2021 CHEM TECH MOCK EXAM ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH
1. What is the hybridization of C that is bonded with N in acetonitrile, CH3CN?
A. sp B. sp2 11. What is the best choice of reagent to perform
C. sp3 D. sp3d2 the following transformation?

2. Which of the following molecules has a linear

geometry?
A. Water (H2O)
B. Ammonia (NH3)
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2) A. H2SO4, H2O
D. Boron trifluoride (BF3) B. KMnO4, H3O+
C. BH3/H2O2,NaOH
3. Which of the following compounds below has D. O3, Zn/CH3COOH
the shortest CN bond length?
12. What is the common name for
ethenylbenzene?
A. styrene B. cumene
C. xylene D. limonene

13. Which of the following is NOT an aliphatic

compound?
A. neopentane B. cycloheptane
C. 3-heptane D. xylene
4. What is the IUPAC name of the given
compound?
14. All of the following statements concerning
benzene, C6H6, are true EXCEPT
A. Each carbon is sp2 hybridized.
B. Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds.
A. 8-ethyl-2,2-dimethyl-5-propyldecane
C. Pi electrons are delocalized over all 6 carbon
B. 2,2-dimethyl-8-ethyl-5-propyldecane
atoms.
C. 3-ethyl-9,9-dimethyl-6-propyldecane
D. Benzene forms cis and trans isomers when it
D. 9,9-dimethyl-3-ethyl-6-propyldecane
reacts.
5. The most stable among the following free
15. What is the product from the Friedel-Crafts
radicals is
alkylation of nitrobenzene?
A. CH3• B. (CH3)3C•
C. (CH3)2CH• D. (CH3)2CHCH2•

6. Which of the following is TRUE about cis and

trans alkenes? A. ortho-nitrotoluene
A. Cis alkenes are less polar. B. meta-nitrotoluene
B. Cis alkenes have higher boiling points. C. para-nitrotoluene
C. Trans alkenes are more polar. D. ortho-nitrotoluene and para-nitrotoluene
D. Trans alkenes have higher boiling points.
16. Which of the following is TRUE for EAS?
7. How many distinct acyclic compounds have the
formula C5H10?
3 4 5 6

8. Which compound will rapidly decolorize

bromine in CHCl3?
A. hexane B. benzene
A. I only
C. 1-hexene D. cyclohexane
B. II only
C. I and II
9. Which of the compounds below will react
D. II and III
readily with chlorine by addition?
17. Which alkyl halide will most readily react in
SN1 reactions?
A. primary B. secondary
C. tertiary D. can be any
A. I only B. I and II only
C. II and III only D. I, II, and III 18. Which mechanism will the given reaction
10. Which of the following is NOT a reagent for occur?
hydrogenation of an alkyne?
A. H2/Pd
B. Na/NH3
C. H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
2021 CHEM TECH MOCK EXAM ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

25. Which of the following is arranged in order of

A. SN1 B. SN2 increasing boiling point?
C. E1 D. E2 A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol
B. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane < butanone < butanol
19. What is the name of the compound given C. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanol < butanone
below? D. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane < butanol < butanone

26. Which of the following will react faster with

HBr?
A. 1-butanol
A. benzylmagnesium bromide B. 2-butanol
B. phenylmagnesium bromide C. 2-methyl-1-propanol
C. benzylicmagnesium bromide D. 2-methyl-2-propanol
D. ethylphenylmagnesium bromide
27. Which of the following is an aldehyde?
20. Which chloroalkane undergoes substitution
with OH– exclusively by an SN1 mechanism?
A. (CH3)3CCl
B. (CH3)2CHCH2Cl
C. CH3CH2CHClCH3
D. CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl

21. What is the role of hydroxide ion in this

reaction?

CH3CH2CH2CH2Br + OH- CH3CH2CH2CH2OH + Br–

28. Which of the following is the simplest ketone?
A. Oxidizing agent B. Lewis acid A. acetone
C. Catalyst D. Nucleophile B. lactone
C. cyclohexanone
22. Which of the following alcohols will react with D. ethyl methyl ketone
pyridinium dichromate (PDC) to produce an
aldehyde? 29. Which of the following solvents will butyric
acid be most soluble?
A. CCl4
B. water
C. hexane
D. CH2Cl2

30. Which is the most acidic among the following

compounds?
A. CH3OH
23. The reaction below is classified as
B. C6H5OH
C. CH3COOH
D. (CH3)3COH
31. Evolution of gas was observed when an
unknown organic compound is treated with
aqueous Na2CO3. The compound is likely a/an
A. addition B. elimination A. ester B. alkane
C. substitution D. oxidation C. alcohol D. carboxylic acid
24. Which of the following compounds is/are ether
compounds? 32. A student wishes to prepare ethyl acetate
from the reaction of ethanol and acetic acid. To
be successful, this reaction requires
A. an acidic catalyst.
B. a basic catalyst.
C. an oxidizing agent.
D. a reducing agent.

33. Which functional group is directly responsible

A. I only for the flavors present in wine?
B. I and II A. ester B. ether
C. II and IV C. alcohol D. anhydride
D. I, II, and III
2021 CHEM TECH MOCK EXAM ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

34. All of the following can form hydrogen bonds

EXCEPT
A. aniline
B. ethyl amine
C. isopropyl amine
D. trimethyl amine

35. A chemist wishes to separate benzoic acid

from 4-hydroxybenzaldehyde. Which is the best 42. This funnel is used primarily for separating
method to achieve this separation crystals of product from the liquid above them.
A. Partitioning the mixture between diethyl ether and A. filter funnel
water B. dropping funnel
B. Partitioning the mixture between diethyl ether and C. thistle funnel
1M aqueous NaHCO3
D. Büchner funnel
C. Partitioning the mixture between diethyl ether and
1M aqueous NaOH
D. Partitioning the mixture between diethyl ether and 43. Purified solid crystals have
1M aqueous HCl A. low melting points
B. high melting points
36. All of the following are properties of an C. wide melting point ranges
organic solvent for extraction EXCEPT D. narrow melting point ranges
A. dissolve the desired substance
B. react with the desired substance 44. A student isolated solid caffeine from tea
C. not react or be miscible with water leaves. Which experiment will be most useful in
D. have a low boiling point so it can be easily assessing the purity of the isolated caffeine?
removed at a later purification step A. combustion analysis
B. melting point determination
37. This must be done before discarding any C. titration with standard NaOH
liquid after separation (of the liquids) is seen D. determination of the lambda max of the
inside the separatory funnel. solution
A. shaking
B. venting 45. It allows for many successive distillations to
C. salting-out take place at once. It contains indentations or a
D. testing the aqueous and organic layers packing material with lots of surface area.
A. adapter B. condenser
38. This is used to remove trace amounts of water C. round bottom flask D. fractionating column
in organic solutions. This can be added to the
pooled organic layers before removal of the 46. In order to provide heat at a temperature of
organic solvent. 200ºC to solutions containing organic reagents,
A. drying agent which of the following is the most suitable?
B. boiling stone A. heat using a water bath
C. seed crystal B. heat using a sand bath
D. decolorizing carbon C. heat with Bunsen burner
39. All of the following are steps during D. heat with hotplate with stirring
recrystallization EXCEPT 47. Which of the following can promote even
A. Dissolve the sample in a minimum amount of hot boiling?
solvent. A. stones B. chips
B. Filter the hot solution using a stemless funnel. C. stir bars D. All of the above
C. Cool down the filtrate abruptly to recover the
crystallized product quickly. 48. Where should a thermometer be placed to
D. Wash the crystallized product with cold solvent
determine the boiling point of the distillate?
during suction filtration.
A. inside the distilling flask and it should be just
40. This is done to remove colored impurities in a below the side arm of the flask
solution containing the crude sample. B. inside the distilling flask and it should be
A. evaporation of solvent immersed in the mixture being distilled
B. addition of drying agent C. inside the receiver
C. addition of decolorizing carbon D. inside the adapter
D. scratching the sides of the flask
49. This method of distillation is suitable when the
41. A student has synthesized acetylsalicylic acid components of a mixture to be separated are
in the lab. Which apparatus is best suited thermal-sensitive and could decompose at high
separation of the crystalline product? temperatures.
A. steam distillation
B. simple distillation
C. fractional distillation
D. none of the above
2021 CHEM TECH MOCK EXAM ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

50. A 1:1 mixture of pentane and hexane is C. To heat the reaction mixture in a solvent at a
separated by fractional distillation. At what constant temperature without the loss of any
temperature does the first drop of condensate reagents.
appear on the thermometer? D. None of the above.
A. less than 36º
B. at 36º 55. A reaction vessel is to be cooled to -77ºC after
C. between 36º and 69º refluxing. Which of the following can be used?
D. above 69º A. ice bath
B. freezer
51. Which statement best describes the results of C. acetone/dry ice
attempted separation by fractional distillation of D. crushed ice with salt
cis-1,2-dichloroethene and trans-1,2-
dichloroethene ? 56. A student would like to separate the various
A. The two isomers can be separated by fractional components of a sample of ink in the laboratory.
distillation, with cis isomer boiling at the lower Which of the following techniques would be most
temperature. suitable for him to use?
B. The two isomers can be separated by fractional A. filtration
distillation, with trans isomer boiling at the lower
temperature.
B. titration
C. The two isomers cannot be separated by fractional C. distillation
distillation because both isomers have the same boiling D. paper chromatography
point.
D. The two isomers cannot be separated by fractional 57. Retention factor (Rf) is the ratio of
distillation because they interconvert rapidly at the
temperatures at which they distill.

52. What is the purpose of the apparatus shown

below?

A. distance moved by spot from the origin to distance

moved by the solvent from the origin
B. distance moved by solvent from the origin to
distance moved by the spot from the origin
C. distance moved by spot from solvent front to
distance moved by the solvent from solvent front
D. distance moved by solvent from solvent front to
distance moved by the spot from solvent front
58. A substance is analyzed by paper
A. distilling B. filtering chromatography, giving the chromatogram below.
C. refluxing D. titrating What is the Rf value of the substance represented
53. A student is tasked to synthesize methyl by the spot at 8.0 cm?
benzoate by refluxing benzoic acid in methanol
overnight in the presence of a catalytic amount of
sulfuric acid. Which setup is most appropriate for

A. 0.80
carrying out this B. 0.75
reaction? C. 0.67
D. 0.60

59. The chroma plate in TLC is made of

A. glass B. wood
C. fiber D. metal

60. Methyl t-butyl ether (MTBE) is a controversial

gasoline additive. Which of the following
techniques would be best to measure
quantitatively trace amounts of MTBE in
contaminated groundwater?
A. Capillary electrophoresis
B. Gas chromatography
54. What is the main purpose of heating under C. Atomic absorption spectroscopy
reflux? D. Fluorescence spectroscopy
A. To provide a very high temperature so that
slow reactions occur at faster rates. 61. The efficiency of chromatographic columns
B. To increase the rate of evaporation of the increases as (in the choices: N = plate count, H =
solvent to increase the product yield. plate height)
2021 CHEM TECH MOCK EXAM ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

A. N becomes greater and as H becomes smaller D. I, II, III, and IV

B. N becomes lesser and as H becomes larger
C. Both N and H becomes constant 69. An ideal detector in HPLC has the following
D. None of the above desirable features EXCEPT
A. high detection limit
62. The distribution constant is the ratio of the B. linear response over a wide range of solute
concentration of a solute in the stationary phase concentrations
to its concentration in the mobile phase. Benzene C. sensitive for all solutes or selective for a
has a lower distribution constant than specific class of solutes
cyclohexane. Which will elute first during a D. insensitive to a change in flow rate or
chromatographic analysis? temperature
A. benzene
B. cyclohexane 70. In the analysis of a mixture by gas
C. both will elute at the same time chromatography, which of the following gives the
D. neither will be eluted best clue as to whether the components can be
analyzed with any degree of accuracy?
63. It is the more common form of high pressure A. column length
liquid chromatography (HPLC) where the B. retention times
stationary phase is nonpolar and the mobile C. column temperature
phase is polar. D. flow rate of the carrier gas
A. HPLC-MS B. HPLC-NMR
C. Normal-phase D. Reverse-phase 71. The determination of the equilibrium constant
of a colored species can be done via which
64. In anion-exchange chromatography, technique?
A. The column contains negatively-charged beads A. Conductance
where positive species bind. B. Ion-exchange
B. The column contains positively-charged beads C. Electrophoresis
where negative species bind. D. Spectrophotometry
C. The column contains both positive and
negatively-charged beads where species bind 72. All proteins absorb electromagnetic radiation
depending on their net charge. of wavelength around 190 nm, which corresponds
D. None of the above. to a 𝜋 ⟶𝜋* excitation in the protein molecule. In
which region of the spectrum is this wavelength
found?
65. Ion-exchange chromatography is based on A. X-ray B. Ultraviolet
A. electrostatic attraction C. Visible D. Microwave
B. electrical mobility of ionic species
C. electrical conductance of species 73. A food scientist wants to determine if an oil
D. partitioning of a species between phases sample contains saturated or unsaturated fatty
acids. Which of the following spectroscopic
66. It is a type of size-exclusion chromatography, techniques would be most suitable?
that separates analytes on the basis of size, A. UV spectroscopy
typically in organic solvents. The technique is B. Visible spectroscopy
often used for the analysis of polymers. C. Infrared spectroscopy
A. Gel filtration chromatography D. Mass spectroscopy
B. Gel permeation chromatography
C. Ion-exchange chromatography 74. For aqueous solutions of which of the
D. Hydrophobic interaction chromatography following substances could the concentration be
determined by visible spectrophotometry?
67. Which of the following chromatographic A. Cr(NO3)3 B. KMnO4
techniques does not exist? C. Zn(NO3)2 D. Both A and B
A. Liquid-liquid chromatography
B. Solid-solid chromatography 75. Which species of the following is used to
C. Gas-liquid chromatography bombard with the sample for which mass
D. Gas-solid chromatography spectroscopy has been performed?
A. Alpha particles B. Neutrons
68. Quantitative analysis can be achieved by C. Electrons D. Protons
which of the following technique/s?
76. What is the correct order of stages during a
mass spectroscopic analysis?
A. Ionization – vaporization – acceleration –
deflection – detection
B. Vaporization – ionization – deflection –
A. II only detection – acceleration
B. I and II only C. Vaporization – ionization – acceleration –
C. II and III only deflection – detection
2021 CHEM TECH MOCK EXAM ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

D. Acceleration – deflection – vaporization – 84. According to Revised DAO 04-36, the

ionization – detection appropriate waste labels shall include
A. Volume of Waste
77. IR spectroscopy is useful for determining B. Generator ID Number
certain aspects of the structure of organic C. HW class and Number
molecules because D. All of the above
A. All molecular bonds absorb IR radiation.
B. IR peak intensities are related to molecular 85. Why is there a need to separate halogenated
mass. waste from non-halogenated waste?
C. Vibrational transitions are related to spin-spin A. Halogenated waste disposal is more costly.
coupling. B. Non-halogenated waste are more toxic.
D. Most organic functional groups absorb in a C. They are not compatible.
characteristic region of the IR spectrum. D. They will react.

78. Which of the following will have higher IR 86. Hazardous waste should be kept separate
absorptions in its IR spectrum? Do not include from other waste because
absoprtion from common bonds (C–C and C–H) A. Costs are different.
B. Different treatments.
C. Others can be recycled.
D. All of the above.
87. Which of the following should be done when
handling flammable and combustible liquids?
A. Keep away from potential ignition sources.
B. Use and store in adequately ventilated areas.
C. Keep container closed except when
79. A compound with the molecular formula
dispensing.
C7H14O has an IR absorption at 1715 cm-1.
D. All of the above.
Which of the following is responsible for this
absorption?
88. What should you do when a waste container
A. CXB. C=C
has a minor leak?
C. C=N D. C=O
A. Patch up the container.
B. Transfer to another container.
80. All of the following absorptions can be seen
C. Call your PCO to report in a regulatory body.
above 3000 cm-1 in an IR spectrum EXCEPT
D. Put the container with leak in a bigger
A. CH B. CC
container.
C. OHD. NH
89. Which of the following correctly describes
81. In handling acid wastes, what type of
NFPA 704 (Standard System for the Identification
protective gloves should be used?
of the Hazards of Materials for Emergency
A. cloth gloves
Response)?
B. rubber gloves
A. blue - health, red - fire, yellow - instability,
C. surgical gloves
white - specific hazards
D. disposal plastic gloves
B. blue - instability, red - fire, yellow - health,
white - specific hazards
82. The following are the minimum requirements
C. red - instability, yellow - fire, white - specific,
for hazardous waste storage facilities EXCEPT
blue - health hazards
A. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.
D. red - health, yellow - specific, white - instability,
B. Properly secured and not easily accessed by
blue - fire hazards
unauthorized persons.
C. Accessible in cases of emergency and for
90. Organic peroxides are dangerous when
purposes of inspection and monitoring.
A. when heated.
D. Equipped with floors that are impermeable to
B. concentrated.
liquids and resistant to attack by chemicals, not
C. when you let ether, p-dioxane, THF, among
slippery, and constructed to retain spillages.
others to vaporize.
D. All of the above.
83. It is a hazardous waste characteristic which
applies to wastes that have the potential to
91. The following are good sampling practices
contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed
EXCEPT
of. These materials are regulated as hazardous
A. If possible, mix the material before getting the
waste due to their potential to leach out specific
sample.
toxic substances in a landfill.
B. Take several increments and composite them
A. ignitability
to form the sample.
B. reactivity
C. Sample frequently enough to allow for the
C. corrosivity
identification of process cycles.
D. toxicity
D. Collect the sample in a container made of
material that will chemically react with the sample.
2021 CHEM TECH MOCK EXAM ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

D. Light green body, white band

92. Which of the following can be disposed down
the drain? 100. A technical document, which is GHS
A. 1 g/L PCl5 compliant, that contains all the information related
B. 0.1M H2SO4 to the health hazard, storage, precautionary
C. 200g/L PCl5 measures, emergency procedures, etc. when
D. None of the above handling chemicals.
A. Safety Data Sheet
93. What is the composition of fire triangle? B. Chemical Data Sheet
A. Air, fuel, fire C. Material Safety Data Sheet
B. Oxygen, fuel, heat D. Chemical Safety Data Sheet
C. Air, fuel, spark
D. Oxygen, heat, material

94. When handling concentrated acids except

hydrofluoric acid, which of the following PPE must
be worn?
A. gloves
B. lab gown and safety boots
C. masks with respirators
D. all of the above

95. When using a fume hood, all of the following

must be don EXCEPT
A. Making sure that the exhaust is operating.
B. Keeping the hood closed, except during
apparatus set-up or when working within the
hood.
C. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile
chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is
not available.
D. Removing contaminated items with odors and
hazardous materials only after decontamination or
if placed in a closed container to avoid release of
contaminants into the air.

96. It is the highest concentration of a substance

in the air that will produce a fire or explosion when
source of ignition such as heat, spark or flame is
present.
A. lower flammable/explosive limit
B. upper flammable/explosive limit
C. reactivity limit
D. flash limit

97. According to the GHS, which of the following

is NOT under the pictogram “Gas Cylinder”?
A. compressed gas B. dissolved gas
C. liquefied gas D. explosive gas

98. According to the GHS, which of the following

is referred to by this symbol?

A. oxidizers B. flammable materials

C. explosives D. corrosives

99. According to the Department of Trade and

Industry-Bureau of Philippine Standards (DTI-
BPS), what color designations correspond to dry
chemical (ABC) type of fire extinguisher?
A. Red body, white band
B. Red body, black band
C. Red body, blue band