SST Booklet

1 ExpHub 9th & 10th-an initiative by your Prashant Bhaiya
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INDEX
HISTORY
Chapter 1: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
Chapter 2 : Nationalism in India
Chapter 3 : The Making of a Global World
Chapter 4 : The Age of Industrialization
Chapter 5 : Print Culture and the Modern World
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Chapter 6 : Power-sharing
Chapter 7 : Federalism
Chapter 8 : Gender, Religion and Caste
Chapter 9 : Political Parties

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Chapter 10 : Outcomes of Democracy
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ECONOMICS
Chapter 11 : Development
Chapter 12 : Sectors of the Indian Economy

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Chapter 13 : Money and Credit
Chapter 14 : Globalization and the Indian Economy
GEOGRAPHY
Chapter 15 : Resources and Development
Chapter 16 : Forest and Wildlife Resources
Chapter 17 : Water Resources
Chapter 18: Agriculture
Chapter 19: Minerals and Energy Resources
Chapter 20: Manufacturing Industries
Chapter 21 : Lifelines of National Economy

THE RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE
MOST EXPECTED MCQ QUESTIONS
1. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of occurrence:

(i) Unification of Italy
(ii) Greek struggle for independence
(iii) Vienna Peace Settlement
(iv) Napoleon invades Italy
nation:
(a) Treaty of Versailles
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2. This treaty of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent
(b) Treaty of Paris

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(c) Treaty of Vienna
(d) Treaty of Constantinopole
3. The term das volk means:

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(a) Common people

(b) German philosopher
(c) Folk dance
(d) Folk poetry
4. He had sought to put together a coherent programme for a Unitary Italian

Republic:
(a) King Victor Emmanuel II
(b) Kaiser William I
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) Chief Minister Cavour
5. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following aspect best signifies the above image?

(a) Romanticism
(b) Conservatism
(c) Federalism
(d) Feminism
6. Which among the following best signifies the idea of liberal nationalism of
nineteenth century Europe?
(a) Emphasis on social justice
(b) State planned socio-economic system
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(c)Freedom for individual and equality before law

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(d) Supremacy of State oriented
nationalism.
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7. Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of

nationalism? [Board Question]
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) Glorious Revolution
(d) The Revolution of the liberals
8. The Civil Code of 1804 is usually known as:

(a) Code of Conduct
(b) Napoleonic Code
(c) Das volk
(d) Treaty of Versailles
9. Unification of Italy took place between :

(a) 1859–1870
(b) 1866–1871
(c) 1814–1815
(d) 1859–1905
10. Unification of Germany took place between:

(a) 1814–1815
(b) 1821–1848
(c) 1866–1871
(d) 1797–1905
11. What did the idea of le citoyen signify in the French Revolution?
(a) The motherland
(b) The fatherland
(c) The citizens
(d) The community
national unification of Prussia:

(a) Kaiser William I
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12. He was the Chief Minister and the chief architect of the movement for
(b) Otto von Bismarck

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(c) Hitler
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini
13. He was proclaimed King of United Italy in 1861:

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(a) Victor Emmanuel II

(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Kaiser William I
(d) Otto von Bismarck
14. Which among the following best signifies the idea of liberal nationalism of
nineteenth century Europe. [Board Question]
(a) Emphasis on social justice
(b) State planned socio-economic system
(c) Freedom for individual and equality before law
(d) Supremacy of State oriented nationalism
15. ‘‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’’. Who among the
following said this popular line ? [Board Question]
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini
(b) Matternich
(c) Otto von Bismarck

(d) Giuseppe Garibaldi
16. Which of the following countries is considered as the ‘Cradle of

civilisation’?
(a) England
(b) Greece
(c) France
(d) Russia
17. In which century nationalism emerged in Europe:

(a) 16th century
(b) 20th century
(c) 19th century
(d) 17th century
and the Protestants?

(a) England
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18. In which part of Great Britain, existed a sharp divide between the Catholics
(b) Scotland
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(c) Ireland
(d) None of these
19. Which of the following statements testifies beliefs of the conservatives?

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(a) Traditional institutions of state and society should be preserved.

(b) Markets should not be controlled by the state.
(c) Autocracy and clerical privileges should be ended.
(d) Monarchy should be abolished.
20. Identify the following and choose the correct option:

(i) It was signed in 1707.
(ii) It was signed between England and Scotland.
(iii) It resulted in the formation of United Kingdom of Great Britain.
(a) Treaty of Constantinople

(b) Treaty of Paris
(c) Act of Union
(d) Treaty of Vienna
Assertion & Reason Type Questions
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason is correct and the Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason is correct but the Reason is not the correct
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
1. Assertion: From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced

various measures and practices like the idea of la patrie and le citoyen.
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Reason: This was done to create a sense of collective identity amongst the
French people.
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2. Assertion: Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms,
duchies and cantons whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
Reason: They were closely bound to each other inspite of their
autonomous rule.
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3. Assertion: The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic

language or wear their national dress, and large numbers were forcibly driven
out of their homeland.
Reason: The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their
dominance over a largely Catholic country.
4. Assertion: Giuseppe Mazzini worked with the conservatives for the

monarchy.
Reason: Italy had to be forged into a single unified republic within a wider
alliance of nations.
5. Assertion: Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the

nation.
Reason: Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors who
supplied raw material and gave them orders for finished textiles but
drastically reduced their payments.
6. Assertion: On 18 May, 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the

Frankfurt parliament.
Reason: The parliament was dominated by the middle class who resisted
the demands of workers and artisans and consequently lost their support.
7. Assertion: Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one was ruled
by an Italian princely house.
Reason: The north was under the domination of the Bourbon kings of
Spain.
CASE BASED ( Competency Based Questions )

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CASE 1:
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The first upheaval took place in France in July 1830. The Bourbon king who had
been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815, were now
overthrown by liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy
with Louis Phillip at its head. ‘When France sneezes’, Metternich once
remarked, ‘the rest of Europe catches cold, ‘The July Revolution sparked an
uprising in Brussels which led to Belgium breaking away from the United
Kingdom of the Netherlands. An event that mobilised nationalist feeling among
the educated elite across Europe was the Greek war of independence. Greek
had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century. The growth
of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence
amongst the Greeks which began in 1821. Poet and artist lauded Greece as the
cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its
struggle against a Muslim empire. The English poet Lord Byron organised funds
and later went to fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824. Finally, the
Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.
(i) Who was the ruler of France at the beginning of the French Revolution ?
(a) Louis Phillipe IV
(b) Louis Phillipe XIII
(c) Louis Phillipe XVI
(d) Louis Phillipe XV
(ii) “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold.” Who marked the
statement?
(a) Louis XVI
(b) Metternich
(c) Rousseau
(d) Karl Marx
(iii) Which incident marked the French Revolution?

(a) February Revolution
(b) April Revolution
(c) July Revolution
(d) October Revolution
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(iv) ………… recognised Greece as an independent nation.
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(a) Treaty of Paris
(b) Treaty of Versailles
(c) Treaty of Constantinople
(d) Treaty of Vienna
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CASE 2:
Source A-Liberal Nationalism
Ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied
to the ideology of liberalism. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root
liber, meaning free. For the new middle classes liberalism stood for freedom
for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasised
the concept of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism
had stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution
and representative government through parliament. Nineteenth century
liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.
Source B- New Conservatism after 1815

Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven

by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional
institutions of state and society — like the monarchy, the Church, social
hierarchies, property and the family — should be preserved. Most
conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-
revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by
Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions
like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and strong. A
modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of
feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.
Source C- Conservative regimes

Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic. They did not tolerate
criticism and dissent, and sought to curb activities that questioned the
legitimacy of autocratic governments. Most of them imposed censorship laws
to control what was said in newspapers, books, plays and songs and reflected
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the ideas of liberty and freedom associated with the French Revolution. The
memory of the French Revolution nonetheless continued to inspire liberals.
One of the major issues taken up by the liberal-nationalists, who criticised the
new conservative order, was freedom of the press.
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Source A-Liberal Nationalism

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(i) What is the literal meaning of ‘liberalism’?
Source B-New Conservatism after 1815
(ii) What was the belief of Conservatives?
Source C-Conservative regimes
(iii)Why Conservative regimes was characterised by the autocrats?
CASE 3:
To be revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical

forms that had been established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for
liberty and freedom. Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of
nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom. One such
individual was the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini, born in Genoa in
1807, he became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. As a young
man of 24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria.
He subsequently founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in
Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berne, whose members were like-
minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and the German states. Mazzini
believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind. So
Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had
to be forged into a single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations.
This unification alone could be the basis of Italian liberty. Following his
model, secret societies were set up in Germany, France, Switzerland and
Poland. Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of
democratic republics frightened the conservatives. Metternich described him
as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’. As conservative regimes
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tried to consolidate their power, liberalism and nationalism came to be
increasingly associated with revolution in many regions of Europe such as the
Italian and German states, the provinces of the Ottoman Empire, Ireland and
Poland. These revolutions were led by the liberal-nationalists belonging to the
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educated middle-class elite, among whom were professors, schoolteachers,
clerks and members of the commercial middle classes. The first upheaval took
place in France in July 1830. The Bourbon kings who had been restored to
power during the conservative reaction after 1815, were now overthrown by
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liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy with Louis

Philippe at its head. ‘When France sneezes’, Metternich once remarked, ‘the
rest of Europe catches cold’. The July Revolution sparked an uprising in
Brussels which led to Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the
Netherlands.
(i) In which place the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was born? Which
secret society was joined by Giuseppe Mazzini?
(ii) What was the basis of Italian unification? When did the First upheaval took
place?
(iii) What is the belief of Mazzini on nation?

SOLUTIONS
Multiple Choice Questions
1.(a) iv-iii-ii-i
2.(d) Treaty of Constantinopole
3.(a) Common people
4.(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
5.(a) Romanticism
6.(d) Supremacy of State oriented nationalism.
7.(a) French Revolution

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8.(b) Napoleonic Code
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9.(a) 1859–1870
10.(c) 1866–1871
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11.(c) The citizens
12.(b) Otto von Bismarck
13.(a) Victor Emmanuel II
14.(c) Freedom for individual and equality before law
15.(b) Matternich
16.(b) Greece
17.(c) 19th century
18.(c) Ireland
19.(a) Traditional institutions of state and society should be preserved.
20.(c) Act of Union
ASSERTION AND REASON
1.(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
Explanation :
The French Revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would
henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny. From the very
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beginning, the French Revolutionaries introduced various measures and
practices that would create a sense of collective identity amongst the French
people. The centralised administrative system was one of the measures taken
for making uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
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2.(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Explanation :
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Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and
cantons whose rulers had their autonomous territories. Diverse people lived
within the territories. They did not share a collective identity or a common
culture. They spoke different languages belonged to different ethnic groups.
There were no close ties binding them.
3.(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
Explanation :
Assertion refers to Scotland and how they suffered because of the long-drawn-
out process. Their culture and political institutions were systematically
suppressed. However, the reason refers to how the Irishmen suffered in the
hands of Englishmen as it was a country deeply divided between the Catholics
and Protestants. It was largely a Catholic country but the Protestants got
support from the English to suppress the Catholic revolts.
4.(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Explanation :
Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic
republics frightened the conservatives. Italy had to be forged into a single
unified republic within a wider alliance of nations. It could not be a patchwork
of small states and kingdoms.
5.(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
Explanation :
Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation: art and
poetry, stories and music helped express and shape nationalist feelings.
6.(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Explanation :
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On 18 May, 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in a festive procession
to take their places in the Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of St.
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Paul. The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one
within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of women had
participated actively over the years.
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7.(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Explanation :
Italy was divided into seven states of which only one, Sardinia Piedmont was
ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs
and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of
Spain.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
CASE 1:
(i) (c) Louis Phillipe XVI.

(ii) (b) Metternich.
(iii) (c) July Revolution.
(iv) (c) Treaty of Constantinople
CASE 2:
(i) The term ‘liberalism’ is derived from the Latin root liber, meaning free.
(ii) Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and

society — like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the
family — should be preserved.
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(iii) Conservative regimes did not tolerate criticism and dissent, and sought to
curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic governments.
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CASE 3:
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(i) The Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was born in Genoa in 1807 AD.
He joined the secret society of the Carbonari.
(ii) The liberty was the basis of Italian unification. The first upheaval took place
in France in July 1830.
(iii) Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of
mankind.
NATIONALISM IN INDIA
1. Mahatma Gandhi organised Satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill

workers in Ahmedabad in :
(a) 1913
(b) 1918
(c) 1919
(d) 1920
(a) 13 April, 1919

(b) 13 April, 1909
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2. Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place on :
(c) 6 April, 1930

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(d) 5 March, 1931
3. Which of the following formed the Khilafat Committee in Bombay?

(a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
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(b) Ali Brothers

(c) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(d) Surendra Nath Banerjee
4. What did the Rowlatt Act, 1919 presume?

(a) Detention of political prisoners without trial
(b) Forced recruitment in the army
(c) Forced manual labour
(d) Equal pay for equal work
5. In which country did Gandhiji develop his method of Satyagraha?

(a) England
(b) India
(c) South Africa
(d) Israel
6. What was the effect of the Non-Cooperation Movement on the plantation

workers in Assam?
(a) They left the plantations and headed home.
(b) They went on strike.
(c) They destroyed the plantations.
(d) None of the above
7. Which one of the following cities is associated with the formation of Khilafat
Committee in the year 1919?
(a) Bombay
(b) Lucknow
(c) Calcutta
(d) Amritsar
8. Which year among the following is associated with return of Mahatma

Gandhi from South Africa to India?
(a) February, 1915
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(b) January, 1916
(c) December, 1915
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(d) January, 1915
9. Who among the following led the Indian workers from Newcastle to
Transvaal?
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(a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) General Dyer
(c) Lord Irwin
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
10. Who among the following gave the idea of Satyagraha to the world?
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Dwarkanath Tagore
11. Identify the place where Mahatma Gandhi went to organize the Satyagraha
Movement amongst Cotton Mill Workers in 1918:
(a) Gorakhpur
(b) Allahabad
(c) Dandi
(d) Ahmedabad
12. In which year Gandhiji decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against

the proposed Rowlatt Act?
(a) 1919
(b) 1917
(c) 1920
(d) 1910
13. Who among the following took command after Martial law was imposed in
India following hartal due to imposing of Rowlatt Act?
(a) General Dyer
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) John Simon
(d) Lord Curzon
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14. After the_______incident, Gandhiji was forced to halt the Non-cooperation
movement.
(a) Chauri Chaura
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(b) Jallianwalla Bagh
(c) Visit of Simon Commission
(d) Salt March
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15. _______is a form of demonstration used in the NonCooperation

Movement in which people block the entrance to a shop, factory or office.
(a) Boycott
(b) Begar
(c) Picketing
(d) Hartal
16. The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in__________.

(a) 1919
(b) 1920
(c) 1921
(d) 1922
17. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, the peasants were not permitted
to :
(a) leave their village
(b) settle in the city

(c) leave their plantation without permission
(d) allow the women to leave farmlands without permission
18. Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from
the options given below:
(a) Congress members wanted to enter in council politics
(b) Congress members wanted to ask for Purna Swaraj for Indians
(c) Congress members wanted to ask for Dominion Status for India
(d) Congress members wanted to oppose Simon Commission
19. Identify the place where demand of Purna Sawaraj was formalized by
Congress session in 1929:
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Lahore
(d) Nagpur ub
20. Which among the following was the main demand of the peasant
movement led by Baba Ramchandra in Awadh ?
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(a) Reduction of revenue
(b) Abolition of begar
(c) Social boycott of oppressive landlords
(d) All of the above
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1. Assertion: In 1917, Gandhiji organised a satyagraha to support the peasants

of the Kheda district of Gujarat.
Reason: The peasants were affected by crop failure and plague epidemic.
They could not pay the revenue and were demanding that revenue collection
be relaxed.
2. Assertion: The Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slowed down for a

variety of reasons in the cities.
Reason: As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding
imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile
mills and handlooms went up.
3. Assertion : The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919.

Reason : The Act allowed detention of political prisoners without trial
for three years.
Congress session in 1919.

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4. Assertion (A): The non-cooperation movement was adopted in Madras
Reason (R): Due to Chauri-Chaura incident, non-cooperation movement

was called-off
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5. Assertion: The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except

Madras.
Reason: In many places, merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign
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goods or finance foreign trade.
6. Assertion: In Awadh, the peasants were led by Alluri Sitaram Raju.

Reason: The movement here was against talukdars and landlords.
7. Assertion: When Simon Commission arrived in India, it was greeted with the
slogan ‘Go back Simon’.
Reason: This happened as Mahatma Gandhi was on Dandi March during
that time.
8. Assertion: Gandhiji entered into Gandhi-Irwin Pact on 5 March 1931.

Reason: Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru were both put in jail, the
Congress was declared illegal, and a series of measures had been imposed to
prevent meetings, demonstrations and boycotts.
9. Assertion: Rich peasants became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil

Disobedience Movement, organising their communities and at times forcing
reluctant members to participate in the boycott programmes.
Reason: However, they were deeply happy when the movement was called
off in 1931 with revenue rates being lowered.
10. Assertion : Provincial autonomy was introduced in the Government of

India Act, 1935.
Reason : The Act itself made a clear-cut division of powers between the
Centre and the Provinces.
11. Assertion : The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-
Cooperation Movement.
Reason : People in the Civil Disobedience Movement were asked not only
to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws.
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12. Assertion: Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a
hymn to the motherland and it was later included in his novel Anandamath and
widely sung during the Swadeshi movement.
Reason: Abanindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata,
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which is portrayed as an ascetic figure, who is calm, composed, divine and
spiritual.
13. Assertion (A): A growing anger against the colonial government was thus
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bringing together various groups and classes of Indians into a common struggle
for freedom in the first half of the twentieth century.
Reason (R): Diverse groups were all tortured by British in one way or the
other.
CASE 1:
In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non Cooperation
Movement. He felt the movement was turning violent in many places and
satyagrahis needed to be properly trained before they would be ready for
mass struggles. Within the Congress, some leaders were by now tired of mass
struggles and wanted to participate in elections to the provincial councils that
had been set up by the Government of India Act of 1919. They felt that it was
important to oppose British policies within the councils, argue for reform and
also demonstrate that these councils were not truly democratic. C.R. Das
and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj Party within the Congress to argue for a
return to council politics. But younger leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and
Subhas Chandra Bose pressed for more radical mass agitation and for full
independence. On 31 January, 1930, Mahatma Gandhi sent a letter to Viceroy
Irwin stating eleven demands. Some of these were of general interest; others
were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants. The
idea was to make the demands wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian
society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a
united campaign. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt
tax. Salt was something consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and it was
one of the most essential items of food. The tax on salt and the government
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monopoly over its production, Mahatma Gandhi declare, revealed the most
oppressive face of British rule.
(i) Which of the following options was the reason for suspension of the Non
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cooperation Movement ?
(a) Chauri-Chaura incident
(b) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(c) Kakori conspiracy case
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(ii) This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement :

(a) Simon Commission
(b) Lahore Congress
(c) Kheda Satyagraha
(d) Dandi March
(iii) In which of the following years the Swaraj Party was formed?
(a) 1929
(b) 1923
(c) 1931
(d) 1932
(iv) ………… and the government monopoly over its production, Mahatma
Gandhi declare, revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.
(a) Tax on cotton

(b) Tax on salt
(c) Tax on crop
(d) Tax on property
CASE 2:
While the Rowlatt Satyagraha had been a widespread movement, it was still
limited mostly to cities and towns. Mahatma Gandhi now felt the need to
launch a more broad-based movement in India. But he was certain that no
such movement could be organised without bringing the Hindus and Muslims
closer together. One way of doing this, he felt, was to take up the Khilafat
issue. The First World War had ended with the defeat of Ottoman Turkey. And
there were rumours that a harsh peace treaty was going to be imposed on the
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Ottoman emperor – the spiritual head of the Islamic world (the Khalifa). To
defend the Khalifa’s temporal powers, a Khilafat Committee was formed in
Bombay in March 1919. A young generation of Muslim leaders like the
brothers Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, began discussing with Mahatma
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Gandhi about the possibility of a united mass action on the issue. Gandhiji saw
this as an opportunity to bring Muslims under the umbrella of a unified
national movement. At the Calcutta session of the Congress in September
1920, he convinced other leaders of the need to start a non-cooperation
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movement in support of Khilafat as well as for Swaraj.
(i) Which of the following was the main objective of Rowlatt Act of 1919?
(a) To curb the growing nationalist up surge in the country (b)
To put control on radical elements.
(c) To put control on Gandhi’s political activities.
(d) To stop Satyagrahis to take part in Non-Cooperation Movement.
(ii) During World War I, Ottoman Empire was the part of:
(a) Allies Powers
(b) Central Powers
(c) Axis Powers
(d) None of these
(iii) Which of the following was the main reason behind

launching of Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) Suppression by the British government.
(b) Defeat of Ottoman Empire in World War I.

(c) Now Gandhiji was popular enough to launch a nationwide movement.
(d) First time both major Indian communities were against the government.
(iv) Find out the incorrect statement from the following:

(a) At the end of World War II, Gandhiji became an important leader in Indian
politics.
(b) Gandhiji toured India with Shaukat Ali to show Hindu-Muslim unity.
(c) In Nagpur session, Gandhiji succeeded to convince the Congress leaders to
support Khilafat issue.
(d) Some of the leaders in Congress were not happy to take Khilafat issue.
CASE 3:
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The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands
of students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and
teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council
elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice
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Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one
way of gaining some power-something that usually only Brahmans had access
to. The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic.
Foreign goods were boycotted. The import of foreign cloth halved between
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1921 and 1922, its value dropping from 102 crore to 57 crore. In many places,
merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign
trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding
(i) Explain the role of ‘Justice Party in boycotting of Councilelections’.
(ii) How was the effect of ‘non-cooperation on the economicfront dramatic’?
(iii) Explain the effect of ‘Boycott Movement on foreign textiletrade’.
CASE 4:
This sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united
struggles. But there were also a variety of cultural processes through which
nationalism captured people’s imagination. History and fiction, folklore and

songs, popular prints and symbols, all played a part in the making of
nationalism. The identity of the nation is most often symbolized in a figure or
image. This helps create an image with which people can identify the nation. It
was in the twentieth century, with the growth of nationalism, that the identity
of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. The
image was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s he
wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. Later it was included in
his novel Anandamath and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in
Bengal. Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Abanindranath Tagore painted his
famous image of Bharat Mata. In this painting Bharat Mata is portrayed as an
ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual. In subsequent years,
the image of Bharat Mata acquired many different forms, as it circulated in
popular prints, and was painted by different artists. Devotion to this mother
figure came to be seen as evidence of one’s nationalism.
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(i) Find out the real meaning of the nationalism from the following:
(a) To mobilize people to make a change in society.
(b) To develop a sense within Indians that British government in not good for
them.
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(c) To ignite the feeling that all Indians are one.
(d) To revive the glory which has been destroyed by colonial rulers.
(ii) Which of the following played important role to ignite feelings of

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nationalism?
(a) Anandmath
(b) Collection of folklore and folktale
(c) Image of Bharat Mata
(iii) The main motive behind the launching of Swadeshi Movement was:
(a) To promote Gandhian idea of self dependency.
(b) To oppose the arrest of nationalists by the government.
(c) To oppose the division of Bengal into two parts.
(d) To promote ‘Vande Mataram’ to unite Indians.
(iv) Which of the following statement is not correct about the image of Bharat
Mata?
(a) The image was drawn by several artists at different times.
(b) Bharat Mata carries same symbols in all images.
(c) French and German allegories inspired to draw the image of Bharat Mata.
(d) Different artists used different symbols to show collective belongings.
CASE 5:
In his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909) Mahatma Gandhi declared that British
rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived
only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in
India would collapse within a year, and swaraj would come. How could non-
cooperation become a movement? Gandhiji proposed that the movement
should unfold in stages. It should begin with the surrender of titles that the
government awarded, and a boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and
legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods. Then, in case the government
used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched.
Through the summer of 1920 Mahatma Gandhi and Shaukat Ali toured
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extensively, mobilising popular support for the movement. Many within the
Congress were, however, concerned about the proposals. They were reluctant
to boycott the council elections scheduled for November 1920, and they
feared that the movement might lead to popular violence. In the months
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between September and December there was an intense tussle within the
Congress. For a while there seemed no meeting point between the supporters
and the opponents of the movement. Finally, at the Congress session at
Nagpur in December 1920, a compromise was worked out and the Non-
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Cooperation programme was adopted. The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat

Movement began in January 1921. Various social groups participated in this
movement, each with its own specific aspiration. All of them responded to the
call of Swaraj, but the term meant different things to different people. The
movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of
students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and
teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council
elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice
Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one
way of gaining some power — something that usually only Brahmans had
access to. The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more
dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign
cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921
and 1922, its value dropping from Rs 102 crore to Rs 57 crore. In many places
merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign
trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding
(i) What was the declaration of Mahatama Gandhi in his famous

book Hind Swaraj (1909 AD)?
(ii) How was the Non-Cooperation movement started?
CASE 6:
In 1930, Sir Muhammad Iqbal, as president of the Muslim League, reiterated
the importance of separate electorates for the Muslims as an important
safeguard for their minority political interests. His statement is supposed to
have provided the intellectual justification for the Pakistan demand that came
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up in subsequent years. This is what he said: I have no hesitation in declaring
that if the principle that the Indian Muslim is entitled to full and free
development on the lines of his own culture and tradition in his own Indian
home lands is recognized as the basis of a permanent communal settlement,
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he will be ready to stake his all for the freedom of India. The principle that
each group is entitled for free development on its own lines is not inspired by
any feeling of narrow communalism. A community which is inspired by
feelings of ill-will towards other communities is low and ignoble. I entertain the
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highest respect for the customs, laws, religions and social institutions of other
communities. Nay, it is my duty according to the teachings of the Quran, even
to defend their places of worship, if need be. Even though I love the communal
group which is the source of life and behavior and which has formed me what I
am by giving me its religion, its literature, it’s thought, its culture and thereby
its whole past as a living operative factor in my present consciousness.
Communalism in its higher aspect, is indispensable to the formation of a
harmonious whole in a country like India. The units of Indian society are not
territorial as in European countries. The principle of European democracy can-
not be applied to India without recognising the fact of communal groups. The
Muslim demand for the separate electorates are contrary to the spirit of true
nationalism, because he understands the word ‘nation’ a kind of universal
amalgamation in which no communal entity ought to retain its private
individuality. Such a state of things, however, does not exist. India is a land of
racial and religious variety. Add to this the general economic inferiority of the
Muslims, their enormous debt, especially in the Punjab, and their insufficient
majorities in some of the provinces, as at present constituted and you will

begin to see clearly the meaning of our anxiety to retain separate electorates.
(i) Do you agree with the Iqbal’s idea of communalism? Can you define
communalism in a different way?
SOLUTIONS
1.(b) 1918
2.(a) 13 April 1919
3.(b) Ali Brothers

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4.(a) Detention of political prisoners without trial
5.(c) South Africa
6.(a) They left the plantations and headed home.

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7.(a) Bombay
8.(d) January, 1915
9.(d) Mahatma Gandhi
10.(b) Mahatma Gandhi
11.(d) Ahmedabad
12.(a) 1919
13.(a) General Dyer
14.(a) Chauri Chaura

15.(c) Picketing
16.(b) 1920
17.(c) Leave their plantation without permission
18.(b) Congress members wanted to ask for Purna Swaraj for Indians
19.(c) Lahore
20.(d) All of the above

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1. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation
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of assertion.
Explanation :
The peasants wanted that their revenue collection be relaxed because they
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were at a complete loss because of the epidemic. Gandhiji came forward and
organized a Satyagraha to provide them with a platform to raise their voice.
2. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
Explanation :
Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth and poor
people could not afford to buy it. Non-Cooperation Movement was gradually
turning violent, some leaders were by now, very tired of mass struggle, that is
now it lost momentum.
3. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Explanation :
Rowlatt Act was passed in March 1919 by the British government in India. This
Act authorised the government to imprison any person without trial and
conviction in a court of law, thus enabling the government to suspend the right
of habeas corpus which had been the foundation of civil liberties. The Act
allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted
internment of suspects without trial for two years.
4. (d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Explanation :
Madras Congress session was held in 1927. During this session, young leaders
like Jawahar Lal Nehru had proposed the resolution for complete
independence which was however defeated and the action of Jawahar Lal was
not appreciated by Gandhi. Gandhiji withdrew the non-cooperation movement
because of the violence in the Chauri Chaura outrage.
Explanation :
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The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where
Justice Party, the party of the Non-Brahmins, felt that entering the council was
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one way of gaining some power, something that usually only Brahmins had
access to.

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Explanation :
In Awadh, the peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi who had
earlier been to Fiji as indentured labourer. The movement here was against
talukdars and landlords who demanded from peasants exorbitantly high rents
and a variety of other cesses.
Explanation :
The Simon Commission was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’ because
it did not have a single Indian member. They were all British but had come to
look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest
changes. Gandhiji went on Dandi March on 11 March 1930.
Explanation :
With the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji consented to participate in
the Round Table Conference in London. However, the negotiations broke down
and Gandhiji returned to India disappointed. New repressive measures by the
government declared the Congress illegal and put Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal
Nehru into jail.
Explanation :
The peasants were deeply disappointed when the Civil Disobedience
Movement was called off in 1931 without revenue rates being revised. They
wanted the revenue rates revised and were thus actively participating in the
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movement but were deeply hurt when they could not achieve the same.

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Explanation :
Government of India Act 1935 under the British Act of Parliament. With regard
to the provinces, the Act of 1935 was an improvement on the existing position.
It introduced what is known as provincial autonomy. The ministers of the
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provincial governments, according to it, were to be responsible to the

legislature. The other parts of the Act, particularly provincial Autonomy, came
into force on 1st April 1937.
11. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
Explanation :
Civil Disobedience movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi. As the British
Government did not show any interest in providing meaningful political
concession to Indian, Gandhi decided to start the Civil Disobedience
Movement and launched the Satyagraha campaign by manufacturing salt at
Dandi. The Movement involved non-payment of taxes and land revenue as well
as the violation of the laws of different kinds in addition to Non-cooperation
activities.
Explanation :
It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of nationalism, that the
identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata.
The image of Bharat Mata acquired many different forms, as it circulated in
popular prints, and was painted by different artists. Devotion to this mother
figure came to be seen as evidence of one’s nationalism, but this does not
explain why he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’.
Explanation :
Colonisation affected people's freedom and nationalist sentiment surged
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during process of struggle against Imperial domination. The anger for Britishers
became a common bond for every religion as well as caste. So growth of
colonialism is related to increase in struggle for freedom.
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Ex
CASE 1:
(i) (a) Chauri-Chaura incidence.
(ii) (d) Dandi March.
(iii) (b) 1923.

(iv) (b) Tax on salt.
CASE 2:
(i) (a) To curb the growing nationalist up surge in the country
(ii)(b) Central Powers.
(iii) (d) First time both major Indian communities were against the government.
(iv) (a) At the end of World War II Gandhiji became an important leader in
Indian politics.
CASE 3:
(i) The Justice Party members were non-Brahmans and so far had not been
able to win elections, as the Brahman candidates always won. They thought it
was a golden opportunity for them to enter the councils. So, they decided not
to boycott council elections.
(ii) The effects of Non-Cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic
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because the movement was started with middle class participation in the
cities. Thousands of students left government schools and colleges,
headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their legal practice.
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(iii) Effect of Boycott Movement on foreign textile trade:
1. The import of foreign cloth halved.
2. Merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign good or Finance foreign
trade.
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3. Indian textile mill and handloom went up.
CASE 4:
(i) (c) To ignite the feeling that all Indians are one.
(ii) (d) All of the above.
(iii) (c) To oppose the division of Bengal into two parts.
(iv) (b) Bharat Mata carries same symbols in all images.
CASE 5:
(i).(a) Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India with
the cooperation of Indians.
(b) It had survived only because of this cooperation.
(ii). (a) The Non-Cooperation movement began with the surrender of titles that
the government awarded.
(b) A boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils,
schools, and foreign goods.
CASE 6:
(i) No, I do not agree with Iqbal’s notion of communalism. He
thought that it was the search for a community to develop along its
own lines. He felt that religion is the basis on which thought process
is based. He felt that religion binds people in one thread. It gives
person a unified culture and literature. In his opinion, Hindus and
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Muslims should live as separate entities in the country. This line of
thought support separatism and subsequently led to the partition of
the country.
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THE MAKING OF A GLOBAL WORLD
1. These were among the world’s richest countries until well into the
eighteenth century :
(a) Japan and America
(b) Singapore and Taiwan
(c) Germany and Britain ub
(d) China and India
2. Which of the following was the most powerful means used by the Spanish to
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conquer America?
(a) Germs
(b) Bombs
(c) Rifles
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(d) Poisonous gas
3. Which of the following diseases killed the original inhabitants of America in

large numbers?
(a) Cholera
(b) Chicken pox
(c) Plague
(d) Small pox
4. Which food was probably carried by the Arab traders to Sicily?

(a) Soya
(b) Corn
(c) Noodles
(d) Pasta
5. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the Corn Laws?

(a) Restricted the import of corn to England

(b) Allowed the import of corn to England
(c) Imposed tax on corn
(d) Abolished the sale of corn
6. Indentured labour migration was abolished in :

(a) 1919
(b) 1920
(c) 1921
(d) 1930
7. A fast-spreading disease of cattle plague having a terrifying impact on

people’s livelihood and the local economy in Africa in the 1890s :
(a) Spaghetti
(b) Rinderpest
(c) Rastafarianism
(d) G-77 ub
8. Which disease spread like wild fire in Africa in the 1890s?
(a) Cattle plague
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(b) Small pox
(c) Pneumonia
(d) None of these
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9. What were ‘Canal Colonies’?

(a) Large Colonies
(b) Sea Ports
(c) Large Canals
(d) Irrigated areas
10. Tax imposed on a country’s imports from the rest of the world is called :
(a) Tariff
(b) Toll
(c) Excise
(d) None of these
11. What is the meaning of indentured labour ?

(a) Cheap Labour
(b) Free Labour
(c) Bonded Labour

(d) None of these
12. Most Indian indentured workers came from the present day regions of
Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, ______ and _______.
(a) Punjab, Assam
(b) Rajasthan, Punjab
(c) Central India, Tamil Nadu
(d) Punjab, Tamil Nadu
13. Identify the following and choose the correct option:

(i) It arrived in Africa in the late 1880s.
(ii) It was carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia.
(iii) Entering Africa in the east, it moved west like forest fire.
(a) Great depression

(b) Rinderpest
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(c) Cholera
(d) Chickenpox
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14. The First World War was fought between :

(a) Allies and Central Powers
(b) Allies and Axis Powers
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(c) Japan and America

(d) China and India
15. From which of the following countries did Britain borrow large sums of
money during First World War?
(a) United States of America
(b) Russia
(c) Japan
(d) Germany
16. This was the world’s first mass-produced car :

(a) T-Model Ford
(b) Hindustan Ambassador
(c) Chevrolet
(d) Mitsubishi
17. The Bretton Woods conference established the :

(a) Quit India Movement
(b) Indian textile industries
(c) Silk route
(d) International Monetary Fund
18. The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations in :
(a) 1923
(b) 1929
(c) 1930
(d) 1947
19. In which year was the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference
held?
(a) 1941
(b) 1954
(c) 1944
(d) 1951
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20. G-77 comprises of the group of which of the following countries?
(a) Developed countries
(b) Rich countries
(c) Developing countries
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(d) Under developed countries

1. Assertion: The Portuguese and Spanish conquest and colonisation of

Antarctica was decisively under way by the Mid sixteenth century.
Reason: The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors was the
germs such as those of smallpox that they carried on their person.
2. Assertion: The railways, steamships, the telegraph were important

inventions which transformed the nineteenth-century world.
Reason: Colonisation stimulated new investments and improvements in
transport.
3. Assertion: ‘Chutney music’, popular in Trinidad and Guyana, is another

creative contemporary expression of the post-indenture experience.
Reason: Some of the Naipaul’s early novels capture their sense of loss and
alienation.
Indian market.
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4. Assertion: Over the nineteenth century, British manufacturers flooded the
Reason: The value of Indian exports to Britain was much higher than the
value of British imports to India.
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5. Assertion: The First World War involved the world’s leading industrial
nations which harnessed the vast powers of modern industry to inflict the
greatest possible destruction of enemies.
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Reason: It was the first modern industrial war, which saw the use of robots
and satellites on a massive scale.
6. Assertion: When the supply of wheat was disrupted during the First World
War, wheat production in Canada, America and Australia expanded
dramatically.
Reason: Before the First World War, Asia was a major supplier of wheat in
the world market.
7. Assertion: During the Great Depression, agricultural regions and

communities were worst affected.
Reason: The fall in agricultural prices was greater and more prolonged than
that in the prices of industrial goods.
8. Assertion: There was a collapse of the system of fixed exchange rates and
the introduction of a system of floating exchange rates.
Reason: From the 1960s, the rising costs of its overseas involvements
weakened the US’s finances and competitive strength. It could not command
confidence as the world’s principal currency.
CASE 1:
The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural
links between distant parts of the world. The name ‘silk routes’ points to the
importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Historians
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have identified several silk routes, over land and by sea, knitting together vast
regions of Asia, and linking Asia with Europe and Northern Africa. They are
known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the
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fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did
textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals –
gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia. Trade and cultural exchange
always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly
travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later.
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Much before all this, Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in
several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.
(i) Find out the incorrect statement from the following about the ‘silk route’:
(a) It was a prominent trade route in ancient times.
(b) Silk was the main trading item, that’s why it was called ‘silk route’.
(c) India used this route mainly to export silk to European countries.
(d) There were two silk routes, i.e. inland route and maritime.
(ii) Find out the incorrect statement from the following:

(a) A route from India met in Central Asia with the main silk route.
(b) Mainly, cotton and spices were supplied from India through this route.
(c) Silk route was not profitable for India but to China.
(d) Silk was costly and used by elite class in Europe.
(iii) Silk route was never used:

(a) To spread Islam from West Asia to East Asia.

(b) To spread Christianity from Europe to Asia.
(c) To spread Buddhism from East Asia to India.
(d) To explore the knowledge by Chinese travellers.
(iv) Which of the following religion was first to use ‘silk route’ for expansion:
(a) Christianity
(b) Buddhism
(c) Islam
(d) Jainism
CASE 2:
Precious metals, particularly silver, from mines located in present day Peru and
Mexico also enhanced Europe’s wealth and financed its trade with Asia.
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Legends spread in seventeenth-century Europe about South America’s fabled
wealth. Many expeditions set off in search of El Dorado, the fabled city of gold.
The Portuguese and Spanish conquest and colonisation of America was
decisively under way by the mid-sixteenth century. European conquest was not
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just a result of superior firepower. In fact, the most powerful weapon of the
Spanish conquerors was not a conventional military weapon at all. It was the
germs such as those of smallpox that they carried on their person. Because of
their long isolation, America’s original inhabitants had no immunity against
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these diseases that came from Europe. Smallpox in particular proved a deadly
killer. Once introduced, it spread deep into the continent, ahead even of any
Europeans reaching there. It killed and decimated whole communities, paving
the way for conquest.
(i) The silver obtained from Peru was used in India to buy:
(a) Spices and cotton
(b) Arms and ammunitions
(c) To consolidate colonial rule
(d) Ornaments and jewellery
(ii) Which of the following material was not acquired by European from
America's?
(a) Gold and silver
(b) Forest resources
(c) Vast open land for agriculture
(d) Human resource for agriculture works
(iii) Find out the incorrect statement from the following:

(a) Discovery of Americas solved the financial problems of Europeans.
(b) Superior arms and ammunitions played important role in conquering
Americas.
(c) Large number of European migrated Americas to do work in agriculture
fields.
(d) Americans did not have immunity against the germs carried by Europeans.
(iv) Which of the following is not correct about smallpox?

(a) Smallpox germs reached Americas accidentally.
(b) Germs were intentionally introduced by Europeans.
(c) Americans didn’t have immunity against smallpox.
(d) Smallpox helped Europeans to kill the enemies whom they could not reach.
CASE 3: ub
The Second World War broke out a mere two decades after the end of the First
World War. It was fought between the Axis Powers (mainly Nazi Germany,
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Japan and Italy) and the Allies (Britain, France, the Soviet Union and the US). It
was a war waged for six years on many fronts, in many places, over land, on
sea, in the air. Once again death and destruction was enormous. At least 60
million people, or about 3 per cent of the world’s 1939 population, is believed
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to have been killed, directly or indirectly, as a result of the war. Millions more
were injured. Unlike in earlier wars, most of these deaths took place outside
the battlefields. Many more civilians than soldiers died from warrelated
causes. Vast parts of Europe and Asia were devastated, and several cities were
destroyed by aerial bombardment or relentless artillery attacks. The war
caused an immense amount of economic devastation and social disruption.
Reconstruction promised to be long and difficult. Two crucial influences
shaped post-war reconstruction. The first was the US’s emergence as the
dominant economic, political and military power in the Western world. The
second was the dominance of the Soviet Union. It had made huge sacrifices to
defeat Nazi Germany, and transformed itself from a backward agricultural
country into a world power during the very years when the capitalist world
was trapped in the Great Depression.
(i) Who were the countries directly involved in the Second

World War?
(ii) Who trapped the world in the Great Depression?
(iii) What was the duration of the Second World War?
SOLUTIONS
1.(d) China and India

2.(a) Germs
3.(d) Small pox
4.(d) Pasta
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5.(a) Restricted the import of corn to England
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6.(c) 1921
7.(b) Rinderpest
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8.(a) Cattle plague

9.(d) Irrigated areas
10.(a) Tariff
11.(c) Bonded Labour
12.(c) Central India, Tamil Nadu
13.(b) Rinderpest
14.(a) Allies and Central Powers
15.(a) United States of America
16.(a) T-Model Ford
17.(d) International Monetary Fund
18.(d) 1947
19.(c) 1944
20.(c) Developing countries
Explanation :
The Portuguese and Spanish conquest and colonisation of America was
decisively under way by the mid-sixteenth century. The most powerful weapon
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of the Spanish conquerors was not a conventional military weapon but they
carried germs of smallpox on themselves.
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of assertion.
Explanation :
Technological advances were often the result of larger, social, political and
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economic factors, like colonisation.
Explanation :
‘Chuteny music’ popular in Trinidad and Guyana, is another creative
contemporary expression of the post-indenture experience. These forms of
cultural fusion are part of the making of the global world, where things from
different places get mixed, lose their original characteristics and become
something entirely new.
Explanation :
The value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British
imports from India.
Explanation :
It was the first modern industrial war, which saw the use of machine guns,
tanks, aircraft, chemical weapons, etc. on a massive scale. Therefore, assertion
is true but reason is false.
Explanation :
Before the First World War, Eastern Europe was a major supplier of wheat in
the world market.
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of assertion.
Explanation :
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The enact timing and impact of the depression varied across countries. But in
general agricultural regions and communities were the worst affected. This
was because the fall in agricultural prices was greater and more prolonged
than that in the prices of industrial goods.
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of assertion.
Explanation :
The US dollar now no longer commanded confidence as the worlds principal
currency. It could not maintain its value in relation to gold. This eventually led
to the collapse of the system of fixed exchange rates and the introduction of a
system of floating exchange rates.
CASE 1:
(i) (c) India used this route mainly to export silk to European countries.
(ii) (c) Silk route was not profitable for India but to China.
(iii) (c) To spread Buddhism from East Asia to India.
(iv) (b) Buddhism.
CASE 2:
(i) (a) Spices and cotton
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(ii) (d) Human resource for agriculture works.
(iii) (c) Large number of European migrated Americas to do work in agriculture

fields.
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(iv) (b) Germs were intentionally introduced by Europeans.
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CASE 3:
(i) (a) The Second World War broke out a mere two decades after the end of
the First World War.
(b) It was fought between the Axis Powers (mainly Nazi Germany, Japan and
Italy) and the Allies (Britain, France, the Soviet Union and the US).
(ii) The capitalists trapped the world in the Great Depression.
(iii)(a) The Second World War broke out a mere two decades after the end of
the First World War.
(b) It was for six years on many fronts, in many places, over land, on sea, in the
air.
THE AGE OF INDUSTRIALISATION
1. The cotton mill in England was created by :

(a) Richard Arkwright
(b) James Watt
(c) Seth Hukumchand
(d) Henry Patullo ub
2. The steam engine produced by Newcomen was improved by:
(a) Richard Arkwright
pH
(b) Mathew Boulton
(c) James Watt
(d) Dinshaw Petit
Ex
3. Which of the following were the most dynamic industries of the Great
Britain?
(a) Cotton and Sugar Industry
(b) Cotton and Metal Industry
(c) Cotton and Agro-based Industry
(d) Ship and Cotton Industry
4. A person who staples or sorts wool according to its fibre is called which of
the following terms?
(a) Stapler
(b) Fuller
(c) Caller
(d) None of these
5. First country to undergo industrial revolution is:

(a) Japan
(b) Britain
(c) Germany
(d) France
6. Production processes involving carding, twisting, rolling and stapling are

associated with :
(a) Textile Industry
(b) Railway Industry
(c) Shipping Industry
7. When did the earliest factories come up in England?

(a) In 1720s
(b) In 1730s
(c) In 1740s
(d) In 1750s
(a) Dwarka
(b) Surat
ub
8. This city on the Gujarat coast connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea ports
(c) Bhavnagar
pH
(d) Porbandar
9. This town on the Coromandel Coast had trade links with Southeast Asian
ports :
Ex
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Surat
(c) Masulipatnam
(d) Persia
10. Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(a) The cotton crop perished.
(b) Raw cotton exports increased.
(c) Local markets shrank.
(d) Export market collapsed.
11. The paid servants of the East India Company was:

(a) Seth
(b) Mamlatdar
(c) Gomastha
(d) Lambardar
12. 18th Century India witnessed the decline of which port town?
(a) Surat
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) Madras
13. This town in Bengal had trade links with Southeast Asian ports :
(a) Hoogly
(b) Porbandar
(c) Dwarka
(d) Masulipatnam
14. The first jute mill set up by a Marwari businessman Seth Hukumchand in
1917 was located in :
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Ahmedabad
ub
pH
15. The two Parsis of Bombay who built huge industrial empires in India,
accumulated their wealth partly from exports to China :
(a) James Hargreaves and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata
(b) Seth Hukumchand and Dinshaw Petit
Ex
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore and G.D. Birla

(d) Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata
16. Elgin Mill started in which of the following cities in north India?
(a) Delhi
(b) Lucknow
(c) Kanpur
(d) Allahabad
17. Which of the following best defines a jobber?

(a) Employed by industrialists to get new recruits
(b) Old trusted worker
(c) Person of authority and power
(d) Controlled lives of workers
18. Which neighbouring district of Mumbai provided an overwhelming majority

of its mill workers in 1911?
(a) Sindhudurg
(b) Nasik
(c) Ratnagiri
(d) Thane
19. Why did most of the workers oppose the introduction of new technology in
factories in nineteenth century England?
(a) Workers felt that the quality of cloth will suffer because of the introduction
of technology
(b) They did not want to work on modern machines
(c) Fear of losing employment
(a) Advertisements
(b) Textile mills
ub
20. This became a vehicle of the nationalist message of swadeshi :
(c) Steam engine

pH
(d) Spinning Jenny
Ex
1. Assertion: The first symbol of the new era was cotton.

Reason: In Victorian Britain, the industrialists did not want to introduce
machines that got rid of human labour and required large capital investment.
2. Assertion: The consolidation of East India Company power after the 1760s
did not initially lead to a decline in textile exports from India.
Reason: British cotton industries had not yet expanded and Indian fine
textiles were in great demand in Europe.
3. Assertion: The cotton weavers of India flourished with the Manchester

imports.
Reason: With the American Civil War, the cotton supplies from US to Britain
decreased.
ub
4. Assertion: In most industrial regions, workers came from the districts
around.
Reason: Peasants and Artisans who found no work in the village went to
pH
the industrial centres in search of work.
5. Assertion: From 1906, the export of Indian yarn to China declined.

Ex
Reason: After the First World War, Manchester could never recapture its
old position in the Indian market.
6. Assertion: In the twentieth century, handloom cloth production expanded

steadily.
Reason: This was partly because of technological changes.
7. Assertion: Like the images of gods and goddesses, figures of important

personages like emperors and nawabs to adorned advertisements and
calendars.
Reason: This was done to show the pomp and glory of the nation.
8. Assertion: When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they

put labels on the cloth bundles.
Reason: The label was a mark of quality. When buyers saw ‘MADE IN
MANCHESTER’ written in bold on the label, they were expected to feel
confident about buying the cloth.
CASE 1:
The earliest factories in England came up by the 1730s. But it was only in the
late eighteenth century that the number of factories multiplied. The first
symbol of the new era was cotton. Its production boomed in the late
ub
nineteenth century. In 1760 Britain was importing 2.5 million pounds of raw
cotton to feed its cotton industry. By 1787 this import soared to 22 million
pounds. This increase was linked to a number of changes within the process of
pH
production. Let us look briefly at some of these. A series of inventions in the
eighteenth century increased the efficacy of each step of the production
process (carding, twisting and spinning, and rolling). They enhanced the output
per worker, enabling each worker to produce more, and they made the
production of stronger threads and yarn possible. Then Richard Arkwright
Ex
created the cotton mill. Till this time, as you have seen, cloth production was
spread all over the countryside and carried out within village households. But
now, the costly new machines could be purchased, set up and maintained in
the mill. Within the mill all the processes were brought together under one
roof and management. This allowed a more careful supervision over the
production process, a watch over quality, and the regulation of labour, all of
which had been difficult to do when production was in the countryside. In the
early nineteenth century, factories increasingly became an intimate part of the
English landscape. So visible were the imposing new mills, so magical seemed
to be the power of new technology, that contemporaries were dazzled. They
concentrated their attention on the mills, almost forgetting the by lanes and
the workshops where production still continued.
(i) When was the earliest factories in England came up? What was the symbol
of new era?
(ii) Who created the first cotton mill in England?
(iii) What will happen after the advent of industrialisation?
CASE 2:
As loans flowed in and the demand for fine textiles expanded, weavers eagerly
took the advances, hoping to earn more. Many weavers had small plots of land
which they had earlier cultivated along with weaving, and the produce from
this took care of their family needs.Now they had to lease out the land and
devote all their time to weaving. Weaving, in fact, required the labour of the
entire family, with children and women all engaged in different stages of the
process. Soon, however, in many weaving villages there were reports of
clashes between weavers and gomasthas. Earlier supply merchants had very
often lived within the weaving villages, and had a close relationship with the
ub
weavers, looking after their needs and helping them in times of crisis. The new
gomasthas were outsiders, with no long-term social link with the village. They
acted arrogantly, marched into villages with sepoys and peons, and punished
weavers for delays in supply– often beating and flogging them. The weavers
pH
lost the space to bargain for prices and sell to different buyers: the price they
received from the Company was miserably low and the loans they had
accepted tied them to the company.
Ex
(i) Which of the following work was not performed by Gomasthas?

(a) To supervise weavers
(b) Collect supplies
(c) Examine the quality of the clothes.
(d) To provide loans to weavers to expand their business.
(ii) At the starting, which was the main problem faced by Company here in
India?
(a) Competition with other European countries
(b) High cost of raw material.
(c) Irregular supplies of cotton and silk.
(d) All of the above.
(iii) Find out the incorrect statement about the Indian weavers:
(a) Before colonial government weavers were having enough to sustain their
family.
(b) Gomasthas made their life easy by providing loans on easy conditions.
(c) Once weavers took loans they were in debt trap.

(d) To repay loans they started work involving their family members.
(iv) Find out the correct statement from the following:

(a) After arrival of Britishers Bombay and Calcutta lost their glory.
(b) Gomasthas played important role to establish trade monopoly of East India
Company.
(c) To live a luxurious life weavers started work hard with family members.
(d) Gomasthas were paid servants to supervise weavers, collect supplies and
examine the quality of cloth.
CASE 3:
The history of many business groups goes back to trade with China. From the
late eighteenth century, as you have read in your book last year, the British in
ub
India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England.
Many Indians became junior players in this trade, providing finance, procuring
supplies, and shipping consignments. Having earned through trade, some of
these businessmen had visions of developing industrial enterprises in India.
pH
In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore made his fortune in the China trade before he
turned to industrial investment, setting up six jointstock companies in the
1830s and 1840s. Tagore’s enterprises sank along with those of others in the
wider business crises of the 1840s, but later in the nineteenth century many of
Ex
the China traders became successful industrialists. In Bombay, Parsis like

Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata who built huge industrial
empires in India, accumulated their initial wealth partly from exports to China,
and partly from raw cotton shipments to England. Seth Hukumchand, a
Marwari businessman who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917,
also traded with China. So did the father as well as grandfather of the famous
industrialist G.D. Birla.
(i) The first cotton mill came up in India in:

(a) Poona in 1854
(b) Bombay in 1854
(c) Ahmedabad in 1854
(d) Calcutta in 1854
(ii) Which of the following was not a popular destination of Indian

industrialists in 19th century?
(a) China
(b) Burma
(c) Middle east and East Africa
(d) Central European Countries

(a) Large part of opium produced in India sent to China not to Europe.
(b) Main purpose of opium trade was to acquire tea to sell in European market.
(c) Opium trade helped to develop industries in India.
(d) Indians were the major players in trade with China as compare to European
traders.
(iv) Find out the correct statement from the following:

(a) Colonial government encouraged Indians to sell opium in China and Chinese
tea in Europe.
(b) Colonial government encouraged Indians to sell manufactured goods in
Europe.
grains in Europe.
ub
(c) Colonial government encouraged Indians to sell raw material and food
(d) Opium was having huge demand in China for medicinal purpose and
produced by India.
pH
CASE 4:
Ex
Source A-Situation before the Industrial Revolution

Even before factories began to dot the landscape in England and Europe, there
was large-scale industrial production for an international market. This was not
based on factories. Many historians now refer to this phase of industrialisation
as proto industrialisation. In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries,
merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to the countryside,
supplying money to peasants and artisans, persuading them to produce for an
international market. With the expansion of world trade and the acquisition of
colonies in different parts of the world, the demand for goods began growing.
Source B- Series of inventions in the eighteenth century.

A series of inventions in the eighteenth century increased the efficacy of each
step of the production process (carding, twisting andspinning, and rolling).
They enhanced the output per worker, enabling each worker to produce more,
and they made the production of stronger threads and yarn possible. Then
Richard Arkwright created the cotton mill. Till this time, as you have seen, cloth
production was spread all over the countryside and carried out within village
households.
Source C- Pace of Industrial Change

The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly cotton and metals.
Growing at a rapid pace, cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of
industrialisation up to the 1840s. After that the iron and steel industry led the
way. With the expansion of railways, in England from the 1840s and in the
colonies from the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly. By
1873 Britain was exporting iron and steel worth about £ 77 million, double the
value of its cotton export. The new industries could not easily displace
traditional industries.
Source A- Situation before the Industrial Revolution

(i) How was the demand for goods began growing before Industrial
Revolution?
ub
Source B- Series of inventions in the eighteenth century
(ii) How the series of inventions in the eighteenth century increased the
efficacy of production?
pH
Source C- Pace of Industrial Change

(iii) Which was the leading sector that grew faster in the first phase of
industrialisation?
Ex
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) Richard Arkwright
2. (c) James Watt
3. (b) Cotton and Metal Industry
4. (a) Stapler
5. (b) Britain
6.(a) Textile Industry
7. (b) In 1730s
8.(b) Surat
9. (c) Masulipatnam
10. (b) Raw cotton exports increased.
11. (c) Gomastha
12. (a) Surat
13. (a) Hoogly

ub
14.(a) Calcutta
pH
15. (d) Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata
16. (c) Kanpur

Ex
17. (a) Employed by industrialists to get new recruits
18. (c) Ratnagiri
19. (c) Fear of losing employment
20. (a) Advertisements
Explanation :
The upper classes preferred hand produced goods in Victorian Britain, however
this does not explain the assertion.
of assertion.
Explanation :
The consolidation of East India Company power after the 1760s did not initially
lead to a decline in textile exports from India because, British cotton industries
had not yet expanded and Indian fine textiles were in great demand in Europe.
So the company was keen on expanding textile exports from India.
Explanation :
Cotton weavers in India faced two problems with Manchester goods coming to
ub
India: Their export market collapsed, and the local market shrank, being
glutted with Manchester imports. With the American Civil War, the cotton
supply to Britain from US were cut off. Britain turned to India.
pH
of assertion.
Explanation :
Ex
Factories needed workers. With the expansion of factories, this demand

increased so, most industrial regions workers came from the districts around
and Peasants and artisans who found no work in the village also went to the
industrial centres in search of work.
Explanation :
The reason does not justify the assertion. From 1906, export of Indian yarn to
China declined as produce from China and Japan flooded the Chinese market.
of assertion.
Explanation :
In the twentieth century, handloom cloth production expanded steadily:

almost trebling between 1900 and 1940. This was partly because of
technological changes. Handicrafts people adopt new technology if that helps
them improve production without excessively pushing up costs. So, by the
second decade of the twentieth century we find weavers using looms with a fly
shuttle. This increased productivity per worker, speeded up production and
reduced labour demand.
Explanation :
This was done to win the confidence of the buyers to buy the products.
Explanation : ub
When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels on
the cloth bundles. The label was needed to make the place of manufacture and
the name of the company familiar to the buyer. The label was also to be a
pH
mark of quality. When buyers saw ‘MADE IN MANCHESTER’ written in bold on
the label, they were expected to feel confident about buying the cloth.
Ex
CASE 1:
(i) (a) The earliest factories in England came up by the 1730s.

(b) The first symbol of new era was cotton.
(ii) Richard Arkwright was created the first cotton mill in England.
(iii)(a) Industrialisation enhanced the output per worker, enabling each worker
to produce more.
(b) They made the production of stronger threads and yarn possible.
CASE 2:
(i) (d) To provide loans to weavers to expand their business.
(iii)(b) Gomasthas made their life easy by providing loans on easy conditions.
(iv) (d) Gomasthas were paid servants to supervise weavers, collect supplies
and examine the quality of cloth
CASE 3:
(i) (b) Bombay in 1854

ub
(ii) (d) Central European Countries
pH
(iii)(d) Indians were the major players in trade with China as compare to
European traders.
(iv) (c) Colonial government encouraged Indians to sell raw material and food
Ex
grains in Europe.
CASE 3:
(i) The demand for goods began growing before Industrial Revolution with the
expansion of world trade and the acquisition of colonies in different parts of
the world because the demand for goods began growing. But merchant could
not expand production within towns.
(ii) The series of inventions enhanced the output per worker, which enabled
each worker to produce more and they also made the production of threads
and yarns possible.
(iii) Cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialisation up to
the 1840s
ub
pH
Ex
PRINT CULTURE AND THE MODERN

WORLD
1. This city became the hub of the new print culture, catering to the Western-
style schools:
(a) Mumbai
(b) Tokyo
(c) Shanghai
(d) New York ub
2. He developed the first-known Printing Press in the 1430s:
(a) Martin Luther
pH
(b) Marco Polo
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Johann Gutenberg
Ex
3. It is a historical account or folk tale in verse, usually sung or recited:

(a) Taverns
(b) Vellum
(c) Ballad
(d) Galley
4. Who were deeply anxious about the collapse of Muslim dynasties?

(a) Jesuit priests
(b) Hindus
(c) Ulama
(d) Portuguese missionaries
5. Who wrote Ramcharitmanas?

(a) Tulsidas
(b) Gangadhar Bhattacharya
(c) Kashibaba
(d) Ram Chaddha
6. When was the Vernacular Press Act passed?

(a) 1820
(b) 1878
(c) 1857
(d) 1907
7. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of old tradition

of handwritten manuscripts:
(i) Vernacular languages
(ii) Persian
(iii)Arabic
(iv) Sanskrit
(a) iv-iii-ii-i
(b) iv-i-ii-iii
(c) iv-ii-i-iii
(d) iv-iii-i-ii
ub
pH
8. Which one of the following was NOT the reason for the popularity of
scientific ideas among the common people in eighteenth century Europe?
(a) Printing of idea of Isaac Newton
(b) Development of printing press
Ex
(c) Interest of people in science and reason

(d) Traditional aristocratic groups supported it
9. Why was reading of manuscripts not easy in India? Choose the appropriate
reason from the following options:
(a) Manuscripts were highly cheap.
(b) Manuscripts were widely spread out.
(c) Manuscripts were written in English and Hindi.
(d) Manuscripts were fragile.
10. Which of the following cities was known by the name Edo in the medieval
times?
(a) Beijing
(b) Tokyo
(c) Shanghai
(d) Bombay
11. The invention of paper was made in which of the following nations?
(a) Korea
(b) China
(c) India
(d) England
12. In which year did Marco Polo return to Italy from China?
(a) 1297
(b) 1299
(c) 1296
(d) 1295
13. Who was Martin Luther?

(a) A pope
(b) A religious reformer
(c) A political leader
(d) An emperor ub
14. In Europe, where did people gather to discuss and debate, and were served
alcohol and food?
pH
(a) Taverns
(b) English coffee houses
(c) Cocktail Lounges
(d) Gardens
Ex
15. Who said, that press is the most important tool for the progress of society?
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Voltaire
(c) Louis Sebastien Mercier
(d) Menocchio
16. Who compiled the folktales assembled from peasants in Germany during
the nineteenth century?
(a) Grimm Brothers
(b) George Eliot
(c) Jane Austin
(d) Thomas Wood
17. What was the main purpose behind the passing of the Vernacular Press Act
in India in 1878?
(a) The Vernacular Press Act regulated the publications in the English language.
(b) The Vernacular Press Act aimed to curb growing political dissent by banning
many political parties.
(c) The Vernacular Press Act aimed to control trade controlled by Indian
merchants and imposed high tariffs on their goods.
(d) The Vernacular Press Act aimed to control the freedom of the‘native press’
by imposing stringent control over what they published.
18. ‘Sambad Kaumudi’ was published by:

(a) Keshav Chandra Sen
(b) Rammohun Roy
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(d) Debendranath Tagore
19. Which of the following newspapers started publishing in the "Gujarati"

language from the year 1822?
(a) Bombay Herald
(b) Bombay Deccan
(c) Bombay Samachar
ub
(d) Bombay Dreams
pH
20. Consider the following statements.

I. “Ulamas” were the Islamic scholars who dealt with the matters of law
according to the Sharia.
Ex
II. “Ulamas” were afraid of the British administration as they believed that they
can change the Islamic laws.
Choose the correct answer:

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

1. Assertion: In 1517, the religious reformer Martin Luther wrote Ninety Five
Thesis criticising many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic
Church.
Reason: This led to a division within the Church and to the beginning of the
Protestant Reformation.
ub
2. Assertion: The new reading culture was accompanied by a new technology.
Reason: From hand printing there was a gradual shift to mechanical
printing.
pH
3. Assertion: The production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the
ever-increasing demand for books.
Reason: Chinese paper reached Europe via the silk route.
Ex
4. Assertion: The first book that Gutenberg printed was the Bible.
Reason: About 500 copies were printed and it took two years to produce
them.
5. Assertion: Print and popular religious literature stimulated many distinctive

individual interpretations of faith even among little educated working people.
Reason: Through the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, literacy rates
went up in most parts of Europe.
6. Assertion: As literacy and schools spread in African countries, there was a

virtual reading mania.
Reason: People wanted books to read and printers produced books in ever-
increasing numbers.
7. Assertion: Children became an important category of readers.

Reason: Primary education became compulsory from the late nineteenth

century.
8. Assertion: There was intense controversy between social and religious

reformers and the Hindu orthodoxy over matters like widow immolation,
monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood and idolatory.
Reason: The Deoband Seminary founded in 1867, published thousands
upon thousands of fatwas telling Muslim readers how to conduct themselves
in everyday lives, and explaining the meaning of Islamic doctrines.
ub
CASE 1:
pH
By the mid-eighteenth century, was a common conviction that books were a
means of spreading progress and enlightenment. Many believed that books
could change the world, liberate society from despotism and tyranny, and
herald a time when reason and intellect would rule. Louise-Sebastien Mercier,
Ex
a novelist in eighteenth century France, declared: “The printing press is the

most powerful engine of progress and public opinion is the force that will
sweep despotism away.” In many of Mercier’s novels, the heroes are
transformed by acts of reading. They devour books are lost in the world of
books, and become enlightened in the process. Convinced of the power of
print in bringing enlightenment and destroying the basis of despotism,
Mercier proclaimed: Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before
the virtual writer!
(i) What was the main reason behind the thinking that books were a means
of spreading progress and enlightenment?
(a) Books would transfer the logical thinking of philosophers to the common
people.
(b) Books would help people to develop their skills.
(c) By reading books ruling society would come to know what was right and
what was wrong.
(d) Books would establish cordial relations between rulers and ruled.
(ii) What was the common conviction about books in mid-18th century?
(a) Books would help to increase earning.
(b) Books would help to increase knowledge.
(c) Monarchy would be changed by an accountable government.
(d) People would be able to convince the rulers that what they were doing
wrong with their sublets.
(iii) Mercier wrote that printing press was the most powerful engine because:
(a) Latest technology would increase the volume of books.
(b) Printing press would solve the problem of unemployment.
(c) Printing press would help to form public opinion to draw any
conclusion.
(d) Printing press would help them to know what wrong was going with
them and how could it be corrected.
ub
(iv) The following is the real meaning behind the words “Tremble, therefore,
tyrants of the world! Tremble before the virtual writer!”:
(a) Monarchy would agree with what was written in the books.
pH
(b) Tyrants would surrender their power against the virtual writer.
(c) Books would help to convince the people about what wrong was
happening with them.
(d) Virtual writer would be able to establish their supremacy over
Ex
rulers through knowledge.
CASE 2:
From the early nineteenth century, as you know, there were intense debates
around religious issues. Different groups confronted the changes happening
within colonial society in different ways, and offered a variety of new
interpretations of the beliefs of different religions. Some criticized existing
practices and campaigned for reform, while others countered the arguments
of reformers. These debates were carried out in public and in print. Printed
tracts and newspapers not only spread the new ideas, but they shaped the
nature of the debate. A wider public could now participate in these public
discussions and express their views. New ideas emerged through these clashes
of opinions.
(i) Following is not true about the 19th century religious issues in India:
(a) Differences between Hindu and Catholics were not having major issue.
(b) Hindu religion did not have any major internal issue.
(c) Some people wanted to have some changes in Hindu rituals.
(d) Both Hindu and Muslim religions were having their own internal issues.
(ii) Which of the following was not the work of print?

(a) Spreading the liberal religious ideas.
(b) People started debate and discussion after different ideas reached to them
through books.
(c) Print provided them a platform to express their view.
(d) Religious leaders successfully conveyed what was written in religious books.
(iii) Who among the following is known for his efforts to remove Sati system
from India?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jyotiba Phule
ub
pH
(iv) Which of the following was/were main controversy within Hindu religion
in 19th century?
(a) How to establish cordial relations with Muslims.
(b) Conversion of Hindus by missionaries.
Ex
(c) Widow immolation, monotheism, idolatry.

(d) How to establish supremacy of Hindu religion over the world.
CASE 3:
Source — 1: Religious Reform and Public Debates
There were intense controversies between social and religious reformers and
the Hindu orthodoxy over matters like widow immolation, monotheism,
brahmanical priesthood, and idolatry. In Bengal, as the debate developed,
tracts and newspapers proliferated, circulating a variety of argument.
Source—2: New Forms of Publication

New literary forms also entered the world of reading lyrics, short stories,
essays about social and political matters. In different ways, they reinforced the
new emphasis on human lives and intimate feelings, about the political and
social rules that shaped such things.
Source—3: Women and Print

Since social reforms and novels had already created a great interest in
women‘s lives and emotions, there was also an interest in what women would
have to say about their own lives.
Source—1: Religious Reform and Public Debates
(i) Evaluate how did the print shape the nature of the debate in the early
nineteenth century in India.
Source—2: New Forms of Publication

(ii) To what extent do you agree that print opened up a new worlds of
experience and gave a vivid sense of diversity of human lives?
Source—3: Women and Print

ub
(iii) To what extent did the print culture reflect a great interest in women‘s
lives and emotions? Explain.
pH
CASE 4:
The earliest kind of print technology was developed in China, Japan and Korea.
Ex
This was a system of hand printing. From AD 594 onwards, books in China were
printed by rubbing paper — also invented there — against the inked surface of
woodblocks. As both sides of the thin, porous sheet could not be printed, the
traditional Chinese ‘accordion book’ was folded and stitched at the side.
Superbly skilled craftsmen could duplicate, with remarkable accuracy, the
beauty of calligraphy (art of beautiful and stylised writing). The imperial state
in China was, for a very long time, the major producer of printed material.
China possessed a huge bureaucratic system which recruited its personnel
through civil service examinations. Textbooks for this examination were
printed in vast numbers under the sponsorship of the imperial state. From the
sixteenth century, the number of examination candidates went up and that
increased the volume of print. By the seventeenth century, as urban culture
bloomed in China, the uses of print diversified. Print was no longer used just by
scholar officials. Merchants used print in their everyday life, as they collected
trade information. Reading increasingly became a leisure activity.
(i) What do you mean by calligraphy? Which statein China was

the major producer of printed material?
(ii) Who developed the earliest kind of print technology?
(iii)Which country in the world started recruitment of bureaucracy through

civil service examinations? What classes of people used printing technology?
SOLUTIONS
1. (c) Shanghai
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2. (d) Johann Gutenberg
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3. (c) Ballad
4. (c) Ulama
Ex
5. (a) Tulsidas
6. (b) 1878
7. (a) iv-iii-ii-i
8. (d) Traditional aristocratic groups supported it
9. (d) Manuscripts were fragile.
10. (b) Tokyo
11. (b) China
12. (d) 1295

13. (b) A religious reformer
14. (a) Taverns
15. (c) Louis Sebastien Mercier
16. (a) Grimm Brothers
17. (d) The Vernacular Press Act aimed to control the freedom of the ‘native
press’ by imposing stringent control over what they published.
18. (b) Rammohun Roy
19. (c) Bombay Samachar

20. (c) Both (a) and (b)
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pH
of assertion.
Ex
Explanation :
A printed copy of the thesis was posted on a Church door in Wittenberg. It
challenged the Church to debate his ideas. Luther’s writings were immediately
reproduced in large numbers and read widely.
of assertion.
Explanation :
The new reading culture was accompanied by a new technology because of the
import of western printing techniques and mechanical presses in the late
nineteenth century, so there was a gradual shift to mechanical printing.
3. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation :
Copying was laborious, expensive and time-consuming. Manuscripts were
fragile, awkward to handle, and could not be carried around or read easily.
Therefore, their circulation remained limited.
Explanation :
About 180 copies were printed and it took three years to produce them.
Explanation :
In the sixteenth century, Menocchio, a miller in Italy, began to read books that
were available in his locality, as print and popular religious literature
stimulated many distinctive individual interpretations of faith even among
little-educated working people. ub
6. (d) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
pH
Explanation :
As literacy and schools spread in European countries, there was a virtual
reading mania. Churches of different denominations set up schools in villages,
Ex
carrying literacy to peasants and artisans.
of assertion.
Explanation :
As primary education became compulsory from the late nineteenth
century, children became an important category of readers. Production of
school textbooks became critical for the publishing industry.
Explanation :
From the early nineteenth century, there were intense debates around
religious issues. Different groups confronted the changes happening within
colonial society in different ways and offered a variety of new interpretations

of the beliefs of different religions.
CASE 1:
(i) (a) Books would transfer the logical thinking of philosophers to the common
people.
(ii) (c) Monarchy would be changed by an accountable government.
(iii)(d) Printing press would help them to know what wrong was going with
them and how could it be corrected.
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(iv) (c) Books would help to convince the people about what wrong was
happening with them.
pH
CASE 2:
(i) (b) Hindu religion did not have any major internal issue.
(ii) (d) Religious leaders successfully conveyed what was written in religious
Ex
books.
(iii) (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
(iv) (c) Widow immolation, monotheism, idolatry.
CASE 3:
(i)From the early nineteenth century there were intensive debates around
religious issues. Different religious groups confronted the changes happening
within colonial society in different ways and offered a variety of new
interpretations of the beliefs of different religions.
(ii)The print opened up a new world of experience and a vividsense of diversity

because of following reasons:
(a) It created a new culture of reading because earlier there was a hearing
public, now a reading public came into being.
(b) It created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas, and introduced a new
world of debate and discussion.
(iii)The print culture reflects a great interest in women’s lives and emotions in
the following ways:
(a) Women became important as readers as well as writers. Penny magazines
were especially meant for women, as these were the manuals for teaching
proper behaviour and housekeeping.
(b) When novels began to be written in the nineteenth century, women were
seen as important readers. Some of the best known women novelists were:
Jane Austen, the Bronte sisters, George Eliot.
CASE 4:
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(i).Calligraphy is an art of beautiful and stylised writing. The imperial
state in China was the major producer of printed material for a very
long time.
pH
(ii).China, Japan and Korea developed the earliest kind of print
technology.
(iii).China possessed a huge bureaucratic system which recruited its personnel
through civil service examinations. Print was used by scholar and merchants in
Ex
their every day life.

POWER SHARING
1. In which part of Sri Lanka is the Sri Lankan Tamils concentrated?

(a) North and South
(b) East and West
(c) North and East
(d) South and East ub
2. In which year, Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?
(a) 1947
pH
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950
Ex
3. Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians?

(a) German
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) English
4. Which language is spoken by 20% people of capital Brussels?

(a) French
(b) German
(c) Dutch
(d) Latin
5. Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an
Act passed in 1956?
(a) Tamil
(b) Sinhala
(c) Hindi
(d) English
6. Which is the state religion of Sri Lanka?

(a) Buddhism
(b) Islam
(c) Hinduism
(d) Christianity
7. Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka :

(a) Christian and Tamil
(b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhali and Tamil
(d) Sinhali and Christian
8. The power sharing arrangement in Belgium prevented the possible division

of the country on:
(a) Linguistic basis
(b) Religious basis
(c) Regional basis
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(d) None of these
pH
9. Which religion is followed by Sinhala speaking people ?

(a) Hindus
(b) Buddhists
Ex
(c) Muslims
(d) None of these
10. Which is the capital city of Belgium?

(a) Brussels
(b) Bonn
(c) Wallonia
(d) Paris
11. Which of the following was not one of the initial demand of Sri Lankan
Tamils?
(a) Regional autonomy
(b) Recognition of Tamil as an official language
(c) Equal opportunities in securing jobs and education
(d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)
12. 59 per cent of the country’s total population who speaks Dutch, lives in:
(a) Wallonia region
(b) Brussels
(c) Flemish region
(d) None of these
13. How many times was the Belgian constitution amended between the years
1970 and 1993?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 7
14. Belgium does not share borders with ...........

(a) France
(b) Netherlands
(c) Germany
(d) Norway
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15. Why did the Sri Lankan Tamils launch parties and struggle?
pH
(a) To adopt majoritarianism
(b) To recognise Sinhalese as the only official language
(c) To recognise Tamil as an official language
(d) To dominate other languages
Ex
16. In Sri Lanka, which series of measures were adopted to establish the
majority of the Sinhalese population?
(a) Federal government
(b) Majoritarian government
(c) Community government
(d) Prudential government
17. Which of the following outlines the prudential reason for power sharing?
(a) Power sharing is good for democracies.
(b) Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
(c) Power sharing reduces the chances of social conflicts.
(d) A democratic rule involves power sharing.
18. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Political instability
(ii) Violence
(iii)Social conflict
(iv) Social Groups
(a) iv-iii-ii-i
(b) iv-i-ii-iii
(c) iv-i-iii-ii
(d) i-ii-iii-iv
19. Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the
correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government, local bodies.
(b) Legislature, executive, judiciary.
(c) Among different social groups.
(d) Among different pressure groups.
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20. Why is there a need for third level of government in India?
(a) A large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local
level
(b) Indian states are large and internally very diverse
pH
(d) None of above
Ex
1. Assertion : Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka.

Reason : The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish the supremacy
of Sinhala community.
2. Assertion : In Belgium, the leaders realized that the unity of the country is
possible by respecting the feelings and interest of different communities.
Reason : Belgium did not favour any particular community.
3. Assertion : French speaking community in Belgium was rich and powerful.

Reason : Belgian Government favoured French speaking community.
4. Assertion : Belgium and Sri Lanka both faced ethnic tension among different
communities.
Reason : Both the countries resolved the conflict by power sharing
arrangement which gave equal representation to all the communities.
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5. Assertion : There was a feeling of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils.
Reason : The Sri Lankan government denied them equal political rights and
discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities.
pH
6. Assertion : Community government in Belgium is elected by one language
community.
Reason : Community government helped in resolving conflict between
different linguistic groups.
Ex
7. Assertion : Power Sharing is good.

Reason : It leads to ethnic tension.
8. Assertion : Tyranny of majority is highly desirable.

Reason : It leads to violence and political instability.
9. Assertion : Power should reside with one person and group located at one
place in a democracy.
Reason : If the power is dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision
quickly and enforce it.
10. Assertion : In a democracy, everyone has voice in the shaping of public

policies.
Reason : India has a federal system.
CASE 1:
Power can be shared among governments at different level - a general
government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or
regional level. Such a general government for the entire country is usually
called federal government. In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union
Government. The governments at the provincial or regional level are called by
different names in different countries. In India, we call them State
governments. This system is not followed in all countries. There are many
countries where there are no provincial or state governments. But in those
countries like ours, where there are different levels of governments, the
constitution clearly lays down the power of different levels of government. The
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same principle can be extended to level of government lower than the state
governments, such as the municipality and panchayat. Let us call division of
powers involving higher and lower levels of government vertical division of
pH
power.
(i) Which form of power sharing is most commonly referred to as federalism?

(a) Horizontal division of power
(b) Vertical division of power
Ex
(c) Division of power among various communities

(d) Sharing of power among political parties
(ii) In India the government at the provincial level is known as ________.

(a) State Government
(b) Provincial government
(c) Federal government
(iii) Choose the odd one out from the following:

(b) State Government
(c) Panchayats
(d) Union List
(iv) Which one of the following option is the lowest level of power sharing in
India?
(a) Country
(b) State
(c) Panchayat
(d) None of these
CASE 2:
Source A- Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the
Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of
their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a
series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an
ub
Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus
disregarding Tamil.
Source B- Ethnic Communities of Sri Lanka

pH
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of
Tamil as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of
opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more
autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By
Ex
1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent

Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka.
Source C- Accommodation in Belgium

The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognised the existence of
regional differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they
amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that
would enable everyone to live together within the same country. The
arrangement they worked out is different from any other country and is very
innovative.
Source A- Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka

(i) Which act recognises the Sinhala as the only official language?
Source B- Ethnic Communities of Sri Lanka

(ii) Who launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an
official language?
Source C- Accommodation in Belgium

(iii) How many time Belgium amended their constitution?
CASE 3:
The two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of power sharing.
Firstly, power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of
conflict between social groups. Since social conflict often leads to violence and
political instability, power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of
political order. Imposing the will of majority community over others may look
like an attractive option in the short run, but in the long run it undermines the
unity of the nation. Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the
minority; it often brings ruin to the majority as well. There is a second, deeper
reason why power sharing is good for democracies. Power sharing is the very
ub
spirit of democracy. A democratic rule involves sharing power with those
affected by its exercise, and who have to live with its effects. People have a
right to be consulted on how they are to be governed. A legitimate
government is one where citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the
pH
system. The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of
undivided political power. For a long time it was believed that all power of a
government must reside in one person or group of persons located at one
place. It was felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not be
Ex
possible to take quick decisions and to enforce them. But these notions have
changed with the emergence of democracy. One basic principle of democracy
is that people are the source of all political power. In a democracy, people rule
themselves through institutions of sel fgovernment. In a good democratic
government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a
society.
(i) How does people rule themselves in a democracy? Why power sharing is
good?
(ii) Write one of the basic principle of democracy?

SOLUTIONS
1. (c) North and East
2. (b) 1948
3. (b) Dutch
4. (c) Dutch
5. (b) Sinhala
6. (a) Buddhism
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7. (c) Sinhali and Tamil
pH
8. (a) Linguistic basis
9. (b) Buddhists
Ex
10. (a) Brussels
11. (d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)
12. (c) Flemish region
13. (b) 4
14. (d) Norway
15. (c) To recognise Tamil as an official language
16. (b) Majoritarian government
17. (c) Power sharing reduces the chances of social conflicts.

18. (a) iv-iii-ii-i
19. (b) Legislature, executive, judiciary.
of assertion.
Explanation :
The government of Sri Lanka passed an Act in 1956 to recognise Sinhala as only
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official language of Sri Lanka. The government also formulated preferential
policies to favour Sinhala applicants for university positions and government
jobs. All this was done to establish supremacy of Sinhala community.
pH
of assertion.
Explanation :
Ex
Belgians adopted a power sharing arrangement in which all the communities

have equal representation. This helped in relieving tension between the
different communities. Thus they did not favour any particular community.
Explanation :
There was ethnic tension between French speaking and Dutch speaking
communities in Belgium. For resolving, the government adopted a power
sharing arrangement where all the communities got equal representation.
Explanation :
Belgians adopted a power sharing model where all the communities got equal
representation; this helped in solving tension between different communities.
However, Sri Lanka tried to promote the supremacy of Sinhala community

which eventually led to civil war.
of assertion.
Explanation :
An Act was passed in 1956 to recognise Sinhala as an official language. The
government of Sri Lanka favoured people from Sinhala community for higher
education and government jobs. It led to resentment among Sri Lankan Tamils
as government was not sensitive to their culture and language.
Explanation :
ub
Community government is elected by people of one language community, i.e.
French, Dutch and German speaking. Such a government has power related to
culture, education and language issues. It helps in resolving conflicts between
different ethical groups by safeguarding the interest of its group.
pH
Explanation :
Ex
Power Sharing is good because it helps in reducing the chances of conflict

between different social groups and ensures stability of the political system.
Explanation :
Tyranny of majority community is oppressive for the minority community and
can also ruin the majority. It is a source of dissatisfaction and tension which is a
source of political instability.
Explanation :
Power reside with one person and group located at one place in a
monarchy/dictatorship. While it is distributed among citizens in a democracy.
Explanation :
In a democracy, people elect the representatives who participate in the
decision making process. Due respect and proper representation is given to
diverse groups in a democratic system. Hence, in democracy everyone has
voice in the shaping of public policies.
CASE 1: ub
(i) (b) Vertical division of power.
(ii) (a) State Government

pH
(iii) (d) Union List
(iv) (c) Panchayat

Ex
CASE 2:
(i). The act of 1956 AD in Sri Lanka recognises the Sinhala as the only official
language.
(ii). The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of
Tamil as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of
opportunity in securing education and jobs.
(iii). Belgium amended their constitution four times.
CASE 3:
(i). In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-

government. Power sharing is good because it reduces the conflicts between
the social groups.
(ii). 1. One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source
of all political power.
2. People rule themselves through institutions of self government.
ub
pH
Ex
FEDERALISM
1. Which form of power sharing is most commonly referred to as federalism?

(a) Horizontal division of power
(b) Vertical division of power
(c) Division of power among various communities
(d) Sharing of power among political parties
2. ‘Coming together federation’ is not found in which of the following country?

(a) India
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Switzerland
ub
(d) Australia
pH
3. Holding Together Federation stands for :
(a) The type of federation in which a large country decides to divide its power
between the constituent states and the national government.
Ex
(b) The type of federation in which a small country decides to divide its power
between the constituent states and the national government.
(c) The type of federation in which a large country decides to divide its power
among the constituent states.
(d) The type of federation in which a small country decides to divide its power
among the constituent states.
4. The distinguishing feature of a federal government is:

(a) National Government gives some powers to the provincialgovernment.
(b) Power is distributed among the legislature, executive andjudiciary.
(c) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government.
(d) Governmental power is divided between different levels ofgovernment.
5. Which of the following includes foreign affairs?

(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Federal list
6. In which Schedule of the Indian Constitution are the 22 scheduled languages

included?
(a) Eighth schedule
(b) Tenth schedule
(c) Twelfth schedule
(d) Ninth schedule
7. When was the use of English for official purposes supposed to be stopped?
(a) 1956
(b) 1958
(c) 1960
(d) 1965
8. Which subjects are included in the Concurrent List ?

(a) National importance.
(b) State importance.
(c) Both national and state importance.
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(d) Importance of local government.
pH
9. Which of the following includes foreign affairs ?

(a) Union List
(b) State List
Ex
(c) Concurrent List

(d) Federal List
10. What per cent of the seats in the local government bodies are reserved for
women?
(a) One-third
(b) Two-third
(c) Half
(d) None of these
11. In case of a clash between the laws made by the centre and a state on a
subject in the Concurrent List :
(a) The state law prevails
(b) The central law prevails
(c) Both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdictions
(d) The Supreme Court has to intervene to decide.
12. Consider the following statements regarding language policy of Indian

Federation.
1. Hindi was identified as the official language.
2. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as
scheduled languages.
3. English can be used along with Hindi for official purpose.
Choose the right option from the following :

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) only 1
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which of the following is true regarding language policy of India ?

(a) Hindi is the national language.
(b) English is the official language.
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(c) No language is given the status of national language.
(d) English is the national language.
pH
14. When was the State Reorganisation Commission formed?
(a) In 1951
(b) In 1963
Ex
(c) In 1997
(d) In 1953
15. How much of the Indian population has Hindi as its mother tongue?
(a) 60%
(b) 50%
(c) 44%
(d) 30%
16. Which federal institution oversees the implementation of Constitutional

provisions and procedures?
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Judiciary
(d) Cabinet
17. Which government has special powers in running Union Territories?

(a) State government

(b) Central government
(c) Municipality government
(d) Gram panchayat
18. Arrange the following in the correct sequence :

(i) Panchayati Raj
(ii) Democracy
(iii) Power sharing
(iv) Decentralisation
(a) iv-iii-i-ii
(b) iv-i-ii-iii
(c) iv-iii-ii-i
(d) ii-iii-iv-i
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19. What do you call the act of taking power from State and Central
governments and giving it to local government ?
(b) Democracy
pH
(c) Decentralisation
20. What is the third tier of government known as ?

Ex
(a) Village Panchayats

(b) Local self-government
(c) Zila Parishad
(d) State government

1. Assertion : Belgium and Spain has ‘holding together’ federation.

Reason : A big country divides power between constituent states and
national government.
2. Assertion : India is a federation.

Reason : Power resides with the central authority.
3. Assertion : The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and
Concurrent List are considered as residuary subjects.
ub
Reason : The subjects included in the residuary list came after Constitution
was made and thus could not be classified.
4. Assertion : India has a federal system.

pH
Reason : Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of
government or the sub-units are subordinate to central government.
5. Assertion : It is very simple to make the changes in the basic structure of the
Ex
Constitution.
Reason : The Parliament cannot amend the Constitution independently.
6. Assertion : Coalition government is formed during a financial crisis in a

country.
Reason : It helps in forming a government at the Centre.
7. Assertion : Hindi is identified as the only official language of India.

Reason : It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking peopleover
others.
8. Assertion : Zila Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zila

parishad.
Reason : Mayor is the head of municipalities.
9. Assertion : A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992 by
amending the Constitution.
Reason : Constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy

more powerful and effective.
10. Assertion : Third-tier of government is local government.

Reason : It made democracy weak.
CASE 1: ub
Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the
country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are
included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters
pH
throughout the country. The Union Government alone can make laws relating
to the subjects mentioned in the Union List State List contains subjects of State
and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture and
irrigation. The concurrent list contains the subjects of forest, trade unions,
Ex
marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State
Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws
conflict with each other, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.
(i) In which of the following categories the legislative powers have been
distributed between the Union Government and the State Government?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(ii) The subject of marriage comes under which of the following lists?
(a) Concurrent List
(b) Union List
(c) State List
(iii) Which one of the following subjects is included in the State List?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Defence
(c) Marriage
(d) All of these
(iv) Which of the following can make laws regarding currency?

(a) Union Government
(b) State Government(c)
Local Government
CASE 2:
Source A- Federalism
ub
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a
central authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a
pH
federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire
country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national
interest. The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that
look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state. Both these
Ex
levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other.
Source B- Judiciary
The Parliament cannot on its own change this arrangement. Any change to it
has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least two-thirds
majority. Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the
total States. The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the
implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures. In case of any
dispute about the division of powers, the High Courts and the Supreme Court
make a decision. The Union and State governments have the power to raise
resources by levying taxes in order to carry on the government and the
responsibilities.
Source C- Language Policy

There were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there
are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the
Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central
Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these

languages. States too have their own official languages. Much of the
government work takes place in the official language of the concerned State.
Source A- Federalism
(i) What do you mean by Federalism?
Source B- Judiciary
(ii) Why is the role of Judiciary important in democracy?
Source C- Language Policy

(iii)How many languages are recognised as Scheduled Languages by the
Constitution?
CASE 3: ub
The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the
Union Government or what we call the CentralGovernment, representing the
pH
Union of India and the State governments. Later, a third tier of federalism was
added in the form ofPanchayats and Municipalities. As in any federation, these
different tiers enjoy separate jurisdiction. The Constitution clearly provided a
threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government
Ex
and the State Governments. Thus, it contains three lists:
1. Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the

country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are
included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters
throughout the country. The Union Government alone can make laws relating
to the subjects mentioned in the Union List.
2. State List contains subjects of State and local importance such as police,
trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments alone can
make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the State List.
3. Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union

Government as well as the State Governments, such as education, forest, trade
unions, marriage, adoption and succession.Both the Union as well as the State
Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws
conflict with each other, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.
(i) How does the constitution provided a threefold distribution of legislative

powers between the Union Government and the State Governments?
(ii) What are the subjects of Union List?
CASE 4:
The latest information that we have is from the Census of India in 2011. This
census recorded more than 1300 distinct language which people mentioned as
their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some
major languages. For example languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi,
Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many other were grouped together under
‘Hindi’. Even after this grouping, the census found 121 major languages. Of
these 22 language are now included in the Eight Schedule of the Indian
ub
Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled Language’. Others are called
‘non-Scheduled Language’. In terms of language, India is perhaps the most
diverse country in the world.
pH
(i) Much of the government work takes place in the ………… of the concerned
State.
(a) Mother language
(b) Official language
Ex

(d) None of them
(ii) Which one of the following options is correct about Hindi ?

(a) Hindi was identified as the official language.
(b) Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians.
(c) Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of
India.
(iii) Which of the following language is not grouped under Hindi language?
(a) Bhojpuri
(b) Rajasthani
(c) Santhali
(d) Chattisgarhi
(iv) How many languages are included in the Non-Scheduled Languages?

(a) 83
(b) 92
(c) 98
(d) 104
SOLUTIONS
1. (b) Vertical division of power

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2. (a) India
pH
3. (a) The type of federation in which a large country decides to
divide its power between the constituent states and the national
government.
Ex
4. (d) Governmental power is divided between different levels of

government.
5. (a) Union list
6. (a) Eighth schedule
7. (d) 1965
8. (c) Both national and state importance
9. (a) Union List
10. (a) One-third
11. (b) The central law prevails

12. (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. (c) No language is given the status of national language.
14. (d) In 1953
15. (c) 44%
16. (c) Judiciary
17. (b) Central government
18. (d) ii-iii-iv-i
19. (c) Decentralisation
20. (b) Local self-government

ub
pH

Ex
of assertion.
Explanation :
The power of a large country is divided between constituent states and
national government. The central government is more powerful than the
states.
of assertion.
Explanation :
India has a federal type government and there is three-tier system of power
sharing with central government, state government and local self government.
It is a union of states.
3. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
Explanation :
The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and Concurrent List
are considered as Residuary subjects. It includes the subjects such as computer
software that came after Constitution was made. Union Government has
power to legislate on these ‘residuary’ subjects.
Explanation :
India has a federal government. There is a central government for the entire
country and state governments for different regions.
ub
Explanation :
It is difficult to make changes in the Constitution in the federal system. Any
pH
change has to be first passed through both the Houses of Parliament through
at least two-thirds majority. Then it has to be
ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total states.
Ex
Explanation :
When no party is able to prove clear cut majority, several regional
parties come together to form coalition government. It has no connection with
the financial crisis in the country.
Explanation :
Hindi is identified as official language of India. However, it is spoken
by only 40 per cent of Indians. Thus, to safeguard the rights of other
linguistic communities, 21 other languages were recognized as Scheduled
Languages by the Constitution.
Explanation :
Panchayat samitis of a district together form the zila parishad. Zila
Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zila parishad. Municipalities
are set up in towns. Mayor is the head of municipalities.
9. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
Explanation :
The Constitution was amended in 1992 to make the third tier more
powerful and effective. It includes steps like regular elections for local
government bodies, reservation of seats for OBCs, SCs, STs and women and
creation of State Election Commission.
ub
Explanation :
The third tier of government is formed through decentralisation. It
pH
helped in making democracy stronger by bringing it to grass root level.
Ex
CASE 1:
(i) (d) All of the above
(ii) (a) Concurrent List
(iii) (a) Agriculture.
(iv) (a) Union Government.

CASE 2:
(i). Federalism is a system of government in which the power is
divided between a central authority and various constituent units of
the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government.
(ii). The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the

implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures.
(iii). Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as

Scheduled Languages by the Constitution.
CASE 3:
(i). The constitution provided a threefold distribution of legislative
powers between the Union Government and the State Governments by
ub
dividing the subjects of administration the subjects of administration into three
lists- Union List; State List; Concurrent List.
pH
(ii). 1. Union List includes subjects of national importance such as
defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking.
2. Communications and currency.
Ex
CASE 4:
(i) (d) Official language.
(iii)(c) Santhali
(iv)(b) 92.
GENDER, CASTE AND RELIGION
1. What is meant by the term ‘Feminist’?

(a) The qualities which are considered typical of women.
(b) A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and
men.
(c) The belief that men and women are unequal.
(d) The man who looks like the woman. ub
2. Indian society is of which type?
(a) A matriarchal society
pH
(b) A patriarchal society
(c) A fraternal society
Ex
3. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following aspect best signifies above image?
(a) A poster from Bengal affirming women’s strength

(b) A poster from Bengal affirming social discrimination
(c) A poster from Bengal affirming casteism
(d) A poster from Bengal affirming men’s strength
4. In which of the following countries, the participation of women is not very

large?
(a) Sweden
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) Finland
5. Which of these Acts provides that equal wages should be paid for equal
work to both men and women?
(a) Similar Wages Act
(b) Equal Remuneration Act
(c) Wages Equality Act
(d) Equality Act
6. How long on average, an Indian woman works more than an average man
every day?
(a) One hour
(b) Two hours
(c) Three hours
ub
(d) Four hours
pH
7. What was the percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha in 2009?
(a) 5
(b) 10
Ex
(c) 15
(d) 20
8. In which year the Equal Remuneration Act was passed. That equal wages
should be paid to equal work.
(a) 1966
(b) 1976
(c) 1986
(d) 1987
9. Which region has the highest representation of women in their national

Parliaments?
(a) Asia
(b) America
(c) Africa
(d) Nordic
10. Which law among the following deal with family-related matters such as
marriage, divorce, adoption, inheritance, etc.
(a) Family
(b) Civil
(c) Community
(d) Religious
11. When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to:

(a) Biological difference between men and women
(b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women
(c) Unequal child sex ratio
(d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies.
12. Which type of country India is?

(a) Communalist
(b) Dictator
(c) Monarchy
(d) Secular
ub
pH
(i) Social Reform Movement
(ii) Caste inequality
(iii)Caste system
Ex
(iv) Social community
(a) ii-i-iii-iv
(b) i-ii-iii-iv
(c) i-iv-ii-iii
(d) iv-iii-ii-i
14. Who among the following said that religion can never be separated from
politics. He believed that politics must be guided by ethics drawn from religion.
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
15. Choose the statement that is correct about the distinguishing feature of
communalism.
(a) Followers of a particular religion must belong to one community.

(b) Communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to different
religions can live as equal citizens within one nation.
(c) A communal mind does not lead to quest for political dominance of one’s
own religious community.
(d) A secular constitution is sufficient combat communalism.
16. What is leading to the breakdown of caste hierarchy?

(a) Large-scale urbanisation
(b) Growth of literacy and education
(c) Occupational mobility
17. Identify the reason that is not true about the fact that caste alone
cannot determine elections in India.
(a) No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste or community.
ub
(b) Some political parties are known to favour some castes.
(c) No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one
single caste.
(d) Political parties and candidates in elections make appeals to caste
pH
sentiments.
18. Which of the following social reformers fought against caste system?
(a) Jyotiba Phule
Ex
(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) B. R. Ambedkar

1. Assertion : Stereotypical gender roles for males and females helps in

avoiding conflicts.
Reason : India is a patriarchal society.
2. Assertion : Women face discrimination and disadvantage in India in many

ways.
Reason : India is a matriarchal society.
3. Assertion : Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, provides that equal wages should
be paid for equal work, irrespective of gender and caste.
Reason : Women are physically weak so they are righteously paid less than
men.
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4. Assertion : Sex-selective abortion led to decline of sex ratio in India.
pH
Reason : Desire for a male child makes Indian families abort girl child.
5. Assertion : Men and women should be given equal rights.

Reason : Men are superior to women physically and emotionally.
Ex
6. Assertion : Communalism is based on the idea that religion is the principal

basis of social community.
Reason : Caste should be kept away from politics.
7. Assertion : Universal Adult Franchise gives right to vote to everyone.

Reason : Right to vote should be given to people of upper caste and class
for taking wise decision.
8. Assertion : India is a secular state.

Reason : Constitution gives freedom to everyone to profess, practice and
propagate any religion without prejudices or any discrimination.
9. Assertion : Sometimes a caste group becomes vote bank for a party.

Reason : Selecting the candidate from same caste helps in ensuring better
governance.
10. Assertion : A casteist is a person who thinks that caste is the principal basis
of community.
Reason : All castes are equal and man-made.
CASE 1: ub
In India, the proportion of women in legislature has been very low. For
example, the percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has
touched 12 per cent of its total strength for the first time in 2014. Their share
pH
in the state assemblies is less than 5 per cent. In this respect, India is among
the bottom group of nations in the world. India is behind the averages for
several developing countries of Africa and Latin America. In the government,
cabinets are largely all-male even if a woman becomes the Chief Minister or
Ex
the Prime Minister. One way to solve this problem is to make it legally binding
to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies. This is what the
Panchayati Raj has done in India. One-third of seats in local government bodies
– in panchayats and municipalities – are now reserved for women.
(i) In which of the following years of Lok Sabha elections women got their
highest representation?
(a) 2019
(b) 2014
(c) 2009
(d) 2004
(ii) In which of the following level of government seats are not reserved for
women?
(a) Gram Panchayat
(b) Block Samiti
(c) Zila Parishad

(d) Vidhan Sabha

(a) Nordic countries are having highest women representation in politics.
(b) In India, the representation of women in politics is less than the average of
Asia.
(c) The women representation at state level is better as compare to central
level.
(d) No major improvement in women conditions have been seen when
governments are headed by women.
(iv) 1/3 reservation of women in local bodies shows that:

(a) It is good when social division becomes a political issue
(b) Feminist organisations were demanding to reserve seats in local bodies
(c) Parliament is very serious about gender equality
ub
(d) Political leaders want to give equal status to women in politics
CASE 2:
pH
Thus, caste plays different kinds of roles in politics. In some situations,
expression of caste differences in politics gives many disadvantaged
communities the space to demand their share of power. In this sensecaste
Ex
politics has helped people from Dalits and OBC castes to gain better access to
decision making. Several political and non-political organisations have been
demanding and agitating for an end to discrimination against particular castes,
for more dignity and more access to land, resources and opportunities. At the
same time exclusive attention to caste can produce negative results as well. As
in the case of religion, politics based on caste identity alone is not very healthy
in a democracy. It can divert attention from other pressing issues like poverty,
development and corruption. In some cases caste division leads to tensions,
conflict and even violence.
(i) At which of the following level of politics, caste factor is most

visible?
(a) Central level
(b) State level
(c)Local level
(d) None of these
(ii) Which of the following is not correct about ‘Dalits”?

(a) A community which has been discriminated by high caste people
(b) Dalits were considered ‘untouchables’ in Indian society
(c) B. R. Ambedkar worked hard to ensure their political right
(d) Now the issues related to Dalits are not visible in rural areas
(iii) Find out incorrect statement about caste in politics:

(a) Caste in politics always produces positive results
(b) Caste factor played important role in the formation of Central Government
(c) Social reformers and laws have played important role to reduce casteism
(d) Routes of casteism are visible in our society from ancient time
(iv) The political party having its main objective of upliftment of

lower caste people:
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Indian National Congress
(d) Bahujan Samaj
ub
pH
CASE 3:
Source A-Secular state

Ex
Communalism was and continues to be one of the major challenges to

democracy in our country. The makers of our Constitution were aware of this
challenge. That is why they chose the model of a secular state. This choice was
reflected in several constitutional provisions that we studied last year.There is
no official religion for the Indian state. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri
Lanka, that of Islam in Pakistan and that of Christianity in England, our
Constitution does not give a special status to any religion.
Source B- Caste system

All societies have some kind of social inequality and some form of division of
labour. In most societies, occupations are passed on from one generation to
another. Caste system is an extreme form of this. This system, hereditary
occupational division was sanctioned by rituals. Members of the same caste
group were supposed to form a social community that practiced the same or
similar occupation, married within the caste group and did not eat with
members from other caste groups.
Source C- Social Reformers

Caste system was based on exclusion of and discrimination against the
‘outcaste’ groups. They were subjected to the inhuman practice of
untouchability. That is why political leaders and social reformers like Jyotiba
Phule, Gandhiji, B.R. Ambedkar and Periyar Ramaswami Naicker advocated and
worked to establish a society in which caste inequalities are absent. Partly due
to their efforts and partly due to other socio-economic changes, castes and
caste system in modern India have undergone great changes.
Source A-Secular state

(i) What is the basic principle of secular state?
Source B- Caste system

(ii) What is Caste system?
Source C- Social Reformers

ub
(iii)Write some important name of political leaders and social reformers.
pH
CASE 4:
Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women
is housework and bringing up children. This is reflected in a SEXUAL DIVISION
Ex
OF LABOUR in most families: women do all work inside the home such as
cooking, cleaning, washing clothes, tailoring, looking after children, etc., and
men do all the work outside the home. It is not that men cannot do
housework; they simply think that it is for women to attend to these things.
When these jobs are paid for, men are ready to take up these works. Most
tailors or cooks in hotels are men. Similarly, it is not that women do not work
outside their home. In villages, women fetch water, collect fuel and work in the
fields. In urban areas, poor women work as domestic helper in middle class
homes, while middle class women work in offices. In fact the majority of
women do some sort of paid work in addition to domestic labour. But their
work is not valued and does not get recognition. The result of this division of
labour is that although women constitute half of the humanity, their role in
public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies. Earlier, only men
were allowed to participate in public affairs, vote and contest for public offices.
Gradually the gender issue was raised in politics. Women in different parts of
the world organised and agitated for equal rights. There were agitations in
different countries for the extension of voting rights to women. These
agitations demanded enhancing the political and legal status of women and
improving their educational and career opportunities. More radical women’s
movements aimed at equality in personal and family life as well. These
movements are called FEMINIST movements.
(i) Give an example of sexual division of labour in most families.
(ii) What will be the resultant of division of labour especially on the women?
(iii) What is feminist movement?
SOLUTIONS
ub
pH
1. (b) A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for
women and men.
Ex
2. (b) A patriarchal society
3. (a) A poster from Bengal affirming women’s strength
4. (c) India
5. (b) Equal Remuneration Act
6. (a) One hour
7. (b) 10
8. (b) 1976
9. (d) Nordic
10. (a) Family

11. (b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women
12. (d) Secular
13. (d) iv-iii-ii-i
14. (c) Mahatma Gandhi
15. (a) Followers of a particular religion must belong to one

community.
16. (d) All of the above
17. (b) Some political parties are known to favour some castes.
18. (d) All of the above ub

pH

Ex
Explanation :
Stereotypical gender roles where females are expected to do household work
and males are expected to earn living is unjustifiable. The female should also
get equal rights as the male. Also, India is a patriarchal society, Men are in
authority over women in different aspects of society.
Explanation :
India is a patriarchal society where men are considered superior to women.
Hence, women face discrimination and disadvantage in India in many ways.

Explanation :
Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, provides that equal wages should be paid for
equal work. However, women are considered to be inferior to men and that is
why, they are paid less. However, this belief is not correct and should not be
justified. Thus, unequal payment should not be advocated.
Explanation :
Sex-selective abortion led to decline of sex ratio in India. Indian parents want
to have son and want ways to abort girl child. However sex-selective abortion
is immoral and legally banned in India.
Explanation : ub
Men and women should be given equal rights as both are equal is every
respect.
pH
Explanation :
Ex
Communalism is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social
community. It considers that people of different religion can’t be equal citizen
and one should dominate the other. Caste createssocial conflicts and should be
kept away from politics as it leads to violence.
Explanation :
Universal Adult Franchise gives right to vote to everyone irrespective of caste,
religion, colour or gender. It is based on the principle of equality. Right to vote
should be given to everyone because that is the whole essence of a
democracy, equal representation. Class cannot determine wisdom.
Explanation :
India is a secular state. The Constitution gives freedom to everyone to profess,
practice and propagate any religion. There is no official religion of India.
Explanation :
Sometimes a caste group becomes vote bank for a party as people select the
candidate belonging to their own caste. This helps in representing and
communicating their personal interests on a wider front. However, it is wrong
to select a candidate on the basis of caste instead of personal abilities.
Explanation :
A casteist is a person who thinks that caste is the principal basis of community.
ub
However, such a belief is faulty as everyone is equal and no caste is superior to
other.
pH

Ex
CASE 1:
(i) (a) 2019
(ii) (d) Vidhan Sabha
(iii) (c) The women representation at state level is better as compareto central
level
(iv) (a) It is good when social division becomes a political issue

CASE 2:
(i) (c) Local level.
(ii) (d) Now the issues related to Dalits are not visible in rural areas.
(iii) (a) Caste in politics always produces positive results.
(iv) (d) Bahujan Samaj Party
CASE 3:
(i).The basic principle of secular state is that there is no official religion for the
Indian state.
(ii). Caste system is an expression of social division on the basis of caste. In this
ub
system, hereditary occupational division was sanctioned by rituals.
(iii). The political leaders and social reformers like Jyotiba Phule, Gandhiji, B.R.
pH
Ambedkar and Periyar Ramaswami Naicker advocated and worked to establish
a society in which caste inequalities are absent.
Ex
CASE 3:
(i). An example of sexual division of labour in most families women do all work
inside the home such as cooking, cleaning, washing clothes, tailoring, looking
after children, etc., and men do all the work outside the home.
(ii). The women constitute half of the humanity and if they are discriminated
on the basis of gender then half of the legitimate population will be destitute.
(iii). 1. Women in different parts of the world organised and agitated for equal
rights. There were agitations in different countries for the extension of voting
rights to women.
2. These agitations demanded enhancing the political and legal status of
women and improving their educational and career opportunities.
3. More radical women’s movements aimed at equality in personal and
family life as well. These movements are called FEMINIST movements.
POLITICAL PARTIES
1. A group of people who come together to contest elections for getting power
to run government is known as :
(a) Political Party
(b) Interest Group
(c) Political leadership
(d) Factional group
(a) Leaders
(b) The followers
ub
2. Which of these is the main component of political party?
(c) Active members

pH
(d) All of these
3. The rise of political parties is directly linked to :

(a) Emergence of representative democracies
Ex
(b) Large scale societies

(c) Mechanism of restrain and support the government
4. What is the main aim of political parties?

(a) To provide information
(b) To publicise its policies
(c) To capture and maintain power through winning elections
(d) To help poor people
5. Which of these is the function of a political party?

(a) Contesting election
(b) Forming and running government
(c) Forming public opinion
6. Which one of the following is a feature of ‘Partisanship’?

(a) Inability to take a balanced view

(b) Similarity of views
(c) Represents the individual
7. Who helps in the formation of a representative institution in a democratic

set up?
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Government
(c) The Political Parties
(d) The Judiciary
8. Who is a ‘Partisan’ ?
(a) Disloyal party member
(b) Ex-party member
(c) Estranged party member
ub
(d) A committed member of a political party or army
9. What is meant by ‘Defection’ ?

(a) Being loyal towards a party.
pH
(b) Changing party allegiance for personal interest.
(c) Introducing political reforms.
(d) None of these
Ex
10. Which form of government follows multi-party system?

(a) Monarchy
(b) Anarchy
(c) Democracy
(d) Fascism
11. The system of two parties is known as:

(a) Uni-party system
(b) Multi-party system
(c) Bi-party system
(d) None of these
12. The government formed by several political parties is known as:

(a) Alliance
(b) Uni-party system
(c) Group
(d) Coalition
13. A recognised political party is:

(a) a party that is present in one of the federal units.
(b) a party that is present in several and all units of the federation.
(c) a party that is based on regional and communal diversities.
(d) a party recognised by the 'Election Commission' with all the Nprivileges and
facilities.
14. ______ parties are needed in any democratic system to compete in

elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties to come to
power:
(a) Less than two
(b) At least two parties
(c) More than two parties
(d) At least three parties
ub
15. Which among the following is the correct meaning of 'Alliance'?
(a)Two parties together form the government.
(b) Leftists and Rightists together form the government.
pH
(c) When state and national parties together form the government.
(d) When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of
contesting elections and winning power.
Ex
16. Identify the political party that emerged out of a mass movement:
(a) DMK
(b) Congress
(c) Forward Bloc
(d) Bahujan Samaj
17. Who among the following chooses the candidates for contesting elections
in India?
(a) Members and supporters of the party
(b) Top party leaders
(c) The existing government
(d) None of these
18. Identify the incorrect statement about CPI (M):

(a) Supports socialism, secularism and democracy
(b) Opposes imperialism and communalism.
(c) Wants to secure socio-economic justice in India.

(d) Is critical of the new economic policies that allow free flow offoreign
capital.
19. A signed document submitted to an officer regarding his/her personal

information is :
(a) Affidavit
(b) Declaration
(c) Agreement
(d) Appear
20. Any party with 6% of total votes in the Lok Sabha or Assembly elections in
four states and wins at least 4 seats in Lok Sabha is recognised as :
(a) National Party
(b) Regional Party
(c) State Party
(d) Factional Party ub
pH

Ex
1. Assertion :In a democracy, political parties are a must.

Reason : Without Political Parties there will be no elections.
2. Assertion : Political parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a

society.
Reason : Parties work to convince people why their policies are better than
others and implement them by seeking popular support.
3. Assertion : Large established parties are called recognised parties.

Reason : These parties have been given certain specialised symbols that
people can rally behind.
ub
CASE 1:
pH
Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy.
For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties. If you travel
to remote parts of our country and speak to the less educated citizens, you
could come across people who may not know anything about our Constitution
Ex
or about the nature of our government. But chances are that they would know
something about our political parties. At the same time this visibility does not
mea popularity. Most people tend to be very critical of political parties. They
tend to blame parties for all that is wrong with our democracy and our political
life. Parties have become identified with social and political divisions.
Therefore, it is natural to ask – do we need political parties at all? About
hundred years ago there were few countries of the world that had any political
party. Now there are few that do not have parties. Why did political parties
become so omnipresent in democracies al over the world ? Let us first answer
what political parties are and what they do, before we say why we need them.
A political party is a grou of people who come together to contest elections
and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and
programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good. Since
there can be different views on what is good for all, parties try to persuade
people why their policies are better than others. They seek to implement these
policies by winning popular support through elections. Thus, parties reflect
fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are about a part of the

society and thus involve PARTISANSHIP. Thus a party is known by which part it
stands for, which policies it supports and whose interests it upholds.
(i) How do political parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society?
(ii) Who identifies themselves with social and political divisions?
CASE 2:
The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties. All over the
world there is a tendency in political parties towards the Mconcentration of
power in one or few leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership
registers, do not hold organisational meetings, an do not conduct internal
ub
elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient
information on what happens inside the party. The second challenge of
dynastic succession is related to the first one. Since most political parties do
not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are
pH
very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Those who
happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage to favour people
close to them or even their family members. In many parties, the top positions
are always controlled by members of one family. The third challenge is about
Ex
the growing role of money and muscle power in parties, especially during
elections. Since parties are focused only on winning elections, they tend to use
short-cuts to win elections. Democrats all over the world are worried about the
increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic politics. The
fourth challenge is that very often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful
choice to the voters. In order to offer meaningful choice, parties must
significantly different. In recent years there has been a decline in the
ideological differences among parties in most parts of the world.
(i) Identify the challenge faced by political parties that they need to
overcome to remain effective instruments of democracy.
(a) Secularism.
(b) Concentration of power in one or a few leaders at the top.
(c) To gain paramount power in the world.
(d) Decision-making by citizens.
(ii) How do leaders at the top level take unfair advantage of their position?
(a) Support secularism and democracy and oppose imperialism.

(b) Espouse secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities.
(c) Favour people close to them or even their family members.
(d) Support all members of the party to play an equal role in progress and
development of the nation.
(iii) What are the democrats all over the world worried about?
(a) Increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic politics.
(b) Major ideological differences among parties in most parts of the world.
(c) Distribution of power among the different members of the party.
(d) Equal distribution of power and money in parties.
(iv) Why do parties fail to offer a meaningful choice to the voters?

(a) Only rich people are favoured to cast their vote to the party.
(b) Parties use money and muscle power, and voters have no role as citizens.
(c) Huge ideological differences among parties, which confuse the citizens.
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(d) Decline in ideological differences among parties in most parts of the world.
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CASE 3:
In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the
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government. These are called one-party systems. In China, only the Communist
Party is allowed to rule. Although, legally speaking, people are free to form
political parties, it does not permit free competition for power. In some
countries, power usually changes between two main parties. Several other
parties may exists, contest elections and win a few seats in the national
legislature. If several parties compete for power, and more than two parties
have a reasonable chance of coming to power either on their own strength or
in alliance with others, we call it a multi-party system.
(i) The government formed by several political parties is known as:

(a) Community government
(b) Uni-party system
(c) Group
(d) Coalition government
(ii) Political party system is of _________ types.

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) All of these
(iii) In which of the following countries only bi-party system exist?

(a) The USA
(b) India
(c) China
(d) All of these
(iv) In which of the following countries multi-party system exist?

(a) India
(b) China
(c) South Korea
(d) Canada
CASE 4:
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pH
Source A- All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) was launched on 1 January 1998 under the
leadership of Mamata Banerjee. Recognised as a national party in 2016. The
party’s symbol is flowers and grass. Committed to secularism and federalism.
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Has been in power in West Bengal since 2011. Also has a presence in Arunachal
Pradesh Manipur and Tripura. In the General Elections held in 2014, it got
3.84% votes and won 34 seats, making it the fourth largest party in the Lok
Sabha.
Source B- Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)

Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed in 1984 under the leadershipof Kanshi
Ram. Seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan samaj which
includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. Draws inspiration
from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar
Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. Stands for the cause of
securing the interests and welfare of the dalits and oppressed people.
Source C-Communist Party of India (CPI)

Communist Party of India (CPI) was formed in 1925. Believes in Marxism-
Leninism, secularism and democracy. Opposed to the forces of secessionism
and communalism. Accepts parliamentary democracy as a means of promoting
the interests of the working class, farmers and the poor. Became weak after
the split in the party in 1964 that led to the formation of the CPI(M).
Source A- All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

(i) When was All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) recognised as a national
party?
Source B- Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)

(ii) From where Kanshi Ram draw inspiration while forming the political
party?
Source C- Communist Party of India (CPI)

(iii) What is the best example of parliamentary democracy according to the
Communist Party of India (CPI)?
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SOLUTIONS
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1. (a) Political Party
2. (d) All of these
4. (c) To capture and maintain power through winning elections
6. (a) Inability to take a balanced view
7. (c) The Political Parties
8.(d) A committed member of a political party or army

9. (b) Changing party allegiance for personal interest.
10. (c) Democracy
11. (c) Bi-party system
12. (d) Coalition
13. (d) a party recognised by the 'Election Commission' with all the privileges
and facilities.
14. (b) At least two parties
15. (d) When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of
contesting elections and winning power.
16. (a) DMK

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17. (b) Top party leaders
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18. (b) Opposes imperialism and communalism.
19. (a) Affidavit

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20. (a) National Party
Explanation :
Despite the fact that political parties are needed in a democracy, lack of them
would not stop the election process. However, it would make it impossible to
choose any one government. In a democracy, political parties are a must as

without them, any number of candidates can contest elections.
of assertion.
Explanation :
Political parties agree on some policies they believe are for collective good and
aim to convince people for support. For popular vote, political parties tend to
please certain sections of the society and thus, bring in partisanship.
of assertion.
Explanation :
Large established parties are recognised all over the country and in fact in the
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world too as they have been in power, made governments and have a
presence in many places. They also have a clear ideology and a symbol that
becomes synonymous to the party.
pH
Ex
CASE 1:
(i). (i) Political parties agree on some policies and programmes for the society
with a view to promote collective good.
(ii) Since there can be different views on what is good for all, partiestry to
persuade people why their policies are better than others.
(iii) They seek to implement these policies by winning popular support through
elections. Thus, parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society.
(ii). Political parties identify themselves with social and political divisions.
CASE 2:
(i). (b) Concentration of power in one or a few leaders at the top.
(ii). (c) Favour people close to them or even their family members.
(iii). (a) Increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic politics.
(iv). (d) Decline in ideological differences among parties in most parts of the
world.
CASE 3:
(i). (a) Community government
(ii). (b) 3 ub
(iii). (a) The USA
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(iv). (a) India
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CASE 4:
(i). All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) recognised as a national party in 2016.
(ii). Kanshi Ram draw inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu
Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb
Ambedkar.
(iii). Communist Party of India (CPI) accepts parliamentary democracy as a

means of promoting the interests of the working class, farmers and the poor.
OUTOMES OF DEMOCRACY
1. The most important outcome of democracy is:

(a) Accountable government
(b) Responsive government
2. Democracy is based on the idea of:

(a) Majority
(b) Minority
(c) Deliberation and negotiation
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pH
3. Expected outcome of democracy is:
(a) Quality of government
(b) Economic well being
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(c) Freedom and dignity

4. Democracy is better because it:

(a) Promotes equality among citizens
(b) Enhances dignity of the individual
(c) Improves the quality of decision-making
5. What do you call the system in democracy which allows the citizens to
examine the decisions taken by the government ?
(a) Transparency
(b) Universal Adult Franchise
(c) Defection
(d) Monarchy
6. Who has given the statement, “Democracy is a government of the people,

by the people and for the people”?
(a) Abraham Lincoln
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) None of these
7. What is the rule of people known as ?

(a) Democracy
(b) Military rule
(c) Dictatorship
(d) Monarchy
8. The word Democracy is formed by:

(a) Demos and Kratia
(b) Demos and Cracia
(c) Demos and Kracia
(d) None of these
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9. Which of the following is marked by “Regular, free and fair elections” ?
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(a) Dictatorship
(b) Democracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Military Rule
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10. Which among the following is the basic outcome of democracy?

(a) Military culture
(b) Elimination of poverty
(c) Warfare policies
(d) Political, social and economic development
11. Which of the following evil practices can be seen in democracy?

I. Corruption
II. Favouritism
III. Unequal development
IV. Military rule
(a) I, III and IV

(b) I,II and IV
(c) II,III and IV
(d) I, II and III
12. Which of the following options shows what can democracy lead to?
I. Handling of social differences
II. Secular society
III. Unequal economic development
IV. Harmonious social life
(a) I, III and IV

(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
13. Which of the following is the least expectation from democracy?

(a) It cannot accommodate variations in social life.
(b) It should produce a harmonious social life.
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(c) It develops procedure to conduct competition.
(d) It reduces the possibility of violent tensions.
14. Which of the following options shows that democracy attains people's
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happiness?
I. The government functions to represent general views.
II. It makes laws very quickly.
III. There is equal distribution of rights and liberties.
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IV. It has better governance.
(a) I, III and IV

(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
15. Identify the correct statement/s about decision-making in democracy:

I. It is based on norms.
II. It is based on procedures.
III. It is based on government's will.
IV. It is based on President's will.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and IV
16. Identify the correct statement/s about military rule of government :

I. Military rule of government has popular support.
II. Military rule of government is administered by military forces.
III. Military rule of government may or may not be formed by natives.
IV. Military rule of government has power over those who are in lower socio-
economic strata.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and IV
17. Which among the following options assures the accountibility of political
parties and democratic government:
(a) People
(b) Society
(c) World
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(d) None of these
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18. No deliberation and negotiation for taking decisions is a feature of this type
of government :
(a) Democratic government
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(b) Non-democratic government

(c) Monarchy
(d) Dictatorship
19. Which of the following options shows that democracy has failed on these
grounds ?
I. Corruption
II. Literacy rate
III. Economic inequality
IV. Legitimate government
(a) I, III and IV

(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
20. Which of the following options proves that the record of democracies is not
impressive?
(a) It often frustrates the needs of the people.
(b) It often ignores demands of majority of its population
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) It is a responsible government
explanation of the Assertion. ub
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Ex
1. Assertion : Democracies are based on political equality.

Reason : All individuals have equal political right to elect representatives.
2. Assertion : Democracy can address all socio-economic and political

problems.
Reason : Democracy is similar to dictatorship.
3. Assertion : Dictatorships have slightly higher rate of economic growth.

Reason : Economic development depends on country’s population size.
CASE 1:
Now look at the other side – democracy ensures that decision making will be
based on norms and procedures. So, a citizen who wants to know if a decision
was taken through the correct procedures can fin this out. Citizen has the right
and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as
transparency. This factor is often missing from a non-democratic government.
Therefore, when we are trying to find out the outcomes of democracy, it is
right to expect democracy to produce a government that follows procedures
and I accountable to the people. We can also expect that the democratic
government develops mechanisms for citizens to hold the government
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accountable and mechanisms for citizens to take part in decision making
whenever they think fit.
(i) Which of the following is a useful device to see the transparency in

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government?
(a) RTE
(b) RTI
(c) ITR
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(d) ITI
(ii) Find out the incorrect statement about democracy:

(a) Government is accountable, responsible and legitimate.
(b) Transparency means people can witness the process of Decision-making.
(c) Citizens are most powerful and can know about every decision of
government.
(d) Democracy is the only form of government where people can take part in
decision-making.
(iii) Which of the following is not the merit of democracy?

(a) Transparency
(b) Accountability
(c) Participation of people in decision-making.
(d) Lot of time is used to minimize mistakes.
(iv) Which of the following is not a device used by government to keep watch
on people?
(a) PAN
(b) Aadhar Card
(c) Right to information
(d) Bank account details
CASE 2:
We felt that democracy was better because it: Promotes equality among
citizens; enhances the dignity of the individual; improves the quality of
decision-making; provides a method to resolve conflicts; and allows room to
correct mistakes. When we talk to people around us, most of them support
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democracy against other alternatives, such as rule by a monarch or military or
religious leaders. Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and
practice some kind of democratic politics: they have formal constitutions, they
hold elections, they have parties and they guarantee right of citizens.
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While these features are common to most of them, these democracies are
very much different from each other in terms of their social situations, their
economic achievements and their cultures. Clearly, what may be achieved or
not achieved under each of these democracies will be different. Our interest in
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and fascination for democracy often pushes us into taking a position that
democracy an address all socio-economic and political problems. If some of
our expectations are not met, we start blaming the idea of democracy.
Or, we start doubting if we are living in a democracy. The first step towards
thinking carefully about the outcomes of democracy is to recognise that
democracy is just a form of government. It can only create conditions for
achieving something. The citizens have to take advantage of those conditions
and achieve those goals.
(i) Identify the statement that reflects that democracy is a better form of
government.
(a) Not many would be satisfied with the democracy in practice.
(b) Allows room to correct mistakes.
(c) Less developed countries with dictatorial government have better economic
growth.
(d) Decision-making is delayed in a democracy.
(ii) Which feature is common in democracy?

(a) They guarantee rights to citizens.
(b) There is no dignity of individual.
(c) Right to vote remains with the taxable group.
(d) Power is in the hands of one party.
(iii) How are democracies very much different from each other?
(a) Some do not have voting rights.
(b) Some nations have only one ruling party in power over years.
(c) In terms of their social situations, economic achievements and their
cultures.
(d) In terms of scientific developments and their culture.
(iv) What is the first step towards thinking carefully about the
outcomes of democracy?
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(a) Democracy always has to work to protect the minority community.
(b) In a democracy, economic growth is strong.
(c) In a democracy, there is no inequality.
(d) To recognise that democracy is just a form of government.
pH
Ex
CASE 3:
In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have
the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers.
Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in
decision making that affects them all. Therefore, the most basic outcome of
democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the
citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. Some
people think that democracy produces less effective government. It is, of
course, true that non-democratic rulers do not have to bother about
deliberation in assemblies or worry about majorities and public opinion. So,
they can be very quick and efficient in decision making and implementation.
Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. So, some
delay is bound to take place. Democracy ensures that decision making will be
based on norms and procedures. So, a citizen who wants to know if a decision
was taken through the correct procedures can find this out. She has the right
and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as
transparency. This factor is often missing from a nondemocratic government.
There is one respect in which democratic government is certainly better than
its alternatives: democratic government is legitimate government. It may be
slow, less efficient, not always very responsive or clean. But a democratic
government is people’s own government. That is why there is an
overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.
(i) What is the most basic outcome of democracy?

(a) A government that takes fast decisions and action without any opinion of
the citizens.
(b) A government that takes quick and efficient action with the help of
opposition.
(c) Produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive
to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
(d) Produces a government that holds citizens responsible for all the actions it
takes. ub
(ii) Why is there a delay in decision-making in a democracy?
(a) Democracy is on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
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(b) Democracy is enhances the dignity of the individual.
(c) Democracy is promotes equality among the citizens
(d) Democracy is provides a method to resolve conflicts.
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(iii) How can you say that a democratic government is transparent?

(a) The government holds elections every five years.
(b) The citizens have the right and means to examine the process of decision-
making.
(c) It addresses socio-economic and political problems.
(d) A democratic government will take more time to follow procedures
before arriving at a decision.
(iv) In which respect a democratic government is better than its alternatives?

(a) Most democracies will fall short of elections that provide a fair chance to
everyone.
(b) Democracies often ignore the demands of the majority.
(c) Democracy is a guarantee of economic development.
(d) It is a legitimate government.
CASE 4:
If you consider all democracies and all dictatorships for the fifty years between
1950 and 2000, dictatorships have slightly higher rate of economic growth. The
inability of democracy to achieve higher economic development worries us.
But this alone cannot be reason to reject democracy. As you have already
studied in economics, economic development depends on several factors:
country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries,
economic priorities adopted by the country, etc. However, the difference in
the rates of economic development between less developed countries with
dictatorships and democracies is negligible. Democracies are based on political
equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. Parallel
to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on an equal
footing, we find growing number of economic inequalities. A small number of
ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not
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only that, their share in the total income of the country has been increasing.
Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon. Their
incomes have been declining. In actual life, democracies do not appear to be
very successful in reducing economic inequalities. The poor constitute a large
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proportion of our voters and no party will like to lose their votes. Yet
democratically elected governments do not appear to address the question of
poverty as you would expect them to. The situation is much worse in some
other countries. In Bangladesh, more than half of its population lives in
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poverty.
(i) What type of nation have higher rate of economic growth as reflected
between 1950 and 2000?
(a) Democracy
(b) Dictatorship
(c) Monarchy
(d) Communist
(ii) The difference in the rates of what type of development between less
developed countries with dictatorship and democracies is negligible?
(a) Social development
(b) Political progress
(c) Historical development
(d) Economic development
(iii) How are democracies based on political equality?

(a) Democracies lead to a just distribution of goods and opportunities.

(b) Democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic
inequalities.
(c) All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.
(d) It promotes dignity and freedom of the individual.
(iv) In which country more than half of population live in poverty?

(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Japan
(d) Poland
CASE 5:
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Take the case of dignity of women. Most societies across the world were
historically male dominated societies. Long struggles by women have created
some sensitivity today that respect to and equal treatment of women are
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necessary ingredients of a democratic society. That does not mean that
women are actually always treated with respect. But once the principle is
recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is
now unacceptable legally and morally. In a non-democratic set up, this
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unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual
freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same
is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of
the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal
opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities,
but these lack the moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the recognition
that makes ordinary citizens values their democratic rights.
(i) The reason behind the discrimination of women in all fields is:
(a) They are less literate.
(b) They never claimed their rights.
(c) Most of the societies are patriarchal.
(d) They are less efficient as compare to men.
(ii) Why democracy is having better chance to remove caste discrimination ?

(a) In non-democracy, rulers are not getting the feedback.
(b) In democracy, people are having rights to express their feelings.
(c) In democracy, they can claim for equality and dignity.

(d) In democracy, people are more aware about caste related problems.
(iii) Which of the following is not correct about Indian caste system?
(a) Casteism is present in the society from ancient time.
(b) Now, condition is better than before.
(c) Laws played important role to remove caste based discrimination.
(d) More stringent laws are needed for total removal of casteism.
(iv) Find out the incorrect statement from the following:

(a) Now the condition of women is much better.
(b) Men have easily accepted the changes in the society.
(c) Still gender based discrimination is a big challenge.
(d) Feminist organisations have played important role to establish gender
equality.
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CASE 6:
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Source A-Dignity and freedom of the citizens
Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Often conflicts
arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due
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respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy.
Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principle.
This has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.
Source B-Non-democratic Regimes

Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in
promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to
receive respect from fellow beings. Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind
eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social
differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic
regimes. It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply rule by
majority opinion.
Source C- Strength of Democracy

Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in
decision making that affects them all. Democracy in India has strengthened the
claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and
equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and

atrocities, but these lack the moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the
recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.
Source A-Dignity and freedom of the citizens

(i)What are the basis of democracy?
Source B-Non-democratic Regimes

(ii) Why democracy is considered as the superior form of
government?
Source C- Strength of Democracy

(iii) How does the Indian democracy strengthened the claims of the
disadvantaged and discriminated castes?
CASE 7:
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Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in
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promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to
receive respect from fellow beings. Often conflicts arise among individuals
because some feel that they are not treated with due respect. The passion for
respect and freedom are the basis of democracy. Democracies throughout the
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world have recognised this, at least in principle. This has been achieved in
various degrees in various democracies. For societies which have been built for
long on the basis of subordination and domination, it is not a simple matter to
recognize that all individuals are equal. Take the case of dignity of women.
Most societies across the world were historically male dominated societies.
Long struggles by women have created some sensitivity today that respect to
and equal treatment of women are necessary ingredients of a democratic
society. That does not mean that women are actually always treated with
respect. But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to
wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally. In a
non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because
the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and
moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India
has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for
equal status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based
inequalities and atrocities, but these lack the moral and legal foundations.
Perhaps it is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their

democratic rights.
(i) What the Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the
disadvantaged and discriminated castes?
(ii) What is the characteristics of a non-democratic set up?
(iii) Why do democracy called best form of government?
CASE 8:
Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of
ub
democratic politics: they have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they
have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. While these features are
common to most of them, these democracies are very much different from
each other in terms of their social situations, their economic achievements and
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their cultures. Clearly, what may be achieved or not achieved under each of
these democracies will be very different.
(i) Explain the fascination for democracy amongst various countries.

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(ii) Explain democracy on the basis of expected and actual outcome.
SOLUTIONS

2. (c) Deliberation and negotiation
3. (c) Freedom and dignity

5. (a) Transparency
6. (a) Abraham Lincoln
7. (a) Democracy
8. (a) Demos and Kratia
9. (b) Democracy
10. (d) Political, social and economic development
11. (d) I, II and III
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13. (a) It cannot accommodate various social life.
14. (a) I, III and IV
15. (a) I and II
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16. (b) II and III
17. (a) People
18. (b) Non-democratic government
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20. (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Explanation :
Democracies are based on political equality and all individuals have equal
weight in electing representatives. People have equal right to vote in the
democracy.
Explanation :
Our interest and fascination for democracy often pushes us into taking a
position that democracy can address all socio-economic and political problems.
Democracy is not similar to dictatorship.
Explanation :
If you consider all democracies and all dictator-ships for the fifty years
between 1950 and 2000, dictatorships have slightly higher rate of economic
ub
growth. Economic development depends on several factors: country’s
population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries.
pH

Ex
CASE 1:
(i) (b) RTI.
(ii) (c) Citizens are most powerful and can know about every decision of
government.
(iii) (d) Lot of time is used to minimize mistakes.
(iv) (c) Right to information.
CASE 2:
(i). (b) Allows room to correct mistakes.
(ii). (a) They guarantee rights to citizens.
(iii). (c) In terms of their social situations, economic achievements and their
cultures.
(iv). (d) To recognise that democracy is just a form of government.
CASE 3:
(i). (c) Produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and
responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
(ii). (a) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
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(iii). (b) The citizens have the right and means to examine the process of
decision-making.
(iv). (d) It is a legitimate government.

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CASE 4:
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(i). (b) Dictatorship
(ii). (d) Economic development
(iii). (c) All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.
(iv). (a) Bangladesh
CASE 5:
(i) (c) Most of the societies are patriarchal.
(ii) (c) In democracy, they can claim for equality and dignity.
(iii) (d) More stringent laws are needed for total removal of casteism.
(iv) (b) Men have easily accepted the changes in the society.
CASE 6:
(i). The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy.
(ii). The democracy is considered as the superior form of government because

it promotes dignity and freedom of the individual.
(iii). Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and
discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity as they are able to
participate in decision making that affects them all.
CASE 7:
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(i). Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and
pH
discriminated castes for two things:
(i) Equal status.
(ii) Equal opportunities.
Ex
(ii). In a non-democratic set up, any unacceptability would not have legal basis
because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the
legal and moral force there.
(iii). (i) Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in
promoting dignity and freedom of the individual.
(ii) It also promotes equality among citizens.
CASE 8:
(i) Fascination about democracy amongst various countries is because:
1. It gives its people freedom of life and freedom of speech.
2. A democratic country has a strong economic system and all the people get
equal opportunities.
(ii) The actual democracies on the basis of expected and actual outcomes are
explained below:
1. Regular, free and fair elections, open public debate on major policies and
legislations.
2. Citizens right to information about the government and its functioning.
Democracies on the basis of actual outcomes are explained below:

1. Holding elections that offer a fair chance to everyone.
2. Not all decisions are discussed in a public debate.
3. Sharing information with people rarely happens.
4. Democracies have never been free of corruption and government has failed
to pay attention to the needs and expectations of people.
ub
pH
Ex
DEVELOPMENT
1. Which of the following is true about development?

(a) The notion of development is different for people from different sections of
society.
(b) The notion of development can never be conflicting for people from
different sections of society.
(c) The notion of development always go hand in hand for industrialists and
tribal people. ub
(d) The notion of development is only associated to higher income.
2. Under employment occurs when people:

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(a) do not want to work
(b) not getting paid
(c) are working less than what they are capable of doing
(d) none of the above
Ex
3. Which of the following is the best way to measure the development status
of a country?
(a) Number of cities in a country
(b) Per capita income
(c) Number of IT sector jobs in a country
(d) Inflation
4. In addition to the level of income which of the following measures are

important for measuring the development status of a nation?
(a) Literacy level and health facilities
(b) Bond prices and stock prices
(c) Inflation level
(d) Interest level
5. Which one of the following is also called average income?

(a) National income
(b) Per capita income

(c) Total income
6. Which of the following question needs to be answered when thinking of

national development?
(a) Would a development plan benefit people from suburbs?
(b) Would a development plan include construction of new buildings?
(c) Would a development plan benefit a large or a small number of people?
(d) Would a development plan lead to increased international trade?
7. Which of the following is a drawback of using average income as a measure

of development?
(a) Average income does not indicate the disparity in income level.
(b) Calculation of average income is a tedious process.
(c) Average income is always lower than the actual income of people.
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(d) Average income fails to indicate the economic stability of a country.
8. Development of a country can generally be determined by:

(a) its per capita income
pH
(b) its average literacy level
(c) health status of its people
(d) all of the above
Ex
9. Which of the following states has highest per-capita income based on the
Economic Survey 2018-19?
(a) Kerala
(b) Haryana
(c) Bihar
(d) Odisha
10. Name the basic criteria that is used by the World Bank for comparison of
countries on the basis of development.
(a) Income criteria
(b) Education
(c) Health
(d) None of these
11. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in

terms of human development than India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan
12. Yuvraj is 21 years old, he is 5’9” and weighs 48 kgs. While the selection for
the cricket team was going on the coach told him that he is underweight. On
what ground/s did the coach tell him this?
(a) His age
(b) His weight
(c) His Body Weight Ratio
(d) His Body Mass Index
13. What is India’s rank as per HDI Report, 2018?

(a) 75
(b) 101
(c) 130
(d) 100
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14. Name the country in South Asia which has lower HDI than India.
pH
(a) China
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Thailand
(d) Bhutan
Ex
15. Which one of the following statement defines ‘Literacy Rate’?

(a) Total literate population divided by total population
(b) Total literate population divided by total literate population
(c) Proportion of literate population in the 18 and above age group
(d) It measures the proportion of literate population in the 7 years and above
age group
16. Arrange the countries according to the order of their ranking, i.e., starting
with the top-ranked country based on HDR, 2018:
(i) Myanmar
(ii) Bangladesh
(iii) India
(iv) Sri
(a) iv, iii, ii, i

(b) iii, iv, ii, i

(c) iii, ii, i, iv
(d) iv, ii, i, iii
17. Arrange the following countries in the correct increasing sequence of Life
Expectancy at birth as per HDR (Human Development Report) 2018:
(i) Myanmar
(ii) Sri Lanka
(iii) Nepal
(iv) India
(a) i-ii-iii-iv
(b) ii-iv-i-iii
(c) i-iii-ii-iv
(d) i-iv-iii-ii
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18. Which of the following is true for a renewable resource?
(a) Renewable resources can never be overused as they are in abundance.
(b) Renewable resources are replenished by the nature over a period of time.
(c) Renewable resources are fixed, and they are bound to get exhausted.
pH
(d) Renewable resources are available only in developed nations.
19. Which of the following best defines sustainable

development?
Ex
(a) Sustainable development refers to the promotion of international trade so

that the world doesn’t have to face scarcity of resources because of
geographical constraints.
(b) Sustainable development refers to ensuring Pareto efficiency in the
countries so that resources are optimally allocated, and it is not possible to
reallocate resources to make some one better off without making someone
else worse off.
(c) Sustainable development refers to the development that meet the needs of
the present generation without compromising the ability of the future
generations to meet their own needs.
(d) Sustainable development refers to ensuring that no individual, firm or
country can become a free rider, i.e., no one can benefit from resources
without paying for them.
20. Which region of the world has the maximum amount of crude oil reserves?
(a) USA
(b) Middle East Countries

(c) China
(d) Japan
explanation of the Assertion. ub
pH
1. Assertion: Different people have different developmental goals.

Reason: The capitalist approach to development is detrimental to poor
Ex
section of the society.
2. Assertion: The average income of a country is about US$ 12,056; however,

the country is still not a developed country.
Reason: The income levels are highly skewed for the country.
3. Assertion: Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the net
attendance ratio in secondary stage is 47%.
Reason: More than half of the students are going to other states for
elementary education.
4. Assertion: A state has a per capita income of ₹2,25,000 per annum. The
infant mortality rate in the state is 62%. So, the state cannot be considered a
developed state.
Reason: There are medical facilities in the state, but people fail to take their
children to hospital in time.
5. Assertion: A small town has a high rate of robbery; however, a locality in this
town has well-maintained law and order.
Reason: The people in the locality are aware of the importance of having
security guards, and they collectively pay to have the security guards in the
locality.
6. Assertion: A high average income is not indicative of the overall well-being

or human development in a country.
Reason: Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate,
health facilities and public facilities in a country.
7. Assertion: A country that was extremely rich in natural resources has mainly
relied on oil extraction for revenue generation for several centuries. However,
the scientists predict that the country may become poor in the future if other
means of generating income are not devised.
Reason: Oil is a non-renewable resource, and it is likely to get exhausted if
not used judiciously. ub
8. Assertion: The crude oil reserves are going down for the entire world, and
the countries need to find substitute fuel for crude oil.
pH
Reason: A country that is dependent on imports for crude oil will demand
more crude oil in the future.
9. Assertion: Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the

Ex
countries.
Reason: Sustainable development ensures that environment friendly
measures are adopted for carrying out production processes.
10. Assertion: Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature.

Reason: Non-renewable resources cannot be replenished over a period of
time.

CASE 1:
Besides seeking more income, one-way or the other, people also seek things
like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others. They resent
discrimination. All these are important goals. In fact, in some cases, these may
be more important than more income or more consumption because material
goods are not all that you need to live. Money, or material things that one can
buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But the quality of our life
also depends on nonmaterialthings mentioned above. If it is not obvious to
you, then just think of the role of your friends in your life. You may desire the
friendship. Similarly, there are many things that are not easily measured but
they mean a lot to our lives. These are often ignored. However, it will be wrong
to conclude that what cannot be measured is not important.
Consider another example. If you get a job in a far off place, before accepting it
you would try to consider many factors, apart from income, such as facilities
for your family, working atmosphere, or opportunity to learn. In another case,
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a job may give you less pay but may offerregular employment that enhances
your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job
security and also leave no time for your family. This will reduce your sense of
security and freedom. Similarly, for development, people look at a mix of goals.
pH
It is true that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the
household and society increases. However, it is also the case that if there is
respect for women there would be more sharing of housework and a greater
acceptance of women working outside. A safe and secure environment may
Ex
allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business. Hence, the
developmental goals that people have are not only about better income but
also about other important things in life.
(i) What are the different things that people seek in the society besides good
income?
(a) Equal treatment in the society
(b) Freedom and security in the society
(c) Respect in the society
(ii) What are some of the factors that a person considers while taking a job?
(a) Income
(b) Facilities for the family
(c) Working atmosphere
(iii) What happens to the image of the women if they are engaged in paid
work?
(a) Their dignity and importance increases in the society
(b) Their dignity and importance decreases in the society
(c) Their dignity and importance remains same in the society
(iv) Which of the following things will promote more women in the work?
(a) Safe and secure environment
(b) Support of their family
(c) Respect from the society
(v) For development people look at _________.

(a) Single goal
(b) Mix of goals
(c) No goals
(d) None of these
ub
pH
CASE 2:
Ex
Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an
inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other
criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion but then it would not be so
useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health
and education indicators are among them. Over the past decade or so, health
and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a
measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published
by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people,
their health status and per capita income.
(i) According to you, which is one of the parameter to assess the education
level of the population?
(a) Infant Mortality Rate.
(b) Literacy rate
(ii) According to the given passage, the role of health and education is equally
important as money in our life is evident based on which one of the following
statements?
(a) What we need is a small number of the most important things.
(b) UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people,
their health status and per capita income.
(c) Level of income is an inadequate measure
(d) There can be many other criterion like education and health.
(iii) By publishing HDR, UNDP wants to:

(a) Emphasis on the role of education and health.
(b) Publishes balance development report
(c) Not rely on money as a important aspect of life.
considered in HDR?
(a) Number of holidays given to employees.
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(iv) What according to you, among the options given below, should also be
(b) Clean and safe environment.

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(c) Closeness to market.
(d) Number of bridges and flyovers.
Ex
CASE 3:
Source A- Ideas of Development

The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have
aspirations or desires about what we would like to do and how we would like
to live. Similarly, we have ideas about what a country should be like. What are
the essential things that we require? Can life be better for all? How should
people live together? Can there be more equality? Development involves
thinking about these questions and about the ways in which we can work
towards achieving these goals.
Source B- World Development Reports

In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion
is used in classifying countries. Countries with per capita income of US$ 12,056
per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries and those with per
capita income of US$ 955 or less are called low-income countries. India comes
in the category of low middle income countries because its per capita income
in 2017 was just US$ 1820 per annum.
Source C- Renewable Resources

Groundwater is an example of renewable resources. These resources are
replenished by nature as in the case of crops and plants. However, even these
resources may be overused. For example, in the case of groundwater, if we use
more than what is being replenished by rain then we would be overusing this
resource.
Source A- Ideas of Development

(i) What do you mean by economic development?
Source B- World Development Reports

(ii)Why India comes in the category of low middle income
countries?
Source C-Renewable Resources

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(iii) Why groundwater is the best example of renewable
pH
resources?
Ex
CASE 4:
Besides seeking more income, one-way or the other, people also seek things
like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others. They resent
discrimination. All these are important goals. In fact, in some cases, these may
be more important than more income or more consumption because material
goods are not all that you need to live. Money, or material things that one can
buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But the quality of our life
also depends on nonmaterial things mentioned above. If it is not obvious to
you, then just think of the role of your friends in your life. You may desire their
friendship. Similarly, there are many things that are not easily measured but
they mean a lot to our lives. These are often ignored. However, it will be wrong
to conclude that what cannot be measured is not important. Consider another
example, if you get a job in a far off place, before accepting it you would try to
consider many factors, apart from income, such as facilities for your family,
working atmosphere, or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give
you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of
security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also
leave no time for your family. This will reduce your sense of security and
freedom. Similarly, for development, people look at a mix of goals. It is true
that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and
society increases. However, it is also the case that if there is respect for women
there would be more sharing of housework and a greater acceptance of
women working outside. A safe and secure environment may allow more
women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business. Hence, the
developmental goals that people have are not only about better income but
also about other important things in life.
(i) What do you mean by income?
(ii) Why people seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and
respect of others?
ub
(iii) Why does job may give you less pay but enhances your sense of security?
(iv) What are the things people seek for development?

pH
Ex
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) The notion of development is different for people from different sections
of society.
2. (c) are working less than what they are capable of doing
3. (b) Per capita income
4. (a) Literacy level and health facilities

5. (b) Per capita income
6. (c) Would a development plan benefit a large or a small number

of people?
7. (a) Average income does not indicate the disparity in income

level.
8. (d) all of the above
9. (b) Haryana
10. (a) Income criteria
11. (b) Sri Lanka
12. (d) His Body Mass Index
13. (c) 130

ub
pH
14. (b) Bangladesh
15. (d) It measures the proportion of literate population in the 7 years

and above age group.
Ex
16. (a) iv-iii-ii-i
17. (d) i-iv-iii-ii
18. (b) Renewable resources are replenished by the nature over a period of
time.
19. (c) Sustainable development refers to the development that meet the
needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future
generations to meet their own needs.
20. (b) Middle East Countries.

Explanation:
Different people have different developmental goals because the notion of
development is different for different groups of people.
of assertion.
Explanation:
A country can have skewed data of income level, i.e., certain sections of the
society are extremely rich; however, a majority of the people are poor. In such
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a case, the average income is likely to be high for the nation, but the nation
cannot be called developed as the income is not distributed in an equitable
manner.
pH
Explanation:
Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15
Ex
years attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same

age group. If the students were going to other states for higher education, the
total students available in the state would go down and the net attendance
ratio would not be so low.The low net attendance ratio is indicative of students
dropping out of elementary school.
Explanation:
If the parents are earning well and medical facilities are available, then
they would definitely take their child for timely treatment. Also, some
parents may fail to do so, but not so many that the infant mortality rate
would be as high as 62%.
Explanation:
It is cheaper to have collective security for the entire locality than having a
security man for each house. Also, if people have their personal security guards
in certain parts of a locality, the robbery can still happen in houses without a
security man. Therefore, paying for the collective benefit of the society helps
to resolve issues.
Explanation:
Higher average income is not the only indicator of human development in a
country. Factors like level of literacy rate, health facilities and public facilities
are also important.
Explanation:
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If the country has relied on oil extraction for several centuries, it is likely that
pH
the country’s oil wells may start drying up as oil is a non renewable source of
energy. So, if the country would not find a substitute method of generating
income, then the pressure on oil wells will increase and the country is likely to
become poor in absence of oil.
Ex
Explanation:
The crude oil resource is becoming scarce, and the countries need to resolve
the issue as most of the production tasks are dependent on oil. It is obvious
that demand for oil will increase in future as the world population is increasing
so the demand for oil will also increase.
Explanation:
Sustainable development is essential for economic growth as it involves

judicious use of resources which leads to economic growth by reducing
wastage.
Explanation:
Non-renewable resources are fixed in amount and will get exhausted after
several years of usage.
CASE 1:
(i). (d) All of the above
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pH
(ii). (d) All of the above
(iii). (a) Their dignity and importance increases in the society

Ex
(iv). (d) All of the above
(v). (b) Mix of goals
CASE 2:
(i). (b) Literacy rate.
(ii). (b) UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels

of the people, their health status and per capita income.
(iii). (d) All of the above.
(iv). (b) Clean and safe environment.

CASE 3:
(i). The economic development is the process of improving
economic well-being and quality of life of a nation, region or local
community.
(ii). India comes in the category of low middle income countries

because its per capita income in 2017 was just US$ 1820 per annum.
(iii). The groundwater is the best example of renewable resources

because these resources are replenished by nature as in the case of
crops and plants.
CASE 4:
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(i). The term income refer to the financial gain accruing over a given time
period.
pH
(ii). The people seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and
respect of others because they wanted to avoid the discrimination.
Ex
(iii) The job may give you less pay but enhances your sense of security because
it offer regular employment.
(iv). The things which people seek for the development are:
1. Income
2. Other aspects like security, health, equal treatment, freedom, security, and
respect of others.
SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY
1. Which of the following is another name for primary sector?

(a) Service sector
(b) Agriculture and related sector
(c) IT sector
(d) Industrial sector ub
(i) Sale of a cloth in the market
pH
(ii) Using cotton fibre to make yarn and then weave cloths
(iii) Transportation of weave cloth to the market
(iv) Farming of cotton plants
Ex
(a) i–iv–iii–ii
(b) iii–iv–i–ii
(c) iv–i–ii–iii
(d) iv–ii–iii–i

(i) Buying from farmers
(ii) Government bear some cost
(iii) Selling at fair price
(iv) Ration shop
(a) i–iv–iii–ii
(b) iii–ii–iv–i
(c) iv–i–ii–iii
(d) iii–iv–ii–i
4. Which sector acts as an aid or support to the other sectors in the economy?
(a) Primary sector

(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Allied sector
5. Which sector generates services rather than goods?

(a) Tertiary
(b) Secondary
(c) Quaternary
(d) Primary
6. Bank/ATM is an example of which sector?

(a) Industrial
(b) Primary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of these
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7. Name the sector which continued to be the largest employer till today.
(a) Secondary
(b) Primary
pH
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of these
8. While baking a cake, the cocoa powder used by the baker is an example of
Ex
which type of good?

(a) Final good
(b) Service good
(c) Raw good
(d) Intermediate good
9. ‘Jaggery making’ is an example of which sector?

(a) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Non-economic sector
10. Which of the following sector does not come under the service sector in
India?
(a) Transport
(b) Electronic television development
(c) Real estate

(d) Restaurants
11. The goods that are derived by exploiting natural resources are referred to
as the goods of _______.
(a) primary sector
(b) modern sector
(c) secondary sector
(d) tertiary sector
12. Which of the following is another name for primary sector?

(a) Service sector
(c) IT sector
(d) Industrial sector
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13. Which of the following is a benefit of tertiary sector?
(a) The activities of tertiary sector help in the development of primary and
secondary sector.
(b) The tertiary sector helps in the production of goods by directly using
pH
natural resources.
(c) The individuals involved in tertiary sector use better quality seeds and
manure to produce agricultural goods.
(d) The individuals involved in tertiary sector buys raw materials directly from
Ex
farmers to convert them into final goods.
14. Which of the following sectors is the largest producing sector in India?
(a) Primary sector
(b) Modern sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Secondary sector
15. Which of the following is true for disguised unemployment?

(a) When individuals are unemployed for more than 100 days in a year, they
are disguisedly unemployed.
(b) If individuals become unemployed because a country starts using new
technology and the skills of workers become obsolete, they are disguisedly
unemployed.
(c) If individuals become unemployed because they are changing their jobs or
moving from one place to another, they are disguisedly unemployed.
(d) When individuals are engaged in some work, however, they workless than
their potential, then they are disguisedly unemployed.
16. GDP is the total value of _________ produced during a particular year.
(a) all goods and services
(b) all final goods and services
(c) all intermediate goods and services
(d) all intermediate and final goods and services
17. In which year was the National Rural Employment Guarantee

Act implemented?
(a) 2000
(b) 2009
(c) 2001
(d) 2005
(a) Primary sector

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18. Which sector contributes the highest to GDP in our country?
(c) Tertiary sector

pH
(d) Allied sector
19. Expand GDP.

(a) Gross Domicile Production
Ex
(b) General Distribution of Production

(c) Gross Domestic and Public
(d) Gross Domestic Product
20. Choose a method to tackle the problem of underemployment in a country.

(a) Identify, promote and locate industries and services where a large number
of people can be employed.
(b) The government should close down industries with lower employment
levels.
(c) The government should provide unemployment benefits to citizens.
(d) The government should focus on developing jobs in the unorganised sector
as most of the people are employed in unorganised sector.
1. Assertion: An individual who manufactures flour from wheat is engaged in

secondary sector.
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Reason: When some process of manufacturing is done, the product is a
part of secondary sector.
pH
2. Assertion: The development of agriculture and industry leads to the
development of service sector.
Reason: As the primary and secondary sectors develop, the demand for
transport, storage structures, banks, insurance, etc., increases.
Ex
3. Assertion: Rakesh is an educated and skilled worker who earns a high

monthly salary as he is employed in a private bank in a city.
Reason: All service sectors in India are growing extremely well and each
individual engaged in any kind of tertiary activity earns a high income.
4. Assertion: When calculating the total value of goods and services produced
in a country, the value of all goods and services at each stage of production
should be calculated.
Reason: The value of final goods and services produced in each sector
during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for that
year. The sum of production in the three sectors gives the GDP of a country.
5. Assertion: GDP shows how big an economy is.

Reason: GDP is the final value of all goods and services produced within the
domestic territory of a country in a year.
6. Assertion: In India, over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14,
while production in all the three sectors has increased, it has increased the
most in the tertiary sector.
Reason: Tertiary sector is the only organised sector in the economy so the
government spends a lot of money for creating jobs in tertiary sector.
7. Assertion: In India, the primary sector is the largest employer.

Reason: The demand for services has increased enormously.
8. Assertion: Leela works five days a week, receives her income on the last day
of each month and gets medical facilities from her firm.
Reason: Leela is working in organised sector.
9. Assertion: Mohan is a shopkeeper who pays his taxes on time. He has

employed two workers Rakesh and Raghu in his shop. He pays them well,
however, none of the workers get any paid leaves in the year.
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Reason: Rakesh and Raghu are employed in unorganised sector.
10. Assertion: Reliance Industries is a privately-owned firm.

Reason: Government is a major stakeholder is Reliance Industries.
pH
11. Assertion: There are several goods and services that the society needs;
however, the private sector does not produce all of them.
Reason: Private sector is profit driven.
Ex
CASE 1:
There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural
resources. When we produced a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an
activity of the primary sector. Why primary? This is because it forms the base
for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural
products we get are from agricultural, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also
called agriculture and related sector. The secondary sector covers activities in
which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of
manufacturing primary. The product is not produced by nature but has to be
made and therefore some process of manufacturing is essential. This could be
in a factory, a workshop or at home. Since this sector gradually became
associated with the different kinds of industries that came up, it is also called
as industrial sector. After primary and secondary, there is a third category of
activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above two.
These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary
sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an
aid or a support for the productions process. For example, goods that are
produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by
trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retails shops. At times, it may
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be necessary to store these in godowns. We also may need to talk to other
over telephone or send letter (communication) or borrow money from banks
(banking) to help production and trade.
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(i) The goods that are derived by exploiting natural resources are referred to
as the goods of __________.
(a) primary sector
(b) modern sector
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(c) secondary sector

(d) tertiary sector
(ii) Which of the following is another name for primary sector?

(a) Service sector
(c) IT Sector
(d) Industrial sector
(iii) Which of the following is a benefit of a tertiary sector?

(a) The activities of tertiary sector help in the development of primary and
secondary sector.
(b) The tertiary sector helps in the production of goods by directly using
natural resources.
(c) The individuals involved in tertiary sector use better quality seeds and
manure to produce agricultural goods.
(d) The individuals involved in tertiary sector buys raw materials directly from
farmers to convert them into final goods.
(iv) Which of the following best defines the gross domestic

product (GDP) of a country?
(a) It is the decrease in the value of assets over a given period of time.
(b) It is the value of final goods and services produced within the domestic
territory of a country.
(c) It is the difference between value of goods imported and the value of goods
exported.
(d) It is the value of all final goods and services produced by the citizens of a
country within and outside the country.
CASE 2: ub
Take the case of Laxmi with her two-hectare plot of unirrigated land. The
government can spend some money or banks can provide a loan, to construct
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a well for her family to irrigate the land. Laxmi will then be able to irrigate her
land and take a second crop, wheat, during the rabi season. Let us suppose
that one hectare of wheat can provideemployment to two people for 50 days
(including sowing, watering, fertiliser application and harvesting). So, two more
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members of the family can be employed in her own field. Now suppose a new
dam is constructed and canals are dug to irrigate many such farms. This could
lead to a lot of employment generation within the agricultural sector itself
reducing the problem of underemployment.
(i) The passage given above relates to which of the following options?
(a) Seasonal unemployment
(b) Creating more employment opportunities
(c) Importance of agricultural sector
(d) Importance of girl child.
(ii) According to the given passage, irrigation helps in increasing agricultural

employment based on which of the following options?
(a) The government can spend some money
(b) One hectare of wheat can provide employment to two people for 50 days
(c) Banks can provide a loan
(d) Laxmi will then be able to irrigate her land and take a second crop
(iii) By setting up a dam, which part of agricultural activities will be

impacted?
(a) Sowing
(b) Watering
(c) Fertiliser application
(d) Harvesting
(iv) To accommodate more family members, Laxmi needs to:

(a) Take loan from bank
(b) Irrigate her land and grow rabi crops
(c) Look for a canal system
CASE 3: ub
Another way of classifying economic activities into sectors could be on the
basis of who owns assets and is responsible for the delivery of services. In the
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public sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the
services. In the private sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is in
the hands of private individuals or companies. Railways or post office is an
example of the public sector whereas companies like Tata Iron and Steel
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Company Limited (TISCO) or Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) are privately

owned.
(i) The passage given above relates to which of the following

options?
(a) Sectors in term of ownership
(b) Role of private sector
(c) Public sector does people welfare
(d) Private sector has an edge over public sector
(ii) According to the given passage, TISCO falls under private sector because-
(a) It is the biggest iron producing company.
(b) It is operated by Government of India.
(c) It is jointly owned by government and private organisations.
(d) It is fully owned by private organisation.
(iii) Private organisations these days provide better services than public
organisations because:
(a) They have better
management
(b) They use resources judiciously
(c) To maximise their profit they satisfy their customers
(iv) Basic services like health, education and infrastructure usually come
under public sector. The reason is:
(a) These are profit earning areas
(b) Require equal and quality distribution
(c) Need better management
(d) Require timely updation
CASE 4:
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pH
Source A-Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005
The central government in India made a law implementing the Right to Work in
about 625 districts of India. It is called Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA 2005). Under MGNREGA 2005,
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all those who are able to, and are in need of, work in rural areas are
guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the government.
Source B-Value of final goods

The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a
particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And
the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross
Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and
services produced within a country during a particular year.
Source C-Sector in terms of ownership

Another way of classifying economic activities into sectors could be on the
basis of who owns assets and is responsible for the delivery of services. In the
public sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the
services. In the private sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is in
the hands of private individuals or companies. Railways or post office is an
example of the public sector whereas companies like Tata Iron and Steel
Company Limited (TISCO) or Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) are privately

owned.
Source A-Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005

(i) How many days of employment in a year are guaranteed by the Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005?
Source B-Value of final goods

(ii) What does the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) shows?
Source C-Sector in terms of ownership

(iii)Which sector of economies managed by the individual or company?
CASE 5:
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There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural
resources. Take, for example, the cultivation of cotton. It takes place within a
crop season. For the growth of the cotton plant, we depend mainly, but not
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entirely, on natural factors like rainfall, sunshine and climate. The product of
this activity, cotton, is a natural product. Similarly, in the case of an activity like
dairy, we are dependent on the biological process of the animals and
availability of fodder etc. The product here, milk, also is a natural product.
Ex
Similarly, minerals and ores are also natural products. When we produce a
good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. This
is because it forms the base for all otherproducts that we subsequently make.
Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing,
and forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. The
secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into
other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial
activity. It is the next step after primary sector activities if the product is not
produced by nature but has to be made and therefore some process of
manufacturing is essential. After primary and secondary sector activities there
is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different
from the above two. These are activities that help in the development of the
primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce
a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process. For
example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would
need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail
shops.
(i) What do you understand by primary sector? What is the other name of
primary sector?
(ii) What do you understand by secondary activities?
(iii)What do you understand by tertiary activities? What is the other name for
tertiary sector?
SOLUTIONS
Multiple Choice Questions ub
pH
1. (c) IT sector
2. (d) iv–ii–iii–i
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3. (a) i–iv–iii–ii
4. (c) Tertiary sector
5. (a) Tertiary
6. (c) Tertiary
7. (b) Primary
8. (d) Intermediate good
9. (b) Secondary sector
10. (b) Electronic television development
11. (a) primary sector

12. (b) Agriculture and related sector
13. (a) The activities of tertiary sector help in the development of primary and
secondary sector.
15. (d) When individuals are engaged in some work, however, they work less
than their potential, then they are disguisedly unemployed.
16. (b) all final goods and services
17. (d) 2005
19. (d) Gross Domestic Product

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20. (a) Identify, promote and locate industries and services where a large
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number of people can be employed.
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of assertion.
Explanation:
An individual who manufactures flour from wheat is engaged in secondary
sector as the product that is manufactured directly from raw material
produced in nature is the part of secondary sector.
of assertion.
Explanation:
As the primary and secondary sector develops the demand for the a
forementioned tertiary activities. When individuals become better off, the
demand for education, health services, professional training and
communication also increases. Therefore, the development of primary and
secondary sectors leads to the development of service or tertiary sector.
Ans. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Explanation:
In India, not the entire service sector is growing equally well. Service sector in
India employs many different kinds of people. At one end, there are a limited
number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the
other end, there are very large number of workers engaged in services sector
such as small shopkeepers, mechanics, transporters, etc. These people barely
manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no
alternative opportunities for work are available to them.
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Ans. (d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Explanation:
pH
When calculating the total value of goods and services produced in a country,
the value of final goods and services is calculated. If we add the value of goods
and services at each stage of production, we will get an inflated GDP as the
same value would be included multiple times.
Ex
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
Explanation:
GDP is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country. A
higher GDP is indicative of higher production level and higher economic
activity. Also, a higher GDP implies people of the country are earning more so
it is indicative of the size of an economy.
Explanation:
There are several reasons for increased production in tertiary sector such as
increase in demand for education, health, communication and transportation,
development of agriculture sector, increase in level of income and

development of information and technology sector.
Ans. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
Explanation:
The primary sector remains the largest employer in India because not enough
jobs were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors. However, the demand
for services has increased owing to increase in demand for education, health,
communication and transportation, development of agriculture sector,
increase in level of income and development of information and technology
sector.
Explanation:
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The firms in organised sector are registered by the government and have to
follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the
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Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and
Establishments Act etc. So as per the case, Leela is working in an organised
sector.
Ex
Explanation:
If Rakesh and Raghu were employed in organised sector, they would receive
benefits such as paid leaves, medical insurance and pension schemes from the
employer. Mohan is not following labour laws as he does not provide any paid
leave to his employees in the year.
Explanation:
Reliance Industry is a privately-owned firm as the assets and delivery of goods
and services in Reliance is controlled by private individuals.
Explanation:
Some of the services such as defence require a lot of spending and do not
provide any profit. Therefore, private sector does not invest in such activities.
Also, certain services such as public transportation and irrigation facilities
require massive spending which is beyond the capacity of private sector.
CASE 1:
(i) (a) primary sector.
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pH
(ii) (b) Agriculture and related sector.
(iii) (a) The activities of tertiary sector help in the development of primary and
secondary sector.
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(iv) (b) It is the value of final goods and services produced within the domestic
territory of a country.
CASE 2:
(i)(b) Creating more employment opportunities.
(ii) (d) Laxmi will then be able to irrigate her land and take a second crop.
(iii) (b) Watering.
(iv) (b) Irrigate her land and grow rabi crops.

CASE 3:
(i) (a) Sectors in term of ownership.
(ii) (d) It is fully owned by private organisation.
(iii) (d) All of the above.
(iv) (b) Require equal and quality distribution.
CASE 4: ub
(i) 100 days of employment in a year are guaranteed by the Mahatma Gandhi
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005.
pH
(ii) The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) shows how small or big economy is.
(iii) In the private sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the
hands of private individuals or companies.
Ex
CASE 5:
(i) When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, then it is called
the primary sector. Primary sector is also known as agriculture sector.
(ii) When the natural products are changed into other forms by ways of
manufacturing then it is called as secondary activities.
(iii) The activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary
sectors is called as a tertiary activities. The other name for the tertiary sector is
service sector.
MONEY AND CREDIT
1. Modern forms of money include:

(a) silver coins
(b) copper coins
(c) paper notes
(d) gold coins
2. In rural areas, farmers take credit for:

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(a) Health
(b) Education
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(c) Crop production
(d) Fodder
3. A major portion of the deposits is used by banks for:

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(a) setting up new branches

(b) paying taxes
(c) extending loans
4. Deposits in bank accounts that can be withdrawn on demand are called:

(a) Demand deposits
(b) Fixed deposits
(c) Recurring deposits
(d) Withdrawal deposits
5. Presently, banks in India, hold about ____ per cent of their deposits as cash.
(a) 35
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 15
6. Mohan produces ice cream and wants to sell it to people. He also requires
sugar to make ice cream, so he wishes to buysugar. Now, Mohan is unable to
find a person who will exchange sugar for ice cream. Which of the following
terms explain the problem that Mohan is facing?
(a) Lack of trade expertise
(b) Double coincidence of wants
(c) Irrational consumer behaviour
(d) Future expectations
7. Which among the following issues currency notes on behalf of the Central
Government?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Commercial Bank of India
(d) Union Bank of India
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8. Which of the following statements best describes a demand deposit?
(a) The cash held by people which can be used as and when they require is
called demand deposit.
pH
(b) The cash deposited in a bank which can be withdrawn ondemand is called
demand deposit.
(c) The order to a bank to pay a certain sum from the drawer’s account is called
demand deposit.
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(d) The currency approved by international bodies to carry out trade practices
is called demand deposit.
9. A paper that instructs a bank to pay a specific amount from a person’s

account to another person in whose name the paper is issued is called a
______.
(a) demand deposit
(b) time deposit
(c) bond
(d) cheque
10. Which among the following statements is true regarding banks?

(a) Banks mediate between those who want to sell one commodity in exchange
of other commodity.
(b) Banks use a major proportion of deposits to invest in mutual funds.
(c) Banks charge a lower interest rates on loan than the interest rate they offer
on deposits.
(d) Banks use the deposits to fulfil loan requirements of the people.
11. Which of the following statements best describes a debt trap?

(a) When a person takes a loan and is unable to repay the loan, he or she has
to sell portion of the land and it worsens the persons situation is known as a
debt trap.
(b) When a person takes loan for production process, earns good profit,
returns the credit and again takes loan in the next production cycle, the person
is in a debt trap.
(c) When a person takes loan from unorganised sector, the person is in a debt
trap.
(d) When a person takes loan from a bank, the person is in a debt trap as the
banks charge a very high interest rate on loans.
were exchanged without using money?

(a) Goods system
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12. Which among the following is the name given to a system wherein goods
(b) Exchange system

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(c) Barter system
(d) No-money system
13. Identify the correct option with regard to money from the following
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options:
(a) Currency
(b) Value
(c) Transfer
(d) Barter
14. A porter making pots, wants to exchange pots for wheat. Luckily, he meets
a farmer who has wheat and is willing to exchange it for the pots. What is this
situation known as? Select the appropriate option:
(a) Incidence of wants
(b) Double coincidence of wants
(c) Barter system of wants
15. What is the name given to a new medium of exchange that was developed
to solve the problem of similar wants?
(a) Capital
(b) Cost
(c) Rent
(d) Money
16. Which among the following is included in modern forms of money?

(a) Currency notes and coins
(b) Cowrie shells and stones
(c) Gold and silver coins
(d) Grains and cattle
17. Which of the following is the most important function of money?

(a) Used in banking transactions
(b) Payment of loans
(c) Medium of exchange
(d) Stock market exchange
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18. Identify the correct statement with regard to banks from the following
options:
(a) RBI lays down the norms for other banks.
pH
(b) SBI lays down the norms for other banks.
(c) Syndicate bank lays down the norms for other banks.
(d) PNB lays down the norms for other banks.
Ex
19. A person can withdraw money by issuing a cheque. Which one among the
following statements is true about cheque?
(a) Loan taken by the bank.
(b) Loan taken by the depositor from the bank.
(c) Paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount.
(d) Paper valid to withdraw money.
20. Identify the correct statement with regard to agricultural stage:

(a) In agricultural stage, grains were used as money.
(b) In agricultural stage, grains were used as commodity.
(c) In agricultural stage, grains were used as ingredient.
(d) In agricultural stage, grains were used as coins.
it does not have a use of its own.

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1. Assertion: The modern currency is used as a medium of exchange; however,
Reason: Modern currency is easy to carry

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2. Assertion: In India, no individual can refuse to accept a payment made in
rupees.
Reason: Rupee is the legal tender in India.
Ex
3. Assertion: The facility of demand deposits makes it possible to settle

payments without the use of cash.
Reason: Cheques are paper orders which make it possible to transfer
money from one person’s account to another person’s account.
4. Assertion: Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with
themselves.
Reason: Banks in India these days hold about 15 per cent of their deposits
as cash.
5. Assertion: Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer
on deposits.
Reason: The difference between what is charged from borrowers and
what is paid to depositors is the main source of income.
6. Assertion: Rohan took credit in the form of advance payment from a buyer
and he delivered the goods to the buyer on time and also earned profit. The
credit made Rohan better off in this situation.
Reason: Credit can never push a person into a debt trap.
7. Assertion: Credit would be useful if it does not depends on the risk involved
in a situation.
Reason: The chance of benefitting from credit is highest in agriculture
sector.
8. Assertion: Money eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants.

Reason: Money serves as a medium of exchange.
9. Assertion: Banks mediate between those who have surplus funds

(depositors) and those who are in need of funds (borrowers).
Reason: Banks hold about 15% of their deposits as cash.
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10. Assertion: Debt trap is a situation in which a person is caught in the vicious
cycle of debts.
Reason: This debt can be taken from only from informal sources.
pH
11. Assertion: Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns (such as land,
building, vehicle, livestock, deposits with banks) and uses this as a guarantee to
a lender until the loan is repaid.
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Reason: Lender can sell the collateral to recover the loan amount if the
borrower fails to repay the loan.
12. Assertion: The terms of deposit are same for all credit arrangements.
Reason: Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country's
development.
13. Assertion: The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal
sources of loans.
Reason: The RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profitmaking
businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small scale industries, to
small borrowers etc.
14. Assertion: Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s
development.
Reason: Banks and cooperatives give loans on a lesser interest rate than
the informal sector.
CASE 1:
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There is an interesting mechanism at work here. Banks keep only a small
proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves. For example, banks in
India these days hold about 15 per cent of theirdeposits as cash. This is kept as
provision to pay the depositors who might come to withdraw money from the
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bank on any given day. Since, on any particular day, only some of its many
depositors cometo withdraw cash, the bank is able to manage with this cash.
Banks use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans. There is a huge
demand for loans for various economic activities. We shall read more about
Ex
this in the following sections. Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan
requirements of the people. In this way, banks mediate between those who
have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need of these funds
(the borrowers). Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they
offer on deposits. The difference between what is charged from borrowers and
what is paid to depositors is their main source of income. A large number of
transactions in our day to-day activities involve credit in some formor the
other. Credit (loan) refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the
borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future
payment.
(i) What do you understand by the term credit?
(ii) Who will mediate between those who have surplus funds(the depositors)
and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers)?
(iii) What does bank do with the deposits of public?
(iv) How Banks help small businesses?
CASE 2:
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the
cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their
resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of
cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers’ cooperatives,
industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village
not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts
deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative
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has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide
loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can
take place. Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural
implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for
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construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.
(i) The passage given above relates to which of the following

options?
Ex
(a) Loan condition in rural areas

(b) Loans from cooperatives
(c) Procedure to obtain loan
(d) Various sources of credits
(ii) According to the given passage, Krishak cooperative is a good example of

cooperative source of credit based on which of the following options?
(a) Provides cheap loan.
(b) Functions in village setup.
(c) Easy collateral.
(d) Its members are local farmers and they pool their funds.
(iii) By providing loans to the small farmers, krishak Cooperative wants to:
(a) increase the income of the farmers.
(b) protect them from money-lenders.
(c) provide them cheap credit.
(iv) In a rural setup, cooperative societies are highly effective mode of credit
because:
(a) they have a large number of members.
(b) they do not need collateral.
(c) they provide loans at easy terms with low interest.
(d) they directly purchase agricultural equipments for farmers.
CASE 3:
Grameen Bank of Bangladesh is one of the biggest success stories in reaching

the poor to meet their credit needs at reasonable rates. Started in the 1970s as
a small project, Grameen Bank in 2018 had over 9 million members in about
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81,600 villages spread across Bangladesh. Almost all of the borrowers are
women and belong to poorest sections of the society. These borrowers have
proved that not only poor women are reliable borrowers, but that they can
start and run a variety of small income-generating activities successfully.
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(a) Self-help group
(b) Source of credit
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(c) Loans for poor

(d) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh
(ii) According to the given passage, Grameen Bank can be termed as a biggest
success story based on which of the following options?
(a) It was started in 1970s.
(b) Its member increased to 9 million.
(c) The borrowers are poor women.
(iii) By giving credit to poor women, Grameen Bank wants to:

(a) increase the standard of living.
(b) increase employment opportunities.
(c) empower poor women.
(iv) What according to you is the reason that Grameen banks is so popular in
Bangladesh?
(a) It provide loans only to women.
(b) It provides loan at very affordable rates.
(c) Help women to run a variety of small income-generating activities.
CASE 4:
Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development. The
various types of loans or credits can be grouped as formal sector loans and
informal sector loans. Among the former are loans from banks and
cooperatives. The informal lenders include money lenders,
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traders, employers, relatives and friends. Banks and cooperatives give loans on
a lesser interest rate than the informal sector. But bank loans require proper
documents and collateral. Absence of collateral is one of the major reasons
why bank loans are not available to small farmers and people who wish to start
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small industries. Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders
charge a much higher interest on loans. Thus, the cost to the borrower of
informal loans is much higher. Higher cost of borrowing means a larger part of
the earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the loan. For these reasons,
Ex
banks and cooperative societies need to lend more to the poorer section of
people. This would lead to higher incomes and many people could then borrow
cheaply for a variety of needs. They could grow crops, do business, set up
small-scale industries etc. They could set up new industries or trade in goods.
(i) Identify the types of loans or credits can be grouped into:

(a) Formal sector
(b) Informal sector
(d) Only (a)
(ii) What is the main reason that bank loans are not available to small
farmers?
(a) Lack of proper documents
(b) Absence of collateral
(iii) Which of the following is not a part of informal source of lenders?

(a) RBI
(b) Commercial banks
(c) Moneylenders living in rural areas
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(iv) Which one of the following statements is true regarding loans provided
by formal and informal sector?
(a) Formal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans than informal
lenders.
(b) Informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans than formal
lenders.
(c) Cost to the borrower of informal loans is much lower than formal loans.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
CASE 5:
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Credit is one of the major aspects that determine a country’s development.
There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. Cheap and
affordable loans give people an opportunity todevelop their business. Credit
plays a very crucial role in agricultural activities. People can borrow money and
Ex
use it to adopt modern farming methods to increase the crop production and
grow crops which are more reliable than the traditional methods. By
sanctioning loans to developing industries and trade, banks provide them with
the necessary aid for improvement. This leads to increased production,
employment and profits that ultimately help in the development of the
country.
(i) What is the main aspect that determines the country’s development?
(a) Economic activities
(b) Agricultural activities
(c) Credit
(ii) Which one of the following is not included in the terms of

credit?
(a) Rate of interest
(b) Mode of payment
(c) Rate of saving

(d) Collateral
(iii) ‘Cheap and affordable loans give people an opportunity to develop their
business’. Identify whether this statement is true or false.
(a) False
(b) True
(c) Inadequate information
(iv) Fill up the blank: People can borrow money and use it to adopt
__________ farming methods to increase the crop production and grow
crops.
(a) modern
(b) traditional
(c) advanced
(d) None of these ub
(v) Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion and
Reasoning. Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
pH
Assertion (A) : Bank loans leads to increased production, employment and
profits that ultimately help in the development of the country
Reason (R): Credit plays a very crucial role in procurement activities.
Ex
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation ofA.
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
CASE 6:
Source A- Borrowers and lenders
Every loan agreement specifies an interest rate which the borrower must pay
to the lender along with the repayment of the principal. In addition, lenders
may demand collateral (security) against loans. Collateral is an asset that the
borrower owns (such as land, building, vehicle, livestock, deposits with banks)
and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.
Source B- Formal sector in India

The various types of loans can be conveniently grouped as formal sector loans
and informal sector loans. Among the former are loans from banks and
cooperatives. The informal lenders include moneylenders, traders, employers,
relatives and friends, etc. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning
of formal sources of loans. For instance, we have seen that the banks maintain
a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they receive. The RBI monitors the
banks in actually maintaining cash balance.
Source C- Loan activities of banks

Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves.
For example, banks in India these days hold about 15 per cent of their deposits
as cash. This is kept as provision to pay the depositors who might come to
withdraw money from the bank on any given day. Since, on any particular day,
only some of its many depositors come to withdraw cash, the bank is able to
manage with this cash.
Source A- Borrowers and lenders

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(i) What do you mean by collateral in banking system?
pH
Source B- Formal sector in India
(ii) Who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?
Source C- Loan activities of banks

Ex
(iii) What per cent of deposits is used as cash by banks?
CASE 7:
Source A- Medium of exchange
In an economy where money is in use, money by providing the crucial
intermediate step eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants. It is no
longer necessary for the shoe manufacturer to look for a farmer who will buy
his shoes and at the same time sell him wheat. All he has to do is find a buyer
for his shoes. Once he has exchanged his shoes for money, he can purchase
wheat or any other commodity in the market. Since money acts as an
intermediate in the exchange process, it is called a medium of exchange.
Source B- Issuing of currency

As per the Indian law, no other individual or organisation is allowed to issue

currency. Moreover, the law legalises the use of rupee as a medium of
payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India. No individual
in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees. Hence, the rupee is
widely accepted as a medium of exchange.
Source C- Credit arrangement

Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of
repayment together comprise what is called the terms of credit. The terms of
credit vary substantially from one credit arrangement to another. They may
vary depending on the nature of the lender and the borrower. The next section
will provide examples of the varying terms of credit in different credit
arrangements.
Source A- Medium of exchange

(i) Why money acts as an intermediary in the exchange process?
Source- B Issuing of currency

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(ii) Do any individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency in India?
pH
Source C- Credit arrangement
(iii) What are terms of credit?
Ex
SOLUTIONS
1. (c) paper notes
2. (d) Fodder
3. (c) extending loans

4. (a) Demand deposits
5. (d) 15
6. (b) Double coincidence of wants
7. (b) Reserve Bank of India
8. (b) The cash deposited in a bank which can be withdrawn on

demand is called demand deposit.
9. (d) cheque
10. (d) Banks use the deposits to fulfil loan requirements of the people.
11. (a) When a person takes a loan and is unable to repay the loan, he or she
ub
has to sell portion of the land and it worsens the persons situation is known as
a debt trap.
12. (c) Barter system

pH
13. (a) Currency
14. (b) Double coincidence of wants

Ex
15. (d) Money
16. (a) Currency notes and coins
17. (c) Medium of exchange
18. (a) RBI lays down the norms for other banks.
19.. (c) Paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount.
20. (a) In agricultural stage, grains were used as money.

Explanation :
The modern currency is used as a medium of exchange because it is accepted
and authorised as a medium of exchange by a country’s government.
of assertion.
Explanation :
The law legalises the use of rupee as a medium of payment that cannot be
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refused by anyone in settling transactions in India.

pH
Explanation :
The facility of cheques against demand deposits makes it possible to directly
settle payments without the use of cash. Since demand deposits are accepted
widely as a means of payment, along with currency, they constitute money in
Ex
the modern economy.
Explanation :
Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves
because they use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans as there is
a huge demand for loans for various economic activities.
of assertion.
Explanation :
Banks in India hold about 15 per cent of their deposits as cash as the remaining
deposits are used to provide loans. The interest charged on loans is higher than
the interest paid on deposits and the difference between the two interest
rates is the major source of income for banks.
Explanation :
The credit made Rohan better off in this situation, however, Rohan would have
been worse off if he would have failed to deliver the goods on time or he had
suffered a loss in the production process. The latter two situations may have
caused Rohan to fall in a debt trap.
Explanation :
Whether credit would be useful or not depends on the risks in the situation
and whether there is some support, in case of loss.
ub
of assertion.
pH
Explanation :
Money by providing the crucial intermediate step eliminates the need for
double coincidence of wants. A person holding money can easily exchange it
for any commodity or service. Money acts as an intermediary between the
Ex
buyer and the seller. To serve as a medium of exchange, money must be very
widely accepted as a method of payment in the markets for goods, labour, and
financial capital.
Explanation :
Banks mediate between those who need money (borrowers) and those who
have surplus money (depositors). Major part of the deposits available with the
banks are given as loans. Only a small proportionof deposits received by banks
are kept as cash with themselves. As per the RBI, banks in India, these days
hold about 15 per cent of their deposits as cash, as a provision to pay the
depositors who might come to withdraw money from the bank on any given
day.
Explanation :
Debt trap is a situation where the debtor will not be able to repay the debt
incurred. This situation may arise due to the higher interest rates or change in
terms and conditions of debt incurred and results in default in payments or
bankruptay.
Explanation :
Property such as land titles, deposits with banks, livestock are some common
examples of collateral used for borrowing. In case of failure of repayment of
loan, the lender can sell the collateral to recover the loan amount.
ub
Explanation :
The terms of credit vary substantially from one credit arrangement to another.
pH
They may vary depending on the nature of the lender and the borrower.
Whereas cheap and affordable credit means more income would be lift with
the borrower to reinvest rather than return as interest.
Ex
Explanation :
The RBI oversees the functioning of commercial banks. RBI through Rationing
of credit set the limit for maximum amount of loans and advances. It also fixes
ceiling for specific categories of loans and advances. It ensures that the banks
give loans not just to profitmaking businesses and traders but also to small
borrowers.
Explanation :
Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country's development because
more lending would lead to higher incomes and encourage people to invest in
agriculture, engage in business and set up small scale industries.
CASE 1:
(i) Credit (loan) refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the
borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future
payment.
ub
(ii) Bank will mediate between those who have surplus funds (the depositors)
and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers).
(iii) Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of the
pH
people.
(iv) Banks provide financial and advisory serivices to small and medium
businesses, these services are tailored to the specific needs of each business.
Ex
CASE 2:
(i) (b) Loans from cooperatives
(ii) (d) Its members are the local farmers and they pool their funds.
(iii) (d) All of the above
(iv) (c) they provide loans at easy terms with low interest.
CASE 3:
(i) (d) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh
(ii) (d) All of the above
(iii) (c) empower poor women.
(iv) (b) It provides loan at very affordable rates.
CASE 4:
(i) (c) Both (a) and (b)
(ii) (b) Absence of collateral
(iii) (d) Both (a) and (b) ub

(iv) (b) Informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans than formal
lenders.
pH
CASE 5:
Ex
(i) (c) Credit
(ii) (c) Rate of saving
(iii) (b) True
(iv) (a) modern
(v) (c) (A) is true and (R) is false
CASH 6:
(i) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns (such as land, building, vehicle,
livestocks, deposit with banks) and uses this to provide guarantee to lender
until the loan is repaid.
(ii) The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of
loans.
(iii) Banks in India, these days, hold about 15 per cent of their deposits as cash.
CASE 7:
(i) Money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process because it is
considered as a medium of exchange
(ii) As per the Indian law, no other individual or organisation is allowed to issue
currency. Moreover, the law legalises the use of rupee as a medium of
payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India.
ub
(iii) The interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the
mode of repayment together comprise terms of credit.
pH
Ex
GLOBALISATION AND THE INDIAN

ECONOMY
1. Which Indian company has been bought by Cargill Foods, an MNC?

(a) Amul
(b) Parakh foods
(c) Britannia
(d) Dabur
ub
2. Name the Indian manufacturer with which Ford Motors entered the Indian
automobile business.
(a) Mahindra and Mahindra
pH
(b) Suzuki
(c) Maruti
(d) Hindustan Motors
Ex
3. Which of the following best describes MNC?

(a) MNC is a company that controls production of goods and services in
multiple nations.
(b) MNC is a government organised body that controls the distribution of
resources in a country.
(c) MNC is an organisation that ensures new technology is used by the farming
sector of a country.
(d) MNC is a conglomerate of domestic companies that controls production of
goods and services in the domestic region.
4. Rajiv has a textile firm. For carrying out production, Rajiv spent money on
procuring thread from traders, buying machine and equipment and built a
warehouse to store the cloth produced. The expenditure incurred by Rajiv for
conducting the production process is termed as _____.
(a) investment
(b) profits
(c) equity
(d) interest
5. The investment made by MNCs is called ______.

(a) foreign investment
(b) foreign trade
(c) foreign demand
(d) foreign supply
6. Identify which one of the following is a major benefit of joint production

between a local company and a Multinational Company?
(a) MNCs can bring latest technology in the production.
(b) MNCs can control the increase in the price.
(c) MNCs can buy the local company.
(d) MNCs can sell the products under their brand name.
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7. Identify the incorrect feature of a Multinational Company.
(a) It owns/controls production in more than one nation.
(b) It sets up factories where it is close to the markets.
(c) It organises production in complex ways.
pH
(d) It employs labour only from its own country.
8. Identify why do MNCs set up offices and factories in more than one nation?
(a) Because the cost of production is high and the MNCs can earn profit.
Ex
(b) Because the cost of production is low and the MNCs undergo a loss.
(c) Because the cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profit.
(d) Because the MNCs want to make their presence felt globally.
9. The past two decades of globalisation have seen rapid movements in:
(a) goods, services, technology and investments between countries.
(b) goods, services and people between countries.
(c) goods, investments and people between countries.
10. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions:

(a) of all the people.
(b) of people in developed countries.
(c) of workers in the developing countries.
11. Globalisation, by connecting countries, leads to:

(a) no competition between producers.
(b) lesser competition between producers.
(c) greater competition between producers.
12. Trade between countries:

(a) decreases competition between countries.
(b) determines prices of products in different countries.
(c) makes a country dependent on the other.
13. What was the far reaching change in the policy made in India in 1991?
(a) Increase in trade barriers
(b) Removal of trade barriers
(c) Remove taxation
(d) None of the above ub
14. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called:
(a) investment
pH
(b) liberalisation
(c) favourable trade
(d) free trade
Ex
15. Which of the following is an example of globalisation?

(a) Indians consuming goods produced abroad.
(b) Indians becoming self-sufficient in terms of production of goods and
services.
(c) Indians moving across different states in domestic territory.
(d) Indians producing huge amount of agricultural produce.
16. Which of the following is a benefit of globalisation?

(a) Consumers pay higher amount for goods and services, so producers are
better off.
(b) Asymmetric information cannot exist in a globalised market.
(c) Consumers get a wide variety of goods to choose from.
(d) Homogeneous goods are sold in a globalised market.
17. Which of the following is an advantage of globalisation to Multinational

Companies?
(a) Multinational companies do not have to procure raw materials from other
countries as globalisation leads to self-sufficiency of companies.
(b) Spreading out production across international borders can help in lowering
the cost of production.
(c) When Multinational Companies expand production across the world, they
do not have to pay taxes as they help in generating employment.
(d) Multinational Companies can easily put the burden of increased cost of
production on global consumers and continue to earn high profits.
18. Which of the following can be a benefit to local businesses if they conduct
business with MNCs?
(a) Local businesses do not have to invest in the business as MNCs do all the
investment.
(b) MNCs provide cheap labour to local businesses.
(c) MNCs can bring advanced techniques of production.
(d) Local businesses earn higher profits as their cost of production becomes nil.
ub
19. Which of the following is an example of a trade barrier?
(a) Remittances to foreigners
(b) Cost of transportation
pH
(c) Tax on imports
(d) Interest on bonds
20. Which of the following is a reason for the government to impose barriers
Ex
on trade?
(a) To regulate the type and amount of goods that can enter the country.
(b) To increase competition in domestic market.
(c) To remove monopoly markets from the country.
(d) To improve the performance of domestic producers.
1. Assertion: Local businesses may set up joint production process with MNCs
and earn higher profits.
Reason: MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like buying
new machines for faster production.
2. Assertion: MNCs can exert a strong influence on production at distant

locations.
Reason: MNCs set up partnerships with local companies, use local
ub
companies for supplies, compete with the local companies or buy them up.
3. Assertion: (MNCs) is a company that owns or controls production in more

than one nation.
pH
Reason: MNCs not only sell their finished products globally, but more
importantly, the goods and services are produced globally.
4. Assertion: Global production has a complex structure.

Ex
Reason: Production of one good may take place in different parts of the
world. For instance, an equipment may be formed by combining components
produced in different countries.
5. Assertion: Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach

beyond the domestic markets.
Reason: Foreign trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is
domestically produced.
6. Assertion: Due to foreign trade, producers in different countries closely

compete with each other.
Reason: Foreign trade leads to similar prices of good across boundaries,
and the producers who do not offer competitive prices may lose the market
share.
7. Assertion: Foreign trade and foreign investment results in disintegration of

production across countries.
Reason: MNCs promote the production processes in domestic country.
8. Assertion: Rapid improvement in technology has been on major factor that

has stimulated the globalisation process.
Reason: Developing countries are likely to become at par with developed
countries in terms of technological development due globalisation.
9. Assertion: Tax on imports makes the market for imported goods lucrative in
terms of earning higher profits.
Reason: Taxes are imposed to regulate trade between nations. This was
considered necessary to protect the producers within the country from foreign
competition.
10. Assertion: The removal of barriers to trade is known as liberalisation.

Reason: Liberalisation of trade allows businesses to freely decide which
goods to import and export.
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11. Assertion: Globalisation leads to increased competition in international
and domestic markets.
Reason: Globalisation also makes the consumers better off as they have a
pH
wider variety of goods to choose from at lower prices.
12. Assertion: In 1991, government decides to remove barriers on foreign

trade and investment in India.
Ex
Reason: Starting around 1991, some far-reaching changes in policy were

made in India.
13. Assertion: Tax on exports is an important barrier on foreign trade.

Reason: Governments can use trade barriers to increase or decrease
foreign trade.
14. Assertion: Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all, and also
ensure that the benefits of globalisation are shared better.
Reason: Globalisation has benefited well-off consumers and also
producers with skill, education and wealth.
15. Assertion: Special Economic Zones or SEZs are industrial zones set up by
the government.
Reason: Companies who set up production units in SEZs are exempted

from taxes for an initial period of two years.
CASE 1:
ub
There are a variety of ways in which the MNCs are spreading their production
and interacting with local producers in various countries across the globe. By
setting up partnerships with local companies, by using the local companies for
supplies, by closely competing with the local companies or buying them up,
pH
MNCs are exerting a strong influence on production at these distant locations.
As a result, production in these widely dispersed locations is getting
interlinked.
Ex
(i) Which of the following best describes an MNC?

(a) An MNC is a company that controls production of goods and services in
multiple nations.
(b) An MNC is a government organised body that controls the distribution of
resources in a country.
(c) An MNC is an organisation that ensures new technology is used by the
farming sector of a country.
(d) An MNC is a conglomerate of domestic companies that control production
of goods and services in the domestic region.
(ii) Which of the following is an advantage of globalisation to multinational

companies?
(a) Multinational companies do not have to procure raw materials from other
countries as globalisation leads to self-sufficiency of companies.
(b) Spreading out production across international borders can help in lowering
the cost of production.
(c) When multinational companies expand production across the world, they
do not have to pay taxes as they help in generating employment.
(d) Multinational companies can easily put the burden of increased cost of
production on global consumers and continue to earn high profits.
(iii) Rajiv has a textile firm. For carrying out production, Rajiv spent money on
procuring thread from traders, buying machine and equipment and built a
warehouse to store the cloth produced. The expenditure incurred by Rajiv for
conducting the production process is termed as ………… .
(a) investment
(b) profits
(c) equity
(d) interest
(iv) Which of the following can be a benefit to local businesses if they

conduct business with MNCs?
investment.
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(a) Local businesses do not have to invest in the business as MNCs do all the
(b) MNCs provide cheap labour to local businesses.

(c) MNCs can bring advanced techniques of production.
pH
(d) Local businesses earn higher profits as their cost of production becomes nil.
Ex
CASE 2:
Source A : Production across countries
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised
within countries. What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw
material, food stuff and finished products. Colonies such as India exported raw
materials and food stuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main
channel connecting distant countries. This was before large companies called
Multinational Corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene.
Source B : Foreign trade and integrationof markets

Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reachbeyond the
domestic markets, i.e., markets of their own countries, Producers can sell their
produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete
in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers,
import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the

choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.
Source C : Impact of globalisation in India

Globalisation and greater competition among producers–both loca and foreign
producers–has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off
sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before these consumers
who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a
result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was
possible earlier.
Source A : Production across countries

(i) How are MNCs a major force in connecting the countries of the world?
Source B : Foreign trade and integration of markets

(ii) How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries?
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Source C : Impact of globalisation in India.
(iii) How is globalisation beneficial for consumers?
pH
CASE 3:
Ex
“The advent of globalisation and the policy of liberalisation have opened the
market to the world players. It has given rise to wide choice of goods and
services to the consumer. MNCs have played a vital role in the world market.
Foreign trade and investment in the country has increased. It has also resulted
in exchange of technology between countries. In recent times, technology in
the areas of telecommunications, computers and internet has been changing
rapidly. Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies
providing services, particularly those involving in IT. Better job opportunities
for people have given rise to migration. Globalisation has also enabled some
large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals For example, Tata Motors,
Infosys, Ranbaxy have expanded their operations around the world.”
(i) ______has been a major force in the globalisation process connecting

distant regions of the world.
(a) Traders
(b) International companies
(c) Multinational corporations

(d) Businesses houses
(ii) What is a multinational corporation (MNC)?

(a) A corporation that conducts international trade.
(b) A corporation that manufactures goods for other countries.
(c) A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.
(iii) Globalisation has created new opportunities for those companies which
are involved in:
(a) Manufacturing
(b) IT
(c) Food business
(d) None of these
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(iv) Assertion (A): The advent of globalisation and the policy of liberalisation
have opened the market to the world players.
Reason (R): Globalisation has also enabled some large Indian companies to
emerge as multinationals.
pH
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation ofA.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Ex
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(v) Which Indian Company has emerged as a MNC?

(a) Mahindra & Mahindra
(b) Tata Motors
(c) Renault
(d) Maruti Suzuki
CASE 4:
“Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the
domestic markets, i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their
produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete
in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers,
imports of goods produced in other country are one way of expanding the
choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. In general, with the
opening of trade, goods travel from one market to another. Choice of goods in
the markets rises. Prices of similar goods in the two markets tend to become
equal. And, producers in the two countries now closely compete against each
other even though they are separated by thousands of miles. Foreign trade
thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different
countries.”
(i) Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the:

(a) Consumers
(b) Producers
(c) Manufacturers
(d) None of these
(ii) Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to:

(a) reach beyond their expectations.
(b) go beyond the domestic markets.
(c) go beyond the foreign markets.
ub
pH
(iii) Fill in the blank:

___________ results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in
different countries.
Ex
(iv) Assertion (A): Producers can sell their produce in markets located in other
countries of the world.
Reason (R) : Foreign trade results in connecting the markets or integration
of markets in different countries.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of A
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(v) What is the one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is
domestically produced?
(a) Export of goods
(b) Import of goods
(c) Exim trade

(d) None of these
CASE 5:
Tax on imports is an example of trade barrier. It is called a barrier because
some restriction has been set up. Governments can use trade barriers to
increase or decrease (regulate) foreign trade and to decide what kinds of
goods and how much of each, should come into the country. The Indian
government, after Independence, had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign
investment. This was considered necessary to protect the producers within the
country from foreign competition. Industries were just coming up in the 1950s
and 1960s, and competition from imports at that stage would not have
allowed these industries to come up. Thus, India allowed imports of only
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essential items such as machinery, fertilisers, petroleum etc. Note thatall
developed countries, during the early stages of development, have given
protection to domestic producers through a variety of means. Starting around
1991, some far reaching changes in policy were made in India. The government
pH
decided that the time had come for Indian producers to compete with
producers around the globe. It felt that competition would improve the
performance of producers within the country since they would have to
improve their quality. This decision was supported by powerful international
Ex
organisations. Thus, barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were

removed to a large extent. This meant that goods could be imported and
exported easily and also foreign companies could set up factories and offices
here. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is what is
known as liberalisation.
(i) What is trade barrier? Give one example.
(ii) What do you mean by the term liberalisation?
(iii) How does government regulate foreign trade?
CASE 6:
35-year-old Sushila has spent many years as a worker in garment export

industry of Delhi. She was employed as a ‘permanent worker’ entitled to
health insurance, provident fund, over time at a double rate, when Sushila’s
factory closed in the late 1990s. After searching for a job for six months, she
finally got a job 30 km away from where she lives. Even after working in this
factory for several years, she is a temporary worker and earns less than half of
what she was earning earlier. Sushila leaves her house every morning, seven
days a week at 7:30 a.m. and returns at 10 p.m. A day off from work means no
wage. She has none of the benefits she used to get earlier. Factories closer to
her home have widely fluctuating orders and therefore pay even less.
(a) Uncertain employment
(b) Rising competition
(c) Impact of globalisation on employment
(d) Transforming employment scenario
ub
(ii) According to the passage, Sushila’s current employment nature is
temporary based on which of the following statements?
(a) She earns less than half of what she was earning earlier.
pH
(b) Sushila leaves her house every morning.
(c) A day off from work means no wage.
(d) Factories closer to her home have widely fluctuating orders
Ex
(iii) Companies these days hire most of its employees as temporary

employees, so that :
(a) companies can save money.
(b) need not to give social security.
(c) extra output at low cost.
(iv) “She earns less than half of what she was earning earlier” means the
workers are now denied their fair share of benefits brought about
by_________.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) None of these
CASE 7:
In recent years, the central and state governments in India are takingspecial
steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India. Industrial zones, called
Special Economic Zones (SEZs), are being set up. SEZs are to have world class
facilities: electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, recreational and
educational facilities. Companies who set up production units in the SEZs do
not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.
Government has also allowed flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign
investment. The companies in the organised sector have to obey certain rules
that aim to protect the workers’ rights. Instead of hiring workers on a regular
basis, companies hire workers ‘flexibly’ for short periods when there is intense
pressure of work. This is done to reduce the cost of labour for the company.
(a) Labour laws and global investment
(b) India’s preparedness to lure investment
(c) Impact of globalisation
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(d) Steps to attract foreign investment in India
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(ii) By setting up more SEZs, the government wants to:
(a) reduce taxes
(b) ensure equality in public and private sector.
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(c) develop infrastructure

(d) make flexible labour laws
(iii) Which of the following is not a characteristic of SEZs?

(a) Better infrastructure
(b) Focus on attracting foreign investment.
(c)Tax relaxation for initial period of seven years
(d) Flexibility in labour laws.
(iv) Instead of hiring workers on a regular basis, companies hire workers

‘flexibly’ for short periods when there is intense pressure of work is an
evidence of:
(a) Cost reduction
(b) Globalisation
(c) Extreme competition
(d) Developed SEZ
CASE 8:
Source A- Production across countries
Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food stuff and imported
finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This
was before large companies called multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged
on the scene. A MNC is a company that owns or controls production in more
than one nation. MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions
where they can get cheap labour and other resources.
Source B- Interlinking production across countries

MNCs set up factories and offices for production. The money that is spent to
buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called
investment. Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment. Any
investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits.
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Source C- Information and communication technology
Even more remarkable have been the developments in information and
communication technology. In recent times, technology in the areas of
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telecommunications, computers, Internet has been changing rapidly.
Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones,
fax) are used to contact one another around the world, to access information
instantly, and to communicate from remote areas. This has been facilitated by
Ex
satellite communication devices.
Source A- Production across countries

(i) Why some companies are called multinational corporations (MNCs)?
Source B- Interlinking production across countries

(ii) What do you understand by foreign investment?
Source C- Information and communication technology

(iii)What type of technology are used to contact one another around the
world?
SOLUTIONS
1. (b) Parakh foods
2. (a) Mahindra and Mahindra
3. (a) MNC is a company that controls production of goods and services in

multiple nations.
4. (a) investment
5. (a) foreign investment

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6. (a) MNCs can bring latest technology in the production.
7. (d) It employs labour only from its own country.

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8. (c) Because the cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater
profit.
9. (a) goods, services, technology and investments between countries.

Ex
10. (c) of workers in the developing countries.
11. (c) greater competition between producers.
12. (b) determines prices of products in different countries.
13. (b) Removal of trade barriers
14. (b) liberalisation
15. (a) Indians consuming goods produced abroad.
16. (c) Consumers get a wide variety of goods to choose from.

17. (b) Spreading out production across international borders can help in
lowering the cost of production.
18. (c) MNCs can bring advanced techniques of production.
19. (c) Tax on imports
20. (d) To regulate the type and amount of goods that can enter the country.
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Explanation :
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At times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of
the host countries. The benefit to the local company from such joint
production is two-fold as MNCs can provide for additional investments and can
bring in newer technology of production that result in fast-paced production.
Ex
Explanation :
By setting up partnerships with local companies, by using the local companies
for supplies, by closely competing with the local companies or buying them up,
MNCs are exerting a strong influence on production at distant locations. As a
result, production in widely dispersed locations is getting interlinked.
Explanation :
MNC is a company that owns or controls production in more than on nation, so
MNCs not only sell their finished products globally, but more importantly, the
goods and services are also produced globally.
Explanation :
Globalisation leads to connectivity of different countries and goods and
services can be transported across the world. Goods, components produced in
different parts of the world can be used for production in any country.
Explanation :
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the
domestic markets and thus expands the choices available for consumers.
Explanation :
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Due to foreign trade, producers in different countries closely compete with
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each other. This is because the price of similar goods tends to become equal in
different markets. Therefore, if a good is priced higher in domestic market,
consumers may prefer importing it from another country at a lower price.
Ex
Explanation :
The result of greater foreign investment and greater foreign trade has been
greater integration of production and markets across countries. When MNCs
conduct joint business processes with local companies, the benefit to local
companies is massive as they receive funds for investment and exposure to
different production techniques.
Explanation :
Since globalisation leads to movement of goods, services, people and
technology across nations, developing countries are likely to become at par
with developed countries in terms of technological
development.
Explanation :
Taxes increase the price of imported goods, and so the demand for imports is
likely to go down. As a result, the profits of producers who sell imported goods
are also likely to reduce. Governments impose taxes to regulate the amount
and quality of goods that enter a nation and to protect domestic industry from
foreign competition.
Explanation :
The removal of barriers to trade is known as liberalisation, and the businesses
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freely deciding which goods to import and export is an outcome of
liberalisation not a reason for liberalisation.
pH
Explanation :
Globalisation leads to increased competition in international and domestic
Ex
markets as there is free movement of goods, services, labour and funds across
countries. Also, consumers are better off as they get better quality and
increased variety of goods at lower prices.
Explanation :
In New Economic Policy in 1991, the government wished to remove these
barriers because it felt that domestic producers were ready to compete with
foreign industries. It was also felt that foreign competition would in fact
improve the quality of goods produced by Indian industries. This decision was
also supported by powerful international organisations.

Explanation :
Tax on imports is an important barrier on foreign trade. Government can use
trade barriers to increase or decrease foreign trade and todecide what kinds of
goods and how much of each, should come into the country.
Explanation :
Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all, and also ensure that the
benefits of globalisation are shared better. Globalisation hasbenefited well-off
consumers and also producers with skill, education and wealth.
Explanation :
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A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is an area in a country that is subject to
different economic regulations than other regions within the samecountry. The
economic regulations of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) tend to be conducive to
and attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are
pH
typically created in order to facilitate rapid economic growth by leveraging tax
incentives to attract foreign investment and spark technological advancement,
and companies who set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay
taxes for an initial period of five year.
Ex
CASE 1:
(i) (a) An MNC is a company that controls production of goods and services in
multiple nations.
(ii) (b) Spreading out production across international borders can help in
lowering the cost of production.
(iii) (a) investment
(iv) (c) MNCs can bring advanced techniques of production.
CASE 2:
(i) MNCs play an important role in the process of globalisation. They bring not
only their products to a country, but also the new business policies and
cultures. They also help in increasing competitiveness among the Indian
companies. At present, most of us have access to latest models of cars and this
could be possible only because of globalisation. Because of a large number of
MNCs in our country, most of the urban Indians have become broadminded in
their outlook.
(ii) Foreign trade becomes a main channel in connecting countries in a way

that trade in the past was restricted to finished goods being produced in one
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market, and sold in other markets. In today’s time,besides trade- flow of
capital, technology, people, and services is also taking place all over the world.
Today, the world is connected in a way that even production of the same good
takes place across different countries.
pH
(iii) The benefits of the globalisation for the consumers are given below:
(i) It creates opportunities in terms of investment, employment for many
developing and underdeveloped countries and brings about greater integration
Ex
of economies.
(ii) It enhances choices to the consumers, and brings about increased
movement of goods, people, and ideas.
(iii) It has led to the establishment of many foreign brands in the country, thus
widening our choices and creating preferences.
(iv) It has expanded the scope of the market.
CASE 3:
(i) (c) Multinational corporations
(ii) (c) A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.
(iii) (b) IT
(iv) (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(v) (b) Tata Motors
CASE 4:
(i) (b) Producers
(ii) (b) go beyond the domestic markets.
(iii) Foreign trade
(iv) (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(v) (b) Import of goods ub

pH
CASE 5:
(i) When the government puts some restriction on the foreign trade and
foreign investment, it is called trade barrier. An example of trade barrier is tax.
Ex
(ii) Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as

liberalisation.
(iii) Governments can use trade barriers:

(i) To increase or decrease (regulate) foreign trade.
(ii)To decide what kinds of goods and how much of each should come into the
country
CASE 6:
(i) (d) Transforming employment scenario
(ii) (c) A day off from work means no wage.

(iii) (d) All of the above
(iv) (c) Globalisation
CASE 7:
(i) (d) Steps to attract foreign investment in India
(ii) (c) develop infrastructure
(iii) (c) Tax relaxation for initial period of seven years
(iv) (a) Cost reduction
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CASE 8:
pH
(i) Some companies are called Multinational Corporations (MNCs) because
these companies owns or controls production in more than one nation.
(ii) Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment.

Ex
(iii) Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile

phones, fax) are used to contact one another around the world.
RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT
1. Which type of resource is park?

(a) Community owned resource
(b) Non-renewable resource
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(c) Individual resource
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(d) Potential resource
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2. Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore ?

(a) Renewable
(b) Flow
(c) Biotic
(d) Non-renewable
3. Which type of resource is park ?

(a) Community owned resource
(b) Non-renewable resource
(c) Individual resource
(d) Potential resource
4. Which type of resource is wind energy ?

(a) Human-made
(b) Renewable
(c) Non-Renewable
(d) Biotic
5. Under which of the following type of resources can tidal energy be put ?
(a) Renewable
(b) Abiotic
(c) Human-made
(d) Non-renewable
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6. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised are known
as _________.
(a) Potential Resources
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(b) Abiotic resources

(c) Biotic resources
(d) Renewable resources
7. ‘There is enough for everybody’s need but not for everybody’s greed’. Who
said these words ?
(a) Gandhiji
(b) Nehru
(c) S.V.B. Patel
(d) Medha Patkar
8. The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation in the year:

(a) 1965
(b) 1966
(c) 1967
(d) 1968
9. Who wrote the book ‘Small is beautiful’?

(a) Schumacher
(b) Spencer
(c) Surrey
(d) Steward ub
10. How much area of land in India is plain?
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(a) 53%
(b) 43%
(c) 62%
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(d) 58%
11. The resources can be conserved by ___________ .

(a) Recycling
(b) Reusing
(c) Reducing consumption
12. Resource planning should be at :

(a) National Level
(b) Regional Level

(c) Local Level
13. Which one of the following is the main reason for land degradation in
Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Over irrigation
(c) Deforestation
(d) Overgrazing
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14. In which of the following states is the terrace cultivation practiced?
(a) Punjab
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(b) Haryana
(c) Uttaranchal
(d) Jharkhand
Ex
15. Which one among the following is the method to control land degradation?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Intensive cultivation
(c) Overgrazing
(d) Afforestation

(i) Topsoil
(ii) Parent rock
(iii) Bedrock
(iv) Subsoil
(a) iii-i-ii-iv
(b) ii-i-iii-iv
(c) i-iv-ii-iii
(d) iii-ii-i-iv
17. In which of the following states is black soil found?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat
(d) Jharkhand
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18. Black soil is ideal for growing which crop ?
(a) Jute
(b) Cotton
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(c) Silk
(d) Cereals
19. Which among the following soil types is the result of intense leaching due
to heavy rainfall ?
(a) Black soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Red soil
20. This soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains in the deltas of
Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri rivers.
(a) Black soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Red soil
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pH
Ex
1. Assertion: Resources are free gifts of nature.

Reason: Resources like soil, air, water are easily available in nature.
2. Assertion: The availability of resources is not the only necessary condition
for the development of any region.
Reason: Not only availability of resources but also corresponding change in
technology is necessary for development of any region.
3. Assertion: Resource planning is an easy process in India.
Reason: Resource planning involves identification and inventory of

resource across the regions of the country.
4. Assertion: Land is a natural resource of utmost importance.
Reason: Land can be used for various purposes.
5. Assertion: Controlling on mining activities only doesn’t control land
degradation.
Reason: In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, deforestation

has occurred due to over grazing, not mining
6. Assertion: Western Rajasthan has well developed terrace farming.
Reason: Terrace cultivation restricts erosion.
7. Assertion: Alluvial soil is ideal for growth of paddy, wheat, cereal and pulse
crops. ub
Reason: Alluvial soil is well-known for is capacity to hold moisture.
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8. Assertion: Soil is the most important renewable natural resource.
Reason: Soil supports different types of living organisms on earth.
9. Assertion: Arid soil is unsuitable for cultivation.
Ex
Reason: Arid soil is generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. It

restricts the filtration of water.
10. Assertion: Processes of soil formation and erosion goes simultaneously and
creates a balance between the two.
Reason: The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is
soil erosion.

CASE 1:
We live on land, we perform our economic activities on land and we use it in
different ways. Thus, land is a natural resource of utmost importance. It
supports natural vegetation, wild life, human life, economic activities, and
transport and communication systems. However, land is an asset of a finite
magnitude, therefore, it is important to use the available land for various
purposes with careful planning. India has land under a variety of relief
features, namely; mountains, plateaus, plains and islands. About 43 per cent of
the land area is plain, which provides facilities for agriculture and industry.
Mountains account for 30 per cent of the total surface area of the country and
ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and
ecological aspects. About 27 per cent of the area of the country is the plateau
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region. It possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests.
pH
(i) The land should be used in a optimum way, because land is a _________
resource. Choose the correct option:
(a) Finite
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(b) Infinite
(c) Abiotic Resource

(d) None of these
(ii) Land Resource planning means careful use of available land. Identify which
landform the following commercial activities belong to:
Choose the correct option:

(a) a-2, b-1, c-3
(b) a-3, b-2, c-1 ub
(c) a-1, b-3, c-2
(d) a-3, b-1, c-2
pH
(iii) Which one of the following options does not suit with land utilisation?
Ex
(a) Constructing roads and infrastructure on hills to promote tourism.

(b) Developing canal systems in the plains to boost agriculture.
(c) Providing government support to establish mineral based industry near the
mining areas.
(d) Boosting the industries on fertile land near the densely populated areas.
(iv) In order to make the best use of Himalayan region. India should not:
(a) Allow large scale deforestation to construct industries.
(b) Help local artisans and handicrafts to boost tourism.
(c) Preserve natural flora and fauna.
(d) Conserve the flow of rivers.
CASE 2:
Source A-Alluvial soils
Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile. Mostly these soils contain adequate
proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth
of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. Due to its high
fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely
populated. Soils in the drier areas are more alkaline and can be productive
after proper treatment and irrigation.
Source B- Black Soil
Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also known as black cotton soil. It is
believed that climatic condition along with the parent rock material are the
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important factors for the formation of black soil. This type of soil is typical of
the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is
made up of lava flows. They cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra,
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Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh and extend in the south east
direction along the Godavari and the Krishna valleys.
Source A-Alluvial soils
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(i) How alkaline soil can be made productive?

Source B-Black Soil
(ii) How does the black soil formed?
CASE 3:
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as
soil erosion. The processes of soil formation and erosion, go on simultaneously
and generally there is a balance between the two. Sometimes, this balance is
disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction
and mining etc., while natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil
erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep
channels as gullies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad
land. In the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines. Sometimes water flows
as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed
away. This is known as sheet erosion. Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping
land known as wind erosion. Soil erosion is also caused due to defective methods
of farming. Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope form channels
for the quick flow of water leading to soil erosion. Ploughing along the contour
lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called contour
ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace
cultivation restricts erosion. Western and central Himalayas have well
developed terrace farming. Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass
are left to grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind. This
method is known as strip cropping. Planting lines of trees to create shelter also
works in a similar way. Rows of such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter
belts have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in
stabilising the desert in western India. ub
pH
(i) Which land is known as bad land? In what basin such lands is known as
ravines?
(ii) What do you understand by sheet erosion?
Ex
(iii)How does ploughing leads to the erosion? For what reasons balance between
soil erosion and soil formation is disturbed?
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) Community owned resource
2. (d) Non-renewable
3. (a) Community owned resource

4. (a) Renewable
5. (a) Renewable
6. (a) Potential Resources
7. (a) Gandhiji
8. (d) 1968
9. (a) Schumacher
10. (b) 43%

13. (b) Over irrigation
14. (c) Uttaranchal
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15. (d) Afforestation
16. (c) i-iv-ii-iii
17. (c) Gujarat
Ex
18. (b) Cotton

19. (c) Laterite soil
20. (b) Alluvial soil

Explanation : Resources are not free gifts of nature but are present due to
interaction of human beings with nature, technology and institutions. They are
a function of human activities. They transform material available in our
environment into resources.
of assertion.
Explanation : Mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding
changes in technology and institutions may hinder development. Thus, both
resources and advanced technologies contribute in development of a region.

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Explanation : Resource planning is a not an easy but a very complex process as
it involves surveying, mapping, quantitative and qualitative estimation and
measurement of the resources.
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of assertion.
Ex
Explanation : Land is a natural resource of utmost importance as it supports

human life and wildlife, economic activities like agriculture, mining, transport
and communication system. Thus, the assertion is false and reason is true.

Explanation : Activities of mining controls land degradation because mining
sites are abandoned after excavation work, this results in over – burdening.
Mining activities in the mentioned states has contributed to deforestation.

Explanation : Western and central Himalayas have well developed terrace

cultivation. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces to decelerate
the flow of water.

Explanation : Alluvial soil contains adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric
acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and
other cereal and pulse crops. Not water-retentive but this property makes it
ideal for the growth of wheat, paddy, cereal and pulse crops.
of assertion.
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Explanation : Soil is a living system. Soil helps to grow plants, supports natural
vegetation and economic activities like agriculture. Its universal usage proves
that it is the most important renewable natural resource.
pH

Ex
Explanation : Due to dry climate and high temperature, evaporation is faster

and the soil lacks humus and moisture that is why it becomes unfit for
cultivation.

Explanation : Soil formation and erosion goes simultaneously but this balance
is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing,
construction, mining and natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil
erosion.

CASE 1:
(i) (a) Finite.
(ii) (b) a-3, b-2, c-1
(iii) (d) Boosting the industries on fertile land near the densely populated
areas.
(iv) (a) Allow large scale deforestation to construct industries.
CASE 2:
(i). The alkaline soil can be made productive after proper treatment and
irrigation.
(ii). The Black soil is made up of lava flows.
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CASE 3:
pH
(i). The land that becomes unfit for cultivation is known as bad land. In
Chambal basin such lands is known as ravines.
(ii). When top soil is washed away by the flows of water then this type of
erosion is called sheet erosion.
Ex
(iii). Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope form channels for the
quick flow of water leading to soil erosion. Activities of humans like
deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining etc. cause disturbance
between soil formation and erosion.
FOREST AND WILDLIFE
1. ‘Lepcha’ folk song belongs to which state?

(a) West Bengal
(b) Assam
(c) Sikkim
(d) Mizoram
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2. What per cent of the total number of species in the world is present in
India?
(a) 6%
Ex
(b) 7%
(c) 8%
(d) 9
3. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of the classification of the

forest —
(i) Unclassed Forests
(ii) Protected Forests
(iii) Reserved Forests
(iv) Normal Forest
(a) (iii)-(ii)-(i)-(iv)
(b) (iv)- (i)-(ii)-(iii)
(c) (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(ii)
(d) (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(iv)
4. Chipko movement in Himalayas is associated with what?

(a) Protecting forests
(b) Resisting deforestation
(c) Cleaning forests
(d) Overgrazing
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5. Which community in India is famous for protecting the Black Buck?
(a) Dogras
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(b) Santhals
(c) Bishnois
Ex
6. What does JFM stands for?

(a) Joint Foreign Minister
(b) Joint Forest Mission
(c) Joint Fund Management
(d) Joint Forest Management

1. Assertion: Forests plays a key role in the ecological system.

Reason: Forest are the primary producers on which all other living beings
depend.
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2. Assertion: The tree is a peculiar organism of unlimited kindness.
Reason: Trees are living organisms which makes no demands for its
sustenance, and extends generously the products of its life activity.
Ex
3. Assertion: We need to conserve our forests and wildlife.
Reason: Rapid decline in wildlife population and forestry has been observed.

CASE 1:
In the 1960s and 1970s, conservationists demanded a national wildlife
protection programme. The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented
in 1972, with various provisions for protecting habitats. An all-India list of
protected species was also published. The thrust of the programme was
towards protecting the remaining population of certain endangered species by
banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade
in wildlife. Subsequently, central and many state governments established
national parks and wildlife sanctuaries about which you have already studied.
The central government also announced several projects for protecting specific
animals, which were gravely threatened, including the tiger, the one-horned
rhinoceros, the Kashmir stag or hangul, three types of crocodiles – fresh water
crocodile, saltwater crocodile and the Gharial, the Asiatic lion, and others.
Most recently, the Indian elephant, black buck (chinkara), the great Indian
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bustard (godawan) and the snow leopard, etc. have been given full or partial
legal protection against hunting and trade throughout India.
pH
(i) The target of conservation programme is to conserve _________ and

_________.
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(a) ecological diversity, life support system

(b) animals, source of food
(c) national, state forests

(d) habitat, biological loss
(ii) Identify the animal species with the following category belong to:
(a) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d

(b) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
(c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(d) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
(iii) Which of the following animal species is not protected by central

government?
(a) Asiatic Lion
(b) Gharials
(c) Hangul
(d) Himalayan Yew ub
(iv) The main aim of the government to protect the endangered species was by
pH
________.
(a) banning hunting and poaching
(b) limiting animal trade

Ex
(c) setting legalities

CASE 2:
In India, joint forest management (JFM) programme furnishes a good example
for involving local communities in the management and restoration of degraded
forests. The programme has been in formal existence since 1988 when the state
of Odisha passed the first resolution for joint forest management. JFM depends
on the formation of local (village) institutions that undertake protection
activities mostly on degraded forest land managed by the forest department. In
return, the members of these communities are entitled to intermediary benefits

like non-timber forest produces and share in the timber harvested by ‘successful
protection’. The clear lesson from the dynamics of both environmental
destruction and reconstruction in India is that local communities everywhere
have to be involved in some kind of natural resource management. But there is
still a long way to go before local communities are at the centre stage in
decision-making. Accept only those economic or developmental activities, that
are people centric, environment-friendly and economically rewarding.
(i) Joint forest management (JFM) programme is an epitome of involving
_________ and _________ in forest protection.
(a) communities, tradition

(b) communities and government
(c) forests department and state government
(d) forest department and centre government
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(ii) Which of the following titles suit best to the paragraph given above?
(a) Joint forest management—A success story
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(b) India—on a right path

(c) Historical evolution of JFM in India
(d) Community and conservation
(iii) Which of the following is not a target of JFM?

(a) Restoration of degraded forests
(b) Develop ways for ecological farming
(c) Control environmental degradation
(d) Include local communities in safeguarding the forests
(iv) Local communities are ready to partner government in protection of forests.

In return they get _________ .
(a) Forests products
(b) Share in forests land
(c) Government rewards
(d) Economic help
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) West Bengal

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2. (c) 8%
3. (a) (iii)-(ii)-(i)-(iv)
4. (b) Resisting deforestation
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5. (c) Bishnois
6. (d) Joint Forest Management
of assertion.
Explanation : The plants, animals and micro-organisms recreate the quality of
the air we breathe, the water we drink and the soil that produces our food
without which we cannot survive. Thus, we are very much dependent on this
system for our own existence.
of assertion.
Explanation : It affords protection to all beings, offering shade even to the axe
men who destroy it. Therefore, the tree is an organism of unlimited kindness
that extends generosity to humanity.
of assertion.
Explanation : Conservation preserves the ecological diversity and our life
support systems and also preserves the genetic diversity of plants and animals
for better growth of species and breeding. Thus, there is a dire need for
conservation of our forests and wildlife.

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CASE 1:
(i) (a) ecological diversity, life support system
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(ii) (d) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b

(iii) (d) Himalayan Yew
(iv) (d) All of the above
CASE 2:
(i) (b) communities and government
(ii) (d) Community and conservation
(iii) (b) Develop ways for ecological farming
(iv) (a) Forests products
WATER RESOURCES
1. How much of earth’s surface is covered with water?

(a) 1/2th
(b) 1/4th
(c) 2/4th
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(d) 3/4th
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2. According to predictions, by which year nearly two billion people will live in
water scarcity?
Ex
(a) 2022
(b) 2023
(c) 2024
(d) 2025
3. Which of the following is not a source of water?

(a) Ocean
(b) Rain
(c) Ground water
(d) Surface water
4. Water produces ___________.

(a) Magnetic power
(b) Electric power
(c) Hydroelectricity
(d) Mechanical energy
5. Which among the following is the reason of water scarcity?

(a) Industrialisation
(b) Urbanisation
(c) Modernisation
(d) All of these
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6. 96.5 % of the total volume of world’s water exists as :

(a) rivers
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(b) glaciers
(c) oceans
(d) seas
7. Fresh water is renewed through ___________.

(a) Nitrogen cycle
(b) Hydrogen cycle

(c) Carbon cycle
(d) Oxygen cycle
8. Which among the following is the reason of water scarcity?

(a) Industrialisation
(b) Urbanisation
(c) Modernisation
(d) All of these
9. Water harvesting system had been sophisticated by channelling the flood

water of the Ganga by:
(a) Sringaverapura
(b) Chandragupta Maurya

(c) Asoka
(d) Tipu Sultan
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10. Water harvesting system had been sophisticated by channeling the flood
water of the Ganga by:
(a) Sringaverapura
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(c) Asoka
(d) Tipu Sultan
11. Dams, lakes and irrigation systems were built during the reign of
___________ .
(a) Asoka
(c) Akbar
(d) Iltutmish
12. Dams are built for the following purposes:

(a) Flood control
(b) Recreation
(c) Fish breeding
(d) All of these
13. The dams constructed to control floods have triggered floods due to
__________ in the reservoir.
(a) Decantation
(b) Filtration
(c) Sublimation
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(d) Sedimentation
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14. Bhopal lake was built in:

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(a) 10th century

(b) 11th century
(c) 12th century
(d) 13th century
15. Tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi, was constructed by Iltutmish for supplying water
to:
(a) Red Fort
(b) Siri Fort
(c) Chandni Chowk

(d) Trans Yamuna
16. Who proclaimed the dams as the ‘temples of modern India’?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Indira Gandhi
17. Which of the following is the reason for which dams have come under great
scrutiny in recent years?
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(a) Damming of rivers helps in increasing the natural flow of the water.
(b) Affects the aquatic life adversely.
(c) Aquatic fauna migrate smoothly.
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(d) Soil and vegetation remain undisturbed.
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18. Sardar Sarovar Dam is being built on which river?

(a) Narmada
(b) Sabarmati
(c) Ganga
(d) Mahanadi
19. Sardar Sarovar Project is based in the state of:

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
20. The dams constructed to control floods have triggered floods due to
_________ in the reservoir.
(a) decantation
(b) filtration
(c) sublimation
(d) sedimentation
Assertion & Reason Type Questions ub

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Ex

1. Assertion: Water is a renewable resource.
Reason: Fresh water is mainly obtained from surface run off and ground
water that is continually being renewed.
2. Assertion: The availability of water resources varies over space and time.
Reason: Availability of water resources helps in storing water.
3. Assertion: Growing population is the main reason for water scarcity.

Reason: Irrigation from tube-wells and canals is responsible for water
scarcity.
4. Assertion: Groundwater is a highly overused resource.

Reason: Groundwater is used for domestic and drinking purpose.
5. Assertion: Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern.
Reason: Crops are now sown according to the amount and availability of
water.
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6. Assertion: Dams are referred to as multipurpose projects.
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Reason: Dams are built for irrigation, electricity generation, water supply for
domestic and industrial use, flood control, recreation and fish breeding.
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7. Assertion: Irrigation is considered to be the major source of agriculture.

Reason: Dams are well-known for their capacity to hold water for agriculture.
8. Assertion: Multipurpose projects help to control floods by regulating water

flow.
Reason: Dams were constructed to conserve water.

CASE 1:
“Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of
overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water
level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the
country is overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60 per
cent of the country would be doing the same if the present way of using this
resource continues. Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the
agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau
areas of central and south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing
urban settlements.”
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(i) Groundwater is an example of ________ resource.
(a) renewable
(b) non-renewable
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(c) perishable
(d) None of these
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(ii) The major use of groundwater in India is for _________.

(a) agricultural use
(b) domestic use
(c) industrial use
(iii) The passage given above relates to which of the following options?
(a) Depleting water resources in India.
(b) Water is limited.
(c) Lack of management in water resource.

(d) Save water.
(iv) Which one of the following statements shows maximum intensity of water
scarcity in India?
(a) Groundwater is under serious threat.
(b) About 300 districts have reported a water level decline.
(c) Nearly one-third of the country is overusing their ground water reserves.
(d) Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous
regions.
CASE 2:
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Source A-Hydraulic Structures in Ancient India
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In the first century B.C., Sringaverapura near Allahabad had sophisticated water
harvesting system channelling the flood water of the river Ganga. During the
time of Chandragupta Maurya, dams, lakes and irrigation systems were
Ex
extensively built. Evidences of sophisticated irrigation works have also been

found in Kalinga, (Odisha), Nagarjunakonda (Andhra Pradesh), Bennur
(Karnataka), Kolhapur (Maharashtra), etc.
Source B- Industrialisation and Urbanisation
The ever-increasing number of industries has made matters worse by exerting
pressure on existing freshwater resources. Industries, apart from being heavy
users of water, also require power to run them. Much of this energy comes from
hydroelectric power. Today, in India hydroelectric power contributes
approximately 22 per cent of the total electricity produced. Moreover,
multiplying urban centres with large and dense populations and urban lifestyles
have not only added to water and energy requirements but have further
aggravated the problem.
Source A-Hydraulic Structures in Ancient India

(i) Name the place where the evidence of sophisticated irrigation works are
found.
Source B- Industrialisation and Urbanisation
(ii) How many percent of contribution made by the hydroelectric power in India?
SOLUTIONS
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1. (d) 3/4th
2. (d) 2025
3. (a) Ocean
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4. (c) Hydroelectricity
5. (d) All of these
6. (c) oceans
7. (b) Hydrogen cycle
8. (d) All of these
9. (a) Sringaverapura
10. (a) Sringaverapura
11. (b) Chandragupta Maurya

12. (d) All of these
13. (d) Sedimentation
14. (b) 11th century

15. (b) Siri Fort
16. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
17. (b) Affects the aquatic life adversely.
18. (a) Narmada
19. (d) Gujarat
20. (d) sedimentation

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1. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
Explanation : The total volume of world’s water is estimated to exist as oceans
Ex
and only few cent occurs to be fresh water. Nearly 70 per cent of this fresh water
occurs as ice sheets and glaciers in Antarctica, Greenland and the mountainous
regions of the world. 33. Assertion: The availability of water resources varies
over space and time. Reason: Availability of water resources helps in storing
water.

Explanation : Water resources varies over space and time due to the variation in
seasonal and annual precipitation however water scarcity in most cases is
caused by over- exploitation and excessive use.

Explanation : Water is utilized on large basis because, increasing population

requires more water for cooking, washing and bathing. Irrigation is not a major
contributor.
of assertion.
Explanation : Groundwater is a highly overused resource as it used for domestic
purpose and drinking purpose. Huge population mainly depends upon the
groundwater for basic requirements.
of assertion.
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Explanation : Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions
with farmers shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. Large farmers
are benefitted through changing the cropping pattern.
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of assertion.
Ex
Explanation : Dams were traditionally built to impound rivers and rainwater that
could be used later to irrigate agricultural fields. They also help in various
activities.

Explanation : Irrigation is considered to be the major source of agriculture. The
major sources of irrigation are from canals, tanks, wells and tubes but dams are
used only to store large water for later use.
8. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct
Explanation : Multipurpose projects include dam which helps us in conserving

and managing water. Floods occur due to heavy rainfall. Building dams in most
of our river basins helps in controlling floods as it helps in storing and regulating
water resource.
CASE 1:
(i) (a) renewable
(ii) (d) All of the above
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(iii) (a) Depleting water resources in India.
(iv) (b) About 300 districts have reported a water level decline.
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Ex
CASE 2:
(i). Evidences of sophisticated irrigation works have been found in Kalinga,
(Odisha), Nagarjunakonda (Andhra Pradesh), Bennur (Karnataka), Kolhapur
(Maharashtra), etc.
(ii). Today, in India hydroelectric power contributes approximately 22 per cent
of the total electricity produced.
AGRICULTURE
1. How much population of India is engaged in agriculture ?

(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 2/3
(d) 3/4
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2. Primitive subsistence farming is also known as :
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(a) Jhumming
(b) Terrace Farming
(c) Step Farming
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3. By what name jhumming is known in Jharkhand?

(a) Bewar
(b) Dahiya
(c) Podu
(d) Kuruwa
4. Jhumming is known as Conuco in :

(a) Brazil
(b) Venezuela
(c) Mexico
(d) Central Africa
5. Land productivity in primitive subsistence farming is:

(a) Low
(b) High
(c) Normal
(d) Very high
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6. Which one of the following is a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Gram
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(c) Millets
(d) Cotton
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7. Kharif crops are harvested in the month of :

(a) September-October
(b) July-August
(c) November-December
(d) January-February
8. Which of the following is a kharif crop ?

(a) Paddy
(b) Maize
(c) Jowar
(d) All of these
9. Aus, Aman and Boro are the types of :

(a) Paddy
(b) Wheat
(c) Coffee
(d) Tur
10. Pea is a :
(a) Kharif crop
(b) Rabi crop
(c) Zaid crop
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(d) None of these
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11. Zaid is a short season which comes during the ____________ months.
(a) Winter
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(b) Summer
(c) Rainy
(d) Autumn
12. Rice is a commercial crop of which state?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Orissa
13. India is the ____________ largest producer of rice in the world.

(a) 2nd
(b) 3rd
(c) 4th
(d) 5th
14. Which country in the world is at the first position in the production of rice?
(a) Nepal
(b) Japan
(c) India
(d) China
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15. Which is the main food crop of the North and North Western parts of the
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country?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
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(c) Maize
(d) Jowar
16. How much time sugarcane takes to grow?

(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) A year
(d) Two years
17. Rajasthan is the largest producer of ____________.

(a) Bajra
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Jowar
18. ____________are known as coarse grains.

(a) Jowar
(b) Bajra
(c) Ragi
(d) All of these
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19. Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk is called ____________.
(a) Horticulture
(b) Apiary
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(c) Sericulture
(d) Fishery
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20. Sugarcane grows well in ____________climate.

(a) Dry
(b) Hot
(c) Hot and humid
(d) Moist

1. Assertion: India’s primary activity is agriculture.

Reason: Two–thirds of its population is engaged in agricultural activities.
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2. Assertion: Agriculture is not an old economic activity.266
Reason: Farming varies from subsistence to commercial type.
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3. Assertion: Plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.

Reason: Plantation is a type of commercial farming, a single crop is grown
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on a large area.
4. Assertion: Biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher
production.
Reason: Doses of biochemical input are used to grow crops rapidly.
5. Assertion: Crops are grown depending upon the variations in soil, climate
and cultivation practices.
Reason: Crops are also grown according to availability of water
6. Assertion: Staple food crop in India is rice and requires less rain.
Reason: Our country is the fourth largest producer of rice in the world.
7. Assertion: Pulses are not considered as a major source of protein in a

vegetarian diet.
Reason: Gram is a rabi crop and requires less rain to grow.
8. Assertion: Tea cultivation is a labour-intensive industry.

Reason: Cultivation can be done throughout the year. Tea bushes require
warm and moist frost-free climate.
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CASE 1:
Primitive Subsistence Farming : This type of farming is still practised in a few
Ex
pockets of India. Primitive subsistence agriculture is practised on small patches

of land with the help of primitive tools like a hoe and digging sticks, and
family/community labour. This type of farming depends upon monsoon,
natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to
the crops grown.
Intensive Subsistence Farming : This type of farming is practised in areas of

high population pressure on land. It is labour intensive farming, where high
doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher
production. Though the ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land
among successive generations has rendered land-holding size uneconomical,
the farmers continue to take the maximum output from the limited land in the
absence of an alternative source of livelihood. Thus, there is enormous
pressure on agricultural land.
Commercial Farming : The main characteristic of this type of farming is the use
of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds,
chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher
productivity. The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one
region to another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and
Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop.
Plantation : Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of

farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface
of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital
intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as
a raw material in the respective industries. Tea in Assam and North Bengal
coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these
states.
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(i) Tea in Assam: Plantation Crop, Rice in Odisha: ____.
(a) Primitive Subsistence crop
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(b) Commercial crop
(c) Plantation crop
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(d) Subsistence crop
(ii) Which of the following is not correct about plantation farming?

(a) In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
(b) The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
(c) Plantations cover large tracts of land called estates.
(d) Farmers clear a patch of land by felling trees and burning them,to produce
cereals and other food crops.
(iii) ________ is done in a mechanised way using capital intensive inputs and
particularly timely irrigation making maximum use of large tracts of land.
(a) Intensive Subsistence Farming

(b) Plantation Farming
(c) Commercial Farming
(d) Jhum Farming
(iv) Complete the given table :
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(a) Farmers use chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides.
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(b) Farmers use high doses of biochemical inputs.
(c) Farmers use simple and basic tools and irrigation methods.
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(d) Farmers use mechanised tools and machines.
CASE 2:
Intensive Subsistence Farming is practised in areas of high population pressure
on land. It is labour intensive farming, where high doses of biochemical inputs
and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production. Though the ‘right of
inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has
rendered land holding size uneconomical, the farmers continue to take
maximum output from the limited land in the absence of alternative source of
livelihood. Thus, there is enormous pressure on agricultural land. The main
characteristics of commercial farming is the use of higher doses of modern
inputs, e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides
and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity. The degree of
commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another. For
example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a
subsistence crop.
(i) What leads to the division of land among successive generations has rendered
land holding size uneconomical?
(ii) How does commercial farming maximise it productivity?
CASE 3: ub
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in
summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley,
pH
peas, gram and mustard. Though, these crops are grown in large parts of India,
states from the north and north-western parts such as Punjab, Haryana,
Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are
important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops. Availability of
Ex
precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones

helps in the success of these crops. However, the success of the green revolution
in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan has also been
an important factor in the growth of the above mentioned rabi crops
(i) Rabi crops are sown in _______ and harvested in ________.
(ii) Match the following in relation to Rabi Crops:

(a) A-(1), B-(2), C-(3), D-(4)

(b) A-(4), B-(3), C-(1), D-(2)
(c) A-(2), B-(3), C-(4), D-(1)
(d) A-(3), B-(4), C-(1), D-(2)
(iii) Which type of impact does summer rainfall put on Rabi crops ?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) No Effect
(d) None of these
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(iv) Which of the following factor has given boost to Rabi crops in Northwest
India ?
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(a) Demand by Population
(b) Awareness of Farmers
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(c) Rainfall
(d) Green Revolution
CASE 4:
We understand the physical diversities and plurality of cultures in India. These
are also reflected in agricultural practices and cropping patterns in the country.
Various types of food and fibre crops, vegetables and fruits, spices and
condiments, etc. constitute some of the important crops grown in the country.
India has three cropping seasons — rabi, kharif and zaid. A variety of food and
non-food crops are grown in different parts of the country depending upon the
variations in soil, climate and cultivation practices. Major crops grown in India
are rice, wheat, millets, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane, oilseeds, cotton and jute,
etc.
(i) Millets come in the category of ________ crops.

(a) food
(b) non-food
(c) beverage
(d) None of these
(ii) Identify which cropping pattern the following crops belong to:
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(a) a-2, b-1, c-3

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(b) a-3, b-2, c-1

(c) a-1, b-3, c-2
(d) a-3, b-1, c-2
(iii) Which one of the following is not a physical feature that influence cropping
pattern?
(a) Soil
(b) Terrain
(c) Dense population
(d) Air moisture
(iv) In order to increase the crop output, a farmer can control _________ .
(a) Cultivation practices
(b) Sunlight
(c) Humidity
(d) Physiography
SOLUTIONS
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1. (c) 2/3
2. (a) Jhumming
3. (d) Kuruwa
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4. (b) Venezuela
5. (a) Low
6. (b) Gram
7. (a) September-October
8. (d) All of these
9. (a) Paddy
10. (b) Rabi crop
11. (b) Summer
12. (c) Punjab and Haryana
13. (a) 2nd
14. (d) China

15. (b) Wheat
16. (c) A year
17. (a) Bajra
19. (c) Sericulture
20. (c) Hot and humid

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1. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct
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Explanation : Agriculture is a primary activity, which produces most of the food
that we consume. Two-thirds of India’s population is involved in agricultural
activities and earns livelihood through it.
Ex

Explanation : Cultivation methods have changed significantly depending upon
the characteristics of physical, environmental and technological methods.
Agriculture is definitely an age-old economic activity in India
Explanation : The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the
help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective
industries.
Explanation : High doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for
obtaining higher production to meet the growing demands of the people. The
farmers continue to take maximum output from the limited land
Explanation : Variety of food and non-food crops are grown in different parts
of the country depending upon the variations in soil, climate and cultivation
practices. Major crops grown in India are rice, wheat, millets, pulses, tea,
coffee, sugarcane, oilseeds, cotton and jute, etc.
Explanation : It is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India. Our
country is the second largest producer of rice in the world after China.
Cultivation of rice requires annual rainfall above 100 cm. In the areas of less
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rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.
Explanation : Gram is a rabi crop and requires less moisture and survive even in
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dry conditions. However, India is the largest producer as well as the consumer
of pulses in the world. These are the major source of protein in a vegetarian
diet.
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Explanation : The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates
endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic
matter. It is consumed on large basis in India being an important beverage
crop.
CASE 1:
(i) (d) Subsistence crop

(ii) (d) Farmers clear a patch of land by felling trees and burning them, to
produce cereals and other food crops.
(iii) (b) Plantation Farming
(iv) (c) Farmers use simple and basic tools and irrigation methods.
CASE 2:
(i). The ‘Right of inheritance ‘leads to the division of land among successive
generations has rendered land-holding size uneconomical.
(ii). (i) The main characteristics of commercial farming is the use of higher
doses of modern inputs. ub
(ii) Some of the examples are high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical
fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity.
pH
CASE 3:
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(i) Winter, Summer

(ii) (c) A-(2), B-(3), C-(4), D-(1)
(iii) (c) No Effect
(iv) (d) Green Revolution
CASE 4:
(i) (a) food
(ii) (b) a-3, b-2, c-1
(iii) (c) Dense population
(iv) (a) Cultivation practices.
MINERALS AND ENERGY RESOURCES
1. What occurs naturally inside the earth’s crust and has a definable internal
structure ?
(a) Metals
(b) Minerals
(c) Chemicals
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(d) Coal
2. What percentage of total mineral are utilised by us in the form of nutrients?

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(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 0.3%
(d) 0.4%
3. Rocks are combinations of homogeneous substances called

_______________ .
(a) Minerals
(b) Ores
(c) Limestone
(d) Metals
4. Where are minerals generally found ?

(a) In ores
(b) Under the earth
(c) Above the earth
(d) In rocks
5. Igneous, metamorphic rocks and minerals may occur in the _______________

.
(a) Cracks
(b) Crevices
(c) Faults or Joints
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(d) All of these
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6. In which areas sedimentary minerals are formed as a result of evaporation ?

(a) Semi-arid regions
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(b) Dry regions

(c) Arid regions
(d) Moist regions
7. In which rocks are potash salt and sodium salt formed?

(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Igneous rocks
(c) Metamorphic rocks

8. Which mineral may occur as alluvial deposits ?

(a) Steel
(b) Silver
(c) Iron
(d) Aluminium
9. Common salt, magnesium and bromine are derived from _______________.
(a) Sea water

(b) Mountains
(c) Ocean water
(d) Rivers
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10. Which is the finest iron ore with 70% of iron ?
(a) Magnetite
(b) Hematite
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(c) Bauxite
(d) All of these
11. Which state is the largest producer of manganese ore in India ?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat
(d) Madhya Pradesh
12. In which state are Balaghat copper mines situated?

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
13. Identify the type of mineral with the help of following features :
(i) It is formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich inaluminium
silicates.
(ii) Its deposits are mainly found in the Amarkantak Plateau, Maikal hillsand the
plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni.
(iii) Panchpatmali deposits in Koraput district are the most important deposits
in the state.
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(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Iron ore
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(d) Copper
14. Arrange the following states in sequence according to their percentage share
in iron ore production in the year 2020 :
(i) Chhattisgarh
(ii) Karnataka
(iii) Odisha
(iv) Jharkhand
(a) (i)-(iv)-(ii)-(iii)
(b) (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(iv)
(c) (iv)-(ii)-(iii)-(i)
(d) (i)-(ii)-(iv)-(iii)
15. _____________ deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety

of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.
(a) Bauxite
(b) Copper
(c) Mica
(d) Zinc
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16. Which mineral contains calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate ?
(a) Manganese
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(b) Limestone
(c) Mica
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(d) Iron
17. Koderma in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which of the following

minerals ?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Iron ore
(d) Copper
18. Mineral resources are :

(a) Finite
(b) Non-renewable
(d) None of these
19. Which is the oldest oil producing state of India ?

(a) Assam
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Odisha (Orissa)
20. Hydroelectricity is generated by :

(a) Water
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(b) Coal
(c) Petroleum
(d) Natural gas
Ex
1. Assertion : Uses of iron brought a radical change in human life.

Reason : Different kinds of tools where invented by using minerals.
2. Assertion : Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of India.
Reason : India is rich in good quality iron ore.
3. Assertion : Mining activity is often called a “Killer Industry”.
Reason : Mining helps in agriculture.
4. Assertion : Mica is a metallic mineral.

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Reason : Mica is the basic raw material for electric and electronic
industries.
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5. Assertion : Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
Reason : Minerals have a universal use, they are used to manufacture
everything we use in our day to day lives.
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6. Assertion : Geological processes of mineral formation is slow.

Reason : Minerals resources are consumed way quickly than they are
formed.
7. Assertion : Thermal power stations are located on or near the coalfields.

Reason : Coal is a bulky material.
8. Assertion : Natural gas is referred as an environment-friendly fuel.

Reason : Natural gas contains low carbon dioxide emissions.
9. Assertion : Increased use of fossil fuels creates a healthy environment.

Reason : Fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas are arduously obtained from
natural resources.
10. Assertion : Most nuclear power stations in India have been constructed
near water sources.
Reason : These power stations require a lot of water for cooling purposes.
11. Assertion : Uranium found in Ladakh is an example of potential resources

that could be used in future.
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Reason : Ladakh is a technologically advanced region.
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12. Assertion : Conservation of energy resources is essential.
Reason : Energy is a basic requirement for economic development.
Ex
13. Assertion : Developed resources are surveyed and their quality and
quantity are determined.
Reason : Tamil Nadu and Gujarat have enormous potential for the
development of wind and solar energy.
CASE 1:
India is fortunate to have fairly rich and varied mineral resources. However,
these are unevenly distributed. Broadly speaking, peninsular rocks contain most
of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other nonmetallic
minerals. Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula,
in Gujarat and Assam, have most of the petroleum deposits. Rajasthan with the
rock systems of the peninsula, has reserves of many non-ferrous minerals. The
vast alluvial plains of North India are almost devoid of economic minerals. These
variations exist largely because of the differences in the geological structure,
processes and time involved in the formation of minerals.
(i) The abundance of mica in _______ and crude oil in ________ shows
geological diversity of India.
(a) eastern flanks of the peninsula, Rajasthan
(b) Rajasthan, Assam
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(c) Sedimentary rocks, North India
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(d) Gujarat, Eastern flanks of the peninsula
(ii) India is fortunate to have fairly rich and varied mineral resources. Identify
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which category these minerals belong to :
(a) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

(b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(c) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
(d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(iii) Which of the following is a reason that northern part of India lacks mineral
reserves?
(a) Northern plains are old landforms.
(b) Northern plains have dense network of rivers.
(c) Northern plains were formed by alluvial deposits.
(d) Northern plains are fit for agriculture.
(iv) _________ justify the variations in availability of minerals in India.

(a) Land formation process
(b) Geological structure
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(c) Time taken by the natural process
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Ex
CASE 2:
Energy is required for all activities. It is needed to cook, to provide light and heat,
to propel vehicles and to drive machinery in industries. Energy can be generated
from fuel minerals like coal, petroleum, natural gas, uranium, etc.
Energy resources can be classified as conventional and non-conventional
sources.
Conventional sources include : firewood, cattle dung cake, coal, petroleum,
natural gas and electricity (both hydel and thermal).
Non-conventional sources include solar, wind, tidal, geothermal, biogas and
atomic energy. Firewood and cattle dung cake are most common in rural India.
According to one estimate more than 70 per cent energy requirement in rural
households is met by these two; continuation of these is increasingly becoming
difficult due to decreasing forest area. Moreover, using dung cake too is being
discouraged because it consumes most valuable manure which could be used in
agriculture.
(i) Energy resources are mainly divided into _______ and ________ categories.
(a) metallic, non-metallic
(b) ferrous, non-ferrous
(c) conventional, non-conventional
(d) lodes, veins
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(ii) Identify which energy resource the following places are associated with—
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(a) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d

(b) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
(c) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(iii) Which of the following option does not stand true for firewood and cattle
dung?
(a) Both are conventional source of energy.
(b) Highly popular among rural households.
(c) High value as a raw material.

(d) Can be used as manure in fields.
(iv) In order to reduce the consumption of conventional sources of energy,

government should __________.
(a) bring more alternatives
(b) strictly make laws
(c) make conventional sources costlier
(d) ban use of conventional sources
CASE 3:
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Source A-Tidal Energy
Oceanic tides can be used to generate electricity. Floodgate dams are built
across inlets. During high tide water flows into the inlet and gets trapped when
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the gate is closed. After the tide falls outside the flood gate, the water retained
by the floodgate flows back to the sea via a pipe that carries it through a power-
generating turbine.
Source B- Biogas
Shrubs, farm waste, animal and human waste are used to produce biogas for
domestic consumption in rural areas. Decomposition of organic matter yields
gas, which has higher thermal efficiency in comparison to kerosene, dung cake
and charcoal. Biogas plants are set up at municipal, cooperative and individual
levels. The plants using cattle dung are known as ‘Gobar gas plants’ in rural India.
Source C- Nuclear or Atomic Energy
Nuclear or Atomic Energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms. When
such an alteration is made, much energy is released in the form of heat and this
is used to generate electric power. Uranium and Thorium, which are available in
Jharkhand and the Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan are used for generating atomic
or nuclear power. The Monazite sands of Kerala is also rich in Thorium.
Source A-Tidal Energy

(i) What will generate by the oceanic tides?
Source B- Biogas
(ii) What do Gobar Gas plants operates on?
Source C- Nuclear or Atomic Energy
(iii) How atomic energy is obtained?
CASE 4:
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Electricity has such a wide range of applications in today’s world that, it’s per
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capita consumption is considered as an index of development. Electricity is
generated mainly in two ways : by running water which drives hydro turbines to
generate hydroelectricity; and by burning other fuels such as coal, petroleum
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and natural gas to drive turbines to produce thermal power. Once generated the
electricity is exactly the same. Hydro electricity is generated by fast flowing
water, which is a renewable resource. India has a number of multi-purpose
projects like the Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley Corporation, the Kopili Hydel
Project etc. producing hydroelectric power. Thermal electricity is generated by
using coal, petroleum and natural gas. The thermal power stations use non-
renewable fossil fuels for generating electricity.
(i) How does thermal power stations generate electricity?

(ii) Why is hydroelectric called a renewable resource?
(iii) What are the two ways to generate electricity?
SOLUTIONS
1. (b) Minerals
2. (c) 0.3%
3. (a) Minerals
4. (a) In ores
5. (d) All of these
6. (c) Arid regions
7. (a) Sedimentary rocks

8. (b) Silver
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9. (c) Ocean water
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10. (a) Magnetite
11. (d) Madhya Pradesh
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12. (b) Madhya Pradesh

13. (a) Bauxite
14. (b) (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(iv)
15. (a) Bauxite
16. (b) Limestone
17. (b) Mica
19. (a) Assam
20. (a) Water
of assertion.
Explanation : Revolution in agriculture–different type of tools invented like axe,
hook, plough etc., revolution in industry–different tools and machines like
spinning and also revolution in transportation–bullock-cart, ships, boats etc.
brought a radical change in human life.
of assertion.
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Explanation : Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial
development. India is rich in good quality iron ore. Iron ore is largely exported
from India.
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Explanation : Mining is a source of deforestation, high risk is involved, water
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sources get contaminated and mining doesn’t help in agriculture.
Explanation : Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It is a

nonmetallic mineral and it is used in electric and electronic industries.
of assertion.
Explanation : Minerals are found in varied forms in nature. Even the food that
we eat contains minerals. Almost everything we use, from a tiny pin to a
towering building or a big ship, all are made from minerals.
Explanation : Mineral formation is slow as it requires millions of years to be
created but minerals are used very quickly in comparison.
of assertion.
Explanation : Coal is a bulky material, which loses weight on use as it is reduced
to ash. Hence, heavy industries and thermal power stations are located in or
near the coalfields.
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of assertion.
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Explanation : Natural gas is considered an environment-friendly fuel because of
low carbon dioxide emissions.
Ex

Explanation : Increased use of fossil fuels causes serious environmental
problems. Hence, there is a pressing need to use renewable energy sources like
solar energy, wind, tide, biomass and energy from waste material.
of assertion.
Explanation : Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms,
much energy is released in the form of heat and water is used as a coolant which
absorbs all the heat released and takes it to the sources of water near the power
stations.
11 (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Explanation : Uranium found in Ladakh is an example of potential resources, but
it is an isolated and backward region.
of assertion.
Explanation : Energy is one of the foundation stone for economic development,

which drives economic productivity, industrial growth. In India, major part of
energy is derived from fossil fuels e.g., coal, crude oil, gas etc. These fossils fuel
are arduously obtain from natural resources but they are consumed rapidly and
quickly. So, conservation of every resource is essential for its sustainable usage.
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Explanation : Tamil Nadu and Gujarat have enormous potential for the
development of wind and solar energy. But both these are examples of potential
resources.
Ex
CASE 1:
(i) (b) Rajasthan, Assam
(ii) (a) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
(iii) (c) Northern plains were formed by alluvial deposits.
(iv) (d) All of the above
CASE 2:
(i) (c) conventional, non-conventional
(ii) (b) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
(iii) (c) High value as a raw material
(iv) (a) bring more alternatives
CASE 3:
(i) Oceanic tides can be used to generate electricity, by building floodgate
across inlets. Source B- Biogas
(ii) The plants using cattle dung are known as ‘Gobar gas plants’ in rural India.
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Organic input such as shrubs, farm waste, animal and human waste are used
for anaerobic digestion. Source C- Nuclear or Atomic Energy
(iii) Nuclear or Atomic Energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms.
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Ex
CASE 4:
(i). Thermal power stations use non-renewable fossil fuels such as coal,
petroleum and natural gas for generating electricity.
(ii). Hydroelectricity is generated by fast flowing water and this water can be
regenerated or replenished again and again that why it is called is renewable
resource.
(iii). Electricity is generated mainly in two ways :
(i) By running water which drives hydro turbines to generate hydroelectricity.
(ii) By burning other fuels such as coal, petroleum and natural gas todrive
turbines to produce thermal power.
(iv). Per capita consumption of electricity is considered as an index of
development.
MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES
1. Mineral based industries include :

(a) Cotton
(b) Sugar
(c) Cement
(d) Silk
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2. Which sector among the following is considered as the backbone in the
overall economic development of a country?
(a) Manufacturing sector
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(b) Service sector

(c) Agriculture sector
3. Identify the correct statements about ‘Manufacturing’ :

I. It is production of goods in large quantities.
II. It is called industry.
III. It is making valuable products from raw material.
IV. It includes things produced in cottage industries.
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) I, III
(d) II, IV
4. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of

________.
(a) industries
(b) manufacturing industries
(c) primary sector
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5. ________of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce.
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(a) Import
(b) Selling
(c) Export
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(d) Buying
6. What is the full form of NMCC ?

(a) National Municipal Cleanliness Corporation
(b) National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council
(c) National Manufacturing Cotton Council
(d) National Municipal Charity Council
7. Over the last two decades, the share of manufacturing sector has stagnated
at______percent out of GDP- out of a total of ______ per cent for the industry
which includes______ per cent of mining, quarrying, electricity and gas.
(a) 17, 28, 10

(b) 27, 17, 10
(c) 17, 27, 10
(d) 17, 28, 27
8. What percentage is contributed to industrial production by the textile

industry?
(a) 11%
(b) 12%
(c) 13%
(d) 14%
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9. What is GDP?
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(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Government Domestic Product
(c) General Domestic Product
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(d) Gross Domestic Possession
10. Which of the following is an agro-based industry?

(a) Sugar
(b) Tea
(c) Coffee
(d) All of these
11. Regular supply of electricity and an assured source of raw material are a
must for the location of __________ .
(a) Textile Industry
(b) Iron and Steel

(c) Chemical Industry
(d) Aluminium Smelting
12. Which of following occurs after increase in industrial activities?

(a) Urbanisation
(b) Rural expansion
(c) Development (Loss of labour)
(d) All of these
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13. Which industry among the following is the only industry in India that is self-
reliant?
(a) Textile industry
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(b) Iron and steel
(c) Electrical
(d) Sugar
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14. Which factor influences the location of a factory?

(a) Least cost
(b) Demand
(c) Supply
(d) Raw material
15. Which city has emerged as the electronic capital of India?

(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Lucknow
(d) Kolkata
16. The maximum investment allowed for a small-scale industry is :

(a) One lakh rupees
(b) Ten lakh rupees
(c) One crore rupees
(d) Ten crore rupees
17. BHEL, SAIL industries are owned by :

(a) Public Sector
(b) Private Sector
(c) Joint Sector
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(d) None of these
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18. Which one of the following is a joint sector industry ?

(a) OIL
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(b) Tata Steel

(c) Bajaj
(d) Dabur
19. Which is the second most important metallurgical industry in India ?

(a) Petrochemicals
(b) Aluminium smelting
(c) Machine tools
(d) Iron and steel
20. Identify the type of industry with the help of following features :
(i) It is the second most important metallurgical industry in India.
(ii) It is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, malleable and
becomes strong when it is mixed with other metals.
(iii) It is used to manufacture aircraft, utensils and wires.
(iv) It has gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a
number of industries.
(a) Petrochemicals
(b) Aluminium smelting
(c) Machine tools
(d) Iron and Steel ub
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Ex
1. Assertion : The economic strength of the country is measured by the

development of manufacturing industries.
Reason : India’s prosperity lies in diversifying its manufacturing industries.
2. Assertion : Textile industry occupies a unique position in Indian economy.

Reason : It contributes significantly to industrial production employment
generation directly.
3. Assertion : Chemical industries are lagging behind in India.

Reason : Both large and small scale industries are present and growth of
this industry is very high comparatively.
4. Assertion : Industries gives boost to the agricultural sector.

Reason : Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other.
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5. Assertion : Aluminium is a universally accepted metal for a large number of
industries
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Reason : Aluminium is flexible and a good conductor of heat and electricity.
6. Assertion : Consumer industries produces goods for direct use by

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consumers.
Reason : Consumer industries are only agro-based.
7. Assertion : Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of

undesirable gases.
Reason : Air pollution does not affect human health, animals, plants,
buildings and the atmosphere as a whole.
8. Assertion : Harvesting of rainwater reduces industrial pollution of fresh

water.
Reason : Rainwater helps industry to meet water requirements.
9. Assertion : Industrial development can be minimize environmental

degradation.
Reason : Environmental degradation depends on the raw material used.
SOLUTIONS
1. (c) Cement
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2. (b) Service sector
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3. (a) I, II
4. (b) manufacturing industries
5. (c) Export
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6. (b) National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council

7. (c) 17, 27, 10
8. (d) 14%
9. (a) Gross Domestic Product
11. (d) Aluminium Smelting
12. (a) Urbanisation
13. (a) Textile industry
14. (a) Least cost
15. (a) Bengaluru
16. (c) One crore rupees

17. (a) Public Sector
18. (a) OIL
19. (b) Aluminium Smelting
20. (b) Aliminium smelting
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1. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct
Explanation : Industries creates a variety of goods and thus reduce the
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dependence of the people on agriculture. Exports of manufactured goods add
value to the economy.
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Explanation : It is the only industry in the country, which is self-reliant and
complete in the value chain, from raw material to the highest value added
products.

Explanation : Chemical industries in India are fast growing and diversifying
.There is a rapid growth in the manufacturing of organic and inorganic
chemicals.
Explanation : The industries have given a major boost to agriculture by raising

its productivity. They depend on the latter for raw materials and sell their
products.
Explanation : In India, Aluminium smelting is the second largest industry. It is
flexible, good conductor of heat and electricity and hence, it is a universally
accepted metal for a large number of industries. It is widely used as a
substitute of copper, zinc, lead and steel.
6. (b) Assertion is true but reason is false.

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Explanation : Consumer industries that produce goods for direct use by
consumers like sugar, toothpaste, paper, sewing machines, fans etc. But all of
these are not only agro – based industries.
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Explanation : Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of
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undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide. Airborne

particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays
mist and smoke and adversely affect human health, plants and animals.
Explanation : Every litre of waste water discharged by our industry pollutes
eight times the quantity of fresh water, harvesting of rainwater replenishes the
water table and thus helps industry to meet its water requirements.

Explanation : Proper fuel selection and utilisation, smoke can be prevented by

the use of oil instead of coal in industries and equipments to control emissions
can minimise environmental degradation.
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Ex
LIFELINES OF NATIONAL ECONOMY
1. Which mode of transportation reduces trans shipment losses and delays?

(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Pipelines
(d) Waterways Ans. (c) Pipelines
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2. Primary road systems are laid and maintained by:
(a) Zila Parishad
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(b) CPWD
(c) NHAI
(d) PWD
3. Which roads are all weather roads ?

(a) Metalled
(b) Un-metalled
(c) Border Roads
(d) All of these
4. The North-South corridor links :

(a) Srinagar and Kanyakumari

(b) Himachal and Kanyakumari
(c) Srinagar and Chennai
(d) Srinagar and Andaman Nicobar
5. Silchar and Porbander are linked by which corridor ?

(a) North-East
(b) North-West
(c) South-East
(d) East-West
6. What is the full form of NHAI ?

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(a) National Highway Association of India
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(b) National Highway Authority of India
(c) National Historical Association of India
(d) National Highway Arms of India
Ex
7. Which one of the following states is not connected with the H.V. J. pipeline?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh
8. Which is the National Highway No. 1 ?

(a) Sher Shah Suri Marg
(b) G.T. Road
(c) Delhi-Mumbai
(d) Delhi-Kolkata
9. District Roads are maintained by :

(a) Zila Parishad
(b) PWD
(c) CPWD
(d) Municipal Corporation
10. The density of road is measured at a distance of per __________ .

(a) 50 sq. km
(b) 100 sq. km
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(c) 200 sq. km
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(d) 250 sq. km
11. Which state has the lowest density of roads ?

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(a) Goa
(b) Sikkim
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Kerala
12. Which state has the highest density of roads ?

(a) Kerala
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Delhi
(d) Madhya Pradesh
13. Indian railways have a network of how many stations ?

(a) Over 6,000
(b) Over 7,000
(c) Over 8,000
(d) Over 9,000
14. Into how many zones are Indian Railways organised?

(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
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15. Solids can also be transported through pipelines when converted into :
(a) Liquids
(b) Slurry
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(c) Gas
(d) Powder
16. How many networks of pipeline transportation are there in the country ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
17. Which is the cheapest mode of transport ?

(a) Airways
(b) Waterways
(c) Pipelines
(d) Roadways
18. Which is the extreme south-western port ?

(a) Marmagao
(b) New Mangalore
(c) Kandla
(d) Kochi
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19. Which is the extreme south-eastern port ?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Vishakhapatnam
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(c) Tuticorin
(d) Marmagao
Ex
20. Which is the oldest artificial port of the country ?

(a) Chennai
(b) Haldia
(c) Paradwip
(d) Tuticorin

1. Assertion : Road transportation in India faces a number of problems.

Reason : Roads are unmetalled, their network is adequate.
2. Assertion : Waterways is the cheapest means of transport.

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Reason : It is a fuel-efficient and environment friendly mode of transport.
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3. Assertion : Cost of laying pipelines is less but subsequent running costs are
maximum.
Reason : Pipelines facilitate easy transportation of goods.
Ex
4. Assertion : Communication is unessential requirement of human life.

Reason : Communication between people creates awareness.
5. Assertion : Mass communication promotes national integration and provides

entertainment.
Reason : It strengthens democracy in the country by providing news to the
masses. They feel attached to the country and a feeling of nationalism arises in
them.
6. Assertion : Trade is considered as the economic barometer of the country.

Reason : Trade helps largely in developing countries like India.

Advancement of trade is an index to its economic prosperity.
7. Assertion : International trade has undergone a sea of changes in the last

decades.
Reason : Exchange of commodities and goods have been superseded by
the exchange of information and knowledge.
8. Assertion : Tourism promotes national integration.

Reason : Millions of people are directly engaged in tourism industry.
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9. Assertion : Transport and communications are called lifelines of our
economy.
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Reason : Transport and communications do not help in easy movement of
goods and materials between countries
Ex
CASE 1:
For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a limited space. With the
development in science and technology, the area of influence of trade and
transport expanded far and wide. Today, the world has been converted into a
large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has
been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication
system. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to
each other. Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast
size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways,

waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet, etc. have been
contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trades from local
to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched
our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the
comforts of life.
(i) The world is shrinking because of advancement in _________ and _________.

(a) science, technology
(b) art, culture
(c) dance, music

(d) All of the above ub
(ii) Different types of transportation help in socio-economic development of a
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nation. Identify which domain of the earth the following features of
transportation belong to :
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(a) a-2, b-3, c-1

(b) a-3, b-1, c-2
(c) a-2, b-1, c-3

(d) a-1, b-3, c-2
(iii) Which one of the following is not a challenge for India to connect the world?
(a) Complex land features
(b) Cultural and linguistic diversity

(c) Access to sea
(d) Vast area
(iv) In order to expand its global trade, India needs to:

(a) Invest more in infrastructure.
(b) Develop advance transport and communication network.
(c) Liberalise trade policies.

(d) Restrict import of foreign products.
CASE 2:
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Source A- National Water ways
The Ganga River between Prayagraj and Haldia (1620 km)-N.W. No.1. The
Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km)-N.W. No.2. The West-
Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapurma-Kollam, Udyogamandal and Champakkara
Ex
canals-205 km) — N.W. No.3. Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers
along with Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals (1078 km) — N.W. No.4.
Specified stretches of river Brahmani along with Matai river, delta channels of
Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and and East Coast Canal (588 km) – N.W. No.5
Source B- Roadways
India has one of the largest road networks in the world, aggregating to about
54.7 lakh km. In India, roadways have preceded railways. They still have an edge
over railways in view of the ease with which they can be built and maintained.
The growing importance of road transport visàvis rail transport is rooted in the
following reasons; (a) construction cost of roads is much lower than that of
railway lines, (b) roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and
undulating topography, (c) roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and
as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas, (d) road transport is
economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of

goods over short distances, (e) it also provides door-to-door service, thus the
cost of loading and unloading is much lower.
Source A- National Water ways

(i) What is the stretch of National Waterways No. 3?
Source B- Roadways
(ii) Why is the construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines?
SOLUTIONS
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1. (c) Pipelines
Ex
2. (b) CPWD
3. (a) Metalled
4. (a) Srinagar and Kanyakumari
5. (d) East-West
6. (b) National Highway Authority of India
7. (b) Maharashtra
8. (a) Sher Shah Suri Marg
9. (a) Zila Parishad

10. (b) 100 sq. km
11. (c) Jammu and Kashmir
12. (a) Kerala
13. (b) Over 7,000
14. (d) 16
15. (b) Slurry
16. (b) 3
17. (b) Waterways
18. (d) Kochi
19. (c) Tuticorin

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pH
20. (a) Chennai
Ex
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct
Explanation : Density of all roads varies, keeping in view the volume of traffic
and passengers, the road network is inadequate, they are unmetalled and unfit
for use, posing a lot of problems for transportation.
Explanation : Waterways are the cheapest means of transport and most

suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods as it is a fuel-efficient and
environment friendly mode of transport.

Explanation : Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running
costs are minimal. It rules out trans-shipment losses and delays.

Explanation : The increase in population and the change in the modes of
communication are the result of increased human movement and transport of
materials and goods. These provide healthy entertainment. They are thus
essential in life. ub
pH
Explanation : Mass communication provides entertainment and helps in
creating awareness among people.
Ex
Explanation : Advancement of international trade of a country is an index of its
economic prosperity, therefore trade is considered the economic barometer
for a country.
Explanation : India has emerged as a software giant at the international level
and it is earning large foreign exchange through the export of information
technology.
Ans. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct
Explanation : Tourism promotes national integration and helps in the
development of understanding among various countries about our culture and
heritage.

Explanation : Transport and communications are called lifelines of our
economy as they reduces distances, brings people close to another by
promoting interdependence among themselves and mainly helps in trade and
commerce within the country.
ub
pH

Ex
CASE 1:
(i). (a) science, technology
(ii). (a) a-2, b-3, c-1.
(iii). (c) Access to sea.
(iv). (d) Restrict import of foreign products.
CASE 2:
(i). The West-Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapurma-Kollam, Udyogamandal and
Champakkara canals-205 km) — N.W. No.3.
(ii). The construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines
because roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating
topography.
ub
pH
Ex

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1 ExpHub 9th & 10th-an initiative by your Prashant Bhaiya

Chapter 1: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Chapter 2 : Nationalism in India

Chapter 3 : The Making of a Global World

Chapter 4 : The Age of Industrialization

Chapter 5 : Print Culture and the Modern World

Chapter 8 : Gender, Religion and Caste

Chapter 9 : Political Parties

Chapter 12 : Sectors of the Indian Economy

Chapter 13 : Money and Credit

Chapter 14 : Globalization and the Indian Economy

Chapter 16 : Forest and Wildlife Resources

Chapter 17 : Water Resources

Chapter 18: Agriculture

Chapter 19: Minerals and Energy Resources

Chapter 20: Manufacturing Industries

Chapter 21 : Lifelines of National Economy

THE RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE

MOST EXPECTED MCQ QUESTIONS

1. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of occurrence:

(b) Treaty of Paris

3. The term das volk means:

(a) Common people

4. He had sought to put together a coherent programme for a Unitary Italian

5. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following aspect best signifies the above image?

(c)Freedom for individual and equality before law

7. Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of

8. The Civil Code of 1804 is usually known as:

9. Unification of Italy took place between :

10. Unification of Germany took place between:

national unification of Prussia:

(b) Otto von Bismarck

13. He was proclaimed King of United Italy in 1861:

(a) Victor Emmanuel II

(c) Otto von Bismarck

16. Which of the following countries is considered as the ‘Cradle of

17. In which century nationalism emerged in Europe:

and the Protestants?

19. Which of the following statements testifies beliefs of the conservatives?

(a) Traditional institutions of state and society should be preserved.

20. Identify the following and choose the correct option:

(a) Treaty of Constantinople

Assertion & Reason Type Questions

1. Assertion: From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced

3. Assertion: The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic

4. Assertion: Giuseppe Mazzini worked with the conservatives for the

5. Assertion: Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the

drastically reduced their payments.

6. Assertion: On 18 May, 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the

CASE BASED ( Competency Based Questions )

(iii) Which incident marked the French Revolution?

Source B- New Conservatism after 1815

Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven

Source C- Conservative regimes

Source A-Liberal Nationalism

(i) What is the literal meaning of ‘liberalism’?

Source B-New Conservatism after 1815

(ii) What was the belief of Conservatives?