TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET

1. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network?
(Choose three.)
a. determine pathways for data
b. initiate data communications
c. retime and retransmit data signals
d. originate the flow of data
e. manage data flows
f. final termination point for data flow

2. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
a. define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
b. dictate how to accomplish layer functions
c. outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
d. limit the need for hardware compatibility
e. require layer dependent encapsulations
f. eliminate standardization among vendors

3. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)

a. tracks delay between end devices
b. enables consistent network paths for communication
c. allows modification of the original data before transmission
d. identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
e. ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device

4. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer
encapsulation?
a. supports error detection
b. ensures ordered arrival of data
c. provides delivery to correct destination
d. identifies the devices on the local network
e. assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

5. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network
Access Layer? (Choose two.)
a. Network
b. Transport
c. Physical
d. Data Link
e. Session

6. What is a PDU?
a. corruption of a frame during transmission
b. data reassembled at the destination
c. retransmitted packets due to lost communication
d. a layer specific encapsulation

7. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

a. manage data flows
b. originate data flow
c. retime and retransmit data signals
d. determine pathways for data
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET
8.

Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP
Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes
the function of wireless device “Cell A?”
a. the destination device
b. an end device
c. an intermediate device
d. a media device

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network
segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
a. Network A — WAN
b. Network B — WAN
c. Network C — LAN
d. Network B — MAN
e. Network C — WAN
f. Network A – LAN

10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
a. A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
b. The network is administered by a single organization.
c. The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
d. The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET
e. A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a
common organization.
f. Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider
(TSP).

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process
represented in the graphic?
a. piping
b. PDU
c. streaming
d. multiplexing
e. encapsulation

12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

a. to identify devices on the local media
b. to identify the hops between source and destination
c. to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
d. to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
e. to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

13. What device is considered an intermediary device?

a. file server
b. IP phone
c. laptop
d. printer
e. switch

14.
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET

Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the
area B?
a. source
b. end
c. transfer
d. intermediary

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

a. WAN
b. MAN
c. LAN
d. WLAN

16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

a. physical
b. data link
c. network
d. transport

17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

a. the destination device on the local media
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET
b. the destination host address
c. the bits that will be transferred over the media
d. the source application or process creating the data

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
a. A, C, D
b. B, E, G, H
c. C, D, G, H, I, J
d. D, E, F, H, I, J
e. E, F, H, I, J

19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
a. No address is added.
b. The logical address is added.
c. The physical address is added.
d. The process port number is added.

20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

a. path determination and packet switching
b. data presentation
c. reliability, flow control, and error detection
d. network media control
e. the division of segments into packets

21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the
lowest layer?
a. physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
b. application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
c. application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
d. application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
e. presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

22. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a
client and a server?
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET
a. HTML
b. HTTP
c. FTP
d. Telnet

23. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
a. applications
b. dialogs
c. requests
d. services
e. syntax

24. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five
users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
a. centralized administration
b. does not require specialized software
c. security is easier to enforce
d. lower cost implementation
e. provides a single point of failure

25. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?

a. temporarily holds resolved entries
b. used by the server to resolve names
c. sent by the client to during a query
d. passes authentication information between the server and client

26. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
a. HTTP
b. SSH
c. FQDN
d. DNS
e. Telnet
f. SMTP

27. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
a. ARP
b. DNS
c. PPP
d. SMTP
e. POP
f. ICMP

28. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

a. acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
b. requires centralized account administration.
c. hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
d. can be used in client-server networks.
e. requires a direct physical connection between devices.
f. centralized authentication is required.

29. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose
two.)
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET
a. DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
b. HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
c. POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
d. SMTP supports file sharing
e. Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

30. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
a. MDA
b. IMAP
c. MTA
d. POP
e. SMTP
f. MUA

31. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

a. not widely available
b. does not support encryption
c. consumes more network bandwidth
d. does not support authentication

32. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose
three.)
a. routes email to the MDA on other servers
b. receives email from the client’s MUA
c. receives email via the POP3 protocol
d. passes email to the MDA for final delivery
e. uses SMTP to route email between servers
f. delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

33. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server
to a client browser? (Choose two.)
a. ASP
b. FTP
c. HTML
d. HTTP
e. HTTPS
f. IP

34. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for
gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
a. User accounts are centralized.
b. Security is difficult to enforce.
c. Specialized operating system software is required.
d. File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
e. A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

35. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the
network?
a. physical
b. session
c. network
d. presentation
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET
e. application
f. transport

36.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented
on line 5?
a. 80
b. 1261
c. 15533
d. 3912
e. 65520

37. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

a. scalable
b. one way data flow
c. decentralized resources
d. centralized user accounts
e. resource sharing without a dedicated server

38. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in
Microsoft networks?
a. DHCP
b. DNS
c. SMB
d. SMTP
e. Telnet

39. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
a. use daemons
b. initiate data exchanges
c. are repositories of data
d. may upload data to servers
e. listen for requests from servers

40. What is the role of the OSI application layer?

a. provides segmentation of data
b. provides encryption and conversion of data
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET
c. provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
d. provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

41. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for
services?
a. ceases all connections to the service
b. denies multiple connections to a single daemon
c. suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
d. uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the
service

42.

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that
is shown? (Choose two.)
a. The local host is using three client sessions.
b. The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.
c. The local host is listening for TCP connections using public addresses.
d. The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
e. The local host is performing the three-way handshake with 192.168.1.101:1037.

43. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port,
what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
a. 13
b. 53
c. 80
d. 1024
e. 1728

44. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
a. sequencing
b. flow control
c. acknowledgments
d. source and destination

45. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

a. acknowledgement of data delivery
b. minimal delays in data delivery
c. high reliability of data delivery
d. same order data delivery
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET
46.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the
download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several
bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
a. create a Layer 1 jam signal
b. reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
c. send a RESET bit to the host
d. change the window size in the Layer 4 header

47.

Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being
performed?
a. session establishment
b. segment retransmit
c. data transfer
d. session disconnect
TEST 1 – CCNA1 – JUDET - ACADNET
48.

Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the
exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in
Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 1850
e. 3431
f. 3475

49. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?

a. to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
b. to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
c. to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
d. to synchronize window size on the server
e. to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

50. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order,
what will happen to the original message?
a. The packets will not be delivered.
b. The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
c. The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
d. The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

51. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known
applications?
a. 0 to 255
b. 256 to 1022
c. 0 to 1023
d. 1024 to 2047
e. 49153 to 65535