FTRE Answer Key

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7th January 2024

for Students presently in Class VI

Paper 1 - IQ
Duration : 60 minutes Maximum Marks : 90

Please read the instructions and guidelines carefully :


Important Note : Please ensure to accurately input the details for the Class and Paper No. as indicated at the top of this sheet
into the corresponding columns / fields on the OMR sheet before proceeding with the paper. Incorrectly filled information
regarding the class or paper may result in inaccurate outcomes or results.

“This paper has been scientifically designed to evaluate your potential – manifested
and hidden for the target examinations mentioned in various sections of the paper.
Thus, your adherence to the instructions is critical in the evaluation of the same”

1. This Question paper consists of 2 sections.

2. Student should devote allotted time for each section. If a section is easy, then it is easy for everyone & was meant to
be like that with a goal in mind. Do not switch over to another section if you find the section to be easy. If a section
is tough, then it is tough for everyone. Please note that each section has been allocated a time limit of 30 minutes.
Dedicating the full 30 minutes to finish each section successfully is essential. Opening the next section before completing
the allotted time for the preceding section is not permitted. This adherence is crucial for assessing your true potential, as
each section is meticulously crafted to evaluate your potential for the corresponding competitive examinations.

3. Candidate should open the seal of Section-II only after completing 30 minutes of Section-I.

4. Sheets will be given to each candidate for rough work. Candidate must fill all details on the rough sheet and submit the same
to invigilator along with OMR sheet. Candidate must mention the Question No. while doing the rough work in the sheet.

5. Please note candidates are not allowed to bring any prohibited items into the exam hall such as electronic devices, mobile
phones, smart watch, earphones, calculators, books, notes, formula sheets, and bags.

6. Marking scheme is given in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question


Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer

SECTION – I (NTSE) 1 to 6 +3 0
IQ
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes 7 to 15 +3 0

SECTION – II (NSEJS) 16 to 21 +3 0
IQ
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes 22 to 30 +3 0

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Section – I
Time: 30 Minutes

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FTRE-2024-T2-C-VI-(Paper-1)-IQ

IQ
This section contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Siddharth goes Northward 10 m. He turns left and walks 30 m, then again turns left and walks
50 m. What is the total distance travelled by Siddharth?
(A) 90 m (B) 20 m
(C) 10 m (D) 40 m

2.
Grey Green Grey

Red Yellow Yellow Pink Blue Red

Which colour is opposite to Yellow colour?


(A) Grey (B) Green
(C) Blue (D) Pink

3. Find the next term.


12, 14, 18, 26, 38, 62, 74 ______
(A) 111 (B) 90
(C) 102 (D) 80

4. Pointing to a photograph, a Ravi (male) tells his friend, “She is the daughter of the only son of my
father’s wife.” How is the girl related to Ravi in the photograph?
(A) Daughter (B) Cousin
(C) Mother (D) Sister

5. If + means , × means ,  means × and  means +, then 8 + 6 × 4  3 – 5 = ?


(A) –26/5 (B) –17/3
(C) 22 (D) 20/3

6. In a certain code CAT is written as 3120. What code number can be given to NAVIN?
(A) 14122914 (B) 49274654
(C) 793957614 (D) None of these

This section contains THREE (03) comprehensions. Based on each comprehension, there are
THREE (03) questions of Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Comprehension–1 for Q. No. 7 to 9)


Words in capital letters column I are written is small letters in a code language in column II. Decode the
language and find out the correct alternative for the given word / letter in each question.

Column – I Column – II
FISH zmkj
TEA fir
GAIN kpgf
DOG peh
ROSE cmre
NUT igq
TRAM cvif

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7. Code for U is:


(A) i (B) g
(C) q (D) h

8. Code for M is:


(A) v (B) c
(C) i (D) m

9. Code for I is:


(A) m (B) p
(C) f (D) k

Comprehension–2 for Q. No. 10 to 12)

Consider the letters of the alphabet written in the order from left to right i.e., from A to Z.

10. The letter which is fourth to the left of the letter, which is fifth to the right of F is
(A) C (B) W
(C) E (D) G

11. The letter which is 6th to the left of the letter which is 8th to the right of P is
(A) E (B) D
(C) S (D) R

12. The letter which is third to the right of the letter, which is sixth to the left of O is?
(A) P (B) C
(C) K (D) L

Comprehension–3 for Q. No. 13 to 15)

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A and D have knowledge of English and Hindi language. B and F have knowledge of Gujrati and Punjabi
Language. A and F have knowledge of Malyalam and Tamil Languages. B and D have knowledge of
Maithali and Santhali languages. D and F have knowledge of English and Telgu languages

13. How many people know three or more languages?


(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 4

14. Who knows the most languages?


(A) F (B) A
(C) B (D) D

15. Who has knowledge of five languages?


(A) A (B) B
(C) D (D) F

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Section – II
Time: 30 Minutes

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IQ
This section contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 16 to 21. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

16. Find the missing term.


? 0

120 6

60 24
(A) 270 (B) 200
(C) 99 (D) 210

17. If p  q  p2  q2  p  q and pq  pq  p  q; then  6  5  5 


(A) 200 (B) 175
(C) 195 (D) 179
18. In the following question, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figure (A), (B), (C)
and (D) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which
contains figure (X).

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


19. In following question, choose the correct mirror image from the alternatives (A), (B), (C) & (D)
when mirror is placed on the line AB.
A

(A) (B) (C) (D)


20. In the following question, find out which of the figure (A), (B), (C) and (D) can be formed from the
pieces given in figure (X).

(X)
`

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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21. In a row of 50 students Rachna is fifteenth from left and Rachna is 17th from right. How many
students are between them?
(A) 18 (B) 19
(C) 16 (D) 20

This section contains THREE (03) comprehensions. Based on each comprehension, there are
THREE (03) questions of Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Comprehension–1 for Q. No. 22 to 24)

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Seven children A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a line. G is to the right of D and to the left of B. A is
on the right of C. A and D have one child between them. E and B have two children between them. D and
F have two children between them.

22. Who is on the extreme right?


(A) B (B) E
(C) F (D) G

23. Who is exactly in the middle?


(A) A (B) C
(C) D (D) E

24. Who is on the extreme left?


(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Comprehension–2 for Q. No. 25 to 27)
Read the information given below and answer the question that follows:
i. In a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F, there are two married couples.
ii. D is grandmother of A and mother of B.
iii. C is wife of B and mother of F.
iv. F is the grand daughter of E.

25. What is C to A?
(A) Daughter (B) Grandmother
(C) Mother (D) Cannot be determined

26. How many male members are there in the family?


(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Cannot of determined

27. Which of the following is true?


(A) A is brother of F (B) A is sister of F
(C) B has two daughters (D) None of these

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Comprehension–3 for Q. No. 28 to 30)


Study the diagram and answer each of the following.

8 Advocate
3
Teacher
4 2 7
6
1
Doctor

28. Teachers who are both lawyers and doctors are represented by which number?
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 7

29. Doctors who are Teachers but not Lawyers are represented by which number?
(A) 3 (B) 7
(C) 2 (D) 6

30. Lawyers who are neither doctors nor teachers are represented by which number?
(A) 7 (B) 3
(C) 8 (D) 2

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Page No. 10
7th January 2024
for Students presently in Class VI

Paper 1 - IQ

ANSWER KEYS
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A
5. B 6. A 7. C 8. A
9. D 10. D 11. D 12. D
13. D 14. A 15. C 16. D
17. C 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. C 24. C
25. C 26. D 27. D 28. A
29. D 30. C

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016 (website: www.fiitjee.com)
7th January 2024
for Students presently in Class VI

Paper 2 - NTSE Science & Mathematics


Duration : 60 minutes Maximum Marks : 48

Please read the instructions and guidelines carefully :


Important Note : Please ensure to accurately input the details for the Class and Paper No. as indicated at the top of this sheet
into the corresponding columns / fields on the OMR sheet before proceeding with the paper. Incorrectly filled information
regarding the class or paper may result in inaccurate outcomes or results.

“This paper has been scientifically designed to evaluate your potential – manifested
and hidden for the target examinations mentioned in various sections of the paper.
Thus, your adherence to the instructions is critical in the evaluation of the same”

1. This Question paper consists of 2 sections.

2. Student should devote allotted time for each section. If a section is easy, then it is easy for everyone & was meant to
be like that with a goal in mind. Do not switch over to another section if you find the section to be easy. If a section
is tough, then it is tough for everyone. Please note that each section has been allocated a time limit of 30 minutes.
Dedicating the full 30 minutes to finish each section successfully is essential. Opening the next section before completing
the allotted time for the preceding section is not permitted. This adherence is crucial for assessing your true potential, as
each section is meticulously crafted to evaluate your potential for the corresponding competitive examinations.

3. Candidate should open the seal of Section-II only after completing 30 minutes of Section-I.

4. Sheets will be given to each candidate for rough work. Candidate must fill all details on the rough sheet and submit the same
to invigilator along with OMR sheet. Candidate must mention the Question No. while doing the rough work in the sheet.

5. Please note candidates are not allowed to bring any prohibited items into the exam hall such as electronic devices, mobile
phones, smart watch, earphones, calculators, books, notes, formula sheets, and bags.

6. Marking scheme is given in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question


Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer

PHYSICS (Part-A) 1 to 3 +1 0

CHEMISTRY (Part-B) 4 to 6 +1 0
SECTION – I BIOLOGY (Part-C) 7 to 9 +1 0
(NTSE-Science)
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes PHYSICS (Part-D) 10 to 14 +1 0

CHEMISTRY (Part-E) 15 to 19 +1 0

BIOLOGY (Part-F) 20 to 24 +1 0
SECTION – II MATHEMATICS (Part-A) 25 to 33 +1 0
(NTSE-Mathematics)
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes MATHEMATICS (Part-B) 34 to 48 +1 0

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Section – I

Time: 30 Minutes

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FTRE-2024-T2-C-VI-(Paper-2)-S&M

PHYSICS (PART-A)
This part contains 3 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 3. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. What is the SI unit of length?


(A) Metre (B) Centimetre
(C) Kilometre (D) All of these

2. Which of the following is a natural source of light?


(A) Electric bulb (B) Stars
(C) Light emitting diode (D) None of these

3. Colour of shadow of blue colour object is


(A) blue (B) black
(C) white (D) none of these

CHEMISTRY (PART-B)
This part contains 3 Multiple Choice Questions number 4 to 6. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

4. Identify the material which is malleable and ductile?


(A) Stone (B) Coal
(C) Iron (D) Wood

5. Which group of fibres contain only plant fibres?


(A) cotton, jute, silk (B) cotton, jute, flax
(C) silk, nylon, wool (D) wool, terylene, rayon

6. Winnowing cannot be done without___________.


(A) Soil (B) Water
(C) Wind (D) Oxygen

BIOLOGY (PART-C)
This part contains 3 Multiple Choice Questions number 7 to 9. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

7. Which of the following plant part is involved in absorption of water and minerals?
(A) Roots (B) Stem
(C) Leaves (D) Petiole

8. Pellagra is caused due to deficiency of _____.


(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B12
(C) Vitamin B3 (D) Vitamin D

9. Overeating of food leads to _____.


(A) Obesity (B) Deficiency disease
(C) Anemia (D) Allergy

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PHYSICS (PART-D)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 10 to 14. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

10. Pinhole camera formed ____ and _____ image.


(A) virtual, erect (B) virtual, inverted
(C) real, erect (D) real, inverted
11. Which motion can be seen in the second pendulum?
(A) Circular (B) Periodic
(C) Oscillatory (D) Both (B) and (C)
12. Displacement covered by a body in unit time is known as _____.
(A) velocity (B) speed
(C) distance (D) none of these
–1
13. (10) cm = _____ metre
1
(A) 100 (B)
100
1
(C) 1000 (D)
1000
14. Image formed by plane mirror is
(A) inverted but laterally inverted (B) inverted but not laterally inverted
(C) erect but laterally inverted (D) erect but not laterally inverted

CHEMISTRY (PART-E)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 15 to 19. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

7
15. C2H6  O2 
 2CO2  3H2O
2
Which of the following statements are true regarding the above chemical reaction?
(A) C2H6 is the only reactant in the reaction (B) CO2 is the only product in the reaction
(C) C2H6 and O2 are the reactants (D) None of these

16. Identify the INCORRECT statement :


(A) Textile chemistry deals with the study of clothing materials.
(B) Technically thread is known as yarn.
(C) Orlon is a synthetic fibre.
(D) The suitable conditions for cultivation of cotton are black soil and cold climate.

17. Paper is a ______ material whereas copper is a _________ material.


(A) malleable, ductile (B) combustible, ductile
(C) inflammable, combustible (D) combustible, soluble

18. Synthetic fibres have many advantages. One disadvantage of synthetic fibre is that
(A) they are durable and easier to maintain
(B) they dry up fast and do not form wrinkles
(C) they are not attacked by moths
(D) they do not absorb water and sweat

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19. Select the incorrect statement


(A) the solution in which no more amount of solute can be dissolved on raising the temperature is
called super saturated solution
(B) the process of filtration can be used to separate the solid components from liquids
(C) the process of distillation used to separate solid-solid mixture
(D) all of the above are correct

BIOLOGY (PART-F)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 20 to 24. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

20. The ball and socket joint is present in:


(A) ankle (B) skull
(C) knees (D) shoulder

21. Another name of vertebral column is _____.


(A) Ribcage (B) Backbone
(C) Cartilage (D) Carpal

22. Which of the following(s) is/are true about water?


(A) Maintaining body temperature
(B) Help in absorbing nutrient from food
(C) Get rid-off waste through urine & sweat
(D) All of these

23. Which of the animal moves with just one large, disc shaped muscular foot?
(A) Earthworm (B) Cockroach
(C) Snail (D) Tortoise

24. The skeleton of cockroach is known as ________.


(A) Muscles (B) Endoskeleton
(C) Cartilage (D) Exoskeleton

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Section – II
Time: 30 Minutes

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 25 to 33. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

25. The sum of successor of 1099 and predecessor of 2000 is equal to


(A) 3100 (B) 3098
(C) 3099 (D) none of these

26. If a four digit number 53x8 is divisible by 3 then x = ?


(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

27. Which of the following is true?


(A) 999999999 is largest whole number.
(B) Division of two whole numbers is always a whole number.
(C) Every whole number has predecessor and successor.
(D) Multiplication of two whole numbers is a whole number.

2 4
28. Ram painted and Shyam painted of a wall. How much wall remains unpainted?
7 7
1 6
(A) (B)
7 7
3 2
(C) (D)
7 7

29. Himanshu’s scale has been broken out so he starts measuring a line segment from 3.8 cm to
10.3 cm. What is the length of the line segment?
(A) 8.3 cm (B) 14.1 cm
(C) 6.8 cm (D) 6.5 cm

30. In the given figure, the value of y = ? A

(A) 45o (B) 60 o

(C) 70 o (D) 50 o
4 cm 4 cm

y
B 4 cm C

31. What is the value of 75 x 999?


(A) 74925 (B) 75425
(C) 74525 (D) None of these

32. The product  2    225    0.6  is ______.


(A) –27 (B) 270
(C) 300 (D) 900

33. If x –1046 – 398 – 69 = 999 then value of x is ______.


(A) 2502 (B) 2512
(C) 1868 (D) 1978

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – B)
This part contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions number 34 to 48. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

34. The difference between place value and face value of 6 in 856973 is equal to
(A) 5994 (B) 6000
(C) 6006 (D) 6

35. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 8?


(A) 87653234 (B) 78956042
(C) 64298602 (D) 98741032

36. The product of three numbers is 29500. If two of the three numbers are 25 and 59 then the third
number is
(A) 15 (B) 18
(C) 22 (D) 20

37. Which of the following has fractions in ascending order?


1 2 4 3 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 6
(A) , , , , , (B) , , , , ,
3 5 7 5 6 7 3 5 5 7 6 7
1 2 3 5 4 6 2 3 1 4 5 6
(C) , , , , , (D) , , , , ,
3 5 5 6 7 7 5 5 3 7 6 7

38. Two dozens of oranges cost Rs. 60. Find the cost of 120 oranges.
(A) 360 (B) 280
(C) 320 (D) 300

39. In given figure lines , m and n are called



(A) Collinear lines
(B) Parallel lines
(C) Concurrent lines
O
(D) None of these m
n

40. Roman numeral for the greatest three digit natural number is ______.
(A) IXIXIX (B) CMXCIX
(C) CMIXIX (D) CMIIC

41. Which of the following pair represents coprime numbers?


(A) 15, 35 (B) 16, 21
(C) 20, 12 (D) 24, 51

42. How many natural numbers are there between 23 and 100 which are exactly divisible by 6 ?
(A) 8 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 13

43. What mathematical operation should come at the place of ‘p’ in the equation given below?
2 p 6 – 12  4 + 2 = 11
(A) + (B) –
(C) × (D) 

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44. Out of the ratios 7 : 12, 5 : 8, 11 : 16, 13 : 20. Which is the smallest ratio?
(A) 7 : 12 (B) 5 : 8
(C) 11 : 16 (D) 13 : 20

45. The diagram shows an isosceles triangle ABC, such that AB = AC, B 50º C
then the value of x is
(A) 25º (B) 80º
(C) 50º (D) 20º
4x

4 7
46. What is the value of 700000  2000  90  1   ?
100 10000
(A) 72091.0407 (B) 702091.0407
(C) 702910.047 (D) None of these

5
47. What is the value of 1  ?
1
2
3
28
(A) 16 (B)
3
3
(C) 4 (D)
4

48. The average of first ten whole numbers is _____.


(A) 3.5 (B) 4.5
(C) 5.5 (D) 6.5

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Page No. 12
7th January 2024
for Students presently in Class VI

Paper 2 - NTSE Science & Mathematics

ANSWER KEYS
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C
5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C
9. A 10. D 11. D 12. A
13. D 14. C 15. C 16. D
17. B 18. D 19. C 20. D
21. B 22. D 23. C 24. D
25. C 26. B 27. D 28. A
29. D 30. B 31. A 32. B
33. B 34. A 35. D 36. D
37. A 38. D 39. C 40. B
41. B 42. D 43. C 44. A
45. D 46. B 47. C 48. B

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016 (website: www.fiitjee.com)
7th January 2024
for Students presently in Class VI

Paper 3 - NSEJS & Mathematics Olympiad


Duration : 90 minutes Maximum Marks : 126

Please read the instructions and guidelines carefully :


Important Note : Please ensure to accurately input the details for the Class and Paper No. as indicated at the top of this sheet
into the corresponding columns / fields on the OMR sheet before proceeding with the paper. Incorrectly filled information
regarding the class or paper may result in inaccurate outcomes or results.

“This paper has been scientifically designed to evaluate your potential – manifested
and hidden for the target examinations mentioned in various sections of the paper.
Thus, your adherence to the instructions is critical in the evaluation of the same”

1. This Question paper consists of 2 sections.

2. Student should devote allotted time for each section. If a section is easy, then it is easy for everyone & was meant to
be like that with a goal in mind. Do not switch over to another section if you find the section to be easy. If a section
is tough, then it is tough for everyone. Please note that each section has been allocated a time limit of 45 minutes.
Dedicating the full 45 minutes to finish each section successfully is essential. Opening the next section before completing
the allotted time for the preceding section is not permitted. This adherence is crucial for assessing your true potential, as
each section is meticulously crafted to evaluate your potential for the corresponding competitive examinations.

3. Candidate should open the seal of Section-II only after completing 45 minutes of Section-I.

4. Sheets will be given to each candidate for rough work. Candidate must fill all details on the rough sheet and submit the same
to invigilator along with OMR sheet. Candidate must mention the Question No. while doing the rough work in the sheet.

5. Please note candidates are not allowed to bring any prohibited items into the exam hall such as electronic devices, mobile
phones, smart watch, earphones, calculators, books, notes, formula sheets, and bags.

6. Marking scheme is given in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question


Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer

PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 7 +3 –1
SECTION – I
(NSEJS) CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 8 to 14 +3 –1
Time Allotted: 45 Minutes
BIOLOGY (PART-C) 15 to 21 +3 –1

SECTION – II
(Mathematics Olympiad) MATHEMATICS (PART-A) 22 to 42 +3 –1
Time Allotted: 45 Minutes

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Section – I
Time: 45 Minutes

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PHYSICS (PART-A)
This part contains 7 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 7. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Find the average speed of an object which covers first 80 km with speed of 20 km/h and rest
20 km with speed of 10 km/h.
25
(A) km/h (B) 25 km/h
3
50
(C) km/h (D) 50 km/h
3

2. In the given figure, A O is the incident ray on a A


reflecting surface MN. Find the angle of incidence
(A) 40°
(B) 140°
(C) 55°
(D) 100° 50°
M N
O

3. If an object covers 30 km in 20 minutes, find the speed of that object.


(A) 20 m/s (B) 25 m/s
(C) 15 m/s (D) 30 m/s

4. Which of the following are non-luminous bodies?


(i) Planet
(ii) Moon
(iii) Sun
(iv) A bulb
(A) (i) Only (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii) (D) (iii) and (iv)

1
5. An object covers of circular path. What will be the ratio of the distance and displacement of the
4
object?

(A) 2 2 (B)
2 2
2
(C) (D) None of these
2

6. An object is moving from A to B via C as shown in figure. 4m


The net distance covered by the object is : B
(A) 16 m (B) 10 m
(C) 20 m (D) 14 m 6m

A
4m C

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7. A person is in room whose ceiling and two adjacent walls are mirror. How many images are
formed?
(A) 7 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 8

CHEMISTRY (PART-B)
This part contains 7 Multiple Choice Questions number 8 to 14. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. Lengthwise yarn in a woven cloth are called


(A) warp (B) weft
(C) knit (D) none of these

9. Which of the following is/are correctly matched.


Column – I Column – II

(i) Separation of cotton fibres from its seeds Spinning

(ii) Compression of raw cotton fibres into bundles Bailing

(iii) Making yarn from fibres Ginning


Rotting out gummy skin of jute stem to
(iv) Retting
separate fibres
(A) i & ii (B) ii & iii
(C) ii & iv (D) i & iv

10.
obtained used for
from the manufacturing
stem of X of twine
plant & rope
Y

Raw material used


for rolling paper for
cigrattes
& tea bags

(A) X = jute, Y = flax (B) X = jute, Y = cotton


(C) X = cotton, Y = jute (D) X = coir, Y = cotton

11. Expansion gaps are left in the railway tracks because these gaps accommodate the expansion of
rails during hot weather without damaging the tracks. This process is an application of
(i) Physical change (ii) Expansion of metals on heating
(iii) Contraction of metals on cooling (iv) Chemical change
(A) i & ii (B) i, ii & iii
(C) ii, iii & iv (D) ii & iv

12. Sedimentation and decantation is a method of separation suitable for


(A) Solid in solid homogeneous mixture (B) Liquid in liquid homogeneous mixture
(C) Solid in liquid heterogeneous mixture (D) Solid in solid heterogeneous mixture

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13. Amount of solute P, Q, R & S is in 1500 g of Water at 25°C, 50oC and 75°C in their saturated
solutions are given below:
25°C 50°C 75°C
P 235 g 237 g 240 g
Q 180 g 190 g 220 g
R 160 g 170 g 180 g
S 175 g 185 g 200 g
Arrange the following solutes in their increasing order of their amount of solutes that crystallizes
out by cooling from 75 degree celsius to 25 degree celsius.
(A) PQSR (B) PRSQ
(C) RPQS (D) PRQS

14. Mixture of chalk powder, sugar and water can be separated by which of the following respective
steps:
(A) filtration, evaporation (B) distillation, filtration
(C) separating funnel, evaporation (D) magnetic separation, evaporation

BIOLOGY (PART-C)
This part contains 7 Multiple Choice Questions number 15 to 21. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

15. Figure contains two types of leaves and two types of roots. Recognise the correct pair with
respect to leaf venations & root system.

(A) P, R (B) P, S
(C) Q, S (D) None of these

16. Carrot, turnip & sweet potato are:


(A) Roots (B) Stems
(C) Flowers (D) Leaf

17. When soyabean is used for making rotis, it provides more ____ to the body.
(A) carbohydrates (B) high in saturated fats
(C) proteins (D) salt

18. When few drops of a solution are placed on corn, it turned the corn blue-black. What could be the
solution?
(A) Vegetable oil (B) Iodine solution
(C) Benedict’s solution (D) Nitrate solution

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19. Which of the following given below is an imperfect joint?


(A) Ball & socket joint (B) Suture
(C) Elbow joint (D) Pubic symphysis

20. This fruit is a rich source of lycopene, contains 92% water by weight and pH of its pulp varies
between 5 to 7. This fruit is likely to be:
(A) Lime (B) Banana
(C) Apple (D) Watermelon

21. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column – I Column – II
(a) Sternum (i) 14
(b) Ribs (ii) 1
(c) Hip bones (iii) 24
(d) Facial bones (iv) 3
Match the correct option?
(A) (a  iv); (b  iii); (c  ii); (d  i) (B) (a  i); (b  iii); (c  ii); (d  iv)
(C) (a  ii); (b  iii); (c  iv); (d  i) (D) (a  ii); (b  i); (c  iii); (d  iv)

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Section – II
Time: 45 Minutes

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 21 Multiple Choice Questions number 22 to 42. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1
22. If 2  x  . Find the value of x.
1
1
1
3
4
12 21
(A) (B)
17 17
18 13
(C) (D)
17 17

23. Product of two co-prime numbers is 117. Their L.C.M. should be:
(A) 1 (B) 117
(C) equal to their H.C.F. (D) cannot be calculated

24. A’s money is to B’s money as 4 : 5 and B’s money is to C’s money as 2 : 3. If A has Rs.800, C
has
(A) Rs. 1500 (B) Rs. 2000
(C) Rs. 1200 (D) Rs. 1000

25. L.C.M. of two prime numbers x and y (x > y) is 161. The value of 3y – x is:
(A) –2 (B) –1
(C) 1 (D) 2

26. In the given figure, E


what is the value of A + B + C + D + E?
(A) 180º (B) 90º
(C) 270º (D) 360º
A D

B C

2
27. Find the value of 3  .
2
1
3
2
5
36 37
(A) (B)
13 15
36 37
(C) (D)
17 17

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28. When a sum of money was equally distributed among 49 children, each child received Rs. 20. If
the same amount is equally distributed among children, such that each child gets Rs. 3.5, find the
number of children.
(A) 280 (B) 246
(C) 245 (D) 240

29. If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of these numbers are 5 and 120
respectively, then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is equal to:
55 601
(A) (B)
601 55
11 120
(C) (D)
120 11

30. In the given figure ∆ABC and ∆PQR are equilateral R Q


triangle, then find CXY.
(A) 80º x
(B) 20º A C
(C) 40º
(D) 60º y

65° 75°
B P

1
31. If 4 is added to the numerator of a fraction, it becomes and if 3 is added to the denominator of
3
1
the same fraction it becomes then find the sum of numerator and denominator.
6
(A) 32 (B) 28
(C) 34 (D) 30

32. The ratio of two numbers is 9 : 5. If 9 is added to the greater number and 5 is subtracted from the
smaller number, the greater number becomes thrice the smaller one. Find the numbers.
(A) 72, 40 (B) 18, 10
(C) 36, 20 (D) None of these

 1  1 1  1 1  1 1


33. Find the product of these fractions  1    1    1   1    1    1    1   .
 2  3  4  5  6  7  8
1 1
(A) (B)
3 8
1 2
(C) (D)
7 5

34. The product of the LCM and HCF of two numbers is 24. The difference of two numbers is 2. Find
the sum of these two numbers.
(A) 24 (B) 14
(C) 11 (D) 10

35. Find the ratio of the diagonal of a square of side 30 cm, to its side.
(A) 2:3 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1

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36. A square and an equilateral triangle have a common side as


4
shown in figure. If side of square is cm long. Perimeter of the
3
figure formed is
20 24
(A) cm (B) cm
3 3
25
(C) cm (D) 24 cm
3

4
cm
3

37. Find the value of LXIII – XLV.


(A) XVIII (B) II
(C) XIV (D) XIX

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
38. Find the sum of           .
2 6 12 20 30 42 56 72 90 110 132
11
(A) 718 (B)
12
15 17
(C) (D)
16 18
39. The ratio of the first and second-class fares between the two stations is 6 : 4 and the number of
passengers travelling by first and second-class is 1 : 30. If Rs. 2100 is collected as fare, what is
the amount collected from first class passengers?
(A) Rs. 250 (B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 150 (D) Rs. 100

40.  
What is the value of 8   28  34   36  18  9  8   ?
4
(A) 6 (B) 6
9
(C) 25 (D) None of these

a 56 84
41. If   then the value of a + b.
9 b 108
(A) 79 (B) 63
(C) 65 (D) 74
42. In figure, AM  BC and AN is the bisector of A. If B A
= 65° and C = 33°. Find MAN.
(A) 18º
(B) 16º
(C) 14º
(D) 20º

65° 33°
B C
M N

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FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016 (website: www.fiitjee.com)
Page No. 12
7th January 2024
for Students presently in Class VI

Paper 3 - NSEJS & Mathematics Olympiad

ANSWER KEYS
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. C
5. B 6. D 7. A 8. A
9. C 10. A 11. B 12. C
13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A
17. C 18. B 19. D 20. D
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. A
25. A 26. A 27. D 28. A
29. C 30. C 31. A 32. C
33. B 34. D 35. D 36. A
37. A 38. B 39. D 40. A
41. A 42. B

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