CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

BOARD EXAM TRIAL

Prepared by: Prof. Karolina Erika A. Buted, RCrim, CCS

I. FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

9. In this process, written confession of the accused is

used as a script in describing events of the crime. This
1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a strengthens the prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the
person who commits a crime and simultaneously identify, judge that the accused was not maltreated nor affected by
collect, preserve, and evaluate evidence for the purpose of sinister psychological influence.
bringing criminal offender to justice. a. Mental reconstruction c. Reconstruction
a. Investigation c. Investigative process
b. Crime reenactment d. Physical reconstruction
b. Criminal investigation d. Criminal inquest
10. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement,
2. After identifying, collecting, and preserving information either oral or written, made by a person charged with the
gathered about the crime, the investigator shall commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or
_______________ such information to determine whether it commission of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied, it
can stand prosecution and trial. should be direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt.
a. Recognize c. Preserve Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused
b. Collect d. Evaluate regarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in
connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the
3. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible suspect’s guilt. It can be implied.
things may be used to detect crimes, identify the criminals, a. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving b. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
the objectives of criminal investigation. c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
a. Information c. Instrumentation d. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
b. Criminalistics d. Interview/Interrogation
11. Which of the following need not be present in order to
4. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the prove the guilt of the accused by means of confession or
investigator apprised the person of his right under Republic admission?
Act 7438? a. Confession must be supported by corroborative eviden
a. During the identification of criminal offender ce
b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the o b. Corpus delicti must be established separately
ffender c. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
c. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal
criminal offender
d. During police line-up 12. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates
a murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. A person
5. What specific offence has been committed? Who in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and
committed it? When was it committed? Where was it he is willing to identify the suspect. Which of the following
committed? Why was it committed? And how it was methods will you not utilize to establish the identity of the
committed? This are called_______________________ of suspect?
criminal investigation. a. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery
a. Cardinal Points c. Golden Rule (Photographic Files)
b. Three I’s d. Bridges burn b. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch (Artist’s
Assistance) [Composite Artist]
6. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the c. Police Line-up
identification of criminals, which can be done in any or a d. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a
combination of the following, except:
known criminals
a. By confession or admission by the criminal
b. By corpus delicti
13. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly
c. By circumstantial evidence
proves a fact in issue through an inference which fact-finder
d. By eyewitness draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to
produce the conviction of the accused if:
7. Coerced and uncounseled statements are considered a. There are more than one circumstances present
involuntary or forced confession which are usually a/an: b. The facts from which the inferences derived are prove
a. Judicial c. Prosecutorial n
b. Extra judicial d. Admission c. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to
produce a conviction beyond reasonable doubt
8. An act or declaration made in the presence and within d. All of the above
the hearing or observation of a party who does or says
nothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for action
if comment is not true. 14. Person who by social or professional position possesses
a. Admission by Silence c. Admission or has access to information of continuing interest, and who
willingly provides information to the police either in response
b. Res inter alios acta d. Negative pregnant
to a specific request or his own initiative.
a. Incidental informant c. Automatic informant
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 b. Casual informant d. Recruited informant d. All of the above

15. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by 23. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime, except:
human or technical means to acquire information. a. Over-All and environment’s photograph
a. Surveillance c. Mobile
b. b. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of t
b. Stationary surveillance d. Technical
he deceased
16. In this method of shadowing, operatives are station at c. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showing the
a fixed point assuming that subject followed the same ir identity
general route each day. d. Special techniques photograph of the body after removal
a. ABC Method c. Combined Foot- Auto Su
rveillance 24. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and
b. Leap Frog Method d. None of the above considered to be the simplest and the most effective way of
showing actual measurements and of identifying significant
17. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique items of evidence in their location at the scene.
whereby the operative conceals his true identity and adopts a. Crime scene sketch c. Finished sketch
an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a b. Rough sketch d. Direction sketch
specific mission.
a. Undercover assignment c. Work assignme 25. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene,
nt and social assignment the following types of search could be used depending upo
b. Dwelling assignment d. Perso n locale, number of personnel available, type of object soug
nal contact assignment ht and speed desired, except:
a. Strip and double strip or grid search
18. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the b. Zone search
crime scene. What are the components of the crime scene c. Rectangular and circular search
situation which you would analyzed?
d. Spiral and wheel search
a. Suspect arrival at the scene and place of entry
b. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his cont
26. Which of the following must be done to maintain the p
act with the victim
hysical integrity of evidence?
c. Place of exit
a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
d. All of the above
b. Evidence must be properly documented
c. Maintain its chain of custody
19. What is the type of reasoning whereby the collected
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
information is analyzed carefully to develop a theory of the
crime?
a. 27. Which of the following must be done to maintain the l
Inductive c. Systematic egal integrity of evidence?
a. Evidenced must be properly documented
b. b. Maintain its chain of custody
Deductive d. Logical c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence
20. The most unusual style of interrogation:
(December 2018 Board Exam Question) 28. The methodology involving the systematic searching,
a. Jolting handling, distribution and accountability of all evidence
found at the crime scene, including the documentation of
every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery
b. Hypnotism
at the scene, to its collection and transport to the point of
c. Mutt and Jeff examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is
d. Bluff on a split pair referred to us.
a. Corpus delicti c. Blotter
21. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are b. Necropsy report d. Chain of custody
the minimal requirements to be observed by the investigator
to insure admissibility of photographs in court. 29. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the followin
a. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or irre g must be demonstrated except:
levant a. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamina
b. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympath tion and switching
y b. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at th
c. The photograph should be free from distortion e scene
d. All of the above c. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter t
he evidence
22. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence needs to be p d. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be ex
hotographed after its removal from the crime scene? plained
a. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body wi
th the surrounding 30. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written state
b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the ment is:
wounds a. Narrative type because it is easier and will be short
c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage

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 b. Question and answer because it provides details of ac b. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
ts c. Legality
d. It should be done in the interrogation room with one
c. Combination of the two
way mirror
d. Your convenient type

31. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to answer 38. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the
questions pertinent to the murder case investigated. After searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along
the questioning at the NBI Headquarters however, he was radius or spokes. Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the
held for further questioning and considered him a suspect searchers follow each other along the path of a spiral,
already. Persons who can visit him are as follows, except: beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward the center.
a. Lovers, friends and countrymen a. Statement No. 1 is correct
b. Immediate member of his family b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
c. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister c. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. Personnel of the C.H.R d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

32. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of 39. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:
the family are as follows, except: a. Extent the estimate of the scene
a. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or siste b. Search physical evidence at the scene
r
b. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great granddaught c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix with the c
er/grandson rowd to listen to their conversation
c. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
d. None of the above
d. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends

40. Which of the following provide for the view of the crime
33. The interview of a witness can be described by the ac
scene and its environment, including roads, neighboring
ronym IRONIC, which stands for:
buildings, location of house etc.?
a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, C
a. Sketch of Detail
ontinuity
c. Sketch of Ground
b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Co
b. Sketch of Locality
nclusion
d. Sketch of Surrounding
c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, I
nquiry, Conclusion
41. It refers to the photographs of criminals available in the
police station that are shown to a witness for possible
d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inqu
identification.
iry, Conclusion
A. Criminals Report
C. Prisoner’s Record
34. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene?
a. By photographs c. By sketches B. Rogue’s Gallery
b. By notes d. Surveying D. Suspects’ File

35. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for verbal

description of a person after a short period of visual
observation is termed Portrait Parle; Statement No. 2- 42. The question How in the Cardinal Points of investigation
Description of police characters which a witness may refer can answer…
and that is kept by police unit for purpose of references is A. Character
Rogue’s Gallery C. Intent
a. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is in
correct B. Modus Operandi
b. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorre D. Setting
ct
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect 43. Which of the following type of surveillance is done with
so much precaution from losing the subject where
36. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ constant surveillance is necessary?
custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is
A. Close
entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda
C. Covert
doctrine which cannot be waived?
a. At the time of custodial investigation
B. Loose
b. During the announcement that he is under arrest
D. Overt
c. During the actual questioning
d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

37. What is the principal psychological factor that contribu 44. It refers to a person who gives information to the
tes to a successful interrogation? investigator by reason of price, reward or favor.
a. Privacy A. Agent C. Informer

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B. Spy D. Whistle Blower B. Otit vs Jeff
C. Mapp vs Ohio
D. Milkey vs Wett

45. What is a type of surveillance where the subject is not 53. America's most famous private investigator and
aware that he is being watched or observed? founder of Criminal Investigation.
A. Covert C. Loose A. Alec Nayhem
B. Allan Pinkerton
B. Overt D. Rough C. Thomas Byrnes
D. None of these

46. It refers to the general questioning of a person 54. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is
conducted by the investigator. reluctant to divulge information?
A. Field Inquiry A. interview C. interrogation
C. Field Instrumentation
B. information D. instrumentation
B. Field Interview

D. Field Interrogation
55. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be shown
in order to obtain conviction?

47. The New York Chief of Detectives who introduce the A. intent C. desire
Modus Operandi system in the field of Criminal
Investigation was: B. motive D. opportunity
A. Thomas Byrnes C. Sir
Richard Henry
B. Sir Francis Galton D. Dr. 56. Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator from
Paul Kirk informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and others.

A. Grapevine Sources C. Cultivated

48. A criminal investigator who is discreetly listening to the Sources
conversation of the subjects while the former is seated
on a table near the former’s table is applying: B. Regular Sources D. Cognitive
interview
A. Eavesdropping C. discreet
listening
B. bugging D. wiretapping
57. What interrogation techniques when the investigator
indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a grave
49. The word investigation is taken from the Latin word offense.
“investigare” which means to: A. Sympathetic Appeal C. Mutt and Jeff
A. determine C. solve
B. Extenuation D. Emotional
B. prove D. trace Appeal

58. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling

50. The person who popularized the employment of “a thief
short of an acknowledgment of guilt.
to catch a thief” was:
A. Confession C. Admission
A. William Henry Talbot C.
Thomas Byrnes B. Extra-Judicial Confession D. Judicial
B. Charles Dickens D. Jonathan Wild Confession

59. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known criminals, their

51. An Englishman who published a handbook for Modus Operandi, hiding places and names of associate criminals.
Examining Magistrates in Munich, Germany and A. Physical Line-up C. Physical Show-
advocated the use of scientific methods in criminal up
investigation process.
A. Hans Gross C. Alphonse B. Geographic Sketch D. Rogues Gallery
Bertillon
B. Thomas Byrnes D.
Francis Galton 60. Facts and circumstances observed and testified to by
witnesses that an inference of the identity of the perpetrators
may be established. Evidence that merely tends to incriminate
52. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is
a person, such as a suspect’s footprints found near the crime
inadmissible in state criminal prosecutions in the
famous case of: scene.
A. Miranda vs Arizona

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 A. Associative Evidence C. b. General Warrant
Tracing Evidence
c. search warrant
B. Circumstantial Evidence D.
d. non-specific warrant
Corpus Delicti

68. It is an area which is ideally located adjacent to the crime

61. It refers to a person who gives information relevant to a scene where the CSI Evidence Custodian stays and receives the
criminal case about the activities of the criminals voluntarily to pieces of evidence turned over to him for safekeeping by the
the investigator and who may even be willing to be a witness. other evidence collectors.
A. Informant C. Informer
a. crime scene
B. Mercenary D. Women
b. command post

c. receiving post
62. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will proceed at
d. evidence receiving area
the same place along the path parallel to one side of the
rectangle.
A. Wheel search method C. Quadrant
Search 69. it pictures the scene of the crime with its nearest physical
surroundings.
B. Spiral search method D. Strip Search
a. sketch of the ground

b. sketch of details
63. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in
court; it should be taken from ____. c. sketch of locality
A. General View C. Close-up view
d. cross projection
B. Mid-range D.
General to Specific
70. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the crime
and its environs, including neighboring buildings, roads, etc.?
64. it is a police operation wherein the investigator assumes a
A. Sketch of Locality C.
fictitious identity in order to infiltrate the ranks of criminals for
Sketch of Environs
the purpose of obtaining information.
B. Sketch of the Ground D. Sketch of
a. undercover operation
Details
b. natural cover

c. artificial cover
71. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the
d. covert operation law enforcers in order to get more information from them than
he gives.

A. Double-crosser informants C.
65. What kind of undercover assignment is made by Emman, an Mercenary informants
agent, if he is assigned Gastro Publiko, a resto bar where his
subject is usually seen hanging out. B. False informants
D. Self-aggrandizing informants
a. work assignment
72. Articles and materials which are found in connection with
b. social assignment the investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances which the crime was
c. subversive organizations
committed or which, in general assist in the prosecution of the
d. residential assignment criminal.

66. it is a cover wherein there is a manufacture of documents, A. Tracing evidence

false documents, passports, and forged documents. C. Corpus delicti

a. natural cover c. official cover B. Associative evidence

D. Physical or material evidence
b. artificial cover d. non-official cover
73. it is an element of finished sketch

a. legend
67. it is a warrant that does not allege any specific acts or
omissions constituting the offense charged in the application for b. title
the issuance of search warrant.
c. compass direction
a. John Doe Warrant
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 d. scale of proportion d. cumulative evidence

74. this method uses two walls in a room as fixed points, from 80. It is the surprise invasion of a building or area.
which distances are measured at right angle to the object
a. entrapment
a. triangulation method
b. raid
b. baseline method
c. instigation
c. rectangular coordinates method
d. roping
d. compass point method

81. The following are the basic requirements in conducting raid,

75. the self-aggrandizing person who delights giving information except:
to gain favorable attention from the police authorities.
a. with marked police vehicle
a. repentance
b. preferably led by a Commissioned officer
b. vanity
c. with personnel in proper uniform
c. social-climber
d. must be wearing bulletproof jacket
d. renumeration

82. It is an informal and summary investigation conducted by a

76. it is a process of identification by witnesses wherein public prosecutor in criminal cases involving persons arrested
unknown fugitive who is mixed with innocent persons lined and detained without the benefit of warrant of arrest issued by
before the witness. the court for the purpose of determining whether or not said
persons should remain under custody and correspondingly be
a. physical show-up charged in court.
b. police identification a. preliminary investigation
c. police line-up b. inquest
d. witness identification c. arrest

d. seizure
77. Laura, being part of the gang is being observed by the
surveillant. She is called as the _____.
83. It is the investigation conducted by the investigator on the
a. suspect suspect who is under police custody.
b. witness a. investigation
c. subject b. interrogation
d. asset c. custodial investigation

d. custodial interrogation
78. The following are not ways to elude foot surveillance.
Except:
84. When is RA 7438 not available?
a. stopping abruptly and look back
a. when a person is arrested
b. using convoys
b. when a person is detained
c. retracing steps
c. during police-line up
d. using decoys
d. during custodial investigation

79. It is an evidence directed to prove a fact in issue as

determined by the rules of substantive law and pleadings. 85. This is applicable when there is more than one suspect. The
suspects are separated an done is informed that other has
a. material evidence talked
b. relevant evidence a. bluff on the split pair
c. competent evidence b. mutt and jeff

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 c. jolting b. casing d. raid

d. shifting the blame

94. it is a unit within the PNP which is responsible in processing

significant crime scene which are sensational in nature.
86. One of the qualities of a good investigation report states
that it must short but concise, meaning, the report must be - a. Scene of the Crime Operatives

A. Fair C. Clear b. Scene of the Crime Operation

B. Brief D. Impartial c. Scene of the Crim Operating

d. Scene of the Crim Cooperation

87. These are the three fold aims of the criminal investigator,
EXCEPT
95. What is the first priority of the first responders as soon as
a. to identify the guilty party they arrive and respond the crime scene?
b. to provide evidence of his guilt
c. to locate the guilty party a. cordon the area
d. to file charges at the proper court
b. look for the suspect

88. This consists of objects or substances which are an essential c. save life/ give first aid
part of the body of the crime. d. preserve evidence
a. corpus delicti
b. tracing evidence
c. associative evidence 96. the following are the golden rule in crime scene
d. evidence investigation.

a. Do not Move, Alter, Change

89. It is existing between the investigator and the subject, and
it is usually determines the success of the investigation. b. 5Ws and 1H

a. rapport c. Do not move, embalm, cremate

b. personality
c. breadth of interest d. Information, Interview/Interrogation &
d. the approach Instrumentation

90. It is a person other than the suspect, who is requested to

give information concerning an incident or person. 97. where should fired empty shells be marked?

a. witness a. ogive or nose

b. victim
b. inside the mouth
c. subject
d. suspect c. at the base

91. the following are kinds of personal property can be subject d. anywhere you like
of search or seizure. Except:

a. fruits of the offense or those used or intended to

be used as the means of committing an offense 98. it is the safest type of search.
b. subject of the offense
a. wall search
c. stolen or embezzled property
d. contrabands b. stand search

c. kneeling search
92. the following the cardinal points of investigation, except:
d. prone search
a. what specific offense has been committed

b. where was the crime committed

99. it is an area where you could stay in which there are no
c. who is the wife of the offender
possible evidence that may accidentally be disturbed or altered.
d. whom it was committed
a. Crim scene

b. headquarters
93. it is the careful inspection of a place or building to determine
c. command post
its suitability for a particular operational purpose.
d. police station
a. surveillance c. foot patrol

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 100. this is considered a hesitant and reluctant type of witness. 7. Which of the following is NOT one of the examples of covert
information: (June 2018 Board Exam Question)
a. suspicious type a. Grapevine
b. drunken type b. Information

c. talkative type c. Informers

d. know-nothing type d. Public Records

8. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration of the b

a. livor mortis
II. SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH LEGAL MEDICINE b. rigor mortis
c. algor mortis
d. all of the above

1. The Female Blowfly which typically lay its eggs at the

(December 2018 Board Exam Question) 9. When murders based on relationship are to be committed in
a. drainage a home, who among the following MOST LIKELY could be
b. canals murdered in the BEDROOM? (June 2019 Board Exam
c. water Question.)
d. rotten flesh a. Male
b. Female
c. Children
2. Vincent killed his adaptor after the rendition of judgment of d. Parents
the petition for adoption. What was the crime committed by
Vincent?
10. Identification of a dead body through examination of the
a. Parricide
teeth: (Nov- Dec 2019 Board Exam Question)
b. Murder
a. Forensic pathology
c. Homicide b. Forensic chemistry

d. None of the above c. Forensic odontology

d. Forensic medicine

3. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in

mind are, mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be
11. In tropical countries like the Philippines, the color of post
corrected and the homicide investigator should not cross the
mortem lividity after death is? (June 2019 Board Exam
three bridges which he burns behind him. Which of the
Question)
following is not one of this so called “Burned bridge”?
a. Blue
a. When the dead person has been moved
b. Red
b. When the dead body has been embalmed c. Purple

Dark red
c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain c.of custody was
not 12. The notion, which declares that human behavior tends to
properly accounted repeat itself, can serve as basis of the investigator in
determining:
d. When the body is burned or cremated a. Criminal behavior

b. Modus operandi
c. Nature of the crime
4. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide investigation is: d. Criminal intent
a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death
b. Process of determining who is responsible for the death 13. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s
c. Process of determining how the victim was killed womb:
d. Process of determining when the victim was killed a. Infanticide c. Abortion

b. Parricide d. Murder
5. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be performed?
a. Death has been caused by violence
b. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of homicide.
14. In this case, a price, reward or promise has been considered
c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
to kill the victim:
d. In all cases involving death
a. Homicide
b. Parricide
6. c. atInfanticide
Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator upon arrival the homicide
scene? d. Murder
a. Verification of death
b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the death
15. Marking produced by screw driver used to forcibly open
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
the cabinet is called. (December 2018 Board Exam
d. All of the above
question)
a. Scratch marks
b. Scuff marks

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 c. Tool marks b. Reclusion temporal
d. Skid marks c. Death
d. Destierro

16. The disinterment of the body to determine the cause of death is called.
23. After a long day at work, PO1 Ping Guerrero went home and
a. Autopsy caught her common-law wife, Ms. Tina Moran having sex
with their neighbor, Mr. Joe Tay. After having been caught,
b. Medico Legal PO1 Guerrero immediately drew his gun and killed both of
them. Based on the situation given, is PO1 Guerrero liable
c. Exhumation
for the crime under Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code
d. All of these (RPC) entitled, Death or Physical injuries inflicted under
exceptional circumstances.
a. Yes
b. No
17. It is the photographing of arrested suspect both full face and side profile.
c. False
a. Line up
b. Portrait parle
c. Selfie 24. Which of the following is NOT a common element of robbery
and theft?
d. Mug shot a. The personal property is taken with intent to gain.

b. The offense can be committed by a band.

18.One of the motives of an informant in providing the investigator c. The personal property belongs to another.
necessary information by reason that he had feeling of regret d. The unlawful taking of that property.
for his past actions.
a. Remuneration 25. Kokiks who killed his live-in or the woman to whom he had
b. Civic mindedness dating relationship with has committed what crime?
c. vanity a. Homicide C. Murder
d. repentance b. Parricide D. Infanticide

19. Which of the following notion regarding criminal investigation is true?26. Nollie while under the influence of drugs threw away the
I. Criminal Investigation is governed by rigid rules exactly three hours old son of his sister causing death to the
II. Crime Probe is governed by intuition, felicity of inspiration and chance orinfant
luck. can be liable for what crime?
III. a. itHomicide
Criminal Investigation involves application of various sciences therefore is a science. C. Murder
IV. Criminal investigation is an art for it is not governed by rigid rules b. Parricide D. Infanticide

a. I, II and III
27. When the gunshot wound of the victim is located in the area
b. II, III and IV of the body that is relatively inaccessible to the victim, it is
an indication of:
c. I and II A. natural death

d. III and IV B. homicidal death

C. Accidental death

20. An investigator tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What D. Suicide

are the components of the crime scene situation which
should be analyzed? –
1. Suspect arrival at the scene 28. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have
2. place of entry the intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent to kill, the
3. movement of suspect from the point of entry and his contact offender is liable for –
with the victim
A. Physical Injury C. Serious physical injury
4. place of exit.
B. Homicide D. Consummated
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 physical injury
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 4 29. The cracks produced in glass originated on the opposite
surface of the glass and subjected to stretching are known
as:
21. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has just
A. Concentric C. radial
been unearthed or discovered and the suspect and witness
are still emotionally affected, upset, or shocked. B. A and c D. none
a. Hot case
b. In flagrante delicto case
c. cold case
d. none of these 30. In what circumstances change murder to homicide?
a. Treachery
22. The penalty for Article 247 shall be? b. Absence of qualifying circumstances
a. Reclusion Perpetua c. Lack of intent

9|P age AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 d. Taking advantage of superior strength house. When Mateo was already inside his house, Gerald
took it as an opportunity to kill him by burning his house
31. The killing is murder when the offender after killing the which he did successfully. What is the crime committed by
victim cut off the head and limbs and opened up of the body Gerald?
to remove the intestines of the deceased. What A. Murder only
circumstance qualified the killing?
A. by inhumanly augmenting the suffering of the victim B. Arson with Homicide
C. Arson and Murder
B. by employing means to weaken the defense
D. Arson only
C. by outraging or scoffing at the corpse of the victim
D. by mockery at the corpse of the victim
40. Which of the following are the questions in incidents
involving assaults that CANNOT be answer by a medico
32. What is the liability of the offender who, on the occasion of legal?
the crime of robbery, killed his cohort while trying to flee
A. How many are the victims?
from the scene?
B. What is the position of the victim when he
a. robbery with homicide
was assaulted
b. robbery and homicide
c. robbery with murder C. Was there evidence of defense mark or
d. robbery and murder struggle

D. From what direction was the force applied

coming from
33. Which of the following is not a crime against person?
a. Physical injury C. Direct Assault crime against public order
b. Illegal discharge of F/A D. Parricide
41. Rape is committed either by sexual intercourse or by
sexual assault. Which of the following is not a rape by
34. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred? sexual assault?
1. Respiratory system (pag hinga) is no longer performing within the body
A. Inserting penis into another person's anal
2. Cardiac activity(puso) is no longer performing within the body
3. Central Nervous System(brain) ceases to function orifice
A. 1 C. 2 and 3
B. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
B. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
C. Inserting any instrument or object, into the
genital or anal orifice of another person
35. A dead body was found and there is already presence of
maggots, it indicates that the dead body was at least. D. Inserting penis into another person's
A. 2 days C. 5 days mouth
B. 3 days D. 1 week

36. is produced by compression of the neck by means of 42. Supposed Ana threw the three days old baby of her sister,
a ligature which is tightened by a force other than the weight what crime has been committed?
of the body. A. Infanticide
B. Parricide
A. Strangulation by ligature C.
C. Murder
Hanging D. Homicide
B. Throttling D.
Gagging
43. It is the basic understanding of the crime scene technicians
about what they are trying to accomplish and why.
37. Aldus snathed the bag of a lady walking along Hidalgo Street A. Method
committed what crime? B. Knowledge
A. Theft C. Estafa C. Wisdom
B. Robbery D. Malicious mischief D. Discretion

44. In investigating sex crimes, consider everyone as ______.

A. Victim
38. Arturo wants to get an NBI clearance but he has been B. Suspect
previously convicted for Murder making it impossible to C. Witness
acquire a clearance. So he approached an NBI staff and D. All of the above
offered a considerable amount. The NBI staff accepts the 45. It is a peculiar way of sex offender who puts his dreams to
money offered and issue him an NBI clearance. What is the reality to see if he will feel even better and its importance
crime committed by Arturo? to him
A. Extortion A. Ritualism
B. Favoritism B. Voyeurism
C. Bribery C. Masochism
D. Corruption of public official D. Sex fantasy

46. This is the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995:

39. Gerald and Mateo, while having a drinking spree, had an A. RA 8049 C. RA 8505
argument on who among them is more handsome. Mateo,
in order to terminate the quarrel, stood up and went home. B. RA 7877 D. RA 6235
Without Mateo’s knowledge, Gerald followed him to his
10 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 55. He is considered as the Father of Toxicology.

47. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act: a. Mathieu Orfilla

A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610
b. Hippocrates
B. RA 10054 D. RA 3019
c. Paracelsus

d. Edmond Locard
48. The use of a loose firearm, when inherent in the commission
of a crime punishable under the Revised Penal Code or other
special laws, shall be considered as a/an________.
A. Aggravating circumstance 56. Characteristics of gunshot wound of entrance
B. Qualifying circumstance
C. Separate crime
A. Inverted edge B. Bigger size
D. Mitigating circumstance

49. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel and there, C. Protrusion of tissue D. No definite shape
through threat and intimidation succeeds in inserting his
penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if any does X commit?
a. Sexual assault c. Acts of
lasciviousness 57. One is a condition that can approximate the
time of death.
b. Rape d. None
A. Cadaver B. Magnus test

C. Rigor mortis D. None of these

50. Known as Anti Fencing Law of 1979.
a. PD 1612 c. BP 22

b. RA 3019 d. PD 532 58. What refers to the cutting of a body part of

another person to weaken his defense?

A. Castration B. Mayhem
51. A stabbing incident transpired at the office of the college
dean, what method of search should be employed to C. Mutilation D. Amputation
maximize for the search of truth?
A. Zone method

b. Spiral method 59. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood
vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
c. Wheel method
A. hypostatic lividity B. Diffusion lividity
d. Strip method
C. hyper lividity D. rigor mortis

52. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by sharp

edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken glasses: 60. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented
A. Incised wound C. Punctured and locations of evidence was noted, the collection process
wound begins and will usually starts with:

B. Stab wound D. A. point of exit C. fragile

Lacerated wound evidence

B. large objects D. removal of cadaver

53. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as an

evidence should be marked where ____.
61. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the
A. At the tip of the blade C. At the frame scene of the crime will most likely mean that-

B. At the base D. At the handle A. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived.

B. the suspect was professional

54. It is the chemical process of restoring erased or C. the suspect was juvenile
tampered engine and chassis numbers.
D. the police probably did not conduct a complete
a. micro etching search for evidence.

b. macro etching

c. etching 62. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is

divided into two different classifications, one is robbery by
d. chemical etching the use of force upon things, and the other is:

11 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 A. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person 68. it is the best method to use for searching wide
areas.
B. taking of personal property belonging to another
a. zone method
C. with intent, to gain and to possess the property
b. wheel method
D. pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
c. spiral method

d. strip search method

63. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief
in an automobile which has been stolen and abandoned is
on –
69. it is the condition of a woman where the hymen of her
A. Door handles C. Steering wheel vagina is still intact or unruptured

B. Rear view mirror D. Dashboard a. Virginity

b. Defloration

64. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles occurring at c. Hymen

the moment of death, usually associated with violent death
due to extreme nervous tension, or even fatigue? d. none of the above

A. Heat Stiffening B. Cadaveric

Spasm 70. a police officer have the legal authority to
C. Rigor Mortis D. Cold Stiffening pronounce death.

a. true

65. The cause of death of a person who immediately died b. false

because of lack of oxygen for around 3 to five minutes c. yes
A. Asphyxia B. stupor d. no
C. Stroke D. Exhaustion

71. it is the official inquiry made by the police on the facts

66. Berto entered through the window of Albert’s house and and circumstances surrounding the death of a person which
took the latter’s cash savings inside the cabinet. While he is is expected to be unlawful.
about to exit through the window, he stepped on a 2 days a. Murder Investigation
old child and eventually died. On what crime can Berto be
charged? b. Homicide Investigation

a. Robbery c. Death Investigation

b. Robbery with Homicide d. Criminal investigation

c. Robbery with Infanticide

d. Robbery and Murder 72. it is the determination about the victim’s background
especially their last activities in the previous 24 hours.

a. social victimology
67. A car crashed at the side of Kim’s house resulting to a
big hole. One night, Albert entered through that hole and b. applied victimology
took Kim’s devices such as cellphone, laptop, and camera.
When he was about to leave, Kim saw him and tried to stop c. social victimology
him. But Albert was resistant and stabbed Kim in the chest
d. victimology
which immediately killed Kim. Kim’s wife, Athena, was
awaken by the incident and immediately rushed towards
Kim. Albert saw Athena and raped her. Albert will be liable
of what crime? 73. one of the jobs of an investigator is to secure the crime
scene. The following are the means of securing the crime
A. Robbery, Homicide, and Rape scene, except one:

b. Robbery with Homicide (rape as aggravating) a. giving appropriate orders

c. Robbery with Homicide and rape b. physically isolating it

d. Robbery with Murder c. establishing crime scene boundary

d. detain all persons present at the crime scene

12 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 74. it is a singular importance in homicide case, otherwise
the crime will rarely be solved.
81. why is there a need to conduct a careful inspection on a
a. determining motives dead person’s hand holding the gun?

b. ascertaining elements a. to check if there is lividity

c. victim identification b. to check if there is presence of smudging and

tattooing
d. physical evidence
c. to check if the fingers are complete

d. to check if there is the presence of cadaveric

75. this type of rapist uses extreme anger to revenge spasm
psychologically for or imagined past wrongs associated with
women.

a. anger-retaliatory rapist 82. the body of a person cools following death at

approximately _______ under normal conditions and
b. power-reassurance rapist assuming that temperature at death is 37 degrees Celsius.
c. power-assertive rapist a. 1.5 degrees/hour
d. sadistic rapist b. 2.5 degrees/hr

c. 1.5 degrees/half hour

76. in the Philippine setting, CSI is better known as SOCO. d. 2.5 degrees/half hour
The following are the specialists that should respond in all
kinds of crime scene, except one:

a. fingerprint technician 83. It is the law that raised the age of sexual consent.

b. forensic photographer a. RA 8353

c. firearms examiner b. RA 9262

d. measurer/sketcher c. RA 11648

d. RA 11479

78. It is a proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the

existence of a particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a
necessary or probable consequence. 84. It means that the offender was not given opportunity to
make a defense.
a. prima facie evidence
a. Evident premeditation
b. circumstantial evidence
b. Treachery
c. corpus delicti
c. Abuse of superior strength
d. primary evidence
d. none of the above

79. it refers to the requirement that any item introduced in

court must be in the same condition as when it is found at 85. Kian killed his illegitimate grandson who is only 2 days
the crime scene. old. Kian is liable for what crime?

a. monetary value of evidence a. murder

b. admissibility of evidence b. parricide

c. competence of evidence c. infanticide

d. integrity of evidence d. homicide

80. Alfonso killed Amira, a three-year old child. What is the 86. Suppose that the child is Kian’s legitimate grandson,
crime committed by Alfonso? what crime will he be liable for killing the 2-day old child?

a. Infanticide a. murder

b. murder b. parricide

c. parricide c. infanticide

d. homicide d. homicide

13 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 93. The following are the Miranda rights of an arrested
person, except one:
87. Rigor mortis can be first seen on what muscle?
a. right to remain silent
a. jaw
b. right to have competent and independent counsel
b. back preferably of his own choice.
c. chest c. right to be visited by family and relative
d. foot d. right to be informed of these rights

88. How many hours does blood remain fluid inside the blood 94. Marking is the placement of the investigator’s initials and
vessel? the date of discovery on the evidence so that it can be
a. 3-4 hours identified by him in a later date. When does the investigator
place his markings on the evidence?
b. 5-7 hors
a. upon the arrival of the investigator at the crime
c. 6-8 hours laboratory

d. 10-12 hours b. upon discovery of the evidence at the crime scene

c. upon presentation of the evidence to the court

89. General rule in robbery with violence or intimidation d. upon order of the judge
upon person: violence or intimidation must be present
_______.

a. before the “taking” is complete 95. To be admissible as evidence, a dying declaration must
have these several conditions, except one:
b. during the “taking”
a. the victim’s declaration must identify the person
c. before and after the “taking” responsible for his or her condition and state the
circumstances and manner by which the slight injuries were
d. after the “taking” inflicted.

b. the victim must die from the injuries received

90. Can a female person be commit rape? c. the victim must believe he or she is about to die
a. yes d. the victim must be rational and competent
b. no

c. sometimes 96. What law punishes piracy and highway robbery in the
Philippines?
d. maybe
a. PD 531
b. PD 532
91. Observation of a female’s breast is a conclusive basis of c. PD 533
one’s virginity. d. PD 534

a. Yes
97. it is the act of killing of large cattle, or taking its meat or
b. No hide without the consent of owner/raiser.

c. True a. cattle rustling

d. False b. bestiality

c. violation of animal welfare act

92. It refers to the intentional destruction of a national d. theft

ethnic, racial, or religious group of people.

a. multiple murder
98. The medical dissection and examination of a body in
b. massacre order to determine the cause of death is?

c. genocide a. Autopsy B. Post-Mortem

Examination
d. terrorism c. Exhumation D. Saponification

14 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 99. If the powder has produced gray or yellow marks in a e. PD 531
gunshot wound, it indicates? f. PD 532
a. The individual died after the shooting g. PD 533
b. The individual was dead before the shooting h. PD 534
c. The person shot himself
d. The person was shot 36 meters away from the shooter 5. Which of the following is NOT a common element of
robbery and theft?
a. The personal property is taken with intent to gain.
100. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts b. The offense can be committed by a band.
because - c. The personal property belongs to another.
d. The unlawful taking of that property.
A. it speaks for its self

B. it cannot lie
6. What is the liability of the offender who, on the occasion of
C. not affected by emotion the crime of robbery, killed his cohort while trying to flee
from the scene?
D. all of the forgoing a. robbery with homicide
b. robbery and homicide
c. robbery with murder
d. robbery and murder
III. SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH INTERVIEW
AND INTERROGATION

7. Aldus snatched the bag of a lady walking along Hidalgo Street

1. Berto entered through the window of Albert’s house and committed what crime?
took the latter’s cash savings inside the cabinet. While hea.
is Theft c. Estafa
about to exit through the window, he stepped on a 2 day oldb. Robbery d. Malicious mischief
child and eventually died. On what crime can Berto be
charged?
8. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:
a. Robbery
A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610
b. Robbery with Homicide
B. RA 10054 D. RA 3019
c. Robbery with Infanticide

d. Robbery and Murder

9. Known as Anti Fencing Law of 1979.
a. PD 1612 c. BP 22

2. A car crashed at the side of Kim’s house resulting to a big b. RA 3019 d. PD 532
hole. One night, albert entered through that hole and took
Kim’s devices such as cellphone, laptop, and camera. When
he was about to leave, Kim saw him and tried to stop him. 10. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is
But Albert was resistant and stabbed Kim in the chest which divided into two different classifications, one is robbery by
immediately killed Kim. Kim’s wife, Athena, was awaken of the use of force upon things, and the other is:
the incident at immediately rushed towards Kim. Albert saw
Athena and raped her. Albert will be liable of what crime? A. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person

a. Robbery, Homicide, and Rape B. taking of personal property belonging to another

b. Robbery with Homicide (rape as aggravating) C. with intent, to gain and to possess the property

c. Robbery with Homicide and rape

d. Robbery with Murder 11. it is the act of killing of large cattle, or taking its meat or
hide without the consent of owner/raiser.

a. cattle rustling
3. General rule in robbery with violence or intimidation upon
person: violence or intimidation must be present _______. b. bestiality

a. before the “taking” is complete c. violation of animal welfare act

b. during the “taking” d. theft

c. before and after the “taking”

d. after the “taking” 12. Which of the following is NOT one of the
examples of covert information:

A. Grapevine
4. What law punishes piracy and highway robbery in the B. Information
Philippines? C. Informers
D. Public Records

15 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 c. Custodial Investigation
d. Field inquiry
13. The cracks produced in glass originated on the
opposite surface of the glass and subjected to
stretching are known as: 21. Questions are designed to acquire the basic and specific
data or facts regarding a criminal case.
A. Concentric =entrance C. radial=exit
B. A and c D. none a. Subjective Interview
b. Objective Interview
c. Cognitive interview
14. The term appropriate for someone who gives d. Background interview
information in exchange for a reward is:

a. Informer c. Special informer 22. Type of subject who is reluctant to become witness and
b. Informant d. Occupational informer particularly true among uneducated people.

15. One who provides information voluntarily without a. Disinterested type

asking for any consideration in return is generally b. Know-nothing type
regarded as: c. Suspicious type
d. Honest witness
a. Informer
c. Special informer
23. Friendly approach must be used and investigators should
b. Informant reassure that information will be treated with confidentiality.
d. Special informant
a. Boastful type
b. Deceitful type
c. Timid type
d. Untalkative witness

16. A controlled group of people who work through

the direction of the agent handler 24. This is the physical possibility that the suspect could
have committed the crime.
a. Informant Group
c. Informant Net a. Motive
b. Informants b. Opportunity
d. Special informer c. Intent
d. Intelligence

17. One who provides information without intention

of providing subsequent information is regarded as: 25. Delights in giving information to gain favorable attention
from the police authorities.
a. Incidental informant
c. Ordinary run of the mill informant a. Fear
b. Civic Mindedness
b. Special informant c. Vanity
d. Anonymous informant d. Revenge

26. The purpose of this is to extract confession or admission

18. An informant who by nature of his work is from the subject.
required to give information to the police refers to:
a. Interrogation
a. Ordinary informant b. Interview
c. Special informant c. Field inquiry
d. Observation
b. Automatic informant
d. Recruited informant
27. This is a testimony of a witness reduced to writing under
oath or affirmation before a person empowered to
administer oaths in answer to interrogatories and cross-
19. It is known as the initial investigation, which is
interrogations submitted by the party desiring ] and the
focused in identifying the perpetrator.
opposite party.
a. Preliminary investigation
a. Affidavit
b. Follow-up investigation
b. Deposition
c. In-depth investigation
c. Testimony
d. Concluding investigation
d. Expert Witness

20. It refers to the simple and friendly questioning of a

28. It is the most difficult type of witness, but the
person who has knowledge relevant to the crime or case
investigators must persevere and neutral topics must be
under investigation.
taken first.
a. Interview
a. Disinterested
b. Interrogation
16 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
b. Timid witness established order and replacing it with a new political or
c. Ztakative witness social structure?
d. Refusal to take to witness
A. Ethnocentric C. Revolutionary

29. A person, usually an accomplice who has a change of C. Separalist D. Political

heart and wishes to report a crime that is prying on his
conscience.
36. Economic crime is known as:
a. Revenge
b. Avoidance of punishment A. Blue Collar Crime C. While Collar
c. Repentance
Crime
d. Renumeration
B. Wildlife Smuggling D. Wildlife
trafficking
30. They are the persons who first responds to a crime
scene.

a. First responders 37. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of
b. Investigator-on-case silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades to
c. SOCO
the authorities:
d. Patrol officers
A. Capo C. Omerta
31. In mass victim situation, the Regional/District SOCO who B. Jihad D. Ideology
has jurisdiction over the area, in addition to their function,
shall act as the FR to the ________.

a. EOD 38. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their

b. SOCO memberships have limitations based on kinship, criminal
c. IDVI TG record, or similar considerations:
d. IOC
A. No Political Goals

32. A public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody B. Hierarchical

who are not a member of the organization who can helps
C. Constitutes a Unique Subculture
the organization
D. Limited or Exclusive Membership
A. Enforcer C. Capo

B. Corrupter D. Corruptee
39. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 provides
that an organized criminal group must have a membership
33. What type of OCG which is manned by semi-organized of at least ___:
individual with the end view of attaining psychological
A. 3 or More C. 2 or More
gratification such as adolescent gangs.
B. 4 or More D. 5 or More
A. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime

B. Political Graft
40. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
C. Predatory Organized Crime
A. Swords bearer C. Father of the
D. Syndicated Organized Crime
Swordsman

B. Islamic Congregation D. The Base

34. A continuing illegal activity of group of person which is
primarily concerned with the generation of profits,
irrespective of national boundaries as a result of 41. These are the most frequent terrorist acts, accounting
globalization. for as much as 80% of terrorist-related violence:
A. Transnational Organized Crime A. Bombings C. Assassinations
B. Transnational Crime B. Kidnapping D. Prostitution
C. Organized Criminal Group

D. NONE 42. This is also known as the Human Security Act of 2007:

A. RA 9372 C. RA 9160
35. What category of terrorist group which is What category B. RA 9165 D. RA 8294
of terrorist group which is dedicated to overthrow an

17 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 43. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical d. Drug trafficking
symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle representing the
heaven, earth and man:
51. The organized crime group usually takes the
A. Yakuza C. Triad following three step process of converting illegal
income or proceeds into free cash back to the hands
B. Tongs D. Born to Kill of of the kingpins, EXCEPT:
Vietnam A. Layering
B. Converting
C. Placement
D. Integration
44. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity
are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make them
appear to have originated from legitimate sources: 52. Same level as underboss but operating in a staff capacity,
who is a counselor or adviser.
A. Estafa C. a. Boss
Money Laundering b. Consigliere
c. Caporegime
B. Anti-Money Laundering D.
d. Soldati
Swindling
53. it has the characteristics of traditional societies that centers
on families, patrons, and their clients, and other
45. An Asian organized crime group which is derived from personalities networks.
card game 8-9-3 a. Bureaucratic model
b. Corporate model
A. YAKUZA B. TRIADS c. Patrimonial model
d. Both a and b
C. TONGS D. ASIAN GANGS

46. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal

organization in the world.
54. The following are cardinal points of investigations, except?
A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad a. What is the crime committed
b. Who commits the crime
B. Chinese Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
c. What is the marital status of offender
d. Where is the crime committed

55. What specific offence has been committed? Who committed

it? When it was committed? Where it was committed? Why
47. The Yakuza is organized into families which adopts it was committed? And how it was committed? These are
a relationship known as: called_______________________ of criminal investigation.
A. Cardinal Points
a. Oyabun-Kobun B. Three I’s
b. Yubitsume C. Golden Rule
c. Kabuki-mono D. Bridges burn
d. Bakuto
48. An operation launch by the Philippine National Police- 56. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene, the
Special Action Force Commandos that led to the killing of the following types of search could be used depending upon
international terrorist Zulkifli bin Hir at the Mamasapano, locale, number of personnel available, type of object sought
Maguindanao. and speed desired, except:
A. Strip and double strip search
a. Oplan Wolverine B. Zone search
b. Oplan Neptune Spear C. Rectangular and circular search
c. Oplan Terminator D. Spiral and wheel search
d. Oplan Exodus
57. Criminals are identified through, except:
49. In 2000 the United Nations Convention against a. By confession or admission by the criminal
Transnational Organized Crime extended the legal definition b. By corpus delicti
of money laundering to include all serious crimes. This is c. By circumstantial evidence
known as: d. By eyewitness
a. Palermo Convention
b. United Nations Convention
c. Transnational Organized Crime Convention 58. The methodology involving the systematic searching,
d. Organized Crime Convention handling, distribution and accountability of all evidence
found at the crime scene, including the documentation of
50. The modern form of Human slavey is called? (Nov- every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery
December 2019 Board Exam Question) at the scene, to its collection and transport to the point of
examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is
a. Human trafficking referred to us.
b. Money laundering a. Corpus delicti
c. smuggling of migrants b. Body of the crime
c. Blotter
18 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
d. Chain of custody symptoms of truth or deception from the person being
interviewed
59. Coerced and uncounseled statements are
considered involuntary or forced confession which a. Factual Analysis
are usually an: b. Behavior Analysis Interview
a. Judicial ➔ done in an open court c. Interrogation
d. Confrontation

b. Extra judicial
67. PEACE Model means:
c. Prosecutorial
d. Admission a. Planning and Preparation, Engage and Explain, Account,
Closure, Evaluation
b. Planning and Procedure, Engage and Explain, Account,
Closure, Evaluation
c. Preparation and Procedure, Engage and Explain, Account,
60. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the
Closure, Evaluation
hearing or observation of a party who does or says nothing,
d. Planning and Preparation, Engage and Explain, Audit,
when the act or declaration naturally calls for action if
Conclusion, Evaluation
comment is not true.
a. Admission by Silence
b. Res inter alios acta 68. It is a concrete alternative to interrogation methods that
c. Admission rely on coercion to extract confessions. They provide
d. Negative pregnant guidance on obtaining accurate and reliable information in
full respect of the human rights and dignity of all, including
61. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping through the implementation of legal and procedural
and capturing the law breaker during the execution of a safeguards in the first hours of police custody.
criminal act.
A. Instigation a. Reid Method
B. Inducement b. Mendez Method
c. Kinesic Interview Method
C. Buy bust operation
d. PEACE Method
D. Entrapment

69. One night, Karlo was walking down the street when he saw
62. What interrogation techniques when the investigator
an open window of a house. He saw wallet and laptop placed
indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a
on the table near the open window. He entered inside the
grave offense.
open window and managed to get the wallet and laptop and
A. Sympathetic Appeal C. Mutt and Jeff went outside the house through the open back door of the
house. What is the crime committed by Karlo?
B. Extenuation D. Emotional
Appeal a. Theft
b. Robbery
c. Trespass to dwelling
63. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____ d. Larceny
A. the property taken
B. the fact that the crime was committed
70. One night, Karlo was walking down the street when he
C. anything of value
saw a wallet and laptop placed on the table near the window.
D. Intent of the suspect
He broke the glass of the window, inserted his hand and
managed to get the wallet and laptop. What is the crime
64. The simplest technique is to assume that the suspect will
committed by Karlo?
confess if he is treated in a kind and friendly manner.
a. Theft
a. Emotional Appeals
b. Robbery
b. Sympathetic Approach
c. Trespass to dwelling
c. Kindness
d. Larceny
d. Extenuation

71. One night, Karlo was walking down the street when he
65. They normally do not feel any guilt, so the best way to
saw an open entrance door of the house. He went inside,
interrogate them is through the factual analysis approach,
and took all the gadgets he saw on the table. When he is
that is, by reasoning with the subject and letting him know
about to flee, the owner of the house entered through the
that his guilt has already been, or will soon be, established.
entrance door. Because of the fear that he might get caught,
a. Emotional offenders he broke the glass of the window, and managed to get out
b. Non-Emotional offenders through it. What is the crime committed by Karlo?
c. Hostile offenders
d. Uncooperative offenders a. Theft
b. Robbery
c. Trespass to dwelling
66. It is a non-accusatory question and answer session, d. Larceny
involving both standard investigative questions and
structured behavior provoking' questions to elicit behavior

19 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 72. Kenzo and Kleo told the occupant of the house that they d. None
were the nephews of the spouse of the owner of the house,
and because of that, the closed door was opened. They were
78. Jake and Gerald broke into a house and carried away
able to take valuable items from the house. What is the
some valuables. After they left such house they decided to
crime committed by Kenzo and Kleo?
cut or divide the loot already so that they can go of them.
a. Theft While they are dividing the loot Gerald noticed that Jake is
b. Robbery trying to cheat him and so he immediately boxed him. Now
c. Trespass to dwelling Jake who was boxed then pulled out his gun and fired at the
d. Larceny Gerald killing the latter. What is the crime committed by
Jake?
73. Mr. Jones entered the house of Mr. Mark through an a. Robbery with Homicide
open door. He took the chest inside the cabinet and he used b. Robbery
a false key to open the chest. He took the jewelry and c. Robbery (homicide as aggravating)
thereafter Mr. Jones got out through the window to d. None
escape. What is the crime committed by Mr. Jones?

A. Trespass to dwelling 79. If the physical injuries are only less serious or slight, they
B. Robbery are ________ in the robbery.
C. Theft
D. No crime a. Aggravating
b. Mitigating
c. Absorbed
Problem: d. Alternating

A, B, C and D robbed a bank. When they were about

to flee, policemen came, and they traded shots with them. 80. Genuine keys stolen from the owner or any keys other
If one of the policemen was killed, the offense is () _______, than those intended by the owner for use in the lock.
If one of the robbers was the one killed, the remaining
a. Picklocks
robbers shall be charged with ()_________. If a bank
b. Genuine keys
employee was the one killed either by the robbers or by the
c. False keys
policemen in the course of the latter’s action of arresting or d. Peterman
trying to arrest the robbers, the crime is ()________.

81. The robbers entered the house. In entering through the

74. If one of the policeman was killed, the offense is ______. window, one of the robbers stepped on a child less than
three days old and the child died. They managed to get out
a. Robbery with Homicide through an open door with the money taken from the safe.
b. Robbery and Homicide
c. Robbery (homicide as aggravating) a. Robbery
d. Robbery b. Robbery with Infanticide
c. Robbery with Murder
d. Robbery with Homicide
75. The remaining robbers shall be charged with _______.

a. Robbery with Homicide 82. On the occasion of a robbery, one of the offenders
b. Robbery and Homicide placed his firearm on the table. While they were ransacking
c. Robbery (homicide as aggravating) the place, one of the robbers bumped the table. As a result,
d. Robbery the firearm fell on the floor and discharged. One of the
robbers was the one killed. What is the crime committed by
the robbers?
76. If a bank employee was the one killed either by the
robbers or by the policemen in the course of the latter’s a. Robbery
action of arresting or trying to arrest the robbers, the crime b. Murder
is ________. c. Robbery with Murder
d. Robbery with Homicide
a. Robbery with Homicide 83. A faithful reproduction of an impression with the use of
b. Robbery and Homicide casting materials.
c. Robbery (homicide as aggravating)
d. Robbery a. Casting
b. Moulage
c. Plaster of Paris
77. While the robbery was being committed, the owner of d. Any of the above
the place tried to wrest the arm of the robber to get the
firearm from his possession. Because of this, the owner of
the place accidentally pulled the trigger and a person several 84. It is the seizure of any person for ransom, extortion, or
meters away was the one who got killed. What is the crime other unlawful purposes, or the taking away of the property
committed by the robber? of another by means of violence against or intimidation of
person or force upon things of other unlawful means,
a. Robbery with Homicide committed by any person on any Philippine Highway
b. Robbery
c. Robbery (homicide as aggravating) a. Band
20 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
b. Brigandage d. Shifting the blame
c. Robbery
d. Piracy
92. They have a greater sense of morality. They easily feel
remorse over what they have done
85. It is the carrying away of someone else’s property that
is an element of larceny. The taking away is accomplished a. Emotional offender
without violence of intimidation against a person or force b. Non-emotional offender
upon things c. Hostile offender
d. Cooperative offender
a. Robbery
b. Larceny
c. Burglary 93. It is an inductive approach where each individual suspect
d. Asportation is evaluated with respect to specific observations relating to
the crime.

86. It is the chemical process of restoring erased or a. Factual analysis

tampered engine and chassis numbers. The process is by b. Behavioral analysis
continuous application of strong acid on the suspected c. Interrogation
d. Interview
tampered or erased numbers.

a. Macro etching
b. Micro etching 94. Refers to the questions that allow the suspect to reply
c. Restoration with longer, more detailed responses and lack direction from
d. Tampering the interviewer.

a. Open-ended questions
87. this is done by allowing the subject to narrate his account b. Closed question
without interruption, intervention or interference. c. Forced-choice question
d. Multiple question
a. Cognitive Interview
b. Interview
c. Interrogation 95. Also known as the Principles on Effective Interviewing
d. Formal Interview for Investigations and Information Gathering

a. Mendez method
88. A question which suggests to the witness the answer b. Reid Method
which the interviewer desires c. Kinesic Interview Method
d. PEACE Method
a. Leading question
b. Misleading question
c. All of the above 96. Involves analyzing a person's behavior to assess
d. None of the above deception

a. Kinesic Interview Method

89. It is the philosophy of interview and interrogation. b. Mendez method
c. Reid Method
a. The RIGHT officer asking the RIGHT questions in the RIGHT d. PEACE Method
manner at the RIGHT time and in the RIGHT place will get
the RIGHT answers
b. Never allow the interviewer to conduct nor let anyone to 97. this involves the identification of symptoms of speech
conduct an interview without prior visit to the scene of the quality and content which give the interviewer the most
crime productive body of data necessary to determine truth and
c. Do not Mutilate, Alter, Contaminate deception
d. If the body has been moved, embalmed, cremated
a. Verbal cues
b. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis
90. the skillful questioning of a person suspected of having c. Body language cues
committed an offense or of a person who is reluctant to d. Reid Method
make a full disclosure of information in his possession which
is pertinent to the investigation.
98. It refers to the various techniques available to the
a. Interrogation interviewer to take control and command of the interview
b. Interview environment. From proxemics to mirroring or the use of
c. Formal Interview enhanced information gathering skills. It is the verbal and
d. Informal Interview nonverbal.

a. Kinesic Subject Control

91. The interrogator makes clear his belief that the subject b. Confession Behaviors
is obviously not the sort of person who usually gets mixed c. Practical Kinesic Interrogation Phase
up in a crime like this. d. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis

a. Emotional Appeals
b. Sympathetic approach 99. It also helps the interviewer in determining if the subject
c. Extenuation is suffering from personality disorder or psychosis.
21 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
a. Kinesic Subject Control b. Collission
b. Confession Behaviors
c. Practical Kinesic Interrogation Phase c. Gridlock
d. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis d. Traffic Congestions

100. The Argentine lawyer, torture survivor and former UN

7. International Driver’s License is issued by the _______
Special Rapporteur.

a. Juan Mendez a. Automobile Association of the Philippines

b. Juan Dela Cruz b. Land Transportation Office
c. Juan Reid c. Department of Foreign Affairs
d. Juan Santos d. LTFRB

IV. TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT 8. On a highway, a traffic sign reads 80 kph as the
INVESTIGATION WITH DRIVING maximum speed. While the area is very foggy, a
man drives at 80 kph. If you are a traffic patrol
officer assigned at the area, you may apprehend the
1. They are self-centered and not learned how to be driver for-
unselfish.
a. Underspeeding
b. Failure to slow down
a. Egotist
b. Over-emotional c. Reckless driving
c. Thwarted d. Overspeeding
d. Top Notch

9. The three major pillars of traffic management:

2. Wheel is believed to be originated in-
a. Engineering, education, enforcement
a. Western Asia b. Engineering, education, environment
b. America c. Engineering, education, economics
c. Africa d. Engineering, economics, environment
d. Europe

10. An elevated structure built for the safety of the

3. If the plate number is DXP 8213, when should it be pedestrians in crossing busy highways: (June 2019
registered? Board Exam Question)

a. 3rd week of January a. Flyover

b. 1st week of March b. Skyway
c. 2nd week of February c. Underpass
d. 3rd week of March d. Overpass

4. It is a driver’s condition wherein a driver must wear 11. It mandates the LTO to conduct an examination on both
corrective lenses. applicants of new driver’s licenses and on those who are
renewing expired ones.
a. a
b. b a. RA 4136
c. 1 b. RA 10930
d. 2 c. RA 8750
d. RA 10883
5. Refers to the collective code representing the vehicle
category/ies that a licensed person is allowed to operate. 12. For foreigner applicants for Non-Professional Driver’s
a. Restriction Code License, he must be at least ______ years old.
b. Driver’s License Code a. 16
c. Driver’s Restriction Code b. 17
d. License Code c. 18
d. 20
6. A state or condition of severe road congestion
arising when continuous queues of vehicles block an 13. Can an expired Student License be used for purpose of
entire network of intersecting streets bringing traffic practical driving course?
in all directions to a complete standstill.
a. Yes
a. Accident b. No
c. Maybe
22 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
d. Sometimes

21. What is these paintings made on the pavement along

14. Can an expired Student License be used to apply for
intersections and other places to provide pedestrians with
NPDL if the practical driving course has been completed
safety zone when crossing?
within the one year validity period?
a. A Cross walk
a. Yes b. Cross Lane
b. No c. Cross lines
c. Maybe d. Center Lane
d. Sometimes
22. This license is issued to a driver hired or paid for driving
or operating a motor vehicle whether private use or for hire
15. The conveying of persons, goods and things fromone to the public.
place to another is referred to as-
a. Student permit
a. traffic b. Non-pro DL
b. transportation c. Pro DL
c. traffic management d. Military DL
d. any of these

23. The FIRST and MOST important step in enforcing traffic

16. What are the marks left on the roadway because of a rules is ___
strong application of brake wherein the wheels are locked
and not free to rotate? a. organizing
b. enforcement
a. street c. planning
d. planning and enforcement
b. skid

c. road

d. scuff 24. What is the entire width between boundary lines of every
way or place of which any part is open to the use of the
public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or
17. The traffic congestions or "build-up" happening in a custom?
narrow portion of the road is a. Street
a. bumper to bumper b. Road way
b. Traffic jam c. Traffic way
c. gridlock d. Subway
d. bottleneck
25. When a driver’s license is confiscated for
18. Which of the following is not true about the violations of RA 4136 the traffic enforcer must issue
properuse of a vehicles headlight? a receipt of Temporary Operators Permit which is
good for within which the driver may continue to
a. It should be switched on one hour after the sunset and operate his vehicle.
should be switched one hour before the sun rise
b. It should be dimmed when meeting with another motor a. 15 days
vehicle b. 24 hours
c. It should be dimmed when traversing through a well-lighted c. 5 days
thoroughfare d. 72 hours
d. any of these
26. The portion of the traffic way which is the edge of the
19. In a large majority of the vehicular accidents, the most road or highway is
important defect in human element is attributed ____ a. shoulder
b. sidewalk
a. educational
c. pedestrian
b. perceptual
c. Intellectual d. curb
d. attitudinal
27. Choose the motor vehicle accident occurring entirely at
20. Bona fide tourist and transients who are duly licensed to a place other than on a highway.
operate motor vehicles in their respective countries may be a. A Non-motor vehicle traffic accident
allowed to operate motor vehicles during their stay but not b. Motor vehicle traffic accident
beyond? c. Motor vehicle accident
d. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
a. 12 months
b. 60 days
c. 90 days 28. What series of test is used to determine whether a driver
d. 3 years is under the influence of alcoholic beverages or not?

23 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

a. walking thru straight-line 36. Upon investigation conducted, it was revealed that the
b. counting driver hurriedly left the scene of the accident. Which of the
c. field sobriety test following circumstances does NOT justify fleeing the
d. balance accident area?

a. When he leaves the area to seek assistance for a physician

29. Select the first action to be taken by a traffic unit to or a nurse to give aid to the victim.
escape from collision course or otherwise avoid hazard, b. If his intention is to hide from the police on pretext of
justifiable cause.
a. Final position c. If his intention for leaving is to surrender to the proper
b. Point of possible perception authority.
c. Point of no escape d. When he is under the imminent danger of being harmed by
d. State of evasive action other persons by reason of the accident

30. The taillight of the motor vehicle should be lighted and 37. The first objective in motor vehicle accident investigation
visible at least. involving the flight of one of the participants are (1) to
a. 50 meters from the rear of the vehicle determine who is responsible for the collision, and (2) to
b. 100 meters from the rear of the vehicle ______
c. 30 meters from the rear of the vehicle
a. A file necessary charges against the fleeing driver
d. 60 meters from the rear of the vehicle
b. identify the victim if any
c. identify the driver who fled the scene
31. These signs are also known as “guide signs” or “direction d. apprehend the drivers involved
signs”. It is rectangular in shape and white white-colored on
blue background. 38. Single continuous line on a Four-lane indicates all of the
a. regulatory signs following EXCEPT
b. danger warning signs a. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming
c. informative signs
possible
d. any of these
b. when there are slow and fast lanes, NEVER overtake by
passing over the solid white line
32. The act of a person exhibiting dangerous conduct and c. Lanes 1 and 4 ( outer lanes ) for slow moving vehicles.
Vehicles on this lane should not be BELOW the minimum
attitude, and indication of lack of concern for injurious
speed limit
consequences is
d. Lanes 2 and 3 ( inner lanes ) are usually for faster moving
a. reckless imprudence vehicles

b. reckless drinking 38. A traffic accident happened where two motor vehicles
c. reckless negligence approached the intersection almost at the same time, one is
d. reckless driving travelling along the national road and the other is in the
secondary road. Who has the right of way?

33. The BEST thing that a cautions driver should do when a. Vehicle on the secondary road
approaching an intersection is to ____. b. Vehicle on the left
c. Vehicle on tie national rose
a. be at the right of way d. Vehicle on the right
b. be at the full stop
c. give a signal
d. overtake other vehicle
39. What term refers to the distance traveled before

applying the brakes?

34. Select the term used referring to the first action to be
taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or a. braking distance
avoid a hazard. b. reaction distance
c. reaction time
a. State of no escape d. braking reaction

b. State of evasive action

40. What term is used to describe the frontal collision of
c. Point of possible
vehicles?
d. Point of no escape
a. Collision
b. Full impact collision
35. Refers to any device mounted on portable support
c. Head on collision
whereby a message is conveyed by means of words or
d. Frontal collision
symbols officially installed for the purpose of regulating,
warning or guiding traffic.

a. traffic signal light

b. traffic lights 41. Under the Land Transportation Code, it is NOT parking
c. traffic signs
d. any of these prohibition if you park

24 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 . b. Skyway
a. within 4 meters of the driveway of a Fire Station c. Underpass
b. within the intersection d. Overpass
c. in front of private driveway 50. This traffic warning is usually used when you have
d. on a sidewalk
observed a minor violation but are more importantly
occupied at a moment.

42. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the a. visual warning
b. written warning
brakes were applied strongly, hence the wheels c. verbal warning
locked, and not free to rotate d. oral warning

a. skid marks 51. Serves as main artery that caters on big volumes of
b. key event vehicular traffic on national roadway.
c. scuff marks
d. debris a. Traffic way
b. Skyway
c. Major Highway
43. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not d. Feeder Roads

less than can apply for non-professional driver’s license.

52. These are conditions on road networks that occurs as
a. 150 Days
use increases, and is characterized by slower speeds, longer
b. 60 Days
trip times and increased vehicular queueing.
c. 180 Days
d. 30 Days
a. Accident

44. A double solid white line ____. b. Collision

c. Gridlock
a. doesn’t allow lane changing. d. Traffic Congestions
b. allows overtaking
c. allows lane changing
53. When approaching in an intersection where the flashing
d. allows parking
yellow is on, the motorist should _____.
45. Any person using a traffic way for travel, a. Stop and proceed with caution
parking or other purposes as a pedestrian or driver, b. Slow down and proceed with caution
including any vehicle, or animal. c. Reduce speed
d. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite
a. Traffic unit direction
b. Road ways
c. Road users 54. When traversing on a solid yellow or white line
d. Road obstruction with a dotted yellow or white line, you can
overtake only:

46. The first accidental touching of an object collision course a. the solid line is in your lane.
or otherwise avoid a hazard. b. the dotted line is in your lane.
c. Oncoming traffic from the opposite direction is free
a. primary contact from any hazard.
b. secondary contact d. the oncoming traffic is visible that no vehicle or
c. disengagement whatsoever is coming from the opposite direction.
d. initial contact

55. When wheeled carts were invented, the next

47. He perfected the Macadamized road system in
problem by man when travelling was?
England: (December 2021 Board Exam Question)
a. Wider pathways which will accommodate the much
a. John road wider wheeled cart
b. John Palmer b. An engine which will power the wheeled carriages
c. John Mc Adam c. how to propel the vehicles
d. John Negroponte d. how to get rid the domesticated animals

48. It is an object or vehicle on the road that hinders or

prevent the smooth flow of traffic:

a. Obstruction 56. Considered as emergency vehicle, except:

b. Hindrance
c. Hazard a. Police car on call
d. Debris b. Fire truck on call
c. Ambulance on call
49. An elevated structure built for the safety of the d. Physician’s car
pedestrians in crossing busy highways

a. Flyover 57. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion

engine shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor vehicle
25 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 passes through a street of any city, municipality or thickly 64. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal
populated district or barrio. lights are used on some intersection is that:
a. motorist are discourage from "jumping signals"
a. Wiper b. traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
b. Light c. greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
c. Muffler d. an officer can stop and start as necessity demands
d. Windshield

65. The chronological arrangement of the color of the traffi

58. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular c lights from the top.
traffic in the Philippines? A. Yellow, red, green C. Red, yellow, gr
a. “Watch out” een
b. “Keep to the right” B. Green, red, yellow D. Green, yellow,
c. “Keep to the left” red
d. “Full stop”
66. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more
traffic accidents than any other part in the area. The Police
59. What is the most common cause of road accident in the
unit assignment to the area should:
Philippines? a. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for
A. road condition C. pedestrian violators.
B. whether condition D. reckless driving b. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution
motorist
60. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade ha c. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
d. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the
s been ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the r
intersection
oute. While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver o
n an emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across 67. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is
the route while the parade is passing. Under these circumsta best measured by which of the following.
nces the traffic police officer should. A. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement actio
a. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact his ns
superior and obtains decisions
B. Reduction of traffic accidents and delay
b. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to
cross the street C. Increase in traffic enforcement actions
c. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's D. None of the foregoing
order
d. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will 68. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two
add at least then minutes to run surfaces in contract is known as:
A. coefficient of friction
B. traffic jam
61. This pertains to all lines, patterns, words, colors C. attribute
officially placed for the purpose of regulating, D. contract damage
warningor guiding traffic.

a. traffic sign 69. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the
b. traffic lights
flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
c. pavement markings
keeping in full view of traffic:
d. any of these
A. Stationary C. Visible
B. Conspicuous D. Inconspicuous
62. Single white dotted line indicates the all of the
following EXCEPT
70. Licensed person allowing limited number of passengers,
a. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses
opposite directions
b. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one A. Operator C. Driver
direction
B. Conductor D. Pedestrian
c. absolutely no overtaking
d. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of
oncoming vehicle 71. The place and time after or beyond which accident
cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit.
63. How do you call a person, with a valid driver’s A. point of no escape
B. point of Possible Perception
license, on board a motor vehicle? C. Perception Delay
a. Driver D. Any of the above

b. Passenger 72. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest

c. Motorist due to traffic violation, the following procedures are followed
d. Pedestrian except:
a. bring the suspended person before the court
b. detention of the arrested person may take place

26 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

c. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
d. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
81. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is best
characterized by, EXCEPT:
73. This is usually characterized by a motor vehicle falling on A. Poor legislation activities
the road side or cliff along mountainous roads
B. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
a. Non-collision on the road
b. Running off road C. Effective and efficient traffic officers
c. Collision on the road
D. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
d. Hazardous condition of the road

74. It was them who brought road building to its 82. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of taking
highest point of perfection in ancient times: a person into custody for the purpose of holding or detaining
him to answer a charge of law violation before a court.
a. Romans
b. Arabs A. Arrest C. Traffic Arrest
c. Chinese
B. Traffic Citation D. Traffic Warning
d. Greeks

75. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking for

defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian, vehicles 83. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other
and roadway condition. than serious to one or more persons:
A. Apprehension C. Adjudication A. Property damage C. Less Serious Injury
B. Detection D. Prosecution B. Fatal Accident D. Non-fatal
Accident

76. A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is to: 84. It is responsible regulation of transport routes, granting,
denying, suspending or canceling land transport franchises.
A. Look for the key event that causes the accident
B. Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately prior to a. Department of Transportation & Communication
the accident, as a cause
C. Consider violations as primary causes and any factors as b. LTFRB
secondary causes c. Land Transportation Office
D. Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather as
d. Traffic Management Bureau
causes

77. It is intended for farm-to-market roads. 86. Which of the following law created the Metropolitan
A. Expressway C. Subway Manila Development Authority (MMDA)?
B. Skyway D. Feeder Road
A. RA 8750 Seat Belt Law

B. RA 7924
78. It is intended to inform road user of special obligation,
instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply. C. RA 8749

A. Traffic Signs C. Informative D. PD 96

Signs
B. Regulatory Signs D. Danger/warning signs
87. On traffic enforcement, what do you call on the act of b
79. A kind of road according to political subdivision within ringing a motor vehicle as a consequence of traffic law viola
town proper Right of Way not less than 10 meters. tion?
A. Confiscation
A. National Road C. Municipal Road B. impounding
B. Barangay Road D. City Road C. Encumbrance
D. Seizure

80. Benjo is a holder of a driver’s license that has been 88. What is the Protocol Plate number of a Congressman?
expired for 10 years. Is he allowed to drive and renew his A.4
B. 6
license?
C. 8
D. 14
a. He is no longer allowed to drive and are required by
the LTO to apply for a student permit again.
b. He is still allowed to drive provided he will renew his 89. For open country roads with no blind corners the maxim
license. um allowable speed is___ km/h for passenger vehicles and
c. He is not allowed to drive but he can renew his license. motorcycles, 50 km/h for trucks and buses; for through stre
d. He is still allowed if he pays for the penalties and fine. ets clear of traffic 40 km/h and 20 km/h respectively; for cit

27 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 y and municipal streets 30 km/h and for through crowded s
treets approaching intersections at blind corners passing sc
hool zones the maximum allowable speed is 20 km/h for bo 98. It has no traffic signals or traffic signs.
th passenger cars, motorcycles as well as trucks and buses.
a. Uncontrolled Intersection
A. 60
b. Box Junction
B. 70
C. 80 c. Yield-sign intersection
D. 200 d. Cloverleaf

99. It is strictly prohibited, except for conductors collecting

90. New Anti-Carnapping Act of 2016
passenger fare.
A. Republic Act No. 10883
B. Republic Act No. 7924 a. Cargo Carrying Devices
C. Republic Act No. 6539 b. Riding on running board
D. Republic Act No. 10586 c. Riding on top of the MV
d. Hitching
91. A classification of films which offers visual realism. *
A. Analytical film 100. Which of the following traffic concept instruct drivers
and pedestrians when, how pedestrian move, not to move
B. Didactic film
or stand steady at a particular time?
C. Simulation film
a. Traffic direction
D. Movie film b. Traffic supervision
c. Traffic control
d. Traffic management
92. This type of driving instruction method which depends
on instructor-student communication is referred to as: * V. VICE AND DRUG EDUCATION AND CONTROL
A. Traditional

B. Comprehensive
1. Methylene Dioxymethamphetamine is commonly known as:
C. Commentary A. ecstasy C. morphine
B. ketamine D. mescaline
D. Simulated

2. This is the national policy-making and coordinating body in

93. For professional drivers or drivers of trucks, buses, mot
orcycles and public utility vehicles, the allowable BAC is? the Philippines on matter pertaining to drugs abuse.
A. 1 percent A. Department of Health C. Dangerous
B. 2 percent Drug Board
C. 0 percent B. Department of Justice D. PNP Narcotics
D. 0.05 percent Command

94. Whenever the load of vehicle extends more than one

meter beyond body, this should be attached. 3. Any drug which sedates the central nervous system is
referred to as:
A. Red lights A. Narcotic C.
B. Tail lights Medicine
C. Red flags B. Depressant D. Stimulant
D. Mufflers

4. What government agency shall take charge in the custody

95. What was the oldest wheel found?
of all confiscated dangerous drugs, plant sources, essential
a. Ljubljana Marshes Wooden Wheel chemicals, controlled precursors, and the like?
b. Pneumatic Wheel A. Philippine National Police C.
c. Western Wheel Dangerous Drug Board
d. Etoinne Lenoir Wooden Wheel B. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency D. Bureau of
Foods and Drugs
96. It is the most common type which involved crossings of
two roadways 5. What drugs are commonly referred as “downers” because
they relax, create a feeling of well-being and produce sleep
a. 3-way intersection
to the user?
b. 4-way intersection
A. Opium C. LSD
c. 5-way intersection
B. Barbiturates D. Marijuana
d. 6-way intersection
6. What is referred to as the “Green Triangle Area”?
97. Motor vehicle registered for more than nine passengers A. Mindoro-Palawan-Masbate

a. Passenger automobile B. Benguet-Kalinga Apayao-Mt. Province

b. Passenger truck
C. Ilocos Sur-Benguet-Mt. Province
c. Passenger jeepney
D. Zamboanga-Cotabato-Davao
d. Truck

28 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

7. What group of drugs is used medically as pain-killers? b. Methamphetamine d
A. Opiates C. Shabu Tetrahyrocannabinol
B. Track D. Coke
18. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor,
8. What is the oldest cultivated plant as source of a prohibited melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions:
drug?
A. Marijuana C. Peyote a. Stimulants c. Hallucinogens
B. Opium D. Coca bush b. b. Narcotics d. Depressants

19. Oldest profession known to man when involves

9. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”? habitual indulgence in sexual intercourse for money or profit.
A. Heroin C. Cocaine
B. Marijuana D. Shabu a. Stealing c. Prostitution
10. It is the rapid test performed to establish potential b. Gambling d. Addiction
positive result:
20. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to
a. Validity test C. supplement their income.
confirmatory test
b. Screening test D. a. Factory girls c. Door knocker
preliminary test b. b. Hustler d. Call girls

21. Study reveal that the reason why marijuana is difficult to

11. In its pure form, it is white and made up of shiny, control is that:
colorless crystals and called “snow” in the junkie jargon:
a. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country.
A. Cocaine b. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
C. Heroin c. The plant can be easily cultivated.
B. Opium d. The big demand.
D. Shabu
22. Most abused form of tranquilizers, taken orally and
12. It is most commonly abused narcotic in the world: comes in tablets.

A. cocaine C. a. Serax c. Equanil

shabu b. Miltown d. Valium
B. opium D. heroin
23.A state of physical dependence on dangerous drug
13. This drug remains by far the most widely used illicit arising in a person following a periodic or continuous use of
substance: that drug.

a. Cannabis a. Drug abuse C. Drug addiction

C. Opium b. Drug experimentation d. Drug dependence
b. Amphetamine type substances D.
Cocaine 24. Which among the following is a factor that contributes
to the effects of drugs in the body system of the user?
14. This refers to the group of drugs which affect the central
a. Mood of the users c. Environment where drug
nervous system, producing perceptual alterations, intense
taken
and varying emotional changes and thought disruption:
b. Amount of drug taken d. All of the above
A. Narcotics C. Hallucinogens
B. Simulants D. Depressants 25. The process of gradually depriving drugs from the point
of habituation until such time he is no longer hooked on the
15. This is the widely manufactured amphetamine type substance.
stimulant (ATS):
a. Therapy c. Withdrawal method
a. Ecstasy C. Cocaine b. Treatment d. Rehabilitation

b. Amphetamine D. codeine
26.The psychoactive ingredients in marijuana which causes
the high or trip of its users.
16.A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of
potent cannabis sativa. a. Hashish c.
Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
A. Hashish C. Morphine
B. Opium D. Marijuana b. Opium poppy d. Papaver somniferum

27. Any substance that directly alters the normal functioning

17.It is the psychoactive agent of marijuana. of the central nervous system.

a. Cannabis sativa c. Papaver a. Regulated drugs c. Dangerous drugs

somniferum b. Prohibited drugs d. Regulated drugs

29 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 38. It is any willful act by any person of maliciously and
28. It is one of the obvious manifestations of marijuana use. surreptitiously inserting, placing, adding any dangerous
A. dropping eyelids C. blood shot eye drugs.
B. cotton mouth D. coughing A. planting evidence B. illegal arrest
29. It is an exaggerated sense of distress or unhappiness. C. unlawful search D. none of the above

A. dysphoria C. euphoria 39. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which
B. depersonalization D. inhibition leads to depravity wickedness and corruption.
A. addiction C. vice
30. These are the requirements during the conduct of actual B. alcoholism D. gambling
buy-bust operations.
A. poseur buyer C. marked money 40. Are commercially produced drugs that may be purchased
B. all of these D. none of these legally without prescription?
A. over-the-counter drug B. prescription drug
31. It refers to any act of introducing any dangerous drugs into C. unrecognized drug D. herbal drug
the body of any person, with or without his knowledge by 41. Are drugs which increase alertness, reduce hunger, and
injecting, ingestion or other means or of committing any act provide a feeling of well-being?
of indispensable assistance to a person in taking a A. stimulants C. narcotics
dangerous drug to himself or herself. B. depressants D. hallucinogens
A. administer C. taking
B. using D. introducing 42. The drug is taken by the mouth and must pass through the
stomach before being absorbed into the bloodstream, this is
32. It is the sale, distribution, supply, or transport of legitimately one of the most common ways of taking a drug.
imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured controlled A. inhalation C. injection
precursor and essential chemicals. B. oral ingestion D. snorting
A. cultivate C. culture
B. chemical diversion D. all of the 43. Morphine addiction from among the veterans of war came
above to be known as:
A. merchants of death C. casualties of war
B. soldier’s disease D. addiction of
veteran
33. Any facility used for the illegal manufacturing of any
dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential 44. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines?
chemical. a. Marijuana
A. instrumentation C. b. Shabu
clandestine laboratory c. Cocaine
B. centers D. chemical d. Morphine
diversion
45. The Golden Crescent is located in the SouthwestAsia
34. An analytical test using a device, tool or equipment with a composed of Which Countries?
different chemical or physical principle that is more specific. a. Iran, Persia, India and Pakistan
A. confirmatory test C.
screening test
b. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan
B. drug test D. none of
c. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Persia and Iraq
the above
d. Iraq, Iran, Lebanon and Turkey
35. The investigative technique of allowing an unlawful or
suspected consignment of any dangerous drugs and/or 46. Teofilo is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will
controlled precursor and essential chemicals. bring him elsewhere he ceased from using it.
A. chemical diversion C. cultivate or Teofilo’s act is called:
culture
B. deliver D. controlled a. Abstinence
delivery b. Rehabilitation
c. Self-medication
36. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or d. Dependence
underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by RA
9165. 47. What court has the jurisdiction to hear and try drug
A. employee C. cases? (June 2019 BEQ 2x)
caretaker a. Heinous Crime Court designated by the SC among
B. financier D. lookout the existing RTC
b. Special Court designated by the SC
37. The illegal cultivation, culture, delivery administration,
c. Sandiganbayan
dispensation, manufacture, sale, trading, transportation,
etc. of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor. d. Special Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
A. pushing C. selling
B. illegal trafficking D. 48. Which of the following country in the Middle East is the
manufacture biggest producer of cannabis sativa? (April 2016 BEQ)
30 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 a. Lebanon commercial trade marijuana, it is:
b. Iraq a. Concentrated resin extracted from marijuana
c. Kuwait b. Dried flower of marijuana
d. Afghanistan c. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
d. Finest and high grade leaves of marijuana plant
49. The major transshipment point for international drug
traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise of Drug 56. How many grams of shabu does a person possess to render
Users” in this continent (April 2016 BEQ) him ineligible to post bail?
a. Portugal a. 100 grams
b. Half of a kilogram
b. Spain c. less than 50 gram
c. Germany
d. Turkey d. 50 grams or more

57. Principal source of all forms of cocaine

50. This drug is representative of a broad class of stimulants
a. Southeast Asia
known as “pep pills”. It is usually prescribed to reduce
appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental depression.
b. South America
(June 2019 Board Exam Question)
c. Middle East
d. Southwest Asia
a. Amphethamine
b. Ecstasy
c. Methamphetamine 58. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu
d. Shabu originated from:
a. Japan
b. China
51. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that
c. Mexico
makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques were
d. India
made by its operator in concealing their activities. (June
2019 BEQ)
a. Hide –out operation
b. Disguised operation
59. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?
c. Clandestine Operation a. solvent
d. Confidential b. Narcotic

c. hallucinogen
52. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related d. depressant
cases? (June 2019 Board Exam Question)
a. Public Attorney’s Office 60. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug
b. Ombudsman Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT. (October
c. National Prosecution Service 2015 Board Exam Question)
a. Officers and Employee of public and private
d. Special Prosecutor designated by the DOJ offices.
b. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to
carry firearms outside residence.
c. Officers and Members of the Military, police and
53. Which of the following is not false? other law enforcement agencies.
d. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s
a. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition to dangerous drug office with a criminal offense having an imposable
b. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction between penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1)
regulated and prohibited drug days.
c. R.A. 9165 defers dangerous drug to prohibiteddrug
d. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drug as dangerous
61. Pedro cannot function without drugs in his system
drug
and if he does not take drugs, he develops
withdrawal signs such as restlessness, pain, or
54. Which of the following does not carry a capital convulsions. Pedro is (June 2018 Board Exam
punishment? Question.)
a. possession of 20 grams morphine
a. physically dependent on drugs
b. possession of 100 grams of marijuana b. mentally dependent on drugs
c. possession of 15 grams of MDMA c. psychologically dependent on drugs
d. possession of 60 grams of shabu d. socially dependent on drugs

55. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the 62. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a
31 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 result of abusing drugs: (June 2019 Board Exam 69. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium in
Question) China by the British Indies that lead to the Opium War of
a. Cleansing process 1840.
b. Aversion treatment A. Lao Tzu
c. Abstinence B. Sun Tzu
C. Yung Chen
d. Detoxification D. Mao Zedong

70. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug
63. A form of physical dependence, severe craving for market. (June 2019 Board Exam question)
the drug even to the point of interfering with the I. Heroin and Cocaine
person’s ability to function normally. II. Shabu and Ecstacy
a. Tolerance
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
b. Addiction
IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and Depressants
c. Habituation
d. Psychological Dependence
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. V
64. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug
Board: (June 2019 Board Exam Question)
a. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice 71. A degree of Intoxication wherein the mind is
confused, behavior is irregular and the movement
b. NBI Director and PNP Director General is uncontrolled. The speech is thick and in
c. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief coordinated. The behavior is uncontrollable.
d. PNP Director and PDEA Director A. Slight Inebriation
B. Moderate Inebriation
C. Drunk
65. Drugs that are commonly used by athletes having the
D. Coma
properties of increasing stamina and/or energy. (June 2019
Board Exam Question)
72. The head of the PDEA is known as the Director
a. Ecstasy General with a rank of ?
b. Shabu
A. Secretary
c. MDMA
B. Assistant Secretary
C. Undersecretary
d. Anabolic Steroid
D. Senior Secretary

66. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological classification

which often relives pain and induces sleep.
73. ______ is a citizen-based information collection program
A. Hallucinogens
designed to encourage the active participation of private
B. Sedatives/Depressant
citizens to report illegal drug activities in their communities.
C. Stimulants
We need to establish trust, confidence and maintain a
D. Narcotics
mutually beneficial relationship between PDEA and the
67. What will be the disposition in a case where minor public for a unified effort combating the drug menace in our
is convicted for the possession of dangerous drugs? country,”
(June 2019 Board Exam Question) a. Operation Neptune Sphere
a. Judgment will be suspended
b. Turn-over to DSWD b. Operation Private Eye
c. Operation Green Gold
c. Sentence will be suspended d. Operation Double Barrel
d. None of the above
74. There are two schools of thoughts as regards
68. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for
prostitution. What school of thoughts believes that
the first time shall be punished with:
prostitution is both a crime and vice and should be
a. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
repressed and prohibited?
A. The School of Regulatory Control
b. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
B. The School of Prostitution Control
c. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
d. Imprisonment of at least 6 months
C. The School of Total Repression
D. The School of Total Control and Repression

32 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

75. PO3 Suboh planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their D. 85%
suspect and PO2 Lebron planted 1 gram of shabu.
Is their penalty the same? 83. It occurs when the body becomes accustomed to a drug as
A. No the drug is repeatedly taken in the same dose.
A. Addiction
B. Yes B. Tolerance
C. False C. Cold turkey
D. True D. Habituation

76. Among the following, who was the German pharmacist who 84. It is a symptom after long-term use of a drug is reduced or
discovered the morphine drug? stop abruptly
a. Allan Heithfield A. Withdrawal syndrome
b. Albert Hoffman B. Cold turkey
C. All of the above
c. Freidrich Serturner D. None of the above
d. Alder Wright
85. The amount needed to produce the side effects and action
77. The Golden Triangle produces how many percent of desired by an individual who improperly uses it.
opium in the world? A. Maximal dose
a. 60% B. Toxic dose
b. 70% C. Abusive dose
c. 80% D. Lethal dose
d. 90%
86. Karla believes that she can’t live without drugs because she
believes that it is an integral part of life.
78. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by: (October 2015 A. Situational users
Board Exam Question) B. Spree users
a) Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet C. Hard core addicts
b) Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown. D. Hippies
c) Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
87. It is the introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the
d) Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are skin and the mucous membrane.
serrated in shape. A. Suppositories
B. Topical
C. Buccal
79. It is the hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican D. Iontophoresis
mushroom used by Mexican Indians to induce nausea and
muscular relaxation.
A. Psilocybin 88. This is the most prevalent factor that prompt pushers and
B. STP abusers alike to indulge in dangerous drugs
C. Marijuana A. Poverty
D. Phencyclidine B. Peer pressure
C. Ignorance
80. Miss Joy is a prostitute that is usually dressed in skimpy D. Parental influence
seductive clothing regardless of the weather. She obtains
her customers while walking or at street corner, what kind 89. It is known as the King of all Drugs
of prostitute is Miss Joy? A. Cocaine
A. Skeezers B. Shabu
B. Lot Lizard C. Alcohol
C. Street Prostitute D. Marijuana
D. Escort Prostitute
90. It is the chemical test used for barbiturates.
81. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication A. Marquis test
without the small of alcoholic breath is a sign that the B. Cobalt thiocyanate test
suspected person is under the influence of what kind of C. Zwikker’s test
drug? D. Simon’s test
A. Amphetamnine
B. Barbiturates 91. Use of two or more psycho-active substance in quantities
C. Hallucinogens and with frequencies that cause the individual significant
D. Narcotics physiological or sociological distress or impairement,
A. Overdose
82. B. Poly drug abuse
A. 60% C. Drug addiction
B. 70% D. Tolerance
C. 80%
33 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
92. He was the first appointed Director General of PDEA d. Maniac
A. Jose Gutierrez
B. Dionisio R. Santiago VI. INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME WITH ENVIRONMENTAL
C. Anselmo Avenido LAWS AND PROTECTION
D. Fidel V. Ramos

93. How many permanent members are there in Dangerous 1. acts as digital fingerprints since they are unique to the
Drug Board? original data they reference.
A. 17 A. Hash Algorithm
B. 3 B. Message Digest 5
C. 12 C. Secure Hash Algorithm
D. 2 D. Hash Values

94. These are individuals who transport dangerous drugs in

2. the first step in the forensic process and is critical to ensure
exchange of huge amount of money, depending on the
the integrity of the evidence.
amount of drugs to be delivered and the route and distance
A. Identification
to be travelled.
B. Data Acquisition
A. Drug courier
C. Examination
B. drug carrier
D. Reporting
C. drug pusher
D. drug exporter
3. it authorized law enforcement officers to carry out any or
95. how many hours shall the court conduct ocular inspection all of the following activities: listen, record, monitor
after filing of criminal case? surveillance of the content of communications.
A. 12 hours A. Warrant to Disclose Computer Data
B. 32 hours B. Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
C. 48 hours C. Warrant to Search, Seizure, and Examination of Computer
D. 72 hours Data
D. Warrant to Examine Computer Data
96. What is the penalty for planting of evidence?
A. 20 years 4. requires any person or service provided to disclose
B. Life imprisonment subscriber`s information, traffic data, or relevant data in
C. No penalty his/her or its possession or control within 72 hours from
D. Death receipt of the order.
A. Warrant to Disclose Computer Data
B. Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
97. What is the landmark case wherein prohibiting plea
C. Warrant to Search, Seizure, and Examination of Computer
bargaining in drug cases was declared to be Data
unconstitutional? D. Warrant to Examine Computer Data
A. Salvador Estipona vs. Judge Lobrigo
B. Miranda vs. Arizona 5. Who has the power to formulate a national cyber security
C. People vs. Vera plan and extend immediate assistance for the suppression
D. People vs. Medina of real-time commission of cybercrime offenses
A. CERT
B. CICC
98. How many days after the results of the screening laboratory C. NBI
examination be challenged after the receipt of the result D. PNP
through a confirmatory test.
A. 24 hours 6. Who shall head the CICC?
B. 5 days A. Director of the NBI
C. 10 days B. Chief of the PNP
C. Executive Director of ICTO-DOST
D. 15 days
D. Head of the DOJ
99. It shall be imposed upon a practitioner, who shall prescribe
any dangerous drug to any person whose physical and 7. A representative from the private sector and academe
physiological condition does not require the use or in the should also be a part of the CICC.
dosage prescribed therein. A. True
B. False
A. Unnecessary prescription of Dangerous drugs
C. Partly True
B. Unlawful prescription
D. Partly False
C. Both can be imposed
D. None of the above
8. Thereby created an Office of Cybercrime within the ______
100. It is having casual/illicit sex with number of people. designated as the central authority in all matters related to
international mutual assistance and extradition an inter-
a. prostitute
agency body
b. Philandering A. NBI
c. Sexual assault
B. PNP

34 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

C. DOJ without right or authority including the introduction or
D. Office of the President transmission of viruses.
A. Cybersquatting
B. Data Interference
9. Any person who willfully abets or aids in the commission of C. System Interference
any of the offenses enumerated in this Act shall be held
D. Illegal Interference
liable.
A. Frustrated in the Commission of Cybercrime
B. Attempt in the Commission of Cybercrime 16. The use, production, sale, procurement, importation,
C. Aiding or Abetting in the Commission of Cybercrime distribution, or otherwise making available, without right.
D. None of the Above A. Illegal Access
B. Cybersquatting
C. Data Interference
10. Any person who willfully attempts to commit any of the
D. Misuse of Devices
offenses enumerated in this Act shall be held liable.
A. Attempt in the Commission of Cybercrime
B. Frustrated in the Commission of Cybercrime 17. The intentional or reckless alteration, damaging, deletion or
C. Aiding or Abetting in the Commission of Cybercrime deterioration of computer data, electronic document, or
D. None of the Above electronic data message, without right, including the
introduction or transmission of viruses.
A. Illegal Access
11. The transmission of commercial electronic communication B. Data Interference
with the use of computer system which seek to advertise,
C. Data Interception
sell or offer for sale products and services are prohibited. D. Illegal Access
A. Cybersex
B. Virtual sex
C. Unsolicited Commercial Communications 18. Made by technical means without the right of any non-public
D. Child Pornography transmission of computer data to, from, or within a
computer system including electromagnetic emissions from
a computer system carrying such computer.
12. It is the willful engagement, maintenance, control, or
A. Illegal Interception
operation, directly or indirectly of any lascivious exhibition of B. Illegal Access
sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a computer
C. Data Interference
system, for favor or consideration. D. Data Interception
A. Child Pornography
B. Cybersex
C. Unsolicited Commercial Communications 19. Any means of account access that can be used to obtain
D. Virtual sex money, good, services, or any other thing of value or to
initiate a transfer of funds.
A. Access Device
13. The input, alteration, or deletion of any computer data
B. Accessible Device
without right resulting in inauthentic data with the intent C. Access Gadget
that it be considered or acted upon for legal purposes as if
D. Accessible Gadget
it were authentic, regardless whether or not the data is
directly readable and intelligible
A. Computer-Related Forgery 20. Designated the DOJ as the central authority in all matters
B. Computer-Related Fraud that relates to Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT) and
C. Computer-Related Identity Theft extradition for cybercrime and cybercrime related offenses.
D. Misuse of Devices A. RA 4200
B. RA 8484
C. RA 10185
14. The acquisition of a domain name over the internet in bad
D. RA 10175
faith to profit, mislead, destroy reputation, an deprive others
from registering the same.
A. Cybersquatting 21. International cooperation and prosecution of cybercrime.
B. Misuse of Devices A. Group 8
C. Computer-Related Forgery B. Budapest Convention (2001)
D. Computer-Related Fraud C. Budapest Convention (2002)
D. Group 7

15. The intentional alteration on reckless hindering or

interference with the functioning of a computer or computer 22. A type of scam in which criminals attempt to obtain
network by inputting, transmitting, damaging, deleting, someone's personal information by pretending to be a
deteriorating, altering or suppressing computer data or legitimate business, neighbor or some other innocent party.
program, electronic document, or electronic data message, A. Spoofing
B. Scamming

35 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

C. Pharming A. Internet Securities Fraud
D. Phishing B. Illegal Copyright Infringement
C. Distributing Illegal Sexual Material
23. A type of malware that enables the remote monitoring of a D. Denial of Service Attack
computer user`s activities or information on an individual’s
computer when this software has been installed.
31. It refers to the technologies that facilitate the transmission
A. Keyloggers
of data across the network.
B. Sniffers A. Computer
C. Spyware B. Laptop
D. Malicious Software C. Internet
D. Electronics
24. A type of software that is used to monitor and analyze
networks, but can also be used to collect individual’s` 32. It is the fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information
usernames and passwords and other personal information. such as usernames, passwords and credit card details by
A. Keyloggers disguising oneself as a trustworthy entity in an electronic
B. Eavesdroppers communication.
C. Spy A. Fishing
D. Sniffers B. Spamming
C. Cyberstalking
25. A malware which is hidden inside what appears to be D. Phishing
legitimate software or download.
A. Worm
33. It is also known as identity fraud, is a crime in which an
B. Bundlers
imposter obtains key pieces of personally identifiable
C. Backdoor
information, such as Social Security or driver's license
D. Trojan Horses
numbers, in order to impersonate someone else.
A. Carding
26. A type of malware that tricks the computer user into thinking B. Bank fraud
that it is a legitimate software but actually contains hidden C. Extortion
functions. D. Identity theft
A. Trojan Horses
B. Dark Horses
34. In computer related crimes, it is the use of potentially illegal
C. Backdoor
means to obtain money, assets, or other property owned or
D. Virus
held by a financial institution, or to obtain money from
depositors by fraudulently posing as a bank or other financial
27. A hacking technique where the attacker can buy advertising institution.
spaces on the websites and when a user clicks on the ad, he A. Bank fraud
might get directed to a page that's infected with malware. B. Financial crimes
A. Cookie Theft C. Computer fraud
B. Virus D. Internet fraud
C. Bait and Switch
D. ClickJacking 35. When was the year that the first recorded cybercrime took
28. Illegal Copyright Infringement is referred to as ____ place?
A. War A. 1866
B. Source B. 1890
C. Fraud C. 1843
D. Warez D. 1820

36. It is the manipulation of telecommunications carriers to gain

29. In the past decades, groups of individuals have been
knowledge telecommunications, and or theft of applicable
working together to illegally obtain software and then
service.
"crack" or "rip" its copyright protections before posting it on
A. Hacking
the internet.
B. Crackers
A. Illegal Copyright Infringement
C. Phreaking
B. Denial of Service Attack
D. Kicking
C. Distributing Illegal Sexual Material
D. Internet Securities Fraud
37. Who developed and demonstrated the television system?
A. Vladimir Zworyki
30. Some internet criminals threaten to or actually flood an B. Ben Armstrong
internet site with millions of bogus messages and/ or orders C. Alexander Bell
so that site services will be tied up and unable to perform as D. Emile Bandot
promised.

36 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 38. He developed the electric telegraph in which letters of the C. Virus, Trojan etc.
English alphabet are represented by a sequence of dots and D. Phishing
dashes.
A. Samuel Morse
46. In this attack, the hacker hides the actual UI where the
B. Alessandro Morse
victim is supposed to click.
C. Graham Bell
A. Bait and switch
D. Gugliermo Marconi B. Cookie theft
C. Fake WAP
D. ClickJacking Attacks
39. What are the earliest inventions of great significance to
communication by Alessadro Volta? 47. A person who gains unauthorized access to computer files
A. computer and calculator or networks in order to further social or political ends.
B. Laptop and telephone A. Cybercriminal
C. Telegraph and camera B. Hacker
D. Telephone and telegraph C. Cracker
D. Hacktivist

40. There are two modes of committing cybercrime, except?

A. Through the means of Digital Devices, ICT Devices, 48. They have the knowledge of black hats but decided to be on
Computer the right side of the law. They work doing penetration, hired
B. Both A and C to attempt to break into the company's networks to find and
C. The Computer, Network itself is the target of the attack report on security vulnerabilities.
D. The cords, electrical wires are the target of the attack A. Black-hat
B. Gray-hat
41. It is defined as offenses that are committed against C. White-hat
individuals or groups of individuals with a criminal motive to D. Green-hat
intentionally harm, using modern telecommunication
networks.
49. Individuals whose intent is wreaking havoc via internet, this
A. Cyber offense
category includes vandalism, destructive programs, and
B. Cyber libel general mischief for no economic gain.
C. Cybercrime A. Script Kiddie
D. Crime B. Cyberpunks
C. Hackers
D. Crackers
42. A type of spyware that records every keystroke of the user
and report this information back to its source. 50. It is used to refer to the spaces within computers and the
A. Spyware spaces between computers (across networks) where people
B. Keyloggers interact with information and with each other.
A. Cyber security
C. sniffers
B. cyberspace
D. Spoofing
C. cybercrime
D. computer space
43. Are compromised computers attached to the internet which
51. It occurs when a person uses the internet to steal someone's
are often used to remotely perform malicious or criminal
identity and/ or impersonate them to open a new credit card
tasks.
account or conduct some financial transactions.
A. Bots
B. Botnets A. Computer forgery
C. Zombies B. Ponzi scheme
D. All of the above C. Identity theft
D. Ponzi scheme

44. It is a group of hackers from around the world who meet on 52. This is a global array of computers connected by a high-
online message boards and social networking forums speed reliable network. it connects millions of computers,
encouraging civil disobedience and/or unrest via denial-of- allowing for the rapid exchange of information, education,
service attacks, publishing victim’s personal information military, criminal justice system and business professionals
online, as well as defacing and defaming websites. as well as researchers using the system to send and retrieve
A. Anonymous information.
B. Jonathan James A. Internet
C. Andrian Lamo B. WIFI
D. Kevin Mitnick C. Website
D. Cyber security
45. Hackers target the most accessed physical location to attack
the victim like a coffee shop, a cafeteria, etc. and they might
53. Its focus on intercepting data such as password, usernames,
create a fake Wi-Fi access point and modify your most visited
email messages, and even secret data using sniffing
website to redirect them to you to get your personal
software.
information.
A. Counter-attack
A. Eavesdropping (Passive Attacks)
B. Active attack
B. Waterhole attacks
37 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
C. Passive attack B. WICD
D. Negative attack C. WECD
D. WDCD

54. A practice to protect a subject against cybercrime. 63. It is the process of making an exact copy of the original drive
A. Cyber protect onto a new digital storage device
B. Cyber law
A. Identification
C. Anti-virus
B. Acquisition
D. Cyber security
C. Examination
D. Imaging
55. The first ransomware virus created in the year 1989 by
Joseph L. Popp.
64. Known as “Data Privacy Act of 2012”
A. “AIDS Information – Introductory Diskettes”
B. denial of service attack A. Republic Act 8792
C. Love Bug B. Republic Act 10173
D. Malwares C. Republic Act 9995
D. Republic Act 10175
56. In 1976, first spam email took place when it was sent out
over the __________. 65. It is a hacking technique using which a hacker replicates the
A. Internet most-accessed sites and traps the victim by sending that
B. ARPANET spoofed link.
C. web A. Bait and Switch
D. computer B. Cookie Theft
C. Phishing
D. Eavesdropping
57. This crime occurs when individuals make securities
recommendations and fail to disclose that they are being
paid to disseminate their favorable opinions. 66. It is generally used to describe a person with these skills who
A. Market Manipulation decides to apply them toward a damaging or illegal purpose.
B. Embezzlement A. Hacker
C. Illegal Touting B. Hacking
D. Fraudulent Offering of Securities C. Cracking
D. Hacktivist

58. They have the knowledge of black hats but decided to be on 67. It is the lowest life form of cybercriminal, they are generally
the right side of the law. not capable of writing their own programs.
A. Black Hats A. Script Kiddie
B. Hackers B. Hacker or Crackers
C. Gray Hat C. Cybercriminal organizations
D. White Hat D. Cyberpunks

68. An approach to prevent any cyber attacks.

59. These are malicious software programs which get installed
A. Computer Incident Response
into the victim’s system and keep sending the victims data B. Computer Forensics
to the hacker. C. Cybercrime Prevention Act
A. Virus, Trojan, etc. D. Computer Security Incident
B. Cookie Theft
C. DoS/DDoS
D. Fake WAP 69. RA 10175
A. Cybercrime Preventative Act of 2011
B. Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012
60. He was convicted of a number of criminal computer crimes C. Cybercrime Preventative Act of 2012
after evading authorities for two and a half years. Once one D. Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2011
of the FBI's Most Wanted for hacking into networks of 40
high-profile corporation. 70. An organized approach to addressing and managing the
A. Anonymous aftermath of a security breach or cyberattack
B. Kevin Mitnick A. Computer Security Incident
C. Adrian Lamo B. Computer Forensics
D. Jonathan James C. Computer Incident Response
D. Digital Forensic

61. An advance form of phishing which redirects the connection

between an IP Address and its target server. 71. Crime that leaves digital tracks
A. Spoofing A. Computer Worm
B. Redirectors B. Trojan Horse
C. Pharming C. DoS Attack
D. Floating Windows D. Embezzlement

62. The process of making an exact copy of the original drive

72. Large enough in scale and magnitude in which a significant
onto a new digital storage device.
impact can be felt in both regarding cost and human
A. WDCD
emotion
38 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
A. Cybercrime D. Solar System
B. Cyber Terrorism
C. Cyber Threats 82. It is the law the was enacted that penalized the crime of
D. Cyber-attacks photo and video voyeurism.
A. RA 4200
B. RA 8484
73. It is the discipline that combines the elements of law and
C. RA 10175
computer science to collect and analyze data from computer D. RA 9995
systems, networks, wireless communications, and storage
devices in a way that is admissible as evidence in a court of
law. 83. The law the prohibits unlawful listening private
A. Computer Forensics conversations.
B. Computer Incident Response A. RA 4200
C. Digital Forensics B. RA 8484
D. Computer Security Incident C. RA 10175
D. RA 9995

74. Known as Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009

84. An offense committed when the accused have access to the
A. RA 9262
whole or any part of a computer system without right.
B. RA 9775
C. RA 9372 A. Illegal Access
D. RA 8792 B. Illegal Interception
C. Data Interference
75. An example of computer used to commit a crime D. System Interference
A. E-mail Spam
B. DoS Attack 85. Can be described as a software program that is designed to
C. Scanning a System spread itself to other computers and to damage or disrupt a
D. Malicious Code computer such as interrupting communications.
A. Virus
76. The following are definitions of “Forensics” except B. Backdoor
A. short term of Forensic Science C. Trojan horses
B. use of science in administration of justice D. Computer worm
C. not a plural of Forensic
D. came from the Latin word “forensis” 86. A type of malware that enables the remote monitoring of a
computer user’s activities or information on an individual’s
77. Use of gear method that destroys coral reefs, seagrass beds, computer when this software has been installed
and other fishery marine life habitat. A. Spyware
A. Illegal fishing B. Trojan horses
B. Muro-Ami C. Virus
C. Use of fish mesh net D. Computer worms
D. Use of superlights
87. The goal of ___ is to determine and uncover evidence that
verifies or denies a suspension and support a legal
78. It is an act to control toxic substances and hazardous and
proceeding
nuclear wastes, providing penalties for violations thereof,
A. Digital Forensics
and for other purposes.
B. Cybersecurity
A. RA 4850
C. Cybercrime
B. RA 6969
C. RA 3751 D. Digital Security
D. RA 7076

88. The part of the computer where all other computer

79. This decree is known as Marine Pollution Decree of 1976. components are connected.
A. PD 979 A. Motherboard
B. PD 1067 B. RAM
C. PD 1151 C. Processor
D. PD 1433
D. Circuit Board

80. It is the rapid loss of trees and vegetation, as well as the

underlying habits that make up forests. 89. The ______ is the process of using mathematical algorithm
A. Illegal logging against data to produce a numeric value that is
B. Deforestation representative of that data.
C. Global warming
A. Imaging
D. Illegal cutting
B. Cloning
81. It is a dense layer of ozone gas. It protects us form the C. Hashing
dangerous ultraviolet rays of the sun. D. Computing
A. Clouds
B. Ozone layer
C. Biodiversity
39 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
90. He is considered as the creator of the 1st internet worm in
1988. 98. Shall refer to a disposal area wherein the solid wastes are
A. Robert Morris Jr. indiscriminately thrown or disposed of without due planning
B. Kevin Poulsen and consideration for environmental and health standards.
C. Kevin Mitnick A. Open Dump
D. David Smith
B. Municipal Waste
C. Materials Recovery Facility
91. Immediate physical and social setting in which people live or D. Controlled Dump
in which something happens or develops
A. Built Environment 99. Shall refer to the act or process of producing solid waste.
B. Manmade Environment A. Composting
C. Social Environment B. Materials Recovery Facility
D. Natural Environment C. Segregation
D. Generation
92. Shall refer to waste generated from planting or harvesting
of crops, trimming or pruning of plants and wastes or run-
100. shall refer to a recycling center that purchases or otherwise
off materials from farms or fields
accepts recyclable materials from the public for the purpose
A. Agricultural Waste
of recycling such materials.
B. Bulky Waste
A. Materials Recovery Facility
C. Municipal Waste
B. Municipal Waste
D. Consumer Electronics
C. Buy-back Center
D. Controlled Dump
93. Shall refer to the controlled decomposition of organic matter
by micro-organisms, mainly bacteria and fungi, into a
humus-like product
A. Buy-back Center
B. Composting
C. Controlled Dump
D. Agricultural Waste

94. Shall refer to solid waste or combination of solid waste which

because of its quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical VI. FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION
or infectious characteristics.
A. Hazardous Waste
B. Generation 1. A fire that starts from “spontaneous combustion”?
C. Leachate
D. Controlled Dump a. Starts without any outside source of ignition

b. Common in cases of arson

95. Shall refer to household hazardous wastes such as paints,
c. Can be quickly extinguished
thinners, household batteries, lead-acid batteries, spray
canisters and the like. d. Is impossible
A. Solid Waste
B. Special Waste
C. White Goods
2. The integrated network of hydraulically designed piping
D. Yard Waste
installed in a building structure or area with outlets
arranged in systematic pattern which automatically
96. Shall refer to the liquid produced when waste undergo discharged water when activated by heat is?
decomposition, and when water percolate through solid
a. Smoke detector
waste undergoing decomposition.
A. Municipal Waste b. Fire alarm
B. Post-Consumer Material
c. Sprinkler system
C. Leachate
D. Special Wastes d. Fire hose

97. Shall refer to a solid waste management practice of

separating different materials found in solid waste in order 3. A building must have this design which is used as a
to promote recycling and re-use of resources and to reduce continuous passageway for the transmission of air?
the volume of waste for collection and disposal.
A. Re-use
B. Segregation a. Duct system
C. Composting b. Fire exit
D. Recycle c. Exhaust system

40 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 d. Duct C. combustible liquid , FLAMMABLE,
INFLAMMABLE

4. what is the category of fire setting that is consequence D. corrosive liquid

of a simultaneous criminal act in order to hide the primary
criminal activity?
11. The malicious and intentional, or reckless starting of a
fire or causing an explosion is
a. Pyromania
b. Vandalism A. Fire
c. Crime concealment
d. Intentional fire B. Arson

C. conflagration
5. if the burning of one’s property results from fault and
D. fire ball
the same leads to damage of property of another. This is a
crime of _____.

12. This class of fire that can extinguished by

smothering/BLANKETING because it is made up of
a. Malicious mischief
flammable liquid is
b. Negligence resulting to damage to property
c. Arson through reckless imprudence A. Class "B"
d. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage to property
B. Class "D"

6. what is the irresistible impulse on compulsion to start a C. Class "A"

fire that gives the experience of gratification and
satisfaction to the fire setter? D. Class "C"

a. Pyrophobia 13. The class of fire caused by electricity or equipment is

b. Pyrotechnic
A. Class "D" C Class
c. None of these
d. Pyromania "B"

B. Class "A" D. Class

7. what is the suspension activity wherein the concern is
"C"
on depriving the fire with any of the elements of fire?

14. At a major fire in a factory, a number of compressed

A. Fire education
gas cylinders containing carbon dioxide (CO2) are
B. Fire law enforcement
threatened by the flames. Which is CORRECT to say about
C. Fire safety
this situation?
D. Fire control
8. What is this fire suppression activity that is meant to A. If the safety valves let go, the CO2 will
combat fire or extinguishing fire? intensify the fire.
A. Firefighting C. Fire law enforcement B. The gas is toxic and will make fighting the fire
B. Fire education D. Fire very hazardous
suppression
C. The cylinders may explode and injure the
firefighters.
9. The rapid oxidation of substances by the generation of
heat and light is referred to as D. Since CO2 is a non-flammable gas, there is no
hazard and no problem.

A. radiation
15. colorless, odorless gas and one of the
B. combustion composition of air which is approximately 21% by
volume.
C. Convection
a. Fuel
D. Ignition
b. oxygen
c. heat
d. self-sustained chemical reaction
10. The liquid which causes fire when in contact with
organic matter or with certain chemicals is
16. complete and detailed checked of the structures and
A. fuel materials involved in the fire to make sure that every spark
and ember has been extinguished and to have assurance
B. incendiary

41 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 against rekindling. d. Arson only

a. Salvage 23. they are ordinary combustible materials that are usually
b. rescue made of organic substances such as wood and wood-based
c. Overhaul products. It includes some synthetic or inorganic materials
d. None like rubber, leather, and plastic products.

17. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space a. Class A

containing an oxygen-starved superheated product of b. Class B
incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, may c. Class C
result to an explosion, which is called: d. Class D
a. Flashover
b. Flash Fire
c. Backdraft 24. The increase or rising of amperage while electric current
d. Spontaneous Ignition is flowing in a transmission line resulting to the damage or
destruction of insulating materials, maybe gradual or rapid,
internal or external.
18. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and
shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. a. Overheating
This heat transfer is: b. Arcing
c. Sparking
a. conduction d. Induced Current
b. radiation
c. combustion 25. A method of reducing heat below the ignition
d. convection temperature

a. Cooling
19. Upon arrival at the fire scene, the fire fighters noted b. Blanketing
based that the building contains large quantities of c. Smothering
superheated fuel under pressure but little oxygen. The d. Starving
stage of fire is on –
26. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008
a. Initial stage
b. Smoldering phase a. RA 9514
c. A and B b. PD 1185
d. Incipient stage c. RA 9165
d. RA 10883
Approved dec 12, 2008
20. strong oxidizing organic compound which
releases oxygen readily. It causes fire when in
contact with combustible materials especially 27. A rocket or liquid propellant which consists of
under conditions of high temperature. combinations of fuels and oxidizers which ignite
spontaneously on contact with each other.
a. Hypergolic Fuel
b. Organic Peroxide a. Cryogenic
c. Halon b. Hypergolic fuel
d. Fulminate c. Corrosive
d. Combustible
21. William already placed gasoline-soaked rags beside the
28. A process where impurities and/or deleterious materials
wall of Happy Ending Spa but was caught by Kurt before he
are removed from a mixture in order to produce a pure
could strike the match to burn the building. William
element of compound. It shall also refer to partial distillation
committed arson at what stage?
and electrolysis.
a. Frustrated
a. Refining
b. Smelting
b. Attempted c. Oxidizing
c. Belated d. Fermentation
d. Consummated

22. Out of anger, because his younger brother was mauled

by the neighbor Munding, Juswa burned the house of 29. A passage hall or antechamber between the outer doors
Munding who unknown to him was sleeping in the said and the interior parts of a house or building.
house during that time. As an Arson Investigator you will a. Vestibule
charge Juswa with b. Vertical shaft
c. Standpipe system
. d. Sprinkler system
a. Arson with Murder
b. Murder only 30. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping
c. Arson and Murder installed in a building, structure or area with outlets
arranged in a systematic pattern which automatically
discharges water when activated by heat or combustion
products from a fire.

42 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

a. Vestibule c. Aqueous Filter Foam Forming
b. Vertical shaft d. Aqueous Film Forming Forming
c. Standpipe system
d. Sprinkler system 94% water

31. Refers to the cracking of glass into smaller segments of 6% foam

subdivision in an irregular pattern

a. Alligatoring 39. Those extinguishers that contain Carbon

b. Crazing Monoxide Gas use to fight class A, B, and C fires are
c. Charring the –
d. Spalling
a. Water fire extinguishers
32. These are borders defining the differences in certain b.B and C
heat and smoke effects of the fire upon various materials. c. Liquefied fire extinguishers
d.Dry chemical fire extinguishers
a. Surface effect
b. Lines or areas of demarcation
c. Fusion
d. Charring 40. It refers to any condition or act that increases or may
cause increase in the probability that fire will occur or which
33. Fire stage that has the highest rate of intensity (how may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with fire fighting
hot). operations and the safeguarding of life and property.
a. Incipient a. Fire trap -> unsafe
b. Clogged fire way
b. Free burning
b. Smoldering c. Fire hazard
c. Initial d. Hazardous fire area

34. It refers to the size of fire which is determined by the

size of flame and the area of fuel that is burning. 41. The heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the
splitting of atoms is known as:
a. Temperature
b. Heat a. Fission
c. Intensity b. Radiation
c. Ignition
d. Magnitude d. Fusion

35. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the 42. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and
spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred. with the use of smoke ejector is called as what?

a. Alligatoring A. smoke ejector

b. Discoloration C. forced ventilation
c. Collapse
B. horizontal ventilation
d. Charring
D. vertical
36. Most arson cases are proved by
evidence rather than that direct evidence.
43. Which of the following occur when a room is heated
a. Circumstantial enough that flame sweep over the entire surface?
b. Documentary
A. oxidation
c. Testimonial
d. Physical C. flash over

B. back draft
D. combustion
37. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to
hide the odor of flammable liquids.

a. Sulfides 44. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from

b. Nitrates floor to floor, as well as from the base to the top of the
c. Sulfur building.

A. sprinkler system
d. Ammonia
C. vertical shaft

38. AFFF means? B. flash point

D. standpipe system
a. Aqueous Film Forming Foam
b. Aqueous filter Forming Foam
43 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 45. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime 52. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation
scene is to _______ or street where fire hose is connected so that water with
A. interview witnesses pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
B. view the site of the crime A. fire hose box C. fire truck
C. preserve the fire/crime scene B. hose reel D. fire hydrant
D. phot opportunity in the fire/crime
scene

53. The fact of having set fire to some rags and jute sacks,
46. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, it is soaked in kerosene oil, and placing them near the wooden
either set for revenge or self-aggrandizing; or set by partition of the house, should be?
psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
b. Frustrated Arson
A. group fire setter
c. Consummated Arson
d. Attempted Arson
B. arson for profit
e. Malicious Mischief
C. fire starter

D. solitary fire setter 54. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest
point of the roof is referred to as:
A. vertical ventilation C. cross
ventilation
47. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to suppress
destructive fires, implements the fire code and investigates B. forced ventilation D. horizontal ventilation
all fires cases in the Philippines

a. BFP 55. What is the percentage of water and foam in AFFF??

b. PNP
A.96% water and 4% foam
c. BJMP
d. Bureau of Fire in the Philippines B.96%foam and 4%water
C.60%water and 40% foam
D.50% water and 50% foam
48. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire. 56. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime
that you have to file is:
a. Fire Suppression
b. Fire Control A. murder with arson C. arson with murder
c. Fire Inspection
B. murder D. arson
d. Fire prevention

57. What color of smoke is present when the materials

49. As the product of combustion rises in a building
burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?
or flows out of an opening an equal volume of air
replaces them. If during extinguishments, water is A. Black C. White
distributed in such a manner as to upset the thermal
balance, a condition will appear known as: B. Yellow D. Blue

a. Explosion of steam
b. Thermostat
58. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been
declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober must
c. Thermal imbalance
determine?
d. Sudden burst of fire
A. look for survivors

50. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat. B. search for debris

a. Thermal balance C. locate the point of origin

b. Oxidation
c. Burning D. established corpus delicti

d. Pyrolysis
59. This is the process of knowing the emergency situation.
A. Evaluation size-up
B. Pre-fire planning
C. Fire plan
51. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
D. Pre fire conference
A. simultaneous fire C. faulty electric wiring
60. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however
B. thick reddish smoke D. unexplained explosion examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal
quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your
interpretation under such circumstance?

44 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 A. The person died because of asphyxia 68. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the
bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete
B. The person died because of the burning combustion and has a low temperature.
A. Luminous C. Non-luminous
C. The person was killed before it was burned B. Laminar D.
Turbulent
D. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
69. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the
method is called ____.
61. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate
flame propagation. A. radiation C. oxidation
A. Plant C. Trailer
B. Accelerant D. Gasoline B. convection D. conduction

62. What is the upper section of an extension ladder? 70. The following are the special aggravating
circumstances in arson, except:
A. top C. fly
a. if committed with intent to gain;
B. pole D.
extension b. If committed for the benefit of another;

c. If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards

63. What is a normally open device installed inside an air
the owner or occupant of the property burned;
duct system which automatically closes to restrict the
passage of smoke or fire? d. If committed by 2 persons
A. fire exit
C. fire trap
71. Means employed to pacify a fire.
B. damper
D. fire alarm a. Fire protection
b. Fire control
c. Fire suppression
d. Fire inspection
64. What is a vertical panel of non- combustible or fire
resistant materials attached to and extending below the
72. It is performed to assess the safety of an installation
bottom chord of roof trusses to divide the underside of the
from destructive fires.
roof into separate compartments so that heat and smoke will
be directed upwards to a roof vent? a. Fire protection
b. Fire control
A. fire door
c. Fire suppression
C. fire trap
d. Fire inspection
B. electric arc
D. curtain board
73. These are installed to separate areas of hazardous
occupancies from areas of ordinary or light hazard
65. Considered as the first firefighters in the Philippines. occupancies that resist the passage of fire from one area to
another.
a. Police officer
b. Streetsweepers a. Firewall
c. Men b. Fire partitions
d. Fire brigade c. Fire building
d. Fireproof wall

66. They are the so-called “Eyes and Ears” of the police
before, during and after the fire has been placed under 74. It is a hot piece or lump that remains after a material
control. has partially burned and is still oxidizing without the
manifestation of flames.
a. Firemen
b. Eyewitness a. Arc
c. Suspects b. Ember
d. Arson Investigator c. Damper
d. Duct
67. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor
75. The primary course of action in case of a fire.
pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure?
a. vapor density c. fire point A. pack up and flee
b. boiling point d. vapor pressure
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm

45 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 76. The following are some of the factors that may affect c. Thermal balance
the extent of burning except: d. Thermal imbalance

a. Wind velocity
b. Relative humidity 84. is exemplified by a Bunsen-type laboratory burner
c. Air temperature where hydrocarbon (any substance containing primarily
d. Numbers of incendiary carbon and hydrogen) is thoroughly mixed with air before
reaching the flame zone.
77. How many percent of air is needed to sustain
combustion? a. Pre-mixed flame
b. Diffusion flame
A. 20 C. 30 c. Laminar flame
d. Turbulent flame
B. 10 D. 15

85. The cause of the majority of fire death is

78. It is any substance that ignites spontaneously when __________.

exposed to air.
A. Infection
a. Cryogenic
b. Hypergolic B. Shock
c. Pyrophoric
C. Burns
d. Flammable
D. Asphyxiation
79. The form of heat transfer that takes place within solids
when one portion of an object is heated. 86. What substance is burned when there is a bright
reddish yellow flame?
a. Conduction
b. Convection a. Rubber
c. Radiation b. Calcium
d. Heat transfer c. Manganese
d. Nitrogen products
80. Known as the 4th element of fire. (June 2018 Board
Exam Question) 87. This is the activity of restricting the fire at the place
(room) where it started : the process of preventing fire
a. Fuel
from extending from another section or form one section to
b. Heat another section of the involved building.

c. Uninhibited chemical reaction a. Fire control

b. Containment
d. Oxygen c. Ventilation
d. Exposure

81. A kind of fire extinguisher which contains the most

88. this is the activity of securing other buildings near the
effective in cooling the burning material below its ignition burning structure in order to prevent the fire from the
extending to another building.
temperature. It is the most commonly used agent in
a. Fire control
firefighting.
b. Containment
c. Ventilation
A. Water fire extinguisher
d. Exposure
B. Carbon Dioxide fire extinguisher
89. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed
vapor as a result of combustion.
C. Dry powder fire extinguisher
A. Fire
D. Dry Chemical fire extinguisher B. Flame
C. Heat
82. An occurrence when the heat has brought the D. Smoke
combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition
temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or shooting 90. Which among the following is commonly used in fire
forth light and flames. resistant materials?
a. Flashover A. Asbestos
b. Backdraft B. Diamond
c. Thermal balance C. Asphalt
d. Thermal imbalance D. Cotton

83. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, 91. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction
it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen. takes place.
a. Flashover A. Endothermic reactions
b. Backdraft B. Exothermic reactions
C. Oxidation
46 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 D. Combustion a. rescue
b. salvage
92. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the c. evacuation
room or throughout the structure. d. overhauling
A. Accelerant
B. Plants
C. Trailer
D. Wick

93. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at

which vapors are evolved fast enough to support
continuous combustion.
A. Ignition temperature
B. Kindling temperature
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

94. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a

vapor-air mixture that ignites.
A. Ignition temperature
B. Kindling temperature
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

95. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air

must be heated in order to initiate or cause a self-
contained combustion without the addition of heat from
outside sources.
A. Boiling point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

96. This is the normal/common behavior of fire in a

building:

a. It moves vertically
b. It has a circular movement
c. It only moves horizontally VII. TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1&2
d. It has a circular movement while moving horizontally

97. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a

1. A quality of good report where it should be a true
result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid
representation of facts (correctness) to the best of the
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings. investigator’s ability.
a. Dust
b. Oxidizing material a. Accuracy
c. Pyrolysis b. Completeness
d. Cryogenic c. Clarity
d. Brevity
98. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn
easily or because it lacks adequate exits or fire escapes. 2. It is the part of the investigation report that gives a brief
summary of the major investigation steps accomplished-
a. Fire Hazard
b. Fire Trap
c. Fire Wall a. Abstract
d. Fire Lane b. Synopsis
c. Summary
99. It is the activity of protecting the properties from d. 5Ws and 1H
preventable damage other than the fire. The steps are a)
remove the material outside the burning area, and b) 3. These are the prototypes of any documents or forms used
protecting or cover the materials by using tarpaulins in legal transaction or judicial proceedings, these contain
(cotton canvass treated with water proofing). important matters conveyed in technical terminologies and
presented in a suitable and systematic order in accordance
a. Salvage with the circumstances of any case.
b. Confinement
c. Rescue a. Technical report → it is a class or type of report → written
d. Retrieval Operations report → dealing with technical or specialized subject
100. It is the operation of removing (extricating), thus b. Report
saving people and other livestock from the burning building c. Legal forms
and other involved properties, conveying them to a secure d. Affidavit
place.

47 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 4. It is a written statement of facts voluntarily made by an the arrest occurred.
affiant under an oath or affirmation administered by a
person authorized to do so by law. a. Affidavit of Arresting Officer
b. Affidavit of Search
a. Technical report c. Complaint affidavit
b. Report d. Affidavit of loss
c. Legal forms
d. Affidavit
12. A sworn written statement charging a person with an
offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer,
or other public law officer charged with the enforcement of
5. It is the recognition of particular facts by either the law violated.
direct observation or experience.
a. Personal Knowledge a. Information -> accusation in writing subscribed by the
b. Information and belief prosecutor and filed directly to the court
c. Self-knowledge b. Complaint
d. Any of the above c. Warrant of Arrest
d. Search Warrant
6. Any person having the intellectual capacity
13. It is an affidavit filed by the respondent in reply to a
to take an oath or make an affirmation and who
petition.
has knowledge of the facts that are in dispute
may make an affidavit. a. Reply affidavit
b. Counter affidavit
a. taker of the affidavit
c. Rejoinder affidavit
b. respondent
d. Petition affidavit
c. plaintiff
d. affiant
14. The purpose of this affidavit in reply is simply to rebut
or answer matters raised for the first time in the affidavits
7. A public officer authorized by law to administer
to which the replies are made.
oaths and affirmations.

a. taker of the affidavit a. Reply affidavit

b. respondent → makes a counter-affidavit (sagot b. Counter affidavit
sa complaint affidavit) c. Rejoinder affidavit
c. plaintiff → person who makes/executes → d. Petition affidavit
complaint affidavit
d. affiant 15. Statement No.1 - The plaintiff can “save” matters from
its initial affidavits and then put those matters in affidavits
in reply. Statement No. 2 - The affidavits in reply should only
8. The essential elements must be satisfied to constitute a rebut or answer new matters raised by the defendants which
complete affidavit. They are the following, except;
the plaintiffs have not already addressed.
a. A written oath representing the facts as sworn to by the
affiant;
b. The signature of the affiant; and a. Both statements are correct
c. The attestation by an officer authorized to administer the b. Both statements are wrong
oath that the affidavit was actually sworn by the affiant in c. Statement no. 1 is correct. Statement no. 2 is wrong
the presence of that officer. d. Statement no. 1 is wrong. Statement no. 2 is correct
d. Date and time where the affidavit was taken
16. It is a written statement under oath by the
complainant stating that he‘s no longer interested
9. It is a part of an affidavit in which the officer in pursuing the complaint or criminal case against
certifies that the instrument was sworn to before another person.
him. a. Affidavit of Loss
b. Affidavit of Desistance
a. Attestation c. Affidavit of Undertaking
b. Jurat d. Counter Affidavit
c. Sworn statement
d. None of the above
17. It is usually required when requesting for a
10. It is the willful and corrupt assertion of a replacement of a lost document or item. This
falsehood under oath or affirmation administered document should be completed by a person, known
by authority of law on a material matter. as the Affiant, who can attest under oath of their
personal knowledge of the circumstances of the
a. False Testimony loss of the object.
b. Judicial lie
c. Perjury a. Affidavit of Loss
d. Malicious lie b. Affidavit of Desistance
c. Affidavit of Undertaking
d. Counter Affidavit
11. It is a generally filled out by the arresting officer and
18. The term used by NBI Clearance Centers if the applicant
states the facts and circumstances surrounding an arrest.
The affidavit may state such facts as the information which has the same or similar name with another person who has
led to the arrest and the observations made before and after a pending criminal case.

48 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 a. Warning b. Affidavit
b. Hit c. Sworn statement
c. With pending criminal case d. Complaint
d. Hot case
26. A clause in an affidavit certifying the oath and the
date made by the affiant.
19. Undertakings are a legally binding promise which carries
severe consequences if breached.
a. Commencement
a. True b. Individual averments
b. False c. Attestation
c. Partially true d. Statement of truth
d. Partially false
27. These are separate claims that are numbered as
mandated by law;
20. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People
of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace
officer, commanding him to search for personal property a. Commencement
described therein and to bring it before the court b. Individual averments
c. Attestation
a. Warrant of Arrest d. Statement of truth
b. Search Warrant
c. Search and Seizure 28. The part of memorandum which contains the
d. None of the above date, subject, thru channels and addressee.
a. Letterhead
b. Addressee
21. It refers to concepts or feelings that cannot be c. Heading
experienced concretely or touched physically. d. Attention
a. Concrete nouns
b. Abstract nouns
c. Proper nouns
d. Collective nouns

22. In the sentence, “The policeman (subject -→ who or

what is doing the subject) arrested the kidnapper.”, what is
the direct object?

a. the
b. arrested
c. kidnapper
d. policeman

29. This is written two spaces below the sender and two
23. What is the correct subject-verb agreement in the
spaces to the right colon. It contains no more than ten
sentence, “One of the keys ______ not fit the lock.”
words.
a. does
a. Subject
b. do
b. Date
c. any of the above
c. Body
d. none of the above
d. Complimentary ending

30. It is mainly concerned simply with WHAT HAPPENED,

24. According to the Philippine National Police
WHERE, TO WHOM, WHY and the results of investigation.
investigative manual, these are the types of report
writers, except: a. Police National Office Periodic Report
b. Local Crime Reporting System
a. The writers who think first and write afterwards c. Police Regional office Periodic Report
b. The writers who don’t write at all d. The National Crime Reporting System
c. The writers who write and think at the same time
d. The writers who write without thinking
31. The purpose of motion for reconsideration is/are __.

a. reversal of decision
25. It is a document containing facts related to a
b. modification of decision
legal proceeding. The person who makes the
c. either of these
declaration affixes his or her signature in a separate d. neither of the above
endorsement paragraph at the end of the document
with a statement that the declaration is made under
oath. 32. The motion for reconsideration shall be filed at __

a. appellate court → notice of appeal

a. Oath
49 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 b. trial court
c. MTC 40. Suicide shall not be counted as crime.
d. RTC
a. True
b. False
33. A mittimus may only be issued by the Court. c. Yes
d. No
a. False. It can also be issued by any authorized Agency.
b. False. it can also be issued by the Senate.
c. True. An order of service of sentence may only be ordered 41. Infractions involving violations of
by the court. provincial/city/municipal and barangay
d. Tue. Because only the court may order the restriction of
liberty of an accused during the pendency of his case. ordinances shall not be counted.

a. True
34. The commitment order and mittimus are the same in b. False
terms of: c. Yes
d. No

a. Both orders are exclusively issued by a competent court 42. The following are suggested strategies that a writer
b. Both orders are exclusively for safe keeping. must adhere in writing a report, except:
c. Both orders are exclusively directed the Jail Warden/ Prison
Director. a. Check and re-check first whether notes on gathered facts
d. All of the above are already complete and organized.
b. If notes on gathered facts are sufficient, go back into the
process of gathering more facts related to the situation.
35. It is concerned more with the details of the crime, to wit; c. Make an outline of the report basing from the completely
victim’s data, offender’s data, among others gathered facts.
d. Use the chronological order of writing in presenting facts
a. Police National Office Periodic Report and ideas in the written report.
b. Local Crime Reporting System
c. Police Regional office Periodic Report
d. The National Crime Reporting System 43. This is the basic numbering system which the entire
major files are identified with.

36. A word that names something, such as a person, place, a. Identification number
thing, or idea. b. Arrest report number
c. Decimal system
a. Adjective d. Case report number
b. Pronoun
c. Noun 44. This is the number issued to arrested and booked
d. Verb persons who committed criminal offenses or traffic
violations. However, this is not issued to persons who
37. What is the prepositional phrase in the sentence “I left commit minor offenses, or those who just go to the station
my bag on the table.”? to post bond.

a. my bag a. Identification number

b. bag b. Arrest report number
c. on the table c. Decimal system
d. table d. Case report number

38. What is the predicative nominative in the sentence “Mr. 45. This is the control number assigned by the dispatchers
Gardoce’s father is a policeman.” for all police reports like traffic accidents, crimes, and non-
criminal situations.
Linking verb → is, are, was, were, has, have
a. Identification number
b. Arrest report number
c. Decimal system
a. Mr. Gardoce d. Case report number
b. Father
c. Policeman
d. None of the above 46. This is the number issued by those assigned in the
arrest and personal identification service detail. This number
is given once to an arrested person when he is fingerprinted
39. You can use the term ___________ as substitute to and photographed.
the term Initial Report.
a. Identification number
a. Advance Report b. Arrest report number
b. Progress Report c. Decimal system
c. Final Report d. Case report number
d. None of the above

50 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 47. These are records consisting of complaints or 54. This is the step where the investigator will recheck,
assignment sheets which are considered as document edit, and review the rough draft to check the errors, and
source for analyzing crimes. These are the foundation record goes on rewriting to improve the whole report.
of any police department, and written by the desk officer
who makes the complaint or assignment sheet. a. Initial preparation
b. Final organization of the collected data
a. Case records c. Preparation of the first draft
b. Arrest record d. Rewriting and polishing the report
c. Identification records
d. Miscellaneous records
55. This part is the coherent presentation of all the
important facts supported by evidences involving the whole
48. These are records that are not necessarily related to investigation.
any complaints
a. Matters investigated
a. Case record b. Facts of the case
b. Arrest record c. Discussion
c. Identification records d. Conclusion
d. Miscellaneous records
56. A requisite in writing where the police report
must be short, with simple sentences, common
49. These are records of fingerprint identification which is words and easy to understand.
done in two (2) copies. The first copy is filed in the central
record of the police station, and the second copy is a. Clarity
forwarded to the headquarters of the National Bureau of b. Accuracy
c. Brevity
Investigation.
d. Security
a. Case record
b. Arrest record
57. The police report must know what the receiving office
c. Identification records
d. Miscellaneous records needs to know. Important data must not be omitted or
added to conceal responsibilities, to impute liabilities or to
favor parties.
50. Also termed as MC in government offices, these have
subjects that explain or classify rules for subordinates to a. Completeness
b. Impartiality
comply.
c. Timeliness
a. Office orders d. Specificity
b. Office circular
c. Memorandum circular 58. Is a question that will contain the facts relating to any
d. Circulars person who directly or indirectly associated with the
incident.
51. The part where the words “MEMORANDUM FOR”
(SUBORDINATE – SUPERIOR) or “MEMORANDUM TO a. Who
(SUPERIOR – SUBORDINATE)” can be found. b. What
c. Where
a. Letterhead d. Why
b. Addressee
c. Heading
d. Attention 59. It is usually a letter or memorandum, or any of one of
the many prescribed in day-to-day police operations.

52. These are types of verified, formal sworn statement of a. Informal Reports
fact signed by an affiant or author, and witnessed by a b. Formal reports
c. Spot report
notary public. This can be used as evidence in court
d. After-operation report
proceedings.

a. Oath 60. This is written by a police unit or office based on

b. Affidavit a directive or instruction from higher police officers.
c. Sworn statement This type of report follows the memorandum format
d. Complaint of correspondence.
a. Spot report
b. Special report
53. Using chronological order, all the gathered facts, and c. Wanted Person report
evidences, related to the case should be sequentially d. Arrest Report
presented.
61. This is similar to patrol report which is submitted
a. Initial preparation every eight hours but, on a need-only basis.
b. Final organization of the collected data a. Spot report
c. Preparation of the first draft b. crime report
d. Rewriting and polishing the report c. Situation report
d. Miscellaneous incident report

51 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 62. This is a written narration of facts developed by 69. These are reports written after the conclusion
the investigator in the course of the follow-up from preliminary investigation that a crime truly
investigation. happened. This report also includes important factors
a. Initial Report like corpus delicti (elements of the crime), suspect
b. Advance report descriptions, properties taken, evidence collected,
c. Progress report property damages, victims’ injuries, and suspects’
d. Final report
modus operandi.
63. This part where the investigator cites the authority for a. Beat Inspection report
making the report, and he states briefly the date, the place, b. Arrest report
and the person by whom the investigation is made. c. Wanted person report
a. Authority d. Crime report
b. Matters investigated
c. Facts of the case 70. This report is written by the officer who
d. Conclusion investigates the accident. This type of report
documents all the facts and information about any
vehicular accident whether it is fatal or non-fatal.
64. This is where the investigator writes his judgment a. Progress report
and the practical suggestions for appropriate actions b. Final report
to be taken, for proper disposition of the case, for c. Traffic accident report
remedy of unsatisfactory situation, and for a d. Advance report
recommendation that a case be closed.
a. Discussion 71. This is a verbal or written report done within
b. Conclusion twenty-four hours after an important incident. This
c. Recommendation report is written to inform an immediate chief or those
d. Authority in higher position of occurrences in his command
responsibility
a. Spot report
65. This is the first step of writing the investigation
b. Basic report
report where the investigator determines his
c. Special report
purposes and objectives in writing the report. He the
d. Formal report
gathers the facts and circumstances related to the
case.
72. Using the notice on wanted person, this report is about
a. Initial preparation
those persons who are by the police.
b. Final organization of the collected data
c. Preparation of the first draft a. Beat Inspection report
d. Rewriting and polishing the report b. Arrest report
c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report
66. This part is where the investigator writes the
purpose of his report by generally stating what the 73. This is one of the widely practiced written forms of
investigation is all about. Included in this part are the communication in a station. This is a routine report because
complaints, and the allegations of committed crimes. the duty beat supervisor submits this report daily.
a. Matters investigated a. Beat Inspection report
b. Facts of the case b. Arrest report
c. Discussion c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report
d. Conclusion
74. These are reports that are mostly related with
67. A complete written narration of facts based from ordinary, miscellaneous incidents, usually in letter or
a thorough investigation of the case. This is a result memorandum form.
of evaluation, summation, and analysis of all facts a. Spot report
and circumstances of the case, and the complete b. Basic report
accumulate and collection of data. c. Special report
a. Progress report d. Formal report
b. Final report
c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report 75. These are written reports on the methods of
logical gathering and presentation of data. Examples
of these reports about facts and figures of terrorism,
68. This is an advance information on a new or fresh Drug trafficking, Human Trafficking, etc.
case an investigator; the data in this report is not yet a. Problem solution reports
complete, but it is written and immediately submitted b. Fact-finding reports
after the preliminary investigation of the case. c. Performance reports
a. Progress report d. Problem determining reports
b. Final report
c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report 76. These are written reports referring to information
on the status of the activity or operation within a unit
or organization.
a. Problem solution reports

52 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

b. Fact-finding reports
c. Performance reports
d. Problem determining reports 85. Attempted and Frustrated homicide cases which result
to injuries to the victim(s) are counted as ___________
cases.
77. A logbook that contains the daily registry of all
crime incident reports, official summaries of arrests, a. Physical injury
and other significant events reported in a police b. Frustrated homicide
station. (PNP Manual revised 2010) c. Attempted homicide
a. Manual d. Homicide
b. Police Blotter
c. Record 86. It is a written order of the court, or any agency
d. Reports authorized by law to issue, entrusting an inmate to a jail for
the purpose of safekeeping during the pendency of his/her
case.
78. A message which has two or more addressee and is of
such nature that the originator considers that no addressee a. Warrant
needs to be informed of the identity of other addressee. b. Writ
c. Mittimus
a. Single d. Commitment order
b. Book
c. Multiple
d. Dual 87. He/She signs and acknowledges the Incident Report
Form, EXCEPT:

79. The person who actually composes a message. a. Desk Officer

b. Chief of Police
a. Originator c. Representative of Chief of Police
b. Drafter d. None of the above
c. Releasing officer
d. Text
88. This is an accusation in writing charging a person with
80. Confinement in a rehabilitation center for treatment and an offense, subscribed by the prosecutor and filed with the
rehabilitation shall not exceed ________ court
a. 1 year a. Affidavit
b. 2 years b. Complaint
c. 3 years c. Information
d. 5 years d. Admin charge

81. It is a note, a reminder, or a statement that one wishes 89. Defined as a daily record of events within the
to remember or preserve for future use. territories of a police unit, it contains daily material
concerning events for legal and statistical purposes.
a. Circulars (PNP Circular No.5)
b. Memorandum a. Manual
c. Memorandum Circular b. Police Blotter
d. Office circulars c. Record
d. Reports
82. This is used by a subordinate official in communicating
to a superior on matters which are 90. PCPL Dela Cruz is an investigator who is
recommendatory/advisory or informative in nature, investigating a particular case. He shall write an
briefings, or reports. _________________ that will provide permanent
official record of the pertinent information procured
a. MEMORANDUM FOR during the course of investigation.
b. MEMORANDUM TO a. Investigation report
c. Memorandum b. Arrest report
d. Memorandum Circular c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report
83. In counting of crime incidents, only consummated, and
not statutory rapes shall be included. 91. A search warrant shall be issued only upon _________
in connection with one specific offense to be determined
a. True
personally by the judge.
b. False
c. Maybe a. Reasonable suspicion
d. No b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. Probable cause
84. Only consummated carnapping cases are to be recorded. d. Hearsay
a. True
b. False 92. The authorization for wiretapping shall be effective for
c. Maybe the period specified in the order which shall not exceed
d. No

53 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 ________ days from the date of issuance of the order,
unless extended or renewed by the court upon being 99. Generally, articles not included in the Search Warrant
satisfied that such extension or renewal is in the public ________.
interest.
a. may be seized
a. 30
b. 60 b. may not be seized
c. 10
c. may or may not be seized
d. 180
d. None of the above.
93. The following are Requirements on the Application for
the Treatment and Rehabilitation of Drug Dependents,
except; 100. The facts and information of a blotter entry shall at first
be recorded in the _______.
a. Drug Dependency Examination
b. PNP Clearance a. Police blotter
c. Barangay Clearance
d. Certificate of No Pending Case from the Regional Trial Court b. Incident Record Form
and/or Municipal Trial Court (MTC).
c. Report form

94. If a minor drug dependent has a pending case, secure a d. Blue book
________ from the RTC or MTC where the case was filed.

a. Certificate of Suspension of Proceedings

b. Certificate of Dismissed Case
c. Certificate of Proceedings
d. Court Certificate

95. If an adult drug dependent, secure a ________ from

the RTC or MTC where the case was filed or Certificate that
the proceeding is suspended.

a. Certificate of Suspension of Proceedings

b. Certificate of Dismissed Case
c. Certificate of Proceedings
d. Court Certificate

96. The following are Steps on Treatment and Rehabilitation

of Drug Dependent (Voluntary Submission, Voluntary thru
Representation and Compulsory Confinement), except;

a. Secure referral form and other requirements for Drug

Dependency Examination (DDE) at the Legal Affairs Division,
PDEA
b. DDE is conducted by a DOH-accredited physician. For
voluntary confinement, submit the result of the Drug
Dependency Examination together with the other
requirements to the Legal Division of the Dangerous Drugs
Board.
c. The DDB Legal will process the petition for confinement
(pre-signed by DDB Authorized Representative) prior to the
release of petition filed by applicant with the RTC.
d. None of the above

97. A search warrant must be served within ______ days

from its date thereafter, it shall be void.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

98. The search must be made at nighttime, unless otherwise

stated.

a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
54 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER