Writing Sample

Time - 25 Minutes
1 Topic

Writing Sample
Schools would like to get to know you better through a story you will tell using one of the ideas below. Please choose
the idea you find most interesting and write a story using the idea in your first sentence. Please fill in the circle next
to the one you choose.

Describe what you believe is the world’s most important invention

A  
and why.

B If only I could reach the water’s edge.

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SSAT Practice Test | 375

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376 | 900 Practice Questions for the SSAT & ISEE

 Section 1
Time - 30 Minutes
25 Questions 1
Following each problem in this section, there are five suggested answers. Work each problem in your head or in the
blank space provided at the right of the page. Then look at the five suggested answers and decide which one is best.
Note: Figures that accompany problems in this section are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated
in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.
Sample Problem:

5,413 (A) 586

– 4,827 (B) 596
(C) 696
(D) 1,586
(E) 1,686 A B C D E

1. If 12 ´ B = 24, then 24 – B =
(A) 0
1
(B)
24
(C) 2

(D) 12

(E) 22

2. When 7,497 is divided by 198, the result is closest to

which one of the following?
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 45
(E) 450

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SSAT Practice Test | 3 7 7
 3. Based on the figure provided, approximately how much USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
snow accumulated during the 7 hours?

Hour inches of snow

1
1 2.3
2 3.5
3 5.4
4 6.0
5 3.9
6 1.2
7 0.8

(A) 6 in
(B) 11 in
(C) 20 in
(D) 23 in
(E) 24 in

4. 0.025 ´ 30 =
(A) 0.0075
(B) 0.075
(C) 0.075
(D) 0.75
(E) 7.5

5. If Z > 3, then 5Z + 7 could be

(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 22
(E) 23

3
 3
6. -  =
 2
9
(A)
6
27
(B)
8
9
(C) -
6
9
(D) -
8
27
(E) -
8
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378 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
7. A large square box is made up of smaller square boxes. USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
Each of these smaller boxes has a side length of 4 inches.
How many of these smaller boxes are used to create the
larger box if the larger box’s base has a perimeter of 32
inches?
1
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 64
(E) 124

8. Evaluate: (–15) + (–19) + 39

(A) –73
(B) –5
(C) 0
(D) 5
(E) 73

9. What is the value of the greatest of four consecutive

integers is the greatest is three less than one-third of
the least?
(A) –9
(B) –6
(C) 0
(D) 6
(E) 9

10. The perimeter of a hexagon is 42 units. If the length

of each side is reduced by 3 units, what is the perimeter
of the new figure?
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 30
(D) 36
(E) 39

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SSAT Practice Test | 3 7 9
 Questions 11 and 12 are based on the accompanying graph. USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.

11. What fraction of the people chose Documentary?

1
FAVORITE MOVIE GENRE
3
(A)
8

(B) 1
Documentary
4 200
1
(C) Action
5 400
Romance
3 240
(D)
20
1
(E)
8
Thriller
320
Comedy
440
12. The number of people who chose Romance is what
percent of the number of people who chose Thriller?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 67%
(D) 75%
(E) 90%

13. A particular entrance is 84 inches tall. Kyle is planning a

costume party and wants to enter the room through this
doorway. If Kyle is 1.5 meters tall, the tallest hat he can
place on his head and still be able to walk through the door-
way without his hat touching the frame of the entrance must
be less than which of the following?
(1 m = 39 in)
(A) 24 in
(B) 25 in
(C) 25.5 in
(D) 39 in
(E) 58.5 in

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380 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
14. Carol works 60 yards from the coffee shop, and Mike USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
works 80 yards from the same coffee shop. What is
the distance, in yards, from Carol’s place of work to
Mike’s place of work?
1
(A) 10 yards
(B) 20 yards
(C) 100 yards
(D) 140 yards
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

3-2 a 2 b-4
15. =
9c 3 d -6

a 2 c3
(A)
81b-4 d -6
a2
(B)
3b c d -6
-4 3

(C) a2d 6
81c 3b 4
2 6
(D) a d
18c 3b 4
2 6
(E) a d
c 3b 4

)
16. 5 855 =
8 5 5
(A) + +
5 5 5
80 55
(B) +
5 5
850
(C) +5
5
800 50 5
(D) + +
5 5 5
800 50 5
(E) ´ ´
5 5 5

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SSAT Practice Test | 3 8 1
 17. For a certain number, 40% of that number is 240. What is USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
60% of that number?
(A)
(B)
60
100
1
(C) 260
(D) 360
(E) 2,400

18. The length of a rectangle is four times its width. If the

perimeter of the rectangle is 50, what is the area of the
rectangle?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 50
(E) 100

19. In the figure, P is the center of the circle, and triangle QPR Q R
is a right triangle with vertices Q and P on the circle. If the
circumference of the circle is 12p, what is the area of the
shaded region?

P
(A) 36 – 18p
(B) 18p – 36
(C) 9p – 18
(D) 18 – 9p
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

20. Which of the following gives the value, in cents, of a dimes,

b quarters, and 6 pennies?

10 25
(A) + +1
a b
10 25
(B) + +6
a b

(C) 10a + 10b + 6

(D) 10a + 25b + 1

(E) 10a + 25b + 6

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382 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
21. If 70% of 3k is 12, what is 35% of 6k? USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
(A)
(B)
(C)
2
6
12
1
(D) 24
(E) 28

22. What is the fifth term of the following sequence?

1 1 5
1, , - , - , ____
4 2 4

(A) - 5
2

(B) 7
-
4

(C) –2

(D) - 9
4

(E) 9
-
2

23. A survey found that each of 400 people has a smart phone,
a tablet, or both. If 350 of these people have smart phones,
and 150 have tablets, how many people have both a smart
phone and a tablet?
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 150
(D) 200
(E) 250

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SSAT Practice Test | 3 8 3
 24. If y is an integer greater than 1, which of the following is USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
greatest?
(A) y + 2 1
(B) 2y + 2

(C) 2y – 2

1
(D) y+
y
y +1
(E)
y

25. What is the sum of the exterior angles of an equilateral

triangle?
(A) 60°
(B) 90°
(C) 120°
(D) 240°
(E) 360°

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

384 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
 Upper Level SSAT
Section 2
Time - 40 Minutes
40 Questions
2
Read each passage carefully and then answer the questions about it. For each question, decide on the basis of the
passage which one of the choices best answers the question.
The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from published material. To make the text
suitable for testing purposes, we may have, in some cases, altered the style, contents, or point of view of the original.

Since the early 1900’s, the temperature of the air and sea at Earth’s surface has increased approximately
0.8°C (1.8°F), and roughly 66% of that increase has taken place in the last 30 years. Scientists are nearly
certain that this increase, commonly known as ‘global warming,’ is caused primarily by rising concentrations
of greenhouse gases, which are produced by human activities such as fossil fuel combustion and deforestation.
The long-term effects of global warming will differ around the world and will likely include an increase
in sea levels, more frequent extreme weather occurrences, and the extinction of species due to changes in
temperature. Most countries are part of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change and
have agreed that major cuts in emissions are required to stem the tide of global warming.

1. This passage was likely an excerpt from 3. This passage is mostly about
(A) a romance novel (A) deforestation
(B) a dictionary (B) fossil fuel combustion
(C) a political advertisement (C) need for reduced emissions
(D) a poem (D) warming of the air and sea
(E) a newspaper article (E) possible causes and effects of climate change

2. According to the passage, global warming 4. This passage gives evidence to answer which of the
following questions?
(A) has escalated in the last 30 years
(B) began well before the nineteenth century (A) When did global warming begin?
(C) is caused entirely by humans (B) How will global warming be slowed?
(D) will have negligible long-term effects (C) Which countries are taking steps to cut emissions?
(E) is tapering off (D) How much has the global temperature increased in
the last 30 years?
(E) What will the lasting consequences of global
warming be?

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SSAT Practice Test | 3 8 5
 2
Born to a teenage mother, choreographer Alvin Ailey grew up in Texas in the
1940s, when racial segregation was rampant. After moving to Los Angeles during
his pre-teen years, Ailey began dancing during high school. A friend introduced him
to the Horton Dance Company, where Lester Horton became a significant influence
5 on his dance style. When the opportunity to perform on Broadway came along,
Ailey moved to New York and sought a new dance studio. Unable to find one like
the Horton Dance Company, he started his own group, and the Alvin Ailey American
Dance Theater was born.
The Alvin Ailey American Dance Theater has since become one of the most
10 revolutionary dance companies in the world. The company debuted a unique
experience for the audience, combining multiple dance influences with theatrical
elements. Ailey was particularly proud that his company was multi-racial and that
hiring decisions were always made based solely on a dancer’s talent—not his race.
The company’s overseas travel began in 1962, when the US State Department
15 sponsored its first overseas tour. In the five decades since then, the Alvin Ailey
American Dance Theater has performed for an estimated 25 million people in theaters
in 48 states in the US and in 71 countries on six continents—and that doesn’t include
the millions who have watched the company perform through television broadcasts.
This organization, which started out of one man’s vision of enriching American
20 dance customs and preserving the distinctiveness of the African-American cultural
experience, was designated “a vital American cultural ambassador to the world” in
a 2008 US Congressional resolution.

5. The author’s primary purpose is to 8. The author implies which of the following about the
Horton Dance Company?
(A) explain how one dance company has impacted
others (A) It was founded in the 1940s.
(B) describe the evolution of one dance company (B) It had a style that appealed to Alvin Ailey.
(C) compare the philosophies of several dance (C) It was comprised entirely of African-American
companies dancers.
(D) promote multi-racial dance companies (D) Its dancers traveled internationally.
(E) discuss one dancer’s influences (E) It became well known for its diversity.

6. Without changing the author’s intent, “elements” 9. Ailey’s attitude toward the use of race in making hiring
(line 12) could be replaced by decisions was
(A) items (A) critical
(B) particles (B) ambivalent
(C) aspects (C) supportive
(D) hints (D) subjective
(E) roots (E) sarcastic

7. The author’s attitude toward the Alvin Ailey American

Dance Theater can most accurately be described as
(A) guarded skepticism
(B) appreciative enthusiasm
(C) puzzled uncertainty
(D) restrained adoration
(E) sullen resentment

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386 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
 2
On the 18th of August, 1920, I walked into the Tennessee state legislature, gripping
my mother’s letter and wearing my anti-suffrage red rose boutonniere. On this day, 35
other states had already ratified the 19th Amendment to the US Constitution. Only one
more state’s vote was necessary to finally grant suffrage to women. The measure had
already passed through the State Senate, but progress stalled when the vote came up
before the House of Representatives. We had lobbied for weeks, firmly against the idea of
allowing women to vote, with still others in the opposite corner. Pro- and anti-suffragists
had descended upon Nashville in swarms, and it seemed that, even after a motion to
table the vote was defeated in a tie, today’s vote would not allow the amendment to pass
its last barrier en route to adoption. As the proceedings began, words from my mother’s
letter rang in my head: “Hurrah, and vote for suffrage! Don’t keep them in doubt.” When
asked for my vote on the matter, my response was so quick, the looks of surprise on my
fellow legislators’ faces could not be disguised. With that single utterance, a half-century
of activism by the likes of Susan B. Anthony and Alice Paul came to an end. The next
day, I shared: “I know that a mother’s advice is always safest for her boy to follow.”

10. Which of the following events occurred in August 1920? 13. According to the passage, the red rose was a symbol of
(A) Women began campaigning for equal rights. (A) anti-suffrage beliefs
(B) Women were granted equal employment (B) the author’s love for his mother
opportunities. (C) Nashville
(C) Pro- and anti-suffragists traveled to Nashville. (D) Susan B. Anthony
(D) Susan B. Anthony was born. (E) nothing
(E) The 19th Amendment was defeated.

14. The author’s main purpose in writing this passage was

11. In the context of the passage, suffrage most likely means most likely to
(A) right to work (A) tell a fictional story
(B) right to bear arms (B) explain the challenges of the women’s suffrage
(C) right to vote movement
(D) right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness (C) recount a significant event in his life
(E) right to free speech (D) criticize anti-suffrage beliefs
(E) compare women’s suffrage to equal rights

12. You can tell that the author had previously voted against
women’s suffrage because
(A) his mother’s letter said “don’t keep them in doubt”
(B) he knew a mother’s advice is always best to follow
(C) the Senate had voted against the bill
(D) his colleagues were surprised by his affirmative
vote
(E) he was wearing a yellow rose

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SSAT Practice Test | 3 8 7
 2
Florence Nightingale was born into a rich, well-connected British family, and if her
parents had had their way, she would have married a rich gentleman and settled into
a conventional upper-class woman’s life. Alas, at 17 she had several encounters that
she felt were calls from God, compelling her to serve others; by 24 she renounced her
parents’ wishes and undertook the task of educating herself to become a nurse.
During the Crimean War, Florence Nightingale and a team of 38 volunteer nurses—
whom she had trained herself—were sent to the Ottoman Empire, near modern day
Istanbul. When they arrived, they found soldiers receiving poor care from overworked
doctors, living in squalor, and developing infections as a result of neglected hygiene.
Nutrition was paltry and supplies were extremely limited, which Nightingale believed
profoundly influenced the death rate. Ultimately, her experience in Crimea led her to
advocate for sanitary living conditions, which reduced peacetime deaths in the army and
influenced how future hospitals were designed. After two years in Crimea, Nightingale
returned to England and established the Nightingale Training School for nurses at St.
Thomas’ Hospital. After nurse training, nurses were sent all over Britain to work in
hospitals using the Nightingale model. Florence Nightingale’s theories, particularly
regarding sanitation, military health, and hospital planning, still influence the medical
field today.

15. It can be inferred that Nightingale’s parents believed that 18. According to the passage, upon her return to England,
Nightingale
(A) maintaining sanitary conditions was a necessary
component of overall good health (A) found soldiers receiving poor care
(B) Nightingale should not have gone to the Ottoman (B) got married
Empire (C) advocated for sanitary conditions
(C) nursing was an inappropriate vocation for an upper- (D) influenced hospital planning
class woman (E) established a nursing school
(D) Nightingale was too young to decide her own
career
(E) Nightingale should have become a nun
19. It can be inferred that Nightingale believed in
(A) fulfilling her parents’ aspirations
16. The author implies that Nightingale believed soldiers (B) God
were dying especially from (C) the Crimean War
(D) conforming to conventions
(A) unsanitary conditions (E) St. Thomas
(B) poor medical care from overworked doctors
(C) fetid living conditions
(D) inadequate nutrition
20. The author refers to modern day Istanbul as
(E) infections
(A) the Ottoman Empire
(B) the location of St. Thomas hospital
17. According to the author, upper-class women of Nightin- (C) Nightingale’s first nursing assignment
gale’s generation (D) an area near which Nightingale worked
(E) Nightingale’s birthplace
(A) pursued a variety of interests
(B) had few vocational options
(C) typically got married
(D) went to college
(E) followed callings from God

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388 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
 2
More than fifty years ago, Jane Goodall arrived in Tanganyika (now Tanzania), East
Africa, where she planned to study chimpanzees in what would become Gombe Stream
National Park. At that time, there was not much known about chimpanzees, and scientists
hoped that studying these animals would lead to insights about human evolution.
At first, the chimpanzees fled from Jane, but she persisted, climbing peaks to watch
them through binoculars, and hiding behind palm fronds when she came near them
during her hikes.
Jane made a major discovery just a few months after she first arrived in Gombe,
when she observed a chimp feeding on a baby pig. Until then, scientists had believed
that chimpanzees were vegetarians; further studies showed the chimps frequently
hunting smaller animals.
An even more significant discovery occurred just weeks after she first saw chimps
eating meat: she watched two chimps strip the leaves off twigs in order to fashion tools
they used to dig termites out of a termite mound. This was revolutionary because up
until this time anthropologists considered tool-making a distinctly human characteristic.
The research Jane was conducting was beginning to blur the lines distinguishing humans
from apes.

21. The passage is primarily about 24. It can be inferred from the passage that Gombe Stream
National Park was
(A) how chimpanzees accepted Goodall’s presence
(B) discovering similarities between chimpanzees and (A) Tanganyika’s first national park
humans (B) the best place to study chimpanzees
(C) creating a national park (C) not a national park when Jane first arrived
(D) teaching chimps to make tools (D) the first place Jane ever studied chimpanzees
(E) learning about chimpanzee mating rituals (E) was a hard place to study chimpanzees

22. According to the passage, studying chimpanzees is help- 25. The author indicates the line between humans and
ful because chimps was blurring because
(A) their hunting habits can be replicated by humans (A) the chimpanzees’ dietary needs are very similar to
(B) they are an endangered species that of humans
(C) anthropologists may learn more about human (B) the chimpanzees look very much like humans
evolution (C) the evolution of chimpanzees and humans is very
(D) they are hunted by larger animals comparable
(E) their population is on the rebound (D) the chimpanzees could do something that only
humans were thought to do
(E) chimpanzees and humans are both shy and do not
like to be watched
23. The passage implies that scientists
(A) have completed learning about chimpanzees in the
last fifty years
(B) thought making tools was common among many
species
(C) had believed chimpanzees did not eat meat
(D) had never studied chimpanzees more than fifty
years ago
(E) believed chimpanzees were very similar to humans

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SSAT Practice Test | 3 8 9
 2
On July 13, 1863, New York City saw the most destructive civil disturbance in
its history, a direct response to the U.S. government’s attempt to enforce the draft.
Only recently had the U.S. Congress passed a law that required all men between the
ages of 20 and 45 to register to be drafted into military service. The idea of serving in
5 the war wasn’t the problem. Instead, the devil was in the details: conscription could
be avoided with a simple payment of only three hundred dollars.
In the middle of the Civil War, inflation was sky-high, competition for jobs was
immense, and racial tension and prejudice were monumental. A vast majority of those
affected by the law were incredibly poor, and thus could never dream of paying the
10 three hundred dollar sum. This combination of economic hardship, political struggle,
and ethnic strife came to a head in the New York Draft Riots. Government buildings
were burned, and on July 15, 1863, rioters fought with troops who had been sent in
to restore order. By the time all was said and done, 119 people perished—most of
them rioters, but some were black New Yorkers who fell prey to racists who used
15 them as scapegoats for perceived injustices.

26. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage? 29. Which of the following is probably true?
(A) The New York Draft Riots were the worst civil (A) The New York Draft Riots lasted only a few days.
disturbance in New York City history. (B) All of the rioters were white.
(B) Racism caused the New York Draft Riots. (C) The U.S. government wanted to incite riots.
(C) Poor men didn’t want to serve in the Civil War. (D) The U.S. government hoped to raise money
(D) The New York Draft Riots occurred because of a through the draft avoidance payment.
variety of factors. (E) Men under the age of 20 could not be drafted.
(E) The New York Draft Riots could have been
avoided.
30. In the context of the passage, the word strife (line 11)
most nearly means
27. It can be inferred that
(A) conflict
(A) all rioters were between the ages of 20 and 45 (B) heritage
(B) no rioters were black New Yorkers (C) identity
(C) more than 100 people died in the riots (D) understanding
(D) July 1863 was the first time the U.S. government (E) neighborhood
attempted to enforce the draft
(E) black New Yorkers took jobs from white New
Yorkers

28. According to the author, some rioters

(A) took their frustrations out on innocent people
(B) were not poor
(C) were black
(D) paid 300 dollars
(E) disapproved of the Civil War

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390 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
 2
While with reverence and resignation we contemplate the dispensations of Divine
Providence in the alarming and destructive pestilence with which several of our cities
and towns have been visited, there is cause for gratitude and mutual congratulations
that the malady has disappeared and that we are again permitted to assemble in safety
5 at the seat of Government for the discharge of our important duties. But when we
reflect that this fatal disorder has within a few years made repeated ravages in some
of our principal sea ports, and with increased malignancy, and when we consider the
magnitude of the evils arising from the interruption of public and private business,
whereby the national interests are deeply affected, I think it my duty to invite the
10 Legislature of the Union to examine the expediency of establishing suitable regulations
in aid of the health laws of the respective States; for these being formed on the idea
that contagious sickness may be communicated through the channels of commerce,
there seems to be a necessity that Congress, who alone can regulate trade, should
frame a system which, while it may tend to preserve the general health, may be
15 compatible with the interests of commerce and the safety of the revenue.

31. What best summarizes the main point of the passage? 33. The “ravages in some of our principal seaports”
(lines 6-7) refers to
(A) Congress has the power to regulate trade.
(B) Congress should enact laws relate to public health. (A) losses during a battle
(C) An absence of order is inconsistent with a free (B) damage from a hurricane
society. (C) spoilage of food to be shipped
(D) Good manners are as important in government as (D) disease affecting people in business
in private business. (E) work stoppages relating to a bitter strike
(E) Religion must remain a part of public and private
life.
34. It can be inferred from the passage that Congress

32. The author expresses gratitude that (A) has failed in its duties
(B) has power to regulate commerce
(A) a disease has vanished and Congress may without (C) is revered by the people
worry meet (D) previously passed health laws
(B) Congress has the ability to enact laws to protect (E) raised insufficient revenues
health
(C) sea ports were unaffected by a recent health
problem
35. The word “visited” (line 3) most closely corresponds to
(D) commerce and revenue continue to grow
(E) public and private business have been cleansed (A) called upon
of evil (B) joined in
(C) traveled
(D) remained
(E) afflicted

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SSAT Practice Test | 3 9 1
 2
By eight o’clock everything was ready, and we were on the other side of the river.
We jumped into the stage, the driver cracked his whip, and we bowled away and left “the
States” behind us. It was a superb summer morning, and all the landscape was brilliant
with sunshine. There was a freshness and breeziness, too, and an exhilarating sense of
emancipation from all sorts of cares and responsibilities, that almost made us feel that
the years we had spent in the close, hot city, toiling and slaving, had been wasted and
thrown away. We were spinning along through Kansas, and in the course of an hour
and a half we were fairly abroad on the great Plains. Just here the land was rolling—a
grand sweep of regular elevations and depressions as far as the eye could reach—like
the stately heave and swell of the ocean’s bosom after a storm. And everywhere were
cornfields, accenting with squares of deeper green, this limitless expanse of grassy land.
But presently this sea upon dry ground was to lose its “rolling” character and stretch
away for seven hundred miles as level as a floor!
We changed horses every ten miles, all day long, and fairly flew over the hard, level
road. We jumped out and stretched our legs every time the coach stopped, and so the
night found us still vivacious and unfatigued.

36. The passage focuses on the 39. The narrator of the passage is
(A) variety of landscapes throughout Kansas (A) in a stagecoach, leaving an old life behind
(B) lives of people in a foreign country (B) aboard a ship sailing from the United States
(C) enjoyment of a journey away from a city (C) on a train heading to work in a city
(D) importance of taking proper care of horses (D) riding a horse through cornfields
(E) fellowship of men with a common goal (E) aboard a boat sailing down a river

37. The passage is written from the point of view of which 40. The mood of the author and his companions is
of the following?
(A) disconcerted
(A) the driver (B) excited
(B) an outlaw (C) brooding
(C) a Kansas resident (D) concerned
(D) a passenger (E) calm
(E) an observer

38. The sensory image most important to this passage is

(A) sound of the crack of the whip
(B) sensation of brilliant sunshine
(C) smell of horses
(D) sound of the ocean
(E) view of the terrain

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

392 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
 Section 3
Time - 30 Minutes
60 Questions 3
This section consists of two different types of questions. There are directions and a sample question for
each type.
Each of the following questions consists of one word followed by five words or phrases. You are to select the one word
or phrase whose meaning is closest to the word in capital letters.
Sample Question:

CHILLY:
(A) lazy
(B) nice
(C) dry
(D) cold
(E) sunny A B C D E

1. HABITUAL: 6. STUMBLE:
(A) routine (A) pray
(B) moral (B) remind
(C) probable (C) clarify
(D) primary (D) test
(E) conditional (E) trip

2. INVESTIGATE: 7. SINGULAR:
(A) wonder (A) unusual
(B) study (B) indifferent
(C) destroy (C) creative
(D) shred (D) unappealing
(E) energize (E) sincere

3. CONSIDER: 8. ARTICULATE:
(A) pretend (A) even-handed
(B) delight (B) cross-sectional
(C) ponder (C) self-evident
(D) create (D) all-inclusive
(E) shatter (E) well-spoken

4. MEANDER: 9. CUMBERSOME:
(A) flabbergast (A) infrequent
(B) trade (B) bulky
(C) forget (C) abnormal
(D) roam (D) attractive
(E) try (E) secretive

5. ANSWER:
(A) flee from
(B) delight over
(C) reply to
(D) look upon
(E) forget about
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SSAT Practice Test | 393
 10. GLEAN: 18. CORRODE:
(A) pester
(B) clinch
(C) enrage
(D) garner
(A) crumble
(B) drive
(C) write
(D) charge
3
(E) adorn (E) speed

11. PATRIOTIC: 19. CONSUME:

(A) devoted (A) pant
(B) careful (B) spy
(C) armed (C) clap
(D) objective (D) dent
(E) obnoxious (E) eat

12. TEDIOUS: 20. MNEMONIC:

(A) amusing (A) style
(B) clever (B) joyfulness
(C) savage (C) reminder
(D) awkward (D) warning
(E) boring (E) favoritism

13. LOGICAL: 21. PEDESTRIAN:

(A) rational (A) athletic
(B) selective (B) ordinary
(C) sensory (C) intelligent
(D) apparent (D) studious
(E) muscular (E) muddled

14. GRATITUDE: 22. FURTIVE:

(A) confidence (A) secret
(B) understanding (B) satisfied
(C) appreciation (C) cherished
(D) talent (D) protected
(E) devotion (E) shocking

15. FOOLHARDY: 23. COPIOUS:

(A) unbelievable (A) skilled
(B) intolerant (B) illustrative
(C) ambiguous (C) energized
(D) impatient (D) plentiful
(E) unwise (E) pompous

16. DEVIOUS: 24. AVARICE:

(A) stormy (A) assortment
(B) tricky (B) fortune
(C) degraded (C) sorrow
(D) challenged (D) benefit
(E) particular (E) greed

17. CAPITULATE:
(A) give up
(B) step in
(C) act for
(D) move on
(E) fade out

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394 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
25. MISGIVING: 28. ACRID:
(A) selfishness
(B) threat
(C) error
(D) doubt
(A) disgust
(B) convincing
(C) dry
(D) sharp
3
(E) generosity (E) flip

26. TEMPERATE: 29. OBSTINATE:

(A) restrained (A) pregnant
(B) irritated (B) moderate
(C) frenzied (C) judgmental
(D) passionate (D) indecent
(E) weakened (E) stubborn

27. STOIC: 30. TEMPEST:

(A) sinister (A) storm
(B) marvelous (B) nuisance
(C) impassive (C) quickness
(D) tortured (D) phlegm
(E) believable (E) destiny

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SSAT Practice Test | 395
 The following questions ask you to find relationships between words. For each question, select the answer choice that
best completes the meaning of the sentence.
Sample Question:

Kitten is to cat as
(A) fawn is to colt
(B) puppy is to dog
(C) cow is to bull
(D) wolf is to bear
(E) hen is to rooster A B C D E

Choice (B) is the best answer because a kitten is a young cat, just as a puppy is a young dog. Of all the answer choices,
(B) states a relationship that is most like the relationship between kitten and cat.

31. Sweet is to flavor as

(A) warm is to blanket
(B) cacophony is to sound
36. Miner is to jeweler as
(A) fisher is to chef
(B) nurse is to doctor
3
(C) pretty is to sight (C) carpenter is to painter
(D) robust is to effort (D) engineer is to conductor
(E) excited is to anticipation (E) designer is to photographer

32. Wheat is to bread as 37. Table is to delay as

(A) oil is to gasoline (A) yell is to whisper
(B) earring is to jewelry (B) cover is to prevent
(C) syrup is to pancakes (C) grow is to shift
(D) fruit is to basket (D) color is to distort
(E) hospital is to wing (E) improve is to escalate

33. Pen is to writing as 38. Acumen is to shrewdness as flamboyance is to

(A) table is to reading (A) friendliness
(B) trumpet is to marching (B) generosity
(C) pillow is to sleeping (C) sorrow
(D) knife is to framing (D) cruelty
(E) mop is to cleaning (E) showiness

34. Insistent is to tenacious as concerned is to 39. Scale is to weight as

(A) arrogant (A) speedometer is to sound
(B) worried (B) circumferentor is to angle
(C) eager (C) pipette is to area
(D) serene (D) tachometer is to direction
(E) established (E) thermometer is to energy

35. Mohair is to goat as 40. Precocious is to developed as

(A) thread is to cap (A) insolent is to impolite
(B) wool is to sweater (B) lengthy is to round
(C) down is to pillow (C) scared is to terrified
(D) angora is to rabbit (D) teary is to sad
(E) cage is to mouse (E) happy is to joyful

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396 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
41. Car is to transportation as 48. Buckle is to belt as
(A) table is to chair
(B) faucet is to water
(C) oven is to cooking
(D) sofa is to cushion
(A) lace is to shoe
(B) scarf is to coat
(C) collar is to shirt
(D) code is to alarm
3
(E) sheet is to pillow (E) cuff is to wrist

42. Display is to artwork as 49. Wolf is to pack as

(A) brandish is to sword (A) lawyer is to courtroom
(B) pretend is to scene (B) flower is to garden
(C) dazzle is to brooch (C) puddle is to ocean
(D) entertain is to dinner (D) school is to fish
(E) locate is to map (E) division is to country

43. Camera is to filmmaker as ladle is to 50. Talented is to actor as

(A) waiter (A) loud is to teacher
(B) dishwasher (B) unusual is to physician
(C) diner (C) happy is to detective
(D) writer (D) strong is to weightlifter
(E) cook (E) gracious is to salesperson

44. Problem is to fiasco as 51. Agony is to pleasure as interference is to

(A) mistake is to error (A) restraint
(B) puzzle is to question (B) listening
(C) complaint is to lamentation (C) cooperation
(D) correction is to improvement (D) beauty
(E) amalgamation is to collection (E) charm

45. Rules is to parents as 52. Connive is to scheme as

(A) arguments is to fights (A) suspend is to satisfy
(B) laws is to governments (B) grow is to flourish
(C) schools is to children (C) prevent is to remove
(D) obligations is to promises (D) question is to answer
(E) instructions is to systems (E) promise is to engage

46. Immature is to callow as 53. Page is to website as

(A) smart is to skilled (A) string is to violin
(B) movie is to set (B) scene is to drama
(C) fresh is to salad (C) photograph is to compendium
(D) hurried is to rushed (D) elegy is to song
(E) prepared is to careful (E) dog is to kennel

47. Talkative is to loquacious as 54. Dubious is to doubtful as

(A) implicating is to congratulating (A) idiosyncratic is to peculiar
(B) articulate is to understandable (B) lovely is to polished
(C) socialized is to mesmerized (C) quick is to serious
(D) presumptive is to possible (D) honest is to kind
(E) interesting is to fascinating (E) fearful is to annoyed

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SSAT Practice Test | 397
 55. Qualm is to confidence as 58. Glare is to yell as
(A) yank is to pull
(B) box is to carton
(C) manager is to owner
(D) joy is to pleasure
(A) pucker is to kiss
(B) sneer is to bow
(C) laugh is to sneeze
(D) sob is to weep
3
(E) compliment is to criticism (E) stand is to deliver

56. Breeze is to hurricane as 59. Dishonest is to speaking as

(A) warmth is to coldness (A) noxious is to gas
(B) swirl is to maelstrom (B) muggy is to summer
(C) day is to week (C) furry is to cat
(D) downpour is to drizzle (D) cloudy is to mountain
(E) gold is to silver (E) healthy is to look

57. Debilitate is to strengthen as 60. Subtle is to obvious as

(A) eradicate is to destroy (A) false is to affected
(B) neglect is to cultivate (B) wonderful is to terrific
(C) bend is to snap (C) assumed is to understood
(D) decorate is to adorn (D) clean is to classy
(E) simulate is to pretend (E) possible is to guaranteed

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

398 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
 Section 4
Time - 30 Minutes
25 Questions 4
Following each problem in this section, there are five suggested answers. Work each problem in your head or in the
blank space provided at the right of the page. Then look at the five suggested answers and decide which one is best.
Note: Figures that accompany problems in this section are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated
in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.
Sample Problem:

5,413 (A) 586

– 4,827 (B) 596
(C) 696
(D) 1,586
(E) 1,686 A B C D E

USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.

1. Alexandra plans to give a stapler to each of her 17 new
employees. Four staplers come in a box. How many
boxes of staplers must she buy?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 13

3
2. 100 - 39 =
4
3
(A) 59
4
1
(B) 60
4
1
(C) 60
2
3
(D) 60
4
1
(E) 61
4

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SSAT Practice Test | 3 9 9
 USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
3. A wire that is 8 and
2
3
yards long can be cut into how
many 2 foot long pieces?
4
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 13
(D) 16
(E) 26

4. Calculate 10a + b2 when a = 4 and b = 5.

(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 65
(D) 66
(E) 95

5. Sarah receives a standard rate of $12 for every flower

bouquet she assembles. When she makes more than
15 bouquets in a week, Sarah makes $16 per bouquet
for every bouquet after the 15th one she assembles.
How much will Sarah make during a week in which
she assembles 19 flower bouquets?
(A) $228
(B) $244
(C) $260
(D) $266
(E) $304

3 1 3
6. 4 +3 +4 =
4 4 4
(A) 11.75
(B) 12.25
(C) 12.50
(D) 12.75
(E) 13.25

7. The average length of two female hamsters is 4.1 inches,

and the average length of six male hamsters is 5.3
inches. What is the average length, in inches, of all eight
hamsters?
(A) 1.175
(B) 2.93
(C) 4.7
(D) 5
(E) 6
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
400 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
 USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
8. On the number line below, - 15 falls between which of
the following 2 numbers? 4 4
(A) 0 and –1
(B) –1 and –2
(C) –2 and –3
(D) –3 and –4
(E) –4 and –5 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0

Questions 9 and 10 are based on the accompanying table.

9. Among those who rated dalmatians their favorite, what is

the approximate fractional part from suburban areas? Key
Rural
Suburban
3 Urban
(A)
20 RANKINGS OF FAVORITE DOG BREED
IN DIFFERENT AREAS
6
(B) Hounds
10
Bulldogs
(C) 1
Retrievers
2
Dalmatians
13
(D) Terriers
20
Poodles
7
(E) 0 20 40 60 80 100
10 percent

10. If 20,000 people selected bulldogs as their favorite breed

of dog, approximately how many more suburban people
than rural people chose that breed?
(A) 2,000
(B) 4,000
(C) 6,500
(D) 13,000
(E) 15,000

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SSAT Practice Test | 4 0 1
 11. Kelsey is participating in a walk-a-thon to raise money USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
for a charity. Her parents are going to contribute twenty
cents after she walks one mile, forty cents after she
walks two miles, and sixty cents after she walks three
miles. If her parents continue to donate money in this
4
manner, how much money will Kelsey’s parents contrib-
ute to her charity if Kelsey walks 26 miles?
(A) $68.00
(B) $68.20
(C) $70.00
(D) $70.20
(E) $71.20

12. Select the inequality represented by the statement “The

sum of five times a number and two times a different
number is less than or equal to 44.”
(A) 5x + 2x £ 44
(B) 5x ´ 2y £ 44
(C) 5x + 2y £ 44
(D) 5x ´ 2y ³ 44
(E) 5x + 2y ³ 44

13. If the line segment AB is 24 meters long, based on the

figure, how long is line segment CB? A C B
(A) 6m
(B) 8m
(C) 12 m 2s 4s
(D) 16 m
(E) 18 m

14. –2(–5)2 =
(A) –100
(B) –50
(C) –20
(D) 50
(E) 100

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402 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
15. Approximately what percent of the figure is shaded? USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
(A)
(B)
(C)
15%
33%
50%
4
(D) 66%
(E) 75%

16. If two numbers, P and Q, have an average of 80, and

P – Q ≠ 0, which of the following must be true?
(A) P + Q = 80
(B) P – Q = 40
(C) P =30 and Q = 50
(D) 80 – P = Q – 80
(E) 80 + P = Q + 80

17. At the beginning of March, Alice gave Luke 40% of her

baseball card collection. At the end of that month, she
decides to give Luke 40% of the remaining cards in her
baseball card collection. Out of her original collection,
what percent of it does Alice still have?
(A) 20%
(B) 24%
(C) 36%
(D) 60%
(E) 80%

18. Amy is selling a concert ticket for 55% of the price. If

Amy paid $72.75, including tax, for the ticket, which
amount is the closest to how much Amy is charging to
sell the ticket?
(A) $32.00
(B) $33.00
(C) $36.00
(D) $36.50
(E) $40.00

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SSAT Practice Test | 4 0 3
 19. Combine and simplify: USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
(6x – 2x + 8) – (4x – x + 3x + 12)
5

(A)
3 5

2x5 – x4 – x3 + 20
4 2

4
(B) 2x5 – x4 + x3 – 4
(C) 2x5 + x4 – 2x3 + 3x2 – 4
(D) 2x5 + x4 – 5x3 + 20
(E) 2x5 + x4 – 2x3 – 3x2 – 4

20. Let b represent the base of a rectangle. If the height of the

rectangle is 4 less than the base, which expression would
represent the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A) 2b – 4
(B) 2b – 8
(C) 4b – 4
(D) 4b – 8
(E) b2 – 4

12k 3 s 2 u 4
21. Simplify the variable expression:
30ks 2 u 3
k 2u
(A)
3
2u
(B)
5k
2k 2 s 2 u
(C)
5
2k 2 u
(D)
5
3k 3 s 2 u 4
(E)
5ks 2 u 3

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404 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE
22. If the dots shown below are connected by starting at J USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
and then going to K, for which answer choice is it neces-
sary to retrace a line or lift the pencil in order to draw it? 4
J

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

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SSAT Practice Test | 4 0 5
 23. The average of five consecutive even integers is 12. USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
What is the greatest of these integers?
(A)
(B)
8
10
4
(C) 13
(D) 14
(E) 16

24. If p + q is divisible by 13, which of the following is also

divisible by 13?
(A) (p ´ 3) + (q ´ 3)

( p ´ q)
(B)
13

(C) (p ´ 13) + q

(D) p + (q ´ 13)

(E) (p ´ q) – 13

25. What could be the sum of M, N, P, and Q if each letter

represents a different digit?

MNQ
+P NQ
6 7 0
(A) 18
(B) 17
(C) 16
(D) 13
(E) 10

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

406 | 900 Practice Questions for the Upper Level SSAT & ISEE