هيا

‫أسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
‫مختبرات طبية‬
SLLE 2022
Content:
• Laboratory operation.
• Blood Bank.
• Urinalysis and Body fluids.
• Microbiology.
• Clinical Chemistry.
• Immunology and serology.
• Hematology.
• Histopathology.
• Pictures and calculations.
You can contact me at Twitter: Haya_lab

LABORATORY OPERATION.
1. Pre-analytical variable in laboratory test includes?
a. result accuracy
b. report delivery to the ordering physician
c. test turnaround time
d. specimen acceptability
2. Which of the following is NOT a potential source of post-analytical errors?
a. excessive delay in reporting or retrieving a test result
b. interpretation of the test
c. verbal notification if test result
d. labeling the specimen at the nurses' station
3. A Pre-analytical error can be introduced by:
a. draining a coagulation tube before an EDTA tube
b. mixing an EDTA tube 8-10 times
c. transporting the specimen in a biohazard bag
d. vigorously shaking blood in the tube to prevent clotting
4. The most important diagnosis and therapeutic management decision tool used t
interpret test results is:
a. statistical analysis
b. reference intervals
c. specimen acceptability
d. the age of the patient

5. Pre-analytical errors are major contributors to total laboratory errors. Examples of
obvious pre-analytical error are:
a. specimen collected in the wrong container
b. unlabeled specimen
c. QNS, hemolyzed or lipemic specimens
d. all of the above
6. Which of the following statements about analytical errors is true?
a. analytical laboratory errors are easy for ordering provider to detect
b. analytical errors almost never happen in a CLIA accredited laboratory
c. analytical errors are not obivous to providers
d. analytical errors can be caused by poor patient preparation
7. Laboratories should monitor and track pre-analytical indicators of quality to develope

strategies to identify root causes of error and develop counter measures. Examples of pre-
analytical quality indicators include:
a. pre-testing dilution errors
b. rate of calibration failures
c. compliance with PPE in the laboratory
d. rate of inaccurate test order entry into the laboratory information system

8. Refer to the following illustration: Shown above is a Levy-Jennings quality control
chart, which represents control values for 13 consecutive analyses for a particular serum
constituent. If the 14th value is below the -2 SD limit, which of the following should be
done?
a. control should be repeated to see if it will fall within the established interval
b. analysis system should be checked for a deteriorating component
c. analysis system should be checked for a change in reagent lot number
d. no action is needed
9. In quality control, ±2 standard deviations from the mean includes what percent of the
sample population?
a. 50
b. 75
c. 95
d. 98
10. Upon completion of a run of cholesterol tests, the technician recognizes that the
controls are not within the 2 SD confidence range. What is the appropriate course of
action?
a. reports the results without any other action
b. run a new set of controls
c. run a new set or controls and repeat specimens
d. recalibrate instrument and run controls

11. The following data were calculated on a series of 30 determinations of serum uric acid
control: mean = 5.8 mg/dL, 1 standard deviation — 0.15 mg/dL. If confidence limits are
set at ±2 standard deviations, which of the following represents the allowable limits for
the control?
a. 5.65-5.95 mg/dL
b. 5.35-6.25 mg/dL
c. 5.50-6.10 mg/dL
d. d 5.70-5.90 mg/dL
12. What are the 3 steps of an individualized quality control plan (IQCP)/
a. inventory management, instrument selection, quality control plan
b. assessment of pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical
c. quality control plan, quality assessment, and quality improvement
d. risk assessment, quality control plan, quality assessment
13. A delta check is a method that:
a. determines the mean and variance of an instrument
b. monitors the testing system for precision
c. monitors patient samples day to day
d. is determined by each laboratory facility

14. Which of the following is part of The Joint Commission's National Patient Safety
Goals?
a. communication of critical results
b. documentation of lab QC
c. trending of instrument problems
d. reconciliation of lab orders and results in the medical record
15. CAP requires refrigerator temperatures to be recorded:
a. daily
b. weekly
c. monthly
d. periodically
16. An individualized quality control plan (IQCP) does not require:
a. risk assessment
b. revalidation of test performance
c. quality control plan
d. quality assessment
17. A quality management system (QMS) is a system for designing, implementing,

maintaining, and managing quality in a laboratory. A fundamental element of QMS is
training and competence assessment of testing personnel. Which of the following
statements is false? Training is required:
a. for newly hired, transferred or promoted personnel
b. when new testing platforms are implemented
c. when there is a change in the medical director of the lab
d. when an employee demonstrates repeated performance issues

18. A technician is asked to clean out the chemical reagent storeroom and discard any
reagents not used in the past 5 years. How should the technician proceed?
a. discard chemicals into biohazard containers where they will later be autoclave
b. pour reagents down the drain, followed by flushing water
c. consult SDS sheets for proper disposal
d. pack all chemicals for incineration
19- When hazardous chemicals are transferred from the original appropriately labeled
containers to a secondary container for immediate use by the person performing the
transfer, it:
a. must be labeled with an emergency response phone number
b. must be labeled with the identity or contents of the hazardous chemicals
c. mist be labeled with the hazardous warnings to the effect in involved target organs
d. does not require labeling
20. An example of personal protective equipment (PPE) for handling hazardous chemicals
is:
a. eyewash or safety shower
b. fume hood
c. latex or vinyl gloves
d. neoprene or nitrile gloves

21. Refer to the following illustration. this symbol indicates which of the following?
a. flammable
b. electrical
c. radiation
d. biohazard
22. For use and handling safety of liquid nitrogen:
a. use chemically resistant gloves
b. shield all skin and use a face shield
c. store cylinders away from ventilation
d. store cylinders in a horizontal position in a cool dry place
23. All laboratory instruments should:
a. Have repairs conducted while connected to facility wiring
b. Be grounded or double insulated
c. Have safety checks performed initially and then every 6 months
d. Be connected to multiple outlet adapters

24. Flammable and combustible liquids in containers more than 5 gallons should be
stored in:
a. a flammable safety cabinet vented to room air
b. a non-explosion proof refrigerator
c. a fume hood
d. an approved safety can
25. An example of personal protective equipment (PPE) is:
a. a biological safety cabinet
b. an emergency safety shower
c. an eyelash station
d. a lab coat
26. Gloves worn in the laboratory for specimen processing must be removed and hands
washed when:
a. answering the telephone in the technical work area
b. carrying a specimen outside the technical work area through clean areas
c. answering the telephone in a designated clean area
d. after handling specimens for known isolation precaution patients
27. Safety glasses, face shields or other eye and face protectors must be worn when:
a. working with caustic or toxic materials
b. present in technical work area
c. viewing microbology culture plates
d. processing specimens using splash barrier

28. Which of following is the best choice for decontaminating bench tops contaminated
by the AIDs virus?
a. sodium hypochlorite
b. formalin
c. a quaternary ammonium compound
d. 100% alcohol
29. What is the single most effective method to prevent nosocomial spread of infection?
a. wear mask, gown, and gloves
b. require infectious patients to mask
c. wear an N95 respirator mask
d. perform frequent and appropriate hand hygiene
30. What is the most likely mode of transmission for bloodborne pathogens in
laboratory-acquired infections?
a. parenteral inoculation of blood
b. contact with intact skin
c. airborne transmission
d. fecal-oral transmission

31. When processing patient blood specimens and handling othe potentially infectious
material, the best choice of gloves is:
a. reusable utility gloves
b. latex gloves only
c. single use gloves and disposable gloves
d. cut resistant gloves
32. This symbol represents:
a. biohazard
b. radiation hazard
c. chemical hazard
d. environmental hazard
33. Regulated medical waste refers to:
a. chemical waste
b. infectious waste
c. radioactive waste
d. a waste from healthcare facilities
34. A fire occurs in the lab. The first course of action is to:
a. evaluate the entire area
b. pull the fire alarm box
c. remove persons from immediate danger
d. contain the fire by closing the door

35. The ability of a procedure to measure only the components it claims to measure is
called:
a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity
c. Percision
d. Reproducibility
36. The statistical term for the average value is the:
a. mode
b. median
c. mean
d. coefficient of variation
37. The most frequent value in a collection of data is statistically known as:
a. mode
b. median
c. mean
d. standard deviation
38. The middle value of a data set is statistically known as the:
a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. standard deviation

39. The Percision of an instrument is validated by:
a. Running the same sample multiple times
b. Performing serial dilutions
c. Processing unknown specimens
d. Monitoring normal and abnormal controls
40. The extent to which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity being
measured is known as:
a. Reliability
b. Accuracy
c. Reproducibility
d. Percision
41. The reliability of a test to be positive in the presence of the disease it was designed to
detect is known as:
a. Accuracy
b. Sensitivity
c. Precision
d. Specificity
42.The following target shows a set of results that show a high degree of:
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity

43. Mean = Mathematical Average.
44. Median = Middle value.
45. Mode = Most frequently observed value.
46. Standard Deviation (SD) = square root of (sum of squared differences/N-1).
47. Coefficient of Variation (CV) = (SD/Mean) x100.
48. control Range = Mean ± 2SD.
49. Precision = Is the degree to which an instrument or process will repeat the same
value.
50. Accuracy = Is the degree of closeness to true value.
51. Controls = Patient-like material used to validate test performance before analyzing
patient samples.
52. Levey-Jennings Charts = Graphical display of the degree of precision of a

measurement. Based on Gaussian distribution.
53. Trend = 6 consecutive control points increasing or decreasing
54. Shift = An abrupt change from the established mean for a control
55. Random error = Inconsistent change in results due to chance. Change in precision.
56. Systematic error = Influences values consistently in one direction. Change in accuracy.
57. Reference range = Range of values derived from a group of normal healthy persons.
95% of the population of normal persons.
58. 1(2s) = One control value exceeds the mean ±2SD.
59. 2(2s) = Two control values exceed the mean ±2SD.
60. 1(3s): One control value exceeds the mean ±3SD.
61. R(4s) = One control exceeds the mean +2SD and the other -2SD within a single run
(4 SD apart).
62. 10x = 10 consecutive control measurements fall on one side of the mean.

63. Quality assurance = monitoring of any activity associated with a laboratory result.
64. What type of error occurs if specimen is collected at the wrong time? = Preanalytical
error.
65. What type of error occurs if there is oversight of instrument flags? = analytic error.
66. What type of error occurs if lab results are recorded inaccurately? = postanalytic
error.
66. Proficiency testing = External quality control that involves the testing of unknown
samples sent to a lab from a CMS approved provider.
67. False negative = A negative test result in a patient who has the disease or condition
that the test is designed to detect.
68. False positive = A positive test result in a patient who does not have a disease or
condition.
69. Using of patient samples in research = Patient should give informed consent.
70. Biosafety level (BCL) for MERS-C0V = BCL 3.
71. Suitable mask for MERSCoV = N95.
72. Access to patient information, results, diagnosis, , this state best described by =
Patient confidentiality.
73. Treatment of patient regardless of age, sex, or religion is called = Access to care.
74. Protocol of positive malaria in Saudi Arabia = Inform the infectious disease
department.
75. CBAHI = Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Healthcare Institutions
76. After u rescue and activate the alarm what is the next step = Contain the fire + close
the doors
77. Disinfectant that kill the microorganisms and spores = Glutaraldehyde
78. Person who directly contact with patents and provide care = Primary health care
provider
79. The suitable time and temperature for autoclave that use 15 Ibs = 121 C for 15 mins

80. Laboratory reagents system = Inventory system
81. Define proficiency test = External quality control, evaluates a laboratory testing results
by comparing them to those of similar laboratories.
82. HPV-18, risk = High risk
83. Suitable place for safety data sheets = Suitable place for safety data sheets
84. Abduction code color = Pink color (infant)
85. Most common type of errors = Preanalytical errors
86. Temperature of water bath in the bath = 10 C below the melting point of paraffin
wax
87. Child abduction code = Purple
88. Glove for chemical bottles = Nitrile gloves (chemical resistance)
89. Next step after rescue and activate alarm? = Contain fire + close doors
90. Filter used in lab = HEPA
91. File opening = free
92. Sterilization? = Autoclave
93. Covid 19? = BSL 3
94. The patient complains of symptoms and describes them accurately and obtains the
pathological data of the disease, the history of the disease and the medication he is using
what is in this case = patient responsibilities.
95. alkali chemical fire = Powder
96. R4s Westgard rule =

97. How often should the urinalysis Quality Control QC be performed = every day
98. What is the code name for a hazardous spill = Code Orange
99. latex gloves protections against = blood and body fluids
100. Which of the following terms refers to the closeness with which the measured value
agrees with the true value?
A. Random error
B. Precision
C. Accuracy
D. Variance
101. fire case what you should do=

102. Why we do calibration = Check the normal range of the patient test
103. Control 1 abnormal, 2 and 3 normal = repeat 1
104. Msds = contain information
105. Bio safety cabinet 2 = HEPA filter
106. What is considered a violation of patient rights = recording or taking photos of the
patient
107. What PPE to use when handling hazardous sample = gown goggles and gloves
108. SDS = safety data sheet
109. Values for the control that continue to the increase or decrease over period of 6
consecutive days to called Trend =Trend pass through the mean
110. When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean
but maintain a constant level, it is known as a shift =shift not pass through the mean
111. What ensures long use of lab instruments= Maintenance
112. What is the correct ppe for use in BSL 3? = Gown gloves n93 mask
113. Proficiency testing? External QC
114. Patients right = save patients from any medical injury that's injury results from errors
work.
115. what type of error this picture is showing:
A. systemic constant errors.
B. Systemic proportional error.
C. Random constant errors.
D. Random proportional error.
116. Child abduction ? Purple

117. Wrong patient preparation = preanalytical
118. Wrong sample labeling = preanalytical
119. What is the other name of reproducibility = Precision
120. Which of the following is the correct sequence to be followed when preparing a
donor’s arm for = Select vein, apply tourniquet, clean with PVP-iodine. Venipuncture
121. What are the maximum numbers of hour that can be used to leave blood samples on
the bench before centrifugation = 2 hr.
122. What phase does quality control assess = Analytical.
123. Lab. equipment should be cleaned and disinfected with = formaldehyde &
glutaraldehyde.
124. 20 mL ascitic fluid sample from medical unit was sent to cytology laboratory without
label, however the request was available. Which of the following is the most appropriate
action = Reject the sample
125. What phase does quality control assess = Analytical

BLOOD BANK.
1.Hemolytic anemia = This may occur in autoimmune-related hemolytic anemias, which

are caused by a person producing antibodies against their own RBC antigens
(autoantibodies).
2. Frozen RBC = 10 years -65'C.
3. Temperature / length of days or times Platelet = 4 hours 20-24 'C.
4. Heterozygosity = Two alleles for a given trait are different.
5. Homozygous = Two alleles for a given trait are identical; stronger agglutination when
a red cell antigen is expressed from homozygous genes.
6. DAT = Direct antiglobulin test used to detect antibody bound to red cells in-vivo.
7. IAT = Indirect antiglobulin test used to detect antibody bound to red cells in-vitro.
8. Cold Autoantibody and Cold Alloantibody =
Anti-A = 4+
Anti-B = 4+
A1 cells = 0
B cells = 1+
9. Rouleaux =
Anti-A = 4+
Anti-B = 4+
A1 cells = 2+
B cells = 2+
10. Missing or Weak ABO Antibodies in Serum of Plasma Testing =
Anti-A = 0
Anti-B = 0
A1 cells = 0
B cells = 0

11. Sugar for H antigens = L-fucose
12- H antigens by phenotype (highest to lowest concentration =

O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B
12. Which genotype is heterozygous for C?
A. DCe/dce
B. DCE/DCE
C. Dce/dce
D. DCE/dCe
13. What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual? = Anti-A, B, and H.
14. A complete Rh typing for antigens C, c, D, E, and e revealed negative results for C, D,
and E. How is the individual designated?
A. Rh positive
B. Rh negative
C. Positive for c and e
D. Impossible to determine
❖ Rh positive refers to the presence of D antigen; Rh negative refers to the absence

of the D antigen. These designations are for D antigen only and do not involve
other Rh antigens.
15. Deferral period of donor visiting = 1 year.
16. Which blood product is the most appropriate for preventing GVHD = Irradiated
blood (RBCs).
17. Minimum HCT for autologous donation = 33%.
18. If both parents are A blood group, what is the possible offspring blood group =
Blood group A or O.
19. Double dose (homozygous) expression of JK (a+) antigen = JK (a+b-).
20. Most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens = D antigen.
21. Chromosome of ABO genes location = Chromosome 9.

22. Chromosome of Rh genes location = Chromosome 1.
23. Define the directed donation = Donation for a specific recipient.
24. Antibodies cause HDFN = Anti-D, anti-C, anti-E, anti-c, anti-e and
anti-K.
25. One of applications of indirect antiglobulin test (IAT), indirect comb test = Antibody
screening, crossmatching.
26. Type of antibodies causes transfusion reactions, significant or insignificant = Clinically

significant antibodies.
27. Which antibodies are IgG = Anti-e, anti-P, anti-S, anti-s, anti-U, anti-K, anti-JK(a,b).
28. Suitable blood product for treat the von Willebrand disease = Cryoprecipitate.
29. Prolonged PT and APTT, and PLTs: 100 x 10ˆ9/L, and fibrinogen is 40 mg/dL, what is
the suitable blood product = Cryoprecipitate.
30. Type of lewis Abs = Cold antibodies
31. CPD storage blood for = 14 – 21 days
32. CPDA for = 35 days.
33. HDN caused by = Anti-D, anti-K
34. Platelets storage = 22- 27 C for 5 days
35. Indirect comb test IAT used for = Detect the Abs in vitro
36. Direct comb test used for = Detect the sensitized RBCs with Ab in vivo
37. Autosomal recessive = Two Copies of defected gene from both parents should
inherited
38. Patient with car accident need 4 units of blood but his blood group is unknown =
Use O negative blood group (emergency)
39. Heterozygous Jk reaction = JK(a+b+)
40. Phenotypes = The morphology, properties of an organism
41. Genotype = Genetic makeup of organism (DNA) and hereditary information
42. Patient have vWF deficiency, the suitable blood component is = Cryoprecipitate
43. Define elution = Remove of antibodies that is attached to the surface of a red blood
cell, used in identification of antibodies

44. Missing epitopes of D antigen? = Partial D antigen.
45. Polyspecific antihuman globulin (AHG) detect = IgG and C3 coated RBCs
46. Monospecific AHG detect = Either IgG or C3
47. Patient blood group A2 with an anti-A1, the suitable unit (group) for him = A2 or O
48. Patient with anti-E need blood = Same Rh phenotype (blood with no E antigen)
49. Heterozygous of lutherna (Lu)? = Lu (a+b+)
50. Homozygous for lutheran Lu (a)? = Lu (a+b-)
51. Duffy group antigens = Fy (a), Fy (b)
52. Mother O blood group, father A blood group, the child expression = Codominant
53. Ag of low incidence = Negative antibody screen, incompatible antiglobulin

crossmatch.
54. 88 years old with ABO discrepancy? = Weak antibody reaction.
55. Patient have coagulation factors deficiency, suitable blood component = FFP
56. .Kell Antigen = K, k antigens
57. Ag show dosage = C, c, E, e, Fya, Fyb, M, N, S, s, JKa, Jkb.
58. Patient cell + donor plasma = Minor cross matching.
59. Patient plasma + donor cells = Major cross matching.
60. AB negative need FFP = AB negative
61. Null duffy = Fy(a-,b-)
62. Genotype of A blood group = A0 or AA
63. Patient with null kidd he has what Ab = Anti-Jk3
64. Blood group system destroyed by routine Blood bank enzymes = Duffy (Fya, Fyb)
65. In the room temperature there is 2+ reaction but in 37C and AHG
phases there is no reaction what anti-body is suspected to present? = Cold Ab
66. Acquired B found in = A and AB group
67. Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody = Duffy, M. N, S
68. Natural occurring Ab = anti-A, anti-B, anti-Cw, anti-M, and antibodies in the Lewis
and P system

69. group A genotype = A/A , A/o
70. Prevent malaria = Fy (a-, b-)
71. HDF may causes by = Anti K
72. null Kidd = Jk(a-b-)
73. Jka = shows dosage
74. cause PCH = auto anti P
75. Liver disease, what do we give him = FFP
76. Fibrinogen deficiency, what do we give him = Cryoprecipitate
77. Mother and father have AB blood type and what is the baby’s blood type = 25%A ,
25%B , 50%AB
78. Platelet storage for = 5 day at 22-24°c
79. Father O, Mather AB, baby = 50% A,50%B
80. man from Jizan have ring stage of (P. vivax) with no symptoms, what’s the reason to
his not has symptoms = Duffy blood group (a- / b-).
81. yellow fever deferral from blood donation how many weeks =
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
82. anti Lu(a) = Lu (a-b+)
83. antigen receptor for malaria p. vivax = fy (a+, b+)
84. lack the Duffy Fya and Fyb antigens(fya-,fyb-) = are resistant to invasion. p. vivax
85. Plt store temperature= 5 days at 20-24 °c
86. What is the lowest percentage of values of hemoglobin for men who want to donate
= 13 g/dl
87. Antigen destroy by enzyme = Duffy fya,fyb
88. Intrauterine transfusion (IUT) = O negative RBCs
89. Used to determine the amount of a fetomaternal hemorrhage= Kleihauer-Betke (KB)
90. component transfusion to vWD = cryoprecipitate

91. R2r = DcE/dce
92. Delivered AB+ baby needs exchange which blood is suitable = O-
93. AB- patient needed 4 units of blood and the technologist found only 3 AB- what
other blood unit can be given to him? =A-, O- or B
94. Which HLA antibody is the marker for Behçet's disease? = HLA-B51
95. A2B with Anti-A1 discrepancy case + A2 with Anti-A1 discrepancy case
96. What is the nature of reaction that happens of ab against ABO incompatibility =
complement sensitize antibody on the antigens on the cells and cause cell lysis/destruction
97. A donor came with pulse: 140bpm, blood pressure: 100/70mmhg, 37 C, 51 kg Why
was he deferred? = 140 bpm
98. A Nigerian man came to saudi Arabia two years ago and became a nurse in Riyadh.
He is healthy = He is healthy and can donate
99. Baby hemoglobin type on 7th month: = A
100. CPD Shelf life? =21 days
101. which is a Kell ag = K,k, Kpa, Kpb, K null
102. antibodies formed by bombay individuals = Anti-A, B and H
103. Which typing results are most likely to occur when a patient has an acquired B
antigen? =. Anti-A 4+, anti-B 1+, A1 cells neg, B cells 4
104. What is the Fisher-Race genotype for a person with anti-c? dce/ dCe DCE/dCe
105. Newborn AB+, had severe HTR, - =AB + , CPD
106. Elution = is the process of extracting one material from another by washing with a
solvent.
107. Father O ,mather AB , baby = 50% A,50%B

108. indirect antiglobulin = In vitro sensitization.
109. Technique use to AB screening = IAT “Indirect Antiglobulin Test”.
110. Blood storage in SAGM = 42 days.
111. Jk Null phenotype = anti Jk3 antibody.
112. AB- patient need platelet but there is no AB- negative donor, he should
Take = AB+ platelet
113. which of the following is anti Lu (a) = Lu a- / b+.
114. baby with HDNF, which blood transfusion to him = irradiated blood.
115. R1r ? DCe / dce
116. Child with unknown ABO type needs FFB transfusion which of these
type of the choice = AB+.
117. R1r = DCe/dce
118. Kleihauer Betke =HNF Quantitative
119. heterozygous of lua = (Lua+lub-).
120. Kleihauer Betke test = pink cell baby, mother colorless
121. Null duffy: Fy(a-,b-)
122. Null kidd: Jk(a-,b-).
123. Differentiate between vWD and hemophilia A = Bleeding time (BT)
124. The color of anti A which is =blue.
125. The color of anti B which is = Yellow.
126. A positive direct Coomb's test may be caused by which of the following = An
autoantibody on red cells surface.
127. Commonly termed 'Universal Donor' and 'Universal Receiver' = O- : AB+
128. Before blood transfusion, should be done = Cross matching test.
129. A group B Rh-ve person can receive blood for the second time from = Group O Rh-
ve.
130. The most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens = D Antigen.

131. Which of the following antibodies is responsible for HDFN = Anti-c
132. Which of the following is an application to the Indirect antiglobulin (Coombs) Test
= Antibody Screening.
133. A 50-year-old woman admitted to hospital with severe haemorrhage due to von
Willebrand disease. The doctor requested a blood product to be transfused to manage
bleeding.
Which of the following blood products is the most appropriate for the treatment of this
patient? Cryoprecipitate
134. Which of the following is the correct sequence to be followed when preparing a
donors arm for blood collection = Select vein, apply tourniquet, clean with PVP-iodine.
Venipuncture
135. A positive direct Coomb's test may be caused by which of the following = An
autoantibody on red cells surface

‘
URINALYSIS AND BODY FLUIDS.
1. A clean-catch urine is submitted to the laboratory for routine analysis and culture. The
routine urinalysis is done first, and 3 hours later, the specimen is sent to the microbiology
department for culture. The specimen should:
a. be centrifuged, and the supernatant culture
b. be rejected due to the time delay
c. not be cultures if no bacteria is seen
d. can be processed for culture only if the nitrate is positive
2. Urine samples should be examined within 1 hour of voiding because:
a. RBC, leukocytes and cats agglutinate on standing for several hours at room temp
b. urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreased after prolonged exposure to light
c. bacterial contamination will cause alkalization of the urine
d. ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism
3. A urine specimen comes to the laboratory 7 hours after it is obtained. it is acceptable

for culture only if the specimen has been stored:
a. at room temp
b. at 4-7 C
c. frozen
d. with preservative addition

4. What organ is the acid-base regulator of the body? = The kidney.
5. Proteinuria = Protein in the urine; indication of kidney disease. Greater than 30

mg/dL.
6. How much protein in the urine is normal = Less than 10 mg/dL.
7. Bence Jones protein = Multiple myeloma: disorder of immunoglobulin-producing

plasma cells.
8. Renal Proteinuria = Protein in the urine caused by impaired renal function (glomerular
or tubular damage).
9. Hyperglcycemia = Elevated glucose; diabetes mellitus.
10. Gestational diabetes = During pregnancy only. goes away after childbirth.
11. How does the urine appearance differ between hematuria and hemoglobinuria =
Hematuria is CLOUDY and red and hemoglobinuria is CLEAR and red.
12. If bilirubin is present in the urine what can it indicate = Liver disease.
13. Excretion of Bence Jones protein in urine yields a definitive diagnosis of = Multiple
myeloma.
14. The presence of leukocyte in the urine with bacteria present in microscopic is called =
Pyruia.
15. Normal urine volume? = Average of 1200-1500 ml/day.
16. Polyuria = >2500 ml/day, Disease/cause: Diabetes inspidus, Diabetes mellitus,

diuretics caffeine, alcohol.
17. Oliguria = < 500 ml/day, Disease/cause: Dehydration, vomiting, Diarrhea, burns,
perspiration.
18. Turbidity or milky color of urine is caused by presence of = WBCs (pus cells).
19. Normal sperm count = 20 million to 250 million.
20. Time of fresh semen sample = 2 hours.

21. The dark yellow color of amniotic fluid is due to presence of = bilirubin.
22. Chemical strip of urinalysis shows positive bilirubin and decreased urobilinogen, what
is the diagnosis = Biliary obstruction (post-hepatic jaundice).
23. Hematuria caused by = S. hematobium.
24. Acids for urine preservation = Hydrochloric acid, boric acid.
25. Pleural fluid = Centrifugation.
26. Phenylketonuria? = Lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase.
27. Detection of ketones in urine? = Acetest test
28. Urine formed by = Filtration, reabsorption and secretion.
29. Differences between hyaline and waxy cast = Hyaline cast: seen in normal individual
& in renal disease (increased), congestive heart failure, consists of tamm-horsfall protein,
colorless, translucent, low refractive index Waxy cast: renal diseases, tubular inflammation
and chronic renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, consists of degenerated granular cast and
cells, yellow, high refractive index, contain cracks
30. Urine cast in case of Sickle cell anemia = Hemosiderin (hemoglobin) cast
31. Urine with high WBCs = UTI & pyelonephritis
32. Urine crystal in renal tubular acidosis (RTA) = Calcium salts (Calcium phosphate,
calcium carbonate)
33. Normal urine pH = Acidic (4 to 8) average (5-6).
34. Low CSF glucose, high lactate and high protein = Bacterial, fungal meningitis
35. Ghost cell = RBCs in hypotonic urine
36. Pleural fluid sample exudate characterized by = High protein
37. Air bubbles tissue artifact = due to poor floatation technique which lead to
inadequate adherence of tissue to the slide, solved by using of distilled water in the bath,
also using of alcohol or detergent to reduce the surface tension. Placing of cover slip
(mounting)
38. Most common type of urine casts = Hyaline cast

39. .Stain for sperm viability-vitalit = Eosin, eosin-nigrosin (blom's technique).
40. Synovial fluids = From the joints.
41. Bence jones protein = Heat test 40-60 C
42. Differentiation between hyaline and waxy cast = Refractivity
43. Most common type of urine sample = Random
44. Turbid semen due to = WBCs
45. Color of amorphous phosphate = White, gray, colorless
46. Urine formed by three main steps = Filtration, reabsorption and secretion
47. Urine type for culture = Mid clean catch MSU
48. Specific gravity mesured by = Réfractometer
49. Causes Increased specific gravity = DM(glycosuria)
50. Cylindruria = Casts
51. Use urine analysis to diagnose which sample = Enterobious vermicularis
52. In an unpreserved and old urine specimen, there could be difficulty differentiating
between bacteria and:
A. Yeast
B. Mucus
C. Amorphous phosphates
D. Pollen grains
53. coffin lid crystal = Triple phosphate
54. terminal spin and cause hematuria = S. hematobium
55. Oil red o stain = fat
56. semen specimen what stain we used to see sperm morphology = Eosin-nigrosin
57. measure GFR = 24 hours urine volume
58. Bence jones sample = First morning Urine
59. If we leave the urinesample for a long time, what happens to the PH = Increase

60. Why do we measure PH in urine = determine the chances of the formation of kidney
stones.
61. smell like sweaty feet in urine indicate = isolvaleric acidemia
62. Chronic renal failure cause these casts = Waxy cast
63. fruity smell of urine = acetone/ ketone
64. Calculated =
65. Hyaline cast seen under microscope by = Low power field
66. What causes pale colored urine = People who drink more water produce more
diluted
67. Amorphus phoshpate color is = White
68. urine amber color because of what = Urochrome
69. refractometer measure = specific gravity
70. check the Ph and Specific Gravity with any test in urine analysis = dipstick
71. pleural fluid need to send in central lab = save at 20 -22c or 2-8c
72. high level of glucose = affect pancreas
73. Pale yellow urine = normal
74. normal semen =ph 7.2 to 7.8

75. 16 years old boy broke his leg on football game and urine sample showed 2+ protein
and dark turbid urine with = Strenuous exercise
76. A man had a car accident and he has a history of heroin use. Acetylcodiene and
acetylmorphine were tested. Blood samples showed negative but urine showed pos why?
= Blood is not the sample of choice in this case
77. What will you find in urine in wilson’s disease? = increased copper
78. color of amorphous phosphate microscopically = white/colorless
79. turbid semen means = WBCs
80. most common urine sample = random
81. What is the correct quantity for semen analysis = 1.5 ml
82. Bacterial meningitis = low glucose and high protein in CSF
83. Urine sample of choice for glomer filtration rate = 24 h urine
84. Triple phosphate = proteus mirabilis
85. Oliguria? Decrease urine output
86. Urine sample for culture = Midstream clean catch
87. WBC, wbc cast = Pyelonephritis
88. Normal count of sperm ? More than 20 millions
89. transitional epithelial cells in urine = Male urethra.
90. Too much fat in your feces is called = steatorrhea
91. check the Ph and Specific Gravity with any test in urine analysis = dipstick.
92. Normal caste in urine = hyaline
93. Large number of hyaline casts indicated = acute pyelonephritis, proliferative

glomerulonephritis and heart failure.
94. Common cause of proteinuria = Bence-Jones proteins
95. Abnormal forms in semen should not exceed = 10%.

96. Crystals which look like envelope = calcium oxalate.
97. Which of the following is the most likely cause of milky colored urine = White blood
cells.
98. A 15-year-old girl was admitted to a hospital with fever and headache. A sample of
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) was sent to the laboratory for testing. The microbiology
laboratory confirmed positive kidney shaped Gram-negative bacteria. Other tests are
indicated below (see lab result).
Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? Meningococcus infection

Microbiology
1. Hyphae of this fungi branch at 45-degree angle = Aspergillus.

2. Hyphae of this fungi branch at 90-degree angle = Mucor.
3. Simple test used for differentiation between S.aureus and micrococcus =
1-Oxidative/fermentative media (O/F): micrococci (oxidative), staphylococci
(fermentative).
2-Micrococci are bacitracin sensitive).
4. Sandy spots on cells caused by which virus = Arenavirus.
5. Patient present with splenomegaly and positive mono-spot test, which virus is
suspected = EBV (Epstein Barr virus).
6. Special stain used for amyloid = Congo red stain.
7. Patient with swelling of salivary and parotid glands, and anorexia what is the
suspected virus = Mumps virus.
8. Eye irritation & conjunctivitis after swimming, which virus = Adenovirus.
9. Negri bodies are eosinophilic inclusion bodies, it is caused by = Rabies virus.
10. Organism cultured on blood agar (BA) cause swarming phenomenon is = Proteus
spp.
11. Capsulated highly mucoid bacteria = Klebsiella spp.
12. Urease test for Brucella spp, what is the color of medium = Red color.
13. Special medium for Mycobacterium = Löwenstein–Jensen medium (LJ).
14. Which type of plasmodium cause malignant malaria = Plasmodium falciparum.
15. Culture media used for fungi = Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA).
16. Female with yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharges caused by = Trichomonas
vaginalis.
17. Germ tube test used for = Candida albicans.
18. Wet preparation of stool show egg with bipolar plugs (barrel shape) = Egg of
Trichuris trichura.
19. Case: gram stain of CSF shows kidney shape gram negative bacteria, with low
glucose and elevated protein? Which bacteria is suspected = N. meningitidis
(meningococcal infection).
20. In gram stain, S. aureus arranged in = Clusters.
21. Special technique for treponema and spirochetes = Dark field microscope.
22. Infant with meningitis, caused by gram positive rods with tumbling like motility =
Listeria monocytogenes.
23. Test differentiate M.tuberculosis from other mycobacteria = Production of niacin
(nicotinic acid)

24. Gram positive rods, infect fetus and pregnant women, able to grow in 4 C =
Listeria monocytogenes.
25. Infant with diarrhea caused by a virus that can prevented by national
immunization program = Rota virus.
26. Electron microscope shows virus with crown like projections = Corona virus.
27. Detection of fungi in a skin sample by = 10% KOH.
28. Ringworm caused by = Trichophyton.
29. This is the only lipoprotein synthesized and secreted in intestine = Chylomicron.
30. How differentiate Staphylococci from streptococci = By catalase test.
31. Parasite cause acute diarrhea = Giardia.
32. Selective media for vibrio = TCBS.
33. Cause hemolytic uremic syndrome = Enterohemorrhagic, E. coli, Shigella
dysenteriae.
34. Gas gangrene caused by = C. perfringens
35. Meningitis in neonates = S. agalactiae, L. monocytogenes and E. coli.
36. Media contain vancomycin-colistin-nystatin = Thayer martin media, modified
Thayer martin media.
37. Bile solubility tes = Special test for S. pneumoniae, lysed by bile salts.
38. virus cause intranuclear giant cytopathic effect as owl eyes = Cytomegalovirus.
39. viral meningitis = Normal glucose with high protein.
40. Neurotoxin produced by = C. tetani, C. botulinum, S. aureus, B. cerus.
41. media for fungi = SDA.
42. fungal stain = Grocott methamine silver, periodic acid Schiff, lactophenol cotton
blue.
43. Wood lamp test = For hair skin infected by dermatophytes, M. furfur, tinea
versicolor, pityriasis
44. Double zone of beta hemolysis = C. perfringens.
45. Antibiotic associated diarrhea = C.difficle
46. Cat biting (bacteria) = Pasteurella multocida
47. Media inhibit & prevent = CLED (salt deficient)
48. Bacteria grow at 42 C? = Campylobacter, Helicobacter, Pseudomonas aeruginosa,
Borkholderia
49. Bacteria grow at 4 - 43°C = Listeria monocytogenes & Yersinia
50. Special stain for parasites = Giemsa stain H&E
51. Special stain for amoeba = Best carmine
52. Giant intranuclear inclusion like owl eyes cytopathic effect = CMV
(cytomegalovirus)

53. Color of gram-negative bacteria = pink
54. Croup disease or barking cough caused by = Parainfluenza virus
55. This test differentiates group B from group A streptococci = CAMP test
56. Bacteria cause gas gangrene = C. perfringens
57. Indian ink used for = Detect of capsule and cryptococcus neoformans
58. Cause peptic ulcer, urease positive = H. pylori
59. Anticoagulant for blood culture = Sodium polyanethol sulphate
60. Cylindrical larvae = Cylindrical larvae
61. Fungi vs bacteria = Have 80s ribosomes vs bacteria 70s ribosomes
62. Eukaryotes have no = Mesosomes
63. Parasite cause hematuria = S. haematobium
64. Cause peptic ulcer, urease positive = H. pylori
65. Anticoagulant for blood culture = Sodium polyanethol sulphate
66. Cylindrical larvae = Nematodes (ascaris, hook worm)
67. Fungi vs bacteria = Have 80s ribosomes vs bacteria 70s ribosomes
68. Eukaryotes have no = Mesosomes
69. Parasite cause hematuria = S. haematobium
70. Shigella on XLD give = Red color
71. Fishy smell bacteria? = Proteus spp
72. Life cycle of plasmodium malariae = 72 h
73. Visceral leishmaniasis caused by = Leishmania donovani
74. Patient with UTI, bacteria indole positive, lactose fermenter and motile = E. coli
75. Bacteria oxidase positive = Pseudomonas, vibrio, Neisseria and H. influanzae
76. Shigella on macConky agar = Colorless
77. Salmonella on XLD = Pink color with black center
78. Salmonella on macConky = Colorless or pale yellow
79. Indole test affect by which media = Any media contain dyes, or macckonkey,
EMB and mueller hinton agar
80. Bacteria give a bluegreen colony, positive fried egg appearance = Mycoplasma
81. Food poisoning and bacteria was a gram-positive bacilli = C. perfringens.
82. Gram stain for gram negative bacteria = Pink or red
83. HDV associated with which virus? = HBV
84. Atypical lymphocytes, heterophil tests, monospot test, lymphadenopathy,
nasopharyngeal carcinoma = EBV
85. Cases of traveler related hepatitis? = HAV
86. Role of crystal violet in MacCkonkey agar = nhibit the growth of gram-positive
bacteria
87. Vibrio cholerae grow on = TCBS media
88. Gram positive, alpha hemolytic optochin sensitive = S. pneumoniae
89. Drumstick like bacteria = C. tetani
90. Albert stain used for which bacteria = Corynebacterium diphtheriae
91. Bacteria cause pharyngitis = S. pyogenes

92. Female with vaginal discharge, itching, what is the parasite = Trichomonas
vaginalis
93. Urea breath test for = H. pylori.
94. Gram negative coccobacilli grow on chocolate agar? = H. influenzae
95. Bacteria moves by = Flagellum
96. Parasitology: concentration technique we are looking for parasite in? = Sediment
97. Catalase positive, coagulase positive = S. aureus
98. Enriched media = Medium containing natural proteins like blood, hemoglobin,
serum, growth factor like blood agar and chocolate agar. Required for fastidious
organism like Neisseria and streptococci
99. Bacillary dysentery caused by? = Shigella
100. Bacteria cause abortion = C. perfringens, bacteroid fragilis, brucella, G.
vaginalism N. gonorrhea, L. monocytogenes.
101. Differentiation between S. aureus and other staphylococci = Coagulase
102. Reagent of indole test? = (Kovacs reagent), p-
dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde (DMACA)
103. Parasitic infection shows eosinophilia and larvae in stool without eggs =
Strongyloides stercolaris infection.
104. Most common cause of fungal infection after candida? Aspergillus
105. Bacteria grow at 43 C = Campylobacter
106. Aeration of Enterobacteriaceae = Aerobic and anaerobic.
107. Most common type of H. influenzae = B
108. Organism have no cell wall = Mycoplasma
109. Cottage cheese vaginal discharges = Candida (yeast) infection.
110. Bacteria associated with raw sheep milk drinking = Brucella
111. Bacterial infection from uncooked rice = Bacillus cereus
112. Urease positive and found in stool = Proteus
113. HIV confirmatory test = WB, IFA, NAAT
114. Catalase test = Positive in staph, and negative in streptococci
115. Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by = Naegleria fowleri
116. PYR test used for = Group A and D streptococci (enterococcus aecalis).
117. Sign of pin worm infection = Preanal itching.
118. Herpes simplex virus cause = Painful lesions
119. Case (trophozoite with ingested RBCs and the cyst with quadrant nuclei)? =
E. histolytica.
120. One donor came from Sudan….etc = Deferral for one year (cuz the malaria)
121. Abdominal pain and diarrhea no cyst or trophozoite, positive string test? =
Giardia
122. Elek test used for = C. diphtheriae
123. Fruity odor urine = Acetone

124. Bacteria cause green pigment on macckonkey = Pseudomonas aeruginosa
125. Most common bacteria with food poisoning?
• S. saprophyticus
• S. epidermdis
• S. aureus
• Micrococcus
126. Case\ patient have unprotective sex for the past 3 months, RPR + , doctor
order TPHA as confirmatory, the doctor action is…?
• He should enter the screening test only
• Screening test should be followed by a confirmatory test
• The doctor should hide the result and discharge patient
• The doctor should repeat the PRP because false positive result and no
confirmatory ordered
127. Bordetella pertussis cause? = Whooping cough
128. Fungus seen by dark field microscope and Indian ink? = C. neoformans
129. Barking cough caused by = Parainfluenza virus
130. Bacteria cause endocarditis = Viridans (vancomycin sensitive), enterococci
(vancomycin resistance)
131. Microaerophilic organism = Campylobacter jejuni, Helicobacter pylori
132. Usually seen in the female urine, young sexually active females = S.
saprophyticus
133. Spiral hyphae = Trichophyton mentagrophytes.
134. Nocturnal parasite? = W. bancrofti, B. malayi, B. timori • Note loa loa with
diurnal periodicity • M. perstans and M. ozzardi are nocturnal and diurnal (no
periodicity)
135. Stain for trypanosoma = Giemsa stain
136. wood lamp = Fungal examination
137. White Piedra = Trichosporon spp • Note that black Piedra caused by
Piedraia hortae
138. bacteria used in biological warfare = Bacillus anthracis
139. Phaarygitis cases by = Group A
140. Group D = (VRE)
141. Bacterial cause syphilis = Treponema palladium
142. Lyme disease caused by = Borrelia burgdorferi
143. Widal test for = salmonella

144. E . coil = IMVC ( ++--)
145. Consumption of raw milk containing Brucella can = cause brucellosis
Disinfecion
146. Serratia = red pigment on medium
147. proteus caused = swarming on blood agar.
148. salmonella caused = Typhoid fever
149. Media for Tb = Lowenstein- Jensen
150. Media for Neisseria = Thyer martin
151. Bacterial cause abortion = Listeria monocytogenes
152. Bacterial caused meningitis in newborn = Group B streptococcus
153. double zone in blood agar = C.perfringe
154. chines letter = Corynebacterium diphtheriae
155. Selective media = MacConkey agar
156. normal flora of the eye = review sample collection
157. Acid fast stain = TB
158. Alcian blue for = mucin
159. Colloidal Iron for = mucopolysacchrides
160. Bacterial growth at 43°c = Campylobacter
161. Permanent deferral = HBv
162. Burn patients often develop nosocomial infection caused by:
a. Streptococcus epidermis
b. Corynebacterium spp.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Candida albicans.
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
163. Extravascular hemolysis = spherocytosis
164. Food poisoning bacteria caused by = C.butilinum
165. branching filaments and weak acid fast = Nocardia
166. H.influenzae = Cocobacilli
167. S mutation cause = Adenine thymine mutation Pregnancy
168. Enrichment media = Selenite F broth media
169. Rheumatic fever caused by = S.pyogenes
170. Bile esculin agar = Enterococcus faecalis
171. bacteria resist to vancomycin = Enteroccus
172. media contain antibiotic = Thayer martin
173. influenza grows best in what media = Chocolate agar
174. shows bacterial mucoid colonies in blood agar = klebsiella
175. infective stage of hookworm = Filariform larvae

176. Charcoal blood media for which bacteria = Gram negative species legionella
Albert.
177. Which type of fungi Mucor and hyphae = Mucor is a filamentous fungi
178. Infective stage for Entamoeba = Cyst
179. women patient from jazan , found ring shape in thick blood film , what’s the
diagnosis result = Malaria
180. bacteria cause chronic pulmonary disease = mycobacterium tuberculosis
181. Wood lamp use for which fungi = Microsporum
182. Nosocomial infections oxidase negative = Acinetobacter baumanni.
183. Simple test to differentiate between staph aureus and micrococcus =
coagulase positive is staph aureus
184. splenomegaly + pos monospot = EBV
185. bacteria from newborn infant, gows at 4 c = listeria
186. mumps virus = swelling of salivary gland, large parotid gland
187. Media for fungi = SDA
188. Barking cough = Parainfluenzae
189. Bacteria cause bloody diarrhea? = Salmonella enterica, shigella, E. coli,
campylobacter
190. Salmonella shigella EMB = no color
191. Heterophile test = EBV
192. Microaerophilic organism? = Campylobacter+ H. pylori
193. case: abdominal pain and diarrhea no ova, cyst or trophozoite in stool but
string test was positive what is the pathogen = Giardia
194. Bacteria causes Endocarditis? =Viridans and Enterococci
195. Vancomycin resistant bacteria = Enterococcus faecalis
196. Bacteriophage T4 on E.Coli = destruction
197. Woman pregnant with the first child has a cat at home which test should be
done =Toxoplasma
198. Urease positivities found in stool = Proteus mirabilis
199. Which biochemical reaction is positive for pseudomonas aeruginosa =
Oxidase
200. What causes diarrhea due to eating rice = Bacillus cereus
201. Case: a man cam with history of drinking raw sheep milk = Brucella
202. What is a nocturnal parasite = Wicherichia bancrofti and brugia
203. Case: woman with vaginal itching, dysuria and white discharge like cottage
cheese what is the most probable pathogen? = candida albicans

204. Case: woman with green frothy vaginal discharge, dysuria and lab findings
showed jerky motility what is the most probable organism? = Trichomonas
vaginalis
205. mucoid fungus on blood agar Why mucoid? = capsule production
206. Which organism has no cell wall? = mycoplasma
207. Usually seen in urine of young females= S. Saprophyticus
208. A technologist didn’t apply antiseptic before drawing blood from a boy and
the boy developed a bacterial infection. What is the most probable cause? = s.
Epidermidis
209. vancomycin sensitive = viridance
210. Parasite has 4 nuclei and causes diarrhea, what's this parasite? entamoeba
histolytica
211. Germ tube = candida
212. Parasite has flagella = giardia lamblia
213. VP test positive = Enterobacter
214. Patient has itching thighs, constipation and vomiting. The patient has
vomited 50 eggs with thin shell and immature content, what kind of worn could
this be = Hook worm or called Enterobius vermicularis
215. Urea breath test? H.pylori
216. Neonatal meningitis = E.coli
217. Acute diarrhea = Giardia
218. Oval shape plasmodium = P.ovale
219. Barrel shaped with bipolar plugs = Trichuris trichiura
220. parasitic hematuria = S.haematobium
221. Occult blood positive = hookworm
222. bacteria causes abortion = listeria
223. shows spaghetti and meatballs shape : malassezia furfur.
224. HIV patient who get lung infection by the organism shown in the picture:
1. Oral bacteria the source
2. Air condition
3. Water
4. Soil

225. primary stain for acid fast bacteria = Carbol fusion
226. Bactricin test = S.pyogenes Sensitive S. Agalactia Resistant
227. bacteria swarming in blood agar = Proteus
228. which of the following is test to differentiate between staph aureus
and micrococcus = Oxidation and fermentation.
229. Media for n.gonorrhoea ? thayer martin agar.
230. Bacteria cause food poisoning = s.aureus.
231. UTI (urinary tract infections) is caused by? Staphylococcus saprophyticus
232. Neurotoxin= C.tetani.

233. Screening test for hiv = nucleic acid tests (NAT), antigen/antibody tests, and
antibody tests.
234. Catalase pos oxidase pos gram positive cocci = Micrococcus.
235. One gram negative organism cause nosocomial infection and does not
ferment sugar however it Oxidase negative = Stenotrophomonas.
236. Distinguish between Neisseria gonorrhea and meningitides = Maltose.
237. Gram negative bacilli bacteria that cause infection after cat bite =
Pasteurella.
238. Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) is caused by = Rickettsia rickettsia
239. EBV = infectious mononucleosis
240. Lowenstein- Jensen media = isolation of Mycobacterium species.
241. Woman old 64 case, has bacteria in urine = S. saprophyticus
242. Confirm test for EBV = Heterophile Antibody Test
243. Plasmodium falciparum is transmitted by = anopheles.
244. Gas gangrene is caused by = Clostridium perfringens
245. Stool sample with urease positive and H2s positive = proteus
246. Xld = selective media.
247. Transmission of which of the following could cause Schistosoma
haematobium infection = Penetration of the skin by cercaria.

248. Which of the following are Gram-negative motile rods that are characterized
by gray, sprading film of growth on agar plates = Proteus vulgaris
249. An important cause of diarrhea in infant = Salmonella
250. is giving the shape to the bacteria = Cell wall
251. M. tuberculosis bacilli stain with= Zheil Nelson stain.
252. The cause of malignant malaria = Plasmodium falciparum
253. The most common causative agent for peptic ulcer = H-pylori
254. Selective media for fungi = Sabourand dextrose agar.
255. Barrel shapped egg, yellow brown in color with a colorless protruding
mucoid plug in each end = egg of Trichuris tricura.
256. A patient with hematuria presented to the Urology clinic. Bladder cancer is
suspected. Therefore, a urine sample was sent to cytology laboratory. Which of
the following will most likely be seen under the microscope = Schistosoma
haematobium
257. Transmission of which of the following could cause Schistosoma
heamatobium infection = Penetration of the skin by cercaria.

Clinical Chemistry.
1. What is the aim of Creatinine clearance test = Estimate the glomerular filtration
rate (GFR)
2. Type of bilirubin increase in hemolytic anemia = Unconjugated (indirect)
bilirubin.
3. Regarding Ag-Ab reaction, what is the prozone = Zone of excess Abs.
4. Glycated Hb (hemoglobin) test what = HbA1c (average of glucose in 2-3 months).
5. In Jaffe reaction the creatinine reacts with = Picric acid in alkaline media.
6. When test is truly negative this is = Specificity.
7. Tumor marker use for = Screening, follow up and monitoring.
8. Patient with 3 days vomiting, with a distinctive smell of breathing (like nail polish)
= Diabetic ketoacidosis.
9. Non pathological condition shows a high blood albumin level = Dehydration.
10. If the blood tube left for 5 hours what test not affected = Uric acid.
11. Specific enzyme elevated in biliary obstruction = ALP.
12. Patient with chest pain, suspected to have Acute myocardial infarction, what is the
confirmatory test = Troponin T.
13. Special test for evaluation the congenital hypothyroidism = TSH.
14. Tumor marker for colon cancer = Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
15. Specific enzyme for hepatobiliary diseases = Alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
16. Specific enzyme for acute pancreatitis = Lipase.
17. A protein electrophoresis, all fractions are normal except Gamma fraction is
elevated, what is the diagnosis = Monoclonal gammopathy.
18. One patient with high level of ADH, what is the common finding =
Hyponatremia.
19. Clinical condition associated with autoantibodies against thyroglobulin and
thyroid peroxidase = Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
20. High sugar with normal insulin = Insulin independent diabetes milletus.
21. High lipase and amylase = Pancreatitis.
22. Glucose in urine (renal glycosuria), normal in blood = Glucagon hormone.
23. Normal fasting blood sugar, and high 2-hour postprandial glucose = Isolated
postprandial hyperglycemia, type 2 diabetes Mellitus, cardiovascular risk.
24. Amber color of urine, presence of = Bilirubin.
25. Photosensitive = Bilirubin.

26. Hyaline cast vs waxy cast = Hyaline cast is transparent and composed of
mucoproteins and colorless, waxy cast is a degeneration of cells contain, yellow
color with grooves on sides (review the casts, urinalysis).
27. Osmolality of urine depend on = Na + specific gravity.
28. Acromegaly = Test of growth hormone (GH).
29. Niacin (nicotinic acid) and tryptophan deficiency cause = Pellagra.
30. Cushing syndrome = High cortisol, Hyperaldosteronism, high ACTH
31. HbA1C = Measure sugar for last 3 months
32. Hypoalbuminemia caused by = Acute or chronic inflammation, nephrotic
syndrome, liver cirrhosis, heart failure, malnutrition, allergy.
33. Hypercalcemia = Hyperparathyroidism
34. Wilson disease = Low ceruloplasmin.
35. Calculate LDL = LDL= total cholesterol - HDL - TG/5
36. What is the labeled material in ELISA = Antibody labeled with an enzyme
37. Enzyme responsible of glycolysis = Pyruvate kinase
38. Enzyme affects with alcohol = GGT
39. Hormone control the adrenal gland = ACTH
40. Device used to obtain sediments = Centrifuge
41. Enzyme of obstructive jaundice = ALP
42. High growth hormone in children = Gigantism
43. High growth hormone in adult = Acromegaly
44. CA 125 marker used for? = Ovarian and breast cancer
45. High CA 19-9 and high lipase and amylase = Pancreatic cancer
46. Spill emergency code = Orange color
47. Calculate BUN = rea/2.14
48. Familial hyper cholesterolemia = High LDL
49. Lipid affected by meal = Triglycerides
50. Enzyme specific for osteoporosis = Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
51. High urea, creatinine and ammonia, due to consuming of = High protein
52. Hormone increase glucose = Cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine, T3, T4, ACTH,
growth hormone
53. Beta cell of pancreas secretes = Insulin
54. Alpha cell of pancreas secrets = Glucagon
55. Hormone responsible of Na, K, water reabsorption and excretion of K, H =
Aldosterone

56. High liver enzyme, GGT = Cholestasis
57. High ALP = Seen in Paget disease
58. Polyuria, weight loss, high glucose = DM
59. The normal highest electrolyte? = Sodium (Na 135 – 145).
60. Major cation of intracellular fluid = K
61. High prolactin cause = Infertility
62. Medium for electrophoresis = Agarose ge
63. Corticosteroid hormone = Cortisol
64. Positive CEA = Carcinomas of the colorectal (colon), pancreas, breast and
stomach
65. High thyroid hormone = Hyperthyroidism
66. Steps of PCR = Denaturation, annealing and extension.
67. Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency = Cause pellagra.
68. .tdt marker = Marker of immaturity.
69. Ig is component of which type of globulin = Gamma
70. The most nitrogenous product = BUN, urea
71. What found in nephrotic syndrome? = Proteinuria
72. Catabolism and anabolism = Citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle).
73. Wilson disease = High amount of copper.
74. Stain DNA = Ethidium bromide
75. Patient with lockjaw? Tetanus (tetansopasmin), neurotoxin
76. Protein for iron binding = Transferrin
77. Quantification of electrolytes = Ion selective electrode
78. Marker for alcoholic liver disease = GGT
79. Marker of thyroid cancer = Calcitonin
80. .Sample show cold agglutination = Warm at 37 C and rerun.
81. Gray patches around the cornea = High cholesterol (familial hyperchlosterolemia)
82. Type of bilirubin elevated in obstructive jaundice = Direct bilirubin
83. The most abundant cation in extracellular fluid = Na
84. Atherosclerosis is due to = High LDL
85. .Rickets is caused by = Vitamin D deficiency
86. Moon face or buffalo hump = Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome).
87. Genetic breast cancer = BRCA 1, 2 and HER2
88. Chicago disease = Caused by blastomyces (blastomycosis)
89. Nitrocellulose used for = Southern blot (immunoblotting, gel electrophoresis)
90. Calculate the CK-MB index = CK-MB/CK x 100
91. Basal brain gland = Pituitary gland
92. IHC for adenocarcinoma taken from breast tissue = Carcinemeryonic Ag
93. Patient with ketone bodies and coma = Ketoacidosis

94. GVHD = Immunocompetent donate for immunocompromised patient
95. Hormone of adrenal cortex stimulated by = ACTH to produce cortisol,
aldosterone, DHEA
96. Function of PCO = Maintain the pH
97. Organ used much glucose = brain
98. Hepatocellular disease confirmed by = ALT
99. Needle tip crystal = Alkaline colorless: calcium phosphate • Acidic yellow-brown:
bilirubin • Acidic colorless-yellow: tyrosine
100. if patent has respiratory acidosis what is the urine pH = Below 5.5, acidic
101. End product of glucose = p y r u v a t e
102. Ammonia transport to the blood by = glutamine.
103. Enzyme specific for pancreatis = Lipase.
104. Chylomicron = Produce by intestine
105. Tumor marker pancreas = Ca19-9
106. Insulin secreted by = Beta cell
107. Cholesterol is also metabolized to = steroid hormones TSH
108. protein synthesis inhibitor = aminoglycoside
109. Hemolysis high = K
110. Major Intracellular cation = K
111.Myocardial infraction = Traponin
112. Lipase and amylase high indication = Acute pancreatitis
113. Glucose msured in which tube = Sodium floride
114. Osmolality calculated =
115. patient came to hospital without symptoms, just he has hard to breath, the
doctor guess he may have AMI, what’s the enzyme use in this case to find the
problem = Troponin
116. breast cancer marker is = Estrogen receptor positive
117. Marker Hepatocellular carcinoma = alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
118. Male enlargement breast and prostate = hCG elevated
119. Uric acid elevated indicated = Gout
120. Fruity odor urine is due to = Ketone

121. Wilson disease associated with High copper, what liver enzymes affected =
ALT and AST
122. partially compensated respiratory acidosis, PH will be = 5.5 - 6.5
123. arrangements of tube in lab =
124. Disease is an autoimmune disease primarily involving the = Thyroid gland

125. bilirubin in hemolytic anemia = unconjugated/ indirect bilirubin/ water
insoluble bilirubin
126. Phenylalanine deficiency due to = Phenylalanine hydroxylase
127. Lab findings: all normal but lipase is very high = pancreatitis
128. Case: Patient came with fever, vomiting and pain and has history of acute
hepatitis AST h: ALT: ALP: normal Bilirubin: high = Acute hepatitis
129. Case with Gamma-beta bridging = liver cirrhosis.
130. What test is confirmatory of Pheochromocytoma = catecholamines urine

131. To calculate BUN = 2.14
132. What is the correct formula of the anion gap? = (Na + K) - (cl + hco3)
133. Findings in gilbert syndrome = increased unconjugated bilirubin
134. Marker for thyroid carcinoma = calcitonin
135. Marker for alcoholic liver = GGT
136. Ammonia transport to liver as = alanine
137. Troponin increase after 4 to 8 hours = myocardial infarction
138. Atherosclerosis = LDL deposit
139. Cation Extracellular = Na
140. High sodium Low potassium = DM
141. fever with chest pain = Myocardial infarction
142. Woman has a severe headache, she has high total protein and albumin what
could be the cause = dehydration
143. conjugated bilirubin = water soluble bilirubin
144. The Acetest = is a test for ketones
145. Low glucose in blood what are the tests that we are supposed to do? C
peptide
146. Iron moves through the blood = attached to a protein called transferrin.
147. Other name of graves syndrome= Exophthalmic goiter
148. Normal electrolytes in urine ? Chloride
149. Acidic urine crystals = amorphous urates, uric acid, ca oxalate, bilirubin,
tyrosine, leucine, cystine
150. Alkaline urine crystals = amorphous phosphate, triple phosphate, calcium
phosphate, ammonium biurate, calcium carbonate
151. ⬆️Calsium = Parathyroid ⬇️Calsium = Calcitonin
152. Oxalocatate convert to citrate by = Acetyl co A

153. Baby with yellow skin + Eyes = jaundice.
154. electrolyte if increased will cause cardiac arrest = hyperkalemia.
155. Is an important marker in testing Alcohol = GGT
156. Acrylamide gels is the best gel to measure = protein weight.
157. Tumor marker for thyroid = Calcitonin
158. Case pancreatic cancer = CD 19-9
159. Someone who has lethargy and tiredness, and he was given orange juice =
increased glucose.
160. Diagnosed by determining the PTH (Parathyroid hormone) levels =
Hypercalcemia
161. Biuret test is done to determine = Protein
162. Vacuum tubes with green stopper contain = heparin
163. Serum bicarbonate is decreased in = metabolic acidosis
164. In hemolytic jaundice there will be increase = indirect bilirubin
165. Chronic deficiency in dietary calcium can lead to = osteoporosis.
166. Acid base balance is regulated by = hydrogen ion concentration.
167. A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergerncy Room suffering from
drowsiness, 3 days vomitin and abdominal pain. Her breathing was rapid and has
a distinctive smell.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Ketoacidosis
168. A laboratory technologist received an amniotic fluid sample, the sample had
a dark yellow color.
Which of the following is the most likely cause? Presence of bilirubin
169. A 40-year-old woman serum sample showed very high albumin level. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Dehydration
170. Which liver function test is elevated first as a result of bile duct obstructions
= Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
171. A 50-year-old man admitted to a hospital suffering from strong chest pain,
with normal ECG. The doctor suspected acute myocardial infraction (AMI).
Which of the following tests is specific for confirming the diagnosis? Troponin T
172. Which one of the following is the primary screening test for congenital
hypothyroidism = Serum TSH
173. A patient's urinalysis result shows positive bilirubin and decreased
urobilinogen level. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis = Biliary
Obstruction
174. Which one of the following tumor markers is used mostly to help in the
diagnosis of colon cancer = CEA

175. A 57-year-old man presented to oncology clinic. He complained of
abdominal pain and rectum bleeding. Family history revealed a death of his father
due to colorectal cancer.
Oncologist requested abdominal CT and routine laboratory tests. Which of the
following genes is recommended to help in diagnosis = KRAS/BRAF
176. A 35-year-old woman complains of irritability, heat intolerance, muscle
aches, diarrhoea and palpitation (see lab results).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Primary hyperthyroidism
177. A 65-year-old man complains from bone pain and unexplained fractures. His
doctor ordered protein electrophoresis. See the pattern of serum protein
electrophoresis in Figure (A).
Which one of the following conditions explains the pattern of electrophoresis?

Monoclonal Gammopathy

178. A 50-year-old woman was admitted to the Emergency room with high level
of anti- diuretic hormone (ADH).
Which of the following is most likely associated with the patient's condition ?
Hyponatremia
179. A 45-year-old man presents to the hospital with acute asthmatic attack. His
arterial blood gas tests were indicated below (see lab result)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis = Respiratory alkalosis.
180. A 45-year-old man is presented to the clinic. Laboratory investigation

revealed autoantibodies against Thyroglobulin and Thyroid Peroxidase, which was
confirmed by Immunofluorescence and ELISA (see lab results).
Which of the following is most likely the clinical condition = Hashimoto's thyroiditis
181. What is the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis = Heparin

182. If a blood gas specimen is left exposed to air, which of the following changes
will occur?
A. PO2 and pH increase; PCO2 decreases
B. PO2 and pH decrease; PCO2 increases
C. PO2 increases; pH and PCO2 decrease
D. PO2 decreases; pH and PCO2 increase
183. How would blood gas parameters change if a sealed specimen is left at room
temperature for 2 or more hours?
A. PO2 increases, PCO2 increases, pH increases
B. PO2 decreases, PCO2 decreases, pH decreases
C. PO2 decreases, PCO2 increases, pH decreases
D. PO2 increases, PCO2 increases, pH decreases
184. A 24-year-old drug abuser is brought into the emergency department

unconscious. He has shallow breaths looks pale and is "clammy"
Blood gases show the following results: pH= 7.29, PCO2= 50 m HCO3-= 25
mmol/L
What condition is indicated by these results = respiratory acidosis,
uncompensated

Immunology and serology
1. The optimum temperature of complement fixation test (CFT) is =56 C°

2. Confirmatory test for VDRL = Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-
ABS).
3. CD markers for T lymphocytes = CD3, CD4.
4. Chemical movement of neutrophil called = Chemotaxis
5. Liver macrophage is called = Kupffer cell.
6. Macrophage of which organ responsible of elimination of bacteria = Liver and
spleen.
7. Protein produced by activated macrophages = Interleukins.
8. Administration of intravenous penicillin, then rashes and fever, caused by = IgE
9. Patient with dry mouth and gritty feeling eyes, high ANA, anti SS Abs, caused by
= Sjogren syndrome.
10. Influenza virus attached to epithelial cells by = Heamagglutinin.
11. Principle of ELISA = Antigen-Antibody complex
12. Type 4 hypersensitivity = delayed hypersensitivity take 24-72 hours (days).
13. Positive ANA, anti-dsDNA = SLE.
14. Test for monitoring of HIV = CD4 count
15. RT-PCR = produce DNA from RNA
16. Maturation of B lymphocyte = In bone marrow
17. Maturation of T lymphocyte = In thymus gland
18. Organ produce T lymphocyte = Bone marrow
19. Type 1 hypersensitivity = IgE
20. Serology of hepatitis = See blood bank ppt
21. Complete the template for AAGCA = For DNA: TTCGTA For RNA: UUCGUA
22. Predominant complement = C3, C3b
23. Positive ANA and positive RF = SLE
24. Innate immunity cell = Neutrophil, monocyte, basophil, eosinophil, macrophage,
dendritic cell
25. C3 cleaved by = C3 convertase.
26. . Fc receptor = fragment crystallizable receptor, found on many cell surfaces like
(phagocytic cells), bind the Fc portion (C-terminal domain) of antibody heavy
chain (complement and opsonization, phagocytosis, ADCC).
27. Cytotoxic lymphocyte critical in innate immunity = Natural killer cell (NK cell).
28. Name of IgM structure = Pentameric
29. Ig with highest concentration = IgG
30. Ag binding site of Ab is called = Fab (paratop).
31. Transplantation of cartilage from one to another = Allograft transplantation

32. Catalyze the proteolytic cleavage of C3 into C3a and C3b = C3 convertase
33. Pentameric Ab = IgM
34. Ab of secondary response = IgG
35. Ab of the primary and first response = IgM
36. Last step in ELISA = Stop solution or add substrate
37. RF marker in autoimmune disease = Rheumatoid arthritis
38. Amount of T cell of whole blood = 80%.
39. T-helper cell marker = CD4
40. Case: a woman came with joint pain and deformity when she stood up what test
should be done? = Rheumatoid Factor (RF)
41. PCR for HIV = RNA amplification
42. Women with first child and has a cat…..? = Toxoplasmosis
43. CD marker during the first stage of T cell = CD2
44. IgE = allergic
45. class II MHC = APCs (Macrophage)
46. confirmatory test for HIV = westernblot
47. Syphilis confirmatory test = FTA-Abs “fluorescent treponemal antibody
absorption” to determine presence of antibodies to Treponema pallidum bacteria.
MHA-TP” Micro-hemagglutination assay”.
48. HCV = Hemagglutination assay.
49. Ig cross the blacenta = IgG
50. The first serologic marker to appear in patients with acute hepatitis B virus
infection is:
A. Anti-HB
B. Anti-HBc
C. Anti-HBe
D. HBsAg
51. antibody (specific) or present in lupus erythematosus = anti ds DAN
52. Conformity test for HCV = RIBA
53. conformity test Varicella zoster virus = PCR
54. NK is = innate immunity
55. Which immunoglobulin has the shortest half-life = IgE
56. What is xenograft mean = The term xenograft refers to a tissue or organ that is
derived from a species that is different from the recipient of the specimen
57. mother has IgG ab because infected when her pregnancy, after delivery the baby
has heart murmur, which of the following is right about this case = Mother
rubella IgG, baby rubella IgM.
58. Technique use to Antibody screening = IAT
59. IAT define = In vitro sensitization.

60. In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), the visible reaction is due to a
reaction between = Enzyme and substrate
61. Which of the following serologic tests ism commonly performed by an
immunofluorescence method = Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
62. Butterfly rash = SLE
63. CD4:CD8 ratio seen in = immunosuppressive (HIV)
64. what the cells involved in HLA class II = Dendritic cells, macrophages and B-cells
are known as professional antigen-presenting cells (APC), CD4 T helper cells.
65. Sandwich elisa = detection of Ag
66. Antibody against different species = xeno antibody
67. ANA, AMA and ASMA are markers for = Autoimmunity “SLE”
68. Amount of T cell of whole lymphocytes in whole blood = 80%
69. What Causes the reaction in GVHD? = cytotoxic T- cell (CD8)
70. What to give patients to avoid GVHD? =Irradiated blood
71. What is the nature of Monoclonal Antibody used in DAT = IMural Igg
72. mmunized individuals against HBV by vaccine should show. = ( - )Anti-Hbc, ( +
)anti-HBs
73. Immunoglobulin seen in tears and mother milk = IgA
74. What type of tube do you use in serology? = plain
75. - Which HIV sample won't cause transmission = Urine
76. Last step in ELISA? = add substrate
77. Smallest amount can cause death = Poison
78. Hiv confirm test = western blot
79. The basic principle of flow cytometry = is the passage of cells in a single file in
front of a laser so they can be detected, counted and sorted. Cell components are
fluorescently labelled and then excited by the laser to emit light at varying
wavelengths
80. Butterfly skin rash = SLE
81. BM transplant must avoid = GVHD
82. Cytogenetic used to diagnose = CML
83. Inflammation? C-reactive protein
84. Affinity - strength between epitope and paratope
85. Avidity- overall strength between antigen and antibody complex
86. TORCH = Toxoplasmosis-others-Rubella-cytomegalovirus-herpes
87. RBR test ? Syphilis
88. case for GVHD = HLA
89. what is seen under dark-field microscopy = Syphilis

90. The major lg expressed on B-cell surface is = IgD.
91. The predominant Ig in body secretion: (PLO K3) = IgA.
92. Antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of = group A streptococcu
93. Autograft: Transfer of tissue from one site to another within an individual.
94. Isograft (syngraft): Transfer of tissue between genetically identical individuals.
95. Allograft: Transfer of tissue between two genetically nonidentical individuals of
the same species.
96. Xenograft: Transfer of tissue between two individuals of different species.
97. Dimer Ig = IgA.
98. indicates standard PCR steps = Denaturation, annealing and extension.
99. immunoglobulin increase in allergy = IgE.
100. A 3-year-old child was re-admitted to the hospital 7 days after being
diagnosed and treated for rheumatic fever by intravenous penicillin. The clinical
examination revealed generalized rash and mild fever. What is the most likely
cause of these signs = lgE antibody

Hematology.
1. Auer rods found in which type of leukemia = Acute myeloid leukemia (AML).
2. Bleeding after dental extraction, factor assay shows factor VIII deficiency,
prolonged APTT, normal PT and normal PLTs count, what is the diagnosis =
Hemophilia A.
3. Medication act as vitamin K antagonist = Warfarin.
4. Test used for differentiation = Mixing studies.
5. Test used to differentiate von Willebrand disease from hemophilia = Bleeding
time (vWF low).
6. Peripheral smear shows rouleaux formation, caused by = Multiple myeloma
(MM).
7. Howell-jolly bodies seen in = Hemolytic anemia, splenectomy, megaloblastic
anemia.
8. Type of G6PD anemia = Hemolytic anemia.
9. The part in reticulocyte that stained with new methylene blue is = RNA.
10. Type of WBCs elevated in E. vermicularis infection = Eosinophils.
11. Mutation in polycythemia vera and essential thrombocythemia = JAK2 V617F.
12. Mutation in CML = t(9:22).
13. Anticoagulant cause pseudothrombocytopenia = EDTA.
14. Lab finding of TTP= Low PLTs count.
15. Sever menorrhagia, with low PLTs and normal PT, APTT = Von Willebrand
disease.
16. Hb-electrophoresis shows normal HbA and high HbA2 = Thalassemia minor.
17. Stain for reticulocytes count = Supravital stain (new methylene blue).
18. HIV, BBV, sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait, for donation = Sickle trait.
19. Abnormal chromosome of CML = Philadelphia chromosome.
20. Best test for IDA = ferritin.
21. Cause low ESR = Low fibrinogen.
22. PT: 20 sec, APTT: 50 sec, TT: 18 sec = Hypofibrinogenemia.
23. Cause false positive DAT = Clotted sample.
24. PT & APTT in polycythemia patient = Prolonged.
25. Factor X deficiency = Prolonged PT & APTT.
26. Factor not measured by PT & APTT = Factor XIII.
27. Prolonged PT, given IV vitamin K. the PT corrects to normal after 24 hrs. =
Obstructive jaundice.

28. A prolonged APTT is corrected with factor VIII deficient plasma but not with
factor IX deficient plasma, the deficiency factor is = Factor IX.
29. PT: prolonged, APTT: prolonged, low PLTs count = DIC
30. Predisposing factor for DIC = Adenocarcinoma. Factor XII deficiency associated
with = Increased risk of thrombosis.
31. In factor VIII assay a patient plasma is mixed with = Factor VIII deficient plasma.
32. Protein of primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system = Alpha 2-antiplasmin.
33. Plasminogen deficiency associated with = Thrombosis
34. After birth baby develops petechiae and pupura and hemorrhagic, PLTs count was
18 x 10 ˆ9/L, diagnosis = Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia.
35. Normal PT and prolonged APTT, increased bleeding time and normal platelet
count, with abnormal platelet aggregation to ristocetin = Von Willebrand disease.
36. Which ration of anticoagulant to blood is correct for coagulation procedures =
1:9.
37. Function of vitamin K in coagulation = Required for carboxylation of glutamate
residues of some coagulation factors.
38. The APTT is sensitive to deficiency of: VII, X, PF3 or calcium = Factor X
39. Test for heparin monitoring = APTT.
40. Anticoagulant in PT = Warfarin
41. INR for = PT
42. Define MCV = Measure of average volume of RBC
43. Heinz bodies seen in = G6PD anemia
44. Coomb contro = Coomb cells (RBCs coated wit IgG)
45. Hematoxylin stains = The nucleus
46. Hemophilia A caused by = Deficiency of factor VIII
47. Life span of RBCs = 120 days
48. Kleihauer-betke test = Pink RBCs of fetus, colorless RBCs of mother
49. Reed Sternberg cell found in = Hodgkin lymphoma
50. Bence jonse protein found in = Multiple myeloma
51. Concentration of Na citrate for coagulation studies = 3.2%
52. Cell in parasitic infection = Eosinophil
53. Cell in bacterial infection = Neutrophil
54. Nucleated RBCs found in = Hemolytic anemia ad megaloblastic anemia
55. Anemia with thrombocytopenia = Megaloblastic anemia and aplastic anemia
56. G6PD anemia type of which anemia = Hemolytic anemia
57. How to differentiate HbSS from HbAS = By Hb-electrophoresis
58. Howell-jolly bodies found in = Splenectomy
59. Normal Hb and normal MCV = Normocytic normochromic RBCs
60. Protein S is cofactor for = Protein C
61. Differentiate fibrinogenolysis from DIC = D-dimer positive

62. Method for leukemia diagnosis = Flow cytometry, bone marrow aspiration and
biopsy, cytogenetics (FISH, PCR), immunohistochemistry, CBC, blood films, MRI
63. Unfractionated heparin controlled by = APTT
64. Iron deficiency anemia features = Microcytosis (microcytic hypochromic anemia)
65. Philadelphia chromosome seen in = Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
66. Normal results of PT, PTT what factor is deficient = Factor XIII
67. X-linked diseases = Hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency), Hemophilia B (factor IX
deficiency), Note!! Hemophilia C is autosomal recessive (factor XI deficiency)
68. Predominant WBCs = Neutrophil
69. B12 deficiency anemia = Megaloblastic anemia
70. Hypersegmented neutrophil seen in? = Megaloblastic anemia
71. Test for differentiate between alpha and beta thalassemia = Hb- electrophoresis
72. Organ produce erythropoietin? = Kidney
73. Coagulation studies tube? = Sodium citrate (Na citrate)
74. Value of MCV in macrocytic anemia = high
75. Beta thalassemia major which elevated Hb = Hb F
76. abnormal hemoglobin in alpha thalassemia? = Hb Bart, Hb H
77. Sickle solubility test depend on? = HbS
78. Reticulocytosis seen in = Hemolytic anemia, hemorrhage, blood loss, leukemia,
sickle cell anemia, autimmunehemolytic anemia, treatment of vit. B12, IDA, folate
deficiency
79. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) caused by? = Anti-P
80. Patient with bleeding, give? = Platelets, coagulation factors
81. Anisocytosis = High RDW.
82. Alpha 2 anti-plasmin = Rapid inhibitor of plasmin.
83. Plasmin function = Fibrinolysis, removing of fibrin deposits (lysis of the clot),
production of fibrinogen degradation products D-dimer.
84. Type of leukemia associated with basophilia = CML
85. Contact coagulation factor = XII, PK, HMWK
86. Heinz body = Denatured Hb.
87. Glanzmann disease = Defect in platelets aggregation
88. Normal Hb, normal MCV = Normocytic/normochromic RBCs
89. Vegetarian with ovalocytes and target cells, what extra abnormality =
Hypersegmentd neutrophil.
90. Patient treated with heparin, this test is prolonged = APTT
91. CLL marker = CD5, CD19, CD23
92. Bernard soulier syndrome = Presence of giant platelets

93. Neutrophil = Phagocytosis (opsonization), chemotaxis
94. .Function of vWF = Binds the GbIb, GbIIb/IIIa of platelets to promote adhesion,
carrier and stabilizer for VIII
95. Positive D-dimer = DIC
96. Parameter use for measuring the erythropoiesis = Reticulocyte
97. Lupus anticoagulant associated with = Prolonged APTT
98. 3 alpha gene are missing = Hb-H disease
99. Confirmatory test for pheochromocytoma = Catecholamine in urine.
100. Correct about PT = stable for 24 h if capped.
101. Presence of Bence jones protein is urine indicate = Multiple myeloma
102. Reticulocyte contain residue? = RNA
103. Stain for Reticulocyte = supravital stain
104. Erythropoietin secreted from = kidney
105. Giemsa stain for = cells (WBCs, RBCs, Plts)
106. Prussian Blue stain for = iron
107. Normal PT and PTT with high bleeding = Deficiency factor XIII
108. Reuleaux formation is in what disease = Multiple Myeloma
109. Stain for G6PD = Supervital stain
110. Hematoxylin base dye to stain = Nucleic acid
111. Percentage of anticoagulant in sodium citrate tube = 3.2 %.
112. bites cell seen in = G6PD anemia
113. which factors activated by thrombin = factors V, VIII and XI, X
114. case women with high reticulocyte = Acute blood loss.
115. increase osmatic fragility in = hereditary spherocytosis cell
116. WBC histogram =

117. RBC life span = 120 days
118. Lavender tube = EDTA
119. CD marker for stem cells = CD 34
120. How does flow cytometry detect leukemia = By combining monoclonal
antibodies with flow cytometry, researchers are able to identify tumor antigens for
diagnostic and treatment purposes
121. What is the risk for children having sickle cell anaemia when both parents
carry the sickle cell trait?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
122. MCV = Mean corpuscular volume measure the size and volume of RBCs
123. CD AML = CD33
124. How differentiate between leukemia types = Flow cytometry
125. when patient infected by bacterial meningitis which WBCs can see more than
other WBCs = Neutrophils
126. What is CD marker don’t detect in hairy cell = CD5
127. Polycythemia vera mutations = Jak 2
128. Bence Jones protein indicated = Multiple myeloma test.
129. Protein S = Co factor for protein C.
130. The question of the CBC sample has cold agglutination, what is the
procedure that we take to treat it = warming tube to 37°C and washing red cell
can disappea agglutination.

131. False decrease ESR =
132. CD marker for CLL = CD 5, CD23, CD19, CD 20 positive

133. Reticulocyte elevated in = Hemolytic Anemia
134. Vitamin K dependant = 1972
135. hemophilia man married to normal woman = carrier female
136. PT = extrinsic pathway
137. G6PD in blood smear = bite cell
138. Vitamin B12 deficiency = Megaloblastic anemia + hyper segmented
neutrophil
139. Philadelphia chromosome= in CML
140. Case: hb high, wbc high, platelets high = JAK 617F mutation
141. APTT: N / PT: N / TT: prolonged what is the most probable factor = I
142. Aptt prolonged what's the next step? = Mixing study
143. Vit K deficiency what is the affected factor = II, VII, X, IX
144. Case: patient who is a vegetarian had fatigue. Blood smear showed
ovalocytes and target cells. What should be seen in blood smear? =
hypersegmented neutrophil
145. What is howell jolly body composed of = DNA
146. What is heinz body composed of = denatured Hb
147. Auer rods found in = Myeloblasts (AML)
148. Christmas disease = APTT prolonged, PT N, BT N
149. Basophilic stippling = RNA granules

150. Pelger-Huet anomaly (PHA) = inherited blood condition. nuclei of several
types of white blood have unusual shape (bilobed, peanut or dumbbell-shaped
151. What condition is suitable for blood transfusion = aplastic anemia
152. The APTT is sensitive to a deficiency of which clotting factor = Factor X
153. The following results were obtained on a patient: normal platelet count and
function, normal PT, and prolonged APTT. Which of the following disorders is
most consistent with these results =? Hemophilia A
154. In IDA, what would most likely be seen? = pencil cell
155. Lupus anticoagulant = Prolonged APTT
156. Increase osmotic fragility ? Hereditary spherocytosis
157. stain for amyloid = Congo red
158. concentration of Sodium Citrate in coagulation test? 3.2%
159. IDA = low serum iron , low ferritin , high TIBC
160. Symptom of G6PD = Favism.
161. CD marker for hairy cell leukemia = positive for CD103, CD11c. and CD25;
and usually negative for CD5, CD10, and CD23.
162. Philadelphia chromosome = CML.
163. Flow cytometry for = CD MARKER.
164. Hemophilia A = Factor vlll
165. Adult hemoglobin = A
166. Which inclusion we see in sideroblastic anemia = Pappenheimers bodies
167. Which Hb increase in minor thalassemia = A2
168. Overfilled sample for NIR test = reject and order new sample.
169. Case iron deficiency = low iron, frettin, high TIBC.
170. Case AML contain all CD marker (CD 7 118 13 14 15 16 33 34 117) with
increased monocyte = AML maturation.
171.

172. lupus anticoagulant test = dRVVT “Diluted Russell Viper Venom Time”.
173. Some patient’s platelets clump in EDTA, or satellite, making platelet counts
falsely low. How should this be correct = Use sodium citrate tub.
174. MCV = average size RBC
175. Hematocrit are measures of red cell mass
176. The most common form of leukemia in children = acute lymphoblastic
leukemia
177. Leukocytosis characterized by the presence of immature cells and high
neutrophil alkaline phosphatase = Leukemoid reaction
178. A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic proliferation of immature
white cell precursor = acute leukemia.
179. Variation in red cells size = Anisocytosis.
180. Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of = found in viral infections like
mononucleosis, cytomegalovirus infections and hepatitis B.
181. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to differentiate
between sickle cell disease (Hbss) from sickle cel trait (HbAS)? Hemoglobin
electrophoresis
182. A 27-year-old man presented with prolonged bleeding after dental
extractions. The patient was taking no medication. His records showed that he
had low percentage of factor VIll while was normal for other coagulation factors
(see lab result).
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Hemophilia A

183. Which of the following acts as Vitamin K antagonist = Warfarin
184. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate to differentiate
between factor deficiencies and presence of inhibitors = Mixing studies
185. What is the test to differentiate von Willebrand disease from hemophilia A
= Bleeding time.

186. Which of the following inclusions is associated with intake of certain
medications such as dapsone and salazopyrin = Heinz-bodies
187. Which of the following anemias is associated with G6PD deficiency =
Hemolytic
188. Which of the following conditions is associated with gross rouleaux
formation in a peripheral blood smear = Multiple myeloma
189. Which of the following conditions is associated with Howell-Jolly Bodies
= Splenectomy and splenic atrophy.
190. Which of the following parts of reticulocyte is stained with new methylene
blue = RNA.
191. A 6-year-old girl presented to Emergency Room with a complaint of
recurrent perianal itching and abdominal pain. History revealed that she has
received treatment for pinworm infestation. The examination is unremarkable (see
lab results).
Which of the following types of white blood cellsis likely to be elevated =

Eosinophils.

192. A 15-year-old girl presented with active, severe menorrhagia with first
period. She had a history of recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising (see lab result).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis = Von Willebrand disease.
193. Some patient’s platelets clump in EDTA, or satellite, making platelet counts
falsely low. How should this be correct?
A. Mix the sample
B. Warm the sample
C. Do manual count
D. Use sodium citrate tub
194. What are the maximum numbers of hour that can be used to leave blood
samples on the bench before centrifugation = 2

Histopathology.
1. Function of microtome = Produce sections (cutting).

2. Histopathology, sample gross examination (Grossing) done by = Pathologists.
3. Histopathology, a section of liver found on a section of lung = Un clean surface
cut area.
4. Sample received in histopathology with request but no label, what is the proper
action = Reject the sample.
5. Routine fixative of histopathology = 10% buffered formalin.
6. The specimens of histopathology are discarded after = 1 month.
7. Cell blocks = Micro biopsies embedded in paraffin wax for cytology specimens,
small tissue fragments from fine needle aspiration (FNA),
8. Special stain for stomach = PAS
9. Melting point of paraffin wax = 56 C ±2
10. Tissue processing machine depend on = Solution viscosity, agitation, heat, vacume
& pressure
11. The proper thickness of tissue = 2 – 4 mm, 3 – 5 micron
12. Tissue infiltration is done by = Paraffin wax, resin, agar, gelatin, celloidin
13. Frozen section with holes, clefts and vacuoles = It's an ice artifacts (water), due to
the slow freezing of tissue, the solution is: freeze fast (flash/snap)
14. Special stains for fungi (histopathology) = Grocott (methanmine) silver (GMS) or
Periodic acid Schiff (PAS).
15. Storage of positive cytological specimen = For 10 years for glass slides, 30 years
for paraffin wax blocks
16. Embedding done by = Filling of tissue with paraffin wax, using a suitable size of
mould or tissue cassettes
17. Tissue cassette not closed = Cut the tissue into a proper size
18. Fat stain = Oil red O in histopathology section
19. Dehydration of tissue is done by = Alcohol
20. feulgen stain for = DNA
21. Gomori blue trichrome stain = connective tissues

22. block preparation =
23. device use to cutting block in histology lab = Microtome Hemolytic

24. the commonly used fixative for preparation of frozen section is = Alcohol 95%
25. embedding temperature is = 40-70 C
26. Frozen section = -20--30°c
27. Sample for frozen section = Should be fresh
28. Scattered measure = Size and volume
29. Slides and blocks in Histo are saved for how many years = 10years
30. Histology save sample in = formalin %10
31. Cytological fixative = ethanol ethel alcohol 95%
32. In which step does pathologist explain and cuts the tissue = grossing
33. Cytology slide = 5 years
34. histology slide = 10 years
35. When we are cutting the block, the section has problems = problem in the blade
36. Modified pap smear stain = lung metastasis70
37. What color of the disposable bag are we supposed to use in the histology lab =
Red
38. Histological sample with slightly erased label, what is the most important thing to
be visible = Patient name and site of origin
39. Tissue slide, air bubbles? = Slow frozen
40. What should we do if we receive a skin biopsy in saline? Reject
41. specimens of histopathology are discarded after = 30 days
42. cytology samples kept at = room temperature
43. Clearing in histology➔ xylene, Toluene, chloroform
44. Tissue dissolved in water bath = bath water is hot

45. Histo slide = 37 C
46. Tissue processing steps: Dehydration, clearing, infiltration and Embedding
47. Steps of histo = clearing by xylene, fixation formalin, dehydration alcohol,
infiltration paraffin
48. Fixationn for cyto = 95% ethanol
49. Embedding = is the process in which the tissues or the specimens are enclosed in a
mass of the embedding medium using a mould.
50. The ratio of formalin to tissue = 1:10
51. The very important microtome uses in histopathology = Rotary.
52. The better fixation = Formalin
53. Frozn secation are performed with an instrument called = Cryostat.
54. Embedding temperature is = 40-70 C.
55. The most dangerous sample we deal with in grossing = Placenta
56. Explosive reagent? Picric acid
57. Amobea? Iodine eson blue.
58. Breast tissue IHC slide stain was positive on the edges and negative in the middle.
The pathologist rejected it and requested a new sample. What is the problem =
Over fixation.
59. Pale nucleus in H&E = Over differentiation.
60. Hematoxylin to stain = nucleus.
61. Eosin to stain = cytoplasm.
62. FUNGE stain 37 C: Grocott (methanmine) silver (GMS) stain or Periodic acid-
Schiff (PAS).
63. Naplion stain use for = nucleus.
64. Semen stain = Eosin nigrosen.
65. stain for amyloid = Congo red
66. Stain of AUER RODS = myeloperoxidase.
67. The very important microtome uses in histopathology = Rotary.
68. The better fixation = Formalin
69. Embbeding ? Paraffin wax.
70. Masson trichrom stain= Collagen. .
71. Frozn secation are performed with an instrument called = Cryostat.
72. Sudan black for = Lipid.
73. Oil red o for = FAT.
74. Sprem stain = Eosin nigrosin.
75. Enough time for fixative of cyto slides = 15-20 min.
76. Technologist want to process sample and it is dry what he do = immerse in
formaldehyde then process it, immerse in alcohol then methanol.
77. tissue on slide in histo turned to brown what the effect of ph here = low ph

78. technologist want to process sample and it is dry what he do = immerse in
formaldehyde then process it.
79. Histo sample —> 30 day
80. Histo slide—> 10 years
81. Histo block—> 10 years
82. Cyto sample—> 30 day
83. Cyto slide—> 5 years
84. Cuto block—> 10 years
85. FNA—> 10 years
86. Wet sample —> 14 days
87. Gross examination isa critical step in a histopathology laboratory.
Which of the following individuals is responsible for grossing tissue specimens in
histopathology laboratories = Pathologist

Pictures and calculations

Babisea myeloblast
Schistocyte Sickle Cell
Basophiling stippling histoplasma capsulatum

Microsporum

Macroconidia Triple phosphate
Pinworm Trichomonas vaginalis
Malsseza furfur Arthroconidia

Yeast in urine Calcium oxalate
Target cells Stomatocytes

Rule R4s
Mucour
Diphtheria (Chinese letters)

Band neutrophil Reactive lymph
Echinococcus granulosus: (hydatid)
Cystoisospora belli

Leishmania Trypansoma
Gardnerella vaginalis Microfilariae bancrofti
Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells Hairy cell

PLATELETS CLUMPS Neutrophils
Basophils Fiber
Fecal Material and Oil Artifacts

Dust mite in urine White blood cell casts.
Aspergillus Sporothrix
Hydrolysis reaction in heroin

Pollen
Summary for cast
Dohle bodies

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‫أسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬

You can contact me at Twitter: Haya_lab

1. Pre-analytical variable in laboratory test includes?

b. report delivery to the ordering physician

c. test turnaround time

2. Which of the following is NOT a potential source of post-analytical errors?

a. excessive delay in reporting or retrieving a test result

b. interpretation of the test

c. verbal notification if test result

d. labeling the specimen at the nurses' station

3. A Pre-analytical error can be introduced by:

a. draining a coagulation tube before an EDTA tube

b. mixing an EDTA tube 8-10 times

c. transporting the specimen in a biohazard bag

d. vigorously shaking blood in the tube to prevent clotting

d. the age of the patient

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a. specimen collected in the wrong container

c. QNS, hemolyzed or lipemic specimens

d. all of the above

6. Which of the following statements about analytical errors is true?

a. analytical laboratory errors are easy for ordering provider to detect

b. analytical errors almost never happen in a CLIA accredited laboratory

c. analytical errors are not obivous to providers

d. analytical errors can be caused by poor patient preparation

7. Laboratories should monitor and track pre-analytical indicators of quality to develope

a. pre-testing dilution errors

b. rate of calibration failures

c. compliance with PPE in the laboratory

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b. analysis system should be checked for a deteriorating component

c. analysis system should be checked for a change in reagent lot number

a. reports the results without any other action

b. run a new set of controls

c. run a new set or controls and repeat specimens

d. recalibrate instrument and run controls

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a. inventory management, instrument selection, quality control plan

b. assessment of pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical

c. quality control plan, quality assessment, and quality improvement

d. risk assessment, quality control plan, quality assessment

13. A delta check is a method that:

a. determines the mean and variance of an instrument

b. monitors the testing system for precision

c. monitors patient samples day to day

d. is determined by each laboratory facility

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a. communication of critical results

c. trending of instrument problems

d. reconciliation of lab orders and results in the medical record

15. CAP requires refrigerator temperatures to be recorded:

16. An individualized quality control plan (IQCP) does not require:

b. revalidation of test performance

c. quality control plan

17. A quality management system (QMS) is a system for designing, implementing,

a. for newly hired, transferred or promoted personnel

b. when new testing platforms are implemented

c. when there is a change in the medical director of the lab

d. when an employee demonstrates repeated performance issues