SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
ZOOLOGY

EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR (3) IV III II I

ELIMINATION (4) IV II III I
1. Match List – I with List - II
5. Select the option which shows the correct
List - I List-II
matching of animal with its excretory organ
A Fasciola I Contractile vacuole
and excretory product
B Amoeba II Nephridia
Animal Excretory Excretory
C Nereis III Fat bodies
organ product
D Periplaneta IV Flame cells
(1) Blue Nephridia Urea
A B C D
whale
(1) IV I III II
(2) Garden Kidneys Ammonia
(2) II IV I III
lizard
(3) IV I II III
(3) Pristis Green Uric acid
(4) II I III IV
(saw glands
2. Which of the following organism excretes
fish)
ammonium through its gill surfaces ?
(4) Locust Malpighian Uric acid
(1) Hirudinaria (2) Clarias
tubules
(3) Delphinus (4) Asterias
6. Assertion (A) : The renal tubule begins with
3. Uric acid can be removed with a minimum
a double walled cup – like structure called
loss of water, because it is
bowman’s capsule.
(1) most soluble (2) least toxic
Reason (R) : Bowman’s capsule along with
(3) most toxic (4) not soluble
vasa recta is called malpighian body.
4. Match List – I with those in List – II
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
List - I List-II
the correct explanation of (A)
A Antennal glands I Brush border
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
B Uremia II Rotifers
not the correct explanation of (A)
C Protonephridia III Haemodialysis
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D PCT IV Crustaceans
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
A B C D 7. Figure shows a section of human nephron
(1) III IV II I with structures labeled, select the correct
(2) III II IV I option
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 (1) C – PCT – situated in the medullary List - I List-II
region of kidney. A Collecting I Absorption of
(2) A – Bowman’s capsule – Forms duct essential nutrients
network of capillaries around loop of Henle. like amino acids
(3) D – Collecting duct – DCTs of man’s and glucose
nephrons open into it. B Henle’s loop II Allows passage
(4) B – Vasa recta – It is absent in juxta of small amounts
medulllary nephrons. of urea into the
8. Which of the following statement does not medullary
match with the urine formation in humans ? interstitium
(1) Tubular cells secrete substances like C Proximal III Conditional
+ +
H , K and ammonia into the filtrate. convoluted reabsorption of
(2) GFR in a healthy individual is tubule HCO3 and
approximately 125 ml/minute. selective
(3) Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular sectretion of
filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules H , K  and
(4) On an average 5040 ml of blood is
ammonia
filtered by the kidneys per minute in a
D Distal IV Plays a
healthy individual
convoluted significant role in
9. Assertion (A) : Nearly all of the essential
tubule the maintainance
nutrients and 70 – 80 percent of electrolytes
of high
and water are reabsorbed by PCT.
osmolarity of
Reason (R) : PCT is lined by simple cuboidal
medullary
brush border epithelium which increases the
interstitial fluid
surface area for reabsorption.
A B C D
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
(1) II III II IV
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) II IV I III
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
(3) I IV II III
not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) IV I III II
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
11. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(1) Descending limb of loop of Henle is
10. Match the following parts of nephron with
almost impermeable to electrolytes
their function

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 (2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is (4) decrease in atrial natriuretic hormone
almost permeable to water levels
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle is 16. Which of the following statements are true
almost impermeable to water for counter correct mechanism ?
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is i) Increasing osmolority towards inner
almost impermeable to electrolytes medullary interstitium
12. Which of the following statement is not true? ii) NaCl is returned to the medullary
(1) PCT helps to maintain the pH and ionic interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa
balance of of the body fluids recta
(2) Reabsorption is minimum in the iii) small amounts of urea enter the initial
ascending limb of loop of Henle segment of proximal convoluted tubule
(3) Selective reabsorption of iv) maximum amount of water is
H  and K  takes place in the collecting duct reabsorbed actively from the distial
convoluted tubule
(4) Conditional reabsorption of Na + and
(1) iii and iv (2) i and ii
water takes in the DCT
(3) i, ii and iii (4) only ii
13. The part of the nephron involved in the
17. The increasing concentration towards inner
passive reabsorption of urea is
medullary interstitium is mainly caused by
(1) Ascending limb of Henle
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule (1) Ammonia and K +

(3) Collecting duct (2) H+ and uric acid

(4) Bowman’s capsule (3) Creatinine and hippuric acid
14. Removal of collecting duct from the nephron (4) NaCl and urea
will result in 18. Which of the following statements are
(1) no urine formation correct ?
(2) more diluted urine A) An excessive loss of fluid from the
(3) more concentrated urine body can suppress the ADH release.
(4) no change in the volume of urine B) An increase in body fluid volume can
15. Which of the following causes a decrease in switch off the osmoreceptors.
sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted C) ADH prevents water reabsorption from
tubule ? the latter part of the tubule.
(1) increase in aldesterone levels D) Vasopressin can affect the kidney
(2) increase in antidiuretic hormone levels function by its constrictor effects on blood
(3) decrease in aldosterone levels vessels.

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 E) ADH increases glomerular blood flow (3) B, C and D only
and GFR. (4) A, B and C only
Choose the correct answer from the options 21. Select the correct statement
given below (1) ADH increases blood pressure by
(1) A, C and D only vasodilation
(2) A, B and C only (2) Aldesterone is a powerful vasodilator
(3) B, D and E only (3) Increase in GFR activates JG cells to
(4) D and E only release renin
19. Arrange the events of renin angiotensin (4) ANF decreases blood pressure by vaso
mechanism in correct sequence – constriction
A) Release of aldosterone 22. Which of the following would result in
B) Release of renin diuresis ?
C) Activation of adrenal cortex (1) Less water reabsorption due to under
D) Formation of angiotensin II secretion of ADH
E) Fall in GFR (2) More reabsorption of Na + and water
Choose the correct answer from the options from renal tubules due to aldosterone
given below (3) Increase in the secretion of renin from
(1) EBDCA (2) CBDEA JG cells
(3) EDACB (4) CADEB (4) More reabsorption of water due to the
20. Select the correct statements more secretion of ANF
A) ANF causes vasodilation 23. An increase in blood pressure/volume will
B) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of cause the release of
Na + and water from the distal parts of the (1) atrial natriuretic factor
tubule (2) aldosterone
C) Renin is a powerful vasoconstrictor (3) vasopressin
D) Angiotensin II activates adrenal (4) angiotensin II
medulla for the release of aldosterone 24. Analysis of urine helps in the clinical
E) ANF mechanism acts as a check on the diagnosis of all of the following, except
renin – angiotensin mechanism (1) diabetes mellitus
Choose the appropriate answer from the (2) myocardial infarction
options given below (3) malfunctioning of the kidney
(1) A, B and E only (4) many metabolic disorders
(2) C, D and E only

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25. Match the items given in column I with those (1) reabsorb Na  (2) secrete H 
in column II and select the correct option
(3) secrete K  (4) reabsorb water
given below
28. Which of the following does favour the
Column – I Column – II
formation of large quantities of dilute urine ?
A) Counter current
I) Urinary bladder (1) Atrial natriuretic factor
mechanism
(2) Aldosterone
II) Juxta glomerular
B) Storage of urine (3) Anti diuretic hormone
apparatus
(4) Angiotensin
C) Regulation of III) Proximal
29. Which of the following is not a function of
glomerular filtration convoluted tubule our kidneys ?
D) Maximum (1) Regulation of blood pH
IV) Henle’s loop and
reabsorption of water (2) Regulation of blood pressure
vasa recta
from the filtrate (3) Synthesis of urea
v) Ureter (4) Activation of vitamin D
Select the correct answer from the options 30. Match the items in column I with those in
given below column II
A B C D Column – I Column – II
(1) IV V II III a) Nephritis i) Diabetes mellitus
(2) IV I II III b) Uremia ii) Renal calculi
(3) V IV I II c) Oxalate crystals iii) Dialysis
(4) V IV I III d) Ketone bodies iv) Glomerulus
26. Which of the following are the high threshold Select the correct option
and athreshold substances respectively ? a b c d
(1) Hydrogen and bicarbonates (1) iii iv ii i
(2) Urea and uric acid (2) iv iii ii i
(3) Sodium and creatinine (3) ii i iv iii
(4) Glucose and amino acids (4) i ii iii iv
27. Human urine is slightly acidic because
tubular cells
KEY

1) 3 2) 2 3) 2 4) 3 5) 4 6) 3 7) 3 8) 4 9) 1 10) 2
11) 1 12) 3 13) 3 14) 2 15) 3 16) 2 17) 4 18) 3 19) 1 20) 1
21) 3 22) 1 23) 1 24) 2 25) 2 26) 3 27) 2 28) 1 29) 3 30) 2
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 BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION (C) Neutrophils
Blood (D) Erythrocytes
01. Which of the following statements are not (E) Monocytes
correct? Choose the correct answer from the options
(A) Basophils are the least among WBC given below.
(B) Neutrophils have multilobed nucleus (1)D, A, C ,B, E (2) E, B, C, A, D
(C) Eosinophils are phagocytic cells which (3) B, E, C, A, D (4) E, B, C, D, A
destroy microbes 4. Statement-I: Reduction in the number of
(D) Monocytes are monomorphonuclear thrombocytes causes clotting disorders.
phagocytes. Statement-II: Trauma stimulates the platelets
(E) T and B lymphocytes are cellular barriers to release certain factors which are involved in
of innate immunity. the cascade mechanism of coagulation.
Choose appropriate answer from the options (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
given below (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(1) A, B, D (2) B, C (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) C, E (4) B, D (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
02. Match List-I with List - II. 5. Which of the following statements hold true
List – I List – II for WBC but, not for RBC?
(A) Haemoglobin (i) 5.5 million mm 3 (A) They are nucleated cells
(B) They are produced in the bone marrow
(B) RBC (ii) 6000 mm 3
(C) They play a role in immunity
(C) WBC (iii) 12 to 16 gms/100ml
(D) They have a red colored complex protein
(D) Thrombocytes (iv) 2.5 lakhs mm 3
haemoglobin
(E) Formed elements (v) 45% of blood
(E) They are most abundant blood cells
Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose appropariate answer from the options
given below.
given below.
(1) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii, E – v
(1)A, C (2) A, C, D
(2) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv, E – v (3) A, B, C (4) B, D, E
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i, E – v 6. Choose incorrect statement.
(4) A – iii, B – v, C – ii, D – iv, E – i (1) Spleen is a reservoir as well as graveyard
03. Arrange the following formed elements in of RBC
increasing order of their abundance in human (2) Monocytes are phagocytic granulocytes
blood. (3) Basophils secrete histamine which is
(A) Thrombocytes involved in inflammatory reactions
(B) Lymphocytes
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 (4) Platelets are cell fragments produced from Reason R: All the internal space of RBC is
megakaryocytes available for haemoglobin and storage of
7. Coagulum is oxygen which is utilized in its metabolism.
(1) a network of thrombin threads (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(2) formed due to action of thrombokinase on correct explanation of A
inactive fibrinogen (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(3) plasma without clotting factors correct explanation of A
(4) a network of fibrins in which damaged (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
formed elements are trapped (4) A is incorrect but R is correct
8. Which of the following is not a correct match? 13. Blood tests help in clinical diagnosis
(1)Eosinophils – 6 to 8% (confirmatory evidence) of certain disorders.
(2) Basophils – 0.5 to 1% Which of the following disorder is not
(3) Lymphocytes – 20 to 25% correctly matched?
(4) Neutrophils – 60 to 65% (1) Low count of RBC – Anaemia
(2) High count of eosinophils – Allergic
9. Serum has infections
(1) Fibrin and albumins (3) Low levels of albumins –
(2) Platelets and albumins Immunodeficiency
(3) Albumins and antibodies (4) High count of WBC – Leukemia
(4) Plasma with clotting factors 14. Which of the following is correctly matched?
10. Nonphagocytic granulocyte and agranulocyte (1)Fibrinogen – osmotic pressure
respectively (2) Globulin – Blood clotting
(1) Eosinophil, monocyte (3) Albumin – Defence
(2) Basophil, lymphocyte (4) Haemoglobin – Transport of O2 and CO2
(3) Neutrophil, monocyte 15. Observe the given picture of human blood
(4) Lymphocyte, monocyte cells and identify the correct match with its
11. Which of the following is not a correct characteristics.
representation?
(1)Serum = plasma - clotting factors
(1) – Eosinophil – Granulocyte with
(2) Lymph = Blood – RBC, WBC and platelets
bilobed nucleus
(3) Tissue fluid = Plasma – larger proteins
(4) Plasma = Blood – formed elements
12. Assertion A: Erythrocytes of human are (2) – Neutrophil – Cellular barrier of
enucleate. adaptive immunity

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 anti-B
19. Assertion A: Erythroblastosis foetalis can be
(3) – Monocyte – Phagocytic cell with
avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to
kidney shaped nucleus
Rh negative mother immediately after the
delivery of Rh positive child.
(4) – T-Lymphocyte – Produces Reason R: The injected antibodies destroy the
antibodies foetal RBC that mixed in the maternal blood
16. Which of the following are correctly matched? and prevent sensitization of mother.
(A)Eosinophils – release histaminase (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(B) Basophils – release histamine correct explanation of A
(C) B-Lymphocytes – produce (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
immunoglobulins correct explanation of A
(D) Thrombocytes – Produce fibrinogen (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(E) Hepatocytes – Synthesise albumins (4) A is incorrect but R is correct
(1)A, B, C only (2) B, C, D only 20. Heart of fishes pumps
(3) All except D (4) B, C, E only (1) deoxygenated blood to gills
17. Which of the following statements is true for (2) oxygenated blood to body parts
universal recipient blood group? (3) deoxygenated blood to body parts and gills
(1)He can receive blood from any other group (4) mixed blood to body parts
as he has no reacting antigens 21. Choose incorrect pair.
(2) Both A and B antibodies are seen in (1) Hippocampus – 2 chambered heart
plasma (2) Alligator - 4 chambered heart
(3) RBC has both A and B antigens and his (3) Pteropus - 3 chambered heart
plasma is without A and B antibodies (4) Periplaneta - 13 chambered heart
(4) His blood is compatable to all other blood 22. Match the items given in column-I with those
types in column-II and select the correct option.
18. Which of the following is correctly matched List – I List – II
with reference to human blood groups? (A) Mitral valve (i) Right upper corner of
Blood Antibodies Donor’s right atrium
group in plasma group (B) Tricuspid valve (ii) Left A-V septum
(1) A Anti-B A, AB (C) S-A Node (iii) Between right
(2) B Anti-B B, O ventricle and pulmonary
(3) AB Nil AB only aorta
(4) O Anti–A and O only (D) Semilunar valve (iv) Lower left corner of

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 right atrium (2) The atria and ventricles are separated by a
(E) A-V node (v) Right A-V septum thick, fibrous septum
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) Gap junctions are not seen in ventricular
given below. musculature
(1) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i, E – v (4) Bundle of His can spread action potentials

(2) A – ii, B – v, C – i, D – iii, E – iv to ventricular musculature

(3) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i, E – v 26. Blood volume in the ventricles at the end of
diastole is 120 ml and at the end of ventricular
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – v, D – iv, E – iii
systole is 50ml. What would be the stroke
23. Why shouldn’t we consider atrio-ventricular
volume and rate of heart to pump 5 litres blood
node of human heart as pacemaker?
in one minute?
(1) It is not autoexcitable
(1)70 ml, 100 times
(2) Action potentials from it cannot reach
(2) 70 ml, 72 times
ventricular musculature through Bundle of His
(3) 50 ml, 100 times
(3) It can not generate maximum number of
(4) 170ml, 30 times
action potentials unlike SAN
27. Match list-I with list –II.
(4) Only SAN is autorhythmic and can
List – I List – II
generate action potentials
(A) P-Wave (i) Atrial depolarisation
24. Which of the following statements is
(B) QRs complex (ii) Ventricular depolarisation
incorrect?
(C) T-wave (iii) Ventricular repolarisation
(1) Increased ventricular pressure causes
opening of semilunar valves during ventricular (D) Q-T interval (iv) Duration of ventricular

systole systole

(2) The A-V valves open due to pressure (E) Number of (v) Heart rate

exerted by atrial blood in joint diastole QRS complex

(3) Decline in ventricular pressure causes Choose the correct answer from the options

closure of A-V valves given below.

(4) ‘Dub’ sound is due to closure of semilunar (1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E – v

valves (2) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii, E – v

25. Sino-atrial node of human heart cannot spread (3) A – i, B – iv, C – v, D – iii, E – ii
the action potentials to ventricular musculature (4) A – i, B – v, C – ii, D – iv, E – iii
directly. Why? 28. Choose incorrect statement.
(1)The delay of conduction allows complete (1)B.P in aorta is maximum during systole of
filling of ventricles left atrium

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 (2) ‘Lub’ sound is heard at the beginning of (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
ventricular systole correct explanation of A
(3) T-Wave represents ventricular relaxation (2) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Chordae tendinae connect papillary (3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
muscles to A-V valves correct explanation of A
29. Pulmonary artery differs from pulmonary (4) A is incorrect but R is correct
vein in having 33. Decrease in heart rate cannot be attributed to

(1) high pressure (1) release of adrenalin

(2) parasympathetic neural signals
(2) thin musculature
(3) damage to SAN
(3) valves
(4) Reduced blood supply to myocardium
(4) oxygenated blood
34. Identify the option with correct description for
30. Which of the following is not true for
arteries and veins.
hepatic portal vein?
Arteries Veins
(1) It drains blood from intestine to liver
A)They carry They carry
(2) It starts as capillaries in digestive tract oxygenated blood deoxygenated blood
and ends as capillaries in liver from tissues to heart from heart to tissues
(3) It is rich in nutrients B) Tunica media is Tunica media is thin
(4) It carries blood from liver to systemic with a thick layer of
veins smooth muscles
31. Statement-I:The atria are relaxed during C) They have valves Valves are absent
ventricular systole. D) They arise from They end as
Statement-II: Action potentials from SAN capillaries capillaries
stimulate simultaneous contraction of atria and E) They have high They have low B.P
ventricles. blood pressure
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1)A, B (2) B, D
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (3) B, E (4) A, C
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 35. They following figure shows blood circulation
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false in humans with labels A to D. Select the
32. Assertion-A: Heart of frog pumps mixed blood option which gives correct identification of the
to body parts. labeled part and functions of the part.
Reason-R: Oxygenated blood from right
atrium and deoxygenated blood from left
atrium get mixed up in the single ventricle of
frog.
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 (C) Heart failure (iii) Congestion of lungs
(D) Heart attack (iv) Heart stops beating
(E) Cardiac arrest (v) Myocardial infraction
(1) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i, E – v
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – v, E – iv

(1)A-Dorsal aorta - P O2 = 95 mm Hg – takes (3) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i, E – v

oxygenated blood to body parts (4) A – ii, B – i, C – v, D – iv, E – iii
(2) B – Venacavae – Takes deoxygenated 38. Normal systolic pumping pressure in human is
blood to left atrium - P O2 = 40 mm Hg (1) 80 mm Hg (2) 140 mm Hg
(3)C–Pulmonary artery = takes deoxygenated (3) 120 mm Hg (4) 90 mm Hg

blood to lungs - PCO2 = 40 mm Hg 39. Parasympathetic neural signals regulate certain

(4) D – Pulmonary vein – takes oxygenated functions of heart.

(A) decrease rate of heart
blood to right atrium - P O2 =95 mmHg
(B) decrease cardiac output
36. Choose the option representing correct
(C) increase speed of conduction of action
sequence of systemic blood circulation in
potentials in nodal tissue
human.
(D) increase strength of ventricular contraction
(A) Systemic arteries
(E) Decrease stroke volume
(B) Systemic capillaries
Which of the above are correct?
(C) Left ventricle
(1) A, B, E (2) C, D
(D) Vena cavae
(3) A, B only (4) All except C
(E) Right atrium
40. Which of the following is not a correct
(1)C – D – B – A – E
statement about human heart?
(2) C – A – B – D – E
(1)Myogenic and mesodermal origin
(3) B – D – A – C – E
(2) Its function is regulated by a centre in
(4) E – D – B – A – C
medulla oblongata
37. Match list-I with list II and choose correct
(3) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood
option.
through 2 pairs of pulmonary veins
List – I List – II
(4) It’s aortic arch and coronary artery have
(A) Coronary artery (i) Acute chest pain due
receptors for recognising H  and CO2 in
disease to reduced blood supply
to cardiac muscle blood

(B) Angina pectoris (ii) Atherosclerosis in

coronary artery
KEY
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 1) 3 2) 2 3) 2 4) 1 5) 1

6) 7) 4 8) 1 9) 3 10) 2

11) 2 12) 3 13) 3 14) 4 15) 3

16) 3 17) 3 18) 4 19) 1 20) 1

21) 3 22) 2 23) 3 24) 3 25) 2

26) 2 27) 1 28) 3 29) 1 30) 4

31) 2 32) 2 33) 1 34) 3 35) 1

36) 2 37) 2 38) 3 39) 1 40) 4

BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES (1) C – Alveoli – Increase the surface area for
01. Which of the following is not a salient feature gaseous exchange
of exchange part? (2) B – Trachea – A common passage for air
(1) Provided with irregular vascular bags, and food
alveoli (3) D – Bronchiole – Lined by simple
(2) It is the actual site of actual diffusion of O2 squamous epithelium
and CO2 (4) A – Epiglottis – It is a fibrous cartilaginous
(3) Alveoli are lined by thin squamous flap covers the opening of larynx
epithelium 03. The following are the boundaries A, B, C and
(4) Temperature of inhaled air is brought to D of thoracic chamber
body temperature A. Dome shaped diaphragm
02. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of B. Thoracic vertebrae
human respiratory system with labels A, B, C C. Sternum
and D. Select the option which gives the D. Thoracic ribs
correct identification and main function and/or Arrange the above boundaries A, B, C and D
characteristic as dorsal, ventral, lateral and lower sides of
thoracic chamber
(1) B – C – D – A (2) C – B – D – A
(3) B – C – A – D (4) B – D – C – A
04. Total lung capacity includes
(1) RV + ERV + TV + IRV
(2) VC – RV
(3) RV + ERV + TV
(4) ERV + IRV
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05. Which of the following is correct with respect (3) 3500 mL (4) 1000 mL
to functional residual capacity (FRC)? 09. The maximum volume of air a person can
(A) It includes residual volume and expiratory inspire after a normal expiration is
reserve volume (1) tidal volume
(B) It cannot be removed either completely or (2) inspiratory capacity
partially from lungs (3) expiratory capacity
(C) It is total lung capacity without tidal (4) total lung capacity
volume and inspiratory reserve volume 10. Select the correct statement
(D) It cannot be measured with spirometer (1) Inspiration occurs due to internal
Choose the most appropriate answer from intercostal muscles
options given below (2) Intrapulmonary pressure is greater than the
(1) B and D only (2) A, B and D only atmospheric pressure during expiration
(3) A, C and D only (4) C and D only (3) Inspiration occurs when the diaphragmatic
06. The vital capacity (VC) is the maximum muscles relax
volume of air a person can breathe in after a (4) Expiration occurs by the contraction of
forced expiration. This includes respiratory muscles
(1) RV, ERV, TV and IRV 11. Match the items in column I with those in
(2) RV, TV and IRV (Inspiratory Capacity) column II and select the correct option given
(3) ERV, TV and IRV below
(4) Expiratory capacity (EC) and Tidal volume Column-I Column-II
(TV) (a) Inspiratory capacity (i) 1600 mL
07. Select the correct events that occur during (b) Expiratory capacity (ii) 5300 mL
expiration (c) Functional residual capacity
(A) Relaxation of diaphragm (iii) 3500 mL
(B) Relaxation of external intercostal muscles (d) Vital capacity (iv) 2300 mL
(C) Pulmonary volume increases (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) Intrapulmonary pressure decreases (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(1) A and B (2) C and D (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) A, B and D (4) Only A (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
08. Expiratory reserve volume and residual 12. In airway obstruction, the volume that
volume of a person is 1000 mL and 1100 mL increases is
respectively. What will be his functional (1) inspiratory reserve volume
residual capacity if the tidal volume is 500 (2) tidal volume
mL? (3) stroke volume
(1) 1500 mL (2) 2100 Ml (4) residual volume
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13. Which of the following capacity cannot be 19. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
measured by spirometry? transport of carbon dioxide
(1) Vital capacity
(1) pO2 is a major factor which could affect
(2) Inspiratory capacity
(3) Functional residual capacity the binding of CO2 with Hb
(4) Expiratory capacity (2) CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as
14. Intrapleural fluid is always negative to the
carbamino-haemoglobin around 20-25%
intrapulmonary pressure and helps in
(1) increasing the contraction capacity of (3) RBCs contain a very low concentration
respiratory muscles carbonic anhydrase than to plasma
(2) reducing the friction over the lungs
(4) CO2 trapped as bicarbonate at the tissue
(3) decreasing the contraction capacity of
respiratory muscles level and transported to the alveoli is released
(4) increasing the alveolar space inside the out as CO2
lungs 20. Increase in pH of blood will
15. The partial pressures (in mmHg) of O2 and
CO2 at the site of tissues are (1) increase in affinity of haemoglobin with
(1) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40 oxygen
(2) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45 (2) increase in the production of bicarbonates
(3) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
in RBCs
(4) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
16. The partial pressure of oxygen in tissues is (3) release in more oxygen at the level of
(1) equal to that of oxygenated blood tissues
(2) equal to that of deoxygenated blood
(4) reduce in blood supply to the heart
(3) more than that of oxygenated blood
(4) less than that of CO2 in atmospheric air 21. Approximately 20-25% of CO2 is transported
17. Under normal physiological conditions in to the lungs
human being, every 100 mL of deoxygenated
(1) as cabamino-haemoglobin
blood can deliver ---------- mL of CO2 to the
lungs (2) as bicarbonate
(1) 2 mL (2) 4 mL (3) as dissolved in plasma
(3) 5 mL (4) 10 mL (4) as CO in plasma
18. Select the conditions cause the dissociation 22. In the regulation of respiration, a
haemoglobin and oxygen at the tissues chemosensitive area adjacent to the rhythm
(1) High pO2, low pCO2, high H+ and higher centre in medulla region of the brain, is highly
temperature sensitive to
(2) Low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ and higher (1) H+ ions (2) Na+ ions
temperature (3) K+ ions (4) HCO3– ions
(3) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+ and higher 23. Identify the region of human brain which has
temperature respiratory centre that is primarily responsible
(4) High pO2, high pCO2, low H+ and lower for the regulation of breathing
temperature (1) Pons (2) Medulla
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 (3) Hypothalamus (4) Cerebellum 28. Which of the following disorders cause
disorders related to bronchi and alveoli
24. Match the following columns and select the
respectively?
correct option
(1) Asthma and fibrosis
Column-I Column-II
(2) Emphysema and asthma
(a) Respiratory centre (i) 3%
(3) Asthma and pneumonia
(b) More CO2 transport (ii) medulla
(4) Pneumonia and asthma
(c) Pneumotaxic centre (iii) as bicarbonate
29. Which of the following decreases the
(d) O2 in dissolved state (iv) pons
respiratory surface area in humans?
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) Botulism (2) Emphysema
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) Fibrosis (4) Anthracis
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
30. Which one of the following is correct
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
statement for respiration in humans?
25. Which of the following has an insignificant
(1) Cigarette smoking may lead to mainly
role in the regulation of breathing?
inflammation in bronchi
(1) Change in pH
(2) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in
(2) Change in CO2 pons can increase the duration of inspiration
(3) Change in H+ ion concentration (3) Workers in grinding and stone breaking
(4) Change in O2 industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
26. For which of the following disorder one of the (4) About 90% of CO2 is carried by
major causes of is cigarette smoking? haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin
(1) Fibrosis (2) Asthma 31. Name the breathing disorder causing wheezing
(3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia due to inflammation of bronchi and
27. In certain industries, especially those bronchioles
involving grinding or stone-breaking, so much (1) Pneumonia
dust is produced that the defense mechanism (2) Respiratory alkalosis
of the body cannot fully cope with the (3) Asthma
situation. Long exposure can give rise to
4) Emphysema
(1) inflammation of trachea only
32. Name the chronic pulmonary disorder where
(2) decrease in respiratory surface area alveolar walls are damaged due to which
suddenly respiratory surface is decreased
(3) inflammation leading to fibrosis (1) Asthma (2) Pneumonia
(4) increase in respiratory surface area slowly (3) Tuberculosis (4) Emphysema
KEY

1) 4 2) 1 3) 1 4) 1 5) 3 6) 3 7) 1 8) 2 9) 2 10) 2
11) 2 12) 4 13) 3 14) 2 15) 2 16) 2 17) 2 18) 3 19) 1 20) 1
21) 1 22) 1 23) 2 24) 1 25) 4 26) 3 27) 3 28) 3 29) 2 30) 3
31) 3 32) 4 33) 34) 35) 36) 37) 38) 39) 40)

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