Oncology Mcqs

4. The main treatment for Ewing's sarcoma?
Surgical.
Combined.
Chemotherapy.
Complex.
Radiation.
5. Most common site of Rhabdomyosarcoma is?
Head and neck
Trunk
Urogenital
Lungs
6. In cervical cancer, the following morphological form of cancer is most common:
squamous;
adenocarcinoma;
clear-celled;
undifferentiated.
7. A 52-year-old patient has cancer of the body of the uterus with metastases to the ovaries, the tumor is receptor-positive.
Treatment tactics include:
extirpation of the uterus with appendages + resection of the greater omentum;
extirpation of the uterus with appendages + resection of the greater omentum + radiation;
extirpation of the uterus with appendages + resection of the greater omentum + radiation + chemotherapy;
extirpation of the uterus with appendages + resection of the greater omentum + radiation + chemotherapy + hormone therapy.
http://test.edu.kg/t/module-results/?module_id=20721 29/12/2023, 9 31 PM
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8. Diagnosis of cervical cancer is carried out using:
cytological examination of scrapings from the cervix and cervical canal;
colposcopy;
histological examination of a piece of the cervix;
all of the above is correct.
9. The cytological method for the early detection of cervical pathology is used:
during preventive examinations;
in pregnant women at the Orst visit;
in patients with pathognomonic complaints;
10. Frequency of benign and malignant tumors of soft tissues and bones:
Benign tumors of soft tissues and bones are equally common in comparison with malignant ones.
Benign tumors of soft tissues are much more common than malignant ones, and vice versa in bones.
Malignant tumors of soft tissues and bones predominate over benign ones.
Benign tumors of soft tissues and bones predominate over malignant ones.
Malignant tumors of soft tissues are much more common than benign ones, and vice versa in bones.
11. Name the main etiological factor that leads to the appearance of bone and soft tissue tumors.
Heredity.
Hormonal disorders.
Air pollution.
Injury.
Smoking.
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12. The decisive moment for the appointment of chemotherapy in the postoperative period patients with endometrial cancer
are:
the age of the patients;
stage of the disease;
the presence of estrogen and progesterone receptors in the tumor;
concomitant diseases.
13. Synovial sarcoma cellular marker is:
Cytospasmine
S-200
Vimentin
Calretinin
GFAP
14. Cytogenetics for synovial cell sarcoma is:
t(X ; 18)
t(2 ; 13)
t(1 ; 13)
t(11 ; 14)
15. If there are any “alarms”, a suspicion of soft tissue sarcoma should be expressed?
The presence of a gradually increasing tumor formation.
Restriction of the mobility of the existing tumor.
The appearance of a tumor originating from the deep layers of soft tissues.
The appearance of swelling after a period of several weeks to 2-3 years or more after injury.
The presence of all of the above signs.
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16. A 52-year-old patient has been diagnosed with uterine curettage due to bleeding in the intermenstrual period. Histologically
- glandular cystic hyperplasia. From concomitant diseases - uterine Ybroids 12 weeks. Treatment tactics include:
observation;
treatment with gestagens;
estrogen treatment;
operation - extirpation of the uterus with appendages.
17. Distant lymphogenous metastases in cervical cancer classiYed as M include metastases to the lymph nodes:
locking;
internal iliac;
external iliac;
para-aortic.
18. All of the following are childhood tumors except:
Wilm’s tumor
Neuroblastoma
Retinoblastoma
Embryonal rhabdomyoma
Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma
19. Cytological signs of cervical epithelium malignancy are:
cell polymorphism;
change in the ratio of the nucleus and cytoplasm in the cell;
the presence of pathological mitoses;
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20. Which soft tissue sarcomas are fast growing?
Embryonic liposarcomas.
Highly differentiated Obrosarcomas.
Myxosarcomas.
Angiosarcomas.
Highly differentiated liposarcomas.
21. Which of the following is associated with Tuberous sclerosis?
Fibroma
Lipoma
Leiomyoma
Rhabdomyoma
22. Cervical precancer includes:
leukoplakia without atypia;
dysplasia;
papilloma;
23. Decisive for the diagnosis of endometrial cancer are:
inspection in mirrors;
palpation;
ultrasound examination of the small pelvis;
diagnostic curettage.
24. What is the name of the cytological research method for detecting cervical cancer:
Pap's test;
veriOcation test;
diagnostic test;
cervical test.
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25. Retinoblastoma arising in the context of germ-line mutations not only may be bilateral but also may be associated with
___________ )so-called “Trilateral” retinoblastoma)
Medulloblastoma
Pinealoblastoma
Neuroblastoma
Hemangioblastoma
26. From which tissue soft tissue tumors do not develop.
Muscular.
Fatty.
Epithelial.
Connecting.
Vascular.
27. Which tumor is of epithelial origin?
Ganglioma.
Pheochromocytoma.
Basalioma.
Sympathicoblastoma.
Leiomyoma.
28. A 16-year-old boy complains of constant growing pains in the lower third of the right thigh for a week, worsening at night,
analgesics are ineffective. Three months ago, there was an injury to the right knee joint, there was (bruise) and moderate pain in
the lower third of the right thigh, which disappeared after a week. dense painful swelling up to 6 cm, inactive. Presumptive
diagnosis?
Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis
Chronic hematogenous osteomyelitis
Paget's disease.
Bone-cartilage exostosis.
Osteosarcoma.
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29. Spindle-shaped cells are/are seen in which sarcoma:
Osteosarcoma
Chondromyosarcoma
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
Leiomyosarcoma
All of the above
30. Most common Sarcoma of adulthood is:
Liposarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Leiomyosarcoma
31. Women are at risk for cervical cancer.
those who started early sexual activity (up to 18 years old);
who have undergone viral diseases of the genital organs;
suffering from deformation of the cervix after its rupture during childbirth;
32. The only reliable method for diagnosing CCP?
Standard radiography of bones.
CT scan of bones.
MRT - bones.
Bone osteoscintigraphy.
Biopsy with morphological examination of the material.
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33. Chondrosarcoma most often occurs at an age?
11 -20 years old.
21-30 years old.
31-40 years old.
41-50 years old.
51 or more.
34. Frequent localization of osteosarcoma:
Radial and Obula.
Femur and tibia.
The humerus and ulna.
Vertebral bodies, foot bones.
Ribs, vertebral bodies
35. A 56-year-old patient has cancer of the body of the uterus, stage II, poorly differentiated. There are no concomitant
diseases. The optimal amount of surgery for her should be considered:
supravaginal amputation of the uterus with appendages;
extirpation of the uterus with appendages;
extended extirpation of the uterus with appendages.
36. Microinvasive carcinoma of the cervix is a tumor with invasion:
up to 3 mm;
up to 4 mm;
up to 5 mm;
up to 6 mm.
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37. Primitive Neuro Ectodermal Tumor of bones & Soft tissues shows which of the following cytogenetic abnormality:
EWS-ETVI
EWS-EPG
EWS-FLI2
EWS-ATFI
EWS-WTI
38. As a result of diagnostic studies, the patient was diagnosed with malignant Ybrous histiocytoma (G3) of the lower leg, up to
Yve centimeters in diameter, the tumor is located below the superYcial fascia, regional and distant metastases are not detected.
Formulate the stage of the disease?
T1b, N0, M0 (II А st.)
T2b, N0, M0 (II B st.)
T2а, N0, M0 (IB st.)
T1а, N1, M0 (III century)
T2b, N0, M1 (Iv st.)
39. A patient 30 years old after removal of the intrauterine device with histological examination of scraping revealed
adenomyosis. She needs:
androgen treatment;
operation;
radiation therapy.
40. A marker of the activity of the tumor process of bones in the blood?
Cancer - embryonic antigen (CEA).
CA 125.
Alpha-Fetoprotein.
Human chorionic gonadotropin.
Alkaline phosphatase.
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41. Hyperglycemia is associated with?
Osteosarcoma
Chondroblastoma
Chondrosarcoma
Osteoma
42. Ewing's sarcoma most often occurs at an age?
11 -20 years.
21-30 years old.
31-40 years old.
41-50 years old.
51 or more.
43. Tadpole cells or comma-shaped cells on histopathology are seen in:
Trichoepithelioma
Spideroma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Histiocytoma
44. The outcome of treatment and the fate of patients with chondrosarcoma directly correlate with:
Localization of the tumor.
The age of the patients.
Cellular tissue anaplasia.
Concomitant pathology.
Sex.
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45. If a patient with uterine cancer has metastases to the ovaries, it is advisable to perform the following operation:
extirpation of the uterus with appendages, lymphadenectomy + resection of the greater omentum;
supravaginal amputation of the uterus with appendages + resection of the greater omentum;
46. Which of the following are primarily spindle cell tumor?
Rhabdomyosarcoma
NeuroObroma
Leiomyosarcoma
Liposarcoma
47. The background processes of the integumentary epithelium of the cervix include:
pseudo-erosion;
true erosion;
leukoplakia without atypia;
48. The predominant localization of metastases of the osteosarcoma are.
Regional lymph nodes.
Lungs.
Liver.
Brain.
Kidneys.
49. With regard to the malignant behavior of leiomyosarcoma, the most important criterion is:
Blood vessel penetration by tumor cells
Tumor cells in lymphatic channels
Lymphocyte inOltration
The number of mitoses per high power Oeld
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50. “Biphasic pattern” on histology is seen in which tumor:
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Synovial cell sarcoma
Osteosarcoma
NeuroObroma
51. For the treatment of early forms of cervical cancer, the following are often used:
surgical method;
a combined method with preoperative irradiation;
a combined method with postoperative radiation;
combined beam method.
52. A 35-year-old patient has endometrial hyperplasia after the removal of the intrauterine device during the histological
examination of the scraping. She needs:
androgen treatment;
operation;
observation.
53. For the treatment of a patient with cervical cancer T1N0M0 are often used:
surgical method;
a combined method with preoperative radiation;
a combined method with postoperative radiation;
combined radiation method.
54. A most important indicator of malignancy in smooth muscle tumors is:
Mitotic index
Atypia
Necrosis
Cellularity
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55. A 51-year-old woman was diagnosed with uterine cancer of stage 1B. The tumor is localized in the area of the fundus of the
uterus up to 2 cm in diameter, the depth of invasion is 0.3 cm. The tumor is highly differentiated, receptor-positive. The most
appropriate for her should be considered:
only operation (extirpation of the uterus with appendages);
operation + radiation;
surgery + hormone therapy;
surgery + chemotherapy.
56. With extended extirpation of the uterus with appendages, all of the listed lymph nodes are removed, except:
parametric;
locking;
external and internal iliac arteries;
common iliac.
57. Name the main method for the treatment of benign soft tissue tumors.
Surgical.
Radiation.
Chemotherapy.
Hormonal.
Immunotherapy.
58. A 38-year-old patient with severe adenomatosis underwent hormone therapy 17-OPK. At follow-up examination after 6
months, no positive dynamics was noted. Further treatment includes:
continue treatment with gestagens;
androgen treatment;
operation;
radiation therapy.
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59. A 48-year-old patient has a cervical adenocarcinoma stage 1B. Somatically not burdened. Treatment tactics are reduced to:
extended extirpation of the uterus with appendages
combined radiation treatment
combined treatment with preoperative radiation
combined treatment with postoperative radiation
60. Intraepithelial cervical cancer can:
go into invasive cancer;
stabilize;
regress;
61. Commonest sarcoma in children is:
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Lipoma
Angiosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
62. Dysplasia of the cervix is distinguished:
weak;
moderate;
heavy;
63. A 50-year-old patient has intraepithelial cancer of the cervix and an ovarian cyst. It is advisable for her to apply:
conization of the cervix;
cryodestruction;
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64. Sarcoma spreading by lymphatic spread is?
Alveolar RMS
Embryonal RMS
Liposarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
65. To determine the extent of the process (detection of metastases in the lymph nodes) in cervical cancer stages 1B, II, III, the
greatest diagnostic value has:
inspection in mirrors;
excretory urography;
direct lymphography;
angiography.
66. The cambium layer is seen in:
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma
Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
Undifferentiated rhabdomyosarcoma
67. A 50-year-old woman has stage 1b endometrial cancer. The tumor is localized in the area of the fundus of the uterus, the
tumor diameter is 6 cm, the invasion is more than 1/2 of the myometrium, the tumor is receptor-negative. It is advisable for her:
operation + radiation;
surgery + hormone therapy;
surgery + chemotherapy;
operation + radiation + hormone therapy.
68. Risk factors for cervical cancer:
more than 3 births in history;
viral infection;
obesity;
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69. Bible Bump is a:
Synovial cyst
Malformation
NeuroObroma
Myxomatous degeneration
70. A 16-year-old boy complains of constant growing pains in the lower third of the right thigh for a week, worsening at night,
analgesics are ineffective. Three months ago, there was an injury to the right knee joint, there was (bruise) and moderate pain in
the lower third of the right thigh, which disappeared after a week. Objectively: the body temperature is 37.5 degrees, the
inguinal nodes are not palpable, in the lower third of the right thigh on the outer surface, a dense painful tumor up to 6 cm,
inactive is palpable. What is your diagnostic algorithm?
X-ray of the right thigh, open biopsy.
General analysis of blood and urine.
X-rays of the lungs.
Ultrasound of the soft tissues of the right thigh.
Computed tomography of the right thigh.
71. Which soft tissue sarcomas are slow growing?
Synovial sarcomas.
Highly differentiated Obro- and liposarcomas.
Angiosarcomas.
Rhabdomyosarcomas.
Low-grade Obro-liposarcomas.
72. A 42-year-old patient has stage IIIa cervical cancer. History of chronic ingammation with frequent exacerbations. Your
tactics include:
Wertheim's operation;
Wertheim's operation followed by radiation therapy;
removal of the uterine appendages with subsequent combined radiation therapy;
combined radiation therapy.
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73. The main treatment for osteosarcoma?
Surgical.
Combined.
Chemotherapy.
Complex.
Radiation.
74. The risk group for cervical cancer includes all women, except for:
those who started early sexual activity (up to 18 years old);
who have undergone viral diseases of the genital organs;
suffering from deformation of the cervix after its rupture during childbirth;
late sexually active.
75. Risk factors for cervical cancer are all, except:
more than 3 births in history;
viral infection;
obesity;
history of pregnancy.
76. True about rhabdomyosarcoma?
Arise from pluripotent cells
Tennis racket cells on light microscopy
Sarcoma botryoides is a variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
A most common type is Embryonal
All of the above
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77. In cancer of the body of the uterus, the following morphological form is most common:
adenocarcinoma;
squamous cell carcinoma;
clear cell carcinoma;
glandular squamous cell carcinoma.
78. Dysplasia of the cervix is characterized by:
impaired cell differentiation;
violation of the layering of the epithelial layer;
violation of cell polarity;
polymorphism of a number of cells.
79. What is Desmoid?
Malignant tumor of the soft tissues of the anterior abdominal wall.
Benign tumor of the soft tissues of the anterior abdominal wall from Obrous tissue.
Intermediate tumor of the soft tissues of the anterior abdominal wall from Obrous tissue. It is characterized by local
destructive growth.
Malignant tumor from blood vessels is one of the most malignant neoplasms of soft tissues.
Non-neoplastic diseases of the tendon part of the rectus abdominis muscle.
80. Which way of matastasis is more typical for osteocarcoma?
Lymphogenous.
Hematogenous.
Contact.
Implant.
All paths are often the same.
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81. Most common soft tissue tumor is:
Fibroma
Lipoma
Leiomyosarcoma
Leiomyosarcoma
82. The most common site of Fibrosarcoma is:
Head & Neck
Extremities
Abdominal wall
Joints
83. Immunohistochemical stain marker of Rhabdomyosarcoma:
Desmin
Vimentin
Cytokeratin
NeuroOlament
84. A 52-year-old patient has cancer of the body of the uterus with metastases to the ovaries, the tumor is receptor-positive.
Treatment tactics include:
extirpation of the uterus with appendages + resection of the greater omentum + radiation;
extirpation of the uterus with appendages + resection of the greater omentum + radiation + chemotherapy;
extirpation of the uterus with appendages + resection of the greater omentum + radiation + chemotherapy + hormone therapy.
85. A true endometrial precancer should be considered:
glandular hyperplasia;
Obrous polyp;
glandular polyp;
atypical hyperplasia (adenomatosis).
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86. Regional lymph nodes of the I stage of metastasis in cervical cancer are, all except:
locking;
external and internal iliac;
common iliac;
para-aortic.
87. What triad of symptoms is typical for osteosarcoma?
Pain, high body temperature, increased ESR.
Palpable swelling, dilatation of the saphenous veins, dysfunction of the limb.
Pain, palpable swelling, dysfunction of the limb.
General weakness, high body temperature, painful swelling.
Lameness, muscle contracture, limitation of joint mobility.
88. Biphasic histopathology is seen in:
habdomyoma
Mesothelioma
NeuroObromatosis
Synovial sarcoma
Retinoblastoma
89. Percentage of patients with Ewing's sarcoma with 5-year survival after radiation treatment alone:
10%.
15%.
20%.
25%.
35%.
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90. Name the main clinical syndrome of soft tissue tumors.
Intoxication.
Painful.
"Plus-tissue".
Paraneoplastic.
Syndrome of common signs.
91. Olliers disease also known as?
Osteosarcoma
Enchondromatosis
Multiple myelomas
Enchondrosis
92. Benign tumors of the thyroid gland include everything except:
follicular adenoma;
trabecular adenoma;
papillary adenoma;
follicular adenocarcinoma.
93. The ratio of men and women with oral cancer:
6: 1;
3: 1;
1: 1;
1: 3.
94. Which diagnostic method is the most informative for suspected thyroid cancer:
puncture biopsy;
ultrasound;
scintigraphy of the gland;
computed tomography.
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95. Etiological moments in the development of thyroid cancer should be considered all, except:
ionizing radiation;
the presence of neoplastic processes in the tissue of the thyroid gland;
long-term stimulation of the body with an increased content of thyroid-stimulating hormone;
male.
96. The optional precancer of the lip includes:
cracks;
cheilitis;
chronic ulcers;
everything is correct.
97. With a clinical diagnosis of melanoma without morphological veriYcation, there may be the following treatment was started:
surgical;
chemotherapy;
immunological;
radiation.
98. Obligate precancerous diseases of the lip are all, except:
warty precancer;
Manganotti abrasive cheilitis;
limited precancerous hyperkeratosis;
cutaneous horn.
99. Vanaha's operation for cancer of the lower lip is performed:
before radiation therapy;
in the surgical treatment of cancer of the lower lip;
2-3 weeks after irradiation;
execution time does not matter.
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100. The etiological aspects in the development of thyroid cancer should be considered:
ionizing radiation;
the presence of neoplastic processes in the tissue of the thyroid gland;
long-term stimulation of the body with an increased content of thyroid-stimulating hormone;
all answers are correct.
101. Obligate precancer of the lower lip is:
leukoplakia;
Bowen's disease;
cheilit Manganotti;
correct b), c).
102. Biochemical test to detect cancer from C cells:
determination of the level of thyroxine;
determination of the level of calcitonin;
determination of the level of TSH;
determination of T3, T4 levels.
103. What method of treatment is optimal for squamous cell skin cancer with metastases to regional lymph nodes:
beam
surgical;
cryodestruction;
combined method.
104. Basalioma is characterized by:
hematogenous metastasis;
lymphogenous metastasis;
local destructive growth;
preferential localization on the skin of the extremities.
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105. With retrosternal spread of thyroid cancer, all signs may appear, except:
swelling of the cervical veins;
disorders of cerebral circulation;
Horner's syndrome;
attacks of suffocation.
106. Radiophosphorus test is used to diagnose:
superOcial tumors;
only for tumors with a tropism for phosphorus;
tumors of the cavity organs available for the introduction of the sensor;
all answers are correct;
correct answers are only a) and b).
107. In case of mobile regional metastases of facial skin cancer, the following operations are performed, with the exception of:
case-fascial lymphadenectomy;
removal of the affected lymph nodes of the parotid region with parotidectomy;
the Kraille operation;
Duquesne operations.
108. The most common histological type of tumors of the goor of the mouth:
adenocarcinoma;
sarcoma;
mucous adenocarcinoma.
109. The results of treatment for skin cancer do not depend on:
the stages of the process;
the duration of the disease;
the depth of tumor invasion;
histological structure.
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110. Radiation therapy followed by surgical treatment is called:
complex treatment;
combined treatment;
combined treatment;
mutual treatment.
111. A 68-year-old patient has a tumor of the lower lip with a diameter of 2 cm, in the submandibular and chin regions there are
two sedentary metastases, metastasis in the lungs. He should set the stage:
I;
II;
III;
IV.
112. From the C-cells of the thyroid gland, the following develops:
papillary cancer;
undifferentiated cancer;
follicular cancer;
113. The most frequent localization of distant metastases in thyroid cancer:
liver;
lungs, bones;
stomach;
the brain.
114. The following factors predispose to skin cancer, with the exception of:
X-ray radiation;
ultraviolet rays;
frequent water procedures;
scars after burns.
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115. The upper lip is affected by cancer:
often;
the same with the lower lip;
rarely.
116. Which of the named research methods will not be used to obtain morphological veriYcation in case of suspected
melanoma:
smear - an imprint of the tumor;
puncture biopsy;
wide excision of the nevus under anesthesia with histological examination;
deOnition of melanuria (Yaksha reaction).
117. An "early" symptom of thyroid cancer is:
induration and enlargement of the gland;
pain when swallowing;
hoarseness of the voice;
dysphagia.
118. When excising melanoma of the facial skin, it is shown to deviate from its edges at least:
1cm;
5 cm;
3 cm;
4 cm.
119. Cancer of the scalp without destruction of the bones of the skull with a diameter of 3 cm refers to the stage:
I;
II;
III A;
III B.
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120. A 50-year-old patient has itching in the area of the age spot. An intense black spot measuring 0.4 x 0.5 cm, rises above the
skin. Weeping on the surface. Your tactics:
dynamic observation;
puncture biopsy;
taking smears - prints;
ointment treatment.
121. Differential diagnosis of skin cancer should be carried out with the following diseases:
systemic lupus erythematosus;
tuberculosis of the skin;
fungal skin lesions;
with all of the above.
122. The horizontal phase of melanoma growth is characterized by:
the presence of lymphogenous metastases;
the growth of the tumor deep into the skin;
spread within the epithelial layer;
the presence of hematogenous metastases.
123. Vanaha's operation is indicated for:
T3N0M0 tumors;
at T3N1M0;
at T2N2M0;
correct b) and c).
124. The most common morphological forms of thyroid cancer are:
papillary adenocarcinoma;
medullary cancer;
follicular adenocarcinoma;
undifferentiated cancer.
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125. To obtain material for establishing a morphological diagnosis, it is advisable to carry out research methods, except for:
taking a smear-print;
taking a scraping;
biopsy;
cryodestruction.
126. A 48-year-old patient has follicular thyroid cancer T3N1M0. It is most expedient for him:
perform thyroidectomy with fascial-sheath excision of the neck tissue;
carry out combined treatment with preoperative radiation therapy at the 1st stage, followed by thyroidectomy with fascial-
sheath excision of the neck tissue;
to carry out combined treatment with preoperative radiation therapy followed by radioactive iodine treatment;
conduct an independent course of radiation therapy according to a radical program.
127. Palpation of thyroid cancer is usually deYned as:
dense painless knot;
a knot with softening in the central part;
a dense painful knot;
diffuse compaction.
128. After surgical treatment of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin of the right leg, a mobile metastasis appeared in the
lymph nodes of the right groin six months later. What tactics will you choose:
polychemotherapy;
radiation therapy;
the Kraille operation;
Duquesne operation.
129. What precancerous disease is sometimes called "horny mollusk":
keratoacanthoma;
cutaneous horn;
leukoplakia;
papilloma with keratinization.
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130. The incidence of thyroid cancer in recent years:
decreases;
remains at the same level;
grows.
131. In case of stage I – II skin melanoma, in case of Clarke invasion of 1–2 degrees, the following treatment method is used:
radical surgical;
radiation therapy;
combined treatment;
chemo-radiation therapy.
132. The main method for diagnosing thyroid cancer is:
ultrasound;
radioisotope;
radiological;
morphological.
133. Risk factors for developing cancer of the lower lip:
smoking;
excessive insolation;
exposure to radiation;
all of the above.
134. The concept of "hidden" thyroid cancer means:
the presence of a small tumor in the tissue of the thyroid gland without its clinical manifestations;
the presence of metastases of thyroid cancer in the lymph nodes of the neck without clinical signs of a primary tumor;
the presence of metastases of thyroid cancer in the lymph nodes of the neck;
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135. The minimum amount of surgical intervention for thyroid cancer should be considered:
enucleation of the node;
hemithyroidectomy;
resection of the lobe;
hemithyroidectomy with isthmus resection;
136. The most effective treatment for precancerous skin diseases is:
physiotherapy;
anti-inkammatory therapy;
cryodestruction or surgical excision;
ointment dressings.
137. With radiation therapy for basal cell carcinoma, it is most advisable to use:
close-focus X-ray therapy;
gamma radiation;
fast electrons;
combined radiation therapy.
138. Optional precancerous lip diseases are all, except:
cutaneous horn;
papillomas with keratinization;
Tuppainer's leukoplakia;
abrasive cheilitis of Manganotti.
139. What stage is skin cancer larger than 2 cm in diameter, growing through the entire thickness of the skin, having one
metastasis in the regional lymph node:
I;
II-a;
II-b;
III-b.
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140. Surgical treatment of cancer of the lower lip is shown:
with small tumors;
with large tumors after radiation therapy;
after cryodestruction;
in all cases.
141. The initial forms of cancer of the oral cavity organs usually occur:
under the guise of other diseases;
with sudden onset of symptoms;
asymptomatic;
under the mask of stomatitis.
142. The frequency of regional metastasis of thyroid cancer is:
from 10 to 20%;
from 25 to 35%;
from 40 to 50%;
from 60 to 80%.
143. Highly differentiated thyroid cancer metastases mainly:
lymphogenous pathway;
by hematogenous route;
intraorganically;
in all the ways indicated above.
144. Medullary thyroid cancer develops from:
A cells;
B cells;
C-cells;
from any of the above cells.
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145. Chemotherapy is most effective for:
follicular thyroid cancer;
papillary thyroid cancer;
low-grade thyroid cancer;
elciency does not depend on the morphological structure of the tumor.
146. The incidence of medullary thyroid cancer is:
10%;
20%;
50%;
70%.
147. The Yrst level of invasion of melanoma according to Clark includes:
non-invasive tumor limited to the epidermis;
tumor cells are located between the papillary and reticular layers;
tumor cells invade subcutaneous fat;
tumor cells are located in the reticular layer of the dermis;
148. Radioisotope studies in clinical oncology are used:
to determine the prevalence of the malignant process;
to identify a primary tumor;
to assess the functional state of some internal organs;
correct answers are only a) and b);
149. Lymphogenous metastases of cancer of the lower lip occur in:
5-10% of cases;
15–20% of cases;
25-30% of cases;
in more than 30% of patients.
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150. In case of metastases of melanoma of the skin of the lower extremity in the inguinal lymph nodes, the following operation
on the regional lymph nodes is indicated:
Vanach's operation;
Mikulich's operation;
the Craille operation;
Duquesne operation.
151. A 52-year-old patient has papillary thyroid cancer T2N0M0 with localization in the right lobe. She should:
perform subtotal resection of the thyroid gland;
to carry out combined treatment with preoperative radiation therapy;
to carry out combined treatment with postoperative radiation therapy;
to carry out self-radiation therapy.
152. M 1 for melanoma is set at:
the appearance of daughter pigment inclusions (satellites) in the circumference of the nevus;
melanuria;
I level of invasion according to Clark;
ulceration of the tumor.
153. With a long course of basal cell skin cancer, the following complications develop, with the exception of:
infection of a tumor ulcer;
destruction of the underlying cartilage, bones;
bleeding from the tumor;
lymph-hematogenous metastasis.
154. In case of skin melanoma IIB, III stage with invasion according to Clarke of 4–5 degrees, the method of choice is:
radiation therapy;
surgical treatment;
complex treatment;
immunotherapy.
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155. Lip cancer is more common (choose two correct answers):
for rural residents;
urban dwellers;
in the southern regions;
in the northern regions.
156. Precancerous skin diseases include the following, with the exception of:
late radiation ulcers;
pigmented xeroderm;
pigmented nevus;
Bowen's disease.
157. The clinical course of basal cell carcinoma:
long-term;
fast;
with distant metastases;
with regional metastases.
158. Metastasis in one lymph node on the affected side up to 3 cm corresponds to:
N1;
N2;
N3;
N4.
159. Indications for chemotherapy for thyroid cancer include:
a rapidly growing recurrent tumor;
an inoperable undifferentiated form of cancer;
metastases to distant organs;
all of the above;
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160. Obligate precancer of the lip includes:
erythroplakia;
focal dyskeratosis and papillomas;
leukoplakia;
senile keratomas.
161. Radioactive iodine can be used to detect:
primary tumor of the thyroid gland;
metastases of thyroid cancer in the bone;
metastases of thyroid cancer in the lungs, liver;
correct answers are only a) and b);
162. In terms of differential diagnosis of tongue cancer, it is necessary to exclude the following diseases of the mucous
membrane of the tongue:
leukoplakia;
erythroplakia;
dysplasia of the epithelium;
163. In terms of the frequency of lesions in cancer of the tongue, in the Yrst place is:
root;
back;
side surface;
tip.
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164. The most effective drug for thyroid cancer is:
cyclophosphamide;
adriamycin;
bleomycin;
methotrexate.
165. Basalioma of the skin is most often localized on the skin:
faces;
back;
trunk;
limbs.
166. The most informative method for diagnosing skin cancer:
morphological study;
ultrasound;
trial treatment;
immunological.
167. To obtain material for the formulation of a morphological diagnosis, it is advisable to carry out:
taking a smear-print;
taking a scraping;
biopsy;
168. For inYltratively growing forms of lip cancer (T3-4), the following are used:
radiation therapy and surgery;
chemoradiation therapy and surgery;
radiation or chemoradiation therapy and surgery;
operation.
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169. Medullary thyroid cancer is characterized by:
diarrhea;
the presence of dense "stony" nodes in the thyroid gland;
Sipple's syndrome;
all of the above.
170. Oral cavity cancer most often occurs in:
Pakistan;
South America;
India;
correct a, c.
171. Obligate pre-cancers of the skin are the following diseases, with the exception of:
chronic dermatitis;
Bowen's disease;
pigmented xeroderma;
Keir's erythroplasia.
172. The most common metastases of thyroid cancer are:
lymph nodes along the internal jugular vein;
supraclavicular;
paratracheal;
retrosternal;
pretracheal.
173. In case of early cancer of the small lip, all methods are effective, except for:
cryogenic impact;
contact chemotherapy;
photodynamic therapy.
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174. What tactics will you choose if a 62-year-old patient has stage 1 basal cell skin cancer on the trunk skin:
physiotherapy;
surgical excision;
polychemotherapy.
175. The frequency of highly differentiated thyroid adenocarcinomas is:
10%;
20%;
50%;
70%.
176. The Yfth level of invasion of melanoma according to Clarke refers to a tumor that:
non-invasive, limited to the epidermis;
tumor cells are located between the papillary and reticular layers;
tumor cells germinate subcutaneous fat;
tumor cells are located in the papillary layer of the dermis;
177. Distant metastases in tongue cancer often affect:
liver;
lungs;
the brain;
bones.
178. Complete remission after radiation therapy or surgery for tongue cancer at stage T1 is:
80%;
60%;
35%;
15%.
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179. Lip cancer - a tumor of the elements:
the mucous membrane of the lip;
integumentary epithelium of the red border of the lips;
lip skin;
all of the above.
180. Glandular cancer from small salivary glands develops:
often;
rarely.
181. An increase in the level of calcitonin, determined by radioimmunoassay, is characteristic of:
papillary thyroid cancer;
undifferentiated thyroid cancer;
follicular thyroid cancer;
medullary thyroid cancer;
182. Early symptoms of thyroid cancer are:
dysphagia;
Horner's syndrome;
compaction and enlargement of the gland tissue.
183. Which of the diseases of the goor of the mouth is an obligate precancer:
Obroma;
Bowen's disease;
papilloma;
lymphangioma.
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184. Poorly differentiated thyroid cancer metastases mainly:
by the lymphogenous route;
by hematogenous route;
intraorganically;
in all the above ways.
185. What histological form of skin cancer practically does not metastasize:
keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma;
squamous cell non-keratinizing cancer;
basal cell carcinoma;
cancer from the skin appendages.
186. Malignancy of a pigmented nevus is characterized by:
the rapid growth of a nevus;
the appearance of redness in the form of an asymmetric corolla;
changes in pigmentation;
187. Tumor of the lower lip with a diameter of 3 cm, passes to the corner of the mouth, there is a metastasis in the
submandibular lymph node, refers to:
stage I;
stage II;
stage III;
IV.
188. In the absence of lymph node metastases in cancer of the lower lip, a 10-year survival period occurs in:
50-60% of patients;
70-80% of patients;
85-90% of patients;
90-95% of patients.
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189. What treatment is optimal for a 60-year-old patient with stage 1 basal cell skin cancer on the face:
surgical;
chemotherapy;
complex treatment.
190. Among the factors inguencing the prognosis in melanoma, the most important is:
gender;
constitutional features of the body;
age;
Clarke depth of invasion.
191. The development of skin cancer is mainly associated with contact:
with products of coal processing;
with oil reOned products;
with dyes;
with solar insolation.
192. Persons at increased risk for skin cancer do not include:
with dark skin and brown eyes;
with white skin and blue eyes;
with Paget's disease;
having xeroderma pigmentosa.
193. A 62-year-old patient has papillary thyroid cancer T1N0M0 with localization in the right lobe. He should:
perform subtotal resection of the thyroid gland;
to carry out combined treatment with preoperative radiation therapy;
to carry out combined treatment with postoperative radiation therapy;
to carry out self-radiation therapy.
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194. To neoplasms APUD - systems include:
cancer of the large salivary gland;
medullary thyroid cancer;
meningioma;
bronchiogenic cancer.
195. The histological type of cancer of the lower lip is more common:
basalioma;
squamous cell non-keratinizing cancer;
keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma;
adenocarcinoma.
196. In general, distant metastases in tongue cancer are found in:
20% of patients;
50% of patients;
1–5% of patients;
30% of patients.
197. Facultative skin precancers include the following diseases, with the exception of:
cutaneous horn;
senile skin atrophy;
chronic dermatitis;
senile keratosis.
198. A 57-year-old patient has a sore on the skin that does not heal for more than 2 months, despite the ongoing local ointment
treatment. Your tactics:
continue ointment treatment;
carry out physiotherapy;
do cryodestruction;
excisional biopsy with histological examination.
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199. Radioactive iodine is used to diagnose tumors:
stomach;
pancreas;
thyroid gland;
there is no correct answer.
200. For the diagnosis of metastatic bone lesions in thyroid cancer, the following are most often used:
radioactive 32-R;
radioactive 99-Sr;
radioactive 90-Co;
radioactive 131-J;
201. If at an outpatient appointment, a 35-year-old patient complains of bleeding in the birthmark, it is necessary to Ynd out:
whether the pigment formation is congenital or acquired;
the presence of subjective sensations in the area of the mole;
the presence of a birthmark injury;
all of the above.
202. T2 tumor of the lip corresponds to a neoplasm of size:
up to 4 cm;
up to 6 cm;
the tumor spreads to adjacent structures;
up to 5 cm.
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203. Local signs of skin cancer include the following, with the exception of:
deep ulcers with undermined edges;
long-term non-healing erosion, periodically covered with a crust;
exophytic formation of the caulikower type;
temperature rise.
204. In 95% of cases, lip cancer occurs on:
upper lip;
the lower lip.
205. Thyroid cancer is characterized by:
increased accumulation of radionuclide in the tumor;
reduced accumulation of radionuclide in the tumor;
violation of the spread of radioactive substances through the vessels;
correct answers are only a) and b).
206. A 58-year-old patient has medullary thyroid cancer T3N1M0. It is most expedient for him:
perform thyroidectomy with fascial-sheath excision of the neck tissue;
carry out combined treatment with preoperative radiation therapy at the 1st stage, followed by thyroidectomy with fascial-
sheath excision of the neck tissue;
to carry out combined treatment with preoperative radiation therapy followed by radioactive iodine treatment;
conduct an independent course of radiation therapy according to a radical program.
207. From the epithelium of the tongue more often develops:
squamous cell carcinoma of varying degrees of keratinization;
non-keratinizing cancer;
adenocarcinoma;
undifferentiated tumor.
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208. Most often, skin cancer metastases to:
lungs;
liver;
the skeletal system;
regional lymph nodes.
209. The most common cause of the development of tumors of the goor of the mouth:
against the background of precancer;
background pathology;
injury;
on unchanged mucosa.
210. The indication for postoperative radiation therapy is:
insulcient radicalism of the operation;
undifferentiated forms of cancer;
violation of ablastic in advanced cancer;
all of the above.
211. Cancer of the lower lip often develops:
along the midline;
away from the midline;
in the corner of the mouth;
from the inside of the lip.
212. Obstructive jaundice due to a tumor is most often accompanied by:
the appearance of sharp pain in the epigastrium, ascites, vomiting;
enlargement of the liver, pruritus, ascites;
an increase in the gallbladder, itchy skin, an enlarged liver;
nausea, vomiting, enlargement of the gallbladder.
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213. For cancer of the body of the pancreas, the following are most characteristic:
jaundice;
pain in the epigastric region;
an increase in body temperature;
nausea and vomiting.
214. An accurate diagnosis of breast cancer is possible on the basis of:
clinical picture;
mammography;
thermography;
morphological research;
215. The choice of radical surgery for rectal cancer is not inguenced by:
localization of the tumor in the rectum;
the absence of metastases in the regional lymph nodes;
the degree of prevalence of the tumor process;
the duration of the disease.
216. In case of dysphagia of the 3rd degree, there is a violation of the passage:
solid food;
semi-liquid food;
liquid food;
complete obstruction.
217. What is the most common pancreatic tumor:
ductal adenocarcinoma;
giant cell tumor;
pancreatoblastoma.
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218. Complex treatment is indicated for esophageal cancer:
IIb – III stages;
stages IIa – IIb;
stages I – IIa;
Stage I.
219. What clinical sign excludes the possibility of radical surgery for rectal cancer:
ascites;
acute intestinal obstruction;
anemia;
palpable tumor.
220. Radical operations for rectal cancer are all, except:
anterior lower resection;
sigmostomy;
abdominal perineal extirpation;
abdominal-anal resection with bringing down.
221. Lung cancer is more common in:
men;
equally often both men and women;
women.
222. Distant for gastric cancer are metastases in:
liver;
the navel;
ovaries;
left supraclavicular lymph node;
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223. The cervical esophagus starts from the level:
the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage;
the lower edge of the thyroid cartilage;
bifurcation of the trachea;
the jugular fossa.
224. Groups at increased risk of developing colon cancer should include persons suffering from:
ulcerative colitis;
granulomatous colitis (Crohn's disease.;
familial diffuse polyposis;
intestinal polyps;
all of the above.
225. For which part of the colon cancer the toxicoanemic form is characteristic:
transversely - rim;
left departments;
right departments;
rectum.
226. The choice of treatment for colon polyps is inguenced by:
the size of the polyps;
the number of polyps;
type of growth (on a leg or on a broad base.;
the histological structure of polyps;
all of the above.
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227. Diagnostic tactics for internal hemorrhoids with a long history after the appearance of blood in the feces against the
background of long-term remission:
treat for hemorrhoids on the basis of a previous diagnosis;
observation on an outpatient basis;
carry out a full range of special methods of bowel examination;
send for consultation to an infectious disease specialist.
228. The risk of developing colon cancer is reduced with a diet with a predominance of:
fats;
coarse vegetable Ober;
proteins;
carbohydrates.
229. A volumetric decrease in lung tissue in violation of bronchial patency due to tumor growth is most pronounced when:
hypoventilation;
atelectasis;
valvular emphysema;
obstructive pneumonia.
230. Regional lymph nodes for the extrahepatic bile ducts are:
the gate of the spleen and the tail of the pancreas;
celiac;
located near the cystic and common bile ducts, the gate of the liver, the head of the pancreas, the duodenum 12, portal, celiac
and superior mesenteric arteries.
231. Breast cancer is not characterized by metastases in:
lungs;
the brain;
liver;
navel;
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232. For breast cancer, all of the listed lymph nodes are regional, except:
subclavian;
axillary;
parasternal;
submandibular.
233. Adenocarcinoma usually occurs against the background of:
achalasia of the cardia;
Barrett's esophagus;
chemical burns of the esophagus;
thermal burns.
234. Surgical treatment is not justiYed if the prevalence of gastric cancer is within:
Tis – T1;
T1 – T2;
T2 – T3;
T3 – T4.
235. Gastrostomy is indicated for:
pylorospasm;
cardiospasm;
4th stage cardia cancer;
cancer of the proximal stomach of the 2nd stage;
cancer of the distal part of the 4th stage.
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236. Perforation of the intestinal wall in colon cancer contributes to:
increased pressure in the intestinal lumen;
tumor disintegration;
trophic disorders of the intestinal wall due to its hyperextension;
trauma to the intestinal wall during the passage of solid feces through the narrowed area;
all of the above factors.
237. The earliest and most frequent complaint of patients with metastatic liver damage from the following are:
pain in the right hypochondrium and epigastric region;
itchy skin;
the presence of jaundice;
the presence of ascites;
splenomegaly.
238. Preoperative preparation of a patient with colon cancer should include:
thorough mechanical cleaning of the large intestine;
treatment of concomitant diseases;
correction of protein, carbohydrate and mineral metabolism;
all of the above.
239. Scant clinical symptoms are accompanied by cancer:
cardia with the transition to the esophagus;
subcardia;
the body of the stomach;
the pyloric canal;
antrum.
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240. Prevention measures for hepatocellular liver cancer are (choose 2 correct answers):
vaccination against hepatitis B virus;
cure opisthorchiasis;
Oght against alcoholism;
elimination of bacterial infection in the intrahepatic bile ducts.
241. A tumor that has spread outside the pancreas but does not involve the celiac trunk or superior mesenteric artery
corresponds to:
T1;
T2;
T3;
T4.
242. What is the potential for malignancy in pancreatic cancer:
low;
medium;
high;
very high.
243. A patient underwent radical surgery for stomach cancer 1 month ago. On examination, he does not show any complaints.
There was no data on relapse and generalization of the process. Indicate the date of the follow-up dispensary examination?
after 3 months;
after 6 months;
after 1 year;
does not need further supervision.
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244. The most reliable method for diagnosing liver tumors is:
ultrasound examination;
computed tomography;
angiography;
laparoscopy;
all of the listed methods have the same information content.
245. The most common histological type of esophageal cancer:
adenocarcinoma;
squamous;
sarcoma;
leiomyosarcoma.
246. Radiation therapy in patients with primary liver cancer:
is one of the leading methods of radical treatment;
is used for palliative purposes;
is used for symptomatic purposes;
applied in exceptional cases.
247. The defeat of the lymph nodes of the gate of the liver and hepatoduodenal ligament corresponds to:
N1;
N2;
N3;
N4.
248. Feces with jaundice due to pancreatic cancer:
normal color;
dark brown;
discolored;
there is no pattern.
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249. What morphological variant of primary liver cancer usually develops against the background of opisthorchiasis:
cholangiocellular liver cancer;
hepatocellular liver cancer;
both forms of primary liver cancer in opisthorchiasis occur with the same frequency;
opisthorchiasis does not affect the development of primary liver cancer.
250. Breast cancer can have the following clinical forms:
nodal;
eczema-like changes in the areola and nipple;
diffuse;
251. When diffuse mastopathy is not applied:
estrogen drugs;
physiotherapy;
radiation therapy;
all of the above.
252. In 2020, mortality during the year among newly diagnosed patients with esophageal cancer in the world was:
13%;
37.3%;
90.1%;
5.5%.
253. The risk group for developing primary liver cancer from the following should include:
carriers of the hepatitis B virus;
the presence of cirrhosis of the liver;
eating foods contaminated with akatoxin;
defeat by opisthorchiasis;
all of the above.
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254. To detect typical distant metastases of rectal cancer, the following is used:
digital examination of the rectum;
laboratory research;
laparoscopy;
sigmoidoscopy;
irrigoscopy.
255. Digital rectal examination should be performed in the patient's position:
on the back;
squatting;
on the side;
any of the above.
256. The most characteristic of Pencost's cancer is:
hemoptysis;
chest pain;
Horner's syndrome;
edema in the neck and face;
257. The earliest clinical symptoms in anal cancer include:
pain;
bleeding;
change in the shape of feces;
pathological impurities in the feces;
correct answers a. and b..
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258. Prevention measures for cholangiocellular liver cancer are (choose 2 correct answers):
vaccination against hepatitis B virus;
cure opisthorchiasis;
the Oght against alcoholism;
elimination of bacterial infection in the intrahepatic bile ducts.
259. A 36-year-old patient complains of bloody discharge from the nipple. On examination: nodules in the mammary glands are
not detected. When pressing on the nipple - bloody discharge. Regional lymph nodes are not enlarged. Cytological examination
of nipple discharge of cancer cells did not reveal. Most likely diagnosis.
lipoma;
diffuse Obrocystic breast disease;
intraductal papilloma;
Obroadenoma;
260. In the presence of a malignant polyp of the stomach, the patient is shown:
endoscopic polypectomy;
wedge resection of the stomach;
surgical excision of the polyp;
economical gastric resection;
subtotal gastrectomy in compliance with all oncological principles.
261. The features of colon cancer developing against the background of familial diffuse polyposis include:
usually develops at a young age;
usually develops in old age;
often develops multicentrically;
correct answers a. and c.;
correct answers b. and c..
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262. With locally advanced unresectable hepatocellular liver cancer, prescribed:
chemoembolization of the hepatic artery;
radiation therapy;
systemic chemotherapy;
all of the above.
263. Comparatively more frequent development of intestinal obstruction with tumors of the left half of the colon is due to:
denser contents of the intestine;
the predominance of tumors with an inOltrative type of growth;
violation of the motor function of the intestine due to the growth of its wall by a tumor;
inkammatory edema of the intestinal wall;
264. Which operation requires re-intervention to restore the natural passage:
anterior rectal resection;
abdominal perineal extirpation of the rectum;
amputation of the rectum with bringing down (stretching);
Hartmann's operation.
265. Diffuse forms of breast cancer include everything except:
edematous-inOltrative;
mastitis;
erysipelas;
Paget's cancer.
266. The main way of outgow of lymph from the mammary gland is:
subclavian;
cross;
axillary;
parasternal;
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267. Mediastinal lung cancer is characterized by:
acrocyanosis;
swelling of the face;
268. Indications for sectoral resection of the mammary gland are all of the listed conditions, except:
mastodynia and thyrotoxic mastopathy;
papillary cystoadenoma;
nodular Obrous mastopathy;
Obroadenomas of the mammary gland.
269. Indications for palliative mastectomy in breast cancer are:
pronounced breast cancer;
the presence of serious concomitant diseases;
advanced age;
270. Nausea, vomiting are most common in cancer:
the cardiac part of the stomach;
the lesser curvature of the stomach;
the bottom and body of the stomach;
the outlet of the stomach.
271. The leading method for differential diagnosis of esophageal cancer is:
X-ray contrast study;
morphological study;
ultrasound.
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272. During the operation, the cause of obstructive jaundice was established - metastases of gastric cancer in the gates of the
liver. Surgical tactics:
hepaticoenterostomy;
trial laparotomy;
bougienage of the narrowed area;
external hepaticostomy.
273. The main factor contributing to the occurrence of colon cancer is:
smoking;
ionizing radiation;
composition of food products;
alcohol abuse.
274. At the 4th stage of cancer of the antrum of the stomach, it is shown:
imposition of gastroenteroanastomosis;
gastrostomy;
gastrectomy;
275. The diffuse form of breast cancer includes:
mastitis-like breast cancer;
cancer of the accessory breast;
Paget's disease of the breast.
276. Paraneoplastic syndrome, characteristic of pancreatic body cancer, manifests itself:
neurodermatitis;
hyperpigmentation of the skin;
thrombosis of peripheral vessels;
hemolytic anemia.
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277. The primary symptoms of lung cancer are due to the manifestation of:
primary tumor of the bronchus;
regional metastases;
the general effect of the tumor on the body;
distant metastases.
278. In case of rectal cancer 12 cm from the anus without metastases, it is advisable:
extirpation of the rectum;
Hartmann's operation;
the imposition of a sigmostomy;
the imposition of a cecostomy.
279. The state of hypoventilation due to the presence of an endobronchial tumor in the lobar or main bronchus is better
detected:
in the phase of deep inspiration;
in the phase of deep exhalation;
in both cases.
280. The most common histological form of cancer of the anal canal of the rectum is:
undifferentiated;
squamous;
skirr;
adenocarcinoma.
281. The differential diagnosis of peripheral lung cancer should be carried out with:
benign lung tumors
metastases;
echinococcal cyst;
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282. Colon cancer is most often localized in:
the ascending department;
the cecum;
the transverse colon;
top-down department;
sigmoid colon.
283. Dysphagia is most common in cancer:
cardiac stomach;
284. Cancer of the esophagus occurs more often:
in men;
in women;
not related to gender.
285. Among all cases of primary liver cancer, 90% are:
adenoma;
hemangioma;
hepatocellular tumor;
cholangiocarcinoma.
286. Solitary liver tumor up to 2 cm in greatest dimension without vascular invasion corresponds to:
T1;
T2;
T3;
T4.
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287. The blood supply to the colon is carried out:
from the superior mesenteric artery system;
from the system of the inferior mesenteric artery;
both one and the other;
neither one nor the other.
288. The presence of an admixture of blood in the feces after the act of defecation in combination with irregular bowel
movements (constipation and diarrhea. is most likely associated with:
proctitis;
hemorrhoids;
rectal cancer;
a crack in the anus.
289. A 24-year-old patient complains of pain in the mammary glands, aggravated before menses, engorgement of the glands.
On palpation, diffuse granularity, mainly expressed in the outer quadrants, focal seals in the mammary glands are not
determined. Most likely diagnosis:
diffuse mastopathy;
breast cancer;
nodular mastopathy;
Obroadenoma.
290. In case of spread of tumor inYltration to adventitia, you can put:
T1;
T2;
T3;
T4.
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291. The differential diagnosis of breast cancer is carried out with:
Obroadenoma;
a cyst;
lipoma;
292. Stage IIB corresponds to (check incorrect):
T1N1M0;
T2N0M0;
T2N1M0;
293. In recent decades, a signiYcant increase in the frequency of:
squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus;
adenocarcinoma of the esophagus;
small cell cancer of the esophagus;
leiomyosarcoma.
294. To suspect the malignancy of a stomach ulcer allow the following signs:
the size of the ulcer niche is more than 2 cm in diameter;
long-term existence of the ulcer niche or its increase with the simultaneous subsiding of pain characteristic of peptic ulcer
disease;
a decrease in the acidity of gastric juice;
all of the above;
295. Is there a link between smoking and pancreatic cancer:
yes;
no.
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296. Clinical minimum screening for pancreatic cancer in the presence of jaundice includes (choose 3 correct answers):
kuoroscopy of the stomach;
irrigography;
ultrasound of the abdominal cavity;
computed tomography of the abdominal cavity;
examination of urine and feces for bile pigments.
297. The presence of an endobronchial tumor that completely obstructs the lobar or main bronchus causes displacement of the
mediastinum:
in a healthy direction;
to the sick side;
the displacement of the mediastinum is not detected.
298. Which of the following pancreatic tumors are benign (2 answers):
serous cystadenoma;
mature cystic teratoma;
giant cell tumor.
299. With the help of biochemical tests for bilirubin, transaminase, LDH, with suspected cancer of the biliopancreatoduodenal
region, it is possible:
carrying out topical diagnosis of the tumor;
carrying out differential diagnosis of jaundice;
only describe the general condition of the patient;
conducting topical diagnosis of the tumor and characterizing the general condition of the patient.
300. The clinical signs of pleural effusion are:
pain;
dry, unproductive cough;
shortness of breath;
all of the above;
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301. In the classiYcation according to the degree of differentiation of the tumor, G2 corresponds to:
a high degree of tissue differentiation;
moderate degree of tissue differentiation;
low degree of tissue differentiation;
undifferentiated tissue.
302. Agatoxin can be found anywhere except:
rice;
grain;
water;
peanuts.
303. Against the background of what pathology does hepatocellular liver cancer often develop?
liver cirrhosis;
opisthorchiasis;
both diseases;
neither one nor the other disease.
304. In which part of the pancreas cancer most often develops:
head;
body;
tail;
all parts with the same probability.
305. Esophageal cancer arises from:
cubic epithelium;
squamous epithelium;
squamous or glandular epithelium of the esophageal mucosa;
cylindrical.
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306. Lung cancer metastasizes to:
bones;
liver;
the brain;
307. An expanded scope of research for suspected pancreatic tumor is presented (choose 3 correct answers):
MRI;
angiography;
retrograde cholangiopancreatography;
percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography.
308. Ulcers are more often malignant:
the outlet of the stomach;
the greater curvature of the stomach;
the body of the stomach.
309. With resectable rectal cancer at a distance of more than 12 cm from the anus, an operation is indicated:
abdominal-anal resection with bringing down.
310. The intrathoracic esophagus starts from the level:
the Orst rib;
the clavicle;
jugular notch;
sternum.
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311. X-ray signs of impaired bronchial patency and complications associated with it occur most early in the predominantly:
endobronchial type of tumor growth;
a branched peribronchial type of tumor growth;
exobronchial type of tumor growth;
the timing of the appearance of radiological signs of impaired bronchial patency does not depend on the anatomical type of
tumor growth.
312. To detect metastases of breast cancer in the liver, the following is used:
biochemical research;
liver scan;
all of the above.
313. The incidence of colon cancer in the world:
decreases;
increases;
remains at the same level;
an increase alternates with a decrease.
314. Informative methods for diagnosing tumor lesions of the liver are:
angiography;
laparoscopy;
all of the listed methods are informative.
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315. During the operation of radical mastectomy according to Halstead, the pectoralis major muscle:
is preserved;
is completely removed;
partially removed.
316. The earliest clinical symptoms in cancer of the upper ampullar rectum are:
pain;
bleeding;
intermittent bowel movements;
correct answers c. and d..
317. The decisive role in the increase in the incidence of lung cancer belongs to:
occupational hazards;
genetic factor;
smoking;
air pollution.
318. The greatest danger of tumor growth outside the esophagus wall is when:
middle thoracic department;
the lower thoracic region;
the upper thoracic region;
all departments.
319. Benign breast tumors include:
diffuse Obrocystic breast disease;
nodular Obrocystic mastopathy;
Obroadenoma;
none of the above;
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320. The risk of developing colon cancer in ulcerative colitis increases with:
total defeat of the large intestine;
the development of colitis at a young age;
long-term illness over 10 years;
chronic continuous course of the disease;
all of the above circumstances
321. In cancer of the middle third of the esophagus, the following are most characteristic:
small cell form of the tumor;
undifferentiated tumor form;
adenocarcinoma.
322. Oncological contraindications to surgery for lung cancer are metastases in:
cervical lymph nodes;
distant organs;
supraclavicular lymph nodes;
323. Localization of a tumor of the gastrointestinal tract within the mucous and submucous layers of the organ in the absence
of metastases corresponds to:
1st stage;
2nd stage;
3rd stage;
4th stage;
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324. The occurrence of pancreatic cancer is promoted by:
alcohol abuse;
smoking;
increased fat intake;
all of the above.
325. Intraductal papillomas of the mammary gland can be detected when:
non-contrast mammography;
ductography;
scintigraphy;
with large-frame kuorography.
326. A positive reaction to alpha-fetoprotein is characteristic for:
primary liver cancer;
liver metastases;
benign neoplasms of the liver;
the reaction to alpha-fetoprotein is not typical for the listed diseases.
327. Cancer of the proximal stomach is characterized by all symptoms except:
pain under the xiphoid process;
dilcult passage of solid and lumpy food;
regurgitation of food;
noise of "splash" in the epigastrium.
328. The main route of colon cancer metastasis is:
lymphogenous;
implantation;
hematogenous;
all of the listed variants of metastasis occur with approximately the same frequency.
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329. Esophageal cancer should be suspected in a patient with:
dyspepsia;
dysphagia;
pain when swallowing;
vomiting.
330. The risk of developing pancreatic cancer is increased with (choose 2 correct answers):
gastric ulcer;
chronic pancreatitis;
duodenal ulcer;
gallstone disease.
331. The most common gastric precancerous disease, depending on the morphological picture, is:
hyperplastic;
hypertrophic;
atrophic;
erosive.
332. An increase in the time of inguence of the contents of the stomach on the esophagus leads to (most correctly):
chemical irritation of the esophageal mucosa;
the mutagenic effect of hydrochloric acid;
an increase in the duration of exposure to carcinogens on the wall of the esophagus;
allergization.
333. Preoperative treatment for breast cancer is necessary for patients with:
stage I;
stage IIa;
stage III;
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334. When the patient is discharged from the hospital after gastrectomy, it is advisable:
the appointment of enzyme preparations and gastric juice;
limiting physical activity;
carrying out vitamin therapy;
fractional meals;
all of the above.
335. The most preferred method for diagnosing early gastric cancer:
studies of gastric juice;
laparoscopy;
ultrasound;
Obrogastroscopy, biopsy.
336. Poorly differentiated tumors of the gastrointestinal tract have mainly:
inOltrative growth;
mixed growth;
exophytic growth;
all of the listed types occur with the same frequency.
337. The radical treatment for pancreatic cancer is:
surgical intervention;
radiation therapy;
chemotherapy;
hormone therapy;
there is no radical treatment for this tumor.
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338. Most often, radiation therapy for esophageal cancer as an independent method is used for tumor localization:
in the upper thoracic esophagus;
in the cervical esophagus;
in the middle thoracic esophagus;
in the lower thoracic esophagus;
in the upper thoracic and cervical esophagus.
339. Which of the following liver tumors is benign:
adenoma;
hepatoblastoma;
hepatocellular tumor;
cholangiocarcinoma.
340. A tumor limited to the pancreas, up to 2 cm in greatest dimension corresponds to:
T1;
T2;
T3;
T4.
341. Distant hematogenous metastases with lesions of the upper esophagus occur more often (mark the wrong one.:
in the lungs;
in the liver;
in the bones;
in the brain.
342. At what age is colon cancer most common?
20-29 years old;
30–39 years old;
40–49 years old;
50–69 years.
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343. The most common histological form of cancer of the ampullar rectum is:
squamous cell carcinoma with keratinization;
squamous cell carcinoma without keratinization;
poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma;
adenocarcinoma.
344. A 66-year-old patient with breast cancer T3H1M0 has positive estrogen receptors. She should be assigned:
estrogens;
antiestrogens;
progestins;
corticosteroids.
345. The outgow of blood from the rectum is carried out:
into the system of the inferior mesenteric vein;
into the iliac vein system;
346. Pain is not typical for primary liver cancer:
dull constant unsharp;
constant strong;
acute paroxysmal;
with a gradually increasing intensity.
347. The incidence of stomach cancer is inguenced by:
food factor and diet;
soil and climatic condition;
local changes in the gastric mucosa;
background diseases, hereditary factor;
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348. According to the histological structure, stomach cancer is most often:
glandular cancer;
all of the above options are found with the same frequency;
mixed glandular-squamous cell carcinoma.
349. Color of urine with jaundice due to pancreatic cancer:
light yellow;
dark brown;
the urine is discolored;
there is no pattern.
350. Tumor of which parts of the rectum cannot be detected by digital examination of the rectum:
the anal canal;
mid-ampullary department;
the lower ampullar section;
rectosigmoid department.
351. There are tumors of the pancreas (choose 2 correct answers):
exocrine;
epithelioid;
endocrine.
352. Complications of colon cancer can be anything except:
tumor perforation;
pericolitis;
bleeding;
toxic pancreatitis.
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353. The most common symptoms of benign esophageal tumors are:
pain behind the sternum or in the epigastric region;
dysphagia;
respiratory disorders;
correct answers a. and b.;
correct answers b. and c..
354. By morphological structure, the predominant form of colon cancer is:
adenocarcinoma of varying degrees of maturity and functional orientation;
dimorphic (mixed glandular and squamous cell) cancer;
all of the above forms occur with approximately the same frequency.
355. Typical forms of pancreatic cancer:
adenocarcinoma;
anaplastic cancer.
356. Colonic obstruction is most often caused by:
fecal stones;
cancer;
diverticulitis;
inguinal hernia;
tuberculosis.
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:
357. The most effective treatment for lung cancer is:
surgical;
radiation;
immunotherapy;
chemotherapy.
358. The main treatment for stage 3 small cell lung cancer is:
surgical;
radiation;
chemotherapy and radiation;
immunohormonal;
359. A 22-year-old patient has a palpable tumor 2 x 3 cm in size in the upper-outer quadrant of the mammary gland, mobile,
dense, with clear contours, painless. Skin symptoms are negative. There is no discharge from the nipple. Axillary lymph nodes
are not enlarged. The patient noticed the tumor a month ago. Most likely diagnosis:
diffuse mastopathy;
breast cancer;
Mints disease;
Obroadenoma;
360. In a primiparous woman, a painful induration with skin hyperemia is palpable in the mammary gland. Positive symptom of
guctuation, temperature 38 ºC. Most likely diagnosis:
Paget's Cancer;
galactocele;
acute purulent mastitis;
Obroadenoma;
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361. Palliative (symptomatic. surgery for primary liver cancer is advisable to perform in the following cases:
tumor obturation of hollow organs (bile ducts, intestines, ureter, etc.);
disintegration of the tumor with intra-abdominal bleeding or the development of peritonitis;
planning in the postoperative period for chemotherapeutic treatment in order to reduce the volume of the tumor;
in all of the above cases.
362. The most common symptom of rectal cancer is:
constipation;
mucus in the feces;
blood in the feces;
weakness, weight loss, decreased appetite.
363. For primary liver cancer from the listed biochemical tests, the most characteristic is an increase in activity:
alkaline phosphatase;
alanine and aspartic transaminases;
lactate dehydrogenase;
Y-glutamine transpeptidase;
all of the listed enzymes.
364. Obligate precancer of the large intestine should include:
Crohn's disease;
ulcerative colitis;
familial diffuse polyposis;
single polyps of the large intestine;
all of the above.
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365. Isolated damage to the lymph nodes of the mediastinum can occur when:
mediastinal form of lung cancer;
Beck's sarcoidosis;
tuberculous lymphadenitis;
366. Patient 49 years old, the mammary gland is inYltrated, edematous, sharply compacted and enlarged, the skin of the gland
is covered with red spots with uneven "tongue-like" edges, the nipple is retracted and deformed. What is the most likely
diagnosis:
acute mastitis;
Paget's cancer;
erysipelas;
carapace cancer;
367. The most common localization of stomach cancer is:
cardinal department;
antrum section;
total defeat;
the body of the stomach;
large curvature.
368. After radical treatment of patients with stage I esophageal cancer, the 5-year survival rate is:
70%;
28%;
90%;
50%.
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369. The choice of method for treating rectal polyps is inguenced by:
the number of polyps;
the size of the polyps;
the histological structure of polyps;
type of growth (on a leg or on a broad base.;
all of the above.
370. Pancreatic cancer is more common in:
men;
women;
with the same frequency in persons of both sexes.
371. During the operation of a radical resection of the mammary gland, a single block is removed:
the upper-outer quadrant of the mammary gland;
the pectoralis minor muscle;
Ober from the subclavian region;
all of the above.
372. The "site" symptom is typical for:
acute mastitis;
Obrocystic mastopathy;
breast cancer;
intraductal papilloma;
373. The feeling of discomfort and fullness in the epigastrium is most common in cancer:
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374. Courvoisier's symptom is characteristic for:
chronic hepatitis;
calculous cholecystitis;
pancreatic head cancer;
chronic hepatitis;
gallbladder cancer.
375. Cancer of the esophagus in most cases progresses:
slowly;
quickly.
376. Which of the indicated diagnostic methods is the most informative for the recognition of colon cancer?
laparoscopy;
sigmoidoscopy;
selective angiography;
Obrocolonoscopy.
377. The main measures for the prevention of respiratory disorders and the development of postoperative pneumonia include:
sanitation of the bronchial tree;
adequate pain relief;
the use of mucolytic and bronchodilators;
378. Radical resection of the mammary gland is most appropriate when the tumor is located in:
the upper inner quadrant;
upper outer quadrant;
the lower outer quadrant;
the lower inner quadrant.
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379. With malignant neoplasms of the mediastinum, more often than with benign ones, there are:
syndrome of compression of the superior vena cava;
general symptoms: malaise, weight loss, lack of appetite, sweating;
tachycardia;
only a. and c.
380. What symptom is most typical for cancer of the mid-ampullar rectum:
frequent tenesmus with discharge of blood and mucus;
involuntary discharge of gases;
change of constipation and diarrhea;
pain in the right iliac region and above the pubis.
381. Surgical treatment is justiYed only if the prevalence of cancer is within:
Tis;
T1 – T2;
T2 – T3;
T3 – T4.
382. The differential diagnosis of central lung cancer should be carried out with:
chronic pneumonia and focal pneumosclerosis;
bronchiectasis;
tuberculosis;
383. Large vessels adjacent to the pancreas include:
portal vein, celiac artery, superior mesenteric and common hepatic arteries and veins;
the vessels of the spleen;
the inferior mesenteric and left hepatic arteries.
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384. Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus has:
high radiosensitivity;
low radiosensitivity.
385. The choice of a method for treating lung cancer is determined by the following factors characterizing the prevalence of the
tumor process:
metastatic lesion of the intrathoracic lymph nodes;
the size and location in the lung of the primary tumor;
germination of vascular formations, organs and structures;
386. For the diagnosis of breast cancer, the most reliable research method is:
mammography;
puncture followed by cytological examination of punctate;
thermography;
387. Chemotherapy as an independent method is used:
for palliative purposes;
as the main method of treatment for localized forms of cancer.
388. Urgent histological examination during surgery for breast neoplasms may not be performed if the diagnosis is conYrmed:
mammography;
clinical data;
tomography;
morphological cytological examination.
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389. Examination of a patient who consults a doctor with complaints of intestinal dysfunction should begin with:
X-ray examination of the large intestine (irrigoscopy);
sigmoidoscopy;
colonoObroscopy;
rectal digital examination;
ultrasound examination.
390. Complications of rectal cancer can be anything except:
tumor perforation;
pericolitis;
bleeding;
toxic pancreatitis.
391. Rare symptoms of stage 2 breast cancer are:
a symptom of umbilization;
a symptom of wrinkling;
pain;
site symptom;
392. What treatment does a patient with jaundice due to advanced pancreatic head cancer need:
symptomatic;
radiation therapy;
chemotherapy;
the imposition of a bile-diverting anastomosis;
palliative pancreatoduodenal resection.
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393. With a tumor of the stomach body 4 cm in diameter, the invading muscle layer, without regional metastases, the stage is
established:
2a;
2b;
3a;
3b;
4.
394. The choice of the scope of surgery for gastric cancer is least inguenced by the following factors:
localization of the tumor;
the type of tumor growth;
the histological structure of the tumor;
the patient's age;
all of the above factors have the same inkuence on the choice of the volume of the operation.
395. Hartmann's operations for cancer of the upper ampullar rectum and cancer of the rectosigmoid gexure should be preferred
in the following cases:
the presence of obstructive intestinal obstruction;
the presence of inkammatory changes in the intestinal wall;
in elderly people with severe concomitant pathology in the stage of decompensation;
in all of the above situations;
396. In case of tumor lesion of the pyloroantral part of the stomach, the function is primarily impaired:
motor-recovery;
secretory;
reservoir;
bactericidal (barrier).
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397. In a woman, a painless tumor-like formation 3 x 3 cm is palpated in the left mammary gland, a positive symptom of a
"platform", the nipple is deformed, the areola is edematous, there is no discharge from the nipple. Regional lymph nodes are not
palpable. Most likely diagnosis:
Obroadenoma;
nodular mastopathy;
lipoma;
breast cancer;
398. Palliative surgery for localization of cancer in the pyloroantral section is:
pyloroplasty;
gastrostomy;
gastroenteroanastomosis;
gastroduodenoanastomosis;
proximal gastric resection.
399. During the Lewis operation with lesions of the middle third of the thoracic esophagus, use:
subtotal resection with intrapleural anastomosis or extirpation of the thoracic esophagus with the formation of an
anastomosis on the neck;
resection of the upper third of the stomach and the affected segment of the esophagus with the imposition of an esophageal-
gastric anastomosis;
upper midline laparotomy and right-sided thoracotomy along the Ofth intercostal space;
upper midline laparotomy.
400. The most common localization of rectal cancer is:
anal department;
lower ampullary;
medium ampullar;
upper ampullary.
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401. What surgery for rectal cancer ends with the imposition of a colostomy:
amputation of the rectum with bringing down (stretching);
abdominal anal resection.
402. Palliative surgery performed for cancer of the cardiac stomach is:
gastrostomy;
pyloroplasty;
gastroenteroanastomosis;
distal gastric resection;
gastroduodenoanastomosis.
403. Malignant ulcers are characterized by the presence of tumor cells in:
the connective tissue bottom of the ulcer;
the edge of the ulcer;
there is no correct answer;
the bottom and edges of the ulcer.
404. Gastric bleeding is most common in cancer:
lesser curvature of the stomach;
405. Key recommendations for primary prevention of gastric cancer include all but:
reducing the consumption of salted and smoked products;
eating 2 times a day;
increasing consumption of green vegetables and fruits;
reducing the proportion of rice in the diet;
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406. Measures for the prevention of pancreatic cancer:
refusal to abuse alcohol;
smoking cessation;
limiting the amount of fat in the diet;
the inclusion in the diet of a large amount of vegetables and fruits;
all of the above.
407. The most common premalignant gastric disease, depending on the violation of the secretory function, is:
superOcial hyperacid gastritis;
normacid gastritis;
hyperacid gastritis;
hypo- and anacid gastritis.
408. The incidence of colon cancer is inguenced by:
nutritional features;
the level of economic development;
the presence of benign intestinal tumors;
a history of colon cancer;
all of the above.
409. The choice of the type of radical surgery for rectal cancer is inguenced by:
the degree of prevalence of the tumor process;
localization of the tumor in the rectum;
the presence or absence of metastases in the regional lymph nodes;
the presence of concomitant diseases;
all of the above.
410. The most common liver tumors by their origin are:
primary;
metastatic.
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411. The enterocolitic form of the clinical course of colon cancer most often occurs when the tumor is located in:
the right sections of the colon;
the sigmoid colon;
the descending intestine;
412. The main factor contributing to the occurrence of hepatocellular liver cancer is:
carriage of the hepatitis A virus;
carriage of the hepatitis B virus;
chronic opisthorchiasis;
contamination of food with akatoxins.
413. The emergence of foci of squamous metaplasia of the bronchial epithelium, as a rule, precedes the development of:
small cell carcinoma;
glandular cancer;
large cell lung cancer.
414. What disease is most often associated with liver cancer:
gastritis;
cirrhosis;
cholelithiasis;
colitis.
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415. The development of colon cancer is inguenced by the amount consumed in food:
fats;
animal proteins;
herbal products;
vitamins;
all of the above.
416. Typical clinical manifestations of gastric outlet cancer are:
diarrhea;
dysphagia;
"splash noise" on an empty stomach;
417. In peripheral lung cancer, as opposed to central, the disease:
it is asymptomatic for a long time;
is accompanied by severe clinical symptoms already at the initial stage;
the symptoms of cough and hemoptysis are early;
a and d are correct.
418. A 57-year-old patient has pleurisy 2 years after breast cancer treatment. You can clarify the etiology of pleurisy:
by kuoroscopy of the lungs;
by blood test;
with a puncture of the pleural cavity;
during cytological examination of pleural kuid.
419. Esophageal cancer most often affects:
the upper third;
middle third;
lower third;
equally often develops in any part of the esophagus.
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420. The lesions of the tail of the pancreas include tumors arising in the area:
limited by the left edge of the aorta and the gate of the spleen;
located to the right of the left edge of the superior mesenteric vein;
limited by the left edge of the superior mesenteric vein and the left edge of the aorta.
421. The main method of treatment for liver cancer:
vaccination;
chemotherapy;
radiation therapy;
surgical.
422. The most informative method for early diagnosis of breast cancer is:
palpation;
mammography;
thermography;
radionuclide diagnostics.
423. Esophageal cancer is characterized by:
"funny metastases";
"jumping metastases";
"kying metastases";
"koating metastases".
424. What operations are performed for esophageal cancer:
Hartmann;
Lewis;
Drink;
Maddena.
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425. What tactics are most justiYed when streaks of blood appear in the stool in a patient with a long history of hemorrhoids:
prescribe suppositories with proctoglivenol, diet, reappearance in 3-4 weeks;
make a complete blood count, chest kuoroscopy;
make a digital examination of the rectum;
make a digital examination of the rectum and sigmoidoscopy.
426. In case of unresectable rectal cancer, the operation of choice is:
sigmostomy;
anterior resection;
extirpation of the rectum.
427. Low colonic obstruction is characterized by everything except:
a gradual increase in symptoms;
bloating;
stool retention;
the appearance of the Kloyber bowls;
fast (within 24 hours) dehydration.
428. With resectable inYltrative stomach cancer, it is shown:
gastrectomy;
subtotal gastric resection;
resection of the affected area of the stomach;
antrumectomy;
esophagogastrostomy.
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429. The outgow of blood from the descending part of the colon is carried out:
into the system of the inferior mesenteric artery;
into the superior mesenteric artery system;
430. Toxic-anemic form of the clinical course of colon cancer is most often found when the tumor is located in:
the sigmoid colon;
in all the listed departments occurs with the same frequency.
431. Which of the following liver tumors is malignant:
adenoma;
hemangioma;
lipoma;
cholangiocarcinoma.
432. In case of damage to the pancreas, the following are most common:
solid tumors;
poorly differentiated tumors;
squamous cell cancer;
adenocarcinoma.
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433. Increasing jaundice is characteristic of a tumor:
the gallbladder;
the head of the pancreas;
the body of the pancreas;
the tail of the pancreas;
all parts of the pancreas.
434. A tumor limited to the pancreas, more than 2 cm in the largest dimension corresponds to:
T1;
T2;
T3;
T4.
435. Individuals at increased risk of lung cancer include:
patients with chronic bronchitis;
long-term and a lot of smokers;
having contact with asbestos, chromium, nickel (and their compounds);
436. Squamous cell and dimorphic (mixed glandular and squamous cell) cancer is most often localized in:
the cecum;
the descending part of the colon;
the ascending part of the colon;
the sigmoid colon;
rectum.
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437. Bronchography allows you to clarify:
localization, tumor mobility;
benign tumor
tumor malignancy
all answers are correct
438. Most often, stomach cancer metastases to:
lungs;
liver;
ovaries;
bones;
the thyroid gland.
439. Breast cancer develops from:
lymph nodes;
blood vessels;
smooth or striated muscles;
glandular epithelium of the ducts;
440. Stomach cancer is characterized by:
increased acidity of gastric juice;
reduced acidity of gastric juice;
an increase in the previously reduced acidity of gastric juice;
441. In cancer of the upper third of the esophagus, the most characteristic are:
small cell form of the tumor;
undifferentiated tumor form;
adenocarcinoma.
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442. Which of the above research methods are most sensitive for detecting rectal cancer metastases in the retroperitoneal
lymph nodes?
CT;
scanning of lymph nodes;
angiography.
443. A positive reaction to alpha-fetoprotein is more common when:
primary liver cancer;
metastatic liver cancer;
benign liver neoplasms;
correct answers a and b;
is not typical for tumor lesions of the liver.
444. The most effective treatment for primary liver cancer is:
surgical;
regional chemotherapy;
radiation treatment;
b and c are true.
445. Lung cancer should be differentiated from:
pulmonary tuberculosis;
prolonged pneumonia;
a benign tumor;
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446. Pancreatic cancer often affects:
head;
body;
tail;
affects all departments with the same frequency.
447. In alcohol abusers, the risk of esophageal cancer increases in:
2 times;
100 times;
10 times;
5 times.
448. The risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma in cigarette smokers is higher in:
2 times;
20 times;
5-10 times;
10-15 times.
449. With resectable rectal cancer at a distance of 7 to 12 cm from the anus, an operation is indicated:
abdominal-anal resection of the rectum with bringing down;
abdominal perineal extirpation of the rectum.
450. Radical surgery for cancer of the antrum of the stomach is:
gastrectomy;
distal subtotal resection;
proximal subtotal resection;
gastroenterostomy;
gastrostomy.
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451. All of the above can be classiYed as primary or local symptoms of lung cancer, except:
cough;
hemoptysis;
chest pain;
increase in body temperature.
452. The highest incidence of esophageal cancer is registered in the age range:
40-50 years;
50-60 years;
60-70 years;
70-80 years.
453. The main biological factors that determine the prognosis after radical surgery for lung cancer are:
the size of the primary tumor;
the histological structure of the tumor;
the condition of the intrathoracic lymph nodes;
454. The lymph node closest to the primary tumor is called:
sentry;
dangerous;
cancerous;
tumor.
455. Among malignant neoplasms of the liver prevail:
primary cancer;
metastases;
sarcomas;
all of the above occur with approximately the same frequency.
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456. A 68-year-old patient has inoperable stomach cancer, metastases in the peritoneum, liver, bones, ascites. A state of
moderate severity. There was no antitumor treatment. He is shown:
systemic chemotherapy using anthracyclines;
immunotherapy;
radiation therapy;
symptomatic therapy.
457. The most intense pain is observed in cancer:
the head of the pancreas;
the body of the pancreas;
the tail of the pancreas;
intense pain is not typical for pancreatic cancer.
458. The obstructive form of the clinical course of colon cancer is more common when the tumor is localized in:
transversely - to the colon;
sigmoid colon;
in all listed departments.
459. In case of adenocarcinoma of the lungs of stages 1–2, treatment is indicated:
radiation;
combined;
chemotherapy;
surgical;
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460. Specify the area of the most frequent metastasis in anal cancer:
lungs;
liver;
the bones of the spine;
inguinal lymph nodes.
461. The most common objective symptom in liver cancer:
fever;
yellowness of the skin;
symptoms of portal hypertension;
hepatomegaly;
Courvoisier's symptom.
462. Against the background of opisthorchiasis, it often develops:
cholangiocellular liver cancer;
hepatocellular liver cancer;
both forms of primary liver cancer occur with the same frequency;
opisthorchiasis does not affect the development of primary liver cancer;
463. The causal relationship between smoking, exposure to occupational hazards and the occurrence of lung cancer can be
traced for:
small cell cancer;
glandular cancer;
correct answers a. and c..
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464. After the previously performed irrigoscopy, it is advisable to resort to colonoYbroscopy in the case of:
if there are signs of intestinal bleeding, and no pathological changes in the colon were detected during irrigoscopy;
to conOrm the pathological process detected during irrigoscopy;
to clarify the questionable data obtained with the help of irrigoscopy;
to identify synchronous pathological processes;
all of the above.
465. When a tumor of the ascending intestine is perforated with metastases to the liver, it is indicated:
right-sided hemicolectomy with ileotransverse anastomosis;
right-sided hemicolectomy, terminal ileostomy;
suturing perforation, ileotransverse anastomosis;
right-sided hemicolectomy, colostomy, ileostomy;
cecostomy.
466. Features of the growth of Ybroadenoma are:
expansive growth;
inOltrating growth with metastases;
inOltrating growth without metastases.
467. The main method of radical treatment for rectal ampulla cancer is:
surgical;
chemotherapy;
radiation therapy;
a combination of radiation treatment and chemotherapy.
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468. Which clinical group does the patient with rectal cancer belong to after radical treatment:
I;
II;
III;
IV.
469. Barrett's esophagus refers to:
obligate precancer;
facultative precancers.
470. Is there a relationship between opisthorchiasis and pancreatic cancer:
yes;
no.
471. Polyps of the rectum are more prone to malignancy:
hyperplastic;
villous;
adenomatous;
multiple adenomatous;
the index of malignancy is the same in all cases.
472. The macroscopic forms of gastric cancer include the following, with the exception of:
ulcerative;
inOltrative;
mucous membrane;
polypoid.
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473. What method can be used to determine the extent of the tumor in stenosing rectal cancer:
sigmoidoscopy;
Onger examination;
irrigography;
lower lymphography.
474. For cancer of the head of the pancreas, the following are most characteristic:
jaundice;
pain in the epigastric region;
an increase in body temperature;
thrombosis of peripheral vessels.
475. The earliest clinical symptoms in cancer of the lower ampullar rectum are:
pain;
bleeding;
intermittent stools;
476. The most rational treatment for rectal cancer is:
chemotherapy;
X-ray radiation therapy;
symptomatic treatment;
combined treatment;
surgical intervention.
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477. The most common complaint of patients with primary liver cancer:
weight loss;
general weakness;
pain in the right hypochondrium;
jaundice;
temperature rise.
478. In lung cancer, X-ray computed tomography allows:
determine the size of the tumor;
precisely localize the tumor;
obtain information about the size of the lymph nodes of the mediastinum and the roots of the lungs;
479. Central cancer includes tumors, the initial localization of which is the bronchi:
the main ones;
subsegmental up to the V order;
share and segmentary;
correct answers a. and b.;
480. Which of the following symptoms does not occur in liver cancer?
fever;
hepatomegaly;
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481. The patient has pain in the epigastric region, nausea, vomiting. Within 6 months. lost 15 kg. On x-ray examination, the
stomach is displaced forward. What disease can you think of:
pyloric stenosis;
pancreatic tumor;
stomach ulcer;
stomach cancer;
a tumor of the colon.
482. Most often, liver cancer develops against the background of:
hepatitis B;
hepatitis C;
alcoholism;
drug addiction.
483. With lung cancer T3N0M0 in a 45-year-old patient it is shown:
combined cytostatic and radiological treatment;
treatment with cytostatics;
radiation therapy;
surgical treatment;
484. Of the listed methods of X-ray examination of the colon, the most informative at present is considered:
standard irrigoscopy;
method of double contrasting of the large intestine;
intake of barium suspension of rheos followed by X-ray control of the passage of contrast through the colon;
all of the above methods have approximately the same information content.
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:
485. Among other cancers in the world, esophageal cancer occupies:
third place;
ninth place;
twentieth place;
Ofteenth place.
486. When pancreatoduodenal resection is removed:
the entire pancreas;
the head of the pancreas and duodenum;
the same as (b., + pyloric stomach;
the same as (c., + gallbladder.
487. Proven and manageable risk factor for pancreatic cancer:
increased alcohol consumption;
smoking;
increased consumption of tea;
increased consumption of coffee.
488. The leading clinical symptom of malignant tumors of the pancreas area:
girdle pain;
fever;
weight loss;
obstructive jaundice.
489. For resectable rectal cancer below 5–6 cm from the anus, an operation is indicated:
anterior rectal resection with intra-abdominal anastomosis;
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:
490. When the tumor is localized in the area of the transitional fold, the Yrst stage of metastasis can be:
parasternal lymph nodes;
axillary lymph nodes;
lymph nodes of the gate of the liver;
supraclavicular lymph nodes.
491. Palliative breast cancer surgery is:
Halstead radical mastectomy;
Madden radical mastectomy;
radical resection of the mammary gland;
wide resection of the mammary gland;
492. Of the listed operations, the following does not apply to sphincter-preserving:
peritoneal anal resection of the rectum;
transperitoneal resection of the rectum;
peritoneal-perineal extirpation of the rectum;
all of the listed operations should be classiOed as sphincter-preserving.
493. The average life expectancy of patients with stage III disease without treatment is:
2 months;
5–8 months;
24 months;
2 years.
494. With a prevalence of N1, 5-year survival rate:
does not exceed 20%;
exceeds 20%;
is 30%;
is 50%.
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:
495. The outgow of blood from the ascending colon is carried out:
into the superior mesenteric artery system;
into the system of the inferior mesenteric artery;
496. In the presence of an admixture of blood in the feces of a patient with chronic hemorrhoids and the absence pathology with
sigmoidoscopy at a distance of 12 cm is the most rational:
conOrm the diagnosis of hemorrhoids and prescribe conservative treatment;
prescribe a diet and re-attendance in a month;
perform an irrigoscopy;
refer the patient to a proctologist with suspicion of exacerbation of hemorrhoids.
497. The appearance of an impression on the surface of a dense fecal column is most typical for:
spastic colitis;
hemorrhoids;
rectal cancer;
polyp.
498. The main route of metastasis of rectal cancer:
hematogenous;
lymphogenous;
implantation;
in the pelvic organs.
499. For resectable rectal cancer 4 cm from the anus, an operation is indicated:
anterior rectal resection with intra-abdominal anastomosis;
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:
500. Metastatic liver damage is often observed when the primary tumor is located in:
organs of the gastrointestinal tract;
lungs;
the mammary gland;
female genital organs;
for all of the listed localizations of the primary tumor.
501. When a round shadow appears on the roentgenogram of the lungs, it is not shown:
tomography;
Obronchoscopy with biopsy;
test of Pirquet and Mantoux;
502. Favorite localization of hematogenous metastases of colon cancer are:
bones;
lungs;
liver;
adrenal glands;
spleen.
503. Primary liver cancer metastases:
hematogenous;
lymphogenous;
intraorganically;
meet all of the listed types of metastasis.
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:
504. The location of the center of the esophageal tumor affects:
the principles of classiOcation for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus;
selection of a chemotherapy regimen;
choice of method and volume of surgical intervention;
selection of the dose of radiation therapy.
505. Most often, acute cardiovascular failure develops in patients after surgery:
segmentectomy;
typical pneumonectomy;
lobectomy;
combined or extended pneumonectomy.
506. With resectable rectal cancer at a distance of more than 12 cm from the anus against the background of acute intestinal
obstruction, an operation is indicated:
abdominal-anal resection with bringing down;
abdominal perineal extirpation of the rectum.
507. During the operation of a radical mastectomy according to Peyty:
both pectoral muscles are removed;
the pectoralis major muscle is preserved;
parasternal lymph nodes are removed;
the pectoralis minor is preserved, the pectoralis major is removed.
508. The method of screening for colon cancer currently includes the following regularly carried out:
studies of feces for occult blood, including hemoculttest and cryptogen (once a year);
digital examination of the rectum (once a year);
sigmoidoscopy (once every 3-5 years);
all of the above.
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:
509. The Yve-year survival rate of patients after radical surgery is:
15%;
70%;
25%;
50%.
510. Tumors of the liver of small sizes are more often diagnosed with:
X-ray computed tomography;
angiographic examination;
radioisotope research;
the size of the tumor does not affect the accuracy of the listed methods.
511. Of the listed symptoms in primary liver cancer, the most common are:
pallor of the skin;
hepatomegaly;
512. The main factor contributing to the occurrence of cholangiocellular liver cancer is:
carriage of the hepatitis A virus;
carriage of the hepatitis B virus;
chronic opisthorchiasis;
contamination of food with akatoxins.
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:
513. Relatively early on plain radiographs, a tumor node in central lung cancer is detected in the case of:
endobronchial type of tumor growth;
exobronchial nodular type of tumor growth;
the detection time does not depend on the type of tumor growth;
peribronchial branched type of tumor growth.
514. The obstructive form of the clinical course of colon cancer most often occurs when the tumor is located in:
transversely - to the colon;
the sigmoid colon;
515. First of all, cancer metastasizes to:
peribronchial lymph nodes;
supraclavicular lymph nodes;
paraesophageal lymph nodes;
paratracheal lymph nodes.
516. Radiographic evidence of peripheral lung cancer with disintegration is:
segmental atelectasis;
a tuberous node with a path to the root of the lung;
usulation of the ribs;
cavity formation in the lung.
517. The main methods for diagnosing central lung cancer are:
X-ray and bronchoscopy with biopsy;
bronchoscopy with biopsy and bronchography;
bronchography and bronchoscopy;
radioisotope and radiological;
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518. In primary liver cancer, distant metastases are more often found in:
bones;
retroperitoneal lymph nodes;
lungs;
the brain.
519. A 44-year-old man has a nodular formation in the right breast. The most appropriate in this case is:
puncture of the nodular formation in the mammary gland, followed by cytological examination;
consultation with a urologist;
mammography;
520. X-ray tomographic method of studying the bronchi in case of suspicion of central lung cancer should be used for:
the presence of signs of hypoventilation;
the presence of signs of valvular emphysema;
the presence of atelectasis;
regardless of the presence or absence of signs of impaired bronchial patency.
521. With cancer of the main bronchus, it is shown:
pulmonectomy;
lobectomy;
radiation therapy without surgery;
segmentectomy;
522. The radical treatment for primary liver cancer is:
surgical method;
regional chemotherapy;
radiation treatment.
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523. A 37-year-old patient has a nodular formation 2.5 cm in diameter in the left mammary gland. The symptom of retraction is
pronounced. What diseases should this condition be differentiated with:
breast cancer;
a cyst with an element of inkammation;
Obroadenoma;
524. Peripheral lung cancer does not include cancer:
segmental bronchus;
Pencosta;
bronchioloalveolar;
pneumonia-like;
525. Unmotivated anemia is most often observed in cancer:
the outlet of the stomach;
lesser curvature of the stomach.
526. A 28-year-old patient with pregnancy developed induration and hyperemia of the right breast, bloody discharge from the
nipple, an enlarged lymph node in the right axillary region. The most appropriate in this case is:
the appointment of physiotherapy procedures;
puncture of the seal of the right breast and an enlarged lymph node, followed by cytological examination;
the appointment of antibiotics;
mammography.
527. Which of the following pancreatic tumors are malignant (2 answers):
serous cystadenoma;
mature cystic teratoma;
giant cell tumor.
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528. A 42-year-old patient complains of bloody discharge from the nipple of the right breast. On palpation, the tumor in the
mammary gland is not detected, but when pressure is applied to the nipple, drops of blood appear. To clarify the diagnosis in
this patient, preference should be given to:
thermography;
mammography;
cytological examination of nipple discharge.
529. What tumor markers are elevated in pancreatic cancer (2 answers):
CEA;
CA19.9;
CA15.3;
CA125.
530. Risk factors for liver cancer in developed countries are:
ionizing radiation;
smoking;
alcohol abuse;
abuse of fatty foods.
531. During surgery for intestinal obstruction caused by an inoperable tumor of the large intestine, it is permissible:
limit yourself to cecostomy;
apply a colostomy as close to the tumor as possible;
perform resection of the affected area of the intestine and formation; interintestinal anastomosis;
perform a resection of the affected area of the intestine with the imposition of a colostomy.
Test System 2023
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4. The main treatment for Ewing's sarcoma?

5. Most common site of Rhabdomyosarcoma is?

Head and neck

6. In cervical cancer, the following morphological form of cancer is most common:

extirpation of the uterus with appendages + resection of the greater omentum;

cytological examination of scrapings from the cervix and cervical canal;

histological examination of a piece of the cervix;

all of the above is correct.

during preventive examinations;

in pregnant women at the Orst visit;

in patients with pathognomonic complaints;

all of the above is correct.

the age of the patients;

stage of the disease;

the presence of estrogen and progesterone receptors in the tumor;

13. Synovial sarcoma cellular marker is:

14. Cytogenetics for synovial cell sarcoma is:

The presence of a gradually increasing tumor formation.

Restriction of the mobility of the existing tumor.

The presence of all of the above signs.

treatment with gestagens;

operation - extirpation of the uterus with appendages.

18. All of the following are childhood tumors except:

19. Cytological signs of cervical epithelium malignancy are:

change in the ratio of the nucleus and cytoplasm in the cell;

the presence of pathological mitoses;

all of the above is correct.

Highly differentiated Obrosarcomas.

Highly differentiated liposarcomas.

21. Which of the following is associated with Tuberous sclerosis?

22. Cervical precancer includes:

leukoplakia without atypia;

all of the above is correct.

23. Decisive for the diagnosis of endometrial cancer are:

ultrasound examination of the small pelvis;

26. From which tissue soft tissue tumors do not develop.

27. Which tumor is of epithelial origin?

Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis

Chronic hematogenous osteomyelitis

All of the above

30. Most common Sarcoma of adulthood is:

31. Women are at risk for cervical cancer.

those who started early sexual activity (up to 18 years old);

who have undergone viral diseases of the genital organs;

all of the above is correct.

32. The only reliable method for diagnosing CCP?

Standard radiography of bones.

Biopsy with morphological examination of the material.

11 -20 years old.

21-30 years old.

31-40 years old.

41-50 years old.

34. Frequent localization of osteosarcoma:

Radial and Obula.

Femur and tibia.

The humerus and ulna.

Vertebral bodies, foot bones.

Ribs, vertebral bodies