Microsoft Pass4sures 98-366 v2019-03-20 by David 104q

98-366.
104q
Number: 98-366
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
98-366
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Networking Fundamentals
Exam A
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QUESTION 1
One advantage of dynamic routing is that it:
A. Automatically maintains routing tables.

B. Limits traffic derived from routing protocols.
C. Reduces broadcast traffic.
D. Automatically enables DHCP.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Dynamic Routing, also called adaptive routing, describes the capability of a system, through which routes are characterized by their destination, to alter the path
that the route takes through the system in response to a change in conditions. The adaptation is intended to allow as many routes as possible to remain valid (that
is, have destinations that can be reached) in response to the change.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following represents a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
A. GV:ZC:KK:DK:FZ:CA
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 05:35:AB:6E:Al:25
D. 127.0.0.1
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The standard (IEEE 802) format for printing MAC-48 addresses in human-friendly form is six groups of two hexadecimal digits, separated by hyphens (-) or colons
(:), in transmission order (e.g. 01-23-45-67-89-ab or 01:23:45:67:89:ab ).
QUESTION 3
Connecting to a private network address from a public network requires:
A. Network address translation (NAT).

B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
C. Network Access Protection (NAP).
D. Dynamic domain name system (DDNS).
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The majority of NATs map multiple private hosts to one publicly exposed IP address. In a typical configuration, a local network uses one of the designated "private"
IP address subnets (RFC 1918). A router on that network has a private address in that address space. The router is also connected to the Internet with a "public"
address assigned by an Internet service provider.
QUESTION 4
A network device that associates a Media Access Control (MAC) address with a port is a:
A. DSL modem
B. Hub
C. Router
D. Switch
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
A switch begins learning the local MAC addresses as soon as it is connected to other devices or to a network. This learning capability makes switches easy to use
on a network.
The switch learning process works like this:
1.As a PC or other networked device sends a frame to another device through the switch, the switch captures the source MAC address of the frame and the
interface that received it.
2.The switch confirms or adds the MAC address and the port to the lookup table.
QUESTION 5
A Layer 2 device that connects multiple computers within a network is a:
A. Repeater
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Packet
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Layer 2 switching uses the media access control address (MAC address) from the host's network interface cards (NICs) to decide where to forward frames.
QUESTION 6
A cable that meets the l000BaseT standard has a maximum length of:
A. 100 m
B. 250 m
C. 500 m
D. 1,000 m
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
When used for 10/100/1000BASE-T, the maximum allowed length of a Cat 6 cable is 100 meters or 328 feet.
QUESTION 7
A router's static route is set by the:
A. Adjacent network
B. Next upstream router
C. Network administrator
D. Routing protocol
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Static routing is a form of routing that occurs when a router uses a manually-configured routing entry, rather than information from a dynamic routing protocol to
forward traffic.
QUESTION 8
Which setting is used to determine the Domain Name System (DNS) settings on a client computer?
A. TELNET
B. NSLOOKUP
C. PATHPING
D. NETSTAT
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
nslookup is a network administration command-line tool available for many computer operating systems for querying the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain
domain name or IP address mapping or for any other specific DNS record.
QUESTION 9
The default subnet mask for a Class B network is:
A. 0.0.0.255
B. 0.0.255.255
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.255.0.0
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Class A default subnet mask is 255.0.0.0.
Class B default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0.
Class C default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0.
QUESTION 10
The default port used for SMTP is:
A. 23
B. 25
C. 80
D. 8080
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
SMTP by default uses TCP port 25.
QUESTION 11
The ping tool is used to: (Choose two.)
A. Determine the network portion of a host address.

B. Self-test a host's own network interface.
C. Determine whether a host is reachable.
D. Manage a host's session when UDP is used.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip
time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.
To have your PC ping itself, type ping 127.0.0.1.
QUESTION 12
Which of the following are features of DHCP? (Choose two.)
A. IP address resolution to canonical names
B. Secure shell connections
C. Address reservation
D. Network file transfer
E. IP address exclusion
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
* The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a standardized network protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for dynamically distributing
network configuration parameters, such as IP addresses for interfaces and services.
* Some network devices need to use statically assigned IP addresses rather than addresses dynamically assigned through DHCP. For example, DHCP
servers must have statically configured IP addresses. Also, some devices (such as legacy network printers) do not support DHCP. For the devices that need
static IP assignments, the company creates an exclusion range from each IP address range.
QUESTION 13
The command-line tool used to list a host's active incoming connections is:
A. NETSTAT
B. IPCONFIG
C. NSLOOKUP
D. PING
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Used without parameters, netstat displays active TCP connections.
Note: Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP,
TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols).
QUESTION 14
A computer that has an IP address of 169.254.0.1 cannot access the network.
Which of the following services should you confirm is available?

A. WINS
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
169.254.0.1 is an APIPA address. An APIPA address is used when the DHCP server is not available.
QUESTION 15
Which network does the IP address 220.100.100.100 belong to?
A. 220.100.100.0/24
B. 220.100.100.1/24
C. 255.255.255.0/24
D. 255.255.255.1/24
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which subnet mask is valid?
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.228
C. 255.255.255.164
D. 255.255.255.245
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
These are valid:
QUESTION 17
A service that resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses is:
A. Domain Name Service (DNS).

B. Internet Service Provider (ISP).
C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
D. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is Microsoft's implementation of NetBIOS Name Service (NBNS), a name server and service for NetBIOS computer
names. Effectively, WINS is to NetBIOS names what DNS is to domain names — a central mapping of host names to network addresses.
QUESTION 18
What type of DNS record maps host names to addresses?
A. Mail Exchanger (MX) DNS record

B. Service (SRV) DNS record
C. Host (A) DNS record
D. Canonical (CNAME) DNS record
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
An A or Address record (also known as a host record) links a domain to the physical IP address of a computer hosting that domain's services.
QUESTION 19
Teredo tunneling is a protocol that:
A. Translates Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) to Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6).

B. Allows IPv6 connectivity through IPv4 devices.
C. Provides VPN security.
D. Dynamically allocates IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Teredo alleviates this problem by encapsulating IPv6 packets within UDP/IPv4 datagrams, which most NATs can forward properly. Thus, IPv6-aware hosts behind
NATs can be used as Teredo tunnel endpoints even when they don't have a dedicated public IPv4 address.
QUESTION 20
What is the default subnet mask for a Class C Internet network?
A. 255.255.255.252
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Class A default subnet mask is 255.0.0.0.
Class B default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0.
Class C default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0.
QUESTION 21
The default port used for telnet is:
A. 23
B. 25
C. 80
D. 8080
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port number 23, where a Telnet server application (telnetd) is
listening.
QUESTION 22
When a client's DHCP-issued address expires, the client will:
A. Select a new address and request approval from the DHCP server.
B. Require manual configuration with a static IP address.
C. Attempt to obtain a new address by broadcasting.
D. Continue to use the address until it is notified to stop.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Rebinding would occur.
Rebinding
If the DHCP client is unable to communicate with the DHCP server from which it obtained its lease, and 87.5 percent of its lease time has expired, it will attempt to
contact any available DHCP server by broadcasting DHCPRequest messages. Any DHCP server can respond with a DHCPAck message, renewing the lease, or a
DHCPNak message, forcing the DHCP client to initialize and restart the lease process.
Note:
Renewing
IP addressing information is leased to a client, and the client is responsible for renewing the lease. By default, DHCP clients try to renew their lease when 50
percent of the lease time has expired. To renew its lease, a DHCP client sends a DHCPRequest message to the DHCP server from which it originally obtained the
lease.
Reference: DHCP Client States in the Lease Process
QUESTION 23
You ping a server by using fully qualified domain name (FQDN) and do not receive a response. You then ping the same server by using its IP address and receive
a response.
Why do you receive a response on the second attempt but not on the first attempt?
A. PING is improperly configured.

B. The DNS is not resolving.
C. The DHCP server is offline.
D. NSLOOKUP is stopped.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
DNS is not working.
QUESTION 24
A Media Access Control (MAC) address identifies a/an:
A. UPnP device.
B. Local broadcast domain.
C. Network interface card (NIC).
D. Local area network (LAN).
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
A media access control address (MAC address) is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on the physical network segment.
QUESTION 25
Two companies want to share data by using the Internet.
Which type of network provides the solution?
A. Ethernet
B. Intranet
C. Extranet
D. Perimeter
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
An extranet is a computer network that allows controlled access from outside of an organization's intranet. Extranets are used for specific use cases including
business-to-business (B2B).
QUESTION 26
VPNs are implemented to provide:
A. A secure connection within a private network.
B. A secure connection through public networks.
C. Additional encryption by using IPSec.
D. Additional security for selected computers.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
VPN is a network that is constructed by using public wires — usually the Internet — to connect to a private network, such as a company's internal network.
There are a number of systems that enable you to create networks using the Internet as the medium for transporting data. These systems use encryption and other
security mechanisms to ensure that only authorized users can access the network and that the data cannot be intercepted.
QUESTION 27
If an 802.llg Internet connection has connectivity problems, what may be the cause?
A. A cordless phone
B. A cellular phone
C. Incandescent lights
D. Electromagnetic interference (EMI)
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Over the last 10 years 802.11 technology has made remarkable strides -- getting faster, stronger and more scalable. But one problem still haunts Wi-Fi: reliability.
Nothing is more frustrating for network managers than users complaining about flaky Wi-Fi performance, spotty coverage and dropped connections. Dealing with a
Wi-Fi environment that you can't see and that is constantly changing is the problem. And radio frequency interference is the culprit.
QUESTION 28
Which of these factors has the biggest impact on data transmission speed in a wireless network?
A. The access method used for the network

B. The transmission standard of the equipment used
C. The use of strong encryption for transmissions
D. The transmission wattage rating used on the NIC
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The speed of a Wi-Fi wireless network connection depends on several factors.
Like most kinds of computer networks, Wi-Fi supports varying levels of performance depending on which technology standards it supports. Each Wi-Fi standard is
rated according to its maximum theoretical network bandwidth:
A Wi-Fi network connection operates at the highest possible speed that both devices (endpoints) can support. An 802.11g laptop connected to an 802.11n router,
for example, will network at the lower speeds of 'g'.
QUESTION 29
Which of the following uses a tunneling protocol?
A. Internet
B. VPN
C. Extranet
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Tunneling enables the encapsulation of a packet from one type of protocol within the datagram of a different protocol. For example, VPN uses PPTP to
encapsulate IP packets over a public network, such as the Internet.
QUESTION 30
A network that separates an organization's private network from a public network is a/an:
A. Firewall
B. Extranet
C. Perimeter
D. Internet
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
A network perimeter is the boundary between the private and locally managed-and-owned side of a network and the public and usually provider-managed side of a
network.
QUESTION 31
Which type of network is most vulnerable to intrusion?
A. Dial-up
B. Wireless
C. Broadband
D. Leased line
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Insecure Wi-Fi is the easiest way for people to access your home network, leech your internet, and cause you serious headaches with more malicious behavior.
QUESTION 32
Attenuation in a wireless network signal is a result of:
A. Number of wireless nodes connected.

B. Distance from the access point.
C. Interference from cellular phones.
D. Encryption of the signal.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Solid objects greatly attenuate (reduce) Wi-Fi radio signals, so clear line of sight is best.
QUESTION 33
Which type of network covers the broadest area?
A. WAN
B. CAN
C. LAN
D. PAN
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
A wide area network (WAN) is a network that covers a broad area (i.e., any telecommunications network that links across metropolitan, regional, national or
international boundaries) using leased telecommunication lines.
QUESTION 34
In local area network (LAN) topologies, the primary media access methods are: (Choose two.)
A. Contention B.
Negotiation
C. Kerberos
D. Token passing
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Media contention occurs when two or more network devices have data to send at the same time. Because multiple devices cannot talk on the network
simultaneously, some type of method must be used to allow one device access to the network media at a time. This is done in two main ways: carrier sense
multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD) and token passing.
QUESTION 35
In a physical star topology, the central device is referred to as a:
A. Bridge
B. Server
C. segmenter
D. Hub
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
In local area networks with a star topology, each network host is connected to a central hub with a point-to-point connection.
QUESTION 36
Which technology can you use to extend an internal network across shared or public networks?
A. VLAN
B. Microsoft ASP-NET
C. Microsoft .NET Framework
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which two are published IEEE 802.11 wireless transmission standards? (Choose two.)
A. 802.1 If
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11k
D. 802.11m
E. 802.11n
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
The 802.11 family consists of a series of half-duplex over-the-air modulation techniques that use the same basic protocol. 802.11-1997 was the first wireless
networking standard in the family, but 802.11b was the first widely accepted one, followed by 802.11a, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ac.
QUESTION 38
What happens when an 802.11b node starts broadcasting within the range of an 802.llg access point?
A. The access point will transmit, but the node will be unable to receive.
B. A connection will be established.
C. Both the node and the access point will be unable to transmit.
D. The node will transmit, but the access point will be unable to receive.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
802.11g hardware is fully backward compatible with 802.11b hardware.
QUESTION 39
Which technology provides the highest bit rate?
A. T1
B. El
C. DS3
D. ISDN
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
A DS3 line (sometimes also referred to as T3) is a dedicated, high bandwidth, fiber circuit with a speed of 45 Mbps.
Incorrect:
Not A: T1, 1.544Mbps
Not B: E1, 2.048Mbps
Not D: SDN 30B+1D (all 64K) ~ E1: 1.930Mbps
QUESTION 40
A VPN is a/an:
A. Encrypted connection across the Internet.

B. Virtual network within your local area network (LAN).
C. Communication tunnel between VLANs.
D. Personal network for your use only.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
There are a number of systems that enable you to create networks using the Internet as the medium for transporting data. These systems use encryption and other
security mechanisms to ensure that only authorized users can access the network and that the data cannot be intercepted.
QUESTION 41
Which of the following determines the media access method that is used in a network?
A. Number of hosts connected to the network B.
Number of domain servers on the segment
C. Maximum speed of the media
D. Topology and protocols
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which wireless authentication method provides the highest level of security?
A. Wired Equivalency Privacy (WEP)

B. IEEE 802.lln
C. WI-FI Protected Access (WPA)
D. IEEE 802.11a
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
WPA aims to provide stronger wireless data encryption than WEP.
Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is a security protocol and security certification program developed by the Wi-Fi Alliance to secure wireless computer networks.
QUESTION 43
The topology of a local area network (LAN) is defined by the:
A. Number of devices to connect.

B. Physical and logical characteristics.
C. Distance between workstations.
D. Type of cable being used.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Network topology is the arrangement of the various elements (links, nodes, etc.) of a computer network. Essentially, it is the topological structure of a network and
may be depicted physically or logically.
QUESTION 44
The maximum throughput of an 802.llg network is:
A. 2.4 GHz.
B. 54 GHz.
C. 2.4 MbpsD. 54 Mbps.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The 802.11g standard for wireless networking supports a maximum bandwidth of 54 Mbps.
QUESTION 45
A node within a local area network (LAN) must have a network interface device and a:
A. Network account
B. Table of all network nodes
C. Host address
D. Resource to share
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
In network addressing, the host address, or the host ID portion of an IP address, is the portion of the address used to identify hosts (any device requiring a Network
Interface Card, such as a PC or networked printer) on the network.
QUESTION 46
Which of the following is a Layer 2 WAN protocol?
A. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
B. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
C. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
D. Internet Protocol (IP)
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
WAN Protocols and Their Corresponding OSI Layers
QUESTION 47
Which type of port is used to support VLAN traffic between two switches?
A. Virtual port
B. WAN port
C. Trunk port
D. LAN port
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches.
QUESTION 48
The protocol that maps IP addresses to a Media Access Control (MAC) address is:
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).

B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
D. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
E. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a protocol for mapping an Internet Protocol address (IP address) to a physical machine address (MAC address) that is
recognized in the local network.
QUESTION 49
A user reports that she cannot connect to network resources from a computer on the company network. The user was able to connect to the network resources
yesterday.
You verify that the user's computer is properly physically connected to the network. You discover that the computer's IP address is 169.254.48.97.
You need to restore access to network resources.
What should you do next?
A. Flush the cache on the DNS server.

B. Reset the user's password on the server.
C. Check your router's current routing tables.
D. Verify that the DHCP service is available.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
169.254.48.97 is an APIPA address. An APIPA address is used when the DHCP server is not available.
QUESTION 50
The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:
A. corp
B. com
C. nwtraders
D. exchange
E. mail
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Hostnames are composed of series of labels concatenated with dots, as are all domain names. For example, let's break mail.google.com into its component parts:
mail is the host or local hostname; and

google.com is the domain or parent domain
name.
QUESTION 51
To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?
A. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
B. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
E. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://www.subnet-calculator.com/
QUESTION 52
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?
A. IPCONFIG
B. ROUTEC. PING
D. CHECK
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip
time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.
QUESTION 53
Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 192.168.0.1
C. FEC0:A8C0::AA01
D. ::1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The localhost (loopback) address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, and the IPv6 unspecified address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0, are reduced to ::1 and ::, respectively.
QUESTION 54
Which of these addresses is a multicast address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 224.0.0.1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The full range of multicast addresses is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.
QUESTION 55
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?
A. IDS
B. DNS Server
C. NAT Server
D. IPS
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
DNS records include:
*A
Address record
* PTR
Pointer record
QUESTION 56
The ipconfig command will:
A. Configure routers
B. Display a client's address
C. Display a client's broadcast mode
D. Configure DHCP clients
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
ipconfig
Displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings.
Used without parameters, ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters.
QUESTION 57
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:
A. Increase the number of available IP addresses.

B. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C. Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D. Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
VLANs provide the following advantages:
* VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. ...
* VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. ...
* Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic.
By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not intended for them. Moreover, if a router is
not connected between the VLANs, the end-stations of a VLAN cannot communicate with the end-stations of the other VLANs.
QUESTION 58
Which of these is an application layer protocol?
A. TCP
B. FTP
C. IP
D. UDP
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
FTP is an application layer protocol.
QUESTION 59
The top-level domain of www.adventureworks.com is:
A. www
B. adventureworks
C. adventureworks.com
D. com
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
A top-level domain (TLD) is one of the domains at the highest level in the hierarchical Domain Name System of the Internet.
QUESTION 60
At what layer in the OSI model are hardware addresses referenced?
A. Network
B. Application
C. Data link
D. Physical
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 61
You need to divide a network into three subnets.
Which device should you use?
A. Hub
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Segmenter
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
You can use a router to divide your network into subnets.
QUESTION 62
The type of connector used on a 100BaseT Ethernet cable is:
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-45.
C. TNC.
D. BNC.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 63
In addition to switching, multilayer switches also:
A. Provide Layer 3 routing functions.

B. Interface with CAT3, CATS, CAT5e, and fiber optics.
C. Support 10 MB, 100 MB, and 1 GB local area network (LAN) ports.
D. Operate by using only Layer 1 and 2 protocols.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 64
One reason to replace an unmanaged switch with a managed switch is to:
A. Manage the routing tables.
B. Support multiple VLANS.

C. Reduce collision domains.
D. Route between networks,
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A multilayer switch (MLS) is a computer networking device that switches on OSI layer 2 like an ordinary network switch and provides extra functions on higher OSI
layers.
The major difference between the packet switching operation of a router and that of a Layer 3 switch is the physical implementation. In general-purpose routers,
packet switching takes place using software that runs on a microprocessor, whereas a Layer 3 switch performs this using dedicated application-specific integrated
circuit (ASIC) hardware.
QUESTION 65
To directly connect the Ethernet network interface cards (NICs) of two computers, you should use a:
A. Crossover cable
B. Straight cable
C. Rollover cable
D. Coaxial cable
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
An Ethernet crossover cable is a type of Ethernet cable used to connect computing devices together directly. Normal straight through cables were used to connect
from a host network interface controller (a computer or similar device) to a network switch, hub or router.
QUESTION 66
The function of a router is to:
A. Provide IP subnet masks for hosts.
B. Forward traffic to other networks.
C. Broadcast routing tables to clients.
D. Store tables for name resolution.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A router is a device that forwards data packets along networks. A router is connected to at least two networks, commonly two LANs or WANs or a LAN and its
ISP's network. Routers are located at gateways, the places where two or more networks connect.
QUESTION 67
If a router cannot determine the next hop for a packet, the router will:
A. Forward the packet to the default route.

B. Send the packet back to the packet's source.
C. Broadcast the packet.
D. Store the packet in the memory buffer.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
If there is no next hop, the packets are not policy routed.
A default route of a computer that is participating in computer networking is the packet forwarding rule (route) taking effect when no other route can be determined
for a given Internet Protocol (IP) destination address.
QUESTION 68
In which physical network topology is each computer connected to a central point?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Bus
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
In local area networks with a star topology, each network host is connected to a central hub with a point-to-point connection.
QUESTION 69
Which two of the following are connectivity options for wide area networks (WANs)? (Choose two.)
A. Token ring
B. Ethernet
C. Dial-up
D. Leased line
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Token ring and Ethernet are used in LANs.
QUESTION 70
A private network that allows members of an organization to exchange data is an:
A. Extranet
B. Ethernet
C. Intranet
D. Internet
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
An intranet is a computer network that uses Internet Protocol technology to share information, operational systems, or computing services within an organization.
This term is used in contrast to extranet, a network between organizations, and instead refers to a network within an organization.
QUESTION 71
Security is a concern on wireless networks due to:
A. The radio broadcast access method.

B. Spread spectrum issues.
C. Frequency modulation issues.
D. The potential for cross-talk.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 72
A characteristic of the mesh topology is that it:
A. Uses a central hub.

B. Cannot use wired connections.
C. Uses redundant paths.
D. Cannot use wireless connections.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Mesh network topology is one of the key network architectures in which devices are connected with many redundant interconnections between network nodes such
as routers and switches. In a mesh topology, if any cable or node fails, there are many other ways for two nodes to communicate.
QUESTION 73
To protect a network when it is connected to the Internet, you should use a:
A. Bridge
B. Firewall
C. Switch
D. Router
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A firewall is software or hardware that checks information coming from the Internet or a network, and then either blocks it or allows it to pass through to your
computer, depending on your firewall settings.
QUESTION 74
One purpose of a perimeter network is to:
A. Make resources available to the intranet.

B. Link campus area networks (CANs).
C. Link local area networks (LANs).
D. Make resources available to the Internet.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
In computer security, a DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an
organization's external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an
organization's local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network.
QUESTION 75
Which protocol can be used to encrypt packets on the Internet?
A. SNMP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, makes it more difficult for hackers, the NSA, and others to track users. The protocol makes sure the
data isn't being transmitted in plain-text format, which is much easier to eavesdrop on.
QUESTION 76
The service that resolves fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses is:
A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).
B. Domain Name Service (DNS).
C. Internet Service Provider (ISP).
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The DNS translates Internet domain and host names to IP addresses. DNS automatically converts the names we type in our Web browser address bar to the IP
addresses of Web servers hosting those sites.
QUESTION 77
If a router is installed so that it separates a DHCP server from its clients, the clients will:
A. Immediately lose connectivity to all segments.

B. Be unable to obtain their leases from the server.
C. Immediately lose connectivity to the local segment.
D. Receive an immediate renewal of their lease.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 78
Which of the following services masks internal IP addresses from outside the network?
A. DHCP
B. WINS
C. NAT
D. DNS
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The majority of NATs map multiple private hosts to one publicly exposed IP address. In a typical configuration, a local network uses one of the designated "private"
IP address subnets (RFC 1918). A router on that network has a private address in that address space. The router is also connected to the Internet with a "public"
address assigned by an Internet service provider.
QUESTION 79
The query protocol used to locate resources on a network is:
A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

B. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
C. Tracert
D. Telnet.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an open, vendor-neutral, industry standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed
directory information services over an Internet Protocol (IP) network.
Directory services play an important role in developing intranet and Internet applications by allowing the sharing of information about users, systems, networks,
services, and applications throughout the network.
QUESTION 80
Tracert is used to:
A. Manage routing tables dynamically.

B. Manage session-oriented connections between nodes.
C. Report the route taken by packets across an IP network.
D. Report the shortest route between different networks.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
In computing, traceroute (treacert) is a computer network diagnostic tool for displaying the route (path) and measuring transit delays of packets across an Internet
Protocol (IP) network.
QUESTION 81
In which OSI layer does routing occur?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
In the seven-layer OSI model of computer networking, the network layer is layer 3. The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through
intermediate routers.
QUESTION 82
What type of record does DNS use to find a mail service?
A. Service (SRV) DNS record

B. Canonical (CNAME) DNS record
C. Mail Exchanger (MX) DNS record
D. Host (A) DNS record
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
A mail exchanger record (MX record) is a type of resource record in the Domain Name System that specifies a mail server responsible for accepting email
messages on behalf of a recipient's domain, and a preference value used to prioritize mail delivery if multiple mail servers are available. The set of MX records of a
domain name specifies how email should be routed with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
QUESTION 83
The default gateway address identifies the:
A. Device that will connect the computer to the local network.

B. Device that will connect the computer to a remote network.
C. Server that will provide name services for the computer.
D. Server that will authenticate the user of the computer.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A default gateway is the node on the computer network that the network software uses when an IP address does not match any other routes in the routing table.
In home computing configurations, an ISP often provides a physical device which both connects local hardware to the Internet and serves as a gateway.
QUESTION 84
How many bits are there in an Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
IPv6 uses a 128-bit address, allowing 2**128, or approximately 3.4×10**38 addresses, or more than 7.9×10**28 times as many as IPv4, which uses 32-bit
addresses
QUESTION 85
Which of the following is a public IP address?
A. 10.156.89.1
B. 68.24.78.221
C. 172.16.152.48
D. 192.168.25.101
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Incorrect:
The private address space specified in RFC 1918 is defined by the following three address blocks:
not D: 192.168.0.0/16
The 192.168.0.0/16 private network can be interpreted either as a block of 256 class C network IDs or as a 16-bit assignable address space (16 host bits) that can
be used for any subnetting scheme within the private organization. The 192.168.0.0/16 private network allows the following range of valid IP addresses:
192.168.0.1 to 192.168.255.254.
Not A:
10.0.0.0/8
The 10.0.0.0/8 private network is a class A network ID that allows the following range of valid IP addresses: 10.0.0.1 to 10.255.255.254. The 10.0.0.0/8 private
network has 24 host bits that can be used for any subnetting scheme within the private organization.
Not C:
172.16.0.0/12
The 172.16.0.0/12 private network can be interpreted either as a block of 16 class B network IDs or as a 20-bit assignable address space (20 host bits) that can be
used for any subnetting scheme within the private organization. The 172.16.0.0/12 private network allows the following range of valid IP addresses: 172.16.0.1 to
172.31.255.254.
Reference: Technet, Public and Private Addresses
QUESTION 86
What is the minimum cabling requirement for a 100BaseTX network?
A. Category 3 UTP cable

B. Category 5 UTP cable
C. Category 6 UTP cable
D. Multimode fiber cable
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
100BASE-TX is the predominant form of Fast Ethernet, and runs over two wire-pairs inside a category 5 or above cable.
100BASE-TX and 1000BASE-T were both designed to require a minimum of Category 5 cable and also specify a maximum cable length of 100 meters. Category 5
cable has since been deprecated and new installations use Category 5e.
QUESTION 87
Internet Key Exchange (IKE) is responsible for which two functions? (Choose two.)
A. Establishing network speed parameters
B. Verifying the client's patch level
C. Negotiating algorithms to use
D. Exchanging key information
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Internet Key Exchange (IKE) negotiates the IPSec security associations (SAs). This process requires that the IPSec systems first authenticate themselves to each
other and establish ISAKMP (IKE) shared keys.
In phase 1 of this process, IKE creates an authenticated, secure channel between the two IKE peers, called the IKE security association. The Diffie-Hellman key
agreement is always performed in this phase.
In phase 2, IKE negotiates the IPSec security associations and generates the required key material for IPSec. The sender offers one or more transform sets that
are used to specify an allowed combination of transforms with their respective settings. The sender also indicates the data flow to which the transform set is to be
applied. The sender must offer at least one transform set. The receiver then sends back a single transform set, which indicates the mutually agreed-upon
transforms and algorithms for this particular IPSec session.
Reference: IPSec Overview Part Four: Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
QUESTION 88
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
The process of replicating a zone file to multiple DNS servers is called "zone replication".
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select 'No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.
A. Zone transfer
B. Zone synchronizationC. Start of authority
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
DNS zone transfer, also sometimes known by the inducing DNS query type AXFR, is a type of DNS transaction. It is one of the many mechanisms available for
administrators to replicate DNS databases across a set of DNS servers
QUESTION 89
Which DNS record type specifies the host that is the authority for a given domain?
A. NS
B. MX
C. CNAME
D. SOA
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The start of authority (SOA) resource record indicates the name of origin for the zone and contains the name of the server that is the primary source for information
about the zone. It also indicates other basic properties of the zone.
QUESTION 90
All session data is "encrypted between all machines" while using telnet.
correct.
A. Not encrypted
B. Encrypted between any Windows machines
C. Encrypted only to any non-Windows machines
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Telnet, by default, does not encrypt any data sent over the connection (including passwords), and so it is often practical to eavesdrop on the communications and
use the password later for malicious purposes; anybody who has access to a router, switch, hub or gateway located on the network between the two hosts where
Telnet is being used can intercept the packets passing by and obtain login, password and whatever else is typed with a packet analyzer.
QUESTION 91
Which protocol is a transport layer protocol?
A. FTP
B. IP
C. UDP
D. ASCII
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Transport layer protocols include: UDP, TCP
QUESTION 92
IPv4 multicast addresses range from "192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255".
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.
A. 127.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
B. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
C. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Class D is multicast.
Class A: 0.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255

Class B: 128.0.0.0 - 191.255.255.255
Class C: 192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.25
Class D: 224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255
QUESTION 93
The four IEEE standards, 802.11a, b, g, and n, are collectively known as "mobile ad hoc" networks.
correct.
A. WiMAX
B. Bluetooth
C. WiFi
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
IEEE 802.11 is a set of media access control (MAC) and physical layer (PHY) specifications for implementing wireless local area network (WLAN) computer
communication in the 2.4, 3.6, 5, and 60 GHz frequency bands. They are created and maintained by the IEEE LAN/MAN Standards Committee (IEEE 802). The
base version of the standard was released in 1997, and has had subsequent amendments. The standard and amendments provide the basis for wireless network
products using the Wi-Fi brand.
QUESTION 94
A university has network links between various locations. Where would a T3 connection be appropriate?
A. Server to network in the main campus server room

B. Main campus to a large satellite campus
C. Computer lab PC to lab printer
D. Library laptop PC to Internet
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
T3 lines are a common aggregation of 28 T1 circuits that yields 44.736 Mbps total network bandwidth . Besides being used for long-distance traffic, T3 lines are
also often used to build the core of a business network at its headquarters
QUESTION 95
You work at a coffee shop. Your supervisor asks you to help set up a computer network.
The network needs to have the following items:

A public facing web server
A Wi-Fi network for customers
A private network for the point of sale terminals
An office PC
A file/print server
A network printer
You need to set up a perimeter network to protect the network.
Which two items should you include in the perimeter network? (Choose two.)
A. Network printer
B. Web server
C. File server
D. Wi-Fi network
E. Point of sale terminals
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
Put the web server and the network printer on the perimeter network.
The file server, wifi-network, and the Point of sale terminals should not be accessible from the internet.
Note: A network perimeter is the boundary between the private and locally managed-and-owned side of a network and the public and usually provider-managed
side of a network.
QUESTION 96
Which two features of a Windows Server 2008 R2 server should you install to use that server as a software router? (Choose two.)
A. Network Policy and Access Services

B. Routing and Remote Access Services
C. Remote Administration
D. DirectAccess
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
To install the Routing and Remote Access service
1. In the Server Manager main window, under Roles Summary, click Add roles.
-- OR --
In the Initial Configuration Tasks window, under Customize This Server, click Add roles.
2. In the Add Roles Wizard, click Next.
3. In the list of server roles, select Network Policy and Access Services. Click Next twice.
4. In the list of role services, select Routing and Remote Access Services to select all of the role services. You can also select individual server roles.
5. Proceed through the steps in the Add Roles Wizard to complete the installation. Reference: Install and Enable the Routing and Remote Access Service
QUESTION 97
What are two characteristics of fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
A. Conducts electricity
B. Requires metal conduit
C. Supports splicing
D. Requires a polish for end connectors
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
C: A mechanical splice is a junction of two or more optical fibers that are aligned and held in place by a self-contained assembly (usually the size of a large
carpenter's nail).[1] The fibers are not permanently joined, just precisely held together so that light can pass from one to another.
D: Modern connectors typically use a "physical contact" polish on the fiber and ferrule end. This is a slightly convex surface with the apex of the curve accurately
centered on the fiber, so that when the connectors are mated the fiber cores come into direct contact with one another.
Note: Optical fiber connectors are used to join optical fibers where a connect/disconnect capability is required. Due to the polishing and tuning procedures that may
be incorporated into optical connector manufacturing, connectors are generally assembled onto optical fiber in a supplier’s manufacturing facility.
QUESTION 98
Which Microsoft network service can you use to establish a connection to a corporate LAN without any user action?
A. VPN
B. Remote Desktop
C. DirectAccess
D. Nap
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
DirectAccess allows remote users to securely access internal network file shares, Web sites, and applications without connecting to a virtual private network
(VPN). An internal network is also known as a private network or intranet. DirectAccess establishes bi-directional connectivity with an internal network every time a
DirectAccess-enabled computer connects to the Internet, even before the user logs on. Users never have to think about connecting to the internal network and IT
administrators can manage remote computers outside the office, even when the computers are not connected to the VPN.
QUESTION 99
A "secondary zone" is the first DNS zone to which all updates for the records that belong to that zone are written.
correct.
A. Primary zone
B. Stub zone
C. Conditional forwarding zone
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
When a zone that this DNS server hosts is a primary zone, the DNS server is the primary source for information about this zone, and it stores the master copy of
zone data in a local file or in AD DS.
QUESTION 100
You are setting up a network computer game.
You need to open up ports on your firewall so your friends can join the network.
Which command displays the ports that your computer is listening for?
A. nslookup
B. nbtstat
C. ping
D. netstat
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that displays network connections for the Transmission Control Protocol (both incoming and outgoing), routing
tables, and a number of network interface (network interface controller or software-defined network interface) and network protocol statistics.
Incorrect:
not A: nslookup is used for DNS troubleshooting.
Not B: Nbtstat is designed to help troubleshoot NetBIOS name resolution problems.
Not C: ping is used to troubleshoot network connectivity.
QUESTION 101
When a client computer is unable to reach a DHCP server, it will automatically assign an IP address in the "10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255" range.
correct.
A. 127.0.0.0-127.0.0.255
B. 169.254.0.0-169.254.255.255
C. 192168.100.0 -192.168.100.255
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255 is the APIPA address range. An APIPA address is used when the DHCP server is not available.
QUESTION 102
A node within a local area network (LAN) must have which two of the following? (Choose two.)
A. Username and password

B. Share name
C. NIC
D. IP address
E. Table of all network nodes
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
A node must be able to access the LAN through a network interface.
A node must also have an IP address.
QUESTION 103
"A/anvirtual private network (VPN)" protects a network's perimeter by monitoring traffic as it enters and leaves.
correct.
A. Extranet
B. Firewall
C. Intranet
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A firewall is software or hardware that checks information coming from the Internet or a network, and then either blocks it or allows it to pass through to your
computer, depending on your firewall settings.
QUESTION 104
The loopback address of your computer is "127.0.0.1".
correct.
A. 10.0.1.1
B. 169.254.0.5
C. 192168.1.1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
127.0.0.1 is the IPv4 loopback address.

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98-366.

A. Automatically maintains routing tables.

A. Network address translation (NAT).

A. Determine the network portion of a host address.

To have your PC ping itself, type ping 127.0.0.1.

Which of the following services should you confirm is available?

A. Domain Name Service (DNS).

A. Mail Exchanger (MX) DNS record

A. Translates Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) to Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6).

Reference: DHCP Client States in the Lease Process

A. PING is improperly configured.

Which type of network provides the solution?

A. The access method used for the network

A. Number of wireless nodes connected.

A. Encrypted connection across the Internet.

A. Wired Equivalency Privacy (WEP)

A. Number of devices to connect.

A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).

You need to restore access to network resources.

What should you do next?

A. Flush the cache on the DNS server.

mail is the host or local hostname; and

A. Increase the number of available IP addresses.

Which device should you use?

A. Provide Layer 3 routing functions.

A. Manage the routing tables.

B. Support multiple VLANS.

A. Forward the packet to the default route.

A. The radio broadcast access method.

A. Uses a central hub.

A. Make resources available to the intranet.

A. Immediately lose connectivity to all segments.

A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

A. Manage routing tables dynamically.

A. Service (SRV) DNS record

A. Device that will connect the computer to the local network.

Reference: Technet, Public and Private Addresses

A. Category 3 UTP cable

Reference: IPSec Overview Part Four: Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

Class A: 0.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255

A. Server to network in the main campus server room

The network needs to have the following items:

You need to set up a perimeter network to protect the network.

A. Network Policy and Access Services

A. Username and password

The loopback address of your computer is "127.0.0.1".

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