v240MT Training Exam

Name: Ornardys Peniche Company: Jason Marine Electroncs Spain Date: 27/01/2023

1. The v240MT is a multiband antenna that supports the following bands?

a. X, Ku, and Ka-Band
b. C, Ku, Ka-Band
c. Ku-band only
d. Ku Band and C-Band

2. The Intellian v240MT can operate without a radome on a Cruise Ship?

a. True
b. False

3. Which of the following logs, is used with the Log Analyzer-O3b section of the Intellian Utility Solution?
a. Mediator Pass Logs
b. Antenna Log Files
c. Antenna Debug Files
d. None of the Above

4. Which of the following applications, is used to query FSK RSSI values?

a. Intelligent Mediator
b. Kratos Compass
c. Intellian NXI
d. Aptus PC

5. Rate and Tilt Sensor calibration is necessary for the reliable operation of the antenna?
a. True
b. False

6. In which order does the v240MT initialize?

a. Tri-Band Module/Skew & Sensor Box -> Elevation -> Cross Level -> Home Sensor/Azimuth
b. ACU -> Sensor Box -> Elevation -> Cross Level -> Home Sensor -> Azimuth
c. Band Module/Skew -> LNA -> Elevation -> Cross Level -> Azimuth
d. Band Module/Skew -> POL Motor-> Elevation -> Cross Level -> Home Sensor

7. Which of the following logs, is used with the Log Analyzer section of the Intellian Utility Solution?
a. Mediator Pass Logs
b. Antenna Log Files
c. Antenna Debug Files
d. None of the Above

8. Can the Antenna Firmware be uploaded through Aptus PC?

a. False
b. True

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9. To FSK Query, select the window used for starting FSK Query

a. c.

b d. None of the above

.

10. Nominal Fiberlink behavior is indicated by which RSSI Value of FSK signal?
a. Greater than -70
b. Less than-70
c. Less than +1
d. The system is not capable of querying

11. Intellian antennas are accessible to the ACU front USB only?
a. True
b. False

12. What Module(s) initializes first on the v240MT Gen 2 system?

a. Sensor Box and Ku Feed
b. Sensor Box and Triband Module
c. Azimuth Encoder and Home Sensor
d. None of the Above

13. Identify the handover type between antennas during an NGSO pass?
a. Infinity and Beyond Handover
b. Midpass Handover
c. Antenna Switching Handover
d. Seamless Handover

14. Can CPI and 1db test be achieved without a modem?

a. True
b. False

15. Which Modems, are used for GEO operations?

a. Comtech
b. iDirect

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c. Newtech
d. All of the Above

16. What is the main difference between NGSO and GSO Search/Tracking?

a. NGSO uses satellite positions derived from SDB Files, while GSO is derived only from GPS, Satellite
Position, and Heading
b. They’re similar, and no differences are present
c. GSO uses SDB Files, while NGSO is only derived from GPS and Satellite Position, and Heading
d. None of the Above

17. With different antenna Firmware loaded to the v240MT 2 will the antenna to operate correctly?
a. True
b. False

18. What is the default TCP Port of Viasat Modem (MEOLink)?

a. 6608
b. 8080
c. 4002
d. 7001

19. EL Adjust performed to account for what scenario?

a. EL Adjust is done to peak the antenna’s TX tolerances. By doing EL adjust, X-Pol isolation improves by
10dB
b. Compensate for mechanical tolerances in the antenna. To match the real EL angle to the calculated EL
Angle
c. Does not improve performance
d. None of the above

20. If a Data Center in the Mediator Dual Data Center Tab is selected for “Role State: Secondary,” what would the
ACU Display?

a. AWAITING
b. STANDBY
c. COMMUNICATION ERROR
d. DORMANT

21. The Modem IP Address(es), Ports, and Protocol are defined in which device?
a. Smart Control Unit (SCU)
b. ACU
c. Intelligent Mediator
d. None of the Above
e. ACU will not do anything, and the particular command is not working properly

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22. Fiber Link distance limitation is what:

a. 2km
b. 10m
c. 2500m
d. 2.2 Miles

23. Fiber Link on the ACU/Module in the v240MT 2 requires the following cable type:
a. SFP
b. FC/APC
c. SC/APC
d. OM3 Connector

24. The antenna balance needs to be check during which situation?

a. PM, Initial Install and After Install Service
b. Initial Install Only
c. BUC Change Only
d. None of the Above

25. When performing the Antenna Backup, which of the two files will generate?
a. IBF and RPT Files
b. System Offset information Files
c. Antenna Log Files
d. System Back-Up of Antenna RTF Files

26. What are the v240MT’s C-Band Feed Polarization capabilities?

a. LCHP
b. RCHP
c. Circular and Linear
d. Linear Only

27. Seamless switching from Ku to C and vice versa is achieved with the following:
a. OpenAMIP
b. SIP
c. Shiron VACP
d. OpenBMIP

28. Antenna Debug can be:

a. Saved and Viewed for troubleshooting
b. Send to Intellian for review
c. Verify antenna functionalities and real-time health check
d. All of the Above

29. Logs can be downloaded in what manner (Select all that apply)
a. FTP, Front Panel DN Port, and Network
b. Front M&C
c. Front Panel USB PC Port
d. Ethernet

30. Where can you download latest FW Release

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a. Aptus and Partner Portal

b. ACU System Setup
c. BitTorrent
d. Google

31. What is Intellian’s Warranty Policy

a. 1 Year Parts/3 Years Labor
b. 2 Year Labor/3 Years Parts
c. No Warranty
d. 1 Year Labor/5 Years Parts

32. How many Sub-reflectors are on the new version v240MT?

a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Three

33. Can the same Main Control Unit be used on both versions of the v240MT?
a. True
b. False

34. Which device manages the BUC M&C, controls the Tri-Band Module, and manages the TX path?
a. Main Control Unit
b. TX Control Unit
c. Pedestal Control Unit
d. RX Control Unit

35. Are the Drive Motors interchangeable between both versions of v240MT?
a. True
b. False

36. Identify the new RF components for the v240MT 2? Multiple answers.
a. Waveguide Rotary Joint
b. Flexible Waveguide
c. Sensor Box
d. OMT & Diplexer

37. Identify the number of LNB’s that are used on the new version v240MT?
a. Two C-Band LNB’s, One Ku-Band LNB and One Ka-Band LNB.
b. Two C-Band LNB’s, Two Ku- Band LNB’s and Two Ka-Band LNB’s
c. One C-Band LNB, One Ku-Band LNB and Two Ka-Band LNB’s
d. One C-Band LNB, Two Ku-Band LNB’s and Two Ka-Band LNB’s

38. How many PoE (Power over Ethernet ) ports are on the IFL Switch?

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a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None

39. Besides the Intelligent Mediator, what additional Intellian components are needed for Dual Data Center
Operations?
a. The unit already built as Dual Data Center capable
b. Intelligent Mediator Only
c. Secondary FiberLink Module
d. IFL Switch, and Secondary FiberLink Module
40. What device enables low loss IFL connectivity between below decks and above decks equipment?
a. Evertz Fiber Converter
b. FiberLink Module
c. Main Control Unit
d. None of the Above.

41. Which BUC has Ethernet M&C Interface Support?

a. C-Band
b. Ku-Band
c. Ka-Band
d. C/Ku-band

42. The Dual Data Center (DDC) system is based on two identically configured
programmable logic controllers linked to each other in the same Network.
a. True
b. False

43. In the case of operating in MEO mode, the dual data center can provide hot standby
(Manual Switching)
a. True
b. False

44. Is it required to remove drive belts to balance the V240MT?

a. True
b. False

45. In the case of no heading information, the system defaults to which search mode?
a. Search 4
b. Search 3
c. Search 1
d. Search 2

46. What is the definition of NBD Delta?

a. reference IF input level
b. highest IF input level
c. relative to various levels of RF signals
d. the difference in signal value between off
Satellite and peak Satellite.

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47. How many required antennas needed for seamless service for MEO operation?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

48. What is the V240MT ACU default IP address?

a. 192.158.2.1
b. 191.167.2.1
c. 192.168.2.1
d. 191.168.2.1

49. Once the ACU IP is entered. Do you Select iARM Save & Reboot to save the configuration?
a. True
b. False

Using the Picture below, identify the following parts.

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H A

G B

F C:
rerereflec

E
D

50. What is the letter “B” pointing to?

a. C-Band Feeder
b. Ku-Band Feeder
c. Ka-Wide Band Module
d. Tri-Band Module

51. Identify which letter represents the C-Band Feeder?

a. G
b. H
c. A

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d. B

52. Identify which letter represents the Reflector?

a. D
b. E
c. A
d. C
53. What is the letter “H” pointing to?
a. Ku- Band Feeder
b. Tri-Band Module
c. C-Band Feeder
d. Ka-Band BUC

Using the Picture below, identify the following parts.

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F C

54. Identify which letter represents the Main Control Unit?

a. D
b. B
c. F
d. C

55. Identify which letter represents the Sub-Reflector?

a. G

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b. C
c. A
d. B
56. Identify which letter represents the C-Band BUC?
a. E
b. D
c. C
d. F
57. What is the letter “E” pointing to?
a. Power Box
b. Base Frame
c. Air-Con Frame
d. IFL Switch/ FiberLink Module

Using the Picture below, identify the following parts.

C
B

E
D

58. Identify which letter represents the Sub-Reflector?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

59. Identify which letter represents the Ka-Band BUC?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

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60. Identify which letter represents the Ku-Band Feeder?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

61. For the Mediator to accurately determine satellite frequency/polarization, handover timing, and satellite
information, which files are loaded into the mediator? Multiple answers.
a. Spacecraft File
b. Ephemeris File
c. Schedule File
d. Channels File

62. Which file provides the orbit propagation information for each of the O3b satellites?
a. Spacecraft File
b. Ephemeris File
c. Schedule File
d. Channels File

63. Which file provides the frequency and polarization of the Telemetry (TLM) beacons for each O3b satellite?
a. Spacecraft File
b. Ephemeris File
c. Schedule File
d. Channels File

64. Which file provides the Pre-pass, Start, Stop, and Handover times, which the scheduler will use to plan the
ground resources during a satellite pass?
a. Spacecraft File
b. Ephemeris File
c. Channels File
d. Schedule File
e.

65. The mediator sends satellite information (freq, BW, name) and the target azimuth and elevation to each ACU.
a. True
b. False

66. Comtech modem communicates with the mediator via OPEN AMIP.
a. True
b. False

67. SDB files are uploaded in which device?

a. Antenna Control Unit
b. Smart Control Unit
c. Compas Server
d. Intelligent Mediator

68. iDirect modem communicates with the mediator via TCP/IP network interface.
a. True

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b. False

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