2023-2024

Additional
Study
Material
Class Include
X ❖
❖ M.C.Q
Cased
Based
❖ Assertion
& Reason
❖ Sample
Paper

By : Manoj Sir
 1 REAL NUMBERS

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. For some integer m, every even integer is of the form:
(a) m (b) m + 1 (c) 2m (d) 2m + 1
2. For some integer q, every odd integer is of the form:
(a) q (b) q + 1 (c) 2q (d) 2q + 1
3. n2 – 1 is divisible by 8, if n is:
(a) an integer (b) a natural number (c) an odd integer (d) an even integer
4. If the HCF of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form 65m – 117, then the value of m is:
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3
5. The largest number which divides 70 and 125, leaving remainders 5 and 8 respectively is:
(a) 13 (b) 65 (c) 875 (d) 1750
6. Euclid’s Division Lemma states that for two positive integers a and b, there exists unique
integers q and r such that a = bq + r, where r must satisfy:
(a) 1 < r < b (b) 0 < r ≤ b (c) 0 ≤ r < b (d) 0 < r < b
7. If p1 and p2 are two odd prime numbers such that p1 > p2, then p12 – p22 is:
(a) an even number (b) an odd number
(c) an odd prime number (d) a prime number
8. If the HCF of 210 and 55 is expressible as 210x – 19 × 55, then x is:
(a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 1
9. If the HCF of 81 and 237 can be written as 237m + 81n, then the values of m and n are:
(a) m = 13, n = –38 (b) m = 13, n = 38
(c) m = –13, n = 38 (d) m = –13, n = –38
10. The largest number that divides 398, 436 and 542, leaving remainders 7, 11 and 15
respectively is:
(a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 13
11. If two positive integers p and q are written as p = x2y2 and q = xy3, x and y are prime
numbers, then HCF (p, q) is:
(a) xy (b) xy2 (c) x3y3 (d) x2y2

Real Numbers 1
 12. If HCF and LCM of two numbers are respectively (n – 1) and (n2 – 1) (n2 – 4), then the
product of the two numbers will be:
(a) (n2 – 1) (n2 – 4) (b) (n2 + 1) (n2 – 4) (n2 – 1)
(c) (n2 – 4) (n + 1) (n – 1)2 (d) (x2 – 1) (x2 + 1) (x – 4)
13. For any natural number n, 6n – 5n is always ends with :
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
14. In m is a rational number and n is an irrational number, then m + n, m – n and mn are
all :
(a) rational numbers (b) irrational numbers
(c) either rational or irrational (d) neither rational nor irrational
15. If the LCM of P and 18 is 36 and the HCF of P and 18 is 2, then P equals :
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4
16. If HCF (26, 169) = 13, then LCM (26, 169) equals
(a) 26 (b) 52 (c) 20 (d) 338
17. The (HCF × LCM) for the numbers 50 and 20 is:
(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 1000 (d) 50
18. If HCF (105, 120) = 15, then LCM (105, 120) is:
(a) 210 (b) 420 (c) 840 (d) 1680
19. The HCF of two numbers is 16 and their product is 3072. Their LCM is:
(a) 182 (b) 192 (c) 200 (d) 210
20. HCF × LCM for the numbers 45 and 117 is:
(a) 5165 (b) 5265 (c) 3365 (d) 3065
21. HCF of 960 and 432 is :
(a) 45 (b) 46 (c) 48 (d) 50
22. If HCF (45, 105) = 15, then LCM (45, 105) is equal to :
(a) 315 (b) 320 (c) 400 (d) 410
487
23. After how many decimal places will the decimal expanssion of terminates?
2 × 54
6

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

24. Product of HCF and LCM of numbers 50 and 95 :
(a) 2350 (b) 4750 (c) 5530 (d) 4900
25. Prime factors of 98 are :
(a) 2 × 73 (b) 3 × 73 (c) 2 × 72 (d) 2 × 75
26. HCF of 726 and 275 is :
(a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 15 (d) 11
51
27. will terminate after how many places of decimal
1500
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
28. The product of HCF and LCM of 72 and 132 is :

2 Mathematics - 10
 (a) 9540 (b) 9045 (c) 9504 (d) 9054
29. The HCF × LCM for the numbers 100 and 190 is
(a) 17000 (b) 18000 (c) 19000 (d) 20000
11
30. The decimal representation of 3 will [Cbse(sp) 2019]
2 ×5
(a) terminate after 1 decimal place (b) terminate after 2 decimal places
(c) terminate after 3 decimal places (d) not terminate
31. LCM of smallest two digit composite number and smallest composite number is
[Cbse(sp) 2019]
(a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 20 (d) 44
32. HCF of 168 and 126 is
(a) 21 (b) 42 (c) 14 (d) 18
33. 325 can be expressed as a product at its primes as : [Cbse(sp) 2019]
(a) 52 ×7 (b) 52 × 13 (c) 5 × 132 (d) 2 × 32 × 52
34. HCF of x2y2 and x3y2 :
(a) x3y3 (b) x6y6 (c) xy (d) x2y2
35. HCF of two prime numbers is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
36. 7 + 7 is :
(a) an interger (b) a rational number
(c) an irrational number (d) none of these
37. The ratio between the LCM and HCF of 5, 15, 20 is :
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 11 : 1 (d) 12 : 1
14587
38. The decimal expansion of the rational number will terminate after :
1250
(a) One decimal place (b) Two decimal places
(c) Three decimal places (d) Four decimal places
39. If n is an odd integer, then n2 – 1 is divisible by
(a) 8 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 9
40. If the LCM of P and 12 is 24 and the HCF of P and 12 is 4, then the value of P :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
41. Prime factorisation of 8232 is
(a) 23 × 3 × 73 (b) 72 × 3 × 23 (c) 2 × 3 × 74 (d) 22 × 32 × 72
42. If the product of two numbers a and b is 1152 and HCF of a and b is 12, then LCM of
a and b :
(a) 88 (b) 90 (c) 92 (d) 96
43. If the HCF of 18 and 117 is expressible in the form 18 m – 117, then the value of m is:
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
44. The LCM of two numbers is 740 and their HCF is 37. If one of the numbers is 185, then
the other number is :
Real Numbers 3
 (a) 136 (b) 140 (c) 142 (d) 148
45. Greatest number that will divide 382, 509 and 636 leaving reminders 4, 5 and 6 respectively
is :
(a) 60 × 2 (b) 61 × 2 (c) 62 × 2 (d) 63 × 2
63
46. The decimal expanssion is :
72 ×175
(a) terminating (b) non-terminating
(c) non-terminating and repeating (d) none of these
111
47. The decimal expansion of is :
2×5
(a) terminating (b) non-terminating non-repeating
(c) non-terminating (d) does not exist
31
48. The decimal expansion of the number 2
will terminate after :
2 ×5
(a) one decimal place (b) two decimal places
(c) three decimal places (d) more than three decimal places
441
49. The decimal expansion of the number is :
2 × 53 × 7
2

(a) terminating (b) non-terminating but repeating

(c) non-terminating non-repeating (d) terminating after two places of decimal
50. If the HCF of 85 and 153 is expressible in the form 85 m – 153, then the value of m is :
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 2

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1717
1. Decimal expansion of is _____________.
22 × 53
2. If a positive integer n is divided by 3, then the possible reminder = _____________.
7
3. The decimal expansion of will terminate after _____________ places.
125
4. If HCF (225, 60) = 225 × 5 – 10x, then the value of x = _____________.
5. Product of smallest prime number and smallest composite number is _____________.
6. If p = 23 × 3 × 52, q = 23 × 33, then HCF (p, q) = ____________.
7. There are ____________ irrational numbers between 2 and 3 .
8. Greatest number that will divide 445, 572 and 699 leaving reminders 4, 5 and 6 respectively
is ___________.
9. The LCM of two numbers is 2079 and their HCF is 27. If one of the numbers is 297,
then other number is ____________.
10. LCM (72, 126, 168) = ___________.
11. HCF (a, b) × LCM (a, b) = ___________.
12. Let p be a prime number. If p divides a2, then p will divide __________, where a is
4 Mathematics - 10
 positive integer.

13. (2 + 5 ) (2 + 5 ) is ____________.
241 241
14. If = m n , then values of m and n are ____________ respectively.
4000 2 ×5
15. Given positive integers a and b, there exist unique whole numbers q and r satisfying
a = ____________, 0 ≤ r < b.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. State Euclid’s division comma.
2. What is Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic?
3. The product of two consecutive positive integers is divisible by 2. Is it true?
4. The product of three consecutive natural numbers is divisible by 6. Is it true?
5. Write 72 as product of its prime factors.
6. Write the exponent of 2 in the prime factorisation of 112.
7. What is the HCF of two prime numbers?
8. What is the LCM of two prime numbers?
9. Numbers of the form x , where x is a natural number, are always irrational. Is it true?
10. The sum of two irrational numbers may be rational. Is it true?
11. What is the HCF of smallest prime number and smallest composite number? [Cbse 2018]
12. If HCF (336, 54) = 6, find LCM (336, 54) [Cbse 2019]

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (d)
II. Fill in the blanks :
1. 3.434 2. 0, 1 or 2 3. 3 4. 111 5. 8 6. 24 7. infinitely
8. 63 9. 189 10. 504 11. a × b 12. a 13. irrational 14. 5 and 3
15. bq + r
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
3. Yes 4. Yes 5. 23 × 32 6. 4 7. 1 8. Their product 9. No 10. Yes 11. 2 12. 3024

Real Numbers 5
 2 POLYNOMIALS

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A quadratic polynomial, whose zeroes are –3 and 4, is : [Ncert(ep)]
x2 x
(a) x2 – x + 12 (b) x2 + x + 12 (c) − –6 (d) 2x2 + 2x – 24
2 2
2. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 99x + 127 are :
(a) both positive (b) both negative
(c) one positive and one negative (d) both equal

3. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c, c ≠ 0 are equal, then :

(a) c and a have opposite signs (b) c and b have opposite signs
(c) c and a have the same sign (d) c and b have the same sign

4. If the sum of the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = 2x3 – 3kx2 + 4x – 5 is 6, then the value
of k is :
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) –2 (d) –4

5. If the product of the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = ax3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 is 4, then the
value of a is :
1 5 3 −1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 2 5
2
6. If a and b are the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = x + px + q, then a polynomial having
1 1
and as its zeroes is :
α β
2 p 1 2 p 1 p 1 2 p 1
(a) x + x + (b) x − x + (c) x 2 − x − (d) x + x +
q q q q q q q q
7. If a, b are the zeroes of p(x) = x2 – 5x + b and a – b = 1, then b is :
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 0

8. Given that one of the zeroes of a cubic polynomial 3x3 + 5x2 – 9x + a is zero. The value
of a is :
−5
(a) (b) –3 (c) 3 (d) 0
3
9. If a and b are zeroes of x2 + 4x + 4, then :
(a) a = b, a + b = –4 (b) a = –b, a + b = 4
(c) a = b, a + b = 4 (d) a = –b, a + b = –4

6 Mathematics - 10
 10. If the two zeroes of the cubic polynomial x3 + x2 are zero each, then the third zero is :
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –1

11. If the graph of y = p(x), where p(x) is a quadratic polynomial cuts x-axis at different
points, the p(x) has :
(a) no zero (b) exactly one zero
(c) exactly two zeroes (d) none of these

12. If a, b and γ are zeroes of a cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d, then ab + bγ + γa

is :
d −c c −a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a a a b
13. If two zeroes of the polynomial x3 – 5x2 – 16x + 80 are equal in magnitude but opposite
in sign, then its zeroes are :
(a) 4, –4, 5 (b) 3, –3, 5 (c) 2, –2, 5 (d) 1, –1, 5
1 1
14. If a, b are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x2 – 5x + 4, then + –2ab
α β
equals :
27 −27 4 −4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 4 27 27
15. If two zeroes of the polynomial x3 + x2 – 9x – 9 are 3 and –3, then its third zero is :
(a) –1 (b) 2 (c) –2 (d) 3

16. If 5 and − 5 are two zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = x3 + 3x2 – 5x – 15, then its
other zero is :
(a) 2 (b) –3 (c) 4 (d) –4

17. If the polynomial p(x) = 3x4 + 5x3 – 7x2 + 2x + 2 is divided by g(x) = x2 + 3x + 1, then
the value of quotient is :
(a) 2x2 – 4x + 2 (b) 3x2 – 4x + 2 (c) 3x2 + 4x + 2 (d) 3x2 – 4x – 2

18. On dividing 2x2 + 3x – 2 by x + 2, the quotient is :

(a) 3x + 1 (b) 3x – 1 (c) 2x – 1 (d) 2x + 1

19. On dividing 3x3 + x2 + 2x + 5 by 1 + 2x + x2, the remainder is :

(a) 9x – 10 (b) 9x + 10 (c) 8x + 5 (d) 8x – 5

20. If zeroes of a polynomial p(x) are 2 and − 2 , then the polynomial which is a factor
of p(x) is :
(a) x2 + 2 (b) x2 – 2 (c) x – 2 (d) x + 2

21. The graph of y = p(x), where p(x) is a polynomial in variable Y

x is as follows. The number of zeroes of p(x) is :

[Cbse(sp) 2019]
X X
O
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 0
Y

Real Numbers 7
 22. The sum of the zeroes of the polynomial 2x2 – 8x + 6 is :
[Cbse(sp) 2019]
(a) –3 (b) 3 (c) –4 (d) 4

23. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial px2 – 2x + 3p and α + β = αβ, then p =
3 2
(a) (b) (c) 3 (d) 2
2 3
24. If α and β are the zeroes of ax2 – bx + c = 0 (a ≠ 0), then α + β is :
−b c b −c
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a a a a
1 1
25. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 + x + 1, then + is :
α β
1 1
(a) –1 (b) 1 (c) (d) −
2 2
26. The graph of y = p(x), where p(x) is a polynomial, is shown. Y
The number of zeroes of the polynomial p(x) is :

(a) 3 (b) 2 X X
O
(c) 1 (d) no zero

27. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 + 6x + 2, Y

1 1
then + is :
α β
(a) 3 (b) –3 (c) 12 (d) –12

3 −1
28. A quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are and is :
5 2
(a) 10x2 + x + 3 (b) 10x2 + x – 3 (c) 10x2 – x + 3 (d) 10x2 – x – 3

29. If 1 is a zero of the polynomial p(x) = ax2 – 3(a – 1), then the value of a is :
2 3
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) – (d)
3 2
30. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – 3x + p is 3, then its other zero is :
−3 3 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) –
2 2 2 2
31. If α, β are the zeroes of a polynomial such that α + β = 6 and αβ = 4, then the polynomial
is :
(a) x2 – 6x + 4 (b) –x2 + 6x – 4 (c) x2 – 6x – 4 (d) none of these

32. If two zeroes of a quadratic polynomial are 5 – 3 2 and 5 + 3 2 , then the quadratic
polynomial is :
(a) x2 – 10x – 7 (b) x2 – 10x + 6 (c) x2 – 10x + 14 (d) x2 – 10x + 7
1 1
33. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c, then +
is : α β

8 Mathematics - 10
 −b b −b −a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a c c b
1 1
34. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c, then +
– 2αβ is : α β

−ab − 2c 2 ab + 2c 2 ab + b 2 −c 2 + ab
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ac ac 2c 2ac
35. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c, then α3β2 +
α2β2 =
−bc −bc 2 −ac −a 2 c
(a) (b) (c) 3 (d)
a3 a3 b b3
36. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 – 5x + k such that α – β = 1,
then k =
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

37. If α, β and γ are the zeroes of the polynomial px3 – 5x + 9 and α3 + β3 + γ3 = 27,
then :
(a) p = 0 (b) p = 1 (c) p = 2 (d) p = –1

38. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = 2x2 + 5x + k satisfying the relation
21
α2 + β2 + αβ = , then the value of k is :
4
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

39. The value of k such that 3x2 + 2kx – k – 5 has the sum of the zeores as half of their
product is :
2 5 7 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3
40. If the sum and the product of the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = 4x2 – 27x + 3k2 are
equal, then the value of k is :
(a) ±2 (b) ±3 (c) ±5 (d) ±1

41. If α, β are the zeroes of x2 – 6x + k, then the value of k when 3α + 2β = 20 is :

(a) 13 (b) –14 (c) 15 (d) –16
42. If the degree of polynomial p(x) is n, then the maximum number of zeroes it can have
is :
(a) n (b) n2 (c) n3 (d) none of these
43. The value of k, if –4 is a zero of polynomial x2 – x – (2k + 2) is :
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9

44. Zeroes of the polynomial 4x2 – 9 are :

2 3 5
(a) ± (b) ± (c) ± (d) none of these
3 2 2
45. Sum of the zeroes of the polynomial x3 – 4x is :
1 1 3
(a) (b) – (c) 0 (d) –
2 2 2
Real Numbers 9
 46. If p and q are the zeroes of ax2 – bx + c, a ≠ 0, then the value of p + q is :
b c d b
(a) (b) (c) (d) –
a a a a
47. If 2 and –3 are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (a + 1)x + b, then the value
of a + b is :
(a) –5 (b) 0 (c) 6 (d) –6

48. On dividing x3 – 3x2 + x + 2 by a polynomial g(x), the quotient and remainder were x – 2
and –2x + 4 respectively, then g(x) is :
(a) x2 + x – 1 (b) x2 – x + 1 (c) x2 + 2x – 2 (d) x2 + 2x + 3

49. If p(x) = 3x4 + 5x3 – 7x2 + 2x + 2 is divided by g(x) = x2 + 3x + 1, then reminder is :

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) –1 (d) 2

50. If 1 is a zero of the polynomial 7x – x3 – 6, then other zeroes are :

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and –3 (c) –3 and 2 (d) –2 and –3

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. If one of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial x3 + ax2 + bx + c is –1, then the product of
other two zeroes is _____________.

2. If two zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = x3 – 4x2 – 3x + 12 are 3 and − 3 , then its
third zero = _____________.
3. If one zero of the polynomial ax2 + bx + c is double the other, then 2b2 = ___________.

4. The value of p for which the polynomial x3 + 4x2 – px + 8 is exactly divisible by

(x – 2) is ____________.
5. If x2 + x – 12 divides p(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx – 84 exactly, then a and b are respectively
____________ and ____________.
6. On dividing the polynomial p(x) by g(x) = 4x2 + 3x – 2, the quotient q(x) = 2x2 + 2x – 1
and remainder r(x) = 14x – 10, then p(x) = __________.
n−q
7. If (x + a) is a factor of two polynomials x2 + px + q and x2 + mx + n, then =
_________. m − p

8. If 2 and –2 are the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = x4 + 2x3 – 7x2 – 8x + 12, then its
other zeroes are ____________.
9. If 1 is a zero of the polynomial 7x – x3 – 6, then its other zeroes are ___________.
10. If the zeroes of the polynomial x2 + px + q are double in value to the zeroes of 2x2 – 5x
– 3, then the value of p and q are respectively ___________ and ____________.
11. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial 2x2 + 7x + 5, then α + β + αβ = _________.
12. If the polynomial 6x4 + 8x3 + 17x2 + 21x + 7 is divided by another polynomial
3x2 + 4x + 1, then the remainder comes out to be (ax + b), then a + b = ___________.
13. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = kx2 + 4x + 4 such that
α2 + β2 = 24, then the value of k = ____________.

10 Mathematics - 10
 14. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x2 – 5x + k such that
α – β = 1, then the value of k = ____________.
15. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x2 – px + q, then
α2 + β2 = ____________.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. What is the degree of a polynomial?
2. Write the quadratic polynomial with real co-efficients in standard form.
3. What is the zero of a polynomial?
4. What is the zero of the linear polynomial ax – b?
5. Graph of a quadratic polynomial may be a straight line. Is it true?
6. A cubic polynomial can have at most how many zeroes?
7. Find the sum of the zeroes of the polynomial 2x2 – x + 4.
8. What is the product of zeroes of the polynomial y2 – 5y – 3?
9. Write the polynomial whose zeroes are – 1 and 2.
10. State division algorithm for polynomials.

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a)
10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b)
28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d)
37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c)
46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (c)

II. Fill in the Blanks :

1. b – a + 1 2. 4 3. 9ac 4. p = 16 5. 8, –5 6. 8x4 + 14x3 – 2x2 + 7x – 8
2
7. a 8. 1, –3 9. –3, 2 10. –5, –6 11. –1 12. 9 13. –1, 14. 6 15. p2 – 2q
3
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
b 1
2. ax2 + bx + c, b ≠ 0 4. 5. no 6. 3 7. 8. –3 9. x2 – x – 2
a 2

Real Numbers 11
 PAIR OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO
3 VARIABLES

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

24
1. The pair of equations 5x – 15y = 8 and 3x – 9y = has:
5
(a) one solutions (b) two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
2. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is added to it, the digits of the
number get reversed. The number is:
(a) 25 (b) 72 (c) 63 (d) 36
3. Graphically, the pair of equations: 6x – 3y + 10 = 0; 2x – y + 9 = 0 represents two lines
which are :
(a) intersecting at exactly one point(b) intersecting at exactly two points
(c) coincident (d) parallel
4. The pair of equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and –3x – 6y + 1 = 0 have:
(a) a unique solution (b) exactly two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
5. If a pair of linear equations is consistent, then the lines will be:
(a) parallel (b) always coincident
(c) intersecting or coincident (d) always intersecting
6. The pair of equations y = 0 and y = –7 has :
(a) one solution (b) two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution
7. The pair of equations x = a and y = b graphically represents lines which are:
(a) parallel (b) intersecting at (b, a)
(c) coincident (d) intersecting at (a, b)
8. For what value of k, do the equations 3x – y + 8 = 0 and 6x – ky = –16 represent coincident
lines?
1 1
(a) (b) − (c) 2 (d) –2
2 2

12 Mathematics - 10
 9. If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y + 1 = 0 are parallel, then the value of k is:
−5 2 15 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 5 4 2
10. The value of c for which the pair of equations cx – y = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3 will have
infinitely many solutions is:
(a) 3 (b) –3 (c) –12 (d) no value
11. One equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is –5x + 7y = 2. The second equation
can be:
(a) 10x + 14y + 4 = 0 (b) –10x – 14y + 4 = 0
(c) –10x + 14y + 4 = 0 (d) 10x – 14y = –4
12. A pair of linear equations which has a unique solution x = 2, y = –3 is:
(a) x + y = 1, 2x – 3y = –5 (b) 2x + 5y = –11, 4x + 10y = –22
(c) 2x – y = 1, 3x + 2y = 0 (d) x – 4y – 14 = 0, 5x – y – 13 = 0
13. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equations x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then values of a
and b are, respectively :
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 5 and 3 (c) 3 and 1 (d) –1 and –3
14. Aruna has only ` 1 and ` 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is
50 and the amount of money with her is ` 75, then the number of ` 1 and ` 2 coins are,
respectively :
(a) 35 and 15 (b) 35 and 20 (c) 15 and 35 (d) 25 and 25
15. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father will
be four times his son’s age. The present ages, in years, of the son and the father are
respectively:
(a) 4 and 24 (b) 5 and 30 (c) 6 and 36 (d) 3 and 24
16. If 4x + 3y = 18xy and 2x – 5y + 4xy = 0, then values of x and y are :
1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) and (b) and (c) − and − (d) –1 and –3
2 3 4 3 2 3
17. If a pair of linear equations is inconsistent then the lines representing these will be :
(a) parallel (b) coincident
(c) intersecting or Concident (d) intersecting
18. The value of k, for which the pair of linear equations 4x + 6y – 1 = 0 and 2x – ky = 7
represents parallel lines is :
(a) 2 (b) –3 (c) 4 (d) –2
19. If ax + by = a2 – b2 and bx + ay = 0, then the value of (x + y) is :
(a) a2 – b2 (b) a + b (c) a – b (d) a2 + b2
20. If 88x + 36y = –92; 36x + 88y = –404, then :
(a) x = 1, y = –5 (b) x = 1, y = 5 (c) x = 2, y = –5 (d) x = –1, y = 5
2 3 5 4
21. If + = 13 and − = –2, then x + y =
x y x y
1 −1 5 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 6 6 9
Real Numbers 13
 x y x
22. If + = 2; ax – by = a2 – b2, then =
a b y
a2 a a −a
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) (d)
b b b b
23. The angles of a triangle are x, y and 40°. The difference between the two angles x and y
is 30°. The value of x + y is :
(a) 110° (b) 130° (c) 140° (d) 150°
24. If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y = –1 are parallel, then the value of k =
13 15 17 19
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 4 4 4
25. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equations x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then a ÷ b =
(a) 1 (b) –2 (c) 2 (d) 3
26. A number consists of two digits. The sum of the digits is 12 and the unit digit when
divided by the tens digit gives the result as 3. The number is :
(a) 63 (b) 68 (c) 93 (d) 39
27. Manisha scored x marks in Mathematics and y marks in Physics. The value of x and y,
if x – y = 2 and xy = 2600 is :
(a) 50 and 52 (b) 68 and 26 (c) 51 and 54 (d) 36 and 52
28. The length and breadth of a field if its area is 540 m2 and perimeter is 96 m are :
(a) 36 m and 15 m (b) 18 m and 30 m (c) 9 m and 60 m (d) 25 m and 21.6 m
29. The values of x and y if 2x + y + 1 = 0 and 2x – 3y + 8 = 0, are :
−11 7 7 8 15 9 −11 5
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) ,
8 4 3 3 7 11 9 4
30. The values of x and y if 3x + 4y = 5 and 2x – 3y = 9 are :
(a) 3, –1 (b) 2, –1 (c) –2, –1 (d) –2, 1
31. The values of x and y if 2x + 3y = 4 and 3x – y = –5, are :
(a) –1, –2 (b) –1, 2 (c) 1, –2 (d) 1, 2
32. The values of x and y if 2x – 5y + 4 = 0 and 2x + y – 8 = 0, are :
(a) 1, 2 (b) 3, 2 (c) 2, 1 (d) 2, 3
33. The values of x and y if 23x + 35y = 209 and 35x + 23y = 197, are :
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 4 and 5 (c) –3 and 2 (d) 5 and 3
1
34. A fraction becomes , if 2 is added to both numerator and denominator. If 3 is added to
3
2
both numerator and denominator, it becomes . The fraction is :
5
2 3 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 5 7 7
35. For what value of b the point (3, b) lies on the line represented by 2x – 3y = 5?
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 5 7
14 Mathematics - 10
 36. The values of x and y if 99x + 101y = 499 and 101x + 99y = 501 are :
(a) 3 and 2 (b) 5, 6 (c) –3 and 2 (d) –3 and –2
37. For what value of k the system of linear equations kx + 3y = k – 2, 12x + ky = k has no
solution?
1
(a) ± 2 (b) ± 3 (c) (d) ± 6
5
38. What is the point of intersection of the lines 3x + 7y = 12 and x-axis?
(a) (3, 0) (b) (4, 0) (c) (5, 0) (d) (6, 0)
39. For what value of k graphs of 4x – ky = 9 and 12x – 9y = 18 will be parallel?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) –3
40. For what value of k, 2x + 3y = 4 and (k + 2)x + 6y = 3k + 2 will have infinitely many
solutions?
(a) 5 (b) –5 (c) 2 (d) –2
x + 2 y − 4 x + y − 3 3x + y
41. The values of x and y in = = are :
3 2 11
(a) 3 and 2 (b) 5 and 3 (c) 4 and 3 (d) 5 and –3
42. For what values of a and b does the following pair of equations have an infinite number
of solutions? 2x + 3y = 7; a(x + y) – b (x – y) = 3a + b – 2
(a) 3 and 1 (b) 5 and 1 (c) 4 and 3 (d) 5 and –2
1
43. In a competitive examination, 1 mark is awarded for each correct answer, while mark
2
is deducted for every wrong answer. Jayanti answered 120 questions and got 90 marks.
Number of questions she attempted correctly is :
(a) 96 (b) 98 (c) 100 (d) 105
44. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 6. If 8 is subtracted from each of the numbers, the ratio
becomes 4 : 5, then the numbers are :
(a) 25 and 30 (b) 40 and 48 (c) 30 and 36 (d) 45 and 54
45. For what values of p and q the system of equations, 2x + 3y = 7; (p + q + 1)x + (p + 2q
+ 2)y = 4 (p + q) + 1 will represent coincident lines ?
(a) 1, 5 (b) 3, 5 (c) 4, 3 (d) 3, 2
46. The value of k for which the given system of equations 3x + y = 1 and (2k – 1)x +
(k – 1)y = 5 has no solution is :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
47. The value of α for which αx + 3y = α – 3 and 12x + αy = α has no solutions :
(a) –5 (b) –6 (c) 6 (d) 7
3
48. The sum of two numbers is 15 and the sum of their reciprocals is . The numbers are:
10
(a) 9, 6 (b) 12, 3 (c) 11, 4 (d) 5, 10
4 3
49. The values of x and y in + 5y = 7 and + 4y = 5 are :
x x
(a) 1 , 1 (b) 1 , –1 (c) 1 , 2 (d) 5 , 3
2 3 3 2
Real Numbers 15
 4 6
50. The values for x and y in + 3y = 8 and – 4y = –5 are :
x x
(a) 2, 2 (b) 3, 3 (c) 1, 1 (d) 4, 4

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y + 1 = 0 are parallel, then the value of
k is ___________.
2. If 4x + 3y = 18xy and 2x – 5y + 4xy = 0, then values of x and y will be respectively
____________ and ____________.
3. If ax + by = a2 – b2 and bx + ay = 0, then value of (x + y) = __________.

4. The value of k, for which the pair of linear equations 4x + 6y – 1 = 0 and 2x – ky = 7

represents parallel lines is _________.
5. Values of a and b for which the pair of linear equations x + 2y = 1;
(a – b)x + (a + b)y = a + b – 2, have infinitely many solutions are ___________ and
___________.
6. If 37x + 43y = 123 and 43x + 37y = 117 then x + y = ____________.
7. 15 years hence a man will be just 4 times as old as he was 15 years ago. His present age
is ___________.
8. The value of k for which the system of equations kx + 2y = 5, 3x + 4y = 1, has no solution
is ____________.
9. A number consists of two digits whose sum is 15. If 9 is added to the number, then the
digits change their places. The number is ____________.
10. The difference between two numbers is 26 and one number is three times the other. The
numbers are ____________.
11. The larger of two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 18 degrees. The angles
are ______________.
12. The coach of a cricket team buys 7 bats and 6 balls for ` 3800. Later, she buys 3 bats
and 5 balls for ` 1750. The cost of each bat and each ball is ____________.
9
13. A fraction becomes , if 2 is added to both the numerator and the denomirator. If 3 is
11 5
added to both numerator and denominator it becomes . The fraction is __________.
6
4 3
14. If + 3y = 14; – 4y = 23, then x × y = ____________.
x x
15. In ∆ABC, if ∠C = 3 ∠B = 2 (∠A + ∠B), then ∠A = _____, ∠B = _____, ∠C = _____.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Write the standard form of an equation in two variables.

2. At most how many solutions can a linear equation in two variable have?

16 Mathematics - 10
 3. The graphs of two linear equations in two variables intersect at a point. What does it
mean?
4. Write two equations of lines which are concident with 2x + 3y = 9.
a1 b
5. In the equations a1x + b1 y = c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 if � 1 , then the equations
a2 b2
with represent intersecting lines. Is it true?
6. The graphical representation of the pair of equations x + 2y – 4 = 0 and 2x + 4y – 12
= 0 represents intersecting lines. Is it true?
7. For what value of k do the equations 3x – y + 8 = 0 and 6x – ky = –16 represent coincident
lines?
8. Find the value of k for which the pair of linear equations 4x + 6y = 1 and 2x + ky – 7
= 0 represent parallel lines.

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10 (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
II. Fill in the Blanks :
15 1 1
1. 2. , 3. a – b 4. –3 5. a = 3, b = 1 6. 3 7. 25 years
4 2 3
3 7 −2
8. 9. 78 10. 39, 13 11. 99, 81 12. 500, 50 13. 14.
2 9 5
15. 20°, 40°, 120
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
1. ax + by + c = 0, a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0, 2. Infinite 3. They have unique solution
4. 4x + 6y = 18, 6x + 9y = 27 5. yes 6. no 7. k = 2 8. k = 3

Real Numbers 17
 4 QUADRATIC EQUATIONS

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following is not a quadratic equation ?
(a) (x + 2)2 = 2(x + 3) (b) x2 + 3x = (–1)(1 – 3x)2
(c) (x + 2)(x – 1) = x2 – 2x – 3 (d) x3 – x2 + 2x + 1 = (x + 1)3
2. Which constant should be added and subtracted to solve the quadratic equation
4 x 2 − 3 x − 5 = 0 by the method of completing the square ?
9 3 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 16 4 4
3. Which of the following is a quadratic equation?
2
(a)x2 + 2x + 1 = (4 – x)2 + 3 (b) –2x2 = (5 – x)  2 x − 
 5
2 3 3 2 3
(c)(k + 1)x + x = 7, where k = – 1 (d) x – x = (x – 1)
2
4. Which of the following is not a quadratic equation?
(a)2(x – 1)2 = 4x2 – 2x + 1 (b) 2x – x2 = x2 + 5
2
(c) ( 2 x + 3 ) + x2 = 3x2 – 5x (d) (x2 + 2x)2 = x4 + 3 + 4x3

5. Which of the following has 2 as a root ?

(a) x2 – 4x – 5 = 0 (b) x2 + 3x – 12 = 0
(c) 2x2 – 7x + 6 = 0 (d) 3x2 – 6x – 2 = 0
1 5
6. If is a root of the equation x 2 + kx − , then the value of k is:
2 4 1 1
(a) 2 (b) –2 (c) (d)
4 2
7. Which of the following equations has the sum of its roots as 3?
(a) 2x2 – 3x + 6 = 0 (b) –x2 + 3x – 3 = 0
3
(c) 2 x 2 − x + 1 = 0 (d) 3x2 – 3x + 3 = 0
2
8. Value of k for which the quadratic equation 2x2 – kx + k = 0, has equal roots is:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 0, 8
9. Which constant must be added and subtracted to solve the quadratic equation
3
9 x 2 + x − 2 = 0 by the method of completing the square?
4
18 Mathematics - 10
 1 1 1 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 64 4 64
10. The quadratic equation 2 x 2 − 5 x + 1 = 0 has :
(a) Two distinct real roots (b) Two equal real roots
(c) No real roots (d) More than 2 real roots
11. Which of the following equations has two distinct real roots ?
9
(a) 2x2 – 3 2 x + =0 (b) x2 + x – 5 = 0
4
(c) x2 + 3x + 2 2 = 0 (d) 5x2 – 3x + 1 = 0
12. Which of the following equations has no real roots?
(a) x2 – 4x + 3 2 = 0 (b) x2 + 4x – 3 2 = 0
(c) x2 – 4x – 3 2 = 0 (d) 3x2 + 4 3 x + 4 = 0
13. (x2 + 1)2 – x2 = 0 has :
(a) Four real roots (b) Two real roots
(c) No real roots (d) One real root
14. If 8 is a root of the equation x2 – 10x + k = 0, then the value of k is:
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) –8 (d) 16
15. The quadratic equation whose roots are real and equal is:
(a) 2x2 – 4x + 3 = 0 (b) x2 – 4x + 4 = 0
(c) 3x2 – 5x + 2 = 0 (d)x2 – 2 2 x – 6 = 0
16. If a, b are the roots of the equation x2 – 5x + k = 0, then what is the value of k such
that a – b = 1 ?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
2
17. The roots of the equation x – 3x – m(m + 3) = 0, where m is a constant, are :
(a) m, m + 3 (b) –m, m + 3 (c) m, –(m + 3) (d) –m, – (m
+ 3)
18. The roots of the equation x2 + 3x – (m + 2)(m + 5) = 0, where m is a constant, are :
(a) (m + 2), (m +5) (b) (m + 2), – (m +5)
(c) – (m + 2), (m +5) (d) – (m + 2), – (m +5)
19. The roots of the equation x2 + x – p(p + 1) = 0, where p is a constant, are :
(a) p, p + 1 (b) –p, p + 1 (c) p, – (p + 1) (d) –p, – (p
+ 1)
20. If one root of the equation 5x2 – 13x + k = 0, is reciprocal of the other, then k =
1
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d)
6
21. If one root of the equation 2x2 – 10x + p = 0 is 2, then the value of p is :
(a) –3 (b) –6 (c) 9 (d) 12
22. The root of the quadratic equation 2x2 – x – 6 = 0 are :
(a) –2, 3 (b) 2, – 3 (c) –2, –3 (d) 2, 3
2 2 2 2
Real Numbers 19
 23. The roots of the quadratic equation x2 + 5x – (a + 1) (a + 6) = 0, where a is a constant
are :
(a) a + 1, a + 6 (b) (a + 1), – (a + 6)
(c) –(a + 1), (a + 6) (d) –(a + 1), – (a + 6)
2
24. Roots of the quadratic equation 3x – 5x + 2 = 0, are :
(a) 1, 3 (b) 2, 1 (c) 1, 5 (d) –3, 1
2 3 3 2
2
25. Roots of the quadratic equation 3x – 2 6 x + 2 = 0 are
2 2 2 2 2 2
(a) , (b) − , (c) − , − (d)
3 3 3 3 3 3
2 3
− ,
3 2
16 15
26. If −1 = , where x ≠ 0, –1, then x =
x x +1
(a) ± 2 (b) ± 3 (c) ± 4 (d) ±6
3 1 2 1
27. If − = , where x ≠ –1, , then x =
x + 1 2 3x − 1 3
(a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 3 (c) 2, 3 (d) 3, 5
4 5 , –3
28. If –3 = where x ≠ 0, , then x =
x 2x + 5 2
(a) 1, 2 (b) –1, –2 (c) 1, –2 (d) 2, –3
14 5
29. If −1 = , where x ≠ –3, –1, then x =
x+3 x +1
(a) 1, 3 (b) 1, 2 (c) 1, 5 (d) 1, 4
30. If the sum of a number and its reciprocal is 10 , then, the number is :
3
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 10
3
31. If the sum of the squares of two consecutive natural numbers is 421, then the numbers
are:
(a) 14 and –15 (b) 14 and 15 (c) 13 and 15 (d) –13 and
–15

1 1 6
32. If − = (where x ≠ 1, –5), then x =
x −1 x + 5 7
(a) 2 and –6 (b) 3 and 5 (c) 5 and 4 (d) 2 and 6
1 2 6
33. If + = (where x ≠ 0,1, 2), then x =
x−2 x–1 x
(a) 3, 2 (b) 5, 7 (c) 3, 4 (d) 7, 5
3 3 3 3
1
34. The sum of two numbers is 16 and sum of their reciprocals is . The number are:
3
(a) 13 and 3 (b) 4 and 12 (c) 11 and 5 (d) 10 and 6
35. Two numbers differ by 4 and their product is 192. The numbers are:
20 Mathematics - 10
 (a) 12 and 16 (b) 10 and 6 (c) 20 and 24 (d) 18 and
14
36. Sum of two numbers is 27 and their product is 182. The numbers are:
(a) 13 and 14 (b) 15 and 12 (c) 20 and 7 (d) 22 and 5
37. The roots of the quadratic equation 2x2 + ax – a2 = 0 are :
(a) – a, a (b) a, – a (c) a, a (d) None of
these 2 2 2

38. The values of for k which the quadratic equation 9x2 – 3kx + k = 0 has equal roots is :
(a) 4 (b) 0 (c) 0 or 4 (d) 1 or 4
39. The values of p for which the quadratic equation 4x2 + px + 3 = 0 has equal roots is :
(a) ± 4 3 (b) ±3 2 (c) ± 3 3 (d) ±5 3
40. Roots of the quadratic equation 2
3 x – 2 2 x –2 3 = 0 are :
− 2 3 2
(a) , 6 (b) , 6 (c) ,− 6 (d)
3 2 3
3
,− 6
2
41. A natural number, when increased by 12, equals 160 times its reciprocal. The number is:
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2
42. Roots of the equation (3 x 2 − 2) = 2 x − 1 are :
(a) 3, 1 (b) 4, 1 (c) 3, 2 (d) 2, 3
1 2
43. Roots of the quadratic equation x − 11 x + 1 = 0 are :
3
3 11 ± 87 3 7 ± 87 5 11 ± 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2
7 87 ± 11
2
44. Roots of the quadratic equation 4x2 – 4px + (p2 – q2) = 0 are :
p±q p±q q± p p±q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 5 8
45. 2
Roots of the quadratic equation (2x – 3) = 16 are :
7 −1 5 −3 7 3 11 7
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) ,
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
46. If the sum and product of two numbers are 24 and 128 respectively, then numbers are:
(a) 16 and 8 (b) 18 and 6 (c) 22 and 2 (d) 14 and
10
47. The value of p for which one root of the quadratic equation px2 – 14x + 8 = 0 is 6 times
the other is :
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) –3 (d) 2
48. 2 2
If x = 1 is a common root of the equations ax + ax + 3 = 0 and x + x + b = 0, then
the value of a ÷ b =
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) –3 (d) –4
4 3 4 3
Real Numbers 21
 12 ,
49. If x – 4 = then the values of x are :
x
(a) –2, –6 (b) 6, 2 (c) 6, –2 (d) – 6, 2
50. Roots of the equation (x – 1)2 – 5(x – 1) – 6 = 0 are:
(a) (7, 0) (b) (6, 0) (c) (7, 6) (d) (6, –7)

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. If two number differ by 2 and their product is 360, the numbers are ________ and
–––––––––.
1
2. The roots of the equation 2x2 – x + = 0 are _____________.
8
2
3. The roots of the equation 100x – 20x + 1 = 0 are _____________.
4. The roots of the equation a2b2x2 + b2x – a2x – 1 = 0 are _____________.
5. If 12 is divided into two parts such that their product is 32. Then two parts are
_____________ and __________.
6. The attitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than its base. If the hypotenuse is 13 cm, then
sum of other two sides is _____________.
7. The two consecutive odd natural numbers, the sum of whose squares is 202 _____________.
8. If –4 is a root of the quadratic equation x2 + px – 4 = 0 and the quadratic equation
x2 + px + k = 0 has equal roots, then the value of k = _____________.
9. If the equation (1 + m2) x2 + 2 mcx + (c2 – a2) = 0, then, a2 (1 + m2) = ___________.
10. If I had walked 1 km per hour faster, I would have taken 10 minutes less to to walk
2 km. The rate of my walking is _____________.
11. The value(s) of p for which the quadratic equation 4x2 – 3px + 9 = 0 has real root is
_____________.
12. The sides of a right angled triangle are x – 1, x and x + 1. Then sides are __________
and ___________.
13. The roots of the quadratic eqaution x2 + 3x – m (m + 3) = 0 where m is a constant are
_________ and _________.
14. A natural number is greater than twice its square root by 3. The number is ___________.
15. If the root of the equation m2x2 + 2x (mc – 2a) + c2 = 0 are equal, then c = _____________.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Write the standard form of a quadratic equation.
2. If x = α is a solution of the quadratic equation A x2 + Bx + C = 0, then A α2 + Bα + C =
0. Is it true?
3. Find the roots of the quadratic equation (x + 2)2 = 0.
4. What is the discriminant of a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0?
5. Write the descriminant of 2x2 – 7 = 0.
6. Write the condition for the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, to have real roots.
7. State the condition for the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 to have equal real roots.
8. State the condition for the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 to have no real roots.
9. State Shreedharacharya Formula.

22 Mathematics - 10
 10. Find the nature of the roots of the quadratic equation 2x2 – 4x + 3 = 0. [Cbse 2019]
11. For what values of k, the roots of the equation x2 + 4x + k = 0 are real? [Cbse 2019]
12. If x = 3 is one root of the quadratic equation, x2 – 2kx – 6 = 0, then find the value of
k. [Cbse 2018]
ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choise Questions :
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a)

II. Fill in the Blanks :

1 1
1. –20, – 18, 18, 20 2. 1 , 1 3. ,
1 1 4 4 10 10
4. ,− 2 5. 4, 8
2
b a
6. 17 cm 7. 9, 11 8. 9 9. c2 10.
3 km/hr 4

11. p ≥ 4 or p ≤ – 4 12. 3, 4, 5 13. m, – m + 3

a
14.9 15.
m
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
1. ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0 2. yes 3.x = –2, –2 4. D = b2
– 4ac
5. 56 6. b2 – 4ac ≥ 0 7. b2 – 4ac = 0
8.b2 – 4ac < 0
10. imaginary11. k ≤ 4 12. 1
2

Real Numbers 23
 5 ARITHMETIC PROGRESSIONS

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The 10th term of the AP 5, 8, 11, 14, ... is:

(a) 32 (b) 35 (c) 38 (d) 185
2. In an AP, if a = –7.2, d = 3.6, an = 7.2, then n is:
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
3. In an AP, if d = –4, n = 7, an = 4, then a is:
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 20 (d) 28
4. In an AP, if a = 3.5, d = 0, n = 101, then an will be:
(a) 0 (b) 3.5 (c) 103.5 (d) 104.5
5. The list of numbers –10, –6, –2, 2, ... is:
(a) an AP with d = –16 (b) an AP with d = 4
(c) an AP with d = – 4 (d) not an AP
−5 5
6. The 11th term of the AP −5, , 0, , ... is:
2 2
(a) –20 (b) 20 (c) –30 (d) 30
7. The first four terms of an AP, whose first term is –2 and the common difference is –2,
are:
(a) –2, 0, 2, 4 (b) –2, –4, –8, –16 (c) –2, –4, –6, –8 (d) –2, –4, –8, –16
8. The 21st term of the AP whose first two terms are –3 and 4 is:
(a) 17 (b) 137 (c) 143 (d) –143
9. If the 2nd term of the AP is 13 and the 5th term is 25, then its 7th term is:
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 37 (d) 38
10. Which term of the AP : 21, 42, 63, 84, ... is 210?
(a) 9th (b) 10th (c) 11th (d) 12th
11. Two APs have the same common difference. The first term of one of these is –1 and that
of the other is –8. Then the difference between their 4th terms is:
(a) –1 (b) –8 (c) 7 (d) –9
12. If 7 times the 7th term of an AP is equal to 11times its 11th term, then its 18th term will
be:
(a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 18 (d) 0

24 Mathematics - 10
 13. The 4th term from the end of the AP : –11, –8, –5, ..., 49 is:
(a) 37 (b) 40 (c) 43 (d) 58
14. If the first term of an AP is –5 and the common difference is 2, then the sum of the first
6 terms is:
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 15
15. The sum of first 16 terms of the AP 11, 6, 2, ... is:
(a) –424 (b) 320 (c) –352 (d) –400
16. In an AP, if a = 1, an = 20 and Sn = 399, then n is:
(a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 38 (d) 42
17. The sum of first five multiple of 3 is:
(a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 65 (d) 75
18. Sum of n terms of the series 2 + 8 + 18 + 32 + ... is:
n(n + 1)
(a) n2 (b) n(n + 1) (c) (d) 1
2
19. In an AP, Sp = q, Sq = p and Sr denotes the sum of first r terms. Then Sp + q is equal to :
(a) –(p + q) (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) pq
20. If the sum of n terms of an A.P. is 3n2 + 5n, then which of its terms is 164?
(a) 25th (b) 26th (c) 27th (d) 28th
21. If the sum of n terms of an A.P. is 2n2 + 5n, then which of its terms is 143?
(a) 32 (b) 35 (c) 38 (d) 185
22. If the sum of n terms of an A.P. is 3n2 – 5n, then which of if its terms is 154?
(a) 23rd (b) 24th (c) 25th (d) 27th
23. The 17th term of an AP exceeds its 10th term by 7. Its common difference is:
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) –1 (d) 1
24. If 3rd and the 9th terms of an AP are 4 and –8 respectively, then which term of the AP
is zero?
(a) 3rd (b) 4th (c) 5th (d) 6th
25. The sum of 4th and 8th terms of an AP is 24 and the sum of the 6th and 10th terms is
44, then first term of the AP is :
(a) –12 (b) –13 (c) 13 (d) 12
26. 30th term of the A.P. 10, 7, 4, ... is :
(a) 97 (b) 77 (c) –77 (d) 87
1,
27. 11th term of the A.P. –3, – –2, ... is :
2
1
(a) 28 (b) 22 (c) –38 (d) – 48
2
28. Total number of terms in the AP: 7, 16, 25, ..., 349 =
(a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (d) 39
29. The value of p, if the numbers x, 2x + p, 3x + 6 are three consecutive terms of an A.P.
is :
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 7

Real Numbers 25
 1 17
30. The common difference of an AP, whose first term is and the 8th term is =
2 6
1 3 5 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 2 6
31. If 6th term of an AP is –10 and its 10th term is –26 then 15th term of the AP is :
(a) –32 (b) 42 (c) –46 (d) 48
32. The sum of first 25 terms of an AP, whose nth term is given by an = 7 –3n is :
(a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 700 (d) –800
33. The 16th term of an AP is 1 more than twice its 8th term. If the 12th term of the AP is
47, then its nth term is :
(a) 2n + 2 (b) 4n – 1 (c) 2n – 2 (d) 4n + 1
34. If the 11th term of an AP is 38 and the 16th term is 73, then its 31st term is :
(a) 172 (b) 176 (c) 178 (d) 180
35. 8th term of the AP 5, 8, 11, ... 38 from the end is :
(a) 11 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 26
36. Sum of all multiples of 7 lying between 500 and 900 is :
(a) 35600 (b) 39900 (c) 38600 (d) 37500
37. If the sum of first n terms of an AP is 5n2 –3n, then its 16th, term is :
(a) 150 (b) 152 (c) 154 (d) 156
2
38. If the nth term of an AP is given by 3 + n, then the sum of the first 31 terms =
3
1371 1271 1351 1971
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3
39. The 17th term of an AP is 5 more than twice its 8th term. 11th term of the AP is :
(a) 12d – 5 (b) 12d + 5 (c) 12d (d) 5d – 12
40. The 9th term from the end of the AP : 5, 9, 13, ..., 185 is :
(a) 150 (b) 151 (c) 152 (d) 153
41. Total number of integers between 200 and 500 which are divisible by 8 is :
(a) 37 (b) 38 (c) 40 (d) 42
42. The common difference of an AP in which a21 – a7 = 84, is :
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
43. If an AP, common difference (d) = –4 and the seventh term (a7) is 4, then its first term
is :
(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28
44. Total number of two digit numbers which are divisible by 3 =
(a) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 30
1
45. Total number of terms in the AP: 18, 15 , 13, ..., – 47 =
2
(a) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 27
46. If the nth term of an AP is 2x – 1, then its 20th term is :
26 Mathematics - 10
 (a) 33 (b) 34 (c) 36 (d) 39
47. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 ... + 199 =
(a) 9000 (b) 10000 (c) 11000 (d) 12000
48. 3 + 11 + 19 ... + 803 =
(a) 40404 (b) 50505 (c) 40303 (d) 70707
2
49. If Sn = 3n – n, then common difference of the AP is :
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) –5 (d) –6
50. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ... + 1001 =
(a) 241001 (b) 251001 (c) 201001 (d) 271001

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. If the sum of 7 terms of an AP is 49 and that of 17 terms is 289, then the sum of its n
terms =______________
2. The sum of first n terms of an AP is 5n2 + 3n. If its mth term is 168, then the value of
m = ______________
3. The sum of first 30 positive integers divisible by 6 = ______________.
4. The sum of all odd integers between 1 and 100 = ______________.
5. If the sum of first four terms of an AP is 40 and that of fourteen terms is 280, then sum
of first n terms is ______________.
6. The sum of first seven numbers which are multiples of 2 as well as 9 = _____________.
7. If the sum of the 5th and 7th terms of an AP is 52 and 10th term is 46, then the AP
__________.
8. If 7 times the 7th term of an AP is equal to 11 times its 11th term, then 18th term of the
AP = ____________.
9. The 10th term from the end of the AP: 8, 10, 12, ..., 126 = ____________.
10. If the sum of first m terms of an AP is 2m2 + 3m, then its second term = ____________.
11. If the nth term of an AP is (2n + 1), then the sum of its first three terms = ____________.
12. If k, 2k – 1 and 2k + 1 are three consecutive terms of an AP, then value of k = _________.
13. Two AP’s have the some common difference. The first term of one of these is –1 and that
of the other is –8 then the difference between their 4th terms is = ____________.
14. The sum of the first 40 positive integers divisible by 6 is ____________.
15. The first term of an AP is 5, the last term is 45 and the sum is 400, then its common
difference is ____________.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. What is an infinite AP?
2. Write the general form of an AP.
3. Find the common difference of the AP –5, –5, –5, –5, ....
4. Can the common difference of an AP be negative?
5. Write the formula for finding the nth term of an AP.
6. Write the formula for the sum of first n terms of an AP in terms of first and last terms.
7. What is the sum of first n natural numbers?
Real Numbers 27
 8. an = Sn – Sn –1. Is it true?
9. What is the sum of first n odd natural numbers?
10. nth term of an AP can be a quadratic polynomial in n. Is it true?
1 3 − a 3 − 2a
11. Find the common difference of the AP , , , .... a ≠ 0. [Cbse 2019]
a 3a 3a
12. How many 2-digit numbers are divisible by 3? [Cbse 2019]

13. In an AP if the common difference(d) = –4 and the seventh term (a7) is 4, find the first
term. [Cbse 2019]
14. What is the common difference of an AP in which a21 – a7 = 84? [Cbse 2018]

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choise Questions :
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (b)
II. Fill in the Blanks :
1. n2 2. 17 3. 2790 4. 2499 5. 6n + n2
6. 504 7. 10, 14, 18 .... 8. 0 9. 108 10. 9
8
11. 15 12. 3 13. 7 14. 4920 15.
3
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
n
2. a, a + d, a + 2d, ... 0 3. Yes 5. an = a + (n – 1)d 6. (a + l )
2
n(n +1) n(n −1) 1
7. 8. Yes 9. 10. No 11. –
2 2 3
12. 30 13. 28 14. 6

28 Mathematics - 10
 6 TRIANGLES

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. In the figure, O is the point of intersection of two chords AB and CD such that OB =
OD. Then triangles OAC and ODB are:
(a) equilateral but not similar A D

(b) isosceles but not similar 45°

O
(c) equilateral and similar C B
(d) isosceles and similar
2. D and E are respectively the points on the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC such that
AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm, BC = 7.5 cm and DE || BC. Then, length of DE (in cm) is:
(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6
3. In the figure, ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC. Then : A
(a) BD · CD = BC2
(b) AB · AC = BC2
(c) BD · CD = AD2
(d) AB · AC = AD2 B D C

4. If the lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm, then, the length of the
side of the rhombus is :
(a) 9 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 20 cm
5. If DABC ∼ DEDF and DABC is not similar to DDEF, then which of the following is not
true?
(a) BC · EF = AC · FD (b) AB · EF = AC · DE
(c) BC · DE = AB · EF (d) BC · DE = AB · FD
AB BC CA
6. If in two triangles ABC and PQR, = = , then :
QR PR PQ
(a) DPQR ∼ DCAB (b) DPQR ∼ DABC
(c) DCBA ∼ DPQR (d) DBCA ∼ DPQR

Real Numbers 29
 A D
6 cm
7. In the figure, two line segments AC and BD intersect 5 cm 30°
P
each other at the point P such that PA = 6 cm, PB = 50°
2.5 c
3 cm, PC = 2.5 cm, PD = 5 cm, ∠APB = 50° and 3c
m m
C
∠CDP = 30°. Then ∠PBA is equal to: B

(a) 50° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 100°

8. If in triangles DEF and PQR, ∠D = ∠Q and ∠R = ∠E, then which of the following is
not true?
EF DE DE EF DE DF EF DE
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
PR QR PQ RP QR PQ RP QR
9. If in triangles ABC and DEF, ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3 DE, then the two triangles
are:
(a) congruent but not similar (b) similar but not congruent
(c) neither congruent nor similar (d) congruent as well as similar
BC 1 ar ( PRQ )
10. If it is given that DABC ∼ DPQR, with = , then is equal to:
QR 3 ar ( BCA )
1 1
(a) 9 (b) 3 (c) (d)
3 9
11. It is given that DABC ∼ DDFE, ∠A = 30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and DF
= 7.5 cm. Then, which of the following is true?
(a) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 50° (b) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°
(c) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 100° (d) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 30°
AB BC
12. If in triangles ABC and DEF, = , then they will be similar, when:
DE FD
(a) ∠B = ∠E (b) ∠A = ∠D (c) ∠B = ∠D (d) ∠A = ∠F
ar(ABC) 9
13. If DABC ∼ DQRP, = , AB = 18 cm and BC = 15 cm, then PR is equal to:
ar(PQR) 4
20
(a) 10 cm (b) 12 cm (c) cm (d) 8 cm
3
14. If S is a point on side PQ of a DPQR such that PS = QS = RS, then:
(a) PR · QR = RS2 (b) QS2 + RS2 = QR2
(c) PR2 + QR2 = PQ2 (d) PS2 + RS2 = PR2
BC 1 ar(DPQR)
15. If it is given that DABC ∼ DPQR, with = , then is equal to:
QR 4 ar(DABC)
1 1
(a) 4 (b) 16 (c) (d)
4 16
16. If P, Q, R are respectively the mid-points of the sides BC, CA, AB of a DABC, then the
ratio of the areas of the DPQR to the DABC is:
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
17. If a chord of a circle of radius 8 cm subtends a right angle at the centre, then the length
of the chord is :
(a) 8 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 16 2 cm (d) 8 2 cm

30 Mathematics - 10
 18. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 6 cm and 8 cm. Then the perimeter of the
rhombus is :
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm
A
BE
19. In the adjoining figure, if AE ^ BC and CD ^ AB, then
BD
is equal to :
AD AE BC
(a) (b) (c) (d) CD D
EC CD AB AE
O

20. D is a point on the side BC of a triangle ABC such that ∠ADC

B E C
= ∠BAC, then :
(a) CA2 = BC · CD (b) BC2 = CA · CD
(c) CD2 = CA · BC (d) none of these
21. If in a triangle ABC, a line segment XY parallel to AC divides the triangle into two parts
AX
equal in area, then is equal to :
AB
1 1
(a) (b) 2 (c) 1 − (d) 3
2 2

A
22. In the given figure, the value of x is :
8 cm 6 cm
(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm x
(c) 4.8 cm (d) 5.2 cm B C
D

23. A vertical stick 30 m long casts a shadow 15 m long on the ground. At the same time a
tower casts a shadow 75 m long on the ground. The height of the tower is :
(a) 150 m (b) 130 m (c) 125 m (d) 120 m
24. The length of altitude of an equilateral triangle of side a is :
2a 3 a 3 a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2a 2 2 3
25. The length of the hypotenuse of an isosecles right triangle whose one side is 4 2 cm,
is :
(a) 11 cm (b) 9 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 5 2

26. In an equilateral triangle ABC, if AD ⊥ BC, then :

(a) 3AB2 = 2AD2 (b) 3AB2 = 4AD2 (c) 4AB2 = 3AD2 (d) 2AB2 = 3AD2
27. ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC = 13 cm. The length of the altitude from
A on BC is 5 cm. Then BC =
(a) 36 cm (b) 32 cm (c) 24 cm (d) 20 cm
28. In a rhombus of side 10 cm, one of the diagonals is 12 cm long. The length of the second
diagonal is :
(a) 18 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 14 cm (d) 12 cm

Real Numbers 31
 29. The diagonals of a rhombus are 15 cm and 36 cm long. Then its perimeter is :
(a) 82 cm (b) 80 cm (c) 78 cm (d) 76 cm
30. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 25 cm and out of the remaining two sides, one is
longer than the other by 5 cm. The length of the other two sides are :
(a) 10 cm, 15 cm (b) 15 cm, 20 cm (c) 15 cm, 18 cm (d) 20 cm, 22 cm
31. If in ∆ABC, ∠BCA is a right angle, if Q is the mid-point of side BC, AC = 4 cm,
AQ = 5 cm. Then AB2 =
(a) 36 cm2 (b) 42 cm2 (c) 50 cm2 (d) 52 cm2
1
32. D is a point on the side BC of an equilateral ∆ABC such that DC = BC. Then AD2 =
4
(a) 11 CD2 (b) 12 CD2 (c) 13 CD2 (d) 15 CD2
33. In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on the side BC such that 4BD = BC. Then :
(a) 11 AD2 = 13 BC2 (b) 16 AD2 = 13 BC2
(c) 15 AD2 = 13 BC2 (d) 16 AD2 = 11 BC2
A
34. In the given figure, ABC is a right triangle with ∠B = 90°. Meidan
CD and AE are respectively of lengths 20 cm and 5 cm. The
length of hypotenuse AC = D

(a) 11 cm (b) 9 cm
(c) 6 cm (d) 4 cm B C
E
35. The areas of two similar triangles are 121 cm2 and 64 cm2 respectively. If the medians
of the first traingle is 12.1 cm, then the corresponding median of the other triangle is :
(a) 6.8 cm (b) 0.8 cm (c) 11.2 cm (d) 12.6 cm
L
1
36. In the given figure, LM || NQ and LN || PQ. If MP = MN, then the
3
ratio of the areas of ∆LMN and ∆QNP is :
M P N
(a) 9 : 4 (b) 16 : 4
(c) 25 : 16 (d) 64 : 9
37. In a trapezium ABCD, AB || CD and AB = 2CD. If the area of ∆AOB Q
= 84 cm2, then the area of ∆COD =
(a) 18 cm2 (b) 20 cm2 (c) 20.5 cm2 (d) 21 cm2
A

38. In the given figure, DE || BC and AD : DB = 5 : 4. The ratio of

ar (∆DFE) : ar(∆CFB) is :
D E
(a) 25 81 (b) 16 : 9
(c) 9 : 16 (d) 64 : 25 F
B C
39. If the area of the equilateral triangle described on the side of a square is 48 cm2, then the
area of equilateral triangle described on its diagonal is :
(a) 46 cm2 (b) 68 cm2 (c) 76 cm2 (d) 96 cm2
40. X and Y are points on the sides AB and BC respectively of ∆ABC such that XY || AC
AX
and XY divides ∆ABC into two parts equal in area. Then is :
AB
32 Mathematics - 10
 3− 3 2− 2 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 2 3
41. D, E and F are the mid-points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively of ∆ABC. Then
the ratio of the areas of ∆DEF and ∆ABC is :
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 9
A
42. In the given figure, DE || AC and DF || AE. If the lengths D
of BF and FE are 4 cm and 5 cm respectively, then the
B
length of EC is : F E C
(a) 11.25 cm (b) 9.6 cm (c) 12.5 cm (d) 13.2 cm
43. In ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC.
If AD = 4x – 3, AE = 8x – 7, BD = 3x – 1 and CE = 5x – 3, then the value of x is :
(a) 3 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 1 cm
44. In the given figure, ∆ABC and ∆PQR are isosceles triangles in which ∠A = ∠P. If
ar ( ∆ABC ) 9 AD
= , then is : A
ar ( ∆PQR ) 16 PS P
2 3
(a) (b)
3 4
B C Q R
5 7 D S
(c) (d)
9 81
1
45. In an equilateral ∆ABC, D is a point on side BC such that BD = BC. Then
3
2
(a) 9AD = 7AB 2 2
(b) 7AD = 9AB 2 (c) 13AD = 11AB (d) 17AB2 = 13AD2
2 2

46. In the figure, DE || BC, AD = 1 cm, BD = 2 cm. The ratio of the

area (∆ABC) to the area (∆ADE) is : D E

(a) 9 : 1 (b) 16 : 1
B C
(c) 64 : 1 (d) 1 : 81 C

47. The figure, BL and CM are medians of a ∆ABC right angled of A.

4(BL2 + CM2) is : L

(a) 6 BC2 (b) 5 BC2 A

B
(c) 13 BC2 (d) 11 BC2 M
C

48. In the figure, if ∠ACB = ∠CDA, AC = 6 cm and AD = 3 cm,

then the length of AB is :

(a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm (d) 14 cm A B
D

Real Numbers 33
 A
49. In the given figure, if DE || BC, then length of EC is : 1.5 cm 1 cm
D E
(a) 5 cm (b) 4 cm
3 cm
(c) 3 cm (d) 2 cm
B C
50. The sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 2 : 3, then the areas of these triangles
are in the ratio :
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 8 : 27 (d) 16 : 81

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The areas of two similar triangles ∆ABC and ∆PQR are 25 cm2 and 49 cm2 respectively.
If QR = 9.8 cm, then BC = _____________.
2. ∆PQR ∼ ∆ABC such that area(∆PQR) = 4 area(∆ABC). The ratio of their perimeters
= _____________.
3. The areas of two similar triangles are 81 cm2 and 49 cm2 respectively. The ratio of their
corresponding altitudes and medians are _____________.
4. Hypotenuse of a right triangle is 25 cm and out of the remaining two sides, one is longer
than the other by 5 cm. The lengths of the other two sides are _________.
A B

+4
+1

3x
3x
5. If the figure, the value of x for which DE || AB = ___________. D E
x+3 x

C
6. Diagonals of a trapezium PQRS intersect each other at point O, PQ || RS and PQ = 3 RS.
The ratio of the areas of triangle POQ and ROS is __________.
7. Altitudes of an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm is ____________.
A

6 cm
8. In the given figure, if DE || BC, then the ratio of area (∆ADE) and D E
area (ECBD) = ___________.
12 cm
B C
9. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P and Q are points on AD and BC
respectively such that PQ || DC. If PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, then AD
= ___________.
10. Corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 2 : 3. If the area of the
smaller triangle is 48 cm2, then the area of the larger triangle is __________.

11. Areas of two similar triangles are 36 cm2 and 100 cm2. If the length of a side of the
larger triangle is 20 cm, then the length of the corresponding side of the smaller triangle
is _____________.

34 Mathematics - 10
 C

12. In the given figure, if ∠ACB = ∠CDA, AC = 8 cm and AD = 3 cm;

then length of BD = _____________.

A B
D

13. A a 15 metres high tower casts a shadow 24 metres long at a certain time and at the same
time, a telephone pole casts a shadow 16 metres long. Then the height of the telephone
pole = _____________. [Ncert(ep)]
14. Foot of a 10 m long ladder leaning against a vertical wall is 6 m away from the base
of the wall. Then the height of the point on the wall whose top of the ladder reaches =
___________. [Ncert(ep)]

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. When do we say that two figures are congruent?
2. What are similar figures?
3. Two polygons of the same number of sides are similar if their corresponding angles are
equal. Is it true?
4. State Basic Proportionality Theorem.
5. State SAS similarity criterion for two triangles.
6. How the areas of two similar triangles are related to each other?
7. State Pythagoras Theorem.
8. State the converse of Pythagoras Theorem.
9. In a triangle PQR, PQ2 + QR2 = PR2. Which angle of ∆PQR is right angled?
10. Is the triangle with sides 25 cm, 5 cm and 24 cm a right triangle?
11. D is a point on side QR of ∆PQR such that PD ⊥ QR. Will it be correct to say that
∆PQD ∼ ∆RPD? A

1.8 cm
12. In the figure, DE || BC. Find the length of side AD given that AE
D E
= 1.8 cm, BD = 7.2 cm and CE = 5.4 cm. 7.2 cm 5.4 cm
[Cbse 2019]
B C

Real Numbers 35
 ANSWER
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b)
12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (c)
23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b)
34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b)
45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (a)

II. Fill in the Blanks :

9
1. 7 cm 2. 2 : 1 3. 4. 15 cm, 20 cm 5. x = 2 6. 9 : 1 7. 4 3 cm
7
55
8. 1 : 3 9. 60 cm 10. 108 cm2 11. 12 m 12. m 13. 10 m 14. 8 m
3
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
9. ∠Q 10. No 11. No 12. 2.4 cm

36 Mathematics - 10
 7 COORDINATE GEOMETRY

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If the distance between the points (2, –2) and (–1, x) is 5, one of the value of x is:
(a) –2 (b) 2 (c) –1 (d) 1
2. The mid-point of the line segment joining the points A(–2, 8) and B(–6, –4) is:
(a) (–4, –6) (b) (2, 6) (c) (–4, 2) (d) (4, 2)
3. The points A(9, 0), B(9, 6), C(–9, 6) and D(–9, 0) are the vertices of a:
(a) square (b) rectangle (c) rhombus (d) trapezium
4. The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the x-axis is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 5
5. The distance between the points A(0, 6) and B(0, –2) is:
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 2
6. The distance of the point P(–6, 8) from the origin is:
(a) 8 (b) 2 7 (c) 10 (d) 6
7. The distance between the points (0, 5) and (–5, 0) is:
(a) 5 (b) 5 2 (c) 2 5 (d) 10
8. AOBC is rectangle whose three vertices are A(0, 3), O(0, 0) and B(5, 0). The length of
its diagonal is:
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 34 (d) 4
9. The perimeter of a triangle with vertices (0, 4), (0, 0) and (3, 0) is:
(a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 7 + 5
10. The area of a triangle with vertices A(3, 0), B(7, 0) and C(8, 4) is:
(a) 14 (b) 28 (c) 8 (d) 6
11. The points (–4, 0), (4, 0), (0, 3) are the vertices of a:
(a) right triangle (b) isosceles triangle (c) equilateral triangle (d) scalene triangle
12. If the coordinates of one end of a diameter of circle are (2, 3) and the coordinates of its
centre are (–2, 5), then the coordinates of the other end of the diameter are:
(a) (–6, 7) (b) (6, –7) (c) (6, 7) (d) (–6, –7)
13. The point which lies on the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining points
A(–2, –5) and B(2, 5) is:
(a) (0, 0) (b) (0, 2) (c) (2, 0) (d) (–2, 0)

Real Numbers 37
 14. The fourth vertex D of a parallelogram ABCD whose three vertices A(–2, 3), B(6, 7) and
C(8, 3) is:
(a) (0, 1) (b) (0, –1) (c) (–1, 0) (d) (1, 0)
15. The vertices of a parallelogram in order are A(1, 2), B(4, y), C(x, 6), D(3, 6), then the value
of x and y respectively are :
(a) 6, 3 (b) 3, 6 (c) 5, 6 (d) 1, 4
a 
16. If P  , 4  is the mid-point of the line segment, joining the points Q(–6, 5) and
3 
R(–2, 3), then the value of a is:
(a) –4 (b) –12 (c) 12 (d) –6
17. The fourth vertex D of a parallelogram ABCD whose three vertices are A(–2, 3), B(6, 7)
and C(8, 3) is:
(a) (0, 1) (b) (0, –1) (c) (–1, 0) (d) (1, 0)

Y
18. The coordinates of the point which is equidistant from the three (0, 2y) A
vertices of the DAOB as shown in the figure is:

(a) (x, y) (b) (y, x)

x y y x
(d)  , 
B
(c)  ,  X
O (2x, 0)
X
2 2  2 2
Y

 13 
19. A circle drawn with origin as the centre passes through  , 0  . The point which does
not lie in the interior of the circle is: 2 
 −3   7
(a)  , 1 (b)  2,  (c)  5, −1  (d)  −6, 5 
 4   3  2   2
20. A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P and Q, respectively. If (2, –5) is the
mid-point of PQ, then the coordinates of P and Q respectively are:
(a) (0, –5) and (2, 0) (b) (0, 10) and (–4, 0)
(c) (0, 4) and (–10, 0) (d) (0, –10) and (4, 0)
21. The area of a triangle with vertices (a, b + c), (b, c + a) and (c, a + b) is:
(a) (a + b + c) (b) 0 (c) a + b + c (d) abc
22. If A(1, 3), B(–1, 2), C(2, 5) and D(x, y) are the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD, then
the value of x is:
3
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d)
2
23. If the points A(1, 2), O(0, 0) and C(a, b) are collinear then:
(a) a = b (b) a = 2b (c) 2a = b (d) a = –b
24. If the points (1, 2), (–5, 6) and (P, –2) are collinear, then P =
(a) 7 (b) –5 (c) 6 (d) –3
25. If the centroid of the triangle formed by (7, x), (y, –6) and (9, 10) is (6, 3), then the value of
x and y respectively are :
(a) 5, 3 (b) 5, 2 (c) –3, 2 (d) 6, 5

38 Mathematics - 10
 26. The distance of the point P(–3, –4) from the x-axis (in units) is : [Cbse(sp) 2019]
(a) 3 (b) –3 (c) 4 (d) 5
m 
27. If A  , 5  is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q(–6, 7) and R(–2, 3), then
2 
the value of m is : [Cbse(sp) 2019]
(a) –8 (b) –4 (c) 12 (d) –6
28. The distance of the point P(3, –4) from the origin is : [Cbse(sp) 2019]
(a) 7 units (b) 5 units (c) 4 units (d) 3 units
29. The mid-point of the line segment joining the points (–5, 7) and (–1, 3) is : [Cbse(sp) 2019]
(a) (–3, 7) (b) (–3, 5) (c) (–1, 5) (d) (5, –3)
30. If the distance between the points (4, k) and (1, 0) is 5, then what can be the possible value of
k?
(a) ± 2 (b) ± 3 (c) ± 4 (d) ± 5
31. In the given figure, AB is a diameter of the circle with centre O (4, 5).
If A is (1, 1), then B =
A B
(a) (6, 9) (b) (7, 9) (1, 1) (4, 5)
(c) (–7, 9) (d) (7, –9)

32. The ratio in which P(4, m) divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, –3)
is :
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 1
33. If A(5, 1), B(1, 5) and C(–3, –1) are the vertices of ∆ABC, then length of median AD is :
(a) 35 units (b) 37 units (c) 33 units (d) 31 units
34. The coordinates of a point A, where AB is a diameter of a circle whose centre is (2, –3) and
B is the point (1, 4) are :
(a) (2, –10) (b) (–3, 10) (c) (–2, –5) (d) (3, –10)
35. The distance between the points (a, b) and (–a, –b) is :

(a) 2ab (b) 2(a + b) (c) 2 a 2 + b 2 (d) 2 a + b

36. If the mid-point of the line segment joining the points P(6, b – 2) and Q(–2, 4) is (2, –3), then
the value of b =
(a) –5 (b) –6 (c) –7 (d) –8

(
37. The distance between the points A(2a, 6a) and B 2a + 3a, 5a is : )
(a) a (b) 2a (c) 3a (d) 4a
a 
38. If P  , 4  is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points A(–6, 5) and B(–2, 3), then
2 
the value of a is
(a) –8 (b) 7 (c) –6 (d) –5
39. If the points A(x, 2), B(–3, –4) and C(7, –5) are collinear, then the value of x is :
Real Numbers 39
 (a) 53 (b) 60 (c) 63 (d) –63

40. In the given figure, the area of ∆ABC in sq. units is : Y

A (1, 3)
3
2
(a) 5 sq. units (b) 7.5 sq. units 1
B C
X X
–1 O1 2 3 4
(c) 9 sq. units (d) 10 sq. units Y

41. The perimeter of triangle with vertices (0, 4), (0, 0) and (3, 0) is :
(a) 9 units (b) 11 units (c) 12 units (d) 15 units
42. ABCD is a rectangle, whose three vertices are B(4, 0), C(4, 3) and D(0, 3), then the length of
one of its diagonal is :
(a) 7 units (b) 6 units (c) 6.5 units (d) 5 units
43. If A(1, 3), B(–1, 3), C(2, 5) and D( x, 5) are the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD, then the
value of x is :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 5.5
44. The mid-point of line segment AB is the point P(0, 4). If the coordiantes of B are (–2, 3), then
the coordinates of A are :
(a) (3, 5) (b) (2, 5) (c) (–3, 2) (d) (5, –3)
45. If the points (2, –2), (–2, 1) and (5, 2) are the vertices of right triangle, then the area of this
triangle is :
(a) 10.5 sq. units (b) 12.5 sq. units (c) 13.5 sq. units (d) 15 sq. units
46. If the distances of P(x, y) from A(5, 1) and B(–1, 5) are equal, then :
(a) x = y (b) 3x = 5y (c) 5x = 2y (d) 3x = 2y
47. If the vertices of a triangle are (1, k), (4, –3), (–9, 7) and its area is 15 sq. units, then the value
of k is :
(a) –1 (b) 2 (c) –2 (d) –3
48. The point A(3, y) is equidistant from the points P(6, 5) and Q(0, –3) then the value of y is :
(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) 1 (d) 2
49. The x-coordinate of a point P is twice its y-coordinate. If P is equidistant from Q(2, –5) and
R(–3, 6), then coordinates of P are :
(a) (14, 8) (b) (16, 8) (c) (12, 6) (d) (15, 12)
3 5  1 3
50. The ratio in which the point  ,  divides the line segment joining the points A  2 , 2 
and B(2, –5) is :  4 12   
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 2 : 3
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. The point which divides the line segment joining the points A(0, 5) and B(5, 0) internally
in the ratio 2 : 3 is ________________. [Cbse(sp) 2019]
2. The point which divides the line segment joining the points (8, –9) and (2, 3) in ratio
1 : 2 internally lies in the ______________ quadrant. [Cbse(sp) 2019]
3. The distance between the points (0, 0) and (36, 15) is ______________.
4. The point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, –5) and (–2, 9) is _____________.

40 Mathematics - 10
 5. The values of y for which the distance between the points P(2, –3) and Q(10, y) is 10
units are ____________.
6. If Q(0, 1) is equidistant from P(5, –3) and R(x, 6), then the value of x is ____________.
7. The ratio in which the point (–4, 6) divides the line segment joining the points A(–6, 10)
and B(3, –8) = _____________.
8. The ratio in which the y-axis divides the line segment joining the points (5, –6) and
(–1, –4) is ______________.
9. If the points A(6, 1), B(8, 2), C(9, 4) and D(p, 3) are the vertices of the parallelogram,
taken in order, then the value of p is ____________.
10. The ratio in which the line segment joining the points (–3, 10) and (6, –8) is divided by
(–1, 6) is ______________.
11. The ratio in which the line segment joining A(1, –5) and B(–4, 5) is divided by the x-axis
is ____________.
12. The coordinates of a point A, where AB is the diameter of a circle whose centre is
(2, –3) and B(1, 4) is _______________.
13. If (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3, 5) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, then
x and y are respectively _____________.
14. The area of rhombus if its vertices are (3, 0), (4, 5), (–1, 4) and (–2, –1) taken in order
is _______________.
15. The area of the triangle formed by the points P(–1.5, 3), Q(6, –2) and R(–3, 4) is
______________.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. What are the coordinates of a point on the y-axis whish is at a distance of –5 units from
x-axis?
2. In which quadrant both the abscissa and the ordinate are negative?
3. Find the distance of the point A(8, 6) from the origin.
4. Distance between the points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) can either be expressed as
( x1 − x2 )2 + ( y1 − y2 )2 or as ( x2 − x1 )2 + ( y2 − y1 )2 . Is it true?
5. Find the coordinates of the centre of a circle, if the coordinates of the ends of its diameter
are (–5, 4) and (3, –2).
A (2, –2)
6. In the figure, if AP = 2 cm and PB = 4 cm,
find the coordinates of P. P
B (–7, 4)
7. Write the formula for the area of a triangle in terms of coordinates of its vertices.
8. If the area of a triangle having vertices as P(x1, y1), Q(x2, y2) and R(x3, y3) is zero, then
what can we say about points P, Q and R?
9. Write the coordinates of a point on x-axis which is equidistant from the point A(–2, 0)
and B(6, 0). [Cbse 2019]
10. Find the coordinates of a point A, where AB is a diameter of a circle whose centre is
(2, –3) and B is the point (1, 4). [Cbse 2019]
11. Find the coordinates of a point A, where AB is a diameter of the circle with centre
(–2, 2) and B is the point with coordinates (3, 4). [Cbse 2019]

Real Numbers 41
 12. Find the distance of the point (x, y) from the origin. [Cbse 2018]

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
II. Fill in the Blanks :
1. (2, 3) 2. (iv) 3. 39 units 4. –7, 0 5. –9, 3 6. ±4 7. 2 : 7 8. 5 : 1
9. 7 10. 2 : 7 11. 1 : 1 12. (3, –10) 13. 6, 3 14. 24 sq. units 15. 0
III. Verty Short Answer Questions :
1. (0, –5) 2. IIIrd 3. 10 4. Yes 5. (–1, 1) 6. (–1, 0)
1
7. x1 ( y2 − y3 ) + x2 ( y3 − y1 ) + x3 ( y1 − y2 ) 8. P, Q and R are collinear
2
9. (2, 0) 10. (3, –10) 11. (–7, 0)12. x 2 + y 2

42 Mathematics - 10
 INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY
8

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The value of (sin 30° + cos 30°) – (sin 60° + cos 60°) is
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
tan 30°
2. The value of is
cot 60°
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 3 (d) 1
2 3
3. The value of (sin 45° + cos 45°) is
1 3
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) 1
2 2
4
4. If cos A = , then the value of tan A is
3 5 3 4 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 3 3
1
5. If sin A = , then the value of cot A is
2
1 3
(a) 3 (b) (c) (d) 1
3 2
6. The value of the expression cosec (75° + θ) – sec (15° – θ) – tan (55° + θ)
+ cot (35° – θ)] is
3
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d)
2
a
7. Given that sin θ = , then cos θ is equal to
b
b b b2 − a 2 a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
b2 − a 2 a b b − a2
2

8. If cos (α + β) = 0, then sin (α – β) can be reduced to

(a) cos β (b) cos 2β (c) sin α (d) sin 2 α
9. The value of tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° ... tan 89° is
1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d)
2
10. If cos 9α = sin 9α and α < 90°, then the value of tan 5α is
1
(a) (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 0
3
11. If ∆ ABC is right angled at C, then the value of cos (A + B) is
Real Numbers 43
 1 3
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d)
2 2
2 2 4
12. If sin A + sin A = 1, then the value of the expression (cos A + cos A) is
1
(a) 1 (b) (c) 2 (d) 3
2
1 1
13. Given that sin α = and cos β = , then the value of (α + β) is
2 2
(a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 90°

 sin 2 22° + sin 2 68° 

14. The value of the expression  + sin 2
63° + cos 63°sin 27° is

2 2
 cos 22° + cos 68° 
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0

 4 sin θ − cos θ 
15. If 4 tan θ = 3, then   is equal to
 4 sin θ + cos θ 
2 1 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 2 4
16. If sin θ – cos θ = 0, then the value of (sin4 θ + cos4 θ) is
3 1 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
4 2 4
17. sin (45° + θ) – cos (45° – θ) is equal to
(a) 2 cos θ (b) 0 (c) 2 sin θ (d) 1
18. The value of cos226° – sin2 64° is
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 0 (d) 2
19. If sec θ + tan θ = m, then tan θ is equal to
m2 − 1 m2 + 1 m2 − 1 m2 + 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2m 2m m m
sin θ
20. is equal to
1 + cos θ
1 + cos θ 1 − cos θ 1 + cos 2 θ 1 − sin 2 θ
(a) (b) (c) (d)
sin θ sin θ sin θ sin θ
21. If triangle ABC is right angled at C, then the value of sec (A + B) is [Cbse (sp) 2019]
2
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d) not defined
3
22. If sinθ + cosθ = 2 cosθ, (θ ≠ 90°), then the value of tanθ is [Cbse (sp) 2019]
(a) 2 −1 (b) 2 +1 (c) 2 (d) – 2

3
23. Given that sin α = and cos β = 0, then the value of β – α is [Cbse (sp) 2019]
2
(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 60° (d) 30°
21 ,
24. Given cot θ = then cosec θ =
20
44 Mathematics - 10
 21 29 20 29
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20 21 29 20
P
25. In the figure, tanP – cotR =
(a) –1 (b) 1 cm
12 13 cm

12
(c) 0 (d)
13 R Q

26. The value of cos267° – sin223° =

1
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 0 (d)
2
 Α + Β
27. A, B, and C are interior angles of ∆ABC, then cosec  =
 2 
C
(a) sin C (b) tan B (c) cos A (d) sec
2 2 2 2
28. If tan 2A = cot (A – 24°), then A =
(a) 32° (b) 35° (c) 37° (d) 38°
29. The value of sin233° + sin257° =
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 1 (d) 0
2
tan 36°
30. The value of =
cot 54°
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –2 (d) 3
31. If cosec2θ (1 + cosθ) (1 – cosθ) = k, then the value of k is
(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) 1 (d) 1
2
4
32. If tan A = , then sin A + cos A =
3
2 3 4 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 11 5
33. If ∆ACB is right angled at C and AB = 29 units, BC = 21 units, and ∠ABC = θ, then
sin2θ + cos2θ =
29 21
(a) (b) (c) 0 (d) 1
21 29
34. In right triangle ABC, right angled at B, if tan A = 1, then 2sin A.cos A =
1
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 0 (d)
2
35. In ∆OPQ, right angled at P, OP = 7 cm and OQ – PQ = 1 cm, then sin Q + cos Q =
7 24 31 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25 25 25 24
36. If 15 cot A = 8, then sec A =
8 17 15 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
17 8 8 15

Real Numbers 45
 P
37. In the given figure, ∆PQR is right-angled at Q, PQ = 3 cm,
PR = 6 cm. The value of ∠QPR – ∠PRQ =
(a) 15° (b) 30°

(c) 45° (d) 10° Q R

1 1
38. If sin(A – B) = ; cos(A + B) = , then sin(A + B) =
2 2
1 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
2 2 2

39. In ∆ABC, right-angled at B, AB = 5 cm A

BC
and ∠ACB = 30°, then =
AC
1 3
(a) (b)
2 2 B
30°
C
(c) 5 3 (d) 10 cm
1
40. If tan(A + B) = 3 and tan(A – B) = , then sec(A – B) =
3
3 2 1
(a) (b) (c) 3 (d)
2 3 3
41. If sin 3A = cos(A – 26°), then the value of A is
(a) 29° (b) 32° (c) 36° (d) 42°
42. If tan 2A = cot(A – 18°), then the value of A is
(a) 32° (b) 35° (c) 36° (d) 38°
43. If sec 4A = cosec(A – 20°), then measurement of ∠A =
(a) 19° (b) 21° (c) 22° (d) 26°

Β+C
44. If A, B and C are interior angles of a triangle ABC, then sin  =
 2 
(a) cosec A (b) tan A (c) sec A (d) cos A
2 2 2 2
45. secθ(1 – sinθ) (secθ + tanθ) =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) none of these
2
sin 2 52° + sin 2 38°
46. =
cos 2 26° + cos 2 64°
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) none of these
2
47. sin 72°.cos 18° + cos 72°. sin 18° =
(a) 1 (b) 1 – sin2θ (c) cos2θ (d) 0
48. 9 sec2θ – 9 tan2θ =
(a) 1 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 0
46 Mathematics - 10
 49. (1 + tanθ + secθ) (1 + cotθ – cosecθ) =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –1
1 + tan 2 θ
50. =
1 + cot 2 θ
(a) sec2θ (b) –1 (c) cot2θ (d) tan2θ
51. (secθ + tanθ) (1 – sinθ) =
(a) secθ (b) sinθ (c) cosecθ (d) cosθ
2
52. 2cos2θ +
1 + cot 2 θ
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 1
2
3 − tan θ
53. Simplified form of is
3 cosec θ − sec θ
(a) cosθ (b) sinθ (c) cosecθ (d) tanθ
2 sin 2 63° + 1 + 2 sin 2 27°
54. =
3 cos 2 17° − 2 + 3 cos 2 73°
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 3
2 2
cos 2 40° + cos 2 50°
55. cos(40° + θ) – sin(50° – θ) + =
sin 2 40° + sin 2 50°
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) none of these
2

56. If 3 tanθ = 3sinθ, then sin2θ – cos2θ =

1
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d)
2 3 3
sin θ 1 + cos θ
57. + =
1 + cos θ sin θ
(a) 2sinθ (b) 2cosθ (c) 2tanθ (d) 2cosecθ
a
58. If sinθ = , then tanθ =
a 2 + b2
(a) b (b) a (c) – a (d) –b
a b b a
cos θ cos θ
59. + =
1 − sin θ 1 + sin θ
(a) 2sinθ (b) 2cosθ (c) 2cosθ (d) 2secθ
sin θ − 2 sin 3 θ
60. =
2 cos3 θ − cos θ
1
(a) cotθ (b) tanθ (c) (d) secθ
sin θ
61. If tanθ + cotθ = 2, then tan1000θ + cot100θ =

Real Numbers 47
 1
(a) 100 (b) (c) –2 (d) 2
100
62. If sinθ + cosθ = 2 sin(90° – θ), then cot θ =
1
(a) 2 (b) 2–1 (c) 2 +1 (d)
2
63. If a cosθ – b sinθ = c, then a sinθ + b cosθ =
(a) ± a 2 + b2 + c2 (b) ± a 2 − b 2 + c 2 (c) ± a 2 − b2 − c2 (d) ± a 2 + b2 − c2
sin 50° cosec 40°
64. + – 4cos50°.cosec40° =
cos 40° sec 50°
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) –2 (d) 0
65. If cosθ + sinθ = 2 cosθ, then cosθ – sinθ =
1
(a) 2 tanθ (b) 2 cotθ (c) sinθ (d) 2 sinθ
2
p2 − 1
66. If secθ + tanθ = p, then =
p2 + 1
(a) tanθ (b) cosθ (c) sinθ (d) cosecθ
67. sin6θ + cos6θ + 3sin2θ.cos2θ =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –2
68. If sinθ + cosθ = 3 , then tanθ + cotθ =
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 2 (d) –2
3
69. If tanA = , then sinA.cosA =
4
11 13 12 17
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25 25 25 25
70. If 3 tanθ = 1, then sin2θ – cos2θ =
–1 1 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2
71. (1 + tan2θ) (1 – sinθ) (1 + sin2θ) =
(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) 1 (d) 2
72. If 2sin2θ – cos2θ = 2, then the value of θ is =
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 0° (d) 90°
cos 2 (45° + θ) + cos 2 (45° − θ)
73. =
tan(60° + θ).tan(30° − θ)
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –1
p2 − 1
74. If cosecθ + cotθ = p, then =
p2 + 1
(a) sinθ (b) tanθ (c) cosecθ (d) cosθ
75. If sinθ + 2cosθ = 1, then 2sinθ – cosθ =
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) –2 (d) 2

48 Mathematics - 10
 p2 + 1
76. If tanθ + secθ = p, then =
2p
(a) sinθ (b) cosθ (c) secθ (d) tanθ
sin 3 θ + cos3 θ
77. + sinθ.cosθ =
sin θ + cos θ
1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d)
2
sec θ − 1 sec θ + 1
78. + =
sec θ + 1 sec θ − 1
(a) 2 sinθ (b) 2 cosecθ (c) 2 tanθ (d) 2 secθ
(1 − cot θ)2
79. + 2 sinθ.cosθ =
cosec2 θ
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) –2
sin 43° cot 30°
80. 2 − − 2 sin 45° =
cos 47° tan 60°
(a) 2 (b) –1 (c) 1 (d) 0
2 2
sin 47°   cos 43° 
81.  + – 2 cos2 45° =
 cos 43°   sin 47° 
(a) –2 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 1
cos 80°
82. + 2 sin 59°.cosec 31° – 3tan 49° tan 41° =
sin 10°
3
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d) –1
2
83. cot4 θ – cosec4θ + cot2θ + cosec2θ =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) 2
1 1
84. If cot θ + = 2, then cot2θ + =
cot θ cot 2 θ
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) –1 (d) –2
85. If sin θ + cos θ = 1, then the value of sin θ.cos θ =
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) –1 (d) 2
86. If sin θ + cosec θ = 2, then the value of sin2θ + cosec2θ =
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 3 (d) 2

cosec2 θ − cot 2 θ 7
87. If 4 sin θ = 3 and 2 + 2cotθ = + cos θ, then the value of x is
sec θ − 1 x
1 5 4 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 4
15 (2 + 2 sin θ)(1 − sin θ)
88. If cot θ = , then =
8 (1 + cos θ)(2 − 2 cos θ)
25 64 225 225
(a) (b) (c) (d) –
64 225 64 64
89. 5 tan2 θ – 5 sec2 θ =
(a) –5 (b) 5 (c) 0 (d) 1

Real Numbers 49
 3
90. If cosec θ = , then the value of 2(cosec2 θ + cot2 θ) =
2
7
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d)
5
2 , cosec2 θ − sec2 θ
91. If tan θ = then =
5 cosec2 θ + sec2 θ
1 5 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 7 9 9
2 2 2 2
92. If cosec θ – sin θ = a, sec θ – cos θ = b, then a b (a + b + 3) =
(a) 3 (b) –3 (c) 1 (d) –1
93. sec4 θ (1 – sin2 θ) – 2tan4 θ =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) none of these
94. cot 18°.cot 39°.cot 51°.cot 60°.cot 72° =
2 1
(a) 3 (b) (c) (d) 1
3 3
2 2
 x 3  y 3
95. If x = a cos3θ, y = b sin3θ, then   +   =
a b
1 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
3 3 2
sin 43° cot 30°
96. 2 − – 2 sin 45° =
cos 47° tan 60°
(a) 2 (b) –2 (c) 2 (d) 0
1 2 tan θ
97. If tan 30° = , then, using tan2θ = , the value of tan 60° =
3 1 − tan 2 θ
1
(a) (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) not defined
3
98. [cos(90° – θ) + sin(90° – θ)]2 + [sin(90° – θ) – cos(90° – θ)]2 =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –1
cos(90° − θ).cos θ
99. + cos2(90° – θ) =
tan θ
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 0 (d) none of these
2 2
 sin 47°   cos 43° 
100.  + – 4cos2 45° =
 cos 43°   sin 47° 
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) –1

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

3 1
1. If sin A = , then tan A + = ______________
5 cos A

7,
2. If cos θ = then the value of tan θ + cot θ = ___________
25

50 Mathematics - 10
 13 ,
3. If cosec θ = then the value of cot θ + tan θ = ___________
12
3,
4. If sin θ = then the value of 2cot2 θ –1 = ___________
2
1 ,
5. If tan θ = then 7 sin2 θ + 3 cos2 θ = _____________
3
6. In a right triangle PQR, right angled at Q, if tan P = 1, then, 2 sin P. cos P = _______
7. If cos A = cos 60°.cos 30° + sin 60°.sin 30°, then the value of A = _________.
1 ,
8. If A and B are acute angle such that tan (A + B) = 3 and tan (A – B) = then
A + B = __________ 3

9. If 3 tan2 A – 1 = 0 (0° < A < 90°), then A = _________.

10. If 3 cot 2A = 1, [0° < A < 90°], then A = __________.

5
11. If cosec θ = , then 5 sin θ – 3 tan θ = ___________.
4
12. If cos x = cos 60°.cos 30° + sin 60°.sin 30°, then x = ___________.
13. If 3 sin θ + 5 cos θ = 5, then 5 sin θ – 3 cos θ = _________
2  2 1 
14. If cosec θ = 2x and cot θ = , then 2  x − 2  = ___________
x  x 
2  1 
15. If 2x = sec θ and = tan θ, then  x 2 − 2  = ___________
x  x 
x y x y x2 y 2
16. If sin θ – cos θ = 1 and cos θ + sin θ = 1, then 2 + 2 = _________.
a b a b a b
17. If 5 sin θ + 7 cos θ = 7, then 7 sin θ – 5 cos θ = ___________.
18. If cos θ + cos2 θ = 1, then the value of sin2 θ + sin4 θ = _____________
19. If 7 sin2 θ + 3 cos2 θ = 4, then tan θ = _____________
20. (sin4 θ – cos4 θ + 1) cosec2 θ = ___________
cos 70° cos 59°
21. + – 8 sin2 30° = ___________
sin 20° sin 31°
22. cot 1°.cot 2°.cot 3° ..... cot 89° = __________
23. If xsin (90° – θ). cot(90° – θ) = cos(90° – θ), then x = _____________
 sec2 59° − cot 2 31°  2 2 2 x
24. If 4   – 3 sin 90° + 3 tan 56°.tan 34° = 3, then x = ____________
 3 
25. (sec 13° – cot 77°) (sec 13° + cot 77°) = _________

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Find the value of sin A sec A cot A.

Real Numbers 51
 2
2. Find the value of (1 + tan θ) .
sec2 θ
3
3. If sin A = , then find the value of cos A + sec A.
5
4. If θ ≤ 0° ≤ 90°, then what is the minimum value of sin θ.
1 1
5. As we know, can always be written as x–1, x ≠ 0. Can we also write as sin–1A?
x sin Α
6. Find the value of 2sin 30° cos 30°.
7. Find the value of cos 45° sin 30° + cos 30° sin 45°.
5
8. Can sin θ be equal to
for some angle θ?
3
5
9. Can tan θ be equal to for some angle θ?
3
sin 44°
10. Evaluate + tan 45°.
cos 46°
11. Express tan 72° + sin 69° in terms of t-ratios of angles between 0° and 45°.
12. Find the value of 4 sec2 θ – 4 tan2 θ
13. Evaluate sin2 60° + 2 tan 45° – cos2 30°. [Cbse 2019]
3
14. If sin A = , find sec A. [Cbse 2019]
4
15. Find A if tan 2A = cot(A – 24°). [Cbse 2019]
16. Find the value of (sin2 33° + sin2 57°) [Cbse 2019]
17. Find the value of (cos2 67° – sin2 23°) [Cbse 2018]

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c)
8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b)
15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (d)
22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (d)
29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (c)
36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (c) 44 (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (c)
50. (d) 51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c)
57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (d)
64. (c) 65 (d) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (b)
78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (d) 81. (d) 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (b)
85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (c) 91. (c)
92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (d) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (c)
99. (a) 100. (b)

52 Mathematics - 10
 II. Fill in the Blanks :
625 –1
1. 2 2. 3. 169 4. 5. 4
168 60 3
6. 1 7. 30° 8. 60° 9. 30° 10. 30°
11. 0 12. 30° 13. ± 3 14. 1 15. 1
2 4
1
16. 2 17. ± 5 18. 1 19. 20. 2
3
21. 0 22. 1 23. 1 24. 11 25. 1
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
41
1. 1 2. 1 3. 4. 0 5. no
20
3 2 +1
6. 7. 8. no 9. yes 10. 2
2 2 2
4
11. cot 18° + cos 21° 12. 4 13. 2 14.
7
15. 38° 16. 1 17. 0

Real Numbers 53
 SOME APPLICATIONS OF
9 TRIGONOMETRY

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If a pole 6 m high, casts a shadow 2 3 m long on the ground, then the Sun’s elevation
is :
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 90°
2. A tree broken by a wind touches the ground at a distance of 10 m from the foot of the
tree. If the height of the tree is 30 m and that of the broken portion 20 m, then the angle
which the broken part makes with the ground is :
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 15°
3. The angle of elevation of a cloud, from a point 10 m above a lake is 45°. The angle of
depression of its reflection in the lake is 60°. The horizontal distance from the point to
the cloud is :
20 3
(a) 3 m (b) (10 3 – 1) m (c) 10 ( 3 + 1) m (d) m
3
4. The angle of elevation of a plane 2x units above the ground from a point x units above
the ground is q. At this moment, the angle of depression of a point on the ground just
below the plane will be :
(a) sin (45° – q) (b) cot (45° – q) (c) 2q (d) q
5. If the angles of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from two points A and B on the
ground are respectively 30° and 60°, then the ratio of the distances of A and B from the
upper end of the tower is
(a) 3 :1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 + 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 − 1
6. A tower stands vertically on the ground. From a point on the ground, which is 15 m away
from the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to be
60°, then the height of the tower is :
25
(a) 6 3 m (b) 15 3 m (c) 18 m (d) m
3
7. The length of the shadow cast by a rod is equal to length of the rod. Then the angle of
elevation of the Sun is :
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
8. A bridge, in the shape of a straight path, across a river, makes an angle of 60° with the
width of the river. If length of the bridge is 100 metres, then the width of the river is :
(a) 50 m (b) 175.5 m (c) 92 m (d) 100 m
9. An observer 1.5 metres tall is 18.5 metres away from the tower. If the angle of elevation

54 Mathematics - 10
 of the top of the tower from his eye is 45°, the height of the tower is :
(a) 15 m (b) 20 m (c) 8.5 m (d) 25.6 m
10. An electrician has to repair an electric fault on a pole of height 4 m. He needs to reach
a point 1.3 m below the top of the pole to undertake the repair work. Then the length of
the ladder which should be used, inclined at an angle of 60° to the horizontal to reach
the required position is :
3 9 3 25 3
(a) 10 3 m (b) m (c) m (d) m
5 5 10
11. The shadow of a tower, standing on a level ground, is found to be 40 m longer when
Sun’s altitude is 30° than when it was 60°. Then height of the tower is :
(a) 20 m (b) 10 3 m (c) 10 m (d) 20 3 m
12. The angles of depression of the top and bottom of an 8m tall building from the top of
a multi-storeyed building are 30° and 45° respectively. The height of the multistoreyed
building is :
(
(a) 4 3 + 5 m ) ( )
(b) 4 3 3 +1 m (c) 6 3 m (
(d) 9 3 + 3 m )
13. From a point on a bridge across a river, the angles of depression of the banks on opposite
sides of the river are 30° and 45° respectively. If bridge is at the height of 30 m from the
bank, then the width of the river is :
(a) 90 m (b) 30 3 m (
(c) 30 3 +1 m ) (
(d) 25 3 − 1 m )
14. The angles of depression of two ships from the top of a lighthouse are 45° and 30° towards
east. If the ships are 100 m apart, the height of the lighthouse is :
20
(a)
( 3 +1 )
m (b)
(
20
3 −1
m
) (
(c) 50 3 − 1 m ) (
(d) 50 3 +1 m )
15. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 200 m above a lake is 30° and the angle
of depression of its reflection in the lake is 60°, then the height of the cloud above the
lake, is :
(a) 100 m (b) 200 m (c) 400 m (d) 500 m
16. The angle of elevation of the sun when the shadow of a pole h metres high is 3 h metres,
then the angle of elevation is : [Ncert (ep)]
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) None of these
17. A ladder 15 metres long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an
angle of 60° with the wall, then the height of the wall is : [Ncert (ep)]
13 15 17 15
(a) m (b) m (c) m (d) m
2 2 2 3
18. An observer 1.5 metres tall is 20.5 metres away from a tower 22 metres high the angle
of elevation of the top of the tower from the eye of the observer is : [Ncert (ep)]
(a) 45° (b) 60° (c) 30° (d) None of these
19. From a balloon vertically above a straight road, the angles of depression of two cars at
an instant are found to be 45° and 60°. If the cars are 100 m apart, then the height of the
balloon is : [Ncert (ep)]
(a) 20 (3 + 3 ) m (b) 50 (3 + 3 ) m (c) 70 (3 + 3 ) m (d) (3 + 3 ) m

Real Numbers 55
 E
20. In the figure, what are the angles of depression from the D

observing positions D and E of the object A. 60°

(a) 30°, 45° (b) 60°, 45°

(c) 45°, 60° (d) None of these C
45°
A
B
21. The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is 1 : 3 . The angle of elevation of the
sun is :
(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) None of these
22. What is the angle of elevation of the sun when the length of the shadow of a vertical pole
is equal to its height?
(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) None of these
23. If the ratio of the height of a tower and the length of its shadow is 3 : 1. What is the
angle of elevation of the sun?
(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) None of these
24. If the angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of 4 m and
9 m from the base of the tower and in the same straight line with it are complementary,
then the height of the tower is :
(a) 10 m (b) 6 m (c) 8 m (d) none of these
25. The height of the tower is 10 m, what is the length of its shadow when sun’s altitude is
45°?
(a) 10 m (b) 30 m (c) 20 m (d) none of these
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d)
9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a)
17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (a)

56 Mathematics - 10
 10 CIRCLES

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q
1. In the figure, PQ is a chord of circle and PT is the tangent at O
P such that ∠QPT = 60°, then ∠POQ is equal to:
(a) 135° (b) 150° 60° R
T
(c) 120° (d) 110° P
2. If the radii of two concentric circles are 4 cm and 5 cm, then the length of each chord
of one circle which is tangent to the other circle is:
(a) 3 cm (b) 6 cm A

(c) 9 cm (d) 1 cm

3. In the figure, if ∠AOB = 125°, then ∠COD is equal to : B

125°
(a) 62.5° (b) 45° O
(c) 35° (d) 55°
D C
4. In the figure, AB is a chord of circle and AOC is its diameter such C
that ∠ACB = 50°. If AT is the tangent to the circle at the point A,
50°
then ∠BAT is equal to B
(a) 65° (b) 60° O

(c) 50° (d) 40°

5. If the angle between two radii of a circle is 130°, then the angle A T
between the tangents at the ends of the radii is :
(a) 90° (b) 50° (c) 70° (d) 40°
6. In the figure, the pair of tangents AP and AQ drawn from an external Q
point A to a circle with centre O are perpendicular to each other and cm
5
length of each tangent is 5 cm. Then radius of the circle is: A O

(a) 10 cm (b) 7.5 cm

P
(c) 5 cm (d) 2.5 cm
7. If two tangents, inclined at an angle of 60° are drawn to a circle of radius 3 cm, then
length of each tangent is equal to

Real Numbers 57
 3
(a) 3 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 3 3 cm
2
A B
8. In the figure, if PQR is the tangent to a circle at Q whose
centre is O. AB is a chord parallel to PR and ∠BQR = 70°,
O
then ∠AQB is equal to:
(a) 20° (b) 40°
70°
(c) 35° (d) 45° P Q R
9. From a point P which is at a distance of 13 cm from the centre
O of a circle of radius 5 cm, the pair of tangents PQ and PR to the circle are drawn. Then
the area of the quadrilateral PQOR is:
(a) 60 cm2 (b) 65 cm2 (c) 30 cm2 (d) 32 cm2
10. At one end A of a diameter AB of a circle of radius 5 cm, tangent XAY is drawn to the
circle. The length of the chord CD parallel to XY and at a distance 8 cm from A is:
(a) 4 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 8 cm
11. In the figure, AT is a tangent to the circle with centre O such
that OT = 4 cm and ∠OTA = 30°. Then AT is equal to:
(a) 4 cm (b) 2 cm O
4c
m
(c) 2 3 cm (d) 4 3 cm 30°
T
A
12. In the figure, if O is the centre of a circle. PQ is a chord and P
the tangent PR at P makes an angle of 50° with PQ, then ∠POQ R
is equal to:
(a) 100° (b) 80° O
(c) 90° (d) 75° Q

13. In the figure, if PA and PB are tangents to the circle with A

centre O such that ∠APB = 50°, then ∠OAB is equal to:
(a) 25° (b) 30° P 50° O
(c) 40° (d) 50°
14. If tangents PA and PB from a point P to a circle with centre B
O are inclined to each other at an angle of 80°, then ∠POA is equal to:
(a) 50° (b) 60° (c) 70° (d) 80°
15. In TP and TQ are two tangents to a circle with centre O so that ∠POQ = 110°, then
∠PTQ is equal to:
(a) 25° (b) 70° (c) 40° (d) 50°
16. PQ is a tangent to a circle with centre O at the point P. If ∠OPQ is an isosceles triangle,
then ∠OQP is equal to:
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
17. Two circles touch each other externally at C and AB is a common tangent to the circles.
Then ∠APB is equal to
(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 90°

58 Mathematics - 10
 18. ABC is a right triangle, right angled at B such that BC = 6 cm and AB = 8 cm. A circle
with centre O is inscribed in DABC. The radius of the circle is:
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 4 cm
19. PQ is a tangent drawn from a point P to a circle with centre O and QOR is a diameter
of the circle such that ∠POR = 120°, then ∠OPQ is:
(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 90°
20. If four sides of quadrilateral ABCD are tangential to a circle, then:
(a) AC + AD = BD + CD (b) AB + CD = AC + BD
(c) AB + CD = AC + BC (d) AC + AD = BC + DB
A D
21. In the figure, if O is the centre of the circle and
135°
∠AOD = 135°, then ∠BOC =
O
(a) 60° (b) 55°
(c) 50° (d) 45° B C

22. In the figure, O is the centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and PT is the tangent P
at P. If ∠POQ = 70°, then ∠TPQ = T
(a) 25° (b) 30° Q O
(c) 28.5° (d) 35°

23. In the figure, O is the centre of the circle, AB is a chord and AT is the A
tangent at point A. If ∠AOB = 100°, then ∠BAT = T
(a) 30° (b) 40° O
(c) 50° (d) 100° B

24. Point P is 26 cm away from the centre O of a circle and the length PT of the tangent
drawn from P to the circle is 24 cm. The radius of the circle is :
(a) 7 cm (b) 9 cm
(c) 10 cm (d) 12 cm
P
25. In the figure, TP and TQ are two tangents to a circle with centre O
T 110° O
such that, ∠POQ = 110°, the value of ∠PTQ is : [Cbse (sp) 2019]
(a) 60° (b) 65° Q
(c) 70° (d) 75°
B
26. In the figure, AB is the diameter of a circle with centre O and AT is a
tangent. If ∠AOQ = 60°, then ∠ATQ = O
60
(a) 60° (b) 50.5° ° Q

(c) 49° (d) 30° A T

A
27. In the figure, AOB is a diameter of a circle with centre O
and AC is a tangent to the circle at A. If ∠BOC = 130°, then
O C
∠ACO =
(a) 35° (b) 38° B
(c) 120° (d) 40°
Real Numbers 59
 28. In the figure, CP and CQ are tangents to a circle with centre O. P A
ARB is another tangent touching the circle at R. If CP = 11 cm and
BC = 7 cm, then the length of BR is : O R C
(a) 3.5 cm (b) 4 cm B
Q
(c) 3 cm (d) 11 cm

A
29. In the figure, PA and PB are two tangents from an external point P
to a circle with centre O. If ∠PBA = 65°, then ∠OAB : P O
(a) 15° (b) 25° 65°

(c) 35° (d) 45° B

A
30. In the figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O.
If ∠APB = 60°, then ∠OAB :
P O
(a) 40° (b) 30°
(c) 25° (d) 20° B

31. Two concentric circles are of radii 7 cm and r cm respectively, where r > 7. A chord of
the larger circle of length 48 cm touches the smaller circle, then the value of r is :
(a) 30 cm (b) 28 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 20 cm
A
32. Tangents PA and PB are drawn from an external point P to
two concentric circles with centre O and radii 8 cm and 5 cm O P
respectively, as shown in the figure. If AP = 15 cm, then the
length of BP is : B

(a) 2 33 (b) 2 66 (c) 2 11 (d) 2 35

33. PA and PB are two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle with centre C and
radius 4 cm. If PA ⊥ PB, then find the length of each tangent
(a) 4 cm (b) 3 cm
(c) 3.5 cm (d) None of these
A
34. In the figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O
such that ∠APB = 50°, then the measure of ∠OAB =
P 50° O
(a) 37° (b) 36°
(c) 50° (d) 25° B

35. Tangents PQ and PR are drawn from an external point P to a

circle with centre O, such that ∠RPQ = 30°. A chord RS is drawn S R
parallel to the tangent PQ. Then ∠RQS = O
(a) 40° (b) 30°
30°
P
(c) 25° (d) 20° Q

36. In the figure, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is Q

a tangent. If ∠QPT = 60°, then ∠PRQ = O
(a) 130° (b) 120° R

(c) 110° (d) 100° P T

60 Mathematics - 10
 T
37. In the figure, O is the centre of the circle. PT and PQ are tangents
to the circle from an external point P. If ∠TPQ = 70°, then ∠TRQ
R P
is : O 70°

(a) 60° (b) 58.5°

Q
(c) 55° (d) 50°
P
38. In the figure, PA and PB are tangents to a circle with centre O, such that
AP = 5 cm and ∠APB = 60°, then the length of chord AB is :
(a) 9 cm (b) 5 cm A B
O
(c) 4.5 cm (d) 4 cm

P
39. In the figure, PQ is a tangent at a point C to a circle with centre O. If
AB is a diameter and ∠CAB = 30°, then ∠PCA = C
(a) 60° (b) 58° B
Q
(c) 57° (d) 56° A O

40. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the A C

circle from an external point P. CD is another tangent
touching the circle at Q. If PA = 12 cm, QC = QD = Q P
3 cm, then PC + PD is :
(a) 22 cm (b) 20 cm B D
(c) 19 cm (d) 18 cm
41. In the figure, AB is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius A
5 cm. The tangents to the circle at A and B intersect at P. The
length of AP is : O
8
cm P
R
13 20
(a) 20 cm (b) 3 cm B
20 3
(c) 13 cm (d) 20 cm

42. In the figure, tangents PA and PB from a point P to a circle A

with centre O are inclined to each other at an angle of 80°, 80°
then ∠POA is : O P
(a) 30° (b) 40°
(c) 50° (d) 60°
D
43. In the given figure, if AD = 16 cm, CF = 9 cm and BE = 8 cm, then A B
perimeter of the triangle is :
(a) 60 cm (b) 62 cm F
E
(c) 64 cm (d) 66 cm
C
A
44. ABC is a right triangle right angled at B with BC = 3 cm and
AB = 4 cm. A circle with centre O and radius x cm has been
inscribed in ∆ABC. The value of x is : F
4 cm x
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm x
D O
(c) 3 cm (d) 4 cm x
C
B E
3 cm
Real Numbers 61
 45. The length of the tangent drawn to a circle of radius 7 cm from a point 25 cm away from
the centre is :
(a) 22 cm (b) 23 cm (c) 24 cm (d) 25 cm
46. In a circle with centre O, PA and PB are the tangents to the circle. If ∠AOB = 125°, then
∠APB is :
(a) 55° (b) 60° (c) 65° (d) 65.5°

47. If all the sides of a parallelogram touch a circle, then the parallelogram is a :
(a) a rectangle (b) a rhombus (c) a square (d) None
48. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and TP is P
the tangent to the circle from an external point T. If ∠PBT
= 30°, then ∠PAT is : B 30° T
O A
(a) 80° (b) 110°
(c) 120° (d) 135°
49. If an external point of a circle is at a distance equal to the diameter of the circle from
the centre of the circle, the length of the tangent drawn from the external point is :
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) 5r (d) 3r
50. In the given figure, AB is a chord of length 16 cm of a circle of
A
radius 10 cm. The tangents at A and B intersect at a point P. The
length of PA is :
P O
20 31
(a) cm (b) cm
3 3 B
40 50
(c) cm (d) cm
3 3
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. At most two circles can intersect in ___________ points.
2. The tangent of a circle intersect the circle at ___________ point.
3. The tangent to a circle is a special case of the ____________.
4. At most, a circle can have _____________ parallel tangents.
5. The tangent of a circle is said to ___________ the circle at the point of contact.
6. The line containing the radius through the point of contact is also known as _________
to the circle at the point.
7. There are ___________ tangents to a circle passing through a point lying inside the circle.
8. The tangent at any point of a circle is __________ to the radius through the point of
contact.
9. A circle can have ___________ parallel secants.
10. A line can intersect a circle at the most at ___________ points.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. If the angle between two radii of a circle is 130°, then find the angle between the tangents
at the ends of the radii.
2. The pair of tangents AP and AQ are drawn from an external point A to a circle with centre
O. If AP ⊥ AQ and AP = 5 cm, find the radius of the circle.
3. The angle between two tangents to a circle may be 0°. Is it true?
4. The tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel. Is it true?
62 Mathematics - 10
 5. In a circle of radius 7 cm, tangent PT is drawn from a point P such that PT = 24 cm. If
O is the centre of the circle, then find the length of OP.
6. A point P is 17 cm away from the centre of a circle and the length of tangent drawn from
P to the circle is 15 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
7. Find the length of the tangent drawn from a point whose distance from the centre of a
circle is 20 cm and the radius of the circle is 16 cm.
8. If the angle between two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle of radius a
and centre O is 60°, then find the length of OP.

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (c)
12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (d)
23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a)
34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a)
45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (c)
II. Fill in the Blanks :
1. 2 2. only one 3. secant 4. 2 5. touch
6. normal 7. 0 8. perpendicular 9. infinite 10. 2
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
1. 50° 2. 5 cm 3. Yes 4. Yes 5. 25 cm 6. 8 cm 7. 12 cm 8. 2a

Real Numbers 63
 12 AREAS RELATED TO CIRCLES

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If the area of a circle is 154 cm2, then its perimeter is:
(a) 11 cm (b) 22 cm (c) 44 cm (d) 55 cm
2. If q is the angle (in degrees) of a sector of a circle of radius r, then area of the sector is:
πr 2θ πr 2θ 2π r θ
(a) (b) (c) 2π r θ (d)
360 180 360 180
3. If the sum of the areas of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the area of a circle
of radius R, then
(a) R1 + R2 = R (b) R12 + R22 = R2
(c) R1 + R2 < R (d) R12 + R22 < R2
4. If the sum of the circumferences of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the
circumference of a circle of radius R, then
(a) R1 + R2 = R
(b) R1 + R2 > R
(c) R1 + R2 < R
(d) Nothing definite can be said about the relation among R1, R2 and R.
5. If the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square are equal, then
(a)Area of the circle = Area of the square
(b)Area of the circle > Area of the square
(c)Area of the circle < Area of the square
(d)Nothing definite can be said about the relation between the areas of the circle and
square.
6. Area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r units is:
(a) r2 sq. units (b) 1 r2 sq. units (c) 2r2 sq. units (d) 2 r 2 sq. units
2
7. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is
(a) 22 : 7 (b) 14 : 11 (c) 7 : 22 (d) 55 cm
8. It is proposed to build a single circular park equal in area to the sum of the areas of two
circular parks of diameters 16 m and 12 m in a locality. The radius of the new park would
be:
(a) 10 m (b) 15 m (c) 20 m (d) 24 m
9. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 6 cm is:
64 Mathematics - 10
 (a) 36 p cm2 (b) 18 p cm2 (c) 12 p cm2 (d) 9 p cm2
10. The area of the square that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 8 cm is:
(a) 256 cm2 (b) 128 cm2 (c) 64 2 cm 2 (d) 64 cm2
11. The radius of a circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of the circumferences of
the two circles of diameter 36 cm and 20 cm is:
(a) 56 cm (b) 42 cm (c) 28 cm (d) 16 cm
12. The diameter of a circle whose area is equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles of
radii 24 cm and 7 cm is :
(a) 31 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 62 cm (d) 50 cm
13. If the perimeter of a semi-circular protractor is 36 cm, then its diameter is:
(a) 8 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 14 cm (d) 18 cm
14. If the radius of a circle is 3.5 cm, then the perimeter of the semicircle is:
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 20 cm
15. The perimeter of a quadrant of a circle of radius 7 is:
2
(a) 6.5 cm (b) 12.5 cm (c) 8.5 cm (d) 4.5 cm
16. The diameters of two circles are 38 cm and 18 cm. Then, the diameter of the circle having
circumference equal to the sum of circumferences of the two circles, is:
(a) 56 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 48 cm (d) 52 cm
17. If the circumference of a circle exceeds its diameter by 16.8 cm, then the radius of the
circle is:
(a) 4.92 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 5.5 cm (d) 3.82 cm
18. If the difference between the circumference and radius of a circle is 37 cm, then
circumference (in cm) of the circles is:
(a) 155 (b) 44 (c) 10 (d) 14
19. The distance (in meters) covered by a wheel of diameter 35 cm, in one revolution is:
(a) 2.2 (b) 1.1 (c) 9 (d) 8.2
20. If the circumference of a circle is 44 cm, then, the area of the circle is:
(a) 270 cm2 (b) 48 cm2 (c) 170 cm2 (d) 154 cm2
21. If the perimeter and area of a circle are numerically equal, then the radius of the circle
is:
(a) 2 units (b) p units (c) 6 units (d) 8 units
22. Area of a sector of a circle with radius R and central angle p is:
p p p p
(a) × 2πR (b) × 2πR 2 (c) × 2πR (d) × 2πR 2
180° 180° 360° 720°
23. If a rectangle of sides 6 cm and 8 cm is inscribed in a circle, then area of a circle excluding
the rectangle is:
(a) 4 cm2 (b) 30.57 cm2 (c) 30 cm2 (d) 48 cm2
24. A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km, then diameter of the wheel is:
(a) 40 cm (b) 108 cm (c) 70 cm (d) 9 cm
Real Numbers 65
 25. A copper wire, when bent in the form of a square, encloses an area 484 cm2. If the same
wire is bent in the form of a circle, then the area enclosed is:
(a) 616 cm2 (b) 600 cm2 (c) 650 cm2 (d) 160 cm2

26. If the perimeter and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then the radius of the circle =
(a) 3 units (b) 2 units (c) 1.5 units (d) 1 unit
27. The area of a quadrant of a circle, where the circumference of circle is 44 cm is :
(a) 32.5 cm2 (b) 35.5 cm2 (c) 36.5 cm2 (d) 38.5 cm2
28. The perimeter (in cm) of a square circumscribing a circle of a radius a cm is :
(a) 6a cm (b) 7a cm (c) 8a cm (d) 10a cm
29. If the area of a circle is equal to sum of the areas of two circles of diameters 10 cm and
24 cm, then the diameter of the large circle (in cm)
(a) 24 cm (b) 26 cm (c) 28 cm (d) 30 cm

30. In the figure, OABC is a square of side 7 cm. If OAPC is a quadrant C B

of a circle with centre O, then the area of the shaded region is :
P
(a) 17 cm2 (b) 19 cm2
2 2 O A
(c) 21 cm2 (d) 23 cm2
2 2
31. From a rectangular sheet of paper ABCD with AB = 40 cm and AD = 28, a semi-circular
portion with BC as diameter is cut off. Then the area of the remaining paper :
(a) 612 cm2 (b) 732 cm2 (c) 812 cm2 (d) 902 cm2

32. Two circular pieces of equal radii and maximum area, touching each other are cut from a
rectangular cardboard of dimensions 14 cm, 7 cm . Then the area of the remaining card
board is :
(a) 17 cm2 (b) 19 cm2 (c) 21 cm2 (d) 23 cm2

33. In the figure, the area of the shaded region, enclosed between two
concentric circles of radii 7 cm and 14 cm, where, ∠AOC = 40° is : O
40°
(a) 1232 cm2 (b) 1532 cm2
3 3 B D
C
(c) 1792 cm2 (d) 1798 cm2
A

3 3
A 21 cm B
34. In the given figure, ABCD is rectangle of dimensions 21 cm ×
14 cm. A semi-circle is drawn with BC as diameter. The perimeter
14 cm

of the shaded region is :

(a) 80 cm (b) 79 cm D C

(c) 78 cm (d) 77 cm

66 Mathematics - 10
 35. In the figure, a square OABC is inscribed in a quadrant OPBQ of a Q
C B
circle. If OA = 20 cm, the area of the shaded region is :
(a) 226 cm2 (b) 230 cm2
(c) 228 cm2 (d) 215 cm2
O P
A

36. The area of the major segment APB of a circle of radius 35 cm and P
AOB = 90° is :
(a) 2400 cm2 (b) 2600 cm2 O

(c) 2900 cm2 (d) 3500 cm2 90°

A B

37. In the figure, ABC is the quadrant of a circle of radius 14 cm and a B

semi-circle is drawn with BC as the diameter. The area of the shaded
region = D

(a) 106 cm2 (b) 100 cm2

(c) 98 cm2 (d) 90 cm2 A C

38. In the figure, the side of square is 28 cm and radius of each circle is half O
of the length of the side of the square, where O and O' are centres of the
circles. The area of the shaded region =
(a) 1205 cm2 (b) 1508 cm2
O
(c) 1708 cm2 (d) 1928 cm2

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The perimeter of a circle is also known as its ______________.
2. The perimeter of a semi-circle of radius r is given by ____________.
3. For a circle the ratio of circumference to diameter is called _____________.
4. Length of an arc of a sector of a circle of radius r and angle 100° is ____________.
5. Area of the sector of a circle of diameter 4r and angle θ is given by ___________.
6. The perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius r and central angle θ is __________.
7. Area of a ring with outer and inner radii R and r respectively is ___________.
8. If the areas of two circles are equal, then their circumferences are ____________.
9. Area of minor segment of a circle of radius r with central angle θ is given by __________.
10. The circumference of a circle is 100 cm. The side of a square inscribed in the circle is
___________.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Find the area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 50 cm.
2. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. Find the area swept by minute hand
in 10 minutes.
3. Find the diameter of a circle whose area is equal to the sum of areas of the two circles
of radii 40 cm and 9 cm.
4. If the area and circumference of a circle are numerically equal, then find the diameter of
Real Numbers 67
 the circle.
5. Find the area of a circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 14 cm.
6. Two parallel lines touch a circle at points P and Q. If the area of the circle is 25π cm2,
find the length of PQ.
7. A path of width 7 m runs around a circular park whose radius is 18 cm. Find the area of
the path.
8. Find the ratio of area of a circle circumscribing a square of side 5 cm to the area of a
circle inscribed in the same square.
9. A wire of length 110 cm is bent to form a circle. Find the radius of the circle so formed.
10. Find the diameter of the circle whose area is equal to the sum of the areas of two circles
of diameter 20 cm and 48 cm.

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a)
9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a)
17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (c)
33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (c)
II. Fill in the Blanks :
πr2×θ
1. Circumference 2. πr + 2r 3. π 4. 5πr 5.
9 90°
πrθ πr2θ 1 2 50 2
6. 2r + 7. π(R2 – r2) 8. equal 9. – r sin θ 10.
180° 360° 2
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
308
1. 154 cm2 2. cm2 3. 82 cm 4. 4 units 5. 154 cm2
3
6. 10 cm 7. 946 cm2 8. 2 : 1 9. 17.5 cm 10. 52 cm

68 Mathematics - 10
 13 SURFACE AREAS AND VOLUMES

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A funnel (see fig.) is the combination of:
(a) a cone and a cylinder frustum of cone and a cylinder
(b) frustum of a cone and a cylinder
(c) a hemisphere and a cylinder
(d) a hemisphere and a cone
2. If a marble of radius 2.1 cm is put into a cylindrical cup full of water of radius 5 cm and
height 6 cm, then how much water flows out of the cylindrical cup?
(a) 38.8 cm3 (b) 55.4 cm3 (c) 19.4 cm3 (d) 471.4 cm3
3. A cubic ice cream brick of edge 22 cm is to be distributed among some children by filling
ice cream cones of radius 2 cm and height 7 cm upto its brim. How many children will
get the ice cream cones ?
(a) 163 (b) 263 (c) 363 (d) 463
4. The radii of the ends of frustum of a cone of height h cm are r1 cm and r2 cm. The
volume in cm3 of the frustum of the cone is
1 1
(a) πh[r12 + r22 + r1r2 ] (b) πh[r12 + r22 − r1r2 ]
3 3
1 1
(c) πh[r12 − r22 + r1r2 ] (d) πh[r12 − r22 − r1r2 ]
3 3
5. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of edge 4.2
cm is:
(a) 9.7 cm3 (b) 77.6 cm3 (c) 58.2 cm3 (d) 19.4 cm3
6. A cylindrical pencil sharpened at one edge is the combination of:
(a) a cone and a cylinder
(b) frustum of a cone and a cylinder
(c) a hemisphere and a cylinder
7. A surahi (see fig.) is the combination of:
(a) a sphere and a cylinder (b) a hemisphere and a cylinder
(c) two hemisphere (d) a cylinder and a cone.

Real Numbers 69
 8. A plumbline (sahul) is the combination of (see figure)
(a) a cone and a cylinder
(b) a hemisphere and a cone
(c) frustum of a cone and a cylinder
(d) sphere and cylinder

9. The shape of a glass (tumbler) (see fig.) is usually in the form of:
(a) a cone
(b) frustum of a cone
(c) a cylinder
(d) a sphere
10. The shape of a gilli, in the gilli-danda game (see fig.), is a combination of:
(a) two cylinder
(b) a cone and a cylinder
(c) two cones and a cylinder
(d) two cylinders and a cone
11. A shuttle cock used for playing badminton has the shape of the combination of:
(a) a cylinder and a sphere (b) a cylinder and a hemisphere
(c) a sphere and a cone (d) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere
12. A cone is cut through a plane parallel to its base and then the cone that is formed on
one side of that plane is removed. The new part that is left over on the other side of the
plane is called:
(a) a frustum of a cone (b) cone
(c) cylinder (d) sphere
13. A hollow cube of internal edge 22 cm is filled with spherical marbles of diameter 0.5 cm
1
and it is assumed that space of the cube remains unfilled. Then the number of marbles
8
that the cube can accommodate is:
(a) 142296 (b) 142396 (c) 142496 (d) 142596
14. A metallic spherical shell of internal and external diameters 4 cm and 8 cm, respectively
is melted and recast into the form a cone of base diameter 8 cm. The height of the cone
is:
(a) 12 cm (b) 14 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 18 cm
15. A solid piece of iron in the form of a cuboid of dimensions 49 cm × 33 cm × 24 cm is
moulded to form a solid sphere. The radius of the sphere is:
(a) 21 cm (b) 23 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 19 cm
16. A mason constructs a wall of dimensions 270 cm × 300 cm × 350 cm with bricks each
1
of size 22.5 cm × 11.25 cm × 8.75 cm and it is assumed that space is covered by the
8
mortar. Then the number of bricks used to construct the wall is:
(a) 11100 (b) 11200 (c) 11000 (d) 11300

70 Mathematics - 10
 17. Twelve solid spheres of the same size are made by melting a solid metallic cylinder of
base diameter 2 cm and height 16 cm. The diameter of each sphere is:
(a) 1 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 6 cm
18. The radii of the top and bottom of a bucket of slant height 45 cm are 28 cm and 7 cm,
respectively. The curved surface area of the bucket is:
(a) 4950 cm2 (b) 4951 cm2 (c) 4952 cm2 (d) 4953 cm2
19. A medicine-capsule is in the shape of a cylinder of diameter 0.5 cm with two hemispheres
stuck to each of its ends. The length of entire capsule is 2 cm. The capacity of the capsule is:
(a) 0.36 cm2 (b) 0.35 cm2 (c) 0.34 cm2 (d) 0.33 cm2
20. If two solid hemispheres of same base radius r are joined together along their bases, then
curved surface area of this new solid is:
(a) 4pr2 (b) 6pr2 (c) 3pr2 (d) 8pr2
21. A right circular cylinder of radius r cm and height h cm (h > 2r) just encloses a sphere
of diameter
(a) r cm (b) 2r cm (c) h cm (d) 2h cm
22. During conversion of a solid from one shape to another, the volume of the new shape
will:
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain unaltered (d) be doubled
23. The diameters of the two circular ends of the bucket are 44 cm and 24 cm. The height
of the bucket is 35 cm. The capacity of the bucket is:
(a) 32.7 litres (b) 33.7 litres (c) 34.7 litres (d) 31.7 litres
24. In a right circular cone, the cross-section made by a plane parallel to the base is a:
(a) circle (b) frustum of a cone (c) sphere (d) hemisphere
25. Volume of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is:
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 9 : 16 (d) 16 : 9
26. A solid metallic sphere of diameter 21 cm is melted and recast into a number of smaller
cones, each of diameter 7 cm and height 3 cm. The number of cones so formed is :
(a) 121 (b) 123 (c) 125 (d) 126
27. A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 30 cm contains some liquid. This liquid is to be
filled into cylindrical shaped bottles, each of diameter 5 cm and height 6 cm. The number
of bottles necessary to empty the bowl is :
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 55 (d) 60
28. The base radius and height of a right circular solid cone are 2 cm and 8 cm respectively.
It is melted and recast into spheres of diameter 2 cm each. The number of spheres so
formed is :
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
29. A sphere of diameter 12 cm, is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel, partly filled
5
with water. If the water level in the cylindrical vessel rises by 3 cm, then the diameter
of the cylindrical vessel is : 9
(a) 16 cm (b) 17 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 20 cm
30. A solid right circular cone of diameter 14 cm and height 8 cm is melted to form a hollow
sphere. If the external diameter of the sphere is 10 cm. The internal diameter of the sphere
is :
(a) 6 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 12 cm
Real Numbers 71
 31. A container, shaped like a right circular cylinder having diameter 12 cm and height 15 cm
is full of ice-cream. This ice-cream is to be filled into cones of height 12 cm and diameter
6 cm, having a hemispherical shape on the top. The number of such cones which can be
filled with ice-cream is :
(a) 16 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 8
32. A spherical copper shell of external diameter 18 cm, is melted and recast into solid cone
3
of base radius 14 cm and height 4 cm. The inner diameter of the shell is :
7
(a) 16 cm (b) 18 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 22 cm
33. The slant height of a frustum of a cone is 4 cm and the perimeters of its circular ends
are 18 cm and 6 cm. The curved surface area of the frustum is :
(a) 58 cm2 (b) 48 cm2 (c) 62 cm2 (d) 63 cm2
34. The surface area of a solid metallic sphere is 616 cm2. It is melted and recast into a cone
of height 12 cm. The diameter of the base of the cone so formed is :
(a) 18 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 14 cm (d) 12 cm
35. Two cubes, each of side 4 cm are joined end to end. The surface area of the resulting
cuboid is :
(a) 144 cm2 (b) 152 cm2 (c) 158 cm2 (d) 160 cm2
36. A cone of height 20 cm and radius of base 5 cm is made up of modeling clay. A child
reshapes it in the form of a sphere. The diameter of the sphere is :
(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 10 cm
37. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved, keeping the height the
same, then the ratio of the volume of the cylinder thus obtained to the volume of original
cylinder is :
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
38. A cylindrical bucket, 32 cm high and with radius of base 18 cm, is filled with sand. This
bucket is emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the
conical heap is 24 cm then, the radius and slant height of the heap (in cm) are respectively
are :

(a) 36, 12 13 (b) 12 13 , 36 (c) 12, 36 (d) 36, 12

39. A rectangular sheet of paper 40 cm × 22 cm, is rolled to form a hollow cylinder of height
40 cm. The radius of the cylinder (in cm) is :
(a) 3.5 cm (b) 5.5 cm (c) 6.5 cm (d) 7.5 cm
40. A hemispherical depression is cut out from one face of cubical block of side a cm, such
that the diameter of the hemisphere is equal to the edge of the cube. The surface area of
the remaining solid is :
2
a
(a) 6a2 + p   (b) 5a2 + pr2 (c) a2 + 6pr2 (d) a2 – pr2
2
41. A well of diameter 4 m is dug 14 m deep. The earth taken out is spread evenly all around
the well to form a 40 cm high embankment. The width of the embankment is :
(a) 8 m (b) 9 m (c) 10 m (d) 12 m
42. Two spheres of same metal weights 1 kg and 7 kg. The radius of the smaller sphere is
3 cm. The two spheres are melted to form a single big sphere. The diameter of the new

72 Mathematics - 10
 sphere is :
(a) 10 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 14 cm (d) 16 cm
43. A spherical ball of radius R is melted to make 8 new identical balls, each of radius r.
Then R : r is :
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 2
44. Volume and surface area of a solid hemisphere are numerically equal. The diameter of
hemisphere is :
(a) 7 units (b) 9 units (c) 12 units (d) 16 units
3
45. The th part of a conical vessel of internal radius 5 cm and height 24 cm is full of water.
4
The water is emptied into a cylindrical vessel with internal radius 10 cm. The height water
in cylindrical vessel is :
(a) 3.2 cm (b) 1.5 cm (c) 0.5 cm (d) 0.32 cm
46. Height of cone is 10 cm the cone is divided into two parts using a plane parallel to its
base at the middle of its height. The ratio of the volumes of the two parts is :
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 5 (c) 1 : 7 (d) 1 : 9
47. The dimensions of a solid iron cuboid are 4.4 m × 2.6 m × 10 m. If it is melted and
recast into a hollow cylindrical pipe of 30 cm inner radius and thickness 5 cm. The length
of the pipe is :
(a) 109 m (b) 111 m (c) 112 m (d) 114 m
48. In a rain water harvesting system, the rainwater from a roof of 22 m × 20 m drains into
a cylindrical tank having diameter of base 2 m and height 3.5 m. If the tank is full, then
the rainfall in cm is :
(a) 2 cm (b) 2.5 m (c) 3 m (d) 3.5 m
49. A solid metallic cuboid of dimensions 9 m × 8 m × 2 m is melted and recast into solid
cubes of edge 2 m. The number of cubes so formed is :
(a) 14 (b) 18 (c) 15 (d) 16
50. A well of diameter 3 cm dug is 14 cm deep. The soil taken out of it is spread evenly all
round it to a width of 5 cm to form an embankment. The height of the embankment is:
(a) 0.79 cm (app) (b) 0.58 cm (app) (c) 0.73 cm (app) (d) 0.76 m (app)

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. A test tube is a combination of a ______________ and a _________________ .
2. Length of diagonal of a cuboid of dimensions l, b and h is given by ________________.
3. For a hollow cylinder of radii R and r (R > r), curved surface area is _______________.
4. Total surface area of a hemisphere of radius r = ________________.
5. A lattu (top) is a combination of a _____________ and a _____________.
6. A funnel is the combination of a ____________ and a _____________.
7. When one solid X is melted and recast into another solid Y, then the ____________ of
solid X and solid Y is same.
8. If a solid ball is exactly fitted inside a cubical box of edge 2x, then the volume of the
ball is ______________.
9. If two identical cubes of side x are joined end to end, then the total surface area of the
resulting solid is _______________.

Real Numbers 73
 10. If three spheres of radii 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm are melted and recast to form a cone of
radius 12 cm. The height of the cone is ______________.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. If two cubes have their volumes in the ratio 1 : 27, then find the ratio of their surface areas.
2. Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of edge
4.2 cm.
3. If the surface area of a sphere is 154 cm2, then find its radius.
4. If a metallic cube of edge 1 cm is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 4 mm, then
find the length of the wire.
5. If each edge of a cube is increased by 50%, then find the percentage increase in its surface
area.
6. Two cones with the same base radius 8 cm and height 15 cm are joined together along
their bases. Find the nearest integer value of surface area of the shape so formed.
7. If the radius of the base of a cone is 5 cm and its height is 12 cm, find its curved surface
area.
8. What is the radius of the sphere whose volume and surface area are numerically equal?
9. The radii of the base of a cylinder and a cone of same height are in the ratio 3 : 4. Find
the ratio of their volumes.
10. The circumference of the circular end of a hemispherical bowl is 132 cm. Find the capacity
of the bowl.
11. Three metallic solid cubes whose edges are 3 cm, 4 cm, and 5 cm are melted and recast
into a single cube. Find the edge of the cube, thus formed.
12. A frustum of a right circular cone of height 16 cm has radii of its circular ends as 8 cm
and 20 cm. Find its slant height.

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)
II. Fill in the Blanks :
1. cylinder, hemisphere 2. l 2 + b 2 + h 2 units 3. 2ph(R + r) 4. 3pr2
4
5. cone, hemisphere 6. frustum cylinder 7. volume 8. ≠x3
9. 30x2 10. 48 cm 3

III. Very Short Answer Questions :

25
1. 1 : 9 2. 19.4 m3 3. 3.5 cm 4. 5. 125% 6. 855 cm2 7. 65p
8. 3 cm 9. 27 : 16 10. 19404 cm3 ≠ 11. 6 cm 12. 20 cm

74 Mathematics - 10
 14 STATISTICS

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Construction of a cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the :

(a) mean (b) median
(c) mode (d) all the above three measures
2. In the following distribution.

Monthly more than more than more than more than more than more than
income (in `) ` 10000 ` 13000 ` 16000 ` 19000 ` 22000 ` 25000
Number of
100 85 69 50 33 15
families

Find the number of families having income range (in `) 16000 – 19000.
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 19

3. Consider the following frequency distribution of the heights of 60 students of a class.

Height (in cm) 150-155 155-160 160-165 165-170 170-175 175-180

No. of 15 13 10 8 9 5
students

The sum of the lower limit of the modal class and upper limit of the median class is :
(a) 310 (b) 315 (c) 320 (d) 330

4. Consider the data.

Class 65-85 85-105 105-125 125-145 145-165 165-185 185-205

Frequency 4 5 13 20 14 7 4

The difference of the upper limit of the median class and the lower limit to the modal
class is :
(a) 0 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 38

5. The times in seconds, taken by 150 athletes to run a 110 m hurdle race are tabulated
below :
Real Numbers 75
 Class 13.8-14 14-14.2 14.2-14.4 14.4-14.6 14.6-14.8 14.8-15

Frequency 2 4 5 71 48 20

The number of athletes who completed the race in or equal to 14.6 seconds is :
(a) 11 (b) 71 (c) 82 (d) 130

6. The abscissa of the point of intersection of the less than type and of the more than type
cumulative frequency curves of a grouped data gives its :
(a) mean (b) median
(c) mode (d) all the above

7. For the following distribution the sum of lower limit of the median class and modal class is :

Class 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25

Frequency 10 15 12 20 9

(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 35

8. Consider the following frequency distribution.

Class 0-5 6-11 12-17 18-23 24-29

Frequency 13 10 15 8 11

The upper limit of the median class is

(a) 17 (b) 17.5 (c) 18 (d) 18.5
9. For the following distribution, the modal class is.

Marks Below 10 Below 20 Below 30 Below 40 Below 50 Below 60

Number of
3 12 27 57 75 80
students
(a) 10-20 (b) 20-30 (c) 30-40 (d) 50-60

10. In the formula x = A +

∑ fi di
∑ fi
for finding the mean of a grouped data, di’s are deviations from :
(a) lower limits of the classes (b) upper limits of the classes
(c) mid points of the classes (d) frequencies of the class marks
11. While computing mean of grouped data, we assume that the frequencies are :
(a) evenly distributed over all the classes
(b) centred at the classmarks of the classes
(c) centred at the upper limits of the classes
(d) centred at the lower limits of the classes

76 Mathematics - 10
 12. If xi’s are the mid points of the class intervals of grouped data, fi’ s are the corresponding
frequencies and x is the mean, then Σ( fi xi − x ) is equal to :
(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) 1 (d) 2

 ∑ fi ui 
13. In the formula x = a + h   for finding the mean of a grouped frequency
 ∑f
 i 
distribution, ui is :
xi + a xi − a a − xi
(a) (b) h(xi –A) (c) (d)
h h h
14. A student draws a cumulative frequency curve for the marks obtained by 40 students of
a class as shown. The median marks obtained by the students of the class are :

(a) 55 (b) 65 (c) 50 (d) 60

15. Construction of a cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the :
(a) mean (b) mode (c) median (d) none
16. The abscissa of the point of intersection of the less than type and of the more than type
cumulative frequency curve of a grouped data gives.
(a) mode (b) median (c) mean (d) None of
these
17. What is the Modal class in the given table
0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
6 8 13 11 9
(a) 0–10 (b) 20-30 (c) 30-40 (d) 40-50
18. What should be in the blank? 2 Mean = 3 Median – (_____________).
(a) 4 mode (b) mode (c) 2 mode (d) 3 mode
19. If each observation of the data is increased by 5, then what happens to its mean?
(a) is increased by 4 (b) is increased by 5
(c) is decreased by 4 (d) is decreased by 5
20. What is the median of the data 78, 56, 22, 34, 45, 54, 39, 68, 54, 84?
(a) 54 (b) 53 (c) 55 (d) 51
21. If the mean of x, x + 3, x + 5, x + 7 and x + 10 is 9, then find the mean of last three
Real Numbers 77
 observations is :
4 (b) 1 1
(a) 9 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
5 2 3n
22. If the mean of n observations x1, x2, x3, … xn is x , then what is ∑ xi − x = ( )
i =1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –1
23. For a frequency distribution, mean, median and mode are connected by the relationship
(a)2 Mean = 3 Median – Mode (b) 2 Mode = Median – Mean
(c)Mode = 2 Mean – 3 Median (d) 3 Median = 2 Mode + Mean
24. The class mark of a class interval is
(a)Upper limit + Lower limit (b) Upper limit – Lower limit
(c) Upper limit + Lower limit (d) Upper limit – Lower limit
2 2
25. For the following distribution, the median class is
Mobility Below Below Below Below Below Below Below
consumption 85 105 125 145 165 185 205
No. of
4 9 22 42 56 64 68
consumers
(a) 85-105 (b) 125-145 (c) 145-165 (d) 185-205
26. The wickets taken by a bowler in 12 cricket matches are as follows :
3, 7, 4, 6, 0, 6, 1, 3, 2, 3, 4, 5. The Mode of the data is
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
27. The modal class in the given frequency table is :
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
Frequency 6 10 12 8 7
(a) 0-10 (b) 20-30 (c) 30-40 (d) none of
these
28. The mode of the following data is :
Marks 50-60 60-70 70-80 80-90 90-100
Frequency 3 12 32 20 6
(a) 73.25 (b) 75.25 (c) 76.25 (d) 78.25
29. The median class of the following data is :
Marks Below 20 Below 40 Below 60 Below 80 Below 100
No. of
17 22 29 37 50
Students
(a) 20-40 (b) 40-60 (c) 60-80 (d) 80-100
30. The maximum bowling speeds, in km/hr of 33 players at a cricket coaching centre are
given below : Ncert(ep)
Speed (km/hr 85-100 100-115 115-130 130-145
No. of Players 11 9 8 3
The median bowling speed is :

78 Mathematics - 10
 (a) 105.5 km/hr (b) 106.5 km/hr (c) 107.5 km/hr (d) 108.9
km/hr
31. The median of the following data is : Ncert (ep)

x 6 5 8 10 7 12 15
f 4 2 6 5 8 3 9

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10

32. If the mean of the following distribution is 22, then the value of f is :

Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50

Frequency 12 16 6 f 9

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9

33. The arithmetic mean of the following distribution is 25. The value of p is :

Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50

Frequency 5 18 15 p 6

(a) 9 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 16

34. The mean of the following data is :

Class 1-3 3-5 5-7 7-9 9-11

Frequency 7 8 2 2 1

(a) 2.3 (b) 3.2 (c) 4.1 (d) 4.2

35. The mean of the following data is

Classes 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50

Frequency 7 8 15 9 10

(a) 25.23 (b) 26.32 (c) 26.43 (d) 26.75

36. If the median of the data : 24, 25, 26, x + 2, x + 3, 30, 31, 34 is 27.5, then the value of
x is :
(a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 30
37. The median of a given frequency distribution is found graphically with the help of
(a) frequency curve (b) frequency polygon
(c) histogram (d) an ogive
38. If the mode of some data is 7 and their mean is also 7, then their median is :
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 7
39. The mean of 11 observations is 30. If the mean of the first 6 observations is 28 and that
of the last 6 observations is 32, then the 6th number is :
(a) 29 (b) 31 (c) 35 (d) 38
40. The median of the following observations given in order
Real Numbers 79
 16, 18, 20, 24 – x, 22 + 2x, 28, 30, 32 is 24. The value of x is :
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
41. Using the graph in the figure of ‘less than ogive’ and ‘more than ogive’, the median of
the data is :

(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 4 (d) 17

42. Weights of 40 eggs were recorded as given below :

Weights (in gms) 85-89 90-94 95-99 100-104 105-109

No. of eggs 10 12 12 4 2

The lower limit of the median class is :

(a) 90 (b) 95 (c) 92.5 (d) 95.5
43. Consider the following frequency distribution of the heights of 60 students of a class.

Height (in cm) 150-155 155-160 160-165 165-170 170-175

No. of students 15 10 8 9 5

The upper limit of the median class in the given data is [Cbse(sp) 2019]
(a) 165 (b) 155 (c) 160 (d) 170
44. The frequency distribution table of agricultural holdings in a village is given below :

Area of land
1-3 3-5 5-7 7-9 9-11 11-13
(hectares)
No. of families 20 45 80 55 40 12

The modal agricultural holdings of the village is :

(a) 5.8 (b) 4.7 (c) 6.2 (d) 7.5[Ncert(ep)]
45. The daily income of a sample of 50 employees are tabulated as follows :

Income (in `) 1-200 201-400 401-600 601-800

80 Mathematics - 10
 No. of employees 14 15 14 7

The means daily income of employees =

(a) ` 356 (b) ` 456.8 (c) ` 259.8 (d) ` 532.7
[ncert (ep)]
46. The mean of 10 numbers is 30. If every number is multiplied by 2, then the new mean =
(a) 72 (b) 69 (c) 60 (d) 76
47. In a class of 25 students, 15 are boys. The mean weight of boys is 50 kg and that of girls
is 45 kg. The mean weight of the class is
(a) 356 kg (b) 40 kg (c) 52 kg (d) 56 kg
48. The mean of first n natural numbers is :
n(n + 1) n +1
(a) (b) n(n + 1) (c) (d) n+1
2 2

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The median of the following data : 13, 15, 11, 12, 14, 16, 10, 12, 12, 13 is _______________.
2. Measures of central tendency that can be determined graphically is ________________.
3. Empirical relation between mean, mode and median is _________________.
4. The value of the median of the data using the following graph is ______________.

5. The median of first 10 prime numbers is _____________.

6. If the mode of the data : 16, 15, 17, 16, 15, x, 19, 17, 14 is 15, then x = _____________.
7. The median of first 3 composite numbers is _____________.
8. If the mean of 3, 4, x, 7, 8, y is 10, then x + y = _______________.
9. If 35 is removed from the data : 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, then the median increases
by _________________.
10. We can draw _____________ types of ogives.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. The mean of a set of numbers is x . If each number is divided by 3, then find the new

Real Numbers 81
 mean.
2. The mean of 8 observations is 10 and 4 is the mean of a set of 7 observations. Find the
mean of the combined set.
3. What is the most frequent value of a data called?
4. Find the class mark of a class interval a – b.
 Σf u 
5. In the formula x = a + h  i i  , for finding the mean, of grouped frequency distribution,
what is u ?  Σf i 
i
6. Write the formula for finding the mode of a grouped frequency distribution.
7. If mode = 80, and median = 110, then find the median.
8. A data has 25 observations (arranged in descending order. Which observation represents
the median?
9. Which measure of central tendency is given by the x-coordinate of the point of intersection
of the more than ogive and less than ogive?
10. A less than ogive is an upward curve and a more than ogive is a downward curve. Is it
true?

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a)
37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (a)
43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (c)
II. Fill in the Blanks :
1. 12.5 2. Median 3. Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean 4. 6 5. 12
6. 15 7. 6 8. 38 9. 0.5 10. 2
III. Very Short Answer Qeustions.
x a+b xi − a
1. 2. 7.2 3. Mode 4. 5.
3 2 h
 f1 − f 0 
6. l +  ×h 7. 125 8. 13th 9. Median
 2 f1 − f 0 − f 2 
10. yes

82 Mathematics - 10
 15 PROBABILITY

OBJECTIVE SECTION
[BASIC/STANDARD]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following, can be the probability of an event ?
18 8
(a) –0.04 (b) 1.004 (c) (d)
23 7
2. A card is selected at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability of its
being a face card is
3 4 6 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13 13 13 13
3. A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 white balls and 7 black balls. What is the probability that
a ball drawn from the bag at random will be neither red nor black ?
1 1 7 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 3 15 15
4. If an event cannot occur, then its probability is :
3 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d) 0
4 2
5. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event ?
1 17
(a) (b) 0.1 (c) 3% (d)
3 16
6. An event is very unlikely to happen. Its probability is closest to :
(a) 0.0001 (b) 0.001 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.1
7. If the probability of an event is p, the probability of its complementary event will be :
1
(a) p – l (b) p (c) 1 – p (d) 1 −
p
8. The probability expressed as a percentage of a particular occurrence can never be
(a) less than 100 (b) less than 0
(c) greater than 1 (d) anything but a whole number
9. If P(A) denotes the probability of an event A, then
(a) P(A) < 0 (b) P(A) > 1 (c) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1 (d) –1 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1
10. A card is selected from a deck of 52 cards. The probability of its being a red face card is:
3 3 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26 13 13 2
11. The probability that a non leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is:
1 2 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7
Real Numbers 83
 12. When a die is thrown, the probability of getting an odd number less than 3 is:
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 0
6 3 2
13. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. The event E is that the card is not an ace of
hearts. The number of outcomes favourable to E is :
(a) 4 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 51
14. The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 is 0.035. The number of bad eggs in
the lot is :
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 28
15. A girl calculates that the probability of her winning the first prize in a lottery is 0.08. If
6000 tickets are sold, how many tickets has she bought ?
(a) 40 (b) 240 (c) 480 (d) 750
16. One ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered 1 to 40. The
probability that the selected ticket has a number which is a multiple of 5 is
3 4 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 3
17. Someone is asked to take a number from 1 to 100. The probability that it is prime is :
1 6 1 13
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 25 4 50
18. A school has five houses A, B, C, D and E. A class has 23 students, 4 from house A, 8
from house B, 5 from house C, 2 from house D and rest from house E. A single student
is selected at random to be the class monitor. The probability that the selected student is
not from A, B and C is :
4 6 8 17
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23 23 23 23
19. A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. Probability that the
card drawn is neither a red card nor a queen :
5 3 2 6
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13 13 13 13
20. An unbiased die is tossed once. The probability of getting a multiple of 2 or 3 :
1 5 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 6 2 3
21. A child has dice, whose six faces show the letters as given below :

A B C D A D A

The dice is thrown once. The probability of getting D is :
1 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
6 3 3
22. Cards marked with numbers 1, 3, 5, ...., 101 are placed in a bag and mixed thoroughly. A
card is then drawn at random from the bag. The probability that the number on the drawn
card is a prime number less than 20 is :
7 5 13 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
51 51 51 51
23. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting doublet of even number:
84 Mathematics - 10
 1 5 7 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12 12 12 4
24. A number selected at random from the numbers 1 to 30, the probability that it is a prime
number is :
1 3 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 5 5 3

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Tossing a coin is an ______________.
2. The theoretical probability is also known as ____________ probability.
3. The ___________ of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an experiment is 1.
4. P(E) = 1 – ______________.
5. The probability of an _____________ event is 0.
6. A deck of playing cards has _____________ suits.
7. Kings, queens and jacks are called ____________ cards.
8. There are ____________ aces in a pack of playing cards.
9. Sample space when two coins are tossed simultaneously are ____________.
10. Probability of getting a number less than 50 on a die is ___________.

III. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. A die is thrown. Find the probability of getting 1.
2. Probability of which event is 100%?
3. If a number is chosen at random from the numbers 1 to 20, find the probability of getting
a prime number.
4. If a letter of English alphabet is chosen at random, then find the probability that the letter
is a vowel.
5. Find the probability of getting a number between 3 and 100 which is divisible by 7.
6. In tossing two coins, find the probability of getting 2 heads.
7. Find the probability of selecting an even prime number from 1 to 50.
8. A dice is thrown once. What is the probability of getting a number greater than 4.
9. Find the probability of getting a factor of 6 in throwing a die.
10. Two friends are born in the year 2010. What is probability that they have the same
birthday?

Real Numbers 85
 ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions :
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (a)
12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (a)
23. (a) 24. (d)
II. Fill in the Blanks :
1. Experiment 2. classical 3. sum 4. P(E) 5. impossible 6. 4 7. face 8. 4
9. (HH, HT, TH, TT) 10. 1
III. Very Short Answer Questions :
1 8 5 1 1 1 1 2 1
1. 2. Sure 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
6 20 26 7 4 50 3 3 365

86 Mathematics - 10
 Assertion – Reason Questions
[basic / Standard]

1. Assertion (A) : The H.C.F. of two numbers is 16 and their product is 3072. Then their
L.C.M. = 162.
Reason (R) : If a and b are two positive integers, then their H.C.F. × L.C.M. = a × b.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
2. Assertion (A) : 2 is a rational number.
Reason (R) : The square root of all positive integers are irrationals
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
3. Assertion (A) : If LCM (p, q) = 30 and HCF (p, q) = 5, then p × q = 150.
Reason (R) : LCM of (a, b) × HCF of (a, b) = a × b
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
4. Assertion (A) : 5 is an irrational number.
Reason (R) : If m is an odd number greater than 1, then m is irrational.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
5. Assertion (A) : Given that HCF (306, 657) = 9, and LCM (306, 657) is 2238.
Reason (R) : If a and b are two positive integers and HCF (a, b) = 9, then
a+b
LCM (a + b) =
2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
6. Assertion (A) : π is an irrational number.
Reason (R) : 5 is an irrational number.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

2
 7. Assertion (A) : 3 + 5 is an irrational number.
Reason (R) : The sum of a rational number and an irrational number is an irrational
number.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
8. Assertion (A) : 6n can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n.
Reason (R) : Any positive integer ending with the digits 0 or 5 is divisible by 5 and so
its prime factorisation must contain the prime 5.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
9. Assertion (A) : The HCF of two numbers is 5 and their LCM is 150. If one of the numbers
is 15, then the other is 50.
Reason (R) : For any two positive integers a and b HCF (a, b) × LCM (a, b) = a × b
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
10. Assertion (A) : 100 can be expressed as a product of primes.
Reason (R) : 100 is a composite number.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
11. Assertion (A) : p is an irrational number, where p is a prime number.
Reason (R) : Square root of any prime number is an irrational number.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
12. Assertion (A) : x2 + 4x + 5 has two zeroes.
Reason (R) : A quadratic polynomial can have at the most two zeroes.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
13. Assertion (A) : Zeroes of p(x) = x2 – 4x – 5 are 5, –1.
Reason (R) : The polynomial whose zeroes are 2 + 3 , 2 – 3 is x2 – 4x + 7.

3
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
14. Assertion (A) : Degree of the zero polynomial is not defined.
Reason (R) : Degree of non-zero constant polynomial is 0.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
15. Assertion (A) : If 2, 3 are the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial, then the polynomial
x2 – 5x + 6.
Reason (R) : If α, β are the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial, then polynomial is
x2 – (α + β) x + α ⋅ β
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
16. Assertion (A) : The polynomial x4 + 4x2 + 5 has four zeroes.
Reason (R) : If p(x) is divided by (x – k), then the remainder = p(k).
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
17. Assertion (A) : If one zero of the polynomial p(x) = (k2 + 4) x2 + 13x + 4k is reciprocal
of other, then k = 2.
Reason (R) : If (x – a) is a factor of p(x), then p(a) = 0 i.e., a is a zero of p(x).
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
18. Assertion (A) : If α, β and γ are the zeroes of x3 – 2x2 + qx – r and α + β = 0, then
2q = r.
–b
Reason (R) : If α, β and γ are the zeroes of ax3 + bx2 + cx + d, then α + β + γ = , αβ
a
c –d
+ βγ + γα = , αβγ = .
a a
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
1 1
19. Assertion (A) : If α, β are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 – ax + 1, then + = a
α β

4
 –b
Reason (R) : If α, β are the zeroes of the polynomial ax2 + bx + c, then α + β = ,
c a
αβ = .
a
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
20. Assertion (A) : If α, β are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 – 3x + p and 2α + 3β = 15,
then p = 54.
–b
Reason (R) : If α, β are the zeroes of the polynomial ax2 + bx + c, then α + β = and
c a
αβ = .
a
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
21. Assertion (A) : The graph of a polynomial p(x) is as given in the figure, then number of
zeroes of p(x) is 2.
–b
Reason (R) : If α, β are the zeroes of the polynomial ax2 + bx + c, then α + β = and
a
c
αβ = .
a
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
22. Assertion (A) : The polynomial of p(x) = x3 + x has only one real zero.
Reason (R) : A polynomial of nth degree must have n real zeroes.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
23. Assertion (A) : 2 – 3 is one zero of the quadratic polynomial then other zero will be
2 + 3.
Reason (R) : Irrational zeroes always occur in pairs.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
24. Assertion (A) : p(x) = x3 – 5x2 + 6x + 5 is a polynomial of degree 2.
Reason (R) : The highest power of x in the polynomial p(x) is the degree of the polynomial.
5
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
25. Assertion (A) : 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 and 6x + ky + 9 = 0 represent parallel lines if k = 8.
Reason (R) : a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 ; a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 represent parallel lines if
a1 b1 c1
= ≠
a2 b2 c2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
26. Assertion (A) : x + y – 4 = 0 and 2x + ky – 3 = 0 has no solution, if k = 2.
a1 b1
Reason (R) : a1x + b1y + c1 = 0; a2x + b2 y + c2 = 0 are consistent if ≠
a2 b2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
27. Assertion (A) : If the system of equations 2x + 3y = 7 and 2ax + (a + b) y = 28 has
infinitely many solutions, then 2a – b = 0
Reason (R) : The system of equations 3x – 5y = 9 and 6x – 10y = 8 has unique solution.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
28. Assertion (A) : If a pair of lines are coincident, then we say that pair is consistent and
it has a unique solution.
Reason (R) : If a pair of lines are parallel, then the pair has no solution and is called
inconsistent pair of equations.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
29. Assertion (A) : If kx – y – 2 = 0 and 6x – 2y – 3 = 0 are inconsistent, then k = 3.
Reason (R) : a1x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 are inconsistent if
a1 b1 c1
= ≠
a2 b2 c2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

6
30. Assertion (A) : 3x – 4y = 7 and 6x – 8y = k have infinite number of solution if k = 14
Reason (R) : a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 have a unique solution if
a1 b1
≠
a2 b2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
31. Assertion (A) : The linear equations x – 2y – 3 = 0 and 3x + 4y – 20 = 0 have exactly
one solution.
Reason (R) : The linear equations 2x + 3y – 9 = 0 and 4x + 6y – 18 = 0 have unique solution.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
32. Assertion (A) : kx + 2y = 5 and 3x + y = 1 have unique solution if k = 6.
Reason (R) : x + 2y = 3 and 5x + ky + 7 = 0 have unique solution, if k ≠ 10.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
33. Assertion (A) : If the pair of equations x + y = 2 and xsin θ + ycos θ = 1 has infinitely
many solutions, then θ = 45°.
Reason (R) : The system of equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 has
a1 b1
infinitely many solutions, if ≠ .
a2 b2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
34. Assertion (A) : If the pair of lines are coincident then we say that it has infinitely many
solutions.
Reason (R) : If the pair of lines are parallel, then the pair has no solution and is called
inconsistent pair of equations.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
35. Assertion (A) : 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 and 6x + ky + 9 = 0 represent parallel lines if k = 8.
Reason (R) : a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2 y + c2 = 0 represent parallel lines if
a1 b1 c1.
= ≠
a2 b2 c2

7
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
36. Assertion (A) : The pair of equations ax + 2y = 7 and 3x + by = 16 represents parallel
lines if ab = 6
Reason (R) : a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2 y + c2 = 0 represent parallel lines if
a1 b1 c1.
= =
a2 b2 c2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
37. Assertion (A) : If the equation x2 – ax + b = 0 and x2 + bx – a = 0 have a common root
then, a + b ≠ 0 and a – b = 1.
Reason (R) : A common root of two equations satisfies both the equations.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
1 1 1
38. Assertion (A) : If the roots of the equation + = are equal in magnitude and
x+p x+q r
opposite in sign, then p, r, q are in A.P.
Reason (R) : The sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is b.
a
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
39. Assertion (A) : If roots of the equation (2k – 1) x2 + 4x – 3 = 0 are reciprocal of each
other, then k = –1.
Reason (R) : If a = c, then roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are reciprocal of each other.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
40. Assertion (A) : The roots of the equation x2 + 3x + 4 = 0 are imaginary.
Reason (R) : If for the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, b ≠ 0, b2 – 4ac < 0, then
its roots are imaginary.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

8
41. Assertion (A) : Roots of every quadratic equation can be obtained by quadratic formula.
Reason (R) : If ax2 + bx + c = 0, b ≠ 0, then the quadratic formula for finding roots is
−b ± b 2 − 4ac
x=
2a
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
1 3 ± 13
42. Assertion (A) : Roots of equation x – – 3, x ≠ 0 are .
x 2
Reason (R) : Quadratic Equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has no real roots, if D < 0.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
43. Assertion (A) : If –5 is a root of 2x2 + 2px – 15 = 0 and p(x2 + x) + k = 0 has equal
7
roots then k = .
8
Reason (R) : The equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, (a ≠ 0) has equal roots, if b2 – 4ac = 0
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
3
44. Assertion (A) : The roots of 2x2 + x – 6 = 0 are –2 and .
2
−b ± b 2 − 4ac
Reason (R) : Roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0 are x =
2a
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
1
45. Assertion (A) : If px2 – 2x + 2 = 0 has no real roots, then p > .
2
Reason (R) : The equation (a + b ) x + 2(ac + bd) x + (c + d2) = 0 has no real roots,
2 2 2 2

if ad ≠ bc.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
46. Assertion (A) : The possible values of p for which 2x2 + px + 3 = 0 has two real roots
is given by p > 2 6 .
Reason (R) : The quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has two real roots if b2 – 4ac < 0.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

9
 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
8 8
47. Assertion (A) : x2 + 5kx + 16 = 0 has no real roots if – < k <
5 5
Reason (R) : The quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 (a ≠ 0) has two equal roots if
b2 – 4ac = 0
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
2
48. Assertion (A) : If one root of the quadratic equation 6x2 – x – k = 0 is , then the value
3
of k is 2.
Reason (R) : The quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0 has atmost two roots.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
49. Assertion (A) : (2x – 1)2 – 4x2 + 5 = 0 is not a quadratic equation.
Reason (R) : An equation of the form ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0, where a, b, c ∈R is called
a quadratic equation.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
50. Assertion (A) : Sum of natural numbers from 1 to 100 is 5050
Reason (R) : Sum of n natural numbers is n(n + 1)
2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
51. Assertion (A) : Sum of first 15 terms of 2 + 5 + 8 … is 345.
Reason (R) : Sum of fist n terms in an A.P. is given by the formula:
n
Sn = [2a + (n – 1)d]
2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
52. Assertion (A) : The common difference of 5, 4, 3, 2,… A.P. is –1.
Reason (R) : The constant difference between any two terms of an AP is commonly
known as common difference.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
10
 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
53. Assertion (A) : The value of n, if a = 10, d = 5, an = 95 is 16.
Reason (R) : The formula of general term an is an = a + (n – 1)d.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
54. Assertion (A) : The 11th term of an AP is 7, 9, 11, 13, ...... is 27.
Reason (R) : If Sn is the sum of first n terms of an AP, then its nth term an is given by
an = Sn + Sn–1
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
55. Assertion (A) : The 10th term of the A.P. 5, 8, 11, 14, ...... is 35.
Reason (R) : If Sn is the sum of the first n terms of an A.P., then its nth term an is given
by an = Sn – Sn – 1 .
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
56. Assertion (A) : The sum of the series with the nth term, an = (9 – 5n) is 465, when
number of terms, n = 15.
Reason (R) : The sum of first n terms of an AP is given by
n
Sn = [2a + (n – 1)d]
2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
57. Assertion (A) : 5, 10, 15 are three consecutive terms of an AP.
Reason (R) : If a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an AP, then 2b = a + c
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
58. Assertion (A) : Sum of n terms of the AP. 3,13, 23… is 5n2 – 8n.
n
Reason (R) : The sum of first n terms of an AP is given by Sn = [2a + (n – 1)d]
2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
11
 (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
59. Assertion (A) : Common difference of an AP, whose nth term is given by an= 4n – 70
is 4.
Reason (R) : d = an – an – 1
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
60. Assertion (A) : The first term of an AP is 5, the last term is 45 and its sum is 400. Then
the number of terms of the AP = 12.
Reason (R) : Sum of first n even natural numbers is n(n + 1).
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
61. Assertion (A) : Common difference of the AP having sum of first n terms as an2 + bn is
2a.
Reason (R) : If sum of n terms of an AP is denoted by Sn, then its nth term is Sn– Sn–1
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
62. Assertion (A) : 10th term from the end of the AP: 100, 95, 90, 85,…10 is 55.
Reason (R) : The nth term from the end of the AP having last term l and common
difference d is l – (n – 1)d.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
63. Assertion(A) : In a ∆ABC, a line DE || BC, intersects AB in D and AC in E, then
AB = AC.
AD AE
Reason (R) : If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle intersecting the other
two sides, then the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true A
AD 3
64. Assertion (A) : In the given figure, DE || BC and = .
DB 5
If AC = 4 .8 cm then the length of AE is 1.8 cm. D E
Reason (R) : If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the
same ratio, then the line must be parallel to the third side.
B C

12
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
A
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
65. Assertion (A) : In the given figure, DE || BC, so that
AD = (4x – 3) cm, AE = (8x – 7) cm, BD = (3x – 1) cm D E
and CE = (5x – 3) cm then, the value of x is 1.
AD AE
Reason (R) : In triangle ABC, if DE || BC, then = B C
BD CE
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
66. Assertion (A) : The line segment joining the midpoints of any two sides of a triangle is
parallel to the third side.
Reason (R) : A line drawn through the midpoint of one side of a triangle parallel to
another side bisects the third side.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
67. Assertion (A) : A vertical stick which is 15 cm long casts a 12 cm long shadow on the
ground. At the same time, a vertical tower casts a 50 m long shadow on the ground, then
the height of the tower is 50 m.
Reason (R) : The ratio of the perimeters of two similar triangles is the same as the ratio
of their corresponding sides.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
68. Assertion (A) : The perimeters of two similar triangles are 25 cm and 15 cm respectively.
If one side of the first triangle is 9 cm, then the corresponding side of the second triangle
is 5.4 cm.
Reason (R) : The ratio of the perimeters of two similar triangles is the same as the ratio
of their corresponding sides.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
D E
69. Assertion (A) : In the figure ∆ABC ~ ∆AED. If BC = 8 cm, AB = 6.5 cm,
AD = 2.8 cm and DE = 4 cm, then AC = 5.6 cm.
Reason (R) : If in two triangles, angles of one triangle are proportional to A
the angles of the other triangle, then their correpsonding sides are equal, and
hence, the two triangles are similar.
B C
13
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
70. Assertion (A) : All congruent triangles are similar but the similar triangles need not be
congruent.
Reason (R) : If the corresponding sides of two triangles are proportional, then they are
similar.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
71. Assertion (A) : If the corresponding sides of two triangles are proportional then their
corresponding angles are equal, and hence the two triangles are similar
Reason (R) : If the bisector of an angle of a triangle bisects the opposite side, then the
triangle is isosceles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
D C
72. Assertion (A) : If in the given figure, AB is parallel to CD.
If OA = 3x – 19, OB = x – 4, OC = x – 3 and OD = 4, then
x = 11 units or 8 units. O
Reason (R) : The diagonals of a trapezium divide each
other proportionally. A B
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
73. Assertion (A) : In ∆ABC, DE || BC and AD = 4x – 3, AE = 8x – 7, BD = 3x – 1 and
CE = 5x – 3, then x = 5 units.
Reason (R) : If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two
sides is distinct points, the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
74. Assertion (A) : A line drawn through the midpoint of one side of a triangle parallel to
another side bisects the third side.
Reason (R) : In a ∆ABC, if D is the mid-point of side AB and DE || BC, then AB = BC.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
14
75. Assertion (A) : In ∆ABC, if D and E are midpoints of sides AB and AC, then DE || BC.
Reason (R) : If one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of the other triangle and the
sides including these angles are proportional, then the two triangles are similar.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
76. Assertion (A) : Points (1, 7), (4, 2), (–1, –1) and (–4, 4) are the vertices of a square.
Reason (R) : If all the four sides of the quadrilateral are equal and diagonals are also
equal, then quadrilateral is a square.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
77. Assertion (A) : The distance between the points (0, 0) and (36, 15) is 439.
Reason (R) : Distance from the origin of the point (x, y) is x2 + y 2 .
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
78. Assertion (A) : The point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, –5) and (–2, 9) is
(8, 0).
Reason (R) : Points lies on the y-axis are always of the form (0, y).
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
79. Assertion (A) : Points (1, 5), (2, 3) and (–2, –11) are collinear.
Reason (R) : Three points are said to be collinear, when they all lie of the same line.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
80. Assertion (A) : If P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A(7, 1) and B(3, 5), then
x – y = 2.
Reason (R) : If point P is equidistant from the points A and B, then AP = BP.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
81. Assertion (A) : The coordinates of the midpoint P of the join of the points A(x1, y1) and
x +x y + y 
B(x2, y2) is  1 2 , 1 2  .
 2 2 
15
 Reason (R) : The mid-point of a line segment divides the line segment in the ratio 1:1.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
82. Assertion (A) : The point (– 4, 6) divides the line segment joining the points A(–6, 10)
and B(–7, 4) in the ratio 2 : 9.
Reason (R) : The coordinates of the point P(x, y) which divides the line segment joining
m x +m x m y +m y 
the points A(x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) internally in the ratio m1 : m2 are  1 2 2 1, 1 2 2 1
 m1 + m2 m1 + m2 
.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
83. Assertion (A) : If the points A(6, 1), B(8, 2), C(9, 4) and D(p, 3) are the vertices of a
parallelogram, taken in order, then the value of p is 7.
Reason (R) : Diagonals of parallelogram, ABCD bisect each other and therefore, midpoint
of AC = midpoint of BD.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
84. Assertion (A) : If three vertices of a parallelogram taken in order are (–1, –6), (2, –5)
and (7, 2), then its fourth vertex is (4,1).
Reason (R) : Diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
85. Assertion (A) : The points (5, –2), (6, 4) and (7, –2) are the vertices of an isosceles
triangle.
Reason (R) : The points (1, 5), (2, 3) and (–2, –11) are collinear.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
86. Assertion (A) : If the points (8, 1), (k, –4), (2, –5) are collinear, then k = 4.
Reason (R) : Three points are said to be collinear if they all lie on the same line.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

16
 87. Assertion (A) : Points A(3, 2), B(–2, –3) and C(2, 3) form a triangle.
Reason (R) : Sum of the two sides of a triangle is always greater than the third side.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
88. Assertion (A) : The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the
 22 22 
points (4, –3) and (8, 5) in the ratio 3 : 1 are  ,  .
 3 3
Reason (R) : The ratio in which the y-axis divides the line segment joining the points
(5, –6) and (–1, – 4) is 5 : 1.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
a2 + 1
89. Assertion (A) : If sec θ + tan θ = a, then sec θ =
2a
Reason (R) : cosec2 θ – cot2 θ = 1
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
90. Assertion (A) : If x = 2 sin2 θ and y = 2cos2 θ + 1, then the value of x + y = 3.
Reason (R) : For any value of θ, sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
91. Assertion (A) : The value of sin 60° cos 30° + sin 30° cos 60° is 1
Reason (R) : sin 90° = 1 and cos 90° = 0
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
92. Assertion (A) : The value of 2tan2 45° + cos2 30° – sin260° is 2.
3 3
Reason (R) : Value of tan 45° = 1, cos 30° = and sin 60° = .
2 2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

17
 93. Assertion (A) : sin A is the product of sin and A.
Reason (R) : The value of sinθ increases as θ increases.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
94. Assertion (A) : In a right ΔABC, right angled at B, if tan A = 1, then 2sin A⋅cos A = 1
1 1
Reason (R) : sin A = ; cos A =
2 2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
95. Assertion (A) : If cos A + cos2 A = 1, then sin2 A + sin4 A = 1.
Reason (R) : sin2 A + cos2 A = 1, for any value of A.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
96. Assertion (A) : sin(A – B) = sin A – sin B
Reason (R) : For any value of θ, 1 + tan2 θ = sec2 θ
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
97. Assertion (A) : In ∆ABC, right-angled at B, AB = 24 cm, BC = 7 cm. The value of tan C
24
is .
7
AB.
Reason (R) : tan C =
BC
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
2 tan 30°
98. Assertion (A) : = sin 60°
1 + tan2 30°
1
Reason (R) : tan 30° =
3
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
99. Assertion (A) : cot A is not defined for A = 0°
Reason (R) : sin θ = cos θ for all values of θ.
18
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
100. Assertion (A) : If θ is an acute angle and sin θ = cos θ, then the value of
2tan2 θ + sin2 θ = 1
Reason (R) : If cos(40° + x) = sin 30°, then the value of x is 20°.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
101. Assertion (A) : sin(A + B) = 1, cos (A – B) = 1, then A = 45° and B = 45°.
Reason (R) : If sin(A + B) =1, then A + B = 90° and if cos(A – B) = 1, then A – B = 0°.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
102. Assertion (A) : If the angle of elevation of Sun, above a perpendicular line (tower)
decreases, then the shadow of tower increases.
Reason (R) : It is due to decrease in slope of the line of sight.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
103. Assertion (A) : When we move towards the object, angle of elevation decreases.
Reason (R) : As we move towards the object, it subtends large angle at our eye than
before.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true A
104. Assertion (A) : In the figure, if BC = 20 m, then the hypotenuse
40
AC = m.
2
base 45°
Reason (R) : For any acute angle θ, cos θ = B C
hypotenuse 20 m
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
105. Assertion (A) : If the length of shadow of a vertical pole is equal to its height, then the
angle of elevation is 45°.
Reason (R) : According to Pythagoras Theorem, H2 = P2 + B2, where P = Perpendicular,
B = Base and H = Hypotenuse.
19
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
106. Assertion (A) : The angle of elevation of an object viewed, is the angle formed by the
line of sight with the horizontal when it is above the horizontal level.
Reason (R) : The angle of depression of an object viewed, is the angle formed by the
line of sight with the horizontal when it is below the horizontal level.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true A

107. Assertion (A) : The angle of elevation of the Sun is 30°, when
the shadow of a pole h metres high is 3 h metres long.
20 m
1
Reason (R) : In ∆ABC, tan θ = ⇒ θ = 30°
3

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation C 20 3 m B
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
108. Assertion (A) : At some time of the day, the length of the shadow of a tower is equal to
its height, then the sun’s altitude is 45°.
Reason (R) : The angle which the line of sight makes with the horizontal line passing
through the eye of the observer, when the object is above the observer is called the angle
of elevation.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true A
109. Assertion (A) : A tower stands vertically on the ground. From
a point on the ground, which is 15 m away from the foot of the
tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to hm
be 60°. Then the height of the tower is 15 3 m.
AB h
Reason (R) : In ∆ ABC, tan 60° = ⇒ 3 = ⇒ h = 15 60°
BC 15
3m C 15 m B

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
110. Assertion (A) : A line which intersects a circle in two distinct points is called a secant
to the circle.
20
 Reason (R) : A line meeting a circle only in one point is called a tangent to the circle at
that point.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
111. Assertion (A) : From a point P, 10 cm away from the centre of a circle, a tangent PT of
length 8 cm is drawn, then the radius of the circle is 5 cm.
Reason (R) : A line drawn through the end of a radius and perpendicular to it is a tangent
to the circle.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
112. Assertion (A) : The tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel.
Reason (R) : The line segment joining the points of contact of two parallel tangents to a
circle is a diameter of the circle.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
113. Assertion (A) : The angle between the two tangents drawn from an external point to a
circle is supplementary to the angle subtended by the line segments joining the points of
contact to the centre.
Reason (R) : The tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of
contact.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
114. Assertion(A) : There is one and only one tangent at any point on the circumference of a
circle.
Reason (R) : The perpendicular at the point of contact of the tangent to a circle never
passes through the centre.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
115. Assertion (A) : In the given figure, AB is the diameter of a B
circle with centre O and AT is a tangent. If ∠AOQ = 58°,
then ∠ABQ = 29°. O
Reason (R) : The angle subtended by an arc at the centre is
58

double the angle subtended by it at any point on the remaining

°

part of the circle. A T

21
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
116. Assertion (A) : In the given figure, two circles touch each P
R
Q
other at the point C. The common tangent to the circles at
C, bisects the common tangent at P and Q. A C B
Reason (R) : Tangents drawn from an external point to a
circle are equal.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
117. Assertion (A) : A circle is inscribed in a ∆ABC, touching BC, CA and AB at P, Q and
R respectively. If AB = 10 cm, AQ = 7 cm and CQ = 5 cm then the length of BC is 8 cm.
Reason (R) : We know that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a
circle are equal.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
118. Assertion (A) : If a quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe D R C
a circle, as shown in the figure, then AB + CD = AD + BC.
Reason (R) : The parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a Q
rhombus
S
B
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation A P
of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
119. Assertion (A) : In the given figure, PA is a tangent A
from an external point P to a circle with centre O. If ∠AOB
= 115°, then ∠APO = 25°. P
115°
B
O
Reason (R) : The tangent at a point to a circle is
perpendicular to the radius passing through the point of
contact.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
120. Assertion (A) : If the length of a tangent from an external point to a circle is 8 cm, then
the length of the other tangent from the same point the circle is 8 cm.
Reason (R) : Length of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

22
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
121. Assertion (A) : In two concentric circles, the chord of the larger circle, which touches
the smaller circle, is bisected at the point of contact.
Reason (R) : The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
122. Assertion (A) : The tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel
Reason (R) : Opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary
angles at the centre of the circle.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
123. Assertion (A) : In a circle of radius 6 cm, the angle of a sector is 60°. Then the area of
132
the sector is cm2.
7
Reason (R) : Area of the circle with radius r is πr2.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
124. Assertion (A) : If the circumference of a circle is 176 cm, then its radius is 28 cm.
Reason (R) : Circumference = 2π × radius.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
125. Assertion (A) : The length of the minute hand of a clock is 7 cm. Then the area swept
77
by the minute hand in 5 minutes is cm2.
6
Reason (R) : The length of an arc of a sector of angle q and radius r is given by
θ
l = 2πr ×
360°
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

23
126. Assertion (A) : In a circle of radius 6 cm, the angle of a sector 60°. Then the area of
6
the sector is 18 cm2
7
Reason (R) : Circumference of the circle with radius r is 2πr.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
127. Assertion (A) : If the circumference of a circle is 176 cm ,then its radius is 28 cm.
Reason (R) : Circumference = 2πr
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
128. Assertion (A) : A wire is looped in the form of a circle of radius 28 cm. It is bent into
a square. Then the area of the square is 1936 cm2.
Reason (R) : Angle described by a minute hand in 1 minute = 6°.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
129. Assertion (A) : A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in covering 11 km. Then diameter
of the wheel is 35 cm.
Reason (R) : If a wire of length 22 cm is bent in the shape of a circle, then area of the
circle so formed is 38.5 cm2.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
130. Assertion (A) : If the circumference of two circles are in the ratio 2 : 3, then ratio of
their areas is 4 : 9.
Reason (R) : The circumference of a circle of radius r is 2πr and its area is πr2.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
131. Assertion (A) : Distance moved by a wheel in 1 rotation = its area.
Reason (R) : Number of rotations in 1 minute = distance moved in 1 minute
circumference
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
24
132. Assertion (A) : When two circles touch internally [see fig. (i)], then O O
P

distance between their centres = difference of their radii

Reason (R) : When two circles touch externally [see fig. (ii)], P
O R r O
then distance between their centres = sum of their radii
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
133. Assertion (A) : Two circles touch externally. The sum of their areas is 130π sq cm and
the distance between their centres is 14 cm. Then, radii of the circles are 11 cm and
3 cm.
Reason (R) : When two circles touch externally, then sum of their radii = distance between
their centres.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
134. Assertion (A) : Two circles touch internally. The sum of their areas is 116π cm2 and the
distance between their centres is 6 cm. Then, radii of the circles are 4 cm and 10 cm.
Reason (R) : When two circles touch internally. Then, difference of their radii = distance
between their centres
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
135. Assertion (A) : A chord of a circle of radius 14 cm makes a right angle at the centre.
The area of the minor segment is 56 cm2.
Reason (R) : Angle described by the minute hand in 5 minutes = 6°
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
136. Assertion (A) : Volume of a cylinder of radius 7cm and height 10 cm is 490π cm3.
Reason (R) : Volume of a cylinder = πr2h
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

25
137. Assertion (A) : Length of diagonal of a cube of side 7 cm is 7 3 cm.
x
Reason (R) : Length of diagonal of a cube of edge x unit = units.
3
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
343
138. Assertion (A) : Volume of a hemisphere of radius 7 cm is π cm3.
2 4
2
Reason (R) : Volume of a hemisphere of radius r is given by πr3.
3
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
139. Assertion (A) : Slant height of a cone of height 4 cm and radius 3 cm is 5 cm.
Reason (R) : Curved surface area of a cone is given by πrl.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
140. Assertion (A) : Volume of a cube having length of diagonal as 5 3 cm is 125 cm3.
Reason (R) : For a cube, Diagonal = side 3 and volume = (side)3
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
141. Assertion (A) : Surface area of a cuboid of length = 5 m, breadth = 3 m and height = 2
m is 30 m3.
Reason (R) : Surface area of a cuboid = 2 (L × B + B × H + H × L)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
142. Assertion (A) : Volume of a cylinder of radius 2 cm and height 3 cm is 12π cm3.
Reason (R) : Total surface area of a cylinder = 2πr(r + h).
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false but (R) is true
700
143. Assertion (A) : Volume of a cone of height 7 cm and radius 10 cm is π cm3.
1 3
Reason (R) : Volume of cone = πr2h
3
26
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
144. Assertion (A) : Total surface area of a hemisphere of radius 2 cm is 4π cm2.
Reason (R) : Total surface area of a hemisphere = 3πr2
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
145. Assertion (A) : Surface area of a sphere of radius 10 cm is 400 π cm2.
4
Reason (R) : Surface area of a sphere of radius r in πr3.
3
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
146. Assertion (A) : The maximum volume of a cone that can be carved out of a solid
1
hemisphere of radius r is r3.
3
Reason (R) : For a cone of radius r and height h, volume is given by πr2h.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
147. Assertion (A) : The largest sphere is carved out of a cube of side 7 cm. Then, the volume
539
of the sphere is cm3.
3
1
Reason (R) : Volume of a sphere = πr2.
3
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
148. Assertion (A) : The volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a
cube whose edge is 7 cm is 50 cm2.
1 2
Reason (R) : Volume of a cone is πr h.
3
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
149. Assertion (A) : If the median and mode of a frequency distribution are 50 and 60
respectively, then its mean is 45.
Reason (R) : Mean, median and mode of a frequency distribution are related as:
Mode = 3(Median) – 2(Mean)
27
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
150. Assertion (A) : Median of first eleven prime numbers is 13.
Reason (R) : Median of a grouped frequency distribution is given by
N
− cf
Median = l + 2 × h , l = lower limit of the median class, cf = cumulative
f
frequency of the class preceding the median class, f = frequency of the median class,
h = class width, N=Total frequency.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
151. Assertion (A) : The following table shows the weights of 12 students.
Weight(in kg) 67 70 72 73 75
Number of students 4 3 2 2 1
Mean of the given data is 70.25 kg
Reason (R) : If A is the assumed mean and x is the mean for a frequency distribution,
n
1
then x = A + ∑ fidi, where di = xi – A and N = ∑ fi xi .
N i =1
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
152. Assertion (A) : The mode of the following distribution is 52.
Class interval 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80
Frequency 4 3 2 2
Reason (R) : The value of the observation which occurs most often is the mode.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
153. Assertion (A) : Consider the following frequency distribution:
Class interval 3-6 6-9 9-12 12-15 15-18 18-21
Frequency 2 5 21 23 10 12
The mode of the above data is 12.4.
Reason (R) : The value of the observation which occurs most often is the mode.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
28
 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
154. Assertion (A) : If the mean of the following distribution is 7.5, then the value of missing
frequency f is 8.
xi 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
fi 20 17 16 10 f 6 7 6
∑ fixi
Reason (R) : Mean, x =
∑ fi
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
155. Assertion (A) : The mean of the following data is 9.
x 4 6 9 10 15
f 5 10 10 7 8
∑ fixi
Reason (R) : Mean, x =
∑ fi
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
156. Assertion (A) : The median of following distribution is 35.
x 20 25 35 40 50
f 5 11 24 16 5
th
n +1
Reason (R) : For odd number of observations (n), median =  observation.
 2 
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
157. Assertion (A) : The probability that a leap year has 53 Mondays is 2.
7
Reason (R) : The probability that a non-leap year has 53 Mondays is 1.
7
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
158. Assertion (A) : When a die is rolled, the probability of getting a number which is a
multiple of 3 and 5 both is zero.
Reason (R) : The probability of an impossible event is zero.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
29
 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
159. Assertion (A) : A cubical die is rolled. The probability of getting a composite number
is 1.
3
Reason (R) : In a throw of a cubical die, the probability of getting a prime number is
2.
3
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
160. Assertion (A) : Manisha and Madhvi were born in the year 2000. The probability that
they have the same birthday is 1 .
366
Reason (R) : Leap year has 366 days.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
161. Assertion (A) : If a box contains 5 white, 2 red and 4 black marbles, then the probability
of not drawing a white marble from the box is 5 .
11
Reason (R) : P (E) = 1 – P(E), where E is any event.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
162. Assertion (A) : In rolling dice, the probability of getting the number 8 is zero.
Reason (R) : It is an impossible event.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
163. Assertion (A) : In tossing a coin one time, probability of getting head and tail are equal.
Reason (R) : Probability of a certain event is 1.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
164. Assertion (A) : Probability of getting at least one head in tossing 3 coins together is 1.
8
Reason (R) : When three coins are tossed simultaneously, then sample space is HHH,
HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT.
30
 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
165. Assertion (A) : Probability of a sure event is 1.
Reason (R) : For a sure event, number of favorable outcomes is less than the total number
of outcomes.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
166. Assertion (A) : Probability of getting a doublet in a single throw of a pair dice is 1.
Reason (R) : Probability of a sure event is 1.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
167. Assertion (A) : Probability of getting an even number or an odd number in a single throw
of a die is 1.
Reason (R) : Each elementary event is a favourable event.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
168. Assertion (A) : Probability of any even cannot be more than 1.
Reason (R) : P(E) + P(E) = 0
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
169. Assertion (A) : It is given that in a group of 3 students, the probability of 2 students
not having the same birthday is 0.992. The probability that the 2 students have the same
birthday is 0.008.
Reason (R) : P(E)+P (E)=1, where E denotes the event of non-occurrence of event E.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (a)

31
 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (d) 104. (a) 105. (b) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (b)
111. (d) 112. (b) 113. (a) 114. (c) 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (a)
131. (d) 132. (b) 133. (a) 134. (a) 135. (c) 136. (a) 137. (c) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (a)
141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (a) 144. (d) 145. (c) 146. (c) 147. (c) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (b)
151. (a) 152. (d) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (b)
161. (d) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (d) 165. (c) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (a)

Case Study based Questions

[basic / Standard]

Y
1. If we jerk a stretched rope certain waves are produced
7
6
on the rope. The figure given below shows a part of 5
the wave. Answer the given questions by looking at 4
the figure: 3
2
(i) What is the shape of the graph shown above? 1
(ii) How many zeroes are there for the polynomial? X´ X
–3 –2 1 2 3 5 6
(iii) When does the graph of y = ax2 + bx + c, open –1

upwards? –2

(iv) What is the expression of the given polynomial? –4

(v) What are the zeroes of the polynomial? –5
–6
–7
Y´

2. A park in Shakti Nagar in Delhi has swings made of rubber and iron chain. Kanishka
who is studying in class X has noticed that this is a Mathematical shape, she has learned
in Maths class. She drew the shape of the swing on her notebook as shown. Following
questions raised in her mind.

5
4
3
2
1
X
-5 -4 -3 -2 -1 -1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
-2
-3

(i) What is the shape of the curve?

32
 (ii) How many zeroes are there for the polynomial (shape of the swing)?
(iii) What are the zeroes of the polynomial shown above?
(iv) Write the expression of the polynomial.
(v) What is the value of the polynomial if x = 1?
3. One day Mahima visited a shopping mall with her mother. There, she observed different
stores, such as
Shoe store, Clothes store, Fruit store etc.
In the shoe store the price list was as below : In the clothes store the price list was
as below:
Types of Price Types of Price
shoes (`) Clothes (`)
Casual 500 T-Shirt 300
Formal 350 Trouser 600
Sports 750 Blazer 2000

In the fruit store the price list was as below:

Price
Fruits
(`)
Apple 70 per kg
Orange 40 per kg
Guava 30 per kg
Based upon the given information, answer the following questions:
(i) Mahima's mother purchased x trousers and y kg oranges for `1400. She also purchased
x pairs of sport shoes and y kg apple for `1850. Write of the equations that relate x
and y.
(ii) Mahima bought a Blazer and gave eleven notes in denominations of `200 and `100.
Which pair of equations can be used if number of `200 notes be denoted as x and
the number of `100 notes as y?
State the condition when the pair of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and
(iii)
a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 has a unique solution.
(iv) Mahima's mother bought 5 kg fruit in which there are oranges and guavas. She paid
` 160. Find the weight of oranges and guavas she bought.
(v) In Diwali sale there is a discount of 25% in clothes store and 20% in shoe store. How
much money Mahima saved if she bought one blazer and 4 pairs of formal shoes?
4. The given figure shows playing cards stacked together. 42 cards are
stacked in the manner. 12 cards are in the bottom row, 10 in the
next row, 8 in the row next to it and so on. Based on the above
situation, answer the following questions:
(i) Find the total number of rows in which the cards are stacked.
(ii) Find the number of cards in the top row.
(iii) Which mathematical concept is applied in solving
the above problem?
(iv) Find the number of cards in the third row.
(v) Find the number of cards in the seventh row.
33
 5. Bal Bharti Vidyalaya decided to go for plantation
drive on the occasion of VANMAHOTSAVA. It
was decided that the number of trees, that each
section of each class will plant, will be the same
as the class in which they are studying, e.g., a
section of Class I will plant 1 tree, a section
of Class II will plant 2 trees and so on, till
Class X. There are five sections of each class.
Ms. Anshu Sharma, Principal of the Vidyalaya
asked forest department to provide plants for
Vanmahotsava.
(i) How many plants were needed for plantation by all sections of class IV?
(ii) How many plants were needed for plantation by all sections of primary classes (1st
to 5th)?
(iii) How many plants were needed for plantation by all sections of class 7?
(iv) How many plants were needed for plantation by the whole school?
(v) How many plants were needed for plantation by classes 6th to 8th?
6. Rahul is studying in X Standard. He is making a kite to fly it
on a Sunday. Few questions came to his mind while making
the kite. Give answers to his questions by looking at the
figure.
(i) Rahul tied the sticks at what angles to each other?
(ii) Which is the correct similarity criteria applicable for
smaller triangles at the upper part of this kite?
(iii) If sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4 : 9, then find the ratio between the
corresponding medians of these triangles.
(iv) If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle intersecting the other two sides,
then it divides the other two sides in the same ratio. This theorem is called Thales'
Theorem. Is it true?
(v) What is the area of the kite, formed by two perpendicular sticks of length 12 cm and
14 cm?
7. Paridhi is trying to find the approximate
height of a tower near her house. She is
using the properties of similar triangles.
The height of Paridhi’s house is 20 m and
it casts a shadow 10 m long on the ground.
At the same time, the tower casts a shadow
50 m long on the ground. At the same Paridhi’s Tower Meena’s House
time, the house of Meena casts 20 m long House
shadow on the ground.
(i) What is the height of the tower?
(ii) What will be the length of the shadow of the tower when Paridhi’s house casts a shadow of
12 m?
(iii) What is the height of Meena's house?

34
 (iv) When the tower casts 40 m long shadow, at that time what will be the length of the
shadow of Meena's house?
(v) When the tower casts 40 m long shadow, at that time what will be the length of the
shadow of Paridhi's house?
8. A girl of height 90 cm is walking away from the base of a
lamp-past at a speed of 1.2 m/s. The lamp is 3.6 m above
the ground. Now, answer the following questions :
(i) The line segment DE shows the length of the shadow.
Is it true?
(ii) What would be the length of the girl shadow after
4 seconds?
(iii) How far is the girl from the lamp-post?
(iv) Triangle ABE and CDE are similar because of AA criterion. Is it true?
(v) AB denotes the lamp-post and CD the girl after walking for 4 seconds, away from the
lamp-post. Is it true?
9. In Nainital, Uttarakhand, Sunil is having a rectangular Y
B C
plot OBCD as shown in the following figure. Saplings of
Gulmohar are planted on the boundary at a distance of
P Q

1 m from each other. In the plot, Sunil builds his house

in the rectangular area PQRS. In the remaining part of
plot, Sunil wants to grow grass. S R

X
Answer the following questions: O
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D

(i) Find the coordinates of vertices P and S of rectangle PQRS.

(ii) Find the coordinates of mid-point of diagonal QS.
(iii) Find the area of rectangle PQRS.
(iv) Find the coordinates of vertices R and Q of rectangle PQRS.
(v) Find the length and breadth of rectangle PQRS.
10. National Park: A national park is an area
set aside by the government to preserve and
protect natural environment.
The graph below shows a map of the National
Park. The shaded areas indicate woods. The
plain areas indicate meadows and fields
without trees. Point O on the graph represents
the location of the park’s supervisor’s office,
and points P and Q are the ranger’s towers.
(i) Find the distance between the
towers P(0, 7.5) and Q(–15, 15).
(ii) Find the distance of the point S(5, 25)
from x-axis.
(iii) Find the point on x-axis (other than O)
equidistant from the points R(0, –5) and M(0, 5).
(iv) There are two trees T1 (–5, 7) and T2 (–1, 3) in the park. Find the coordinates of the
mid-point of the line segment joining both the trees.
(v) There is a circular pond in the park. The end points of a diameter of it are (–6, 3)
and (6, 4). Find the coordinates of the centre of the pond.
35
 11. The diagram shows a model of Rocket which is made Y
on a graph paper. Look at the model and answer the 5
G A
4
following questions :
3
(i) Find the mid-point of the segment joining the 2 B
points F and G. 1
E F
(ii) Find the distance of the point A from the x-axis. –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3 4 5 X
–1
(iii) Find the distance between the points A and C. –2
C
(iv) Find the co-ordinates of the point which divides –3
the line segment joining the points A and B in –4

the ratio 1 : 3 internally. D

–5
–6
(v) Find the coordinates of D.
12. An aquarium is a transparent tank of water in which live fish and other water creatures are
kept. The diagram below shows the plans for an aquarium. It will be built in hexagonal
shape. It will be made using six rectangular shaped clear glasses and one regular hexagon
clear glass for roof.

(i) Find the value of x for which the distance between the points F(2, –3) and C(x, 5)
is 10.
(ii) Find coordinates of the mid–point of the line segment joining the points E(8, 11) and
B(11, 15).
(iii) Find the distance of the point F(8, 6) from origin.
(iv) Find the perimeter of square EFHI, where E(–2, 0), F(3, 0), H(3, 5) and I(–2, 5).
(v) Find the coordinates of the point which divides segment joining the points A(–4, 5) and
D(6, 3) in the ratio 3 : 2.
Y
13. Two brothers Mahesh and Sudhir were 6
Home
at home and have to reach school. 5
Mahesh went to library first to return a Library
4

book and then reaches school directly 3

School
2
whereas Sudhir went to Skate Park first
1
to meet his friend and then reaches X X
school directly. –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 O
–1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
The places have been shown in a –2 Skate Park

coordinate plane. Here all distances are –3

in km. –4
–5
(i) How far is school from their home? Y

36
 (ii) What is the extra distance travelled by Mahesh in reaching his school?
(iii) What is the extra distance travelled by Sudhir in reaching his school?
(iv) Find the coordinates of the point marked library.
(v) Find the coordinates the point marked as home.
14. The Class X students of a secondary school in
Krishinagar have been allotted a rectangular plot
of land for their gardening activity. Sapling of
Gulmohar is planted on the boundary of the plot
at a distance of 1m from each other. There is a
triangular grassy lawn inside the plot as shown in
Fig. The students have to sow seeds of flowering
plants on the remaining area of the plot.
(i) Considering A as the origin, find the coordinates of A.
(ii) Find the coordinates of P.
(iii) Find the coordinates of R.
(iv) Find the coordinates of D.
(v) Find the coordinates of P, if D is taken as the origin.
15. Students of a school are standing/seating in rows and 10
9
columns in their playground for Yoga practice. A, B, C 8
B

and D are the positions of four students as shown in the 7

Rows 6
figure. 5
4
A C

(i) Find the coordinates of A, B respectively. 3

2
(ii) Find the distance between A and B. 1 D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 101112 13
(iii) It is possible to place Tanvika in the drill in such a way Columns
that she is equidistant from each of the four students
A, B, C and D, then locate the position of Tanvika.
(iv) Find the distance between A and C.
(v) Find the coordinates of C and B respectively.

16. To promote cooperation, culture, creativity, sharing, self-

confidence, and other social values, a student adventure
camp was organized by the school for class-X students
and their accommodation was planned in tents. The teacher
divides the students into groups, each group of four students
was given to prepare a conical tent of radius 7 m and
canvas of area 551 m2 in which 1 m2 is used in stitching
and wasting of canvas:
(i) Find the curved surface of conical tent.
(ii) Find the height of the conical tent.
(iii) Find the volume of tent.
(iv) Find the stant height of the tent.
(v) Find the cost of canvas required for making the tent, if the canvas cost ` 70 per sq. m

37
 17. Mayank a student of class 10th is fond of birds. One day he
had an idea in his mind to make a bird-bath on his garden. His
brother who is studying in class 12th helped him to choose the
material and shape of the birdbath. They made it in the shape of
a cylinder with a hemispherical depression at one end as shown
in the Figure below. They opted for the height of the hollow
cylinder as 1.45 m and its radius is 30 cm
Answer the following questions :
(i) Find the curved surface area of the hemisphere.
(ii) Find the curved surface area of the cylinder.
(iii) Find the total surface area of the bird-bath.
(iv) Find the curved surface area of the cylinder.
(v) Find the volume of the hemispherical depression.

18. Education with vocational training is helpful in making a

student self-reliant and to help and serve the society. Keeping
this in view, a teacher made the following table giving the
frequency distribution of a student undergoing vocational
training from the training institute.

Age (in years) 15-19 20-24 25-29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49 50-54 55-59 60-above
No. of participants 62 132 96 37 13 8 6 4 4 3

(i) Find the median class of the above data.

(ii) Find the model class of the above data.
(iii) What is the empirical relationship between mean, median, mode?
(iv) If mode = 80 and mean = 110, then find the median.
(v) The mode is the least frequent value. Is it true?

19. Thirty women were examined in a hospital by a doctor and the number of heartbeats per
minute was recorded and summarised as follows:

Number of heartbeats per minute 65-68 68-71 71-74 74-77 77-80 80-83 83-86
Number of women 2 4 3 8 7 4 2

(i) Find the mean heartbeats per minute for these women.
(ii) Find the modal class of the given data.
(iii) How many women have heart-beats less than 74 per minute?
(iv) Find the sum of the upper limit and lower limit of the median class.
(v) Find the median class of the above data.
38
 20. The agewise participation of students of a school in
the International Yoga day Celebration that was held
in the school ground is shown in the following
distribution. By analysing the data given below
answer the questions that follow:

Age(in years) 5-7 7-9 9 - 11 11 - 13 13 - 15 15 - 17 17 - 19

Number of students x 15 18 30 50 48 x

If in all 181 students participated then answer the following questions :

(i) Find the median class of the data.
(ii) Find the value of missing frequency(x).
(iii) Find the modal class.
(iv) Find the class mark of the modal class.
(v) Find the sum of lower limits of the median class and upper limit of modal class.
21. A medical camp was held in a school to impart health education and the
importance of exercise to children. During this camp, a medical
check of 35 students was done and their weights were recorded as
follows:
Weight (in kg) Number of Students
below 40 3
below 42 5
below 44 9
below 46 14
below 48 28
below 50 31
below 52 35
(i)Find the modal class of given data.
(ii)Find the median class of the given data.
(iii)Mean of a data cannot be determined graphically. Is it true?
(iv) Find the frequency of the median class.
(v) Mode and the mean of a data are 12k and 15K respectively. Find the median of the
data.
22. Ruby and Rita are playing a game of ludo with 2 dice.
(i) To win a game, Ruby wanted a total of 7. What is the probability
of winning a game by Ruby?
(ii) To win a game, Rita wanted 8 as the sum. What is the
probability of winning a game by Rita?
(iii) What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the
both the dice is divisible by 4 or 6?
(iv) Find the probability of getting a total of atleast 10.
(v) Find the probability that 5 will come up at least in 1 die.
39
 23. A game of chance consists of spinning an arrow which comes to rest
8 1
pointing at one of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 as shown in the
7 2
figure and these are equally likely outcomes. Now answer the following
questions :
6 3
(i) What is the probability of getting a prime number? 5 4
(ii) What is the probability of getting a odd number?
(iii) What is the probability of getting a number less than 7?
(iv) What is the probability of getting a number greater than 8?
(v) What is the probability of getting a number greater than 0?

Answers
1. (i) parabola (ii) 2 (iii) a > 0 (iv) x2 – 3x – 4 (v) –1, 4
2. (i) parabola (ii) 2 (iii) –1, 3 (iv) x2 – 2x – 3 (v) – 4
3. (i) 600x + 40y = 1400, 750x + 70y = 1850 (ii) x + y = 11, 200x + 100y = 2000
a1 b
(iii) ≠ 1 (iv) 1 kg, 4 kg (v) ` 780
a2 b2
4. (i) 6 (ii) 2 (iii) AP (iv) 8 (v) 0
5. (i) 20 (ii) 75 (iii) 35 (iv) 275 (v) 105
6. (i) 90° (ii) RHS (iii) 2 : 3 (iv) yes (v) 84 cm2
7. (i) 100 m (ii) 60 m (iii) 40 m (iv) 16 m (v) 15 m
8. (i) yes (ii) 1.6 m (iii) 6.4 m (iv) yes (v) yes
 13 
9. (i) (3, 6), (3, 2) (ii)  , 4  (iii) 28 m2 (iv) (10, 2), (10, 6) (v) 7 units, 4 units
2 

 7
10. (i) 281.25 units (ii) 25 units (iii) U (iv) (–3, 5) (v)  0, 
 2

11. (i) (–1, 2) (ii) 4 units (iii) 2 13 (iv) (3, 3.5) (v) (–2, –5)
 19  13
12. (i) 8 or – 4 (ii)  , 13  (iii) 10 units (iv) 20 units (v)  8, 
2   2
13. (i) 3 km (ii) 7.48 km (iii) 4.33 km (iv) (–1, 3) (v) (4, 5)
14. (i) (0, 0) (ii) (4, 6) (iii) (6, 5) (iv) (16, 0) (v) (–12, 6)
15. (i) (3, 5), (7, 9) (ii) 6 2 units (iii) 4 2 units (iv) 6 units (v) (11, 5), (7, 9)
16. (i) 550 m2 (ii) 24 m (iii) 1232 m3 (iv) 25 m (v) `38570
17. (i) 0.56 m2 (ii) 2.73 m2 (iii) 3.3 m2 (iv) 2πrh (v) 0.05 m3
18. (i) 19.5 –24.5 (ii) 19.5 – 24.5 (iii) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean (iv) 100 (v) no
19. (i) 75.9 (ii) 74 – 77 (iii) 9 (iv) 151 (v) 74 – 77
20. (i) 13 – 15 (ii) 10 (iii) 13 – 15 (iv) 14 (v) 28
21. (i) 46 – 48 (ii) 46 – 48 (iii) yes (iv) 14 (v) 14 K
5 7 1 11
22. (i) 1 (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
6 36 18 6 36
1 1 3
23. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 0 (v) 1
2 2 4

40
 Model Test Paper 1 (Standard)
(Based on the latest CBSE Sample Question Paper Released by the CBSE for
the Board Examination to be held in 2023)
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts
of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of
3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been
provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)
1. If the product of two numbers a and b is 1152 and HCF of a and b is 12, then LCM of
a and b is :
(a) 88 (b) 90 (c) 92 (d) 96
2. If one root of the equation 2x2 – 10x + p = 0 is 2, then the value of p is :
(a) –3 (b) –6 (c) 9 (d) 12
3. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = 2x + 5x + k satisfying the relation
2

21
α2 + β2 + αβ = , then the value of k is :
4
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
4. The values of x and y respectively if 99x + 101y = 499 and 101x + 99y = 501 are :
(a) 3 and 2 (b) 5 and 6 (c) –3 and 2 (d) –3 and –2
m 
5. If A  , 5  is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q(– 6, 7) and R(–2, 3), then
2 
the value of m is :
(a) – 8 (b) – 4 (c) 12 (d) – 6
6. D is a point on the side BC of a triangle ABC such that ∠ADC = ∠BAC, then :
(a) CA2 = BC · CD (b) BC2 = CA · CD
(c) CD2 = CA · BC (d) none of these
7. sec4 θ (1 – sin2 θ) – tan2 θ =
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) none of these

41
 p2 − 1
8. If cosecθ + cotθ = p, then =
p2 + 1
(a) sin θ (b) tan θ (c) cosec θ (d) cos θ
9. If in triangles ABC and DEF, ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3 DE, then the two triangles
are:
(a) congruent but not similar (b) similar but not congruent
(c) neither congruent nor similar (d) congruent as well as similar
10. If DABC ∼ DEDF and DABC is not similar to DDEF, then which of the following is not
true?
(a) BC · EF = AC · FD (b) AB · EF = AC · DE
(c) BC · DE = AB · EF (d) BC · DE = AB · FD
11. In the figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre A
O such that ∠APB = 50°, then the measure of ∠OAB =
P O
(a) 37° (b) 36° 50°

(c) 50° (d) 25° B

12. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is:
(a) p : 2 (b) 4 : p (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : p
13. A rectangular sheet of paper 40 cm × 22 cm, is rolled to form a hollow cylinder of height
40 cm. The radius of the cylinder is :
(a) 3.5 cm (b) 5.5 cm (c) 6.5 cm (d) 7.5 cm
14. Consider the following frequency distribution of the heights of 60 students of a class.
Height (in cm) 150-155 155-160 160-165 165-170 170-175 175-180
No. of students 15 13 10 8 9 5
The sum of the lower limit of the modal class and upper limit of the median class is :
(a) 310 (b) 315 (c) 320 (d) 330
15. The radius of a circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of the circumferences of
the two circles of diameter 36 cm and 20 cm, is:
(a) 56 cm (b) 42 cm (c) 28 cm (d) 16 cm
16. The frequency distribution table of agricultural holdings in a village is given below :
Area of land (hectares) 1-3 3-5 5-7 7-9 9-11 11-13
No. of families 20 45 80 55 40 12
The modal agricultural holdings of the village is :
(a) 5.8 (b) 4.7 (c) 6.2 (d) 7.5
17. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a doublet of even number
is :
1 5 7 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12 12 12 4
18. 9 sec2θ – 9 tan2θ =
(a) 1 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 0

42
Direction : In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option :
19. Assertion (A) : The product (5 + 3 )(3 − 3 ) = 12 − 2 3 is an irrational number.
Reason (R) : The product of two irrational numbers is always an irrational number.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
20. Assertion (A) : The point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, –5) and (–2, 9) is
(8, 0).
Reason (R) : Points lies on the y-axis are always of the form (0, y).
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Section B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each)
21. Find c, if the system of equations cx + 3y + (3 – c) = 0; 12x + cy – c = 0 has infinitely
many solutions.
A

D
22. In the figure, if AB ^ BC, DC ^ BC and
DE ^ AC, prove that DCED ~ DABC.
E
B C

A
23. In the figure, the radii of two concentric circles are 13 cm and 8 cm.
O
AB is a diameter of the bigger circle. BD is a tangent to the smaller
circle touching it at D. Find the length of AD . B E
D

24. What is the perimeter of a sector of a circle with radius 7 cm and central angle 45°?
[Use π = 22/7]
OR
A brooch is made with silver wire in the form of a circle with
diameter 35 mm. The wire is also used in making 5 diameters
which divide the circle into 10 equal sectors as shown in the
figure. Find the total length of the silver wire required.

43
 sec θ − 1 sec θ + 1
25. Prove that + = 2 cosec θ
sec θ + 1 sec θ − 1
OR
cot 2 θ tan 2 θ
Prove that + =1
1 + cot 2 θ 1 + tan 2 θ

Section C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)
26. Show that 12 cannot end with the digit 0 or 5 for any natural number n.
n

3
27. Find a quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of whose zeroes are 2 and – ,
2
respectively. Also find its zeroes.
28. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance
of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/h more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours
to complete the total journey, what is its original average speed?
OR
If Zeba were younger by 5 years than what she really is, then the square of her age (in
years) would have been 11 more than five times her actual age. What is her age now?
29. If a sin θ + b cos θ = c, then prove that a cos θ – b sin θ = a 2 + b2 − c2 .
P
A
30. In the figure, O is the centre of a circle of radius
5 cm, T is a point such that OT = 13 cm and OT
O T
intersects the circle at E. If AB is the tangent to E
the circle at E, find the length of AB.
B
OR Q

In a right triangle ABC in which ∠B = 90°, a circle is drawn with AB as diameter

intersecting the hypotenuse AC at P. Prove that the tangent to the circle at P bisects BC.
31. All the jacks, queens and kings are removed from a deck of 52 playing cards. The
remaining cards are well shuffled and then one card is drawn at random. Giving ace a
value 1 similar value for other cards, find the probability that the card has a value.
(i) 7 (ii) greater than 7 (iii) less than 7

Section D
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)
32. The difference of squares of two numbers is 180. If the square of the smaller number is
8 times the larger number, find the two numbers.
OR
1 1 1 1

Solve for x : = + + , a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0, x ≠ 0.
a+b+ x a b x
33. (i) Two poles of height a metres and b metres are p metres apart. Prove that height of
the point of intersection of the lines joining the top of each pole to the foot of the
ab
opposite pole is given by metres.
a+b
44
 A

D E

(ii) In the figure, if DABE ≅ DACD, show that DADE ∼ DABC.

B C

34. A building is in the form of a cylinder surmounted by a hemispherical dome. The base
2
diameter of the dome is equal to of the total height of the building. Find the height of
3
1
the building, if it contains 67 m3 of air.
21
5 cm
OR

A toy in the shape of a right circular cylinder with a 12 cm

hemisphere on one end and a cone on the other. The

height and radius of the cylindrical part are 13 cm and
5 cm respectively. The radii of the hemispherical and 13 cm
conical parts are the same as that of the cylindrical part. 5 cm

Calculate the surface area of the toy if height of the

conical part is 12 cm.

35. The mean of the following data is 42. Find the missing frequencies x and y, if the total
frequency is 100 :

Class interval 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80
Frequency 7 10 x 13 y 10 14 9

Section E
(Case study based questions are compulsory.)
36. In Nainital, Uttarakhand, Sunil is having a rectangular plot OBCD as shown in the
following figure. Saplings of Gulmohar are planted on the boundary at a distance of 1 m
from each other. In the plot, Sunil builds his house in the rectangular area PQRS. In the
remaining part of plot, Sunil wants to grow grass.
Y
B C

P Q

S R

X
O D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

45
 Answer the following questions:
(i) Find the coordinates of vertices P and S of rectangle PQRS.

(ii) Find the length and breadth of rectangle PQRS

(iii) Find the area of the rectangle PQRS.
Or
Find the coordinates of mid-point of diagonal QS.
37. Sprint events in track and field usually consists of the
100 m, 200 m and 400 m race though 60 m dashes are also
held on occasion. These races are largely based upon the
athlete’s ability to accelerate to his or her maximum speed in
the quickest time possible.
Girish wants to participate in the 200 m Sprint. He can currently
run that distance in 45 sec. But he wants to do that in under
30 sec. With each day of practice, it takes him 2 sec less. Based
on the above situation, answer the following questions:
(i) What is the minimum number of days he needs to practice till his goal is accomplished?

(ii) Find the AP formed in the given situation.
(iii) Find the nth term of the sequence a, a + d, a + 2d...

Or
Is 30 a term of the given AP in the given situation?
A M
38. A lighthouse is a tower with a bright light at the
top and serves as a navigational aid and also warns
ships of dangerous areas. In the given figure, a man 75 m
on top of a 75 m high lighthouse is observing two
ships approaching towards its base. Observe the figure 45° 30°
D x C B
carefully and answer the following questions: y

(i) Find the distance of the ship B from the foot of the lighthouse.

(ii) Find the distance of the ship C from the foot of the lighthouse.

(iii) Find the distance between the two ships.
Or
What would have been the distance of two ships if the ships were on either side of
the lighthouse?

46
 Model Test Paper 2 (Standard)
(Based on the latest CBSE Sample Question Paper Released by the CBSE for
the Board Examination to be held in 2023)
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts
of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of
3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been
provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)
1. If the mid-point of the line segment joining the points P(6, b – 2) and Q(–2, 4) is (2, –3), then
the value of b =
(a) –5 (b) –6 (c) –7 (d) –8
2. Roots of the quadratic equation (2x – 3) = 16 are :
2

7 −1 5 −3 7 3 11 7
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) ,
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c, then
1 1
+ – 2αβ is :
α β
−ab − 2c 2 ab + 2c 2 ab + b 2 −c 2 + ab
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ac ac 2c 2ac
4. The value of k, for which the pair of linear equations 4x + 6y – 1 = 0 and 2x – ky = 7
represents parallel lines is :
(a) 2 (b) –3 (c) 4 (d) –2
5. The fourth vertex D of a parallelogram ABCD whose three vertices are A(–2, 3), B(6, 7)
and C(8, 3) is:
(a) (0, 1) (b) (0, –1) (c) (–1, 0) (d) (1, 0)
6. If DABC ∼ DEDF and DABC is not similar to DDEF, then which of the following is not
true?
(a) BC · EF = AC · FD (b) AB · EF = AC · DE
(c) BC · DE = AB · EF (d) BC · DE = AB · FD
sin 3 θ + cos3 θ
7. + sin θ⋅cos θ =
sin θ + cos θ
1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d)
2
47
 8. If a pole 6 m high, casts a shadow 2 3 m long on the ground, then the Sun’s elevation
is :
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 90°
AB BC
9. If in triangles ABC and DEF, = , then they will be similar, when:
DE FD
(a) ∠B = ∠E (b) ∠A = ∠D (c) ∠B = ∠D (d) ∠A = ∠F
10. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to A C
the circle from an external point P. CD is another
tangent touching the circle at Q. If PA = 12 cm, Q P
QC = QD = 3 cm, then PC + PD is :
(a) 22 cm (b) 20 cm D
B
(c) 19 cm (d) 18 cm
11. If four sides of quadrilateral ABCD are tangential to a circle, then:
(a) AC + AD = BD + CD (b) AB + CD = AD + BC
(c) AB + CD = AC + BC (d) AC + AD = BC + DB
12. If the perimeter of a semi-circular protractor is 36 cm, then its diameter is:
(a) 8 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 14 cm (d) 18 cm
13. A sphere of diameter 12 cm, is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel, partly filled
5
with water. If the water level in the cylindrical vessel rises by 3 cm, then the diameter
9
of the cylindrical vessel is :
(a) 16 cm (b) 17 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 20 cm

14. If cos θ + sin θ = 2 cos θ, then cos θ – sin θ =

1
(a) 2 tan θ (b) 2 cot θ (c) sin θ (d) 2 sin θ
2
15. A hemispherical depression is cut out from one face of cubical block of side a cm, such
that the diameter of the hemisphere is equal to the edge of the cube. The surface area of
the remaining solid is :
2
a
(a) 6a2 + p   (b) 5a2 + pr2 (c) a2 + 6pr2 (d) a2 – pr2
2
 ∑ fi ui 
16. In the formula x = a + h   for finding the mean of a grouped frequency
 ∑f
 i 
distribution, ui is :
x +a xi − a a − xi
(a) i (b) h(xi –A) (c) (d)
h h h
17. An unbiased die is tossed once. The probability of getting a multiple of 2 or 3 is :
1 5 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 6 2 3
3 − tan θ
18. Simplified form of is :
3 cosec θ − sec θ
(a) cos θ (b) sin θ (c) cosec θ (d) tan θ

48
Direction : In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option :
19. Assertion (A) : Degree of the zero polynomial is not defined.
Reason (R) : Degree of a non-zero constant polynomial is 0.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
20. Assertion (A) : If coordinates of the midpoints of the sides AB and AC of triangle ABC
are D(3, 5) and E(–3, –3) respectively, then BC = 20 units
Reason (R) : The line joining the midpoints of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the
third side and equal to half of it.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Section B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each)
21. For which value(s) of k will the pair of equation:
C
kx + 3y = k – 3; 12x + ky = k have no solution ?

m
8c
10 cm
D
22. In the given figure, if ∠A = ∠CED, prove that DCAB ∼ DCED.
E
Also find the value of x. 7 cm x

A B

23. In the given figure, a circle inscribed in DABC, touches its sides
BC, CA and AB at the points P, Q and R respectively. If AB = AC R Q
then prove that BP = CP.

B P C

24. The perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius 5.2 cm is 16.4 cm. Find the area of the
sector.
OR

In a circle with centre O, AB is a chord of the circle. O

AO = 12 cm and angle AOB = 90°. Find the area of the 12
cm

90° cm
shaded region. (Use p = 3.14).
12

A B
P

49
 m2 − 1
25. If cosec θ + cot θ = m, then prove that = cos θ.
m2 + 1
OR

If 7 sin2 θ + 3 cos2 θ = 4, find the value of sec θ + cosec θ.

Section C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)
26. Can two numbers have 18 as their HCF and 380 as their LCM? Give reasons.
27. If P(9a –2, – b) divides line segment joining A(3a + 1, –3) and B (8a, 5) in the ratio
3 : 1, find the values of a and b.
28. At present Asha's age (in years) is 2 more than the square of her daughter Nisha's age.
When Nisha grows to her mother's present age, Asha's age would be one year less than
10 times the present age of Nisha. Find the present ages of both Asha and Nisha.
OR
Had Ajita scored 10 more marks in her mathematics test out of 30 marks, 9 times these
marks would have been the square of her actual marks. How many marks did she get in
the test?
29. Given that sin θ + 2cos θ = 1, then prove that 2sin θ – cos θ = 2.
30. AB is a diameter, AC is a chord of a circle with centre O such that ∠BAC = 30°. The
tangent at C intersects extended AB at a point D. Prove that BC = BD.
OR
If a circle touches the side BC of a triangle ABC at P and extended sides AB and AC at
1
Q and R, respectively, prove that AQ = (BC + CA + AB)
2

31. The king, queen and jack of clubs are removed from a deck of 52 playing cards and then
well shuffled. Now one card is drawn at random from the remaining cards. Determine the
probability that the card is :
(i) a heart (ii) a king

Section D
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)
32. If the roots of the equation (c2 – ab) x2 – 2 (a2 – bc) x + (b2 – ac) = 0 are equal, prove
that either a = 0 or a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc.
OR
2x 1 3x + 9  3

Solve for x : + + = 0  x ≠ 3, − 
x − 3 2 x + 3 ( x − 3) ( 2 x + 3)  2

33. (i) If AD and PM are medians of triangles ABC and PQR, respectively where
AB AD
DABC ∼ DPQR, prove that = .
PQ PM

50
 (ii) D is a point on the side BC of a triangle ABC such that ÐADC = ÐBAC. Show that
CA2 = CB.CD.

34. Find the volume of a solid in the form of a right circular cylinder with hemispherical
ends, whose total height is 2.7 m and the diameter of each hemispherical end is 0.7 m.
OR
A vessel is in the form of a hollow hemisphere mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter
of the hemisphere is 14 cm and the total height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the capacity
and the inner surface area of the vessel.
35. A man is standing on the deck of a ship which is 25 m above water level. He observes
the angle of elevation of the top of a lighthouse as 60° and the angle of depression of the
base of the lighthouse as 45°. Calculate the height of the lighthouse.

Section E
(Case study based questions are compulsory.)
36. The diagram shows a model of rocket which is Y
5
made on a graph paper. Look at the model and G A
4
answer the following questions : 3
(i) Find the distance of the point A from the x-axis. 2 B
1

(ii) Find the distance between the points A and C. E F
–6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3 4 5 X

(iii) Find the midpoint of the line segment joining –1
the points F and G. C –2
–3
Or –4
Find the coordinates of the point which divides –5
D
the line segment joining the points A and B in –6
the ratio 1 : 3 internally.
37. Bal Bharti Vidyalaya decided to go for plantation drive on the occasion of VANMAHOTSAVA.
It was decided that the number of trees, that each section of each class will plant, will be
the same as the class in which they are studying, e.g., a section of Class I will plant 1
tree, a section of Class II will plant 2 trees and so on, till Class X. There are five sections
of each class. Ms. Anshu Sharma, Principal of the Vidyalaya asked forest department to
provide plants for Vanmahotsava.

(i) How many plants were needed for plantation by all sections of Class IV?

51
 (ii) How many plants were needed for plantation by all sections of class 7?
(iii) How many plants were needed for plantation by classes 6th to 8th?

Or
How many plants were needed for plantation by all sections of primary classes (1st to
5th)?
38. An electrician has to repair an electric fault on the pole of height 12 m. He needs to reach
a point 2 m below the top of the pole to undertake the repair work. (see figure).

A
2m
D
12 m

C B

Now answer the following questions :

(i) What should be the length of ladder so that it makes an angle of 60° with the ground?
(ii) Find measure of ∠BDC.

(iii) Find the distance between the foot of ladder and the base of the pole.
Or
When BD and BC are equal, find ∠BCD.

52
 Model Test Paper 3 (Standard)
(Based on the latest CBSE Sample Question Paper Released by the CBSE for
the Board Examination to be held in 2023)
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts
of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of
3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been
provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)
1. The perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points A(1, 5) and B(4, 6) cuts
the y-axis at
(a) (0, 13) (b) (0, –13) (c) (0, 12) (d) (13, 0)

2. Values of k for which the quadratic equation 2x2 – kx + k = 0 has equal roots is :
(a) 0 only (b) 4 (c) 8 only (d) 0, 8

3. If one of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial x3 + ax2 + bx + c is –1, then the product of
the other two zeroes is :
(a) b – a + 1 (b) b – a – 1 (c) a – b + 1 (d) a – b – 1
4. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equation x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then the values
of a and b are, respectively.
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 5 and 3 (c) 3 and 1 (d) –1 and –3
5. If the point P(2, 1) lies on the line segment joining points A(4, 2) and B(8, 4), then :
1 1 1
(a) AP = AB (b) AP = PB (c) PB = AB (d) AP = AB
3 3 2
AB BC
6. If in triangles ABC and DEF, = , then they will be similar, when:
DE FD
(a) ∠B = ∠E (b) ∠A = ∠D (c) ∠B = ∠D (d) ∠A = ∠F
7. If sin θ – cos θ = 0, then the value of (sin4 θ + cos4 θ) is :
3 1 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
4 2 4

53
 8. The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is 1 : 3 . The angle of elevation of the
sun is :
(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) none of these
9. D and E are respectively the points on the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC such that
AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm, BC = 7.5 cm and DE || BC. Then, length of DE (in cm) is :
(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6

10. In the figure, if PQR is the tangent to a circle at Q A B

whose centre is O. AB is a chord parallel to PR and
∠BQR = 70°, then ∠AQB is equal to : O
(a) 20° (b) 40°
(c) 35° (d) 45° 70°
P Q R
11. If ∆ABC ~ ∆EDF and ∆ABC is not similar to ∆DEF, then which of the following is not
true?
(a) BC ⋅ EF = AC ⋅ FD (b) AB ⋅ EF = AC ⋅ DE
(c) BC ⋅ DE = AB ⋅ EF (d) BC ⋅ DE = AB ⋅ FD
12. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is :
(a) 22 : 7 (b) 14 : 11 (c) 7 : 22 (d) 11 : 14
13. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of edge
4.2 cm is :
(a) 9.7 cm3 (b) 77.6 cm3 (c) 58.2 cm3 (d) 19.4 cm3
14. AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are vertices A(0, 3), O(0, 0) and B(5, 0). The
length of its diagonal is :
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 34 (d) 4
15. The number of polynomials having zeroes as –2 and 5 is :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) more than 3
16. Consider the following distribution :
Marks obtained Number of students
More than or equal to 0 63
More than or equal to 10 58
More than or equal to 20 55
More than or equal to 30 51
More than or equal to 40 48
More than or equal to 50 42
The frequency of the class 30-40 is :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 48 (d) 51
17. If the probability of an event is p, the probability of its complementary event will be :
(a) p – 1 (b) p (c) 1 – p (d) 0.1
18. If sin A + sin2A = 1, then the value of the expression (cos2A + cos4A) is :
1
(a) 1 (b) (c) 2 (d) 3
2
54
Direction : In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option :
19. Assertion (A) : Slant height of a cone of height 4 cm and radius 3 cm is 5 cm.
Reason (R) : Curved surface area of a cone is given by πrl.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
a2 + 1
20. Assertion (A) : If sec θ + tan θ = a, then sec θ =
2a
Reason (R) : cosec2 θ – cot2 θ = 1

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Section B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each)
21. Find the value of k for which each of the following pairs of linear equations has an infinite
number of solutions:
2x + 3y = 7; (k + 2)x – 3 (1 – k)y = 5k + 1
A

D
22. In the figure, if ÐA = ÐB and AD = BE, show that DE || AB.

B E C

23. From an external point P, tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with D
C
centre O. If CD is the tangent to the circle at a point E and PA = 14 cm, A E B
find the perimeter of DPCD.
O

2
24. The length of a minor arc is of the circumference of the circle. Write the measure of the
9
angle subtended by the arc at the centre of the circle.
OR
The length of the minute hand of a clock is 5 cm. Find the area swept by the minute hand
during the time period 6.05 am and 6.40 am.
25. If sin θ + cos θ = 3 , then prove that tan θ + cot θ = 1
OR
If 2sin θ – cos θ = 2, then find the value of θ.
2 2

55
 Section C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)
26. The sum of the first three terms of an AP is 33. If the product of the first and the third
term exceeds the second term by 29, find the AP.
27. Find the ratio in which the line 2x + 3y – 5 = 0 divides the line segment joining the points
(8, –9) and (2, 1). Also find the coordinates of the point of division.
28. A two-digit number is obtained by either multiplying the sum of the digits by 8 and then
subtracting 5 or by multiplying the difference of the digits by 16 and then adding 3. Find
the number.
OR
The age of the father is twice the sum of the ages of his two children. After 20 years, his
age will be equal to the sum of the ages of his children. Find the age of the father.
1 + sec θ – tan θ 1 – sin θ
29. Prove that =
1 + sec θ + tan θ cos θ
C

30. If AB is a chord of a circle with centre O, AOC is a

B
diameter and AT is the tangent at A, as shown in the figure. O
Prove that ∠BAT = ∠ACB
OR A T
From an external point P, two tangents, PA and PB are drawn to a circle with centre O.
At one point E on the circle a tangent is drawn which intersects PA and PB at C and D,
respectively. If PA = 10 cm, find the perimeter of the triangle PCD.
31. Two dice are thrown at the same time. Find the probability of getting :
(i) same number on both dice.
(ii) different numbers on both dice.

Section D
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)
32. One-fourth of a herd of camels was seen in the forest. Twice the square root of the herd
had gone to mountains and the remaining 15 camels were seen on the bank of a river.
Find the total number of camels.
OR
 3x − 1   2x + 3  1 −3
Solve for x : 3   − 2  =5;x≠ ,
 2x + 3   3x − 1  3 2
33. (i) Sides AB and AC and median AD of a triangle ABC are respectively proportional
to sides PQ and PR and median PM of another triangle PQR. Show that DABC ∼ DPQR.
C
(ii) In the figure, ∠ACB = 90° and CD ^ AB.
CB2 BD .
Prove that =
CA2 AD
A D B

56
 34. A circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 3 m and conical above it. If its base radius is
52.5 m and slant height of the conical portion is 53 m, find the area of the canvas required
22
to make the tent.  Use π = 
 7 
OR
An inver t ed cone of vertical height 12 cm and radius of base 9 cm contains water to a
depth of 4 cm. Find the area of the interior surface of the cone not in contact with the
water.
35. The angl e of elevation of a cloud from a point 60 m above the surface of the water of
a lake is 30° and the angle of depression of its shadow in water of the lake is 60°. Find
the height of the cloud from the surface of the water.

Section E
(Case study based questions are compulsory.)
36. To enhance the reading skills of grade X students, the school nominates you and two of
your friends to set up a class library. There are two sections- section A and section B of
grade X. There are 32 students in section A and 36 students in section B.

(i) If the product of two positive integers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM
is true then, find the HCF of (32, 36).
(ii) Express 36 as a product of its primes.
(iii) If p and q are positive integers such that p = ab2 and q = a2b, where a, b are prime
numbers, then find the LCM of (p, q).
Or
What is the minimum number of books you will acquire for the class library, so that
they can be distributed equally among students
of Section A or Section B?
37. Reeya, being a plant lover decides to open a nursery
and she bought 120 plants with pots. She wants to
place pots in such a way that number of pots in first
row is 3, in second row is 5, in third row is 7 and
so on.
(i) How many pots are placed in the last row?
(ii) What is the difference in the number of pots placed in 8th and 3rd row?

57
 (iii) Find the number of pots in the 4th row from the last row.
Or
Find the number of rows formed in this arrangement.
38. A stopwatch was used to find the time that it took a group of students to run 100 m.

Time (seconds) 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50

No. of students 7 10 15 8 10
(i) What will be the upper limit of the modal class?
(ii) Find the sum of lower limits of median class and modal class.
(iii) Estimate the mean time taken by a student to finish the race.
Or
Find the range and class mark of the modal class.

58
 Model Test Paper 4 (Standard)
(Based on the latest CBSE Sample Question Paper Released by the CBSE for
the Board Examination to be held in 2023)
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts
of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of
3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been
provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)
1. The vertices of a parallelogram in order are A(1, 2), B(4, y), C(x, 6), D(3, 6), then the value
of x and y respectively are :
(a) 6, 2 (b) 3, 6 (c) 5, 6 (d) 1, 4
1 2 6
2. If + = (where x ≠ 0,1, 2), then x =
x − 2 x –1 x
(a) 3, 2 (b) 5, 7 (c) 3, 4 (d) 7, 5
3 3 3 3
3. The value of k, if – 4 is a zero of polynomial x2 – x – (2k + 2), is :
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
4. For what value of k, 2x + 3y = 4 and (k + 2)x + 6y = 3k + 2 will have infinitely many
solutions?
(a) 5 (b) –5 (c) 2 (d) –2
5. If the distance between the points (4, k) and (1, 0) is 5, then what can be the possible value of
k?
(a) ± 2 (b) ± 3 (c) ± 4 (d) ± 5
A D
6. In the figure, two line segments AC and BD intersect 6 cm
P 5 cm 30°
each other at the point P such that PA = 6 cm, 50°
PB = 3 cm, PC = 2.5 cm, PD = 5 cm, ∠APB = 50° and m
2.5 c
m
3c
∠CDP = 30°. Then ∠PBA is equal to: B
C

(a) 50° (b) 30°

(c) 60° (d) 100°

59
 2 2
 x 3  y 3
7. If x = a cos3θ, y = b sin3θ, then   +   =
a b
1 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
3 3 2
8. The length of the shadow cast by a rod is equal to length of the rod. Then the angle of
elevation of the Sun is :
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
9. It is given that DABC ∼ DDFE, ∠A = 30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and
DF = 7.5 cm. Then, which of the following is true?
(a) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 50° (b) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°
(c) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 100° (d) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 30°

10. In the figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O. A
If ∠APB = 60°, then ∠OAB is :
(a) 40° (b) 30° P 60°
O
(c) 25° (d) 20°
B

11. If in triangles DEF and PQR, ∠D = ∠Q and ∠R = ∠E, then which of the following is
not true?
EF DE DE EF DE DF EF DE
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
PR QR PQ RP QR PQ RP QR
12. The area of a quadrant of a circle where the circumference of circle is 176 m, is :
(a) 2464 m2 (b) 1232 m2 (c) 616 m2 (d) 308 m2
13. Volume and surface area of a solid hemisphere are numerically equal. The diameter of
hemisphere is :
(a) 7 units (b) 9 units (c) 12 units (d) 16 units
a 
14. If P  , 4  is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points A(–6, 5) and B(–2, 3), then
2 
the value of a is :
(a) –8 (b) 7 (c) –6 (d) –5
15. The value of k such that 3x2 + 2kx – k – 5 has the sum of the zeroes as half of their
product is :
2 5 7 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3
16. If the median of the data : 24, 25, 26, x + 2, x + 3, 30, 31, 34 is 27.5, then the value of
x is :
(a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 30
17. Cards marked with numbers 1, 3, 5, ...., 101 are placed in a bag and mixed thoroughly. A
card is then drawn at random from the bag. The probability that the number on the drawn
card is a prime number less than 20 is :
7 5 13 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
51 51 51 51
60
 18. If sin θ + cos θ = 1, then the value of sin θ.cos θ =
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) –1 (d) 2
Direction : In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option :
19. Assertion (A) : In a circle of radius 6 cm, the angle of a sector is 60°. Then the area of
132
the sector is cm2.
7
Reason (R) : Area of the circle with radius r is πr2.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
20. Assertion (A) : If the shadow of a vertical tower is of its height, then the altitude of the
sun is 600.
Reason (R) : If the sun’s altitude is 45°, then the shadow of a vertical pole is same as

its altitude.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Section B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each)
21. Can the number 6n, n being a natural number, end with the digit 5? Give reasons.
A
D
22. In the figure, ABC is a triangle right angled at B and BD ⊥ AC.
If AD = 4 cm and CD = 5 cm, find BD and AB.
B C

C
23. In the figure, the tangent at a point C of a circle and a
diameter AB when extended intersect at P. If ∠PCA = 110°,
P A
find ∠CBA. B O

24. Find the area of the sector a circle of radius 5 cm, if the corresponding arc length is
3.5 cm.
OR
The wheel of a motorcycle is of radius 35 cm. How many revolutions per minute must
the wheel make so as to keep a speed of 66 km/h?
61
 p2 – 1.
25. If cosec θ + cot θ = p, then prove that cos θ =
p2 + 1
OR
l2 + 1.
If tan θ + sec θ = l, then prove that sec θ =
2l

Section C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)
 3n 2 5n 
26. In an AP, the sum of first n terms is  +  . Find its 25th term.
 2 2 
27. If the point P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A(3, 6) and B(–3, 4), prove that
3x + y – 5 = 0.
28. Seven times a given two-digit number is equal to four times the number obtained by
interchanging the digits and the difference of the digits is 3. Find the number.
OR
Solve: 99x + 101y = 499; 101x + 99y = 501. Use method of Elimination.
1
29 If cosec (A – B) = 2, cot (A + B) = , 0° < (A + B) ≤ 90°, A > B, then find
3
A and B.
30. Show that the points A(2, –2), B(8, 4), C(5, 7) and D(–1, 1) are the vertices of a rectangle
ABCD.
OR
Determine the ratio in which the line 2x + y – 4 = 0 divides the line segment joining the
points A(2, –2) and B(3, 7).
31. A bag contains 12 balls, out of which x are white. (i) If one ball is drawn at random,
what is the probability that it will be a white ball? (ii) If 6 more white balls are put
in the bag, the probability of drawing a white ball will become double than that in
(i), find x.

Section D
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)
1 1 1 1
32. Solve for x : = + + .
2a + b + 2 x 2a b 2 x
OR

Two trains leave a railway station at the same time. The first train travels due west and
the second train due north. The first train travels 5 km/hr faster than the second train. If
after two hours, they are 50 km apart, find the average speed of each train.
33. ABC is a right angled triangle with ∠ABC = 90°, BD ⊥ AC, DM ⊥ BC and DN ⊥ AB.
Prove that (i) DM2 = DN × MC (ii) DN2 = DM × AN.
34. Due to heavy floods in a state, thousands were rendered homeless. 50 schools collectively
offered to the state government to provide place and the canvas for 1500 tents to be fixed
62
 by the government and decided to share the whole expenditure equally. The lower part
of each tent is cylindrical of base radius 2.8 m and height 3.5 m, with conical upper part
of same base radius but height 2.1 m. If the canvas used to make the tent costs `120 per
sq. m, find the amount shared by each school to set up the tents. [Use p = 22/7]

OR
A cylindrical vessel with internal diameter 10 cm and height 10.5 cm is full of water.
A solid cone of base diameter 7 cm and height 6 cm is completely immersed in water.
Find the volume of:
(i) Water displaced out of the cylindrical vessel.
(ii) Water left in the cylindrical vessel. [Take p = 22/7]
35. Amit standing on a horizontal plane, finds a bird flying at a distance of 200 m from him
at an elevation of 30°. Deepak standing on the roof of 50 metres high building, finds the
angle of elevation of the same bird to be 45°. Both Amit and Deepak are on opposite
sides of the bird. Find the distance of bird from Deepak.

Section E
(Case study based questions are compulsory.)
36. Indian Army is the third biggest military
contingent in the World next to USA and
China. However, there are many firsts that
make Indian army stand out in the world,
making us all Indians very proud. Knowing
them, will help you celebrate Republic day
with greater vigour and gratitude.
On 71th republic day Parade in Delhi
Captian RS Meel is planing for parade of
following two group: (a) First group of
Army contingent of 624 members behind an army band of 32 members. (b) Second group
of CRPF troops with 468 soldiers behind the 228 members of bikers. These two groups
are to march in the same number of columns. This sequence of soldiers is followed by
different states Jhanki which are showing the culture of the respective states.
(i) What is the maximum number of columns in which the army troop can march?
(ii) What is the maximum number of columns in which the CRPF troop can march?
(iii) What should be subtracted with the numbers of CRPF soldiers and the number of
bikers so that their maximum number of column is equal to the maximum number of
column of army troop?
Or
What should be added with the numbers of CRPF soldiers and the number of bikers
so that their maximum number of column is equal to the maximum number of column
of army troop?

63
 37. India is a competitive manufacturing location
due to the low cost manpower and strong
technical and engineering capabilities
contributing to higher quality production
runs. The production of TV sets in a factory
increases uniformly by a fixed number every
year. It produced 16000 sets in 6th year and
22600 in 9th year.

(i) Find the production in the 1st year.

(ii) Find the production in the 5th year.

(iii) In which year production is ` 29,200

Or
Find the difference of the production during 7th year and 4th year.
38. The Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan
(KVS) is a system of premier central
government schools in India that are
instituted under the aegis of the Ministry
of Education (MHRD), Government of
India. As of October 2020, it has a
total of 1239 schools. It is one of the
world’s largest chains of schools. The
system came into being in 1963 under the name ‘Central Schools’. Later, the name was
changed to Kendriya Vidyalaya. Its schools are all affiliated to the Central Board of
Secondary Education (CBSE). The objective of KVS is to cater to the educational needs
of the children of transferable Central Government employees including Defence and
Para-Military personnel by providing a common programme of education.
Marks obtained by the students of a class of a Kendriya Vidyalaya are given below :
Marks obtained 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
Number of students 15 18 21 29 22
(i) Find the lower limit of the median class.

(ii) Find the class mark of the median class.

(iii) What is the value of modal marks?
Or
What is the value of median marks?

64
 Model Test Paper 5 (Standard)
(Based on the latest CBSE Sample Question Paper Released by the CBSE for
the Board Examination to be held in 2023)
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts
of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of
3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been
provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)
 13 
1. A circle drawn with origin as the centre passes through  , 0  . The point which does
not lie in the interior of the circle is: 2 

 −3   7
(a)  , 1 (b)  2,  (c)  5, −1  (d)  −6, 5 
 4   3  2   2
2. The value of p for which one root of the quadratic equation px – 14x + 8 = 0 is 6 times
2

the other is :
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) –3 (d) 2
3. If α, β are the zeroes of x2 – 6x + k, then the value of k when 3α + 2β = 20 is :
(a) 13 (b) –14 (c) 15 (d) –16

4. The values of x and y if 23x + 35y = 209 and 35x + 23y = 197, are :
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 4 and 5 (c) –3 and 2 (d) 5 and 3
5. If the distances of P(x, y) from A(5, 1) and B(–1, 5) are equal, then :
(a) x = y (b) 3x = 5y (c) 5x = 2y (d) 3x = 2y
A
6. In the given figure, if DE || BC, then length of EC is :
1.5 cm 1 cm
D E
(a) 5 cm (b) 4 cm
(c) 3 cm (d) 2 cm 3 cm

B C
7. If sinθ + cosθ = 3 , then tanθ + cotθ =
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 2 (d) –2

65
 8. The angle of elevation of the sun, when the shadow of a pole h metres high is 3 h
is :
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) None of these
9. It is given that DABC ∼ DDFE, ∠A = 30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and
DF = 7.5 cm. Then, which of the following is true?
(a) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 50° (b) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°
(c) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 100° (d) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 30°
10. Tangents PA and PB are drawn from an external point P to A
two concentric circles with centre O and radii 8 cm and 5 cm
P
respectively, as shown in the figure. If AP = 15 cm, then the O
length of BP is : B
(a) 2 33 cm (b) 2 66 cm (c) 2 11 cm (d) 2 35 cm

11. In ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC.
If AD = 4x – 3, AE = 8x – 7, BD = 3x – 1 and CE = 5x – 3, then the value of x is :
(a) 3 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 1 cm
12. A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km, then diameter of the wheel is:
(a) 40 cm (b) 108 cm (c) 70 cm (d) 9 cm
13. If a marble of radius 2.1 cm is put into a cylindrical cup full of water of radius 5 cm and
height 6 cm, then how much water flows out of the cylindrical cup?
(a) 38.8 cm3 (b) 55.4 cm3 (c) 19.4 cm3 (d) 471.4 cm3
14. The x-coordinate of a point P is twice its y-coordinate. If P is equidistant from Q(2, –5) and
R(–3, 6), then coordinates of P are :
(a) (14, 8) (b) (16, 8) (c) (12, 6) (d) (15, 12)
15. If 2 and –3 are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (a + 1)x + b, then the value
of a + b is :
(a) –5 (b) 0 (c) 6 (d) –6
16. The median class of the following data is :
Marks Below 20 Below 40 Below 60 Below 80 Below 100
No. of Students 17 22 29 37 50
(a) 20-40 (b) 40-60 (c) 60-80 (d) 80-100
17. The probability that the drawn card from a pack of 52 cards is neither an ace nor a spade
is :
9 35 10 19
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13 52 13 26

18. If sinθ + 2cosθ = 1, then 2sinθ – cosθ =

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3
Direction : In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option :
19. Assertion (A) : If the circumferences of two circles are in the ratio 4 : 5, then their areas
are in the ratio 16 : 25.
66
 Reason (R) : If the circumferences of two circles are in the ratio C1 : C2, then their areas

are in the ratio C12 :C22.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
20. Assertion (A) : If the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground,
100
100 m away from the foot of the tower is 300, then the height of the tower is m.
3
Reason (R) : tan 45° = 1
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Section B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 mark each)
21. Explain why 7 × 11 × 13 + 13 and 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 5 are composite
numbers.
A

3 cm
22. In the given figure, ABC is a right triangle, right angled at C. E
Prove that DABC ~ DADE and find the length of AE and DE. D
2 cm
B 12 cm C

23. In the given figure, AP, AQ and BC are tangents to the circle. B C
If AB = 5 cm, AC = 6 cm and BC = 4 cm, then find the length of AP. P Q

24. In the given figure, the shape of the top of a table is that
of a sector of a circle with centre O and ÐAOB = 90°. If O
AO = OB = 42 cm, then find the perimeter of the top of
the table. Use π = 22  . A
 7 
B

OR
In the figure, O is the centre of a circle. The area of

5 O
sector APB is of the area of the circle. Find x. x
18
B
25. If sin (A + B) = 1 and cos (A – B) = 1, find A and B. A P
OR
If a cos θ – b sin θ = c, prove that a sin θ + b cos θ = ± a 2 + b2 − c2
67
 Section C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)
26. How many terms of the AP, 9, 17, 25, ..., must be taken to get a sum of 450?
27. The line segment joining the points (3, –4) and (1, 2) is trisected at the points P and Q.
5
If the coordinates of P and Q are (p, –2) and  , q  respectively, find the values of p
and q. 3 

28. A father’s age is three times the sum of ages of his two children. After 5 years, his age
will be two times the sum of their ages. Find the present age of the father.
OR
For which values of a and b, will the following pair of linear equations have infinitely
many solutions?
x + 2y = 1; (a – b)x + (a + b)y = a + b – 2
29. Prove that : cos4 θ – cos2 θ = sin4 θ – sin2 θ
30. Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T.
Prove that ∠PTQ = 2∠OPQ.
OR

PQ is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents at P and Q intersect
at a point T. Find the length of TP.
31. A card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. Find the probability that the card
drawn is : (i) either a black card or a king (ii) a jack, a queen or a king (iii) neither a
heart nor a king.

Section D
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)
32. One-fourth of a herd of camels was seen in the forest. Twice the square root of the herd
had gone to mountains and the remaining 15 camels were seen on the bank of a river.
Find the total number of camels.
OR
If the roots of the equation (a + b )x – 2(ac + bd) x + (c2 + d2) = 0 are equal, prove that
2 2 2

ad = bc.
33. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle intersecting the other two sides in
distinct points, then it divides the two other sides in the same ratio. Prove.
Using the above, solve the following :
In DABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC.
If AD = 4x – 3, AE = 8x – 7, BD = 3x – 1 and CE = 5x – 3, find the value of x.
34. A solid toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone. Height
of the cone is 2 cm and the diameter of the base is 4 cm. Determine the volume of the
toy. If a right circular cylinder circumscribes the solid, find the difference of the volumes
of the cylinder and the toy. (Take p = 3.14)

68
 OR
l

A hemispherical depression is cut-out from one face of a cubical
l
wooden block such that the diameter l of the hemisphere is
equal to the edge of the cube. Determine the surface area of
l
the remaining solid.

l
35. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point h metres above a lake is α and the
angle of depression of its reflection in the lake is β, prove that the height of the cloud is
h ( tan β + tan α) .
tan β − tan α
Section E
(Case study based questions are compulsory.)
36. In a toys manufacturing company, wooden parts are
assembled and painted to prepare a toy. For the wood
110 mm
processing activity center, the wood is taken out of 77 mm

storage to be sawed, after which it undergoes rough

polishing, then is cut, drilled and has holes punched 72 mm

in it. It is then fine polished using sandpaper. For

the retail packaging and delivery activity center, the
40 mm
polished wood sub-parts are assembled together, then
decorated using paint.
(i) Write the formula of curved surface area of the cone.
(ii) Write the formula of the total surface area of the cylinder.
(iii) If its cylindrical part is to be painted red, then find the surface area need to be painted.
Or
If its conical part is to be painted blue, then find the surface area need to be painted.
37. Three friends Raani, Kamla, and Beena are skipping a rope. At a time two of them hold
the rope and the third one skips it. At a moment, Kamla observed that the shape of the
rope was parabolic. After returning home, she drew the shape of the rope on a graph
paper as shown below.
Y

8
6
4
2
X X
–7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
–2
–4
–6
–8
–10
–12

Y

69
 Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) What does the above graph represent?

(ii) Are the zeroes of the above polynomial real?
(iii) Where does the curve cut y-axis?

Or
Find the zeroes of the polynomial whose graph is given above.
38. A clinometer is a tool that is used to measure
the angle of elevation, or angle from the
ground, in a right - angled triangle. We can
use a clinometer to measure the height of tall
things that you can’t possibly reach to the top
of, flag poles, buildings, trees.
Ravish got a clinometer from school lab
and started the measuring elevation angle in
surrounding. He saw a building on which
society logo is painted on wall of building.

30°
45°
P 24 m
(i) What is the height of the building logo from ground?

(ii) What is the height of the building from ground?

(iii) What is the aerial distance of the point P from the top of the building?
Or
If the point of observation P is moved 16 m towards the base of the building, then
find the angle of elevation θ of the logo on the building.

70
 ANswers
Model Test paper 1
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. 6 23. 19 cm 24. 19.5 cm OR 285 mm
3 −1 , 3 20
27. x2 – 2x – ; 28. 42 km/h OR 14 years 30. cm
2 2 2 3
1 3 3
31. (i) (ii) (iii)
10 10 5
32. (12, 18) or (–12, 18) OR x = – a or – b 34. 6 m OR 770 cm2
35. x = 12, y = 25
 13 
36. (i) P(3, 6), Q(3, 2) (ii) 7 m, 4 m (iii) 28 m2 OR  , 4
2 
37. (i) 8 (ii) 45, 43, 41, ... (iii) a + (n – 1)d OR no
38. (i) 75 3 m (ii) 75 m (iii) 75 ( 3 − 1) m OR 75 ( 3 + 1) m

Model Test paper 2

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. –6 22. 2 cm 24. 15.6 cm2 OR 41.04 cm2
26. no 27. a = 1, b = –3   28. 5 years, 27 years OR 15

13 3
31. (i) (ii) 32. OR x = –1
49 49
34. 0.95 m3 OR 1642.67 cm3 ; 572 cm2 35. 68.3 cm
36. (i) 4 units (ii) 2 13 units (iii) (–1, 2)    OR (3, 3.5)
37. (i) 20 (ii) 35 (iii) 105 OR 75
38. (i) 20 3 m (ii) 30° (iii) 5 m OR 45°

Model Test paper 3

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. 6 23. 28 cm 24. 80° OR 45.83 cm2
8 1
26. 2, 11, 20, ... or 20, 11, 2, .... 27. 8 : 1;  , − 
3 9
28. 83 OR 40 years 30. OR 20 cm

71
 1 5
31. (i) (ii) 32. 36   OR x = 0, or –7
6 6
34. 9735 cm2 OR 377.146 cm2 35. 120 m
36. (i) 4 (ii) 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 (iii) a2b2    OR 288
37. (i) 25 (ii) 10 (iii) 15 OR 10
38. (i) 30 (ii) 40 (iii) 25.6 OR 10, 15

Model Test paper 4

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d)
7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (d) 21. no 22. 2 5 cm, 6 cm 23. 70°
24. 8.7 cm 2
OR 500 26. 76 28. 36 OR x = 3, y = 2
29. A = 45°, B = 15° 30. OR 2 : 9
x b
31. (i) (ii) 3   32. x = – a or – OR 20 km/h, 15 km/h
12 2
34. ` 332640 OR (i) 77 cm3 (ii) 748 cm3 35. 50 2 m
36. (i) 12 (ii) 4 (iii) 4, 4 (iv) 12, 12
37. (i) 5000 (ii) 13800 (iii) 12th OR 6600
38. (i) 40 (ii) 50 (iii) 70.6 OR 58.6

Model Test paper 5

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c)
15 36
19. (a) 20. (b) 22. cm, cm 23. 7.5 cm
13 13
7
24. 282 cm OR 100° 25. 45°, 45° 26. 10 27. , 0
3
20
28. 45 years OR a = 3, b = 1 30. OR cm
3
7 3 9
31. (i) (ii) (iii) 32. 36 33. 1
13 13 13
l2
34. 25.12 cm3 OR (π + 24)
4
36. (i) πrl (ii) πr(l + 2r) (iii) 1720π mm2 OR 3956π mm2
37. (i) A quadratic polynomial (ii) yes (iii) (–8, 0) OR –2, 4
8 3
38. (i) 8 3 m (ii) 24 m (iii) 24 2 m OR m.
15

72