THE TAMIL NADU Dr.M.G.R.

MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[LR 1220] DECEMBER 2020 Sub. Code: 6284

(AUGUST 2020 EXAM SESSION)

BPT DEGREE EXAMINATION

THIRD YEAR
(New regulations for the candidates admitted from 2017-2018 onwards)
PAPER IV – CLINICAL ORTHOPAEDICS
Q.P. Code : 746284
Time: Three hours Answer ALL Questions Maximum: 100 Marks

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. Discuss in detail about Osteomyelitis – Definition, clinical features, types,

causes, Management and complications.
2. Explain in detail about TB Spine – Definition, clinical features, causes,
investigation and management.

II. Write notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Vertical Talus.
2. Myositis Ossificans.
3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta.
4. Klumpkey’s Palsy.
5. Colles Fracture.
6. Principles of Tendon transfer.
7. Avascular Necrosis.
8. Tennis Elbow.
9. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
10. Classifications of Bone Tumor.

III. Short answer on: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Define Periarthritis Shoulder. List the clinical features.
2. List the splints used for Upper extremity Peripheral nerve injuries.
3. Difference between open fracture and closed fracture.
4. List the levels of Lower limb Amputation.
5. Difference between dislocation and subluxation.
6. List the causes for shoulder impingement syndrome.
7. Difference between Tide and Untided injuries of hand.
8. Cobb’s Angle.
9. List the types of Leprosy.
10. Difference between Pescavus and Pesplanus.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU Dr.M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BPT 0921] SEPTEMBER 2021 Sub. Code: 6284

(FEBRUARY 2021 EXAM SESSION)

BPT DEGREE EXAMINATION

THIRD YEAR
(Regulations for the candidates admitted from 2017-2018 onwards)
PAPER IV – CLINICAL ORTHOPAEDICS
Q.P. Code : 746284

Time: Three hours Answer ALL Questions Maximum: 100 Marks

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. Describe the indications, contraindications and complications of Total Knee

Arthroplasty.
2. Classify fracture of Neck of femur. Write a mechanism of injury, management of
Neck of Femur fracture.

II. Write notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Upper Limb tension test.

2. DeQuervain’s disease.
3. Neglected Club foot.
4. Rickets.
5. Wrist drop.
6. Osteosarcoma.
7. Structural Scoliosis.
8. Spondylolisthesis.
9. Bicipital tendinitis.
10. Carpal tunnel syndrome.

III. Short answer on: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Z plasty.
2. Thompson test.
3. Boxer’s fracture.
4. Neuropraxia.
5. Knock Knee.
6. Ischemic Contracture.
7. Painful arc syndrome.
8. Slump test.
9. Jumper’s Knee.
10. Hangman’s fracture.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU Dr.M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BPT 0122] JANUARY 2022 Sub. Code: 6284

(AUGUST 2021 EXAM SESSION)

BACHELOR OF PHYSIOTHERAPY DEGREE COURSE

THIRD YEAR- (Regulation from 2017-2018 onwards)
PAPER IV – CLINICAL ORTHOPAEDICS
Q.P. Code : 746284

Time: Three hours Answer ALL Questions Maximum: 100 Marks

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. Describe the Causes, clinical features, investigations and management of

Osteoarthritis.
2. Describe the stages, clinical features, investigations and management of
Intervertebral disc Prolapse.

II. Write notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Radial club hand.

2. Septic arthritis.
3. Whiplash injury.
4. Patella fracture.
5. Pott’s paraplegia.
6. Both bone fracture of Lower limb.
7. Spondylosis.
8. Phantom limb.
9. Fracture healing.
10. Ewing Sarcoma.

III. Short answer on: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Aeroplane splint.
2. Apley scratch test.
3. Piriformis syndrome.
4. Delayed Union.
5. Vertical Talus.
6. Waddling Gait.
7. Three point principles.
8. Anterior cruciate ligament.
9. Madelung’s Deformity.
10. McMurrey test.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU Dr. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BPT 0622] JUNE 2022 Sub. Code: 6284

(FEBRUARY 2022 EXAM SESSION)

BACHELOR OF PHYSIOTHERAPY DEGREE COURSE

THIRD YEAR- (Regulation from 2017-2018 onwards)
PAPER IV – CLINICAL ORTHOPAEDICS
Q.P. Code : 746284

Time: Three hours Answer ALL Questions Maximum: 100 Marks

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. Discuss the detail of causes, clinical presentation and methods of treatment for
congenital Talipes Equinovarus.

2. Describes the mechanism of injury, complications and management of

Supracondylar fracture.

II. Write notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Median nerve injury.

2. Transtibial amputation.
3. Bennett’s fracture.
4. Osteochondritis dissecans.
5. Kyphosis.
6. Patellofemoral Osteoarthritis.
7. Ankle sprain.
8. Osteoma.
9. RA Spine.
10. Ideal Sump.

III. Short answer on: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Lumbosacral belt.
2. Mallet’s finger.
3. Deep vein thrombosis.
4. Erb’splasy.
5. Apley’s compression test.
6. Cozen’s test.
7. Gibbus deformity.
8. Cock up splint.
9. Galeazzi fracture.
10. Hill’s sach lesion.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU Dr. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BPT 1022] OCTOBER 2022 Sub. Code: 6284

(AUGUST 2022 EXAM SESSION)

BACHELOR OF PHYSIOTHERAPY DEGREE COURSE

THIRD YEAR- (Regulation from 2017-2018 onwards)
PAPER IV – CLINICAL ORTHOPAEDICS
Q.P. Code : 746284

Time: Three hours Answer ALL Questions Maximum: 100 Marks

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. Describe the clinical features, complications and management of a patient with D8

vertebra fracture.

2. Define amputation. Discuss the levels of amputations, causes, types, complications

and its management.

II. Write notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Chondromalacia patella.
2. Definition and causes of Atonic bladder.
3. Cervical rib - Definition causes, and management.
4. Septic arthritis.
5. Osteosarcoma.
6. Monteggia fracture dislocation.
7. Ulnar nerve palsy.
8. Avascular necrosis.
9. Arthroplasty.
10. Principles of tendon transfer.

III. Short answer on: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Difference between coxa vara and coxa valga.

2. Central dislocation of hip.
3. Define burns and the degrees of burns.
4. Define swan- neck deformity.
5. Define genu recurvatum.
6. Define dislocation and subluxation.
7. Define metatarsalgia.
8. Chest wall deformities.
9. Causes of foot drop.
10. Wry neck.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU Dr. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BPT 0423] APRIL 2023 Sub. Code: 6284

(FEBRUARY 2023 EXAM SESSION)

BACHELOR OF PHYSIOTHERAPY DEGREE COURSE

THIRD YEAR - (Regulation from 2017-2018 onwards)
PAPER IV – CLINICAL ORTHOPAEDICS

Q.P. Code: 746284

Time: Three hours Answer ALL Questions Maximum: 100 Marks

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. Outline the etiopathology of Ankylosing spondylitis. Describe briefly its

management and role of exercises.

2. Describe the causes, clinical features and management of recurrent dislocation of

shoulder.

II. Write notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Anterior cruciate ligament.

2. Ulnar claw hand.
3. Club foot.
4. Stress fracture.
5. Syme amputations.
6. Ewing’s sarcoma.
7. Osteochondritis dissecans.
8. Clavicular fracture.
9. Bone grafting.
10. Osteotomy.

III. Short answer on: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Types of CTEV.
2. 'Q’ angle.
3. SLR test.
4. Cold abscess.
5. De quervain’s disease.
6. Erb’s point.
7. Phantom limb pain.
8. 'Z’ thumb deformity.
9. Ely’s test.
10. Hoffa’s fracture.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU Dr. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BPT 1123] NOVEMBER 2023 Sub. Code: 6284

(AUGUST 2023 EXAM SESSION)

BACHELOR OF PHYSIOTHERAPY DEGREE COURSE

THIRD YEAR - (Regulation from 2017-2018 onwards)
PAPER IV – CLINICAL ORTHOPAEDICS

Q.P. Code: 746284

Time: Three hours Answer ALL Questions Maximum: 100 Marks

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. Draw the anatomy of Brachial plexus and discuss about types, clinical features and
management of Brachial plexus injury.

2. Write in detail about the causes, clinical features, Investigations and management
for rotator cuff tear.

II. Write notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Congenital Talipus equino varus.

2. Rickets.
3. Rolando fracture.
4. Osteoblastoma clinical features Radiology findings and treatment.
5. Straight Leg Raising Test.
6. Coccydynia.
7. Spina Ventosa.
8. Foot drop.
9. Sudeck’s atrophy.
10. Syme’s Amputation.

III. Short answer on: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. P.A Shoulder.
2. Bamboo spine.
3. Gun Stoke Deformity.
4. Trigger finger.
5. Malunion.
6. Hangman’s fracture.
7. Brodies’s abscesses.
8. Coxa vara.
9. Torticollis.
10. Phantom limb.
*******