EndoPerio 004
EndoPerio 004
EndoPerio 004
College of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION
0208
5. The action used for placing a K-type file into a canal should resemble:
A. an up-and-down motion
B. a straight apical pressure
C. complete rotation of the instrument with pressure directed apically
D. a clockwise-counterclockwise motion with pressure directed apically
E. none of the above.
12. Characterized as the 3-dimensional filling of the entire root canal system is as close to the DCJ
as possible:
A. master cone B. obturation C. mechanical preparation D. apical cone
14. Desired periapical tissue responses after endodontic therapy on a tooth with a periapical lesion
include:
I. regeneration of dentin
II. regeneration of alveolar bone
III. deposition of apical cementum
IV. re-establishment of the periodontal ligament
A. I, II & IV B. I & IV only C. II & IV only D. II, III & IV E. III & IV only
15. Which of the following is least likely to cause discoloration of a tooth with a necrotic pulp?
A. decomposition of necrotic tissue
B. hemolysis of unremoved blood cells
C. failure to include pulp horns in a coronal access
D. frequent ingestion of heavy doses of tetracycline
E. use of a root canal sealer that contains precipitated silver
19. In which of the following is one-visit root canal treatment not recommended?
A. The pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic
B. The pulp is necrotic and symptomatic.
C. The pulp is necrotic and there is a draining sinus tract.
D. The pulp is vital and symptomatic.
E. None of the above.
21. The mandibular, 2nd molar should be restored with crown after RCT for which of the following
reasons?
A. The pulp chamber is relatively large in comparison to the crown, making the tooth
susceptible to fracture.
B. The tooth is in close to the insertion of the muscle of mastication, and the
percentage of preexisting fractures is high.
C. There is a tendency for the buccal cusps to shear off under occlusal loading.
D. Providing a post can be placed in the distal root to strengthen the root.
24. Moderate extrusion of obturating materials beyond the apex is undesirable because of which of
the following?
A. There is more likelihood of postoperative discomfort.
B. Sealer and gutta-percha cause a severe, inflammatory reaction in periradicular tissue.
C. The prognosis is poorer.
D. All of the above.
E. both A & B only
25. Piezoelectric, ultrasonic devices differs from magneto-strictive devices in which of the
following?
A. The piezoelectric unit transfers more energy to the files.
B. The piezoelectric unit produces heat that requires a coolant.
C. The piezoelectric unit uses a RispiSonic, SharperSonic, and TrioSonic file system
D. The piezoelectric unit vibrates at 2 to 3 kHz.
26. Once the root canal is obturated, what usually happens to the organisms that had previously
entered periapical tissues from the canal?
A. They persist and stimulate formulation of a granuloma.
B. They are eliminated by the natural defenses of the body.
C. They re-enter and reinfect the sterile canal unless periapical surgery is performed.
D. They will have been eliminated by various medicaments that were used in the root
canal.
27. Erratic and inconsistent results from electric pulp testing may be caused by:
1. saliva on the tooth
2. secondary dentin obliterating the pulp chamber
3. multiple canals presenting various stages of pulp pathosis
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 1,2 & 3
30. Perforation on the mesial in the cervical third of the root of a maxillary first premolar is a
common error in performing an endodontic procedure because:
A. the crown tipped distally.
B. The root tends to curve distally
C. The entire tooth tends to tip distally
D. The bur tends to be directed mesially
E. A concavity on the mesial root frequently exists.
31. A healthy 8-year old child has fractured permanent central incisor. The pulp is widely exposed
and vital. From radiographs, root ends appear incompletely calcified. The recommended
procedure is to:
A. cap the pulp C. perform a pulpotomy
B. extract the tooth D. remove the entire pulp.
32. The action of calcium hydroxide in promoting formation of an apical calcified barrier in a tooth
with an open apex and a necrotic pulp is probably best explained by:
A. creation of a zone of liquefaction necrosis at the apex
B. creation of a zone of coagulation necrosis at the apex
C. creation of an environment that promotes hard tissue deposition
D. calcium ions from the canal dressing precipitating apically to form an apical bridge.
33. The least important factor influencing the pathogenicity of endodontic flora is:
A. Microbial interaction.
B. Endotoxins released after bacterial death.
C. Exotoxins released by living bacteria
D. Enzymes produced by bacteria.
35. Retreatment has the most favorable prognosis during which of the following?
A. When the cause of failure is identified and is correctable.
B. When the patient is asymptomatic.
C. When gutta-percha was used instead of paste.
D. When a surgical microscope is used.
36. Which of the following teeth is most likely to exhibit C-shaped morphology?
A. Maxillary first premolar C. Mandibular first premolar
B. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar.
37. Which of the following are indications for surgical endodontic intervention?
1. a non-negotiable canal with periapical pathosis
2. a sinus tract that persists after repeated treatment
3. periapical pathosis in a tooth with a post and core retained crown.
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 3 only
39. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal. Another objective is to
create a favorable biologic environment for the process of tissue healing.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE
D. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
40. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-core and a metal
ceramic crown. Tree months later, the patient calls and complains of pain, especially on biting.
Tooth mobility is normal, as are the radiographs. The most probable cause of pain is:
A. a loose crown C. a vertical root fracture
B. psychosomatic D. a premature eccentric contact
42. Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated tooth?
A. Ether C. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Chloroform D. Sodium hypochlorite E. Hydrogen peroxide
43. The most important principle governing the location and outline of the lingual or occlusal
opening into the pulp chamber is:
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. Direct access along straight lines.
C. Complete removal of the roof of the pulp chamber
D. Removal of all caries and defective restorative material.
44. Endodontic therapy is contraindicated for a single rooted tooth that has:
A. discoloration
B. an acute apical abscess
C. a chronic abscess and a draining sinus tract
D. a horizontal fracture of the apical third of the root.
E. A vertical fracture of the root and an associated deep periodontal defect
45. A negative response to the electric pulp tester immediately after a severe luxation of a tooth
indicates that the:
A. pulp is inflamed
B. electric pulp tester is giving a false reading
C. pulp is necrotic and should be removed
D. blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
E. neural transmission is interrupted ,and the negative response may be
temporary.
46. In treating a root canal before obturation, the most important consideration is:
A. general health of the patient
B. cleaning and shaping of the canal
C. efficacy of the irrigating solution
D. amount and concentration of medication used.
E. Sterilization of the canal as evidenced by negative cultures
47. Which of the following root surfaces is the most likely to be strip-perforated during canal
instrumentation of the mesial root of a mandibular first molar?
A. facial B. lingual C. mesial D. distal
48. The success of a pulpotomy for a primary molar depends primarily upon:
A. a vital root pulp C. the amount of root resoprtion
B. the patients age D. the absence of internal root resoprtion
49. During a stepback enlargement of the canal space, one reason for recapitulation after each
increase in instrument size is to:
A. maintain coronal curvature of the canal
B. maintain the apical stop for filling with gutta-percha
C. create a coronal funnel to facilitate filling with gutta-percha
clean the apical segment of dentin fillings that are not removed by irrigation
50. The action used for placing K-type file into a canal should resemble:
A. an up-and-down motion
B. a straight apical pressure
C. complete rotation of the instrument with pressure directed apically.
D. a clockwise-counterclockwise motion with pressure directed apically.
51. Radiographically, the level of the normal interproximal alveolar crest is related to the:
A. epithelial attachment. D. Amount of underlying trabecular bone.
B. Anatomy of the alveolar process E. Position of the CEJ of approximal teeth.
C. Location of the gingival attachment
52. Which of the following oral bacteria have been implicated as periodontal pathogens?
A. Porphyromonas gingivalis, Eubacterium sp., and Campylobacter recta
B. Streptococcus gordonii, Streptococcus mutans, and Giamella sp.
C. Lactobacillus casei and Veillonella sp.
D. Streptococcus mitior, Streptococcus gordonii, and Bacteriodes gracillis
E. None of the above
53. Where there are deepened pathologic pockets range from 6-8 mm, gingivectomy is indicated. Will
you do the procedure in:
A. one quadrant at a time C. three quadrant at a time
B. two quadrant at a time D. all at the same time.
55. Which of the following periodontal diseases causes the most rapid destruction of alveolar bone?
A. Periodontal abscess C. Phenytoin-induced gingival enlargement
B. Chronic periodontitis D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
57. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with HIV-associated
necrotizing ulcerative gingivo-periodontitis?
A. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses. C. Gingivectomy and gingivoplasty
B. Definitive root planing and curettage D. administration of antibiotics
58. What is the most important to prevent recurrence of periodontal disease?
A. plaque control C. oral hygiene
B. oral physiotherapy D. all of them.
59. A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the periodontal ligament is:
A. lysozyme C. collagenase
B. peroxidase D. streptokinase E. hyaluronidase
60. Which of the following has been associated with localized juvenile periodontitis?
A. Cyclic eosinophils C. Increased phagocytosis
B. Lysis of neutrophils D. Neutrophil chemotactic defects
62. Pronounced bony ledges and interproximal cratering are indicators for performing:
I. gingivectomy IV. flap surgery
II. osseous grafting V. infrabony therapy
III. osseous resection and contouring
A. I & III B. I & V C. II & IV D. III & IV E. IV & V
63. The highest incidence of fibrous gingival enlargement (hyperplasia) is related to:
A. Puberty . C. leukemia D. medication
B. Diabetes D. pregnancy
65. Increasing the zone of attached gingival in the area of mandibular second and third molars is
often complicated by the presence of the:
A. mylohyoid ridge C. internal oblique ridge
B. vestibular fornix D. external oblique ridge E. none of these.
66. Desquamation of the gingival with ulceration of the lamina propia is:
A. Gingivosis C. herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. necrotic ulceration gingivitis D. gingivitis
71. Which of the following cell types contains a biologically active amine which is released in the
inflammatory process and is active in causing vascular permeability?
A. Mast cell C. T lymphocyte
B. Plasma cell D. B lymphocyte E. none of these.
74. ////Soft tissue curettage is most successful in reducing pocker depth in which of the following?
A. infrabony pocket C. hyperplastic fibrotic gingival tissue
B. edematous gingival tissue D. gingival enlargement E. none of these.
75./// Pronounced bony ledges and interproximal cratering are indicative for:
A. Gingivectomy C. Periodontal flap
B. Modified Widmans flap D. Scaling, root planing and curettage
76./// Pockets of biologically active enzymes in the cytoplasm of polymorphonuclear leucocytes which
play an important role in inflammatory periodontal disease are:
A. Cristae C. lysosomes
B. Endoplasmicreticulum D. lysozymes
77. A periodontal pocket can be seen radiographically on which of the following surfaces?
A. lingual B. facial C. mesial D. distal E. none of these
78. The first fiber group destroyed to allow the junctional epithelium to migrate in an apical direction is
the:
A. circular C. dentogingival
B. horizontal D. alveologingival E. none of these.
80. Although no causal relationship between particular bacteria and periodontal diseases have been
determined, there does appear to be an association between localized juvenile periodontitis and the
presence of:
A. Actnobacillus actinomycetemcomitans C. Treponema denticola
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis D. Actinomyces viscosus
81. Which of the following components or products of plaque bacteria are antigenic in humans?
I. enzymes and other proteins
II. hydrogen sulfide IV. endotoxins
III. polysaccharides V. Ammonia
A. I, II & IV B. I, III & IV C. II, III & V D. III, IV & V E. all of these
82. PMN leucocytes migrate through the blood vessel wall in the early stage of inflammation by
means of:
A. Diapedesis C. chemotaxis
B. Rhexis D. phagocytosis
83. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with HIV-associated
necrotizing ulcerative gingivo-periodontitis?
A. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses. C. Gingivectomy and gingivoplasty
B. Definitive root planing and curettage D. administration of antibiotics
85. Alveolar bone loss may be a feature of the following conditions, except:
A. Hyperparathyroidism C. eosinophilic granuloma
B. Hypophosphatasia D. erosive lichen planus
87. Which of the following factors is most critical in determining whether or not to extract a tooth
involved with periodontal disease?
A. depth of pockets C. amount of attachment loss
B. mobility of the tooth D. relationship to adjacent teeth
88. Which of these gingival connective tissue component acts as a molecular filter and regulates cell
migration:
A. Glucoronic acid C. Glycoproteins
B. Proteoglycans D. Heparatan
89. Unilateral mastication will tend to result in:
A. Greater accumulation of plaque in the unused side
B. Heavier and denser bone support in the unused side
C. Greater accumulation of plaque in the used side
D. Greater degree of periodontal disease in the used side
90. Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of the marginal
gingival results in
A. a shallow sulcus C. infrabony pocket formation
B. gingival pocket formation D. periodontal pocket formation
91. The index used for assessment of average severity of periodontal disease in large population
groups is:
A. Loe and Silness index C. Greene and Vermillon index
B. Russel index D. Ramfjord index
92.. Which of the following periodontal diseases show a strong genetic etiologic relationship?
A. Adult periodontitis C. Juvenile periodontitis
B. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis D. Gingivitis
93.Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of the marginal gingival
results in
A. a shallow sulcus C. infrabony pocket formation
B. gingival pocket formation D. periodontal pocket formation
94. The periodontal ligament is vital to the tooth, except:
A. contains nerves and vascular elements
B. provides the cellular elements of bone and cementum
C. furnishes an elastic sling for holding the tooth
D. allows for physiologic movement of the teeth
95. Pocket where gingival sulcus is deepened because of the increased bulk of the gingiva:
A. gingival pocket B. periodontal pocket C. suprabony pocket D. infrabony pocket
96. The most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma is the presence of:
A. wear facets C. tooth mobility
B. enamel cracks D. cuspal fracture E. tooth sensitivity
97. Which of these inhibit collagenase formation in the management of periodontal disease:
A. Amoxycillin C. Metronidazole
B. Erythromycin D. Minocycline
98 Pocket where the bottom of the pocket is apical to the level of the adjacent alveolar bone. :
A. gingival pocket B. periodontal pocket C. suprabony pocket D. infrabony pocket.
99. Which of the following is the current method-of-choice for removing or disrupting bacterial masses
in the mouth?
A. Biologic C. Mechanical (brush and floss)
B. Chemical (mouthwashes) D. Antibiotic (penicillin, tetracycline)
100. During calculus removal, the surface of the root feels smoothest following scaling with:
A. a hoe D. an unltrasonic instrument
B. periodontal files E. a rotary driven metal scaler
C. a periodontal curet
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11-26-2008