MODULE 1: PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY

MOCKBOARD EXAMINATION

I. MCQ: Choose the best answer. Choose the best answer. (1 point each)

1. Electrons are described by their energy and direction of

motion. Which of the following quantum numbers
describes most of the energy of the electron and its A. I, II
relative distance from the nucleus? B. I, III
I. Principal quantum number C. I, IV
II. Azimuthal quantum number D. II, IV
III. Magnetic quantum number E. I only
IV. Spin quantum number
Answer: : B
Rationale: Specific gravity and density are based
A. I only
on the kind of matter present. They are both
B. I, II and III
physical properties.
C. III only
D. IV only 5. From the topmost period available, the first
E. I and II member of the Pnictogen family is;
A. Carbon
Answer:: A
Rationale: The principal quantum number B. Nitrogen
describes most of the energy and give the C. Fluorine
relative distance of the electron from the nucleus. D. Oxygen
The bigger the value the farther the electron from E. Boron
the nucleus. The values of the principal l Answer: B
quantum number n=1,2,3,4,5,6,7. Rationale: The Pnictogen family is the same as
Group 15, the group in which Nitrogen is the
2. What is common to isotones ? topmost element.
I. Atomic number
II. Mass number 6. Lightest of all metals and the DOC for manic
III. Number of neutrons state.
IV. No. of protons A. Lithium
V. The type of element B. Magnesium
C. Manganese
D. Aluminum
A. I , IV and III
Answer: A.
B. I and IV
Rationale: It is the third element in the periodic
C. II only
table. The first and the second are both
D. III only
non-metals. Since the elements are
E. II and III
arranged according to atomic number and
as atomic number increases in mkost cases
Answer: D
atomic weight also increases, thus it is the
Rationale: Different Nuclei with the same mass
number are isotones. lightest metal.

3. The pentavalent antimonial compound intended 7. A basic solution is expected to.

primarily for the treatment of various forms of I. Turns red litmus paper to blue
leishmaniosis. It is available from the CDC as II. Be colorless upon addition of
the disodium salt, which is chemically stable and phenolphthalein
freely soluble in water. III. Have a pH of > 7.0
A. Sodium Suramin IV. Turns pink/red upon addition of methyl
B. Sodium antimony tartrate orange
C. . Melarsoprol Sodium
D. . Sodium Stibogluconate A. I, III
B. II, IV
Answer: D
C. I, III
Rationale: As stated
D. II, IV
4. Specific gravity and viscosity are examples of E. I, II, III
what kind of property? Answer: C.
I. Intensive property Rationale: As stated
II. Extrinsic property 8. These are elements found in the d-block of
III. Physical property the periodic table and either have
IV. Chemical property incompletely filled d subshells or readily give
 rise to cations that have incompletely filled d
subshells. Answer: B
A. Representative elements Rationale: B. An increase in pressure will favor a
reaction forming lower number of moles of
B. Transition metals
substance/S
C. Neither A or B
D. Both A and B 13. This is added to glass to make it heat resistant
A. Borosilicate
Answer: B B. Manganese dioxide
Rationale: As stated. C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Potassium
9. .. Mineral chameleon is an antiseptic that works as E. Sodium
an oxidizing agent. What is the oxidation number of
Answer: A
Mn in mineral chameleon?:
Rationale: Borrosilicate is added to reduce heat
expansion
A.+2
14. DOC for anaerobic infection
B. -1 A. .100% oxygen
C. +4 B. Carbon monoxide
D. +6 C. . Carbon dioxide
E. +7 D. Carbon tetrachloride
E. Argon
Answer: E
Answer: A
Rationale: Mineral chameleon is Potassium
Rationale: Oxygen kills anaerobic organisms that
permanganate with the chemical formula KMnO4. causes infection.
And with Mn= +7
10. Toxicity of Litharge(PbO) 15. If X represents an element of Group IIA, what is
A. Saturnism the general formula for its oxide?
B. . Plumbism A. X3O4
C. . Both a and b B. X3O2
D. Wool sorter’s disease C. X2O3
D. XO
Answer: C. E. XO2
Rationale: Lead poisoning, also known as
plumbism and saturnism, is a type of metal Answer: D
Rationale : D: Elements of Group IIA have a +2
poisoning caused by lead in the body. The
charge and Oxygen has a charge of -2. Since
brain is the most sensitive. Symptoms may
compounds are neutral, they should have the
include abdominal pain, constipation, same total positive and negative charge. Thus ,
headaches, irritability, memory problems, the chemical formula is XO.
infertility, and tingling in the hands and feet.
16. Which of the following is an orange sulfide?
11. This refers to the number of moles of solute per A. SnS
1000 milliliters of solution. B. MnS
A. Molarity C. CuS
B. Molality D. Sb2S3
C. Normality E. CdS
D. Mole fraction Answer: D
E. Percentage w/w RATIONALE: SnS and Cd S are yellow sulfides,
MnS is a pink sulfide and CuS is a black sulfide.
Answer: A
Rationale: Molarity is moles/Liter of solution,
17. When sodium metal becomes sodium ion it:
Normality is equivalence per liter of solution,
A. Requires anergy equivalent to its ionization
Mole fraction is moles of component per total
potential
moles of solutions and % w/w is grams per 100
B. It loses energy equivalent to its electron
grams of solution.
affinity
C. It loses energy equivalent to its activation
12. When stress is applied to a system in
potential
equilibrium, the equilibrium shifts to relieve D. It gains energy equivalent to its activation
the stress. What happens to the following potential
reaction when pressure is applied ? E. None of the given
N2 + 2 O2 ======= 2 NO2 Answer:A.
RATIONALE: When Fluorine becomes Fluoride it
A. The reaction remains in equilibrium lose 1 electron. The amount of energy lost when
B. The reaction will shift forward an atom becomes an anion is known as electron
C. The reaction will shift backward affinity.
18. The following are physical changes of matter,
except: A. I only
A. Sublimation B. II only
B. Cutting C. I and IV
C. Crushing D. III and IV
D. Burning E. I, II and IV
E. Melting
Answer: : D: Answer: B
Rationalization: Burning and ignition are Rationale: This is a member of the Tin group.
chemical changes that transform a substance to 24. Steel is an alloy of;
a new substance. A. Cu and Zn
B. Cu and Sn
19. Which of the following states and mesophases of
matter has the lowest entropy?
C. C and Fe
A. Solid D. Ca and Fe
B. Liquid
C. Gas Answer:” C.
D. Boisen Condensate Rationale: Steel, alloy of iron and carbon in which
E. Liquid crystals the carbon content ranges up to 2 percent (with a
higher carbon content, the material is defined as
Answer: D cast iron). By far the most widely used material
for building the world's infrastructure and
20. This forms white precipitate in the phosphate test industries,
and gives a red lake with Titan yellow.
A. Magnesium 25. The reaction of non-metal oxide with water
B. Antimony forms::
C. Arsenic A: binary acid
D. Iron B. ternary acid
E. Cadmium C. alkali
D basic salt
Answer: A: as stated.
Magnesium is tested using the hydroxide test, Answer: B
Iron is tested using Ferrocyanide or Ferricyanide
test, Cadmium is tested using the sulfide test. 26. Most preferred form of Talc:
A. . Formylated Talc
21. Which of the following not a characteristic of an B. Foliated Talc
atom? C. Fornicated Talc
I. It can either be positive or negative D. Talcum
II. It’s nucleus contains protons and electrons.
III. It is the smallest unit of all substances that Answer: B
goes into a reaction. Rationale: As stated.
IV. Its nucleus is positively charge
27. Distillation is a physical separation technique.
A. I only Which of the following mixtures can be separated
B. II only by distillation?
C. IV only A. Alcohol and water
D. I and III B. Volatile oil and water
E. I and II C. Evaporated Milk
Answer: : E. D. A and B only
Rationale: An atom is neutral. It’s nucleus E. All
contains protons and neutrons, thus, it is
positively charge. Answer: E.
22. Which of the following cations give a blue ash in Rationale: Both solutions (A and B) and colloids
the charcoal test using cobalt nitrate. can be separated by distillation .
A. Zn+2
B. Mg+2 28. Salts of this cation are used with caution in
C. Ca+2 the treatment of cardiac and renal conditions
D. Al+3 in which edema is a problem
E. Mn +2
A. Ca+
Answer: Al. B. Fe+
Rationale: The ion forms Thenard’s blue. C. Na+
D. K+
23. Which of the following is a member of the
E. Al+3
Analytical Group IIB cation?
I. Cu+2
Answer: C.
II. As+3
III. Fe+3
IV. Cd+2
 Rationale: Sodium salts cause water
retention, while Potassium salts causes A. I only
diuresis.
B. I and III
29. Which of the following does not form an C. I, II and III
amphoteric hydroxide? D. I, II and IV
I. Cr E. I, II, III and IV
II. Al 34. The geometry that cycloalkanes exhibit
III. Bi A. Linear
IV. Mg B. Tetrahedral
C. Trigonal planar
A. I, II, III D. Triangular
B. I, III, IV E. None of the above
C. III only 35. It states that no two electrons in an atom can
D. IV only have the same
set of quantum numbers
E. None
A. Pauli Exclusion Principle
Answer: D. B. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
Rationale: C. Aufbau Principle
D. Hund’s Rule
30. Magnesium oxide and water reacts to form : 36. This is employed as a bacteriostatic agent in
A. An acid
B. An alkali pharmaceuticals for injection , ophthalmic
C. A new oxide use, and intranasal administration solution.
D. Hydrogen gas a. Benzyl alcohol
E. None of the given b. Sorbic acid
Answer: B
Rationale: The react ion of a metal oxide with c. Chlorobutanol
water forms a hydroxide which is a base. The d. Benzoic acid
reaction will form Magnesium hydroxide. 37. . These is one of the objectives of
chemotherapy whereby it specifically inhibit
31. When a neutral atom containing 8 protons growth of cancer cells or inhibit recurrence of
accepts 2 electrons, it acquires a charge of cancer after the tumor has been removed.
A. -1 A. Pallation
B. -2 B. adjuvant chemotherapy
C. +5 C. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
D. +1 D. treatment or cure
E. +2
38. Common name of Potassium bitartrate
A. Tartar emetic
Answer: B B. Salt of Tartar
C. Cream of Tartar
32. The reaction shown below is classified as: D. Saltpeter
NiCl2 + 2Na  2NaCl + Ni
39. Primary standard for Karl Fischer reagent
A. Metathesis reaction A. Sodium potassium tartrate
B. Reduction-Oxidation reaction B. Sodium citrate
C. Single replacement C. KHP
D. A and B
E. B and C D. Sodium tartrate
Answer: D
Answer: E. Rationale: As stated
Rationale: Nickel is displaced and reduced by
Na.
40. Sulfate and sulfite are differentiated using
33. Which of the following describes a sample of A. H2SO4
matter when it is subjected to heat? B. Phenolphthalein TS
I. The attractive forces between its C. Hydrogen sulfide
molecules becomes weaker D. Methyl red TS
II. The molecules tend to go farther from Answer: A
each other Rationale: Sulfite forms SO2 while
III. The molecules become more kinetic sulfate do not react.
IV. Entropy becomes higher
41. Also known as Magnesium aluminum Rationale: This is a blue flame produced
silicate when the burner halls are open.
A. Bentonite 47. Which of the following is NOT a coinage
B. Kaolin metal?
C. Attapulgite A. Mercury
D. Pumice B. Silver
C. Gold
Answer: C D. Copper
Rationale: This is used as a drug for Answer: A.
diarrhea Rationale: Mercury is a volatile metal.
48. This is referred to as St. Elmo’s fire:
42. Which of the following ions is not A. Na
precipitated by H2S? B. N
A. Cd+2 C. O
B. Bi+3 D. P
C. Pb+2 E. He
D. Ag+ Answer: D
Rationale: As stated
Answer: D. 49. An element has a valence shell
Rationale: This is precipitated as configuration of 4s2, 3d10 4p4. Which of the
chloride. following is true to the element?
I. It is a chalcogen
43. Water fit for drinking II. It belongs to Group IVA
A. Potable water III. It gives off 2 electrons when it
B. Water for injection combines with a metal
C. Sterile water for injection IV. It belongs to Period 4
D. None of the given
Answer: A A. I and II
44. The maximum number of electrons in B. I and III
the second energy level: C. II only
A. 2 D. I and IV
B. 3 E. II and III
C. 5
D. 8 Answer: D
E. 7 Rationale: As stated
Answer: D
Rationale: The second energy level has s 50. This compound when hydrolyzed will yield:
and p orbitals. The maximum
number in the s is 2 and in the p is 6, O
a total of 10 electrons. C
45. Also known as dephlogisticated air and is OH
an acid former:
A. Chlorine O C CH3
B. Hydrogen
C. Mercury O
D. Oxygen
E. Nitrogen I. Salicylic acid
II. Acetylsalicylic acid
Answer: D.
III. Acetic acid
Rationale: Oxygen is known as IV. Ethanol
dephogisticated air. Hydrogen is
known as inflammable air.
46. Flame test are observed under A.I & IV
A. Non-luminous flame B.I & III
B. Luminous flame C. II & IV
C. Fusion zone D. II & III
D. Both a and b E.None of the above
Answer: A.
51. . Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 C. CaCl2
I. Turnbull’s blue D. (NH4)2CO3
II. Prussian blue Answer: B
III. Ferric ferrocyanide Rationale: As stated
IV. Ferrous ferrocyanide
57. A decrease in valence or charge
indicates that ______ type of reaction
A. II & III
B. I & IV occurred.
C. II only A. reduction
D. I & III B. Oxidation
E. I only C. Neutralization
D. Metathesis

Answer; A
52. . Identify the compound:
58. As one moves down the periodic table
and from right to left:
A. The atomic radius increases
B. The element tends to lose electron
with ease
C. The electronegativity increases
D. A and B
E. B and C

Answer: D
A. Anthracene
RATIONALE: Following the direction,
B. Tetracene
C. Chrysene atomic size increases and ionization
D. Phenanthrene potential decreases and thus the element
tends to lose
53. Mg2+
12
59. Ferrous sulfate provides the iron needed
A. 1s22s22p6
B. 1s22s22p63s2
by the body to produce red blood cells. It
C. 1s22s22p63s23p2 is used to treat or prevent iron-deficiency
D. 1s22s22p63s2p4 anemia, a condition that occurs when the
body has too few red blood cells because
of pregnancy, poor diet, excess bleeding,
54. . The dominant conjugation reaction or other medical problems. FeSO4 is also
pathway for neonates known as
A. Glucuronidation
B. Glycine conjugation A. Green vitriol
C. Acetylation B. Blue vitriol
D. Sulfation C. Oil of vitriol
D. White vitriol
55. Amalgams are alloys of: E. Red vitriol
A. Iron
B. Copper Answer: A.
C. Zinc Rationale: As stated.
D. Mercury
60. Ingestion of relatively large amounts of
Answer: D barium compounds that dissolve in the
Rationale: Alloys are mixtures of metals. gastrointestinal tract may cause rapid
The alloys of mercury are known as onset of gastrointestinal symptoms
amalgams. (nausea, salivation, vomiting, abdominal
cramps, watery diarrhea), hypokalemia (a
56. Used as a vasodilator: reduction in blood potassium levels that
A. NaNO3 can result in ventricular tachycardia,
B. NaNO2 hypertension and/or hypotension, muscle
 weakness, and paralysis), and kidney a given strain of bacterium. What microorganism
damage. Which of the following is used in determining the phenol coefficient?
compounds may limit the absorption of a. Bacillus subtilis
barium by causing precipitation of an b. Enterobacter aerogenes
insoluble form of barium? c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A. Magnesium Sulfate d. Salmonella typhi
e. Proteus vulgaris
B. Na bicarbonate]
C. Ca versenate
Rationale: As stated in the item
D. Potassium permanganate
65. A potent antifungal substance with a polyene
E. Ca gluconate
structure from Streptomyces nodosus
a. nystatin
Answer: A b. griseofulvin
Rationale: Barium is precipitated as c. natamycin
BaSO4, a compound insoluble in all d. candicidin
acids. e. amphotericin B

61. . Which of the following is/ are true regarding Rationale: As stated in the item
methylation?
I. Generally leads to polar or water soluble
66. A series of synthetic antibacterial agents patterned
metabolites
after nalidixic acid, with an effective antibacterial
II. Important in the biosynthesis of many
spectrum largely confined to gram-negative
endogenous compounds like epinephrine and
bacteria
melatonin
a. substituted imidazoles
III. Constitutes only a minor pathway for
b. polyenes
conjugating drugs or xenobiotics
c. biguanides
a. I only
d. dihydrotriazines
b. I, II, and III
e. quinolones
c. I and II only
d. I and III only
Rationale: As stated in the item
e. II and III only
67. The structure found among the quinolones which
Rationale: As stated in the item
is essential for their antibacterial activity
a. 1-ethyl-1, 4-dihydro-7-methyl- 4-oxo-1, 8
62. Which of the following is/are characteristics of an
naphthyridine-3-carboxylic acid
ideal antiseptic?
b. 1,4-dihydro-4-oxo- 3-pyridine carboxylic
I. Rapid and sustained lethal action against
acid
microorganisms
c. 1-ethyl-1, 4- dihydro-4- oxo[1,3] deoxolo [4,5g]
II. Retain activity in the presence of body fluids
cinnolone- 3 carboxylic acid
III. High surface tension
d. 1-ethyl -6-fluoro-1,4- dihydro-4-oxo-7-(1-
piperazinyl)-3-quinolone carboxylic acid
a. I, II, and III
e. 1-ethyl- 7,5- dihydro-8- oxo- deoxolo cinnolone- 3-
b. I and III only
carboxylic acid
c. II and III only
Rationale: As stated in the item
d. I and II only
e. I only
68. The antibiotic that binds with Ribosome 30s
subunit
63. Ethanol that has been rendered unfit for use in
A. Chloramphenicol
intoxicating beverages by the addition of other
B. Tetracycline
substances
C. Erythromycin
a. Denaturated alcohol
D. Lincomycins
b. Wood alcohol
E. Penicillins
c. Isopropyl alcohol
d. Formaldehyde
e. Glutarol
69. Benzylpenicillin binds preferentially to:
A. PBPs 1a and 1b
Rationale: As stated in the item
B. PBP 2
C. PBP 3
64. Phenol coefficient is defined as the ration of a
D. PBPs 4 to 6
disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill
E. PBP 6
 A. macrolides
B. tetracyclines
70. Structure of the penicillin molecule shows it to C. lincomycins
contain a fused ring system which is the: D. polymixins
A. β-lactam thiazolidine structure E. sulfonamides
B. β-lactam penam structure
C. 6-aminopenicillanic acid 76. An antineoplastic drug active against rapidly
D. β-lactam phenylpenicillin ring proliferating cells in the synthesis phase during
E. β-lactam alkylamino ethyl ring which it prevents the formation of
deoxyribonucleotides by inhibition of
ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase.
71. Class I β-lactamase inhibitors have hetero atom A. Carboplatin
leaving at position 1. Which of these is/are Class II B. Hydroxyurea
inhibitors: C. Mitoguazone
I. Carbapenems D. Hycanthone
II. Sulbactams E. Doxirubicin
III. Clavulanic Acid
A. I only
B. I and II 77. It is used primarily for treating
C. II and III polycythemia vera
D. II only A. Hexamethylamine
E. III only B. Asparaginase
C. Tamoxifen
72. . Augmentin is a combination of: D. Pipobroman
I. K salts of Clavulanic acid E. Hydroxyurea
II. Amoxicillin
III. Ampicillin
IV. Sulbactams 78. Diamox is:
A. I and II A. Methazolamide, USP
B. I and III B. Dochlorphenamide, USP
C. II and III C. Amoxicillin, USP
D. II and IV D. Hydrochlorothiazide, USP
E. III and IV E. Acetazolamide, USP

79. Benzothiadiazine-1, 1-dioxide nucleus is contained in:

73. Zinacef is the first of a series of α-methoximino- A. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
acyl-substituted cephalosporin that constitute most B. Thiazide diuretics
of the third generation agents. Zinacef is: C. Loop diuretics
A. sterile cefotaxime sodium, USP D. Phenoxyacetic acid
B. cefuroxime sodium, USP E. K-sparing diuretics
C. moxalactam disodium, USP
D. sterile ceftriaxone disodium, USP 80. It is pyrazinoyl guanidine diuretics that inhibit the
E. cefepime, USP electrogenetic entry of 2% to 3% of the filtered laod of
Rationale: As stated in the item Na into the tubule cells.
A. Triamterene
74. Structure Activity Relationship of B. Spironolactone
Aminoglycosides: It is important for characteristic C. Amiloride HCl
broad spectrum antibacterial activity and is the D. Aldosterone
primary target for bacterial inactivating enzymes. E. Aldactone
a. Ring I
b. Ring II 81. . Give the IUPAC name
c. Ring III
d. Deoxystreptamine
e. Ring IV
Rationale: As stated in the item

75. A group of antibiotics that are derivatives of an

octahydronaphthacene, a hydrocarbon system
that comprises four annelated six-membered
A. 5,8,8-triethyl-4-methyldecane
rings.
 B. 3,3,6-triethyl-7-methyldecane
C. 4-methyl-5,8,8-triethyldecane 90. A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that
D. 7-methyl-3,3,6-triethyldecane causes spastic paralysis to susceptible helminthes
A. pyrantel pamoate
82. This anti-TB drug can cause optic neuritis B. thiabendazole
A. ETH C. mebendazole
B. PZA D niridazole
C. RIF E. niclosamide
D. INH Rationale: As stated in the item

91. The chemical CH₃CH₂COOCH₃ is given what

83. Which of the following is true to physical properties of IUPAC name?
matter: A. 3-butanone
B. Butanal
A, They are dependent on the attractive forces C. Propanoic Acid
between the molecules. D. Methyl Propanoate
B. They are dependent on ability to loss or gain E. Ethyl Methyl Ether
or share electrons. Rationale: As stated in the item
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
92. An organic compound with a molecular formula
84. This antifungal inhibits the synthesis of the fungal
C10H22 is most likely a/an
cell wall component β(1-3)-glucan
A. Alkane
A. Griseofulvin
B. Cycloalkene
B. Terbinafine
C. Alkene
C. Caspofungin
D. Cycloalkene
D. Amphotericin B
E. Alkyne
85. A species that accepts proton
Rationale: As stated in the item
A. Acid
B. Base
C. Water 93. . Stereoisomer that are not mirror-images of each
D. Salt other are called
86. Toluene A. Structural isomers
B. Anomers
A. Methylbenzene
C. Cis-Trans isomers
B. Methoxybenzene
D. Diastereomers
C. Isopropyl benzene
E. Enantiomers
D. Aminobenzene
Rationale: As stated in the item
87. The major adverse effect of Midamor:
A. hypokalemia 94. . The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system is used for what
B. hyponatremia purpose?
C. hypocalcemia a. Identify reactive sites in an organic
D. hyperkalemia compound
E. hypermagnesemia b. Determine R or S designation of
enantiomers
Rationale: As stated in the item
c. Determine presence of pi bonds
d. Identify optical isomerism
88. What antibiotic caused a major advance in the e. Determine cis-trans isomerism
treatment of tuberculosis? 95. What is the common name of the compound,
A. Isoniazid CH3(CH2)10COOH
B. Ethionamide a. Capric Acid
C. Rifampicin d. Myristic Acid
b. Palmitic Acid
D. Cycloserine
e. Capric Acid
E. Capreomycin c. Lauric Acid
Rationale: As stated in the item Rationale: As stated in the item

89. An antiviral drug which is useful in the prevention 96. Which of the following substrates can be used to
but not in the treatment of influenza caused by synthesize tertiary alcohol?
influenza A virus. a. Formaldehyde
A. Amantadine d. Ethane
b. Ethanal
B. Idoxuridine
e. Benzene
C. Trifluridine c. Propanone
D. Vidarabine Rationale: As stated in the item
E. Acyclovir
Rationale: As stated in the item
97. What is the most stable conformation of
cyclohexane?
a. Staggered
d. Eclipsed
b. Chair
e. Twist
c. Boat
Rationale: As stated in the item

98. Propanone and 1-propen-1-ol are considered as

a. Positional isomers d.
Tautomers
b. Configurational isomers e.
Enantiomers
c. Chain isomers
Rationale: As stated in the item

99. Which of the following compounds is subject to

substitution electrophilic?
a. Benzene d.
2-pentanol
b. Monochloroethane e.
2-Butene
c. 2,2- Diamonopropane
Rationale: As stated in the item

100. At physiologic pH, of the following changes in the

barbituric acid molecule will confer to the resulting
drug the ability to cross the blood-brain barrier?
a. A methyl substituent at the N-3 position
b. Substitution of the hydrogen in the N-1
position
c. Substitution of any one of the Hydrogen
in the C-5 position
d. Substitution of both Hydrogens in the
C-5 position
e. An ethyl substituent at the N-1 position
Rationale: As stated in the item