of rainfall decreases as the monsoonal winds move toward the west over
the northern plains.

Q115. Which among the following types of coal deposits took the longest time to form?

(a) Peat

(b) Lignite

(c) Bituminous

(d) Anthracite

Q116. Consider the following statements with reference to the Tropical cyclone in India :

1. The eastern coast of India is more prone to cyclones than the western Coast of India.

2. The cyclone, with its whole system, moves forward from east to west in general.

3. In India, most cyclones occur only in the pre-monsoon season.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q117. Had there been no Himalayas in the Indian subcontinent,

1. There will be no splitting of the westerly jet streams

2. More regions of northern India would have been a desert

3. The cold Siberian air masses will enter India

4. There will be no interception in the summer monsoon coming from the Bay of Bengal
and the Arabian Sea

How many of the above statements are correct based on the given scenario?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(c) Only three statements

(d) All four statements

Q118. With reference to the climate of India, the retreat of Southwest Monsoon winds takes
place due to:

(a) The apparent shift of the sun from the equator towards the Tropic of cancer

(b) The weakening of low-pressure area over the north-western parts of India

(c) The origin of severe cyclonic storms in the Bay of Bengal

(d) The shifting of the high-pressure area to the south Indian ocean

Q119. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Northeast Trade winds are essentially sea-bearing winds.

2. In India, Southwest Trade winds are essentially land-bearing winds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q120. With reference to the monsoon depressions, consider the following statements:

1. These are low-pressure systems that develop in the Bay of Bengal.

2. Monsoon depression is a warm core system in lower and upper levels of the atmosphere.

3. These intensify into cyclonic storms due to the high vertical wind shear.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q121. With reference to Swadeshi Movement consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of indigenous artisan crafts and industries.

2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q122. With reference to the modern history of India, which of the following statements is
correct regarding the Orientalist-Anglicist Controversy?

(a) It was related to the abolishment of judicial disqualification based on racial distinctions.

(b) It was related to the transfer of power from the British East India Company to the
British Crown.

(c) It was a disagreement between the British and Indians over the economic drain of
wealth from India.

(d) It was the disagreements within the British East India Company about the nature of
education that should be provided to Indians.

Q123. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bahamani Kingdom:

1. It was founded by Hoshang Shah.

2. They had regular confrontations with the Vijayanagar kingdom over the Marathwada
region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q124. He was a Persian merchant. Under his guidance, the Bahmani kingdom reached its
peak. He waged successful wars against Vijayanagar, Orissa, and the sea pirates on the
Arabian sea. He built a Madarsa at Bidar in Persian architectural style.

The above paragraph describes which among the following officers of the Bahamani
Kingdom?

(a) Alauddin Hassan Gangu Bahaman Shah

(b) Mohammad Gawan

(c) Ahmad Shah I Wali

(d) Firuz Shah

Q125. Consider the following statements with reference to Vijayanagar Empire:

1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha.

2. Rulers used the title of “Hindu Suratrana”.

3. The royal orders were usually signed in the Kannada script.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q126. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

(a) Clothing

(b) Coins

(c) Ornaments

(d) Weapons

Q127. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Saint Kabir and Guru
Nanak?

(a) While Guru Nanak was opposed to idol worship, Kabir supported it.

(b) Both Kabir and Guru Nanak preached in the Hindi language.

(c) While Kabir preached non-violence, Guru Nanak preached a militant form of struggle
against social oppression.

(d) The teachings of both of them are mentioned in the holy book of Sikhs, the ‘Guru Granth
Sahib’.
Q128. With reference to the characteristics of Sufism, consider the following statements:

1. They failed to communicate with the local masses due to over-emphasis on the Persian
language.

2. Some Sufis adopted yogic practices as one of the means to establish a link with God.

3. Sufism was restricted solely in Northern India during the period of the Delhi Sultanate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q129. He joined the Bombay judicial service and became a judge of the Bombay High Court.
He was instrumental in giving a progressive shape to public life in Maharashtra by
participating in the working of the Pune Sarvajanik Sabha, Prarthana Samaj, the Indian
Social Conference and the Indian National Congress.

Identify the Social reformer from the paragraph given above:

(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(b) Mahadeo Govind Ranade

(c) Vishnu Shastri

(d) Dhondo Keshav Karve

Q130. Who among the following has authored the book named “Stripurushtulna”?

(a) Savitribai Phule

(b) Fatima Sheikh

(c) Tarabai Shinde

(d) Pandita Ramabai

Q131.Consider the following statements regarding Foster’s rule or island rule

1. It is an eco geographical rule in evolutionary biology stating that members of a species

get smaller or bigger depending on the resources available in the environment.

2. The conceptual umbrella of the Island Rule can’t be expanded to plants

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q132.Consider the following statements regarding Project Greensand

1. It will be the world’s first cross-border carbon storage project.

2. The project aims to capture vast amounts of carbon dioxide gas beneath the North Sea
floor

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q133. Hyderabad Charter, recently seen in the news recently, is associated with which of
the following?

(a) Promote stem cell research via a public-private partnership

(b) Address and resolve gender gaps in physics education and research in India

(c) Promoting start-ups for defense production technology

(d) Promoting awareness among Youngsters in space research

Q134.Consider the following statements regarding MAIA's mission

1. It is a joint initiative between NASA and the Italian Space Agency.

2. It aims to investigate the health impacts of air pollution in the world’s most populated
cities.

3. It is the first mission of the agency whose primary goal is to benefit societal health.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q135. The statement of the Climate of India 2022 report was recently published by

(a) IMD

(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences

(c) MoEFCC

(d) World meteorological organization

Q136. Who wrote the famous book - 'We the people'?

(a) T.N.Kaul

(b) J.R.D. Tata

(c) Khushwant Singh

(d) Nani Palkhivala

Q137. Who is the author of the book 'Nineteen Eighty Four'?

(a) Thomas Hardy

(b) Emile Zola

(c) George Orwell

(d) Walter Scott

Q138. Which of the following is NOT written by Munshi Premchand?

(a) Gaban

(b) Godan

(c) Guide

(d) Manasorovar

Q139. Who is the author of the book 'Forbidden Verses'?

(a) Salman RushDie

(b) Abu Nuwas

(c) Ms. Taslima Nasrin

(d) D.H. Lawrence

Q140. The lead character in the film 'The Bandit Queen' has been played by

(a) Rupa Ganguly

(b) Seema Biswas

(c) Pratiba Sinha

(d) Shabama Azmi

Q141. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is based in which of the following
cities?

(a) New York

(b) Tokyo

(c) Beijing

(d) New Delhi

Q142. New Development Bank (BRICS Development Bank) is headquartered in which of the
following countries?

(a) Japan

(b) South Africa

(c) Brazil

(d) China

Q143. Asian Development Bank is headquartered in which of the following countries?

(a) North Korea

(b) Philippines

(c) China

(d) Japan

Q144. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is based in which of the following cities?

(a) Washington DC

(b) New York

(c) Paris

(d) Dubai
Q145. World Bank (WB) is located in which of the following cities?

(a) Dubai

(b) Washington, D.C

(c) Muscat

(d) Paris

Q146. What is a small arrow or blinking symbol i.e., a movable indicator on desktop is
called?
(a) Logo
(b) Mouse
(c) Cursor
(d) Palm

Q147. Which among the following is not legitimate type of computer virus?
(a) Macro Virus
(b) File infector Virus
(c) Resident Virus
(d) Hangout Virus

Q148. What does MODEM stands for?

(a) Modulator-Demodulator
(b) Multiplexing Other Device Encoding Message
(c) Main of Domain End Machine
(d) Multiplexing On Demultiplexed Embedded Machine

Q149. Which of the following features lets you rotate the text in any direction?
(a) Text box
(b) Alignment
(c) Formatting
(d) Text rotation

Q150. Which of the following key use, when you want to make all letters capital without
having to use the shift key for each character?
(a) shifter
(b) upper case
(c) caps lock key
(d) icon

Q151. PDF stands for:

(a) Personal Document Format
(b) Printed Document Format
(c) Portable Document Format
(d) Programmable Document Format

Q152. Internet Explorer and Safari are examples of ………...

(a) Web pages
(b) Web browsers
(c) Web servers
(d) Web sites

Q153. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorized options?
(a) Menu Bar
(c) Toolbar
(b) Status bar
(d) Scroll Bar

Q154. What is the maximum zoom percentage in Microsoft PowerPoint?

(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 400%
(d) 500%

Q155. Which of the following is/are file extension(s) in DOS?

(a) EXE
(b) BAT
(c) COM
(d) All of these

Q156. Which of the following is web browser?

(a) Netscape
(b) Chrome
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) All of the above

Q157. To start a computers system, which of the following is not required necessarily?
(a) RAM
(b) Flash Drive
(c) Accumulator
(d) Motherboard

Q158. Which of the following fields of an e-mail hides the identity of the recipients?
(a) To
(b) From
(c) Cc
(d) Bcc

Q159. A commonly used graphic format for the Web is:

(a) GIF
(b) BMP
(c) TXT
(d) LMP

Q160. MS Word is a text or document editing application program that comes in the
package of MS Office Suite. Which among the given options is not related with MS Word?
(a) Page Layout
(b) Antivirus
(c) Mailings
(d) Format Painter

Q161. Which of the following is a Powerful key that lets you exit a program when pushed?
(a) Arrow key
(b) Space bar
(c) Escape key
(d) Return key

Q162. Storage media such as a CD read and write information using __________
(a) a laser beam of red light
(b) magnetic dots
(c) magnetic strips
(d) All of these

Q163. The set of instructions which tell a computer what to do is called.....

(a) Matter
(b) instructor
(c) compiler
(d) Program

Q164. Which type of virus is generally scripted into common application programs like
Excel and Word to infect the other documents and spreads to the other parts when the
application is running?
(a) Macro Viruses
(b) File infector virus
(c) Resident Viruses
(d) Boot virus

Q165. By which of the following symbol all Excel formula start?

(a) %
(b) +
(c) -
(d) =

Q166. What is the advantage of using a spreadsheet?

(a) Calculations can be done automatically
(b) Changing data automatically updates calculations
(c) More flexibility
(d) All of the above

Q167. Which of the following is/are file extension(s) in DOS?

(a) EXE
(b) BAT
(c) COM
(d) All of these

Q168. If you want to insert a chart to your slide then go to __________.

(a) Insert – Chart
(b) Home – Chart
(c) Format – Chart
(d) Table – Chart

Q169. In a spreadsheet, a __________ is a number you will use in a calculation.

(a) label
(b) cell
(c) field
(d) value

Q170. The blank white area near the edges of every page in a word document is known as a
________.
(a) cut mark
(b) margin
(c) new area
(d) gutter

Q171. Which of the following keys is used to delete characters to the left of the cursor?
(a) Alt + Delete
(b) Shift
(c) Esc
(d) Backspace
Q172. In MS Word 2010 the feature for Word Count is available in Proofing under which of
the following tab?
(a) Home
(b) Review
(c) Insert
(d) View

Q173. Which is the command used to remove text or graphics from a document and the
information is then stored on a clipboard so you can paste it later on?
(a) Cut
(b) Clip
(c) Chop
(d) Chew

Q174. When you save a Microsoft Access project, what file format do you use?
(a) .adp
(b) .Xml
(c) .mbd
(d) All of the above
Q175. Which of the following characteristics is used to compute dynamically the results
from Excel data?
(a) Go to
(b) Table
(c) Chart
(d) Formula and Function

Q176. What is the sequence of events that occurs in the computer when it is interpreting
and executing an instruction known as?
(a) Execution cycle
(b) Instruction cycle
(c) Working cycle
(d) Machine cycle

Q177. _____ is a Windows utility program that located and eliminates unnecessary
fragments and rearranges filed and unused to disk space to optimize operations.
(a) Backup
(b) Disk cleanup
(c) Disk defragmenter
(d) Restore
Q178. Which command is used to set a name to a disk in DOS?
(a) VOLUME
(b) VOL
(c) LABEL
(d) DISKLABEL

Q179. What is the meaning of EXCEL?

(a) Command File
(b) Express File
(c) Executable Files
(d) System File

Q180. What is a half byte also called as?

(a) Nibble
(b) Bit
(c) Bits
(d) Data

Solutions

S1. Ans (b)

Sol. The correct answer is option b.
The word that can be filled in the blank is, ‘Linked’.

S2. Ans (a)

Sol. The correct answer is option a.
The word that can be filled in the blank is, ‘Unhook’.
Unhook - unfasten or detach.

S3. Ans (c)

Sol. The correct answer is option c.
The word that can be filled in the blank is, ‘Probably’.
Probably – It is an adverb which means, “Almost certainly; as far as one knows or can tell.”
For example - she would probably never see him again.

S4. Ans (d)

Sol. The correct answer is option d.
The word that can be filled in the blank is, ‘Building’.

S5. Ans (a)

Sol. The correct answer is option a.
The word that can be filled in the blank is, ‘Grows’.
Uproot - to draw out by force or with effort.
Revert - to go back to a previous and usually lower state or level.

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. Kick one’s heels - to wait or be kept waiting impatiently.
 Use in a sentence-The whole day we kicked our heels outside the court room.
 Option (b) portrays the same meaning as that of the given idiom & hence, it is the
correct choice.

S7. Ans (a)

Sol. The correct answer is option a.
The given sentence is ‘direct Speech’.
Direct Speech - Reporting the message of the speaker in the exact words as spoken by
him.
Indirect Speech - Reporting the message of the speaker in our own words.
The sentence thus formed is - She said that she was having tea.

S8. Ans (c)

Sol. The correct answer is option c.
The given sentence is of ‘Active voice’.
The sentence thus formed is - The thief had been caught by him.

S9. Ans (d)

Sol. The correct answer is option d.
The error lies in part (d) of the sentence.
Replace ‘Him’ with ‘it’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Young children and the lower animals are referred to as the neuter gender.
S10. Ans (a)
Sol. The correct answer is option a.
The word that can be filled in the blank is, ‘Castigated’.
Castigated - to subject to severe punishment, reproof, or criticism.
Acquitted - to free from a charge of wrongdoing.
Foretold - predict (the future or a future event).
Accredited – (of a person, organization, or course of study) officially recognized or
authorized.

S11. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct spelling is ‘Superintendent’.

S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Luminiscent’ is wrongly spelt.
Correct selling is Luminescent which means emitting light not caused by heat.
S13. Ans.(b)
Sol. Gory: involving or showing violence and bloodshed.
Sanguine: optimistic or positive, especially in an apparently bad or difficult situation.
Inundate: overwhelm someone with things or people to be dealt with.
Imbrue: to impregnate.

S14. Ans.(a)
Sol. Reparation: the action of repairing something.

S15. Ans.(a)
Sol. Ineradicable: unable to be destroyed or removed.
S16. Ans. (c)
Sol. The correct answer is option c.
The word that can be filled in the blank is `Who’.
Who - We use ‘Who’ as a relative pronoun to introduce a relative clause about people.
For example - The police officer who came was a friend of my father’s.
What - We can use what to ask for information about things and actions. It is also used as a
pronoun to mean ‘the thing(s) that’.
For example - What do you want?
For example - What we need to do is make a list of useful phone numbers.
Which - It is used to introduce a nonessential clause (also known as a non-restrictive or
non-defining clause), which adds supplementary information.
For Example - The product claiming "All natural ingredients," which appeared in the
Sunday newspaper, is on sale.
The product is already identified. Therefore, ‘which’ appeared in the Sunday newspaper is a
nonessential clause containing additional, but not essential, information.
Why - Why is a wh-word. We use why to talk about reasons and explanations.
For Example - Why did he leave home when he was 16?

S17. Ans (d)

Sol. The correct answer is option d.
Refer to, ‘British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) of Britain, UK began the first
television service in 1936.’

S18. Ans (a)

Sol. The correct answer is option a.
Refer to, ‘Television began in India on 15th September 1959 ………...Finally, its existence
came into being when Doordarshan became a National Broadcaster. It is one of the largest
broadcasting organizations in the world in terms of the infrastructure of studios and
transmitters.’

S19. Ans (b)

Sol. The correct answer is option b.
Refer to, ‘Television began in India on 15th September 1959 as an experiment. It
offered a two-hour programme for a week.’

S20. Ans (c)

Sol. The correct answer is option c.
Refer to, ‘John Baird is the father of television…………Though the second World War
slowed down the rapid development of the new medium, the post war years made up
for it.’

S21. Ans (c)

Sol. The correct answer is option c.
Refer to, ‘The introduction of communication channels ………...Hong Kong based STAR
(Satellite
Television Asian Region) entered into an agreement with an Indian company and Zee
TV was born. It became the first privately owned Hindi satellite channel of India.

Refer to, ‘Doordarshan, which was All India Radio’s television ……….DD became national
when it started to telecast national programmes in the year 1982. In the same year,
colour TVs were introduced in the Indian markets.’

Refer to, ‘Several community television sets were distributed as a part of one of the
important landmarks in the history of Indian television, the Satellite Instructional
Television Experiment (SITE).’
S22. Ans (d)
Sol. The correct answer is option d.
The proper sequence is – PQRS.

S23. Ans (b)

Sol. The correct answer is option b.
Pedantic – Excessively concerned with minor details or rules.
Whereas, meaning of other words –
Arbitrator - A person was appointed to settle a dispute between two parties.
Invigilator - The supervising person during an examination.
Curator - Someone who is the custodian or the keeper of a museum.
Option (b) portrays the same meaning as that of the given group of words & hence it is the
correct choice.

S24. Ans (b)

Sol. The correct answer is option b.
The error lies in part b of the sentence.
Add ‘Off’ after the verb ‘Siphoned’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Siphon off – It is an idiom which means, ‘To gradually steal money or goods, usually from a
business or government.’
For example - Over the years, she siphoned off hundreds of thousands of dollars from
various accounts.

S25. Ans (c)

Sol. The correct answer is option c.
The given sentence is of ‘Active voice’.
The given sentence is in the past simple tense.
Structure in the active voice - Did+ subject+V1+ object+?
Structure in the passive voice - Was/were + Object+ V3+ by subject +?
The sentence thus formed is - Were the date & the venue of the examination remembered
by her?

S26. Ans (c)

Sol. The correct answer is option c.
Replace ‘By the start of’ with ‘Since the start of’ to make the sentence grammatically
correct.
Since – It means, ‘From a particular time in the past until a later time, or until now.’ When
since introduces an action or event at a point of time in the past, we can use the past simple
or present perfect after ‘Since.’We use ‘Since’ in front of a finished point in time in the past.
For example - He hasn't won a game since last year.
For - We use ‘For’ when we measure the duration – when we say how long something lasts.
For example -I have known her for a long time.
By - During the period until a particular time or date.
For example - By mid-afternoon over 5,000 people had visited the exhibition.
Started off - Begin to operate or do something or to happen.
For example - Treatment should start off with attention to diet.

S27. Ans. (b)

Sol. “Notice” will replace “noticed” because the sentence is showing a present tense.
Keyword used here is “now-a-days” which is used in present continuous tense.

S28. Ans. (a)

Sol. Replace “much” with “most”. We use “much” with singular uncountable nouns and most
with plural countable nouns.

S29. Ans. (d)

S30.Ans. (b)

Sol. Between (preposition) is followed by an Objective Pronoun (such as me, him, her, us)
not a Subjective Pronoun (such as I, he, she, we). Hence replace ‘I’ with ‘me’.

S31.Ans. (b)

Sol. Put Indefinite Article ‘a’ before noun ‘relationship manager’.

S32. Ans. (b)

Sol. Replace “use” with “using”. To + gerund is used with certain verbs and phrases.
Example: accustomed to, look forward to, owing to prone to, opposed to etc.
S33. Ans (c)
Sol. The correct answer is option c.
Replace ‘As far as’ with ‘As long as’ to make the sentence grammatically correct
As far as - with regard to.
For example - As far as I am concerned it is no big deal"
As long as - We use as long as to refer to the intended duration of a plan or idea, most
commonly referring to the future.
For example - I’ll remember that film as long as I live.

S34. Ans (c)

Sol. The correct answer is option c.
Bovine - Pertaining to cattle.
Whereas, meaning of other words –
Canine - relating to or resembling a dog or dogs.
Feline - relating to or affecting cats or other members of the cat family.
Verminous - covered with insects.
Option (c) portrays the same meaning as that of the given group of words & hence it is the
correct choice.

S35. Ans (d)

Sol. The correct answer is option d.
Tense- Past Continuous (Subject +was/were+V1 +ing+ Object) changes to Past perfect
continuous (Subject +had been+V1 +ing+ Object).
The sentence thus formed is - Anuj said he had been walking along the Street.

S36. Ans (a)

Sol. The correct answer is option a.
Bite the dust - It is an idiomatic expression which means, ‘fail, or be defeated or destroyed,
fail or come to an end’.
Something that is routinely undone and, therefore, never progresses.
As per the context, the idiom – ‘Bit the dust’ best fits in the given sentence.
Hence, option (a) is the correct choice.

S37. Ans (d)

Sol. The correct answer is option d.
The error lies in part (d) of the sentence.
Replace ‘Are’ with ‘Is’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
If the two nouns are joined by ‘and’ represent a singular idea, then the verb is singular.

S38. Ans (b)

Sol. The correct answer is option b.
The given sentence is in Past Simple Tense.
Structure in active voice - Subject + V2+ object.
Structure in passive voice - Object+ was/were V3+ by + subject.
The sentence thus formed is - Pakistan batsmen were thrashed by the Indian bowlers.
S39. Ans (b)
Sol. The correct answer is option b.
Strained every nerve - It is an idiomatic expression which means, ‘to make the greatest
possible effort.’
As per the context, the idiom – ‘Strained every nerve’ best fits in the given sentence.
Hence, option (b) is the correct choice.

S40. Ans (c)

Sol. The correct answer is option c.
The error lies in part (c) of the sentence.
Replace ‘Than’ with ‘To’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.
There are certain words ‘Senior, junior, inferior, prior’ that take the preposition ‘To’ and
not ‘Than’.

S41.Ans. (A) କକୌଶଳକର ଆୟତ୍ତ କରି ବା

S42.Ans. (D) ଇଷ୍ଟ- ଅବିଷ୍ଟ
S43.Ans. (C) ଷ୍ତ୍ବବିଧ ି ଗତ
S44.Ans. (A) ସ୍ଥଳ
S45.Ans. (C) ମକହୌଜ
S46.Ans. (B) ପ୍ରାକ୍
S47.Ans. (A) ବହୁ ବ୍ରୀହି
S48.Ans. (C) ଯୁକ୍ତ ଅର୍ଥକର
S49.Ans. (B) ବିକଶଷ୍ୟର ବିକଶଷ୍ଣ
S50.Ans. (A) କଗାଡ କଟକି ବସି ବା
S51.Ans.(D) ସାନ୍ତ
S52.Ans.(D) ଶିକ୍ଷୟି ତ୍ରୀ
S53.Ans.(B) ଦୃ ଷ୍ଟି
S54.Ans.(A) ଘରକୁମହଁୁ ା
S55.Ans.(C) ତଡିତ୍
S56.Ans. (B) ଉଆ
S57.Ans.(A) ସ୍ୱ + ଇୋ
S58.Ans.(C) କୃଦନ୍ତ
S59.Ans.(C) !
S60.Ans.(A) ୋକରି
ଁ ବା
S61.Ans.(D) ଅରାତି
S62.Ans.(C) ମୃତ
S63.Ans.(A) ମଲ୍ଲୀଫୁ ଲ ରାତିକର ଫୁ କଟ |
S64.Ans.(C) କଲେଶ
S65.Ans.(A) ରାଜୀବ
S66.Ans. (A) ଚାଷ୍ୀର ମଙ୍ଗଳ କହବ |
S67.Ans. (A) ପ୍ରକୃତିର କହାଇ ପାରି ବ ଓ ପ୍ରକୃତି ତାହାର କହବ |
S68.Ans. (D) ଜଟିଳ
S69.Ans. (A) ଆତ୍ମବାଚକ
S70.Ans. (A) ଜିକତନ୍ଦ୍ରିୟ
S71.Ans. (A) ଭାରତର ଜେସଂଖୟା ଦ୍ରୁତଗତିକର ବଢି ଚାଲି ଛି |
S72.Ans. (D) ବସନ୍ତ ଋତୁ କର ସବଥଦା ଦକ୍ଷିଣଦିଗ କୁ ପବେ ବକହ |
S73.Ans. (C) ରାଧାୋର୍ ଚିଲିକାର ରୂପ କସୌନ୍ଦଯଥୟ ଉପକଭାଗ କକଲ |
S74.Ans. (D) ଆମର ଏଇ କଦଶ ଦିକେ ସମୃଦ୍ଧିଶାଳୀ ର୍ ିଲା |
S75.Ans. (D) ସ୍ୱାଧୀେତା ଦିବସ ଏକ ଜାତୀୟ ପବଥ |

S76.Ans. (d)
Sol.

S77. Ans. (b)

Sol.

S78. Ans. (d)

Sol.
S79. Ans. (b)
Sol.

S80.Ans. (b)
Sol.

S81.Ans. (c)
Sol.
S82. Ans. (a)
Sol.
1 gram = 1000 mg
800 grams = 800 * 1000 = 800000 mg

S83. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S84. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S85. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S86. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S87. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S88. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S89. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S90. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S91. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S92. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S93. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S94. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S95. Ans.(c)

Sol.

For 𝑎 = 5, 𝑏 = 3

⇒ 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (5,3) = 1

⇒ 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (5 + 3, 5 − 3) = 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (8, 2) = 2

For 𝑎 = 3, 𝑏 = 2

⇒ 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (3,2) = 1

⇒ 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (3 + 2, 3 − 2) = 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (5, 1) = 1

For any integer 𝑎, 𝑏 with 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (𝑎, 𝑏) = 1, 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (𝑎 + 𝑏, 𝑎 − 𝑏) will always be equal to either 1
or 2.

S96. Ans.(a)

Sol.

8(𝑥 5 − 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 )

= 8𝑥(𝑥 4 − 𝑥 2 + 1) …(i))

28(𝑥 6 + 1)

= 28(𝑥 2 + 1)(𝑥 4 − 𝑥 2 + 1) …(ii)

From (i) and (ii),

HCF= 4(𝑥 4 − 𝑥 2 + 1)

S97. Ans.(b)

Sol.

𝐻𝐶𝐹(22𝑛 + 7, 33𝑛 + 10)

For 𝑛 = 0

𝐻𝐶𝐹 (7, 10) = 1

For 𝑛 = 1

𝐻𝐶𝐹 (22 + 7,33 + 10)

⇒ 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (29,43) = 1

S98. Ans. (d)

Sol.
(𝑥 + 1)2 − 𝑥 2 = 1371
2x+1= 1371
X=685
Sum = 6+8+5=19

S99.Ans. (b)
Sol.
572=2×2×11×13×1
Possible ways are – 1 laptop to each, 2 laptop to each, 11 Laptop to each, 13, 4, 22, 26, 44,
52, 572, 143, 286.
Total 12 ways possible.

S100. Ans. (b)

Sol.

S101. Ans. (a)

Sol.
S102. Ans. (d)
Sol.
50.39–26.84=3×?
23.55
?= 3 =7.85

S103. Ans. (c)

Sol.
Divisible by 24 means it should be divisible by 8 and 3.
Divisibility rule of 8 – last 3 digit should be divisible by 8
Only (c) option matches that condition.

S104. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Place value of 5 is 50000
Place value of 9 is 9
Difference 50000 – 9
= 49991

S105. Ans.(d)
Sol.
12.3 × 0.456 = 5.6088

S106. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Square root of 4489 is 67.

S107. Ans.(a)
Sol.
𝐿𝐶𝑀 (4,7,1) 28
LCM = 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (5,9,18) = 1

S108. Ans.(c)
Sol.
29 % → 435
1% → 15
200% → 3000

S109. Ans.(b)
1
Sol.19 − 4 {12 − 8}
= 18

S110. Ans.(a)

Sol.

𝑃𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒 𝑖𝑛 2013 105 108 177

= × ×
𝑃𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒 𝑖𝑛 2010 100 100 100
21 27 177
= × ×
20 25 100
100359
=
50000
𝑃𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒 𝑖𝑛 2013 2
⇒ ≈
𝑃𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒 𝑖𝑛 2010 1

Now,

𝑟 𝑡
𝐴 = 𝑃 (1 + )
100
𝑟 3
⇒ 2 = 1 (1 + )
100
𝑟
⇒ 1.26 = 1 +
100
⇒ 126 = 100 + 𝑟

⇒ 𝑟 = 26%

S111. Ans. (a)

Sol.

Tidal vegetation grows mainly in the deltaic regions of the Ganga, Mahanadi, Godavari, and
Krishna which are flooded by tides and high sea waves. Mangrove is the representative of
this

type of vegetation. Sundari is the typical tree of tidal forests and is found in abundance in
the

lower Ganga delta of West Bengal.

S112. Ans. (c)

Sol.

Kanchenjunga, is the world’s third highest mountain, with an elevation of 28,169 feet
(8,586

metres). It is situated in the eastern Himalayas on the border between Sikkim state (North-

eastern India) and Eastern Nepal. The major rivers that originate from Kanchenjunga are
River

Teesta and River kosi (tamur kosi).

S113. Ans. (c)

Sol.

Recently, the Supreme Court had directed that each protected area, every national park and

wildlife sanctuary in India would establish an Eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of at least 1

kilometre

starting from its demarcated boundaries where there is no mining construction and other
new

establishment projects will be allowed. So, Statement 1 is correct.

S114. Ans. (c)

Sol.
•Strong winds and wet spells remain for a few days during monsoon, followed by weak
winds.

This causes dry spells to occur between two wet spells.

•Dry spells are associated with days when winds blow parallel to the west coast.

•Dry spells occur over Western Rajasthan due to thermal conditions in the lower
atmosphere,

such as temperature inversion. So, Option (a) is correct.

S115. Ans. (d)

Sol.

Coal is a fossil fuel, formed from vegetation, which has been consolidated between other
rock

strata and altered by the combined effects of pressure and heat over millions of years to
form

coal seams.

S116. Ans. (a)

Sol.

Cyclone is a phenomenon and is concentrated in certain seasonal cyclic segments. In India,

most

cyclones occur in the post-monsoon season, i.e. from October to December, or in the pre-

monsoon season from April to May. The life span of a cyclone is generally from 7 to 14 days.
So,

Statement 3 is not correct.

S117. Ans. (d)

Sol.
The mighty Himalayas are the most pronounced and dominating physiographic feature of
the

subcontinent of India. It has often been said that the Himalayas are the body and soul of
India.

S118. Ans. (b)

Sol.

The retreat of South-west monsoon winds is caused by the weakening of the low-pressure
areas

of northwestern regions. This is due to the low temperatures caused by the apparent shift
of

the sun towards the equator, as well as widespread rains that significantly lower
temperatures.

Then the low-pressure area shifts to the south. The changes in atmospheric pressure
patterns

cause the Southwest monsoons to retreat. So, Option (b) is correct.

S119. Ans. (a)

Sol.

•The cold weather season in India begins in mid-November in northern India and stays till

February.

During this season, the northeast trade winds prevail over the country. They blow from
land to

sea as land-bearing winds and hence, for most of the country, it is a dry season.

S120. Ans. (a)

Sol.
Monsoon depressions:

● The depressions which form in the monsoon season are called monsoon depressions.
These

are low-pressure areas with two or three closed isobars (at 2 hPa interval), which cause
most of

the monsoon rains. These can be of Bay origin, Land origin or Arabian Sea origin. It affects
the

North Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal in summer. So, statement 1 is correct.

● A monsoon depression is a cold core system (central temperature colder than the

environment) over the surface and in the lower levels and a warm core in upper levels
(central

temperature warmer than the environment). So, statement 2 is not correct.

● The monsoon depressions tilt southwards with height and if a monsoon depression is
moving

westward, the heavy rainfall is mainly concentrated in the south-west (SW) quadrant.

● Due to the high vertical wind shear present during the Southwest monsoon season,
monsoon

depressions generally do not intensify into cyclonic storms. So, statement 3 is not correct.

S121. Ans. (c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Statement 1 is correct: The most important aspect of the

movement was a focus on self-reliance or Atma -shakti which led to the development of

indigenous artisan crafts and industries. Statement 2 is correct: The movement also let to
the

development of national education. In this context, the National Council of Education was

established in August 1906.

S122. Ans. (d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. The Orientalist-Anglicist controversy was the

disagreements

within the British East India Company about the nature of education that should be
provided to

local Indians. The Anglicists, headed by Lord Macaulay, wanted English as the medium of

instruction while the Orientalists, headed by H.H. Wilson and H.T. Prinsep, supported the
Indian

languages.

S123. Ans. (b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Bahmani Kingdom was a Muslim state of the Deccan in Southern
India

during the medieval era in Indian History. It was founded by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah
(in

1347), also known as Hasan Gangu, revolting against the Delhi Sultanate of Muhammad bin

Tughlaq. Hoshang Shah (1406–1435) was the first formally appointed Sultan of the Malwa

Sultanate of Central India.

Statement 2 is correct: There were constant conflicts between the Vijayanagar kingdom
and the

Bahmani Sultanate as their interests clashed in three separate and distinct areas:

1) Over the control of the Raichur doab

2) The Krishna–Godavari basin 3) Over the Marathwada region

S124. Ans. (b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Option b is correct: The Bahmani kingdom reached its peak under the guidance of Prime

minister Muhammad Gawan. He was a Persian merchant. He was well-versed in Islamic

theology, Persian Language, and Mathematics. He was also a poet and a prose writer. He
was

also a military genius.

S125. Ans. (d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct Answer.

According to tradition and epigraphic evidence two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, founded
the

Vijayanagara Empire in 1336. This empire included within its fluctuating frontiers peoples
who

spoke different languages and followed different religious traditions

S126. Ans. (b)

Sol.

Option b is correct:

The Fanam coins were the regular unit of currency in medieval Travancore and appear to
have

been extensively used for trading in the region of South India. The words Fanam and
Panam

literally mean money and are still used as a synonym for wealth in Kerala in the native
language
of Malayalam.

S127. Ans. (d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Saint Kabir Das (1440-1518) was a very renowned saint, poet and social reformer of India
who

lived during the 15th century. Guru Nanak (1469-1539) was the founder and first Guru of

Sikhism, was born in the year 1469, in the village of Talwandi which is located in the
Punjab.

S128. Ans. (b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The Sufis are Muslim saints who aim at establishing direct

communion between God and man through personal experience of mystery which lies
within

Islam. They did it through ascetic exercises, contemplation, renunciation and self-denial. By
the

12th century, Sufism had become an influential aspect of Islamic social life as it extended
over

almost the entire Muslim community.

S129. Ans. (b)

Sol.

Option b is correct: Mahadeo Govind Ranade was born on 18th January, 1842 at Nasik in an

orthodox Brahmin family. His early education was at Kolhapur and higher education at
Bombay.
He was a brilliant student and acquired B.A. and LL.B. degrees. Mahadeo Govind Ranade
joined

the Bombay judicial service and became a judge of the Bombay High Court.

S130. Ans. (c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Tarabai Shinde (1850–1910) was a 19th-century Indian
feminist

revolutionary who criticized sexism and caste.

S131. Ans. (a)

Sol.

Foster's rule, also known as the island rule or the island effect, is an ecogeographical rule in

evolutionary biology stating that members of a species get smaller or bigger depending on
the

resources available in the environment.

S132. Ans. (c)

Sol.

Project Greensand is a carbon storage project in Denmark’s North Sea. Project Greensand
will

be the world’s first cross-border carbon storage project. The project aims to bury vast
amounts

of planet-heating carbon dioxide gas beneath the North Sea floor. It hopes that it can help
the

Nordic nations and others meet climate targets. It reverses the traffic in the pipes by
pumping

CO2 into the depleted reservoir of the Nini West oil field in Denmark.
S133. Ans. (b)

Sol.

More than 500 practitioners and students of physics have recently endorsed the
Hyderabad

Charter to address and resolve gender gaps in physics education and research in India as of

International Women’s Day this year.

S134. Ans. (d)

Sol.

NASA has recently announced that it is partnering with the Italian Space Agency ASI
(Agenzia

Spaziale Italiana) to build and launch MAIA, or the Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols
missions.

The joint mission between the two national space agencies will investigate the health
impacts of

air pollution in the world’s most populated cities.

S135. Ans. (b)

Sol.

According to the Statement of Climate of India 2022 released by the India Meteorological

Department (Under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). In 2022, heavy rain, floods and

landslides claimed 835 lives in the country In 2022, the annual mean land surface air

temperature in India was 0.510C above the long-term average (1981-2010 period). This
made

the year the fifth warmest on record since nationwide records began in 1901.
S136. Ans. (d)

S137. Ans. (c)

S138. Ans. (c)

S139. Ans. (b)

S140. Ans. (b)

S141. Ans. (c)

The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is a multilateral development bank that aims to
support the building of infrastructure in the Asia-Pacific region. It is based in Beijing, China.

S142. Ans. (d)

The New Development Bank, formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a
multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states. It is headquartered in
Shanghai, China.

S143. Ans. (b)

The Asian Development Bank is a regional development bank established on 19 December

1966, which is headquartered in the Ortigas Center located in the city of Mandaluyong,
Metro Manila, Philippines.

S144. Ans. (a)

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organization headquartered in

Washington, D.C., consisting of 189 countries working to foster global monetary
cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high
employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world while
periodically depending on the World Bank for its resources.

S145. Ans. (b)

The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to
the governments of poorer countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects. It is
located in Washington, D.C., United States.

S146.Ans (c)
Sol. A cursor is a movable indicator on a computer screen identifying the point that will be
affected by input from the user.
S147.Ans (d)
Sol. Hangout Virus is not legitimate type of computer virus.
S148.Ans (a)
Sol. MODEM stands for Modulator-Demodulator
S149. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Text Rotation command allows you to rotate the text in any direction.
S150. Ans.(c)
Sol. caps lock key the following key use, when you want to make all letters capital without
having to use the shift key for each character.
S151. Ans.(c)
Sol. PDF stands for Portable Document Format.
S152. Ans.(b)
Sol. A web browser (commonly referred to as a browser) is a software application for
retrieving, presenting and traversing information resources on the World Wide Web. An
information resource is identified by a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI/URL) that may be
a web page, image, video or other piece of content.
S153. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Menu Bar is the horizontal band that contains commands and options that can be
chosen.
S154. Ans.(c)
Sol. 400% is the max. zoom percentage in PowerPoint.
S155. Ans.(d)
Sol. All of these are file extension(s) in DOS.
S156. Ans.(d)
Sol. All of the above are web browser.
S157. Ans.(b)
Sol. Flash drives are external storage media, not necessarily required to start a system,
unless you are trying to reboot the system through a bootable flash drive.
S158. Ans.(d)
Sol. Bcc stands for ‘Blind Carbon Copy’. The recipients whose e-mail addresses are added in
the Bcc field would receive a copy of the email; however, the identity of these recipients
would not be disclosed.
S159. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Graphics Interchange Format (GIF) is used to save simple Web graphics having
limited colours.
S160. Ans.(b)
Sol. Except Antivirus, all others are parts and options available in MS Word.

S161. Ans.(c)
Sol. Escape key found on most computer keyboards and used for any of various functions,
as to interrupt or cancel the current process or running program, or to close a pop-up
window.
S162. Ans.(a)
Sol. Storage media such as a CD read and write information using a laser beam of red light.
S163. Ans.(d)
Sol. A computer program is a set of instructions which tell a computer what to do.
S1164. Ans. (a)
Sol. A macro virus is a computer virus that "infects" a Microsoft Word or similar application
and causes a sequence of actions to be performed automatically when the application is
started or something else triggers it.
S165. Ans.(d)
Sol. Excel is having formula auto complete feature and generally any excel formula starts
with '=' equal to symbol.
S166. Ans.(d)
Sol. Spreadsheets play an integral role in the day-to-day business operations of both large
and smaller, private companies. The needs for using spreadsheet, and the content you'll
include on them, vary by industry and function of work transactions. But on a broad level,
spreadsheets come in handy when you need to store, manipulate or edit, and present one
or more sets of data relevant to your work. These can also facilitate a wide range of
common tasks, including performance measurement and business planning.
S167. Ans. (d)
Sol. All of these re file extension(s) in DOS.
S168.Ans.(a)
Sol. Insert – chart used to insert a chart to a slide.
S169.Ans. (d)
Sol. In a spreadsheet, a value is a number you will use in a calculation
S170.Ans.(b)
Sol. Margins refer to the blank white areas near the edges of a page. Every page has top,
bottom, left and right margins. The area surrounded by these four margins where you
write, edit, and format the text is known as the text area. Therefore, if you increase or
decrease the margin of a page, you get less or more space for writing text.
S171. Ans.(d)
Sol. In a computer keyboard, Backspace is the key that is used to delete the characters to
the left
S172.Ans.(b)
Sol. Word Count is available in Proofing under Review tab.
S173. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Office Clipboard stores text and graphics that you copy or cut from anywhere, and
it lets you paste the stored items into any other Office file.
S174. Ans.(a)
Sol. An Access project is an Access file (.adp) that provides a direct, efficient connection to a
Microsoft SQL Server database through the OLE DB component architecture.
S175.Ans (d)
Sol. Functions are predefined formulas and are already available in Excel. They are used to
compute dynamically the results from Excel data
S176. Ans (b)
Sol. An instruction cycle is the basic operational process of a computer. It is the process by
which a computer retrieves a program instruction from its memory, determines what
actions the instruction dictates, and carries out those actions.
S177.Ans (c)
Sol. Disk defragmenter is a Windows utility program that located and eliminates
unnecessary fragments and rearranges filed and unused to disk space to optimize
operations.
S178. Ans (c)
Sol. label (command) In computing, label is a command included with some operating
systems (e.g., DOS, OS/2 and Microsoft Windows). It is used to create, change, or delete a
volume label on a logical drive, such as a hard disk partition or a floppy disk.
S179. Ans (c)
Sol. .EXE is extension for executable files
S180.Ans (a)
Sol. A nibble is equal to 4 bits