Mock CLAT 28

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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2022

MOCK CLAT #28
Scan this code after the test

Duration : 120 Minutes Candidate Name : _____________
Max. Marks : 150 Batch : _____________
Centre Name : __________ Contact No. : _____________
to punch in your answers

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Test ID: 2452881)
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are
150
4. You have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The student has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below:
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
5. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and
no marks will be awarded for the same.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
7. Do not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces, provided for.
8. You are not required to submit the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper after the test.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the student, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. You have to scan the QR code only after completion of offline test.
12. You cannot leave the examination hall without punching your answers on the portal.
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions(Q.1-Q.30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage(Q.1-Q.6): There's only one company crazy enough to take on a centuries-old product that is beloved
by people of all ages and backgrounds across the globe: Amazon. There's also only one company that could
actually pull it off: Amazon. The Amazon company consistently pulls off hit products that overtake the market,
even when the odds are stacked against them.
Then, in a world dominated by rectangular touchscreens, Amazon introduced a cylindrical, voice-activated smart
device with no immediately clear use-case. Now Alexa is a household name and loved by people around the
world. Amazon’s projects are always on the cutting-edge of the current consumer technology landscape. They
push boundaries and the market usually goes along with it in a big way. The company reported net revenue of
$177.87 billion in 2017. And though the majority of their revenue still comes from online retail product sales,
products like the Kindle and Echo have turned Amazon into a tech superpower and have paved the way for
Amazon to shape the future of consumer tech interactions.
Part of their ability to build grand slam products is their famous customer –centric mindset. But it’s more than
that. The key to Amazon’s success lies in their ability to deliver products that are somewhere in between what
customers say they want and what they don’t know to ask for yet. Finding this sweet spot means a lot of research,
iterations, and the occasional total failure. But as long as Amazon is trying and testing ideas, they’re learning
more about what users want and how to anticipate what comes next. This is the mission-critical information.
There’s so much to say about how Amazon became an e-commerce behemoth and tech leader.
But the process that Amazon uses to build and market consumer tech products is more important for other
startups to understand. With the Kindle and the Echo-both of which are pretty different products – Amazon was
able to take over entirely new product categories and win the hearts of the market. How Amazon digitized the
“last bastion of analogue” so successfully that the Kindle became more popular than they could have imagined.
The book has never needed an update. Amazon didn’t need to build an e-reader to become a successful company.
But the Kindle has been one of the big keys to the company’s growth over the past decade because it proved that
Amazon could bring out great consumer products.
Selling books was a great way for Amazon to get a start in e-commerce. In 1994, Bezos created Amazon on the
belief that the internet was a great place to sell books. He saw a huge, viable market: books are standardized all
over the world, and there’s no need to see a book in person before you buy it. Amazon staked their claim on the
internet, and they quickly became the leading online retailer of books.
1. From which of the following categories, does Amazon get the majority of its revenues?
(a) Tech products like the Kindle. (b) Online product retail sales.
(c) Cloud computing services. (d) It's rocket building business.
2. What did the success of Kindle mean for Amazon?

I. The company could work on breakthrough technology.
II. The company could build great consumer products.
III. The company could provide great products at affordable prices.
(a) Both I & II (b) Only I (c) Both I & III (d) Only II
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 36
3. Which of the following has/have helped Amazon in being a successful company?
I. Their famous customer-centric mindset.
II. Their ability to deliver products that are somewhere in between what customers say they want and what they
don't know to ask for yet.
III. Finding a match between innovative and price friendly.
(a) Both I & II (b) Both II & III (c) Both I & III (d) All of the above
4. Which of the following attributes of Amazon has been called as ‘the mission-critical information’ by the author?
(a) Amazon's projects are always on the cutting-edge of the current consumer technology landscape.
(b) Amazon pushes boundaries and the market usually goes along with it in a big way.
(c) Amazon tries and tests ideas, which enable them to learn more about what users want and how to anticipate
what comes next.
(d) The Amazon company consistently pulls off hit products that overtake the market, even when the odds are
stacked against them.
5. Which of the following attributes describe(s) Alexa, as talked about in the passage?
I. The only colour variants are black and blue.
II. It's cylindrical.
III. It's a voice-activated smart device.
(a) Both I & II (b) Both II & III (c) Only II (d) Both I & III
6. Which of the following would be the antonym of 'viable', as used in the passage?
I. Visionary
II. Impractical
III. Illogical
IV. Pragmatic
(a) Only I (b) Both II & IV (c) All of I, II & IV (d) Both II & III
Passage(Q.7-Q.10): By regarding the expanding universe as a motion picture, you can easily imagine ¯running
the film backward. If you do so, you find the universe getting smaller and smaller, and eventually you come to
the moment when its whole mass is crammed into an infinitely dense point. Before that time it didn’t exist, or at
least it didn’t exist in its present form.
Though there is some controversy about its exact age, most cosmologists would be inclined to agree that the
universe has existed for about ten to twenty billion years. For scale, this can be compared to the four-and-a-half-
billion-year age of the solar system, the time since the disappearance of the dinosaurs (sixty-five million years),
and the age of the human race (about three million years).
The event that marked the beginning of the universe was christened the Big Bang; the term has now entered the
vernacular of our culture. Originally the name referred only to the single initiating event; now, however,
astronomers have come to use it to mean the entire developmental process of the birth and expansion of the
cosmos.
The simple statement that the universe had a beginning in time is by now so obvious to astrophysicists that few
give it a second thought. Yet it is a statement that has profound implications. Most civilizations embrace one of
two opposite concepts of time. Linear time has a beginning, duration, and end; cyclical time, as its name suggests,
continues around and around forever. In a universe that functions through cyclical time, the question of creation
never arises; the universe always was and always will be. The minute you switch to linear time you immediately
confront the vexing question not only of creation, but also of the Creator. Although there is no logical reason for
the assumption, many people believe that if something comes into existence, it must do so in response to the
actions of some rational being. Because of that belief, astronomers, even though they resist becoming involved
in theological discussion, find themselves in one when they posit the Big Bang universe. It puts them squarely
in the middle of an age-old debate.
One common misconception about the Big Bang that should be disposed of immediately is the notion that the
universal expansion is analogous to the explosion of an artillery shell. The galaxies are not like bits of shrapnel
speeding away from a central explosion. The raisin-in-dough analogy is a more satisfactory way to think about
the whole process. The raisin-in-dough analogy is a more satisfactory way to think about the whole process.’
The raisin-in-dough analogy with regards to the universe is that the expanding universe is like a rising dough
with raisins in it. (The raisins in the universe are the galaxies) As the bread rises, the raisins move away from
each other but are still held together by the dough.
7. In the context of the passage, the phrase ‘the Big Bang’ refers to
(a) Cosmology.
(b) the beginning of God.
(c) the birth and expansion of the cosmos.
(d) the birth of Earth.
8. Which of the following reflects the title of the passage?

(a) The Big Bang: the beginning of the Universe.
(b) Both (c) and (d)
(c) The concept of time has two different interpretations.
(d) Universe is a big challenge.
9. A common misconception regarding the Big Bang is that

(a) it cannot be defined in the temporal sense.
(b) the expansion of the universe is similar to the explosion of arteries.
(c) the Big Bang does not follow a linear time sequence and cyclical time sequence.
(d) the Big Bang is still refuted by a large number of astrophysicists.
10. What can be drawn from the raisin-in-dough analogy regarding the universe?
(a) The universe has been compared to the dough that is expanding and there may be galaxies that remain close,
held together by the universe.
(b) The universe has been compared to the dough that is expanding and there may be galaxies that have come
closer and are held together by the universe.
(c) The Universe is like a raisin that moves away upon its expansion.
(d) The universe has been compared to the dough that is expanding and there may be galaxies that have moved
away but are still held together by the universe.
Passage(Q.11-Q.15): Inflation is in the news. Double-digit inflation persists, concentrated in prices of food and
necessities. Yet, some economists and financial experts believe there is little reason for concern. There is a boom
in purchases of consumer durables. The middle class is prospering. The poor are better-off with the NREGA.
And people are no longer afraid of inflation. Such a worldview is, to say the least, misleading. It needs a reality
check.
The woman in the household or the man in the street is not persuaded by statistics on rates of inflation. In the
mind of the citizen, there is a ‘price perception index’ which is based on prices paid. The social and political
threshold of tolerance for inflation in India has always been low, because a large proportion of the population is
poor and an even larger proportion does not have index-linked incomes. Governments are sensitive to inflation
because elections have been lost on the price of onions. In the past, persistent double-digit inflation was
unacceptable to people and to governments. This time around, there are no visible signs of anger among the
people, just as there are no obvious signs of anxiety in the government. Why?
Silence on the part of people is a puzzle. But there are some plausible explanations. For the rich, small in number
and large in influence, food is such a negligible part of their expenditure that food prices do not matter. For the
middle class in the private sector, beneficiaries of rapid economic growth, incomes have increased significantly
more than prices and expenditure on food as a proportion of their household budgets has come down.
For the middle class in the government sector, following the Sixth Pay Commission, higher salaries combined
with substantial arrears paid, meant that their purchasing power increased considerably more than prices. In the
past, whenever there was double-digit inflation, it was these two segments of the middle class with a voice that
organised protest and shaped opinion.For the poor, making ends meet to simply provide food for their families
is such a struggle that they have no time to protest. Their silence does not mean acceptance. It is just that they
do not have a voice.
Most important, perhaps, the government does not quite know what to do. Some hope that inflation will come
down in six months, but relying on statistics or words is not enough. Some assert that inflation is the price of
growth, even if those who lose from inflation are not those who gain from growth. Some believe that raising
interest rates and tightening credit would help combat inflation, without recognising that this inflation is
attributable to supply-demand imbalances rather than excess liquidity; if the diagnosis is wrong the prescription
cannot work.
It would be a serious mistake for the government to conclude that people are now willing to live with higher
inflation or that their tolerance is greater than before. Persistent inflation, particularly in food, hurts the poor.
Slowly but surely, resentment mounts. The number of people affected could be as much as half our population.
Even if they do not have a purchasing power in a market economy, come election time, they do exercise their
right to vote in a political democracy.
11. The author of the passage attributes inflation to

(a) the price of growth and development.
(b) imbalances in demand and supply.
(c) government complacency.
(d) excess liquidity.
12. The passage can be described as

(a) analytical. (b) informative. (c) descriptive. (d) discursive.
13. In the author’s opinion, the view of economists and financial experts on inflation
(a) is no cause for concern. (b) is unrealistic.
(c) is dangerous. (d) is baseless.
14. Which of the following ideas is NOT suggested in the passage?

(a) The purchasing power of the middle class employed in the government sector has gone up.
(b) Double digit inflation can turn political fortunes.
(c) The rich spend rarely on food.
(d) Hike in food prices does not worry the rich.
15. ‘Governments are sensitive to inflation because elections have been lost on the price of onions.’ Which of the
following would be a suitable summation of the statement?
(a) The price of the onion decides the government.
(b) Sensitive inflation before elections.
(c) The government’s destiny.
(d) The political price of onion.
Passage(Q.16-Q.20): Paragraph 1: The fireworks have been ordered. Street parties are planned. The Iraqi
government has prepared a week of festivities to mark the fall of Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi's self-proclaimed
caliphate. Three years after seizing control of the great alluvial plains of the Tigris and the Euphrates, Islamic
State, which has claimed so many victims in north-western Iraq, Syria and beyond, is finally dying. American-
led forces in Syria breached the old city walls of IS's capital, Raqqa, on July 4th. In Mosul, in Iraq, all but the
last alleyways of the Old City were back in government hands.
Paragraph 2: Finding a backdrop from which to celebrate the liberation of Mosul will be difficult, though.
Between them, IS and the coalition have destroyed too many shrines and mosques to leave much of historic
value, including the al-Nuri mosque dating back to Crusader times from where Mr Baghadi proclaimed himself
caliph. Gone is the Jewish quarter, the markets with their monasteries, and the lattice balconies and sculptured
masonry of another Sunni silk road city.
Paragraph 3: The odour of putrefaction hangs in the hot air. Cameramen entering the honeycomb of the Old
City return with footage of bodies, old and young, lying under blankets in front rooms for days. Many more are
buried under the rubble. Thousand trapped in the alleys IS still holds are without water or food. Iraqi soldiers
maintaining a siege prevent aid workers from getting food to those inside.
Paragraph 4: Previous battles for the city have been short-lived. In 1918 and 2003, opposition melted away
when British and American forces respectively marched in. Even in the earlier battle for east Mosul, SI fighters
coded one neighbourhood after another, and retreated west over the Tigris and into Syria. But besieged in their
western redoubt, they have nowhere else to go. Unlike during the fall of Aleppo to the Assad regime earlier this
year, no one has negotiated safe passage in the final stages of battle. The fighting goes on alley by alley.
Paragraph 5: The clear-up operation will do much to determine whether Iraq’s government wins the war as
well as the battle. Mosul’s exodus has realised the UN’s worst-case predictions. About 9,00,000 of the city’s 2m
people have been displaced; 7,00,000 are still homeless. The prime minister, Haider al-Abadi, wants to get people
home quickly, but the UN says 2,00,000 have none to return to. Most of the latter come from poor
neighbourhood, like the Old City, where IS found many recruits. Strewn across Iraq, they may now spread their
anger countrywide.
16. According to the passage, which of the following is the nearest interpretation of the expression, 'hanging in the
hot air'?
(a) To be uncertain of something.
(b) Something which doesn't go away.
(c) Something which has become deadly.
(d) To be lost forever.
17. Based on the passage, which of the following is true?
I. In 1918 and 2003, opposition melted away when Irish and American forces respectively marched in.
II. Cameramen entering the honeycomb of the Old City return with footage of bodies, old and young, lying
under blankets in front rooms for months.
III. Thousands trapped in the alleys IS still holds are without water or food.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) Both I & III
18. According to the passage, why does the author say that the celebration of the liberation of Mosul will be difficult?
(a) Because although the IS have fallen, their leader Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi is still at large.
(b) Because too much history of the city has been uprooted.
(c) Because it will take time to organize and regulate the people and, hence, the city can't celebrate before doing
that.
(d) Because Mosul is under the siege of the British and American forces.
19. According to the passage, what does the author want to communicate through the second paragraph?
(a) The author is describing the present state of the city of Mosul.
(b) The author is sceptical regarding the way forward for the city.
(c) The author is criticising the government for planning celebrations after such a disaster.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
20. Which of the reflects the writing style adopted by the author for the passage?
(a) Narrative (b) Expository (c) Persuasive (d) Descriptive
Passage(Q.21-Q.25): Recently, in a court case, lawyers argued that the deity in a temple is a legal entity and
therefore, the deity’s legal rights have to be protected. The deity’s legal rights and desires and wishes are
expressed through the hereditary priests who manage the temple and who have been doing so for several
generations. This draws our attention to a very important but overlooked theme in Indian society where Gods
play a significant role in establishing society. Deities have always played an important role in social engineering
and we have to think about it carefully.
In ancient tribes how did you bind people together? Everybody had a different opinion, this could have led to
tensions between members over resource allocation, job allocation. One of the ways in which the tribe was kept
together was by establishing an impersonal deity, to whom all are beholden and this deity’s wishes were
expressed through the dreams of shamans and everybody submitted to this dream.
Modern institutions are essentially impersonal entities that are treated by law, as a person and, therefore with
rights and responsibilities. In ancient times, this role of an institution was played by a tribal god or village god
(grama devata) or the clan god (kula devata).
Authority came from a supernatural force. The assumption here was that supernatural and impersonal entities
are fairer. However, life is never so simple as the gods cannot speak, just as an institution cannot speak. An
institution expresses its will through its board of directors and its management committee, in the same way a
deity expresses its will through its management committees, the priests and trustees. The earliest idea of
institution comes from the Roman Empire, where the senators owed allegiance not to the king or Caesar but to
the city of Rome. Later, Rome was replaced by the Church and the priestly class functioned in the name of the
church.
In India, many people abhor the idea of giving taxes to the state but they have no problem in giving large
amounts of money, even shares of their companies, to the deity because they feel they will receive karmic
dividends. Thus, temples are flush with funds which are then managed by the committees of the temple, which
in a way embodies the will of the deity in a temple. With the help of the temple, and its impersonal deity, the
priests helped the king bind various clans and communities and tribes. Indian people believe in Karmic Dividends
and they think that by making donations to religious institutions, they will earn the blessings of God and by
paying income tax they do not get anything in return.
One can argue that deities in India, and their temple culture, through the priestly class functioned as an
impersonal proto-institution that bound communities together and helped legitimize the kingship. It made the
kingdom not the king’s property but the king’s responsibility. The king was merely a trustee who took care of
the deity’s people. But the quality of the deity’s will like the quality of an institution’s value is a function of the
biases of the management committee. It is time their ‘divine’ dreams moved out of medieval times and became
more in line with the modern times.
21. What would be the appropriate antonym for the word ‘abhor’ as used in the above passage?
(a) Fancy (b) Regard (c) Prefer (d) Adjourn
22. What view does the author have on the role of deity in the country’s social fabric?
(a) The author does not believe in this notion as he thinks human beings are solely responsible for everything.
(b) The author likes the idea of a supreme power and is ecstatic with the possibility of creating a world founded
around a God so that people can serve the power.
(c) The author is cautious about the deity's relation to the nation's social system
(d) The author is of the view that, Indians are unreasonable as they donate everything to the deity without
actually seeing where it goes.
23. Why do Indians detest paying taxes but like to donate money to religious institutions?
(a) When one makes donations, income tax is withheld and, thus, people make donations in order to obtain
income tax deductions.
(b) Income Tax is paid to government without getting anything in return, however making donations to temples
gain karmic blessings from God.
(c) Income Tax payment is obligatory and, thus, people detest it.
(d) Making donations to a temple makes people happy and fulfils their emotional needs.
24. Which among the following is synonym of the word Allegiance as used in the passage?
(a) Belief (b) Credibility (c) Loyalty (d) Commitment
25. Which of the following statements are true in the sense of temples and organization being similar?
(a) Temples and Organizations have overflowing money but they don’t know where to use it.
(b) They both are entities which are regulated by rules and laws.
(c) The responsibility of both relies on the management force's mindsets.
(d) They both believe in supremacy and control of the minds of people.
Passage(Q.26-Q.30): Scholars have always been people of the book, so it seems wrong that this faithful
companion has been put on the defensive. Part of the problem is knowing what we mean exactly when we say
"book." It's a slippery term for a format, a technology, a historical construct, and something else as well.
The book has a long story to tell, one that might be organized around four epochal events, at least in the West.
In the beginning was the invention of writing and its appearance on various materials. The second was the
development during the first years of the Christian era of the codex—the thing with pages and a cover—first as
a supplement and eventually as a replacement for the older technology of the scroll. The third was the European
deployment of movable type, in the 15th century. And the fourth is, of course, the digital revolution in the middle
of which we find ourselves today.
When we say "book," we hear the name of a physical object, even if we're thinking outside the codex. The codex
bound text in a particular way, organizing words into pages, and as a result literally reframed ideas. The static
text image on my desktop is the electronic cousin of late antiquity's reading invention. When my screen is still,
or when I arrange text into two or four pages, like so much visual real estate, I am replicating a medieval codex,
unbinding its beautifully illuminated pages. Yet reading digitally is also a scroll-like engagement - the fact that
we "scroll down" connects us to a reading practice that dates back several millennia. One of the things that book
historians study is the change in, and persistence of, reading technologies over time, and what those historians
have demonstrated is that good technologies don't eradicate earlier good technologies. They overlap with them
- or morph, so that the old and the new may persist alongside yet another development. Think Post-its, printed
books, PCs, and ipods, all in the same office cubicle.
The concept of the "history of the book" is a scholarly new discipline, that evolved as recently as the 1950s.
Book history's objective was analysis of the function of the book in culture, and since the 1970s, it has continually
expanded its scope, emerging as a trading zone among various disciplines, where the work of librarians,
archivists, and scholarly publishers can intersect with the work of traditional scholars and theorists, all members
of what is now called the "knowledge industry."
In the long night of culture, we knowledge workers are restless sleepers. We need dreamers - in technology and
science as well as the arts. Right now we are walking through two great dreams that are shaping the future of
scholarship, even the very idea of scholarship and the role "the book" should play within it.
26. Why does the author say that the codex 'literally reframed ideas'?
(a) Because it coincided with the emergence of new ideas in the literary field
(b) Because it changed the way written expression was presented, from a scroll to pages bound between covers.
(c) Because it was the precursor to the e-book that has pages framed on the screen.
(d) Because it was a new, despised and significant, medium of written expression.
27. Which of the following best describes the concluding paragraph?

(a) The paragraph uses analogy to represent the significant contribution, by science and art, to the development
of the book.
(b) The paragraph depicts the authors visualisation of how the book will shape science and technology.
(c) The paragraph aptly concludes the discussion on the evolution of the book by giving a glimpse of its future
shape.
(d) The paragraph is a metaphorical representation of the influence of art and technology on the future of the
book and scholarship.
28. The author refers to the Post-its, printed books, PCs and iPods found in the office cubicle
(a) to demonstrate that electronic gadgets have not been able to replace the printed word.
(b) to suggest that the good old technologies are the ones that evolve into the new ones.
(c) to show that good old technologies may evolve into changed forms but are not wiped out by newer
technologies.
(d) to exemplify how new technologies borrow ideas from older forms that have proven themselves.
29. The author calls the book 'a slippery term' because
(a) it encompasses not just a form and technology but beyond the limiting definition.
(b) it has been changing its form in response to changes in technology, and is therefore easy to define.
(c) it has altered so drastically that it is difficult to think of a scroll and an e-book as essentially the same thing.
(d) the changes over time have affected how it is perceived and received by the general public.
30. What is the author trying to communicate through the passage?

(a) The book is a slippery term as it entails collections of historical data and collates them into texts.
(b) The book cannot be narrowed down to a physical text as it is a reading technology that morphs the older
technology and the newer technology to merge into the future.
(c) The book is a broad concept of the accumulated knowledge through text of the past that gets eradicated as
the new text of present knowledge evolves.
(d) None of these
SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage(Q.31-Q.35): China is building a bridge across the Pangong Tso within its territory connecting the North
and South Banks which will significantly reduce the time for moving troops and equipment between the two
sides. This is part of the overall infrastructure build up by China on its side of the Line of Actual Control (LAC)
to address deficiencies it noticed since the standoff began in May 2020.
The two countries are working out details for the 14th round of Corps Commander talks to take forward the
disengagement that has stalled after two phases of disengagement. The 13th round of Corps Commander talks
remained inconclusive with the two sides releasing sharp statements on the outcome. At the same time, the two
Armies had prepared to keep over 1 lakh soldiers on both sides deployed through the extreme winter in the high
altitude region.
Since May 2020, the two sides have been holding regular military to military talks on the ground and also
diplomatic level talks in addition to the 13 rounds of Corps Commander level talks to resolve the standoff. The
two sides have so far undertaken two phases of disengagement, from both banks of Pangong Tso last February
and from Gogra in August in addition to [1], where the violent clash broke last year. Other friction areas yet to
be resolved are Hot Springs, Demchok and Depsang.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/chinas-bridge-over-pangong-tso/article38143296.ece
31. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) Galwan Valley (b) Hot Springs (c) Demchok (d) Depsang
32. India and China signed an agreement which prohibited the use of guns and explosives near the border in which
of the following years?
(a) 1992 (b) 1996 (c) 1999 (d) 2002
33. How many times have India and China fought war since the Independence of India?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
34. Which of the following is TRUE about Line of Actual Control?

(a) The LAC is the demarcation that separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory.
(b) India considers the LAC to be 3,488 km long, while the Chinese consider it to be only around 2,000 km.
(c) It is divided into three sectors: the eastern sector which spans Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim, the middle
sector in Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh, and the western sector in Ladakh.
(d) All of the above
35. India formally accepted the concept of Line of Actual Control under the leadership of which of the following
former Prime Ministers of India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Indira Gandhi
(c) P.V. Narsimha Rao (d) A.B. Vajpayee
Passage(Q.36-Q.40): Prime Minister Narendra Modi and UK Prime Minister [1] have launched a ‘green grids’
initiative—the One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) project—on the sidelines of the COP26 summit. The
project aims to connect energy grids across borders to facilitate a faster transition to the use of renewable energy.
India had first proposed connecting solar energy supply across borders at the International Solar Alliance in [2]
to allow parts of the world with excess renewable power to send power to other countries.
“If the world has to move to a clean and green future, these interconnected transnational grids are going to be
critical solutions,” Modi said in Glasgow on Tuesday.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cop26-india-uk-green-grids-project-clean-energy-7605849/
(a) Boris Johnson (b) Scott Morison (c) Justin Trudeau (d) Jean Castex
37. Which of the following is true about ISA?

(a) The ISA is an intergovernmental treaty-based organisation.
(b) ISA was co-founded by India and France during the 2015 climate change conference in Paris.
(c) ISA is the nodal agency for implementing One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG).
38. OSOWOG has been taken up under the technical assistance program of which of the following?
(a) World Bank
(b) UN Development Programme
(c) UN Environment Programme
(d) International Monetary Fund
(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
40. Which of the following is TRUE about the Fourth General Assembly of International Solar Alliance?
(a) It was presided by Union Minister Shri R.K. Singh, Minister for Power, New and Renewable Energy,
Government of India.
(b) A promise to achieve USD 1 trillion global investments in solar energy by 2030.
(c) A Solar Investment Action Agenda and a Solar Investment Roadmap to be launched at COP26
Passage(Q.41-Q.45): The Government on January 6 approved the second phase of the Green Energy Corridor
with an outlay of ₹12,031 crore to facilitate grid integration and power evacuation of about [1] of renewable
energy projects in [2] states.
"The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, today approved the
scheme on Green Energy Corridor [GEC] Phase-II for Intra-State Transmission System (InSTS) for addition of
approximately 10,750 circuit kilometres [ckm] of transmission lines and approx. 27,500 Mega Volt-Amperes
(MVA) transformation capacity of substations," an official statement said.
Announcing the decision, Union Minister Anurag Thakur said the second phase will be implemented during
2021-22 to 2025-26 fiscal years.
The Minister added that 80% of the phase one work has been completed. The outlay of the first phase was
₹10,142 crore.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/govt-approves-green-energy-corridor-phase-ii-with-12000-crore-
outlay/article38149652.ece
(a) 20 MW its Giga Watt(GW) (b) 25 MW
(c) 30 MW (d) 35 MW
42. Which is the following NOT TRUE about the Corridor?

(a) Phase 1 of the Green Energy Corridor is already under implementation in Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Rajasthan.
(b) It is working for the grid integration and power evacuation of about 24GW of Renewable Energy.
(c) It aims to achieve the target of 450 GW installed RE capacity by 2030.
43. How much percentage of the total estimated cost of the project will be covered by the Central Financial
Assistance?
(a) 15% (b) 25% (c) 33% (d) 45%
(a) 5 States (b) 6 States (c) 7 States (d) 9 States
45. Which of the following States is added in the phase II of the Scheme which was NOT in the phase I of the
Scheme?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
Passage(Q.46-Q.50): China’s status as a ‘developing country’ at the World Trade Organization (WTO) has
become a contentious issue with a number of countries raising concerns over the upper middle-income nation
deriving benefits reserved for developing countries under WTO norms. Moreover, concerns have been raised
over the ‘least developed country’ (LDC) status, with [1] potentially losing this tag after surpassing India in
terms of GDP per capita, recently.
Certain WTO agreements give developing countries special rights through ‘special and differential treatment’
(S&DT) provisions, which can grant developing countries longer timeframes to implement the agreements and
even commitments to raise trading opportunities for such countries.
WTO pacts are often aimed at reduction in government support to certain industries over time and set more
lenient target for developing nations and grant them more time to achieve these targets compared to developed
ones.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/at-wto-china-a-developing-country-why-many-nations-are-raising-
concerns-7716778/
46. The World Bank has classified India in which of the following four income groups 2020-21?
(a) Low Income Countries
(b) Lower-Middle Income Countries
(c) Upper-Middle Upper Countries
(d) High Middle Upper Countries
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bangladesh (c) Pakistan (d) Nepal
48. Which of the following is TRUE?

(a) The WTO, does not formally classify any of its members as a developing country.
(b) Individual countries are allowed to unilaterally classify themselves as developing economies.
(c) As many as two-thirds of the 164 members of the WTO have classified themselves as developing countries.
49. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about WTO?

(a) The World Trade Organization came into being in 1992.
(b) WTO is the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) established in the wake of the
Second World War.
(c) The current set is largely the outcome of the 1986- 94 Uruguay Round negotiations.
(d) Since 1995, the Marrakesh Agreement Establishing the WTO and its annexes (including the updated GATT)
has become the WTO’s umbrella agreement.
50. Who among the following is the Director General of World Trade Organisation?
(a) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
(b) Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
(c) Audrey Azoulay
(d) Catherine Russell
Passage(Q.51-Q.55): The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) on Thursday
released the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021. The report showed a continuing increase in forest cover
across the country, but experts flagged some of its other aspects as causes for concern, such as a decline in
forest cover in the Northeast, and a degradation of natural forests.
It is an assessment of India’s forest and tree cover, published every [1] years by the Forest Survey of India under
the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
India is one of the few countries in the world that brings out such an every [1] years, and this is widely considered
comprehensive and robust. With data computed through wall-to-wall mapping of India’s forest cover through
remote sensing techniques, the ISFR is used in planning and formulation of policies in forest management as
well as forestry and agroforestry sectors.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/takeaways-from-india-state-of-forest-report-7722163/
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
52. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the findings of the report?
(a) India’s forest cover is now 21.71% of the country’s geographical area, an increase from 21.67% in 2019.
(b) The states that have shown the highest increase in forest cover are Madhya Pradesh (3.07%), Chhattisgarh
(2.22%) and West Bengal (1.04%).
(c) Five states in the Northeast – Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland have all
shown loss in forest cover.
(d) The Northeast states account for 7.98% of total geographical area but 23.75% of total forest cover.
53. Forests and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds were transferred from State to Concurrent List in which of the
following years?
(a) 1991 (b) 1976 (c) 1978 (d) 1951
54. The Centre has proposed an amendment to the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. Which of the following is TRUE
with regards to the proposal?
(a) Deemed forests listed by state governments up to 1996 will continue to be considered forest land.
(b) Land that was acquired by the Railways and the road ministries before 1980, but on which forests came up,
will no longer be considered forests.
(c) The forest land for strategic and security projects of national importance should be exempted from the need
to obtain prior approval from the Central government.
55. The first India State of Forest Report was published in which of the following years?
(a) 1998 (b) 1992 (c) 1989 (d) 1987
Passage(Q.56-Q.60): On Wednesday, Lok Sabha passed the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation Bill,
2020, which makes provisions for the safe and ethical practice of assisted reproductive technology (ART)
services in the country.
Another key bill to safeguard the reproductive rights of women — the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2019 — was
passed by Lok Sabha on[1]. This one was referred to a Select Committee, which recommended that the ART
Bill should be brought first, so that all the highly technical and medical aspects could subsequently be addressed
in the Surrogacy.
The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill relates to surrogacy, an infertility treatment, where a third person, a woman, is
the surrogate mother. In ART, treatments can be availed by the commissioning couple themselves and it is not
always necessary that a third person is involved. Surrogacy is allowed for only Indian married couples. ART
procedures are open to married couples, live-in partners, single women, and also foreigners. A 2015 notification
prohibits commissioning of surrogacy in India by foreigners or OCI or PIO cardholders, but NRIs holding Indian
citizenship can avail surrogacy. Foreigners can visit India under medical tourism to avail ART services.
56. Which of the following will replace [1]?

(a) 5th August, 2019
(b) 5th August, 2018
(c) 7th September, 2019
(d) 7th September,2018
57. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?

(a) It provides for the constitution of surrogacy boards at the national as well as state levels to ensure effective
regulation.
(b) It seeks to allow ethical altruistic surrogacy to the intending infertile Indian married couple between the age
of 23-50 years for females and 26-55 years for males.
(c) Both Indian and International couples can opt for surrogacy in the country.
(d) It also specifies that no sex selection can be done when it comes to surrogacy.
58. Who is the Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare?
(a) Dr. Bharati Pravin Pawar
(b) Shri Dharmendra Pradhan
(c) Gajendra Singh Shekhawat
(d) Dr. S. Jaishankar
59. The insurance cover for surrogate mother will increase from 16 months to?
(a) 18 months (b) 22 months (c) 36 months (d) 60 months
60. Who among the following is the Union Minister of Health in India?
(a) Shri. Rajesh Bhushan
(b) Dr. Prashant Bhagirath Khaire
(c) Smt Arti Ahuja
(d) Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya
Passage(Q.61-Q.65): The Lok Sabha Monday passed the Farm Laws Repeal Bill, 2021 without any discussion.
The Bill, which is aimed at repealing three farm laws, was introduced in the house by Union Minister of
Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare [1]. The Farm Laws Repeal Bill, 2021 is aimed at repealing the three farm
laws – Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Services Act, 2020,
the Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act, 2020, the Essential Commodities
(Amendment) Act, 2020 – and amending the Essential Commodities Act, [2]. The Bill was necessitated after
Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the government’s intention to repeal the three laws in view of ongoing
farmers’ protests against these laws on November 19. Two days after the Prime Minister’s announcement, the
Union Cabinet cleared the draft of the Bill. Now the Bill has been introduced in Lok Sabha.

(a) Shri Arjun Munda (b) Shri Pralhad Joshi
(c) Dr. Virendra Kumar (d) Narendra Singh Tomar
62. Which article of the Constitution gives Parliament the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India?
(a) Article 245 (b) Article 248 (c) Article 255 (d) Article 257
63. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Parliament draws its power to repeal a law from the same provision of the Indian constitution that governs
the legislative prerogative of the enactment of statutes.
(b) Laws can be repealed in two ways - either through an ordinance, or through legislation.
(c) The government will have to pass the legislation to repeal the farm laws in both Houses of Parliament, and
receive the President’s assent before it comes into effect.
(d) All of the above.
64. How many divisions do the Department of Agriculture and Farmers welfare has?
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 30

(a) 1955 (b) 1957 (c) 1961 (d) 1965
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.66 – Q.105): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Principle (Q.66-Q.71): Criminal Conspiracy is defined under section 120 A of the Indian Penal Code. It refers
to an agreement between two or more persons to commit an offence or carry out an illegal act by unlawful means.
The proviso to the section sheds more light on the scope of liability as follows:
No agreement except an agreement to commit an offence shall amount to a criminal conspiracy unless some act
besides the agreement is done by one or more parties to such agreement in pursuance thereof subject to the details
discussed below.
The Explanation to the section further entails that it is immaterial whether the illegal act is the ultimate object of
such agreement, or is merely incidental to that object.
Thus, in situation where the agreement is not regarding commission of offence an act in pursuance is required
but in case of an agreement of commission of offence, mere agreement is sufficient to make the offenders liable.
An act includes omission as well. Section 43 of the IPC states that “The word illegal is applicable to everything
which is an offence or which is prohibited by law, or which furnishes ground for a civil action ; …”.
The word civil includes breach of contract.
Thus, the following are the necessary ingredients in order to constitute conspiracy:
1. There must be two or more persons;
2. There must be an illegal act or an act in an illegal way;
3. There must be a meeting of minds;
4. There must be an agreement regarding the same thing.
Source: https://www.barandbench.com/columns/criminal-conspiracy-law-applicability
66. Rita and Geeta wanted to kill their employer, Ramesh. They both met one day and agreed to kill Ramesh with a
knife. On the day of killing, Geeta killed Ramesh with the knife whereas Rita was not there on the crime scene.
Decide whether they both can be liable for conspiracy?
(a) Only Geeta will be liable as Rita did not kill Ramesh.
(b) Both Rita and Geeta will be liable for conspiracy as it was planned by both of them.
(c) Neither Geeta nor Rita will be liable for conspiracy and Geeta will be liable for murder.
(d) Only Geeta will be liable as Rita abandoned the plan before killing Ramesh.
67. A, B and C were arrested on the charge of committing criminal conspiracy for forging documents. However, the
documents could not be forged and they were arrested. In the trial A and B were acquitted on merits. Can an
offence of criminal conspiracy be made out against C?
(a) Yes, C can be made liable as he wasn’t acquitted.
(b) No, C cannot be made liable as the documents were not forged.
(c) No, C cannot be made liable as A and B were acquitted.
(d) Yes, C can be made liable as forging of document is immaterial.
68. Ram and Shyam were jogging in a park when Ram shared with Shyam that he is planning to kill his wife Shagun.
Shyam didn’t dissuade him from killing Shagun as he dismissed it as a joke. Next day Shagun is killed and Ram
names Shyam as a co-conspirator. Will Shyam be liable?
(a) Yes, Shyam will be liable as he didn’t stop Ram from killing Shagun.
(b) Yes, Shyam will be liable because he knew about Ram’s plan.
(c) Yes, Shyam will be liable because Ram discussed about his plan with him and he didn’t refuse him which
amounts to agreement.
(d) No, Shyam will not be liable because he didn’t agree to Ram’s plan.
69. Vikram and Tanisha are both post graduates and plan to elope and decide to get married against the wishes of
their parents. When the news of their marriage reaches Tanisha’s parents, her father suffers a massive heart attack
due to shock and dies. Tanisha’s mother files a case of criminal conspiracy against the couple. Will they be
liable?
(a) No, the couple will not be liable because they didn’t agree to commit any offence or an illegal act or an act
in an illegal way.
(b) Yes, the couple will be liable as they knew that the news of their marriage will shock the parents and adverse
things could happen.
(c) Yes, the couple will be liable as they had planned to elope and marry.
(d) None of the above.
70. Sameer and Tisha had planned to breach their contract with Kareem. Three days later they breached the contract
and Karim filed a complaint against Sameer and Tisha. Can Sameer and Tisha be held liable under criminal
conspiracy?
(a) Yes, Sameer and Tisha can be held liable as what they had planned and done an illegal activity.
(b) Yes, Sameer and Tisha can be held liable as breach of contract is an offence.
(c) No, Sameer and Tisha cannot be held liable as remedy for breach of contract is compensation.
(d) No, Sameer and Tisha cannot be held liable because breach of contract is not a criminal offence.
71. Sameer and Tisha had planned to breach their contract with Kareem. Three days later Kareem came to know
about their plan and filed a complaint against Sameer and Tisha. Can Sameer and Tisha be held liable under
criminal conspiracy?
(a) Yes, Sameer and Tisha can be held liable as it is immaterial whether the act was actually done.
(b) Yes, Sameer and Tisha can be held liable as breach of contract is a wrong and they had planned to commit
the illegal act.
(c) No, Sameer and Tisha cannot be held liable as no overt act was done.
(d) No, Sameer and Tisha cannot be held liable because breach of contract is not a criminal offence.
Principle (Q.72-Q.77): Section 84 I.P.C. lays down that "nothing is an offence which is done by a person who
at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that
he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law".
It deals with the deficiency of will due to weak intellect due to medically diagnosed unsoundness. The legal
conception of insanity differs considerably from the medical conception. It is not every form of insanity or
madness that is recognised by law as a sufficient excuse. To establish a defence on the ground of insanity, it
must be clearly proved that, at the time of committing the act, the party accused was labouring under such a
defect of reason, from disease of the mind, as not to know the nature and quality of the act he was doing; or, if
he did know it, that he did not know he was doing what was wrong"
The principle is based upon the maxim furiosi nulla voluntas est. The burden of proving the existence of
circumstances bringing the case under Section 84 I.P.C. is thrown on the accused and Section 105 of the Indian
Evidence Act directs that "the court shall presume the absence of such circumstances".
Source: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/depression-not-unsoundness-of-mind-for-s-84-ipc-sc-junks-appeal-
against-dismissal-by-ex-armyman-165257 and Section 84, IPC
72. A father dreams that God is commanding him to sacrifice his son. Next morning the father bathes in a river and
dresses him in new clothes. Thereafter, he takes the son in front of the God and slits his throat. The son dies.
After returning he tells everything to his brother without any remorse. Later, when police arrives he attempts to
hide himself. Decide whether the father can be given defence of Section 84, IPC.
(a) No, the father cannot be given the defence of Section 84, IPC as the son is killed by him.
(b) No, the father cannot be given the defence of Section 84 because he knew the nature of his act is contrary to
law.
(c) Yes, the father can be given the defence because he believed that the God commanded the sacrifice.
(d) Yes, the father can be given the defence because his conduct displays that he is unaware about the nature of
his act.
73. X was suffering from schizophrenia and he believed that Y wanted to kill him. One day he thought that Y is
attaching him with a knife and in an attempt to save himself he pushes Y down the stairs and Y dies. The lawyers
contesting on behalf of X wish to use the defence under Section 84. Decide.
(a) X should not be given a defence under Section 84 because he has committed an offence.
(b) X should not be given a defence as he could have called police.
(c) X should be given a defence because he was suffering from schizophrenia which led him to genuinely believe
that Y wanted to kill him.
(d) X should be given a defence because he acted in private defence.
74. X was suffering from schizophrenia which was medically diagnosed and he believed that Y wanted to kill him.
One day he saw Y and planned to kill Y although at that time he didn’t apprehend that Y wish to kill him. He
took a knife and killed Y. He took the defence that he was suffering from schizophrenia. Decide.
(a) X should not be given a defence under Section 84 because he knew the nature of the act he was doing while
he was doing it.
(b) X should be given a defence because he has been medically diagnosed with schizophrenia.
(c) X should be given a defence because he was suffering from schizophrenia which led him to genuinely believe
that Y wanted to kill him.
(d) X should be given a defence because he acted in private defence.
75. A Husband got extremely mad at his wife and in the rage of his anger he couldn’t distinguish right from wrong
and grievously injured his wife. The family members kept on shouting that he has gone mad. He only stopped
when neighbours came. When the wife complained against him, he took a defence of Section 84 and stated that
something came over him and he couldn’t understand what he was doing. Decide.
(a) Husband shouldn’t be held liable because he was so angry that he couldn’t understand what he was doing.
(b) Husband shouldn’t be held liable because the family members also stated that he has gone mad.
(c) Husband should be held liable as getting angry is not unsoundness of mind.
(d) Husband shouldn’t be held liable because he wasn’t in his senses.
76. A person was undergoing treatment for unsoundness of mind. He recovered from his illness and started to lead
a normal life. One day he purchased a gun and started following his colleague. When the colleague got suspicious
and turned, the person hid himself. Later that night, the person went inside the colleague’s house when he knew
nobody would be inside except his colleague and shot him dead. After a few weeks of this incident, he again
developed symptoms of unsoundness. Should he be given defence of Section 84?
(a) Yes, he can be given the defence of Section 84 as his illness resumed.
(b) Yes, he can be given the defence of Section 84 as he did not know about the nature of his act.
(c) No, he cannot be given the defence of Section 84 as his illness was not continuous.
(d) No, he cannot be given the defence of Section 84 as he was not suffering from unsoundness while he was
doing the act.
77. An accused was suffering from unsoundness of mind. He developed hatred for human life and one day he killed
his wife. In the trial, he didn’t raise the defence of Section 84. Will he be liable?
(a) No, the court shall presume that he is unsound.
(b) Yes, he will be liable as the burden of proving unsoundness lies on the accused.
(c) Yes, the accused should be liable because he knew what he was doing.
(d) No, the accused shouldn’t be liable as he was suffering from unsoundeness.
Principle (Q.78-Q.83): In law of tort, the damage caused may be intended or unintended. However, in case of
unintended damage the test of deciding whether a person is liable for the damage caused is through the test of
directness and test of reasonable foresight. Test of directness makes a person liable for all the wrongs done by
him irrespective of the fact whether he could foresee it or not. Test of reasonable foresight or remoteness of
damage means a person will be held liable for the consequences which an ordinary person under that
circumstance can foresee. A person cannot be held liable for ad infinitum consequences. In deciding whether the
claimed damages are too remote, the test is whether the damage is such that it must have been considered by the
wrongdoer as a possible result of the breach. If it is, then it cannot be considered too remote. Actual knowledge
must be shown knowledge is not merely imprudence and carelessness. A tortfeasor, if he was negligent cannot
escape liability by saying that the plaintiff suffered an injury because he was working under extreme
circumstances and therefore the harm caused is much worse than what could be foreseen due to the negligence.
Source: https://www.jstor.org/stable/24752817
78. A ragpicker threw a lighted cigarette on the haystack he had just collected on the road. The haystack caught the
fire and burnt the complete compound to the ashes. Decide whether the ragpicker can be held liable under
remoteness of damages.
(a) The ragpicker can only be held liable for burning the haystack.
(b) The ragpicker cannot be held liable as he could not have foreseen the building catching fire.
(c) The ragpicker can be held liable because he could have foreseen that the haystack is in a building premise
and putting a lighted cigarette on haystack can burn down the building.
(d) The ragpicker cannot be held liable because he didn’t intend to destroy the building.
79. A batsman hit the ball in a stadium. The ball crossed the walls of the stadium and it was the first time something
like this ever happened. The ball hit a person who was walking outside the stadium in the head an injured him.
The person is claiming damages from the batsman under the test of directness. Decide.
(a) The batsman will be liable as it doesn’t matter if he could foresee the injury or not.
(b) The batsman will not be held liable as he did not intend to cause this injury to the person.
(c) The batsman will not be held liable because he could not have foreseen a man walking outside the stadium.
(d) The batsman will be held liable because the man got injured.
80. A batsman hit the ball in a stadium. The ball crossed the walls of the stadium and it was the first time something
like this ever happened. The ball hit a person who was walking outside the stadium in the head an injured him.
The person is claiming damages from the batsman under the test of reasonable foresight. Decide.
(a) The batsman will be liable as it doesn’t matter if he could foresee the injury or not.
(b) The batsman will not be held liable as he did not intend to cause this injury to the person.
(c) The batsman will not be held liable because he could not have foreseen that the ball will cross the stadium.
(d) The batsman will be held liable because the man got injured.
81. A man was working in a chamber where he was exposed to carcogenic elements. He was given a suit for his
protection by the employer. However, the quality of the suit was not good. One day during the course of his
employment, the element fell onto the man which caused an injury to the man. The man was diagnosed with
cancer which was accelerated by the injury. The man died ultimately. Action was brought against the employer.
Decide
(a) The employer should not be liable as per test of directness as the man died of cancer.
(b) The employer should not be liable as he could not have foreseen that the man will die of cancer.
(c) The employer should be liable because the man got cancer and ultimately died due to bad quality suit.
(d) The employer should not be liable as the person was voluntarily working in the factory.
82. An oil spill occurred in an ocean due to negligence of a ship owner. The ship owner tried his best to clean the
surrounding water to avoid damage. Few months later, it was reported that as an outcome a lot of aquatic life
died on a shore far away. The fishermen sued the shipowner. Decide by applicability of remoteness of damage.
(a) The ship owner will be liable because he didn’t cleanse the water properly.
(b) The ship owner will be liable because he could foresee that the spilled oil will be harmful for the aquatic life.
(c) The ship owner cannot be liable because he could not foresee that the outcome of the spill will be seen far
away after a few months.
(d) The ship owner cannot be held liable because he took corrective measures.
83. A scientist was experimenting on a genome sequencing in his lab. The experiment went wrong and the scientist
was astonished to see the spread of the resultant virus Novid around the world within a span of few days. Can
he be made liable under reasonable foresight?
(a) The scientist could not have fathomed such an outcome of the experiment and thus, he can’t be liable.
(b) The scientist could not have known that the experiment will go wrong and thus, he cannot be held liable.
(c) The scientist must be aware about the risks attached with such an experiment and should have taken
precautions; thus, he will be liable.
(d) The scientist’s experiment has led to such disastrous outcomes, thus he should be made liable.
Principle (Q.84-Q.89): An acceptance to a proposal must be absolute and unqualified. According to Mulla, it is
called the Mirror rule. This means that the proposal and the acceptance must correspond. If the acceptance is
conditional it does not amount to a valid acceptance, rather it amounts to counter proposal. Proposal can only be
accepted by that person to whom it is made and while accepting the proposal must be within the knowledge of
the acceptor. Another important characteristic of a proposal is that it should be capable of creating legal relations
and this can be deciphered from the intention of the parties. Sometimes one signifies to another not the
willingness but just information to attract customers. This is known as invitation to proposal. A proposal can
only be revoked until acceptance is made.
84. An employer offered an incentive scheme for workers who would work 10 hours a day on Wednesday. Kashish
usually worked for 10 hours a day. However, she was absent on Wednesday. When on the salary day she saw
Meeta being paid incentive for working 10 hours a day, she came to know about the scheme and demanded her
incentives as well. The employer denied the incentives to her. Decide
(a) Kashish will not be paid the incentives as she never accepted the incentive offer.
(b) Kashish will be paid incentives because she fulfilled the conditions of the offer.
(c) Kashish will not be paid incentives because only the employer can decide who should get incentives.
85. Shefali went to a coaching institute to enquire about CLAT classes. However, the coaching institute informed
Shefali that they have limited seats which will soon get filled. The coaching institute further informed her about
the requisite fee for 12 months. Shefali told them that she would join the classes after discussing this with her
parents and left.
Shefali came back to find that all the seats have been booked and got very upset. She claimed that she had made
a valid acceptance. Decide.
(a) No, Shefali had made a conditional acceptance.
(b) No, Shefali had made an offer earlier that the institute had accepted.
(c) Yes, Shefali had said that she would join the classes.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
parents and left.
Shefali came back to the institute to submit the fee but the institute denied the admission. Shefali raised the
question that the institute is not right in revoking the proposal once an acceptance has been made. Decide.
(a) The institute is wrong in revoking their proposal after Shefali has accepted their proposal.
(b) The institute has not made an offer. The act of the institute is just an invitation to the proposal.
(c) Shefali is right in claiming that she has made valid acceptance.
(d) The institute cannot deny admission as it is against trade practices.
parents and left.
Shefali came back to the institute and stated that she wants to pay the requisite fee to study for 15 months. The
institute accepted the offer stating that they accept the offer to let her join the classes for 12 months. Is this a
valid acceptance?
(a) The institute has not made a valid acceptance to the proposal and acceptance don’t correspond.
(b) Shefali has made a valid acceptance as she has agreed to pay the requisite fee.
(c) The institute cannot make a valid acceptance to an invalid proposal.
(d) Shefali could not have made a valid proposal after she had left the institute without confirming.
parents and left.
Shefali returned to the institute and offered them to let her study for the requisite fee but she can only pay the
fee in installments as opposed to one-time payment as they had earlier discussed. What is the nature of Shefali’s
statement?
(a) This is a valid acceptance as Shefali has agreed to pay the requisite amount.
(b) This is an absolute and qualified acceptance.
(c) This is a counter proposal.
(d) This is neither an acceptance nor a proposal.
89. A Husband offered his wife to come back to their matrimonial home in return of a written and registered promise
of yearly trips together. The wife agreed to it. After a year, the wife sued the husband as he failed to take her on
yearly trips as promised. Decide
(a) Wife cannot sue the Husband as the intention of husband was not to create legal obligations.
(b) Wife cannot sue the Husband because they share domestic relationship.
(c) Wife can sue the Husband because the Husband wanted to create contractual obligations.
(d) Wife cannot sue the Husband as the husband casually promised to get her back.
Principle (Q.90-Q.94): Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees to all persons the freedom of conscience and
the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion. These rights may be exercised within the confines of
one’s private space or with the participation of the public, subject to public order, morality and health.
The Supreme Court, in 2018, had banned the bursting of hazardous firecrackers during Diwali throughout Delhi
NCR. The Court held that assuming this is a part of religious practice, if it threatens the health and lives of people
(living in Delhi and NCR), it is not entitled to protection under Article 25 (being subject to Article 21).
The Fundamental Right to Freedom of Religion is not an absolute right and is subject to public order, health,
morality and other fundamental rights and any religion constitutes three kinds of activities:
1) Pure religious rituals- The Government cannot interfere with this right as guaranteed under Article 25 but it
is subject to public order, health, morality and other fundamental rights.
Example: How to perform a religious ritual, how to worship etc.
2) Activities closely associated with religion- Such activities can be reasonably controlled by the State.
Example: Organizing Melas(fairs), use of loudspeakers
3) Non-religious activities: Such activities can be controlled by the State.
Example: Acquiring land for religious purposes, management of religious institutes etc.
Source: https://www.barandbench.com/columns/courts-on-covid-19-health-and-religious-freedom
90. Government of India created a trust “XYZ Shrine Trust” and took control of management affairs of a temple.
The family who traditionally took care of the management of the temple objected to the creation of this Trust
stating that the creation of this Trust violates their fundamental Right and they also objected to the ban on use of
loudspeaker in the morning. The family specifically objected to the right of appointment of Chief Priest being
given to the Trust.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Creation of XYZ Shrine Trust is unconstitutional.
(b) Creation of XYZ Shrine Trust is constitutional but government cannot interfere in management of religious
affairs of the temple.
(c) Creation of XYZ Shrine Trust is constitutional and the government can interfere in management of religious
affairs like banning use of loudspeaker but cannot appoint the Chief Religious Priest.
(d) Creation of XYZ Shrine Trust is constitutional and government can interfere in management of religious
affairs and can also appoint the Chief Religious Priest.
91. The government has decided to stop organization of a mahapooja owing to the spread of Coronavirus. The
religious groups have started protesting against this step of the government stating that it violates their
fundamental right of religion as doing this mahapooja is a vital activity in their religion. Decide whether stopping
religious gatherings amidst the rise in virus violative of right to religion.
(a) The government is wrong in stopping public gatherings as the government cannot interfere in core religious
rights.
(b) The government can put restrictions on right to religion on the basis of public order, health, morality and
other fundamental rights.
(c) The government can put restrictions on organizing a pooja because it is not a core religious activity.
(d) The government can restrict fundamental right of religion without any justification.
92. A temple did not allow people of certain caste to enter its premises. A petition was filed to stop this practice.
The temple authorities stated that this is an age old tradition which should not be interfered with. Decide.
(a) The Court cannot force the temple to allow people from the restricted caste as this is an age old tradition.
(b) The Court can force the temple to allow people from the restricted caste as the practice is violation of right
to equality which is a fundamental right.
(c) The Court cannot interfere with the temple management as every person has the right to freely express,
practice, profess their religion.
(d) The Court can only advice the temple authorities to let the members of restricted caste enter the premises.
93. A religious group had a vital ceremony wherein all the followers had to dance naked within the closed premise
of a hall dedicated to the ceremony and only the followers were allowed to take part in the ceremony. A group
of lawyers objected to this custom as being obscene. Decide whether the practice can be stopped.
(a) The practice cannot be stopped as only followers are allowed to participate.
(b) The practice cannot be stopped as it is a vital ceremony and it does not violate public order, health, morality
and other fundamental rights.
(c) The practice should be banned as it is immoral in nature.
(d) The Court can ask the religious group to change the nature of the practice in the light of obscenity.
94. A government order took away the land that was allotted in the name of a temple and offered adequate
compensation. However, the religious group challenged the order as being violative of their fundamental right
to religion. Decide.
(a) The order takes away the fundamental right to religion as the government cannot take away the land meant
for religious use.
(b) The order does not take away the fundamental right to religion as the government is offering adequate
compensation for it.
(c) The order does not take away the fundamental right to religion as acquiring land is a non-religious activity.
(d) The government should have consulted with the religious group and should have taken away the land with
their consent.
Passage (Q.95-Q.99): The Supreme Court recently observed that comments made during the course of the
mediation or settlement proceedings should not be taken on record, as the same would impede conciliation and
will be contrary to the principle of confidentiality [Arjab Jena @ Arjab Kumar Jena v. Utsa Jena @ Pattnaik].
A Division Bench of Justices Sanjiv Khanna and Bela M Trivedi therefore, directed the observations in an order
by the Orissa High Court be erased from the record.
"We disapprove the observations made in the impugned order which refer to the comments made during
the course of the mediation or settlement proceedings. The High Court should not have taken the aforesaid
comments on record, as the same would impede conciliation and is contrary to and impinges on the
principle of confidentiality," the Court said.
The Court was hearing an appeal moved against the order of the Orissa High Court which had permitted the
appellant-father to meet his child subject to certain conditions.
After expunging the offending observations, the top court proceeded to consider the matter on merits.
It noted that the matter had been remitted back to the family court and therefore, requested the family court to
decide the application for joint custody, visitation right etc., in accordance with the law within a period of 4
months.
The Court also permitted the applicant-father to interact with his child in the presence of the counselor attached
to the Family Court.
"The first such meeting would take place on 21.01.2022 at 03.00 PM. The counselor would fix the date and time
of subsequent meetings as per her/his discretion, keeping in view the request made by the parties. The counselor
would be at liberty to submit his/her report before the Family Court in sealed cover. It would be open to the
Family Court to decide whether the report, if submitted, should be made available to parties. It will be open to
the Family Court to pass interim order/direction as are considered necessary and appropriate," the apex court
directed.
However, the Court clarified that the observations and the directions given in its order and the High Court order
would not be construed as findings recorded or expression of opinion on the merits of the facts and contentions
of the parties. The court also observed that if the interim appeal is for the progress of the mediation, so it may be
taken into the record. Court also held that any appeal after the mediation award can be take into record and it
doesn’t impede conciliation efforts.
Source: Article published in Bar&Bench on 10th Jan, 2022 https://www.barandbench.com/news/courts-should-

not-take-on-record-comments-made-during-mediation-settlement-proceedings-supreme-court
95. Aryan filed a suit against Sunny in Secunderabad city civil court on a matter pertaining to interior design of
Aryan’s house. Upon the agreement of both the parties the matter was sent to mediation. Both the parties made
their respective claims before the mediator. Sunny puts up an argument that the proceedings of the said mediation
must be submitted before the Secunderabad court by the mediator. Decide the legality of the argument put up by
Sunny.
(a) Yes, the proceedings of the mediation must be submitted to the Secunderabad court as the suit was filed
initially in the Secunderabad court
(b) No, if the proceedings are submitted before the court, it violates the right to privacy of the parties to the suit
(c) Yes, the proceedings must be submitted before the court because it brings the dispute to an end
(d) No, the proceedings need not be submitted before the court because it is up to the mediator to decide whether
the report should be submitted before the court
96. The Andhra High Court in an order against interim appeal of mediation proceeding between family on disputes
related to matters of property and have passed an order which puts stay on the rights of specific X party of the
family in the proceedings, Is the observations made by the high court can be taken into record in the mediation
proceedings, Decide?
(a) Yes , as the observations made by the High court being a constitutional court should be taken into record by
the mediation proceedings.
(b) No, the mediation proceedings are different from court proceedings’ where the goal of the former is
settlement whereas the latter is to pass an order.
(c) Yes, the observation made in the interim appeal is for the progress of the mediation ,so it may be taken into
the record.
(d) No, the observations made by the high court cannot be taken into record for the sake of mediation because it
affects mediation proceedings.
97. Why does taking observations of comments made during the course of the mediation or settlement proceedings
should not be taken on record affects the mediation proceedings?
(a) The comments taken during the mediation proceeding shouldn’t be taken as they affect the understanding
between parties in first place to take up mediation.
(b) The observations made during the mediation proceeding contain confidential information which affects the
process of mediation after the judgment.
(c) Taking such observation into record would impede conciliation and confidentiality.
(d) Both A&C.
98. A mediation process has been started between two corporate companies, after the first meeting one of the parties
challenged the appointment of one of the mediators, the Madras HC while hearing the appealed matter, took
proceedings into record which contain certain trade strategies of a party of mediation, Decide?
(a) The Court, while hearing the matter, appealed the right in taking the record of the proceedings as it is
necessary to resolve the issue at the disposal.
(b) The HC in the present case need not take proceedings into record which could impede the conciliation
proceeding of mediation.
(c) The HC is wrong in taking the proceedings into record because it contains confidential information of one
of the parties.
(d) The HC is wrong in taking the proceeding into record because the recorded information is not necessary to
arrive at the appealed matter.
99. The Hyderabad Mediation Center , recently mediated a matter between X and Y and passed mediation award in
favor of Y and aggrieved by the mediation finality ,X appealed the matter as per Arbitration & Mediation
Act,1996 in the Telangana HC, as part of the hearings looked into facts of the case and taken into the record of
proceedings of mediation ,Decide?
(a) The court is wrong in doing so as it would affect the confidentiality and impede the conciliation process
between the parties.
(b) The mediation matters cannot be appealed to the high court and the award of mediation is final and binding.
(c) The HC ,in taking record of proceedings of the mediation, violated the recent SC case of Arjab Jena Arjab
Kumar Jena v. Utsa Jena Pattnaik .
(d) The court is right in taking record of the proceedings of mediation because the matter has already been
decided at the mediators. It is currently at appeal on merits of the mediation award.
Passage (Q.101-Q.105): The Gujarat High Court has recently observed that as per the Muslim law, as enforced
in India, a Husband has not been given any fundamental right to compel his wife to share his consortium with
another woman (husband’s other wives or otherwise) in all circumstances. The bench observed thus while
holding that in a suit filed by the husband for restitution of conjugal rights, a woman cannot be forced to cohabit
with her husband even by way of a court’s decree. In this case, the Court was dealing with the wife’s challenge
to the decision of the Family court that had directed her to go back to her matrimonial home and perform conjugal
obligations. However, overturning the family court’s order, the Court, referring to the object behind Order XXI
Rule 32(1) and (3) CPC, held that no person can force a female or his wife to cohabit and establish conjugal
rights and if the wife refuses to cohabit, in such case, she cannot be forced by a decree in a suit to establish
conjugal rights. Gujarat High Court Importantly, while dealing with this case, the bench also emphasized that
Muslim law doesn’t encourage polygamy as an institution, but only tolerates the same and therefore, the first
wife of a Muslim husband can decline to live with her husband (who has married another woman) on the ground
that the Muslim law permits polygamy but doesn’t encourage it.
Source Name – Live Law
Source Link – https://www.livelaw.in/news-updates/muslim-husband-no-fundamental-right-compel-wife-share-
consortium-another-woman-gujarat-hc-188546
100. Areena and Parvez married in 2017. After the marriage things began to deteriorate and the relationship between
the two became very troublesome to carry out. The husband filed suit for restitution of the conjugal rights when
Areena left her husband and began to live with her parents. The family court had directed Areena to go to Pervez
and cohabit with him. What is the obligation of 25egal in this scenario?
(a) Areena has the obligation to go to Parvez house and cohabit with him because Parvez is her husband.
(b) Parvez cannot file the suit of restitution of conjugal rights because arena can be forced to cohabit with her
husband.
(c) Arena has the right to live with her parents because the court cannot force Areena to live with her husband
Parvez.
(d) Areena has no obligation to return to Parvez because she cannot be forced to cohabit with him.
101. Afreen and Iqbal were married to each other in 2015 under the Muslim law. After 2016 their relationship began
to become sore and it was very difficult for them to handle each other. A suit of restitution of conjugal rights
was filed by Iqbal and the matter was in the family court. The family court directed Afreen to cohabit with Iqbal
at any cost. However the wife blatantly refused to cohabit with Iqbal after the decree came. What is the liability
of Afreen for defying the orders of the court?
(a) Afreen can be held punishable for defying the order of the court because the same amounts to contempt of
the court.
(b) Afreen has the liability to cohabit with Iqbal at any cost because he is her husband.
(c) Afreen can choose to not to cohabit with Iqbal because she cannot be forced to cohabit with him if she refuses
to do the same.
(d) The decree has come in the favour of Iqbal and Afreen has the liability to follow the order of the court and
not to refuse to cohabit with Iqbal.
102. Fatima who lived in Udaipur with her husband Alam had some altercation with him on some issue. The
altercation took shape of a heated argument and consequently Fatima decided to leave her husband and go to her
parents and live with them. Alam decided to marry another woman or shared his Consortium with another
woman. The family court ordered Fatima to go back to her matrimonial home and perform the conjugal rights
on the basis that as per the Muslim law husband has the fundamental right to compel his wife to share his
Consortium with another woman. What is the best option regarding the fact that can be opted out?
(a) The decision of the family court was right because Alam had the fundamental right to compel his wife.
(b) Fatima was not in a right position to leave her husband because she had the obligation to perform conjugal
rights with Alam.
(c) The family court was right in ordering Fatima to return to matrimonial home because Alam had married
another woman after Fatima left her matrimonial home.
(d) Fatima cannot be forced to live with her husband because Alam had no fundamental right to compel his wife
to perform the conjugal rights.
103. Asim decided to marry Parveen who was another woman after Malaika had decided to leave Asim due to some
arguments between them. Malaika left her matrimonial home and began to live with her parents in Lucknow.
After the matter of restitution of conjugal rights was in the family court the family court had directed Malaika to
go back to her matrimonial home. However she refused to obey the orders and refused to cohabit with her
husband because he had married another woman and also claimed that polygamy is not encouraged in Muslim
law. Decide the position of Malaika in this matter.
(a) Polygamy is totally tolerated in the Muslim law and there is no harm in it.
(b) Mailaika is right because it was her fundamental right to refuse to cohabit with her husband.
(c) Malaika was wrong in this matter as she has to perform he conjugal obligations as directed by the court
however Asim married Parveen.
(d) Malaika cannot be compelled to do conjugal obligations as polygamy is not encouraged in Muslim Law.
104. Construing to the passage and relying upon the decision of the family court choose out the correct option.
(a) If a suit of restitution of conjugal rights has been filed by the husband, the woman cannot be forced to cohabit
with her husband.
(b) There is no obligation on a women under the Muslim law to cohabit with her husband if she had left her
matrimonial home and the decree of the court had been passed in favour of the husband for restitution of
conjugal rights.
(c) The wife has to return to her matrimonial home and perform the conjugal obligations when there is decree
of the court in favour of the husband regarding the restitution of conjugal rights.
(d) In any circumstance the husband under the Muslim law cannot compel his wife to perform conjugal
obligations regarding a suit filed by the husband for restitution of conjugal rights.
105. Construing to the passage and relying upon the facts and aspects discussed regarding the Muslim law choose out
and option which cannot be the correct interpretation of the passage.
(a) Under the Muslim law husband has no fundamental right to compel his wife to share his Consortium with
another woman in some circumstances.
(b) When there is a decree of the family court in favour of the husband regarding the restitution of conjugal
rights of women has no obligation to return to her matrimonial home.
(c) In any circumstance a woman cannot be compelled by her husband to perform the conjugal obligations.
(d) Under Muslim law polygamy is tolerated.
SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
Passage (Q.106-Q.110): The main task of education and research is to train people to perform in future economic
and technological environments with many unknowns. Workers prepare to tackle unknown problems using
instruments yet to be developed. In truth, we know embarrassingly little about tomorrow’s jobs. Interdisciplinary
and holistic education and research are indispensable as the workplace combines cognitive skills with teamwork
and debate with focus on adaptability, replacing silo thinking with a flexible approach that applies knowledge
from multiple sectors that at first appearances may not seem relevant.
Education and research are increasingly out of touch with demand for skills. The tendency to focus on cognitive
skills, including the STEM topics of science, technology, engineering, and mathematics, cannot preclude the
productivity benefit of soft skills – applying knowledge and finding opportunities offered by technology. In
recent decades most countries have fallen into the trap of overextending cost-benefit analyses while training
students to solve yesterday’s problems. Governments enforce short-term fiscal planning on education programs,
yet measuring social skills is not as easy as calculating STEM competences.
Much attention is devoted to high-calibre education and research and for good reason, but demand trends suggest
that human factors may be more essential than normally assumed. For example, health, nonstop improving of
skills and entertainment may prove to be the growth sectors of the future – and main job providers. Human
maintenance will grow almost exponentially steered by demographics and a growing proportion of elderly
citizens. Human improvement, the ability to try new technologies should not be overlooked as higher
productivity embedded in new technology only blossoms if humans have the skill to manage technology.
Entertainment follows from a shorter work life and longer retirements. Elderly people are more active than
previous generations and demand health care, entertainment, social networks and communication. They need
coaches, presenting huge job openings.
106. What has the author conveyed regarding the current pattern of Education and Research?
(a) Current education and research patterns have no productivity benefits.
(b) It is less inclined towards providing STEM competences.
(c) It has somehow lost touch with the need for soft skills.
(d) It nowhere relates to applying knowledge and finding opportunities offered by technology.
107. Which of the following can be deduced from the above passage?
(a) There is a need to identify the evolving job trends and focus on many in-demand cognitive skills.
(b) Acquiring academic knowledge and mapping the set standards should be the ultimate goal.
(c) Overcoming silo thinking and gaining flexibility at work must be a priority.
(d) The current education and research patterns need to focus more on enhancing soft skills to help tap the
growing sectors of the future.
108. As per the passage, which of the following does not correctly represent the author’s view regarding education
and research?
(a) Education and Research must focus on skills that involve conscious intellectual effort.
(b) Education and Research trains people to enable them to perform in future economic and technological
environments.
(c) One cannot do away with human improvements that relates to the ability to try new technologies.
(d) The new cognitive working environment demands extracting the students out of the archaic solving of
yesterday’s problems.
109. Which of the following steps must be taken to help education and research become Interdisciplinary and holistic?
(a) Preparing workers to tackle unknown problems of the future.
(b) Condemning the system that lays much importance to cognitive skills and STEM competences.
(c) Realising the value of social skills and inculcating human improvement along with the existing focus on
cognitive skills and STEM knowledge.
(d) Enforcing more short-term fiscal planning on education programs.
110. In the above passage, what does the author mean when he says “Much attention is devoted to high-calibre
education and research and for good reason, but demand trends suggest that human factors may be more essential
than normally assumed.” Which of the following reflects the central flaw in the reasoning above?
(a) The government’s focus is more on high-calibre education and research than focusing on human factors.
(b) The author assumes the high-calibre education and research does not take into account human factors.
(c) High-calibre education and research and human factors are intra-connected.
(d) The demand for the human factors in the future will diminish the high-calibre education and research.
Passage (Q.111-Q.115): In February 1922, a violent mob set a police station on fire at Chauri Chaura with 22
policemen trapped inside. The home secretary at that time called it a “rebellion against the Raj” but for Mahatma
Gandhi, it was an “index finger” that pointed the way to possible anarchy and he called off the civil disobedience
movement. He even went on a fast for five days as self-punishment for the violence. He was experimenting with
the means of non-violence, and, for him, means were as necessary as the end. He wrote in Young India: “They
say ‘means are after all means’. I would say means are, after all, everything. There is no wall of separation
between means and ends.”
As the year winds down with the protracted farmers’ protest and the deadlock looks like continuing into the new
year, this is a moment for reflection and concern.
Democracy needs a free and safe space for the expression of ideas but because there is no Gandhian leadership
in and around us, the shadow of fear lurks. Although the government so far has shown restraint, visuals of
barricades being broken, reports of cell phone towers being damaged, protests in Patna on Tuesday — all of
these could erupt any time. We have already seen the tragic suicides of two farmers and any incident can take
their peaceful protest into the tunnel of violence. That is why it is extremely important to break the deadlock
through dialogue and minimise any chance of violence. That is why the Mahatma is an inspiration — for both
sides.
For, his belief that means are as important as the end ensured that he never compromised on the means. Just the
opposite seems to be the norm today — we compromise on the means, irrespective of our best intentions. Today,
as the market evolves, we are becoming more consumers than citizens. The towering aspirations of consumerism
have overshadowed the core values of citizenship.
111. Chaura Chauri has been illustrated to

(a) To highlight the fact that the incident then and the incident now bears remarkable similarity.
(b) To bring into cognizance that Chaura Chauri incident had an inspirational leader who had the following of
the masses but there is a leadership lacuna at present.
(c) To incorporate the same principles that means should be in accordance with the ends.
(d) To show a stark contrast between the approaches adopted by two leaders.
112. All of the following is implied through the statement except

(a) There is a need for an inspirational leader such as Mahatma Gandhi in the present circumstances.
(b) There lurks a fear in expression of ideas that it can take a swift turn for violence.
(c) No protest remains peaceful when it takes the shape of masses.
(d) Gandhiji found Chauri Chaura incident as defiance against the ideologies of non-violence.
113. “They say ‘means are after all means’. I would say means are, after all, everything. There is no wall of separation
between means and ends.” If the above statement is true, then which of the following will be in harmony as a
conclusion with Mahatma Gandhi’s ideology?
(a) All is well that ends well.
(b) A violent pursuit to bring in non-violence.
(c) Peace at all cost.
114. The opponents could effectively defend their position against the author's stance by pointing out that
I. Democracy has been a misguided concept where predators prey on freedom of expression as a means to a
twisted end.
II. Right to dissent and protests turning violent are the norms that are the new normal.
III. Even an inspirational leader’s influence has limitations and the ideologies tend to lose their sheen as the
protestors grow in number.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) I and III
115. ‘Today, as the market evolves, we are becoming more consumers than citizens. The towering aspirations of
consumerism have overshadowed the core values of citizenship.’ The assumption behind the statement is that
(a) Consumerism aspirations and core citizenship values do not align together.
(b) Consumerism overshadows citizenship values.
(c) There is decadence of core values of a citizen with the rise in his consumerism.
(d) Consumerism is the means to fulfilling economical aspirations.
Passage (Q.116-Q.120): The Green Revolution-essentially the promotion of capital-intensive industrial

agriculture-was more of a Cold War stratagem than a humanitarian initiative, as recent histories have forcefully
argued. After independence in 1947, peasant movements led by communists had mounted fierce pressure on the
Indian National Congress, the ruling political party, to redistribute land from landlords to peasants. But the
Congress, beholden to landlords for electoral support in rural areas, was unwilling to implement comprehensive
land reforms. In this context, the U.S. government promoted the Green Revolution to preempt a Soviet-style
“Red Revolution,” as U.S. Agency for International Development administrator William Gaud stated in a speech
in 1968. It comprised subsidized fertilizers and irrigation, rice and wheat varieties bred to absorb high fertilizer
doses, and state-led training programs to assist farmers in transitioning to new practices. Given the expense, it
was rolled out only in a few, well-endowed districts of Punjab and a few other states. Because bumper
productions inevitably depress prices, farmers were guaranteed procurement through state-run mandis or market
yards at MSPs declared in advance. State procurement was therefore crucial to transforming Punjab into India’s
breadbasket.
But as many argued, the Green Revolution package created more problems than it solved. By the 1980s, even
the geographically limited package proved fiscally onerous. As state support declined, the problem of
unremunerative prices and debt escalated.
The PM hails the farm laws as watershed reforms that will usher in a new era of prosperity for farmers backed
by corporate investments. On the face of it, they allow private buyers to purchase farm produce outside of the
supervision of and without the payment of taxes and fees to mandis; limit state intervention in retail prices; and
provide a framework for farming on contract to corporations. In their details, however, the farm laws intrude
upon the regulatory powers of state governments and intensify the already severe power asymmetry between
corporate houses and the mass of Indian farmers, nearly 86 percent of whom cultivate less than two hectares.
Farmers fear that the laws portend a total hollowing out of the state-regulated procurement at mandis. To this
day, mandis signal prices with regular announcements of MSPs, and if they are weakened any further than they
already have been, farmers will be fully exposed to debilitating price pressures.
Underlying this broad base of discontent is the failure of the Green Revolution. Even a celebratory review in
2003 was forced to concede that the principal benefit of the package was lower food grain prices, whereas the
vast majority of farmers and agricultural laborers had suffered declines in incomes. In short, the Green
Revolution secured cheap cereals in exchange for justice and ecological sustainability.
No amount of tinkering on the marketing end will fix a fundamentally warped and unsustainable production
model, and therefore the government must concede the immediate demand to withdraw the three laws. But, to
actually secure a viable future for farmers, we must abandon the Green Revolution paradigm and adopt
agroecological, diverse, decentralized and just agrarian and food systems.
116. What was the reason behind the creation of MSPs?

(a) Farmers needed to satisfy basic needs so the state in order to help them, became active in procuring food
grains at a minimum price.
(b) The Landlords had re-distributed the land and the state in order to support farmers came up with MSP.
(c) An increase in production leads to reduction in prices and, hence, MSP was required to ensure that the
farmers produce more than enough and also receive a minimum price for their yield.
(d) The protest by the farmers with respect to the green Revolution led to the creation of MSPs.
117. ‘Given the expense, it was rolled out only in a few, well-endowed districts of Punjab and a few other states’ what
is the assumption for the above statement?
(a) An expensive process resulted in Green Revolution.
(b) Things that are expensive should be tested before being released on a large scale to avoid errors and loss of
money.
(c) Support should only be provided to well-endowed districts for higher yield.
(d) Well-endowed districts had a higher capability of giving positive results.
118. What can be derived from the given statement, ‘even the geographically limited package proved fiscally
onerous’?
(a) The green revolution was brought in only few areas.
(b) The green revolution was very expensive and India’s economy took a hit due to the same.
(c) Even if the green revolution was introduced in only certain areas, it still proved to be expensive.
(d) None of the fiscal schemes proved profitable.
119. Which of the statements are false and not in congruence with the above passage?
(a) Green Revolution was only a tactic of the US for Cold War rather than being an agricultural reform.
(b) Green Revolution resulted in lower incomes and lower prices for the farmers.
(c) The Green revolution ended the food scarcity in India and hence, now we do not need laws regulating prices
of food produce.
(d) To secure farmers there is a need to adopt agroecological, diverse, decentralized and just agrarian and food
systems.
120. What would be the conclusion of the given passage?

(a) Green Revolution was a cold war tactic and did not bring any positive effect.
(b) The regulatory regime over agriculture would be ended by the farm laws.
(c) Green Revolution would just make the products cheaper, farm laws would just weaken the farmers more.
(d) If a model is inaccurate, then its mistakes cannot be corrected by marketing it as a humanitarian measure.
Passage (Q.121-Q.125): Within a span of a few months, India has transitioned from facing a shortage of hospital
beds to showing off crowded holiday resorts. Fresh out of a deadly second wave, viral videos of clogged roads
to hill stations and packed markets are symptomatic of the rapid recovery in economic activity as the worst of
the lockdown restrictions have ended.
Growth indicators so far suggest a “Teflon economy” in the short term — a shallow dent in May’s economic
activity followed by a recovery in June, back to April’s levels. The external, investment and industrial sectors
have been relatively resilient, with consumption and services bearing the brunt. Notwithstanding signs of some
fatigue in ultra-high frequency indicators in July, damage from the second wave seems largely limited to April-
June 2021.
Nevertheless, a K-shaped recovery means light cracks on the top conceal much larger structural fault lines below.
The Pew Research Centre estimates that the pandemic has led to India’s poor rising by 75 million, while the
middle and upper-middle class has shrunk by 39 million. A recent survey by the ILO finds that the worst-hit —
MSMEs and their informal workforce — have struggled to access the government’s pandemic support
programmes. These more structural scars may become blurred in the GDP data in coming quarters as the
economy rapidly normalises alongside strong global growth, fiscal activism, and easy financial conditions, but
will almost certainly affect the medium-term growth story.
However, in the near term, there are two impending macro pivots to navigate. First, is the vaccine pivot. The
“ultimate unlocking” of the economy remains contingent on a critical mass getting vaccinated, which on
materialising should trigger a revival in consumer and business sentiment. The vaccine pivot is also an effective
insurance policy against a possible third wave — a risk to near-term growth. The lacklustre pace of vaccination
in July and fresh information on the vaccine pipeline suggest that there are risks of a delay in the pivot taking
place in August, and to our baseline projection of around 50 per cent of the population being vaccinated by end-
2021. However, the uptick in the pace of vaccination over the last few days and
higher seroprevalence reported in some states are welcome news.
The second pivot is that of policy. When inflation is under control, then flush liquidity and ultra-accommodative
monetary policy will help kill two birds with one stone- ensuring easy financial conditions, and helping control
borrowing costs of the government’s expansive borrowing programme.
121. Which of the following best describes the purpose of this passage?
(a) To encourage rising trust among people for the recently shown GDP data.
(b) To discourage higher seroprevalence reported in some states.
(c) To explain the effects of pandemic on Indian economy.
(d) To highlight the need for vaccination and rising risks and delays.
122. What does author want to imply through “these more structural scars”?
(a) The accretion of the poor by more than 7 crores due to pandemic.
(b) A fall-off in more than 3 crores middle and upper-middle class.
(c) The striving of MSMEs for accessing government’s pandemic support programmes.
(d) All of the above.
123. The author uses the expression Teflon economy to

(a) To highlight the unsoundness of the Indian economy because of pandemic.
(b) To stress upon the Indian economy’s resilience despite lockdown onslaughts.
(c) To suffer the worst part of an unpleasant situation.
(d) To be looking for solutions in the wrong places, especially during the lockdown.
124. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
(a) Flush liquidity and ultra-accommodative monetary policy are the answers for fiscal issues.
(b) Loss from the second wave was not bound to April quarter.
(c) All the external and investment sectors have been affected, but the consumption and services took the most
hit.
(d) India had been facing the shortage of hospital beds during pandemic.
125. “The lackluster pace of vaccination in July suggests that there is a risk of a delay in the pivot.” Which of the
following sentences from the passage reflects the reversal of this?
(a) The arguments of a slight increase in the speed of vaccination in past few days.
(b) The arguments of having greater levels of pathogens found in many people, as measured in blood serum.
(c) The unlocking of the economy relies on population getting vaccinated.
(d) Both A and B
Passage (Q.126-Q.130): Over a hundred people have succumbed to the mystery virus that originated in China's
Wuhan province and it has been confirmed in at least 10 other countries. The Chinese authorities have
acknowledged that the virus has affected 4,500 people. But modeling by researchers at Imperial College London
suggests that 70,000 to 100,000 people could be affected. The WHO, which last week desisted from describing
the situation as a public health emergency, has asked countries in Southeast Asia to remain vigilant. The outbreak
has evoked memories of the SARS epidemic of 2002-2003, which killed nearly 800 and affected more than 8,000
people worldwide. It was also ascribed to a coronavirus and manifested similar symptoms - fever, cough and
shortness of breath. Antibiotics do not work against such viral pneumonia and there are no vaccines against them.
However, there are reassuring differences between the situation in 2002-3 and the one today. For one, China's
response to the current outbreak is markedly different from the way it dealt with SARS. In contrast to its secretive
ways 17 years ago, Beijing informed the WHO, shared the virus's gene sequence with the world, imposed travel
restrictions and quarantined 50 million people. Moreover, experts suggest that the current coronavirus outbreak
is not as virulent as the one in 2002-3 - it has a mortality rate of less than 3 percent as compared to SARS's death
rate of nearly 10 percent. But we are still looking at preliminary data, and scientists are likely to know the exact
magnitude of the problem in the coming weeks.
126. Which of the following strengthens the author's argument?
I. Chinese authorities are not revealing the real pictures of the virus outbreak due to international backlash.
II. Chinese authorities do not have the technology to predict the number of people affected by the virus outbreak.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
(d) Neither I nor II
127. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) China’s response to the outbreak is extremely deviant from the standard protocol.
(b) The current virus outbreak is a mystery.
(c) In a globalized world, the chances of the flu spreading fast are high.
(d) Flu vaccines should be developed as soon as possible.
128. Which of the following statements weakens the author’s argument in the passage?
(a) WHO advises against the application of any travel or trade restrictions on China based on the information
currently available. It does not recommend that travelers take any specific measures either.
(b) Sharing the virus' gene data will help other countries to quickly identify the virus, provide care, and also
develop specific diagnostic kits, drugs and even vaccines.
(c) The ratio of the people affected by the virus to the death occurred by the virus is lower than the death
occurring from normal flu.
(d) The current virus is much more virulent than its predecessors.
129. Which of the following is/are the most logical assumption made by the author?
I. It is more difficult for vulnerable members of the population, that is, the elderly or those with existing
respiratory or immune problems, to protect themselves against the spread of Coronavirus.
II. India has issued a travel advisory asking citizens to follow certain precautionary measures while visiting
China.
III. The mortality rate of less than three percent does not indicate a virulent nature of the virus.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
130. Given below are pairs of events ‘A’ and ‘B’. You have to read both the events ‘A’ and ‘B’ and decide their
nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‘A’ and ‘B’ is true and you will not
assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer.
Event A: The WHO, which last week desisted from describing the situation as a public health emergency, has
asked countries in Southeast Asia to remain vigilant.
Event B: Over a hundred people have succumbed to the mystery virus that originated in China's Wuhan province
and it has been confirmed in at least 10 other countries.
(a) If ‘A’ is the effect and ‘B’ is its immediate and principal cause.
(b) If ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘B’ is its effect.
(c) If ‘A’ is an effect but ‘B’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
(d) If ‘B’ is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
131. Five Athletes - A, B, C, D and E participated in a race and finished the race at five different timings, not
necessarily in the same order. C is neither the first nor the last one to finish the race. Either B or D finished the
race third and B finished the race immediately before C and immediately after D. If A finished the race after D,
then who is the last one to finish the race?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) Cannot be determined
132. Choose the set of statements where the last statement can be logically derived from the preceding three.
Statements:
1) Some birds are animals.
2) All animals live in jungle.
3) Some animals cannot fly.
4) All birds can fly.
5) Some birds do not live in jungle.
6) Some animals fly.
(a) 3, 2, 4, 1
(b) 2, 1, 4, 6
(c) 1, 4, 3, 5
(d) 2, 3, 1, 5
133. Identify the missing number: 4 and 8, 11 and 20, 23 and 39, 42 and _____
(a) 62
(b) 55
(c) 58
(d) 67
134. A is taller than F, who is shorter than three persons. C is shorter than D, who is the tallest. B is taller than E. C
is neither shorter than F nor taller than A. Who is the second shortest person among the given?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
135. In a certain code language. “BREAK” is written as “23615455” How is “XEROX” written in that code
language?
(a) 24154610
(b) 24105460120
(c) 2410546012
(d) 2410546024
SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.136 –Q.140): Refer to the following information for the following questions.
Gurvinder Singh, the bright new star on the internet horizon, starts his dotcom project in 1997. In his very first
year (i.e 1997) of operation, he gets revenue of Rs. 10,000, which is also the cost for him for the next year.
The amount of profit remains the same for both the first two years. In 1999, the revenue increased by Rs. 3,000
over the previous year, but the profit could increase by only 50% from the profit of last year. The revenue for
the year 2000 could increase by only 20% over the previous year because of the cost is increase by 20%. The
revenue for 1998 was Rs. 12,000.
136. The profit for 1997 was

(a) Rs. 1,000 (b) Rs. 2,000 (c) Rs. 3,000 (d) Rs. 4,000
137. The cost for 1999 was

(a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 12,000 (c) Rs. 14,000 (d) Rs. 14,400
138. The cost for 2000 was

(a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 12,000 (c) Rs. 14,000 (d) Rs. 14,400
139. Which year has the highest percentage increase in profit?

(a) 1998 (b) 2000 (c) 1999 (d) None of these
140. The percentage increase in the cost was highest in the year(s)
(a) 1998 (b) 2000 (c) 1999 (d) 1998 and 2000
Directions (Q.141 –Q.145): Refer to the following data and answer the questions that follow:
There are 1000 students studying in a school. The ratio of boys and girls are is 2 : 3 respectively. Each student
likes to play one or more of the games Badminton, Table Tennis and Lawn Tennis. 21% of the boys and 20%
of the girls play only Badminton. 15% of the boys and 21% of the girls play only Table Tennis and 18% of the
boys and 9% of the girls play only Lawn Tennis. 10% of the boys and 15% of the girls play Badminton as well
as Table Tennis. 16% of the boys and 12% of the girls play Badminton as well as lawn tennis. 17% of the boys
and 15% of the girls play table tennis as well as Lawn tennis. Remaining boys and girls play all three games.
141. How many students play at least one of the two games Badminton & Table Tennis?
(a) 824 (b) 874 (c) 896 (d) 922
142. How many girls do not play lawn tennis?

(a) 206 (b) 264 (c) 286 (d) 336
143. Total how many students play Badminton?

(a) 486 (b) 502 (c) 530 (d) 542
144. How many girls play only badminton as well as Table Tennis?
(a) 54 (b) 72 (c) 86 (d) 90
145. How many boys play at least two games?

(a) 142 (b) 166 (c) 184 (d). 192
Directions (Q.46 –Q.150): Graph given below shows the selling price (in rupees) of a single unit of five
different products for a shopkeeper and also the profit percent of on a single unit of these product. Study the
graph carefully and answer the question given below.
146. If a man purchased ten bags and six bottles from the shopkeeper, then find the profit made by the shopkeeper
on the given number of bags and bottles?
1 2 2
(a) 122 % (b) 14% (c) 163 % (d) 147 %
147. If a man purchased four wallets and sold two of them at 25% loss and rest at 12.5%profit. Then find the net
profit or loss obtained by the man.
(a) Rs. 14 (b) Rs. 9 (c) Rs. 6 (d) Rs.12
148. What is the average of cost price of all five items, if single item is considered?
(a) 28.26 Rs. (b) 23.25 Rs. (c) 32.28 Rs. (d) 18 Rs.
149. If shopkeeper also wants to sell five tiffin, the cost price of single tiffin is same as cost price of single watch
and made a total profit of 50%. Then find the average of selling price of single tiffin and cost price of single
bottle?
(a) 27.5 (b) 22.5 (c) 18 (d) 15
150. If A and B made profit by selling five belts each whose ratio of selling price is 3 : 2 and cost price of one belt
is Rs. 30. If profit made by both is equal to profit made by shopkeeper on selling five bags. Then find the
difference of selling price of A and B?
(a) Rs. 12.9 (b) Rs. 16.4 (c) Rs. 8.06 (d) Rs.11.09

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2. What did the success of Kindle mean for Amazon?

8. Which of the following reflects the title of the passage?

9. A common misconception regarding the Big Bang is that

11. The author of the passage attributes inflation to

12. The passage can be described as

14. Which of the following ideas is NOT suggested in the passage?

27. Which of the following best describes the concluding paragraph?

30. What is the author trying to communicate through the passage?

34. Which of the following is TRUE about Line of Actual Control?

37. Which of the following is true about ISA?

42. Which is the following NOT TRUE about the Corridor?

48. Which of the following is TRUE?

49. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about WTO?

56. Which of the following will replace [1]?

57. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?

61. Which of the following will replace [1]?

63. Which of the following statement is true?

65. Which of the following will replace [2]?

Source: Article published in Bar&Bench on 10th Jan, 2022 https://www.barandbench.com/news/courts-should-

111. Chaura Chauri has been illustrated to

112. All of the following is implied through the statement except

Passage (Q.116-Q.120): The Green Revolution-essentially the promotion of capital-intensive industrial

116. What was the reason behind the creation of MSPs?

120. What would be the conclusion of the given passage?

123. The author uses the expression Teflon economy to

136. The profit for 1997 was

137. The cost for 1999 was

138. The cost for 2000 was

139. Which year has the highest percentage increase in profit?

142. How many girls do not play lawn tennis?

143. Total how many students play Badminton?

145. How many boys play at least two games?

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