Ginal Assignment IX

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Contents

S.No. Subjects

1. English

2. Hindi

3. Mathematics

4. Science

5. Social Science

6. Sanskrit

7. Computers

8. Art and Craft


Subject: English Books: 1) Beehive (NCERT)
2) Moments (NCERT)
Month Content Activities
April 2023 Beehive: The Fun They Had, The Road EXTEMPORE:
Not Taken (poem) The Fun They Had, The Road Not Taken(poem)
Moments: The Lost Child Students will be given topics related to
Grammar: Tenses, Determiners education, decisions, choices, ethics to enable
the students to think out of the box and off the
feet. They will analyse the issue on the spot and
generate ideas without any preparation.

May 2023 Beehive: The Sound Of Music, Wind Role Play


(poem) The Sound Of Music, The Adventures Of Toto
Moments: The Adventures Of Toto A group of 5-6 students will write down a script
Grammar: Modals and do the role play activity.
Writing Skill: Descriptive Paragraph
(Person)

June 2023 Summer Break The Story of Village Palampur (Descriptive


Paragraph)
Group activity: Students will visit a village and
collect various information about types of crops
grown, irrigation facilities and non- farming
activities performed by the villagers)

July 2023 CLASS PRESENTATION:


Beehive: The Little Girl, Rain On The
The Little Girl
Roof, The Lake Isle Of Innisfree
Rain On The Roof
(poems)
Iswaran The Storyteller
Moments: Iswaran The Storyteller
A group of 5-6 students will prepare a class
Grammar: Subject -Verb Concord
presentation do the flip teaching in class.
Writing Skill: Story Writing
August 2023 Beehive: A Truly Beautiful Mind, The ASL
Snake And The Mirror To develop and hone the skills of speaking and
Moments: In The Kingdom Of Fools listening among the students and to bring long-
Grammar: Reported Speech term cognitive benefits among them.

September Reinforcement of the topics done. Half Yearly Examination


2023
October Beehive: My Childhood, A Legend Of CREATIVE WRITING
2023 The Northland(poem) To develop emotional and intellectual skills of
Moments: The Happy Prince, The Last students and to make them communicate
Leaf effectively, different situations will be given to
Grammar: Subject Verb Concord write their stories and read aloud in the class.

November Beehive: Reach For The Top, No Men RECITATION


2023 Are Foreign, On Killing A Tree(poems) Poems: No Men Are Foreign, On Killing A Tree
Moment: A House Is Not A Home To develop the aesthetic sense and to train the
Grammar: Reported Speech emotions, feelings, creativity and imagination of
the learners, they will be motivated to recite
poems with proper rhyme, rhythm, tone and
intonation.

Month Content Activities


December Beehive: Kathmandu, If I Were You, A ASL
2023 Slumber Did My Spirit Seal(poem) To develop and hone the skills of speaking and
Moments: The Beggar listening among the students and to bring long-
term cognitive benefits among them
January Revision (Whole syllabus)
2024
February Revision (Whole syllabus)
2024
Syllabus For Assessments
Periodic Test I Periodic Test II Periodic Test III
Reading: Unseen Passage Reading: Unseen Passage Reading: Unseen Passage
Writing: Descriptive Writing: Story Writing Writing: Descriptive Paragraph
Paragraph(Person) Grammar: Subject Verb Concord (Diary)
Grammar: Tenses, Determiners Beehive: The Sound Of Music, The Grammar:
Beehive: The Fun They Had, The Little Girl Wind (poem) Subject Verb Concord
Road Not Taken (poem) Moments: Iswaran The Storyteller Beehive: My Childhood, A legend
Moments: The Lost Child, The Of The Northland(poem)
Adventures Of Toto Moments: The Happy Prince, The
Last Leaf

Super Learners Test Series I Super Learners Test Series II Super Learners Test Series III
Beehive: The Fun They Had, The Beehive: The Sound Of Music, Beehive: My Childhood, A
Road Not Taken Wind(Poem) Legend Of The Northland(poem)
Moments: The Lost Child Moments: Ishwaran The Moments: The Happy Prince
Grammar Tenses, Determiners Storyteller Grammar: Subject Verb
Grammar: Modals Agreement, Reported Speech

Half Yearly Examination Annual Examination


Reading: Unseen Passages Full Syllabus
Writing: Descriptive Paragraph (Person) and Story Writing
Grammar: Tenses, Subject Verb Concord, Modals,
Determiners, Reported Speech
Literature : Beehive (Prose)
The Fun They Had, The Sound Of Music, The Little Girl, A
Truly Beautiful Mind, The Snake And The Mirror
Poems: The Road Not Taken, Wind, Rain On The Roof, The
Lake Isle Of Innisfree
Moments: The Lost Child, The Adventures Of Toto,
Iswaran The Storyteller, In The Kingdom Of Fools
विषय : व िं दी पुस्तक : विविज (भाग -1),कृविका (भाग -1) NCERT
व्याकरण प्रकाश (फुल मार्क्स)
मास विषय -िस्तु गविविवि
अप्रैल 2023 विविज (गद्य)- पाठ 1 दो बैलोिं की कथा प्रश्नोत्तरी
सस्वर दो ा गायन
विविज (पद्य)- पाठ 9 साखियााँ एििं सबद
व्याकरण – उपसगस ,प्रत्यय ,अलिंकार

मास विषय -िस्तु गविविवि


मई 2023 क्षितिज (गद्य)- पाठ 2 ल्हासा की ओर क्षितिज (पद्य) - प्रश्नोत्तरी
व्याख्या
पाठ 10 वाख कृतिका -पाठ 1 इस जल प्रलय में
पररचचास
व्याकरण – समास , अपठठि गद्याांश व पद्याांश |
जून 2023 ग्रीष्मावकाश कला एकीकृि समखिि गविविवि
पिंजाब के वकन्ीिं चार पवियोिं ि प्रकृवि का
मनो ारी स्केच बनाकर उसका िणसन
करना |
जुलाई 2023 क्षितिज (गद्य)- पाठ 3 उपभोक्तािाद की सिंस्कृवि पररचचास

कृविका – पाठ 2 मेरे सिंग की औरिें सिंिाद लेिन अभ्यास


व्याकरण – अर्थ के आधार पर वाक्य भेद, सांवाद
अगस्त 2023 क्षितिज (गद्य)- पाठ 4 सााँवले सपनों की याद िृिवचत्र
सिैया गायन
क्षितिज (पद्य) पाठ 11 सवैये
व्याकरण – लघु कर्ा लेखन, पत्र ,अनच्
ु छे द लेिन अभ्यास
लेखन,औपचाररक ई-मेल |

वसििंबर अिसिावषसक परीिा


2023
अक्टू बर 2023 विविज (गद्य)- पाठ 6 प्रेमचिंद के फटे जूिे पररचचास
सस्वर कवििा गायन
विविज (पद्य)- पाठ 12 कैदी और कोवकला
व्याकरण – अलिंकार की पुनरािृवत्त |
नििंबर 2023 क्षितिज (गद्य)- पाठ 7 मेरे बचपन के ठदन प्रश्नोत्तरी
सिंिाद चचास
क्षितिज (पद्य)- पाठ 13 ग्राम श्री
बाल -मजदू री पर पोस्टर
व्याकरण –समास ,सांवाद की पुनरावत्तृ ि,सूचना लेखन |
वदसबर 2023 क्षितिज (पद्य)- पाठ 15 मेघ आए सस्वर कवििा िाचन
प्रश्नोत्तरी
कृतिका – पाठ 3 रीढ़ की हड्डी
व्याकरण –उपसगथ, प्रत्यय व लघु कर्ा- लेखन की
पुनरावत्तृ ि |
जनिरी 2024 क्षितिज (पद्य)- पाठ -17 बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं पररचचास
प्रश्नोत्तरी
व्याकरण – पत्र व अनुच्छे द लेखन, अपठठि गद्याांश व
पद्याांश,अर्थ के आधार पर वाक्य भेद िर्ा अलांकार की
पन
ु रावत्तृ ि |
फरिरी 2024 सम्पूणस पाठ्यक्रम की पुनरािृवत्त |
मूल्यांकन हे तु पयठ्यक्रम
आिविक परीिा I आिविक परीिा II आिविक परीिा III
विविज(गद्य)–पाठ 1 दो बैलोिं की कथा विविज(गद्य)–पाठ 2 ल्हासा की ओर विविज(गद्य)–पाठ 6 प्रेमचिंद के फटे
विविज (पद्य) पाठ 9 कबीर विविज (पद्य)-पाठ 10 िाि जूिे पाठ 7 मेरे बचपन के वदन
व्याकरण – उपसगस, प्रत्यय ,अलिंकार कृविका -पाठ 1 इस जल प्रलय में विविज (पद्य) पाठ 12 कैदी और
व्याकरण- समास | कोवकला
व्याकरण –अथस के आिार पर िाक्य
भेद ,अलिंकार, सूचना |

अिसिावषसक परीिा िावषसक परीिा


विविज(गद्य)- पाठ 1 दो बैलोिं की कथा, पाठ 2 ल्हासा की कराया गया समस्त पाठ्यक्रम |
ओर,पाठ 3 उपभोक्तािाद की सिंस्कृवि, पाठ 4 सााँिले
सपनोिं की याद विविज(पद्य)- पाठ 9 कबीर, पाठ
10 िाि, पाठ 11 सिैये कृविका-पाठ 1 इस जल
प्रलय में , पाठ 2 मेरे सिंग की औरिें,
व्याकरण- उपसगस, प्रत्यय ,अलिंकार, समास ,सिंिाद, अथस के
आिार पर िाक्य भेद, लघु कथा लेिन, पत्र ,अनुच्छेद
लेिन,अपवठि गद्यािंश ि पद्यािं श, औपचाररक ई-मेल |

Subject: Mathematics Book-NCERT, NCERT Exemplar


Month Content/Topic Activities
April Ch-1 Number System Spiral of Irrational numbers
Ch-3 Coordinate geometry {Art Integrated Learning} Map of Punjab on Graph
paper.& locate any 5 famous places
Ch-4 Linear equations in two Lab Activity: To show graphically pair of lines are parallel,
variables intersecting or coinciding.
May Ch-2 Polynomials Lab Activity: To show (A+B)2 Using Graph Paper
Ch- 12 Statistics {Art integrated project } Bar Graph showing Temperature
and weather condition of Punjab in different months.
June SUMMER BREAK
July Ch-5 Introduction to Euclid ‘s PPT on famous mathematicians
Geometry Lab Activity: To show Experimentally that Vertically
Ch-6 Lines and Angles Opposite Angles are equal.
August Ch-7 Triangles Lab Activity: To show that sum of two sides of a triangle is
greater than third side

September Revision of Half Yearly


Examination
October Ch-10 Heron’s formula Volley Ball Match & Finding the area of ground by Heron’s
Ch-8 Quadrilaterals formula{Art Integrated Learning}
Lab Activity : To show Experimentally that Sum of all
angles of a Quadrilateral is 360°.
November Ch.11 Surface Areas and Lab Activity: Comparison of Volume of a cylinder shape
volumes when paper is folded length wise and breadth wise
December Ch.9 Circles Crossword Puzzle

January & Revision for Annual


February Examination
Syllabus For Assessments

Periodic Test I Periodic Test II Periodic Test III


Ch-1 Number Systems Ch-12 Statistics Ch- 8 Quadrilaterals
Ch-3 Co-ordinate Geometry Ch-6 Lines and Angles Ch- 11 Surface Area and Volume
Ch-4 Linear equations in Two
Variables

Super Learners Test Series I Super Learners Test Series II Super Learners Test Series III
Ch-1 Number Systems Ch-2 Polynomials Ch- 7 Triangles
Ch-3 Coordinate geometry Ch-10 Heron’s Formula

Half Yearly Examination Annual Examination


Ch-1 Number Systems Complete Syllabus
Ch-2 Polynomials
Ch-3 Co-ordinate Geometry
Ch-4 Linear equations in two Variables
Ch-5 Euclid’s Geometry
Ch-6 Lines and Angles
Ch-7 Triangles
Ch-12 Statistics
Subject: Science Book: NCERT

Month Content Activities


April 2023 Chapter-1 Matter in Our Surroundings Demonstrations
Chapter-5 The fundamental unit of life Graphs work, Numerical Worksheet·
Chapter-7 Motion Experiment and slide show,
Role play
Practical:-To prepare the stained temporary
mount of onion peel and cheek cell
May 2023 Chapter-1 Matter in Our Surroundings Demonstrations
(Contd.) Experiment and slide show
Chapter-5 The fundamental unit of life Role play
(Contd.) Practical:-To prepare the stained temporary
Chapter-7 Motion (Contd.) mount of onion peel and cheek cell
Graphs work, Numerical Worksheet·
Daily life Examples
June 2023 SUMMER-BREAK

July 2023 Chapter-2 Is matter around us pure Activity based learning method
Group discussion
Practical:-To prepare the true solution,
suspension and colloidal solution to do their
comparative study on the basis of transparency,
filtration criteria and stability
Chapter-6 Tissue Graphical Representation
Numerical Work sheet
Chapter -8 Force and laws of motion Subject Enrichment Activity:- Worksheet on
Applications of laws of motion
August 2023 Chapter-2 Is matter around us pure Activity based learning method
(Contd.) Group discussion
Practical:-To prepare the mixture and
compound using iron fillings and sulphur
powder
Chapter-9 Gravitation (excluding Practical:-To carry out various chemical
floatation) reaction to find the type of reactions

September REVISION
2023

Month Content Activities


October Chapter-9 Gravitation (Floatation) Numerical Work sheet, Activity Based Learning
2023 Method,
Practical:- To determine the density of solid by
using a spring balance and a measuring cylinder,
Practical:- Establishing the relationship between
the loss in weight of a solid when fully immersed
in (a) tap water (b) Strongly salty water with the
weight of water displaced by it by taking at least
two different solid
Practical- To prove the law of conservation of
mass, Presentation, Subject Enrichment
Chapter- 3 Atoms and Molecules Activity:- Making Chemical formulae
Chapter- 6 Tissue (Contd.) Practical-To show the permanent slides of
various types of animal tissues and plant tissue.
Graphical Organisation, Chart Display
November Chapter-3 Atoms and Molecules Practical- To prove the law of conservation of
2023 (Contd.) mass, Presentation
Subject Enrichment Activity:- Making Chemical
formulae
Daily Life Examples, Numerical work Sheet
Practical: To Find Adulteration in different food
Chapter-10 Work and energy samples , Group Discussion
Art Integrated Learning- To prepare a PPT
tracing the different agricultural practices in
Chapter-12 Improvement in food Haryana and its protection at each level of
resources cultivation.
December Chapter- 4 Structure of Atom Group Discussion
2023 Art Integrated Learning- To prepare the model
of atom
Chapter-11 Sound Practical:-To determine the velocity of pulse
propagated through a stretched string/slinky.
Chapter-12 Improvement in food Practical:-To verify the laws of reflection of
resources sound, Debate
January REVISION
2024
February REVISION
2024
Syllabus For Assessments
Periodic Test I Periodic Test II Periodic Test III
Chapter-1 Matter in Our Chapter-2 Is matter around us pure Chapter-9 Gravitation (Floatation)
Surroundings Chapter-6 Tissue Chapter- 3 Atoms and Molecules
Chapter-5 The fundamental unit Chapter -8 Force and laws of Chapter- 12 Improvement in food
of life motion resources
Chapter-7 Motion

Super Learners Test Series I Super Learners Test Series II Super Learners Test Series III
Chapter-1 Matter in Our Chapter-2 Is matter around us pure Chapter-9 Gravitation (Floatation)
Surroundings Chapter-6 Tissue Chapter- 3 Atoms and Molecules
Chapter-5 The fundamental unit of Chapter -8 Force and laws of motion Chapter- 12 Improvement in food
life resources
Chapter-7 Motion

Half Yearly Examination Annual Examination


Chapter-1 Matter in Our Surroundings Complete Syllabus
Chapter-2 Is matter around us pure
Chapter-5 The fundamental unit of life
Chapter-6 Tissue
Chapter-7 Motion
Chapter -8 Force and laws of motion
Chapter-10 Gravitation (excluding floatation)

Subject: Social Science Book: NCERT

Month Content Activities


April 2023 History:
Chapter 1: The French Revolution Map study: Identification and Location of
following on Political Map of France (•
Bordeaux • Nantes • Paris • Marseilles)
Geography:
Chapter1: India: Size and Location Brochure on ‘Colours of India’ (Festivals,
Costumes, Tourist Places and Food) Art
Integrated Learning activity (AIL)
Learning through Map: Identification and
Location of Indian-States with Capitals, Tropic
of Cancer, Standard Meridian and Neighbouring
Economics: countries
Chapter1: The Story of village Field visit: Survey report on ‘Face of the Rural
Palampur India’ Art Integrated Project (AIP)
May 2023 History: Chapter.2: Socialism in Map study: Identification and Location of major
Europe and The Russian Revolution countries of World War on the Political Map of
World
Geography: Group presentation on different physical features
Chapter2: Physical Features of India of India.
Learning through Map: Identification and
Location of Mountain Ranges, Mountain Peaks,
Plateau and Coastal Plains.
Political Science: Debate on ‘Democracy in India: Success or
Chapter 1: What is Democracy? Why Failure’.
Democracy? Project on the ‘Disaster Management’
June 2023 Summer Break

July 2023 History: Interdisciplinary project


Chapter 4: Forest Society and
Colonialism
Geography: Interdisciplinary Project
Chapter 5: Natural Vegetation and Learning through Map: Location and Labelling
Wildlife National Parks, Bird sanctuaries and wildlife
Political Science: sanctuaries.
Chapter2: Constitutional Design Group activity on Framing rules and regulation
Economics: for the class.
Chapter2: People As Resource Diagnostic test
August 2023 Geography: Map study: Identification of Himalayan rivers
Chapter3: Drainage system, Peninsular rivers system and lakes.

Political Science: Conducting elections for Class monitorship


Chapter3: Electoral Politics
Month Content Activities
September Half Yearly Examination
2023
October History: Flip- Learning
2023 Chapter 5: Pastoralists in the modern
world Report writing on the Component of Population
Economics: changes in Haryana
Chapter3: Poverty as a Challenge Learning through Map: Location and Labelling
Geography: of Population density of all states and the state
Chapter 6: Population having highest and lowest density of population
Political Science: Group Discussion on the Nominal role of the
November Chapter- 4: Working of Institutions President in India.
2023 Economics: Graph work: Annual Rainfall and Temperature
Chapter 4: Food Security in India of two cities of Delhi and Mumbai
Geography: Map study: Percentage of rainfall in India,
Chapter 4: Climate Monsoon wind directions
December History: Crossword activity
2023 Chapter 3: Nazism and the Rise of
Hitler
Political Science: Group Presentation on Democratic Rights -Art
Chapter 5: Democratic Rights Integrated Learning activity (AIL)
January Reinforcement of the concepts done
2024
February Reinforcement of the concepts done
2024
Syllabus For Assessments
Periodic Test I Periodic Test II Periodic Test III
Geography: Political Science: History:
Chapter 2: Physical Features of Chapter 1: What is Democracy? Chapter 5: Pastoralists in the
India Why Democracy? modern world
Economics: Economics: Economics:
Chapter 1: The Story of village Chapter 2: People As Resource Chapter 3: Poverty as a Challenge
Palampur

Super Learners Test Series I Super Learners Test Series II Super Learners Test Series III
History: History: Chapter.2: Socialism in Geography:
Chapter 1: The French Europe and The Russian Chapter 6: Population
Revolution Revolution Political Science: Chapter- 4:
Geography: Political Science: Working of Institutions
Chapter1: India: Size and Chapter2: Constitutional Design
Location

Half Yearly Examination Annual Examination


History: History:
Chapter 1: The French Revolution Chapter 1: The French Revolution
Chapter.2: Socialism in Europe and The Russian Chapter.2: Socialism in Europe and The Russian
Revolution Revolution
Chapter 4: Forest Society and Colonialism Chapter3: Nazism and the Rise of Hitler
Chapter 4: Forest Society and Colonialism (Only
( Only Why Deforestation) Why Deforestation)
Geography: Geography:
Chapter1: India: Size and Location Chapter1: India: Size and Location
Chapter2: Physical Features of India Chapter2: Physical Features of India
Chapter3: Drainage Chapter3: Drainage
Political Science: Chapter 4: Climate
Chapter 1: What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Chapter5: Natural Vegetation and Wildlife (Only
Chapter2: Constitutional Design Wildlife)
Chapter3: Electoral Politics Chapter 6: Population
Economics: Political Science:
Chapter2: People as Resource Chapter 1: What is Democracy? Why Democracy?
Chapter2: Constitutional Design
Chapter3: Electoral Politics
Chapter- 4: Working of Institutions
Chapter5: Democratic Rights
Economics:
Chapter2: People As Resource
Chapter3: Poverty as a Challenge
Chapter 4: Food Security in India
विषय : सिंस्कृि मावणका - भाग -1 C .B .S .E
व्याकरण - मणणका सांस्कृि व्याकरण
मास विषय -िस्तु गविविवियााँ
अप्रैल 2023 पाठ्यपुस्तक : पाठ- अत्तववेक: परमापदम ् *प्रश्नोिरी
व्याकरण – व्याकरण- उच्चारण स्र्ानातन *पररचचाथ
सांधध-(स्वर सांधध) शब्द रुप -सवथनाम शब्द-ककम ् िीनों *दै तनक जीवन से सांबलन्धि
ललांगों में , अस्मद्,यष्ु मद्, अकारान्ि पलु ल्लांग, आकारान्ि व्यवहाररक उदाहरण
स्त्रीललांग, इकारान्ि, उकारान्ि *कर्ा वाचन
धािु रुप-परस्मैपद, धचत्र वणथन।,
मई 2023ma पाठ— पार्ेयम ्,त्तवजयिाम ् स्वदे श: *पररचचाथ
व्याकरण- शब्द रुप, धािु रुप, धचत्र-वणथन, कर्ा लेखनां। *प्रश्नोिरी
त्तवषय सांवधथन गतित्तवधध कायथ *अलभनय मांचन
िि ् व एिि ् िीनों ललांगों में ,ईकारान्ि, ऊकारान्ि, श्लोकोच्चारण
ऋकारान्ि, धचत्र वणथनां
मास विषय -िस्तु गविविवियााँ
जून 2023 ग्रीष्मावकाश त्तवषय सांवधथन गतित्तवधध कायथ
पांजाब के प्रलसद्ध राजा महाराज
रणजीि लसांह के जीवन चररत्र पर
अलभनय मांचन
जुलाई 2023 पाठ- कमथणा याति सांलसद्धधां पररचचास
व्याकरण- धचत्र वणथन, प्रत्यय, सांख्यावाची शब्दा:(1-100) पठन पाठन

1-4 िीनों ललांगों में , सांवाद लेखनां उपसगाथ: कर्ा वाचन

अगस्त 2023 पाठ- िि ् त्वम ् अलस। सरल वाक्य रचना


व्याकरण- कारक व उपपद् त्तवभलक्ि, द्त्तविीया, िि
ृ ीया, पठन-पाठन
चिुर्ी) धचत्र वणथन, पत्र लेखनां, अपठठि गद्याांश, शब्द ईश्वर की महिा का वणथन
रुप व धािु रुप, अव्ययातन,
वसििंबर पन
ु रावत्तृ ि कायथ त्तवषय वस्िु का पन
ु बथलन
2023
अक्टू बर 2023 पाठ- िरव नमोऽस्िु, *प्रश्नोिरी
व्याकरण- कारक व उपपद् त्तवभलक्ि: पांचमी, षष्ठी, *पररचचाथ
सप्िमी उपसगाथ: परोपकार का महत्व

नििंबर 2023 पाठ न धमथ वद्


ृ धेषु वय: समीियिे अलभनय मांचन
व्याकरण - शब्द रुप, धािु रुप, कारक व उपपद् व्याकरणणक तनयम
त्तवभलक्ि (द्त्तविीया से सप्िमी) *प्रश्नोिरी
वदसिंबर 2023 पाठ- कवयालम, वयालम,यालम व्याकरण- अपठठि कर्ा वाचन
गद्याांश, धचत्र वणथन, पत्र लेखनां, सांवाद -लेखनां, त्तवषय
सांवधथन गतित्तवधध कायथ
जनिरी 2024 पाठ -भारिीय त्तवज्ञानां भारिेनालस्ि मे जीवनां जीवनम ् भारि के गौरव का ज्ञान
व्याकरण - शब्द रुप, पधािु रु, पत्र लेखनां, धचत्र वणथन कत्तविा वाचन
सांधध अपठठि गद्याांश
फरिरी 2024 पन
ु रावत्तृ ि: कायथ त्तवषय वस्िु का पन
ु बथलन
मूल्यांकन हेतु पयठ्यक्रम
आिविक परीिा I आिविक परीिा II आिविक परीिा III
पाठ- अत्तववेक: परमापदम ्, पाठ - त्तवजयिाम ् स्वदे श: पाठ- िरव नमोऽस्िु,
पार्ेयम ् पाठ - कमथणा याति सांलसद्धधां पाठ - न धमथ वद्
ृ धेषु वय:
व्यकरण - सांधध-(स्वर सांधध), , व्याकरण- सांख्या 1-100 ,उपसगाथ: समीियिे
धचत्र वणथन।, शब्द रुप- अकारान्ि, प्रत्यया: व्याकरण- शब्द रुप- ईकारान्ि,
आकारान्ि, इकारान्ि, उकारान्ि, कारक व उपपद् त्तवभलक्ि:(द्त्तविीया, ऊकारान्ि, ऋकारान्ि ्
धािु रुप, िि
ृ ीया, चिुर्ी) धािु रुप- परस्मैपद, आत्मनेपद
अपठठि गद्याांश, पत्र लेखनां कारक व उपपद् त्तवभलक्ि:( पांचमी,
सांवाद लेखनां षष्ठी ,सप्ि

अिसिावषसक परीिा िावषसक परीिा


अत्तववेक: परमापदम ् ,पार्ेयम ् कराया गया समस्त पाठ्यक्रम |
पाठ - त्तवजयिाम ् स्वदे श:
पाठ - कमथणा याति सांलसद्धधां
पाठ- िरव नमोऽस्ि,ु
पाठ - न धमथ वद्
ृ धेषु वय:
पाठ- िि ् त्वम ् अलस।
अपठठि गद्याांश, धचत्र वणथन, पत्र लेखनां, सांवाद, सांधध,
सांख्या, कारक व उपपद् त्तवभलक्ि:,उपसगाथ:, शब्द रुप,
धािु रुप

Subject: Information Technology (402) Book: Touchpad Information Technology by


Orange Publication
Month Content Activities
April 2023 Part B : 1. Identify and list the various IT enabled
Unit 1 : Introduction to IT & ITes was services.
(Theory) 2. Name any ten application software (apps) of
Unit 2 : Chapter 1 - Data Entry & IT enabled in various areas.
Keyboard Skills 3. Practice the correct typing ergonomics.
(Practical) 4. Practice to place fingers on correct key in four
different row of keyboard.
May 2023 Part B : 1. Identify the user interface of typing tutor
Unit 2 : Chapter 2 – Use typing 2. Practice to type text in typing tutor in lesson
software editor
Introduction to Digital Documentation 3. Calculate the typing speed
Part A : 4. Practice typing in Notepad (Writing Skills)
Unit 1 : Communication Skills 5. Create resume in Notepad (Writing Skills)
June 2023 Summer Vacation

July 2023 Part A : 1. Create document on yourself to do SWOT


Unit 2 : Self Management analysis
Part B : 2. Lab assignments to apply formatting features
Unit 3 : Digital Documentation : Word 3. Creation of e-invite and Guest list . Convert e-
Processor invite in personalized e-invite for each guest
using mail merge
August 2023 Part A : 1. Practice of ICT skills
Unit 3 : ICT Skills 2. Creation of e-mail account and composing
Unit 3 : e -mail mail
3. Scheduling mail
September Revision
2023
October Part B : Lab assignments on Spreadsheet creation
2023 Unit 4 : Lab assignment on Applying formulas in
Chapter 6 : Electronic Spreadsheet spreadsheets

Month Content Activities


November Part A : Lab assignment on Charts & Graph Analyzing
2023 Unit 4 : data
Chapter 5 : Entrepreneurship
Part B :
Unit 4 : Chapter 7 : Creating Charts
December Part A : Creation of ppt and presenting the same Group
2023 Unit 5 : Green Skills work
Part B :
Unit 5 : Digital Presentation
January Introduction to Python Program creation in Python
2024 Operators, if Clause, for loops
February Revision
2024
Syllabus For Assessments
Periodic Test I Periodic Test II Periodic Test III
Part B : Digital Documentation Electronic Spreadsheet
Unit 1 : Introduction to IT & Self Management
ITes (Theory)
Keyboard skills ( Practical)

Half Yearly Examination Annual Examination


Part A : Part A :
Unit 2 : Self Management Unit 2 : Self Management , Unit 3: ICT Skills
Unit 3: ICT Skills Unit 4 : Entrepreneurship
Part B : Part B :
Unit 1 : Introduction to IT-ITeS Industry Unit 1 : Introduction to IT-ITeS Industry
Unit 2 : Data entry and Keyboarding Skills Unit 2 : Data entry and Keyboarding Skills
Unit 3 : Digital documentation Unit 3 : Digital documentation , Unit 4 : Electronic
Spreadsheet , Unit 5 : Digital Presentation
Python Programs (Practical)

Subject: Art & Craft


Month Content
April 2023 Poster
1. Save Girl Child
2. Green Earth
Activity : Make a beautiful file cover
May 2023 Composition
1. Draw and colour in village scene
2. Draw and colour in a forest scene
Activity : Best out of waste activity
June 2023 Summer Break
July 2023 Still Life (Draw and Colour using Oil Pastels)
1. Bottle and Pot 2. Vegetables
Activity : Pot Designing
August 2023 Portrait
1. Draw & Colour in any one portrait of a freedom fighter
2. Portrait of a boy or a girl
Activity : Activity related to 15th of August
Tri-colours wall hanging
Month Content
September Half Yearly Exams
2023
October 2023 Folk Art
1. Draw and colour in a Rajasthani lady
Activity : Rangoli Design
November 2023 1. 3D drawing and shading
Activity : Collage Making
December 2023 1. Cartoon Characters (Draw and shade in any 4 characters)

Assignment
विषय : ह द
िं ी
अधिन्यास – 1 पाठ -1 दो बैलों की कथा और पाठ – 9 साखियााँ एििं सबद
प्रश्न 1. ननम्नललखित गदयािंश के आिार पर पछ
ू े गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए -
एक सप्िाह िक दोनों लमत्र वहााँ बाँधे पडे रहे । ककसी ने चारे का एक िण
ृ भी न डाला |हााँ ,एक बार पानी
ठदखा ठदया जािा र्ा। यही उनका आधार र्ा। दोनों इिने दब
ु ल
थ हो गए र्े कक उठा िक न जािा र्ा ;ठठररयााँ
तनकल आई र्ीां | एक ठदन बाडे के सामने डुग्गी बजने लगी और दोपहर होिे-होिे वहााँ पचास -साठ आदमी
जमा हो गए |िब दोनों लमत्र तनकाले गए और उनकी दे खभाल होने लगी।लोग आ-आकर उनकी सरू ि दे खिे
और मन फीका करके चले जािेl ऐसे मि
ृ क बैलों का कौन खरीददार होिा?
(क) एक सप्िाह िक दोनों लमत्र कहााँ बाँधे पडे रहे ?
(ख) प्रस्िुि गद्याांश में दोनों लमत्रों के क्या नाम र्े ?
(ग) बैलों को क्यों बाहर तनकाला गया र्ा ?
(घ) प्रस्िुि गद्याांश के लेखक कौन हैं?
(ङ) दोनों बैल क्या न लमलने के कारण दब
ु ल
थ हो गए र्े ?
प्रश्न 2 ननम्नललखित पहठत पदयािंश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के ललए स ी विकल्प चुनकर ललखिए -
मोकों कहााँ ढ़ाँू ढ़े बांदे ,मैं िो िेरे पास में।
ना मैं दे वल ना मैं मलस्जद ,ना काबे कैलास में ।
ना िो कौने किया -कमथ में ,नहीां योग वैराग में।
खोजी होय िो िुरिे लमललहों ,पल भर की िलास में।
कहें कबीर सुनो भाई साधो ,सब स्वासों की स्वास में।
(क) प्रस्तुत कावयािंश की भाषा ै -
(i) ब्रज (ii) अवधी (iii)खडीबोली (iv) सधुक्कडी
(ि) प्रस्तुत पद में ’ मोको ’ शब्द ककसके ललए प्रयुक्त ककया गया ै ?
(i) ईश्वर (ii) मनुष्य (iii)साधु (iv) उपयक्
ुथ ि सभी
(ग) ईश्िर को क ााँ पाया िा सकता ै ?
(i) मांठदर में (ii)किया कमथ में (iii)सााँसों में (iv) मलस्जद में
(घ) प्रस्तुत कावयािंश में कौन – सी भजक्त ै ?
(i) सगुण (ii)तनगण
ुथ (iii) आध्यालत्मक (iv) इनमें से कोई नहीां
(ङ) ‘ सब स्िासों की स्िास में’ कौन – सा अलिंकार ै ?
(i) मानवीकरण (ii) अतिश्योलक्ि (iii) अनप्र
ु ास (iv) उत्प्रेिा
प्रश्न 3 . ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के लघु उत्तर ललखिए –
(क) काांजीहौस में हालिरी लेने कौन आया र्ा ?
(ख) ‘बतछया का िाऊ’ ककसे कहा गया है ?
(ग) झरू ी की पत्नी ने बैलों को नमक हराम क्यों कहा ?
(घ) छोटी बच्ची ककसकी र्ी ?
(ङ) त्तवष कब अमि
ृ बन जािा है ?
(च) कबीरदास ने सांसार की िुलना ककससे की है ?
अधिन्यास – 2 पाठ -2 ल् ासा की ओर और पाठ – 10 िाि
प्रश्न 1. ननम्नललखित गदयािंश के आिार पर पछ
ू े गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर चन
ु कर ललखिए -
दस
ू रे ठदन हम घोडों पर सवार होकर ऊपर की ओर चले l डााँडे से पठहले एक जगह चाय पी और दोपहर
के वक्ि डााँडे के ऊपर जा पहुाँचे l हम समद्र
ु िल से 17 – 18 हिार फीट ऊाँचे र्े l हमारी दलक्खन िरफ परू ब
से पलश्चम की ओर ठहमालय के हजारों श्वेि लशखर चले गए र्े l भीटे की ओर ठदखने वाले पहाड बबलकुल
नांगे र्े,न वहााँ बफथ की सफ़ेदी र्ी , न ककसी िरह की हररयाली l उिर की िरफ बहुि कम बफ़थ वाली चोठटयााँ
ठदखाई पडिी र्ीां l सवोच्च स्र्ान पर डााँडे के दे विा का स्र्ान र्ा ,जो पत्र्रों के ढे र , जानवरों के सीांगों और
रां ग – बबरां गे कपडे की झांडडयों से सजाया गया र्ा l अब हमें बराबर उिराई पर चलना र्ा l

(क) लेिक डााँडे के ऊपर कब िा प ु ाँचे ?


(i) सुबह (ii) शाम (iii) दोपहर (iv)इनमें से कोई नहीां
(ि) भीटे की ओर हदिने िाले प ाड़ कैसे थे ?
(i) हरे – भरे (ii) बफीले (iii) नांगे (iv) उपयक्
ुथ ि सभी
(ग) सिोच्च स्थान पर ककसका स्थान था ?
(i) डााँडे की दे वी का (ii) डााँडे के दे विा का (iii)डााँडे के लोगों का (iv) इनमें से ककसी का नहीां
(घ) प्रस्तुत गदयािंश के लेिक कौन ैं?
(i) राहुल दे व (ii)प्रेमचांद (iii)राहुल साांकृत्यायन (iv) जाबबर हुसैन
(ङ) लेिक समुद्रतल से ककतने ज़ार फीट ऊाँचाई पर थे ?
(i) 13-14 (ii)15 -16 (iii) 18- 19 (iv) 17-18
प्रश्न 2 ननम्नललखित पहठत पदयािंश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर ललखिए -
रस्सी कच्चे धागे की , खीांच रही मैं नाव l
जाने कब सुन मेरी पुकार , करे दे व भवसागर पार l
पानी टपके कच्चे सकोरे , व्यर्थ प्रयास हो रहे मेरे l
जी में उठिी रह –रह हूक , घर जाने की चाह है घेरे l
(क) ‘ रह – रह ‘ शब्द में कौन – सा अलांकार है ?
(ख) प्रस्िुि वाख में ’ कच्चे धागे ’ ककसका प्रिीक है ?
(ग) ‘भवसागर’ ककसे कहा गया है
(घ) ‘रस्सी‘ ककसके ललए प्रयक्
ु ि हुआ है ?
(ङ) कवतयत्री के कौन – से प्रयास व्यर्थ हो रहे हैं ?
प्रश्न 3 . ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के लघु उत्तर ललखिए –
(क) ‘जेब टटोलने’ से क्या आशय है ?
(ख) कवतयत्री ककसे अपनी पक
ु ार सन
ु ाना चाहिी है ?
(ग) कवतयत्री की दृलष्ट में ज्ञानी कौन है ?
(घ) तिब्बि की िमीनों पर ककनका आधधपत्य र्ा ?
(ङ) सुमति का वास्ित्तवक नाम क्या र्ा ?
(च) तिब्बि में ककस धमथ के अनय
ु ायी रहिे हैं ?
(छ) शेकर त्तवहार का मणु खया कौन र्ा ?
(ज) सम
ु ति अपने यजमानों को क्या बााँटिा र्ा ?

अधिन्यास –3 पाठ -3 उपभोक्तािाद की सिंस्कृनत , सिंिाद और िाक्य


प्रश्न 1. ननम्नललखित गदयािंश के आिार पर पछ
ू े गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर ललखिए -
त्तवलालसिा को सामधग्रयों से बािार भरा पडा है , जो आपको लुभाने की जी िोड कोलशश में तनरां िर लगी
रहिी हैं। दै तनक जीवन में काम आने वाली वस्िुओां को ही लीलजए। टूर्-पेस्ट चाठहए? यह दााँिों को मोिी जैसा
चमकीला बनािा है , यह मुाँह की दग
ु ध
ं हटािा है । यह मसूडों को मजबूि करिा है और यह पूणथ सुरिा' दे िा है।
वह सब करके जो िीन-चार पेस्ट अलग-अलग करिे हैं, ककसी पेस्ट का 'मैलजक' फामल
ूथ ा है । कोई बबूल या नीम
के गुणों से भरपूर है , कोई ऋत्तष-मुतनयों द्वारा स्वीकृति िर्ा मान्य वनस्पति और खतनज ित्त्वों के लमश्रण से
बना है। जो चाहे चुन लीलजए। यठद पेस्ट अच्छा है िो बुश भी अच्छा होना चाठहए। आकार, रां ग, बनावट, पहुाँच
और सफ़ाई की िमिा में अलग-अलग, एक से बढ़कर एक। मुाँह की दग ु ध
ं से बचने के ललए माउर्वाश भी
चाठहए। सूची और भी लांबी हो सकिी है पर इिनी चीिों का ही बबल काफ़ी बडा हो जाएगा, क्योंकक आप शायद
बहुत्तवज्ञात्तपि और कीमिी ब्राांड खरीदना ही पसांद करें ।
(क) त्तवलालसिा की सामधग्रयााँ क्या करिी हैं?
(ख) बािार ककससे भरा पडा है ?
(ग) मुाँह की दग
ु ध
ं से बचने के ललए क्या चाठहए ?
(घ) इिनी चीिों का ही बबल काफ़ी बडा क्यों हो जाएगा ?
(ङ) प्रस्िुि गद्याांश कहााँ से ललया गया है ?
प्रश्न 2. ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के लघु उत्तर ललखिए –
(क) भारि में पहले से ही ककस सांस्कृति के ित्व रहे हैं ?
(ख) हमारी मानलसकिा को कौन बदल रहा है ?
(ग) भत्तवष्य के ललए बडी चुनौिी क्या है ?
(घ) हम ककसके उपतनवेश बन गए हैं ?
(ङ) ककसका घोर अपव्यय हो रहा है ?
प्रश्न 3 परीिा उपराांि दो छात्रों के बीच 80 शब्दों में सांवाद ललणखए l
प्रश्न 4 तनम्नललणखि प्रश्नों के ललए उधचि त्तवकल्प चन
ु कर ललणखए -
(क) ‘इस समय क ााँ लमलेगी दिाई l ‘ ककस प्रकार का िाक्य ै ?
(i) त्तवधानवाचक (ii) प्रश्नवाचक (iii) त्तवस्मयाठदबोधक (iv) तनषेधात्मक
(ि) ननम्नललखित िाक्यों में सिंकेतिाचक िाक्य कौन – सा ै ?
(i)िेि हवा चल रही है l (ii)िम
ु यहााँ से जाओ l
(iii)शायद आज बाररश हो l (iv)अगर नौकरी लमल जािी िो बहन की शादी कर दे िा l
(ग) ‘सिंभितः ट्रे न लमल िाए l ‘ िाक्य ै -
(i) सांदेह्वाचक (ii) प्रश्नवाचक (iii) आज्ञावाचक (iv) इच्छावाचक
(घ) ‘आइए , किल्म दे िे l ‘ ककस प्रकार का िाक्य ै ?
(i) प्रश्नवाचक (ii) त्तवधानवाचक (iii) सांकेिवाचक (iv) इच्छावाचक

अधिन्यास – 4 पाठ -4 सााँिले सपनों की याद और पाठ -11 सिैये


प्रश्न 1 ननम्नललखित पहठत गदयािंश को पढ़कर पछ
ू े गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर ललखिए -
अपने लांबे रोमाांचकारी जीवन में ढे र सारे अनभ
ु वों के माललक साललम अली एक ठदन केरल की ‘साइलेंट वैली
‘ को रे धगस्िानी हवा के झोंकों से बचाने का अनुरोध लेकर चौधरी चरण लसांह से लमले l वे प्रधानमांत्री र्े l
चौधरी साहब गााँव की लमट्टी पर पडने वाली पानी की पहली बाँद
ू का असर जानने वाले नेिा र्े l पयाथवरण के
सांभात्तवि खिरों का जो धचत्र साललम अली ने उनके सामने रखा , उसने उनकी आाँखें नम कर दी र्ीां l आज
साललम अली नहीां हैं l चौधरी साहब भी नहीां हैं lकौन बचा है ,जो अब सौंधी माटी पर उगी फसलों के बीच
एक नए भारि की नीांव रखने का सांकल्प लेगा ?कौन बचा है , जो अब ठहमालय और लद्दाख की बफीली
िमीनों पर जीने वाले पक्षियों की वकालि करे गा ?

(क) साललम अली ककससे लमले र्े ?


(ख) लेखक ने लद्दाख की बफीली िमीन पर जीने वाले पक्षियों का वकील ककसे कहा है ?
(ग) प्रस्िुि गद्याांश के लेखक कौन हैं ?
(घ) प्रस्िुि पाठ ककस त्तवधा में ललखा गया है ?
(ड.) चौधरी साहब कैसे नेिा र्े ?
प्रश्न 2 ननम्नललखित पहठत कावयािंश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर ललखिए -
मानुष हौं िो वही रसखातन बसौं ब्रज गोकुल गााँव के ग्वारन।
जौ पसु हौं िो कहा बस मेरो चरौ तनि नांद की धेनु माँझारन॥
पाहन हौं िो वही धगरर को जो ककयो हरर छत्र पुरांदर धारन।
जो खग हौं िो बसेरो करौं लमलल काललांदी कूल कदां ब की डारन ll
(क) प्रस्िुि पद्याांश के कत्तव कौन हैं ?
(ख) कत्तव कहााँ का ‘पाहन ‘ बनना चाहिे हैं?
(ग) कत्तव पशु के रूप में ककनके बीच रहना चाहिे हैं ?
(घ) प्रस्िुि पद्याांश की भाषा कौन- सी है ?
(ड.) कत्तव पिी बनकर कहााँ बसेरा करना चाहिे हैं
प्रश्न 3 . ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के लघु उत्तर ललखिए –
(क) साललम अली की मत्ृ यु लगभग ककिने वषथ की आयु में हुई ?
(ख) ‘ साइलेंट वैली ‘ को ककससे खिरा र्ा ?
(ग) लेखक ने साललम अली की िुलना ककससे की है ?
(घ) साललम अली की आत्मकर्ा का क्या नाम र्ा ?
(ङ) साललम अली का कौन – सा सफ़र अन्य सफरों से लभन्न र्ा ?
(च) श्रीकृष्ण की मुरली की िान कैसी है ?
(छ) रसखान की कत्तविा का मल
ू भाव क्या है ?
(ज) गोपी से क्या नहीां सांभाली जािी ?
(झ) ‘ सााँवले सपनों की याद ‘ पाठ के लेखक कौन हैं ?

अधिन्यास – 5 समास ,उपसगग,प्रत्यय ,अलिंकार , ई – मेल एििं लघक


ु था लेिन
प्रश्न 1 ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के ललए उधचत विकल्प चन
ु कर ललखिए -
(क) रे िािंककत शब्द में प्रयुक्त समास छााँटकर बताइए –
त्तवदरु जी नीतितनपुण र्े l
(i) कमथधारय समास (ii) बहुव्रीठह समास (iii) ित्पुरुष समास (iv) द्वांद्व समास
(ि)ननम्नललखित में से कौन –से शब्द में ब ु व्रीह समास न ीिं ै ?
(i) चिभ
ु ज
ुथ (ii) धगररधर (iii) बेखटके (iv) मेघनाद
(ग) ‘ त्रिनेि ‘ शब्द में प्रयुक्त समास ै -
(i) ित्पुरुष समास (ii) द्त्तवगु समास (iii) अव्ययीभाव समास (iv) द्वांद्व समास
(घ) ‘जिसकी लमसाल न ो ‘ समास – विग्र में कौन – सा समास ै ?
(i) द्वांद्व समास (ii) द्त्तवगु समास (iii) अव्ययीभाव समास (iv) ित्पुरुष समास
प्रश्न 2 ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के ललए उधचत विकल्प चुनकर ललखिए -
(क) ‘अतनच्छा’ शब्द में उपसगथ है -
(i) अ (ii) अतन (iii) अन ् (iv)इनमें से कोई नहीां
(ख)’तनस्सांदेह’ शब्द में उपसगथ है -
(i) नी (ii) तनर् (iii) तन (iv) नीर्
(ग)प्रत्यय ककिने प्रकार के हैं ?
(i) िीन (ii) पााँच (iii) दो (iv)चार
(घ)‘इक ‘ प्रत्यय से युक्ि शब्द नहीां है -
(i) पौराणणक (ii) साठहलत्यक (iii) अतनच्छा (iv) धालमथक
प्रश्न 3 ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के ललए उधचत विकल्प चुनकर ललखिए -
(क) ननम्नललखित में से कौन – सा अनुप्रास अलिंकार का उद ारण ै ?
(i) िीन बेर खािी र्ीां वे िीन बेर खािी है l (ii) हररपद कोमल कमल – से l
(iii ) मांगन को दे णख पट दे ि बार – बार है l (iv) रघप
ु ति राघव राजा राम l
(ि) ‘तेरी बरछी ने बर छीने ैं िलन के’ में कौन –सा अलिंकार ै ?
(i) अनप्र
ु ास (ii) यमक (iii) श्लेष (iv) मानवीकरण
(ग) ‘ ाय ! फूल - सी कोमल बच्ची ‘ में प्रयक्
ु त अलिंकार ै -
(i) उपमा (ii) यमक (iii) रूपक (iv) अनप्र
ु ास
(घ )’आए म िंत बसिंत ‘ में प्रयुक्त अलिंकार ै -
(i) रूपक (ii) यमक (iii) उपमा (iv) अनुप्रास
प्रश्न4. अपने त्तवद्यालय के प्रधानाचायथ को बीमारी हे िु दो ठदन के अवकाश के ललए ई – मेल ललणखए l
प्रश्न5 . ‘ जैसे को िैसा ‘ त्तवषय पर 100 शब्दों में एक लघक
ु र्ा ललणखए l

अधिन्यास – 6 पाठ 6 प्रेमचिंद के फटे ित


ू े , पाठ 12 कैदी और कोककला
प्रश्न 1 ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के ललए उधचत विकल्प चन
ु कर ललखिए -
टोपी आठ आने में लमल जािी है और जि
ू े उस िमाने में भी पााँच रुपये से कम में क्या लमलिे होंगे। जि
ू ा
हमेशा टोपी से कीमिी रहा है । अब िो जि
ू े की कीमि और बढ़ गई है और एक जि
ू े पर पचीसों टोत्तपयााँ
न्योछावर होिी हैं। िुम भी जूिे और टोपी के अनुपातिक मूल्य के मारे हुए र्े। यह त्तवडांबना मुझे इिनी िीव्रिा
से पहले कभी नहीां चुभी, लजिनी आज चुभ रही है , जब मैं िुम्हारा फटा जूिा दे ख रहा हूाँ। िुम महान कर्ाकार,
उपन्यास-सम्राट, युग-प्रविथक, जाने क्या-क्या कहलािे र्े ,मगर फोटो में भी िुम्हारा जूिा फटा हुआ है |
(i) टोपी और जूिे के मूल्य में क्या सांबांध रहा है?
(क) दोनों का मूल्य बराबर रहा है (ख) टोपी का मूल्य अधधक रहा है
(ग) टोपी का मूल्य जूिे से सदै व कम रहा है (घ) इनमें से कोई नहीां
(ii) जूिे पर टोत्तपयााँ न्योछावर होने का िात्पयथ क्या है ?
(क) गुणवानों के समि िाकिवर झुकिे हैं
(ख) िाकिवर के समि गुणवान भी झुकिे हैं
(ग) जूिा और टोपी पहने व्यलक्ि पर कोई भी न्योछावर हो सकिा है
(घ) एक जूिे का वजन कई टोत्तपयों के बराबर होिा है
(iii) प्रेमचांद जूिे और टोपी के अनुपातिक मूल्य के ककस िरह मारे र्े?
(क) प्रेमचांद का जूिा फटा पर टोपी ठीक र्ी (ख) प्रेमचांद टोपी खरीद सकिे र्े ,पर जूिा नहीां
(ग) प्रेमचांद न टोपी खरीद सकिे र्े न जूिे(घ) प्रेमचांद को मान सम्मान िो लमलिा र्ा पर वे धनहीन र्े
(iv) लेखक को तनम्नललणखि में से कौन-सी त्तवडांबना चुभ रही है ?
(क) प्रेमचांद के गुणवान होने की त्तवडांबना
(ख) प्रेमचांद के उच्चकोठट के साठहत्यकार होने की त्तवडांबना
(ग) प्रेमचांद जैसे उच्च कोठट के साठहत्यकार के धनहीन होने की त्तवडांबना
(घ) प्रेमचांद के उपन्यास सम्राट होने की त्तवडांबना
(v) अब िो जूिे की कीमि और बढ़ गई है का भाव है -
(क) टोपी का दाम घट गया है (ख) जिू े बहुि महाँगे हो गए हैं
(ग) गण
ु वान को अधधक सम्मान ठदया जा रहा है (घ) िाकिवर को अब अधधक सम्मान ठदया जाने लगा है
प्रश्न 2 ननम्नललखित पहठत कावयािंश को पढ़कर पछ
ू े गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर ललखिए -
क्यों हूक पडी?
वेदना बोझ वाली-सी;
कोककल बोलो िो!
क्या लूटा?
मूदल
ु वैभव की
रखवाली-सी,
कोककल बोलो िो!
क्या हुई बावली?
अधथराबत्र को चीखी,
कोककल बोलो िो!
ककस दावानल की
ज्वालाएाँ हैं दीखीां?
कोककल बोलो िो!
(i) कत्तव को कोयल की हूक कैसी लग रही है ?
(ii) कत्तव कोयल से क्या पूछिा है ?
(iii) कत्तव ने कोयल की आवाज कब सुनी?
(iv) 'वेदना बोझ वाली-सी' के माध्यम से ककस ओर सांकेि ककया गया है ?
(v) 'मद
ृ ल
ु वैभव की रखवाली-सी' में कौन-सा अलांकार है ?
प्रश्न 3 ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर ललखिए -
1.राि के समय कत्तव ककससे बािें कर रहे र्े और क्यों ?
2. एक ओर कत्तव और कोयल में त्तवषमिा र्ी िो दस
ू री ओर कुछ समानिा भी है । उन समानिाओां का
उल्लेख अपने शब्दों में कीलजए।
3. कत्तव ने कोयल को बावली क्यों कहा है?
4. प्रेमचांद के जीवन से आज के युवाओां को क्या सीख लेना चाठहए ?
5 प्रेमचांद फोटो में कैसे नजर आ रहे र्े ?
6. लेखक और प्रेमचांद के जूिों में क्या अांिर र्ा ? स्पष्ट कीलजए |

अधिन्यास – 7 पाठ7 मेरे बचपन के हदन , पाठ13 ग्राम श्री


प्रश्न 1 ननम्नललखित पहठत गदयािंश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर ललखिए -
मेरी मािा जबलपुर से आई िब वे अपने सार् ठहांदी लाई। वे पूजा-पाठ भी बहुि करिी र्ीां। पहले-पहले उन्होंने
मुझको बाबा कहिे र्े, इसको हम त्तवदष
ु ी बनाएाँगे। मेरे सांबांध में उनका त्तवचार बहुि ऊाँचा रहा। इसललए 'पांचिांत्र'
भी पढ़ा मैंने, सांस्कृि भी पढ़ी। ये अवश्य चाहिे र्े कक मैं उदथ -ू फ़ारसी सीख लाँ ू, लेककन वह मेरे वश की नहीां र्ी।
मैंने जब एक ठदन मौलवी साहब को दे खा िो बस, दस
ू रे ठदन मैं चारपाई के नीचे जा तछपी। िब पांडडि जी आए
सांस्कृि पढ़ाने। मााँ र्ोडी सांस्कृि जानिी र्ीां। गीिा में उन्हें त्तवशेष रुधच र्ी। पज
ू ा-पाठ के समय मैं भी बैठ जािी
र्ी और सांस्कृि सन
ु िी र्ी।
1. लेणखका की मााँ कहााँ से आई र्ीां ?
(क) जबलपरु से (ख) कानपरु से (ग) रायपरु से (घ) नागपरु से
2. सबसे पहले लेणखका को ठहांदी पढ़ना ककसने लसखाया ?
(क) अध्यात्तपका ने (ख) मािा जी ने (ग) बाबा ने (घ) त्तपिा जी ने
3. लेणखका के बाबा उन्हें क्या बनाना चाहिे र्े ?
(क) लेणखका (ख) गातयका (ग) वैज्ञातनक (घ) त्तवदष
ु ी
4. लेणखका मौलवी साहब को दे खकर कहााँ तछप गई ?
(क) चारपाई के नीचे (ख) अलमारी के अांदर (ग) दरवािे के पीछे (घ) दीवार के ककनारे
5. लेणखका की मााँ की त्तवशेष रुधच ककसमें र्ी ?
(क) रामायण बााँचने में (ख) गीिा पढ़ने में (ग) कहानी सन
ु ाने में (घ) भजन गाने में
प्रश्न 2 ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के ललए उधचत विकल्प चन
ु कर ललखिए -
बालू के सााँपों से अांककि
गांगा की सिरां गी रे िी
सुांदर लगिी सरपि छाई
िट पर िरबूजों की खेिी;
अाँगुली की कांघी से बगुले
कलाँ गी साँवारिे हैं कोई,
तिरिे जल में सुरखाब, पुललन पर
मगरौठी रहिी सोई !
(i) रे ि सााँप के चलने से बने तनशान जैसी क्यों ठदखिी हैं?
(ii) िट पर की गई खेिी सुांदर लग रही है , क्यों?
(iii) जल में खडे बगुले क्या कर रहे हैं?
(iv) कौन-सा पिी अलसाया पडा है और कैसे?
(v) काव्याांश से उपमा और रूपक अलांकार का उदाहरण ललणखए।
प्रश्न 3. ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर का स ी विकल्प छााँटकर ललखिए -
(1) कोयल कब मिवाली हो उठिी है ?
(क) ग्रीष्म में (ख) शीि में (ग) बसांि में (घ) वषाथ में
(2) आनांद भवन तनम्नललणखि में से ककससे सांबांधधि र्ा ?
(ख)नेहरु से (ख) चांद्रशेखर आजाद (ग) गााँधी जी (घ) भगि लसांह

अधिन्यास – 8 पाठ15 मेघ आए , पाठ17 बच्चे काम पर िा र े ैं


प्रश्न 1. ननम्नललखित कावयािंश को पढ़कर पछ
ू े गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर ललखिए -
बढ़
ू े पीपल ने आगे बढ़कर जह
ु ार की,
'बरस बाद सधु ध लीन्हीां-
बोली अकुलाई लिा ओट हो ककवार की,
हरसाया िाल लाया पानी पराि भर के।
मेघ आए बडे बन ठन के साँवर के।
(i) मेघ के आने पर बूढ़े पीपल ने क्या ककया?
(ii) लिा ने बरस बाद आने की बाि क्यों कही?
(iii) बूढ़ा पीपल और लिा ककनके प्रिीक हैं?
(iv) लिा और िालाब ने भारिीय सांस्कृति का पालन ककस रूप में ककया ?
(v) काव्याांश से अनप्र
ु ास एवां मानवीकरण अलांकार का एक-एक उदाहरण ललणखए।
प्रश्न 2. ननम्नललखित कावयािंश को पढ़कर पछ
ू े गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए -
क्या अांिररि में धगर गई हैं सारी गें दें
क्या दीमकों ने खा ललया है
सारी रां ग बबरां गी ककिाबों को
क्या काले पहाड के नीचे दब गए हैं सारे णखलौने
क्या ककसी भूकांप में ढह गई हैं
सारे मदरसों की इमारिें
क्या सारे मैदान, सारे बगीचे और घरों के आाँगन
खत्म हो गए हैं एकाएक
1. काव्याांश का मूलभाव क्या है ?
2. गें दों के अांिररि में धगरने के माध्यम से कत्तव क्या कहना चाहिा है ?
3. कत्तव बच्चों के ललए क्या-क्या चाहिा है ?
4. काव्याांश की भाषा कैसी है ?
5. 'काले पहाड के नीचे णखलौने दबाना' के माध्यम से कत्तव ककस ओर सांकेि करिा है ?
प्रश्न 3. ननम्नललखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर विस्तार से दीजिए -
(क) मेघ का स्वागि िालाब ने ककस िरह ककया? ऐसा करके उसने ककस भारिीय परां परा का तनवाथह ककया
?
(ख) मेघ को नदी ने ककस िरह दे खा ?
(ग) मेघ के आने पर पेड अपनी खुशी ककस िरह प्रकट कर रहे र्े?
(घ ) कोहरे से ढाँ की सडक पर सुबह-सुबह बच्चों को काम पर जािे दे ख कत्तव को पीडा क्यों हो रही है ?
(ङ) कत्तव का त्तवषय विथमान युग की ज्वलांि समस्या कैसे है ?
(च) बच्चों के काम पर जाने के क्या -क्या कारण हो सकिे हैं ? अपने त्तववेक से ‘ बच्चे काम पर जा रहे
हैं’ कत्तविा के आलोक में ललणखए |
Subject : Mathematics
Chapter : 1 ( Number Systems)
Q.1 Write a rational number between √2 and √3.
2 3
Q.2 Write two irrational numbers between 5 and 4
Q.3 Simplify : √72 + √800 − √18
−3 −3
81 4 25 2 5 −3
Q.4 Simplify : (16) [( 9 ) ÷ (2) ]

Q.5 Check whether : 5 + 2.5 -√5 is an irrational or rational number.


Q.6 Give example of two irrational numbers, the product of which is (i) a rational number
(ii) an irrational number
Q.7 Locate √7 on number line.
Q.8 Represent √7. 5 on number line.
̅̅̅̅ + 1.27̅ in the form 𝑝
Q.9 Express 0.38 𝑞
1
Q.10 If x = 7 + 4 √3 , then find the value of x + 𝑥
1
Q.11 If x = √2 – 1 , then find the value of 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 2
1 𝑥+𝑦+𝑧
Q.13 Prove it : (i) (𝑎 + 𝑏)−1(𝑎−1 +𝑏 −1 ) =𝑎𝑏 (ii) = xyz
𝑥 −1 𝑦 −1 +𝑦 −1 𝑧 −1 +𝑥 −1 𝑧 −1
Q.14 Write 4√5 , 5√3 , 10, 3√7 , 6√2 in ascending order.
Q.15 State true or false.
(i) All fractions are rational numbers, but all rational numbers are not fractions.
(ii) All rational numbers are fractions but all fractions are not rational numbers.
(iii) The decimal expansion of an irrational number is terminating.
(iv) The decimal expansion of a rational number is non-terminating and non-
repeating.
Chapter: 2 (Polynomials)
Q.1 Write an example of an algebraic expression that is not a polynomial.
Q.2 p(x) = √𝑥 3 + 1 is not a polynomial. Give reason.
Q.3 If p(x) = 6x3 + 5x2 – 3x + 2 find p(-1)
Q.4 Find the zero of the polynomial p(y) = 2y + 7
Q.5 Find the remainder when x101 – 1 is divided by x -1
Q.6 Find whether xn + yn is divisible by x – y ( y ≠ 0) or not.
Q.7 Write the following polynomials in standard form (i) 4y- 4y3 + 3 –y 4 (ii) 5m3 -6m +7 –
2m2
Q.8 Factorize : 7√2𝑥 2 -10x -4√𝑥
Q.9 If y= -1 is a zero of the polynomial q (y) = 4y3 + ky2 - y -1, then find the value of k
Q.10 For what value of m is x3 – 2mx2 + 16 divisible by x + 2
1 1
Q.11 If x + 𝑥 = 5, find the value of x3 +𝑥 3
Q.12 The polynomials x3 + 2x2 -5ax -7 and x3 + ax2 –12x +6 when divided by x + 1 and x – 2
respectively, leave remainders R1 and R2 respectively. Find the value of a in each of
the following cases: (i) R1 = R2 (ii) R1 + R2 =0 (iii) 2R1 + R2= 0
Q.13 If a + b + c = 9 and ab + bc + ca = 26, find a2 + b2 + c 2
Q.14 Find the zeroes of (x- 2)2 – (x+2)2
Q.15 Factorise p(x) = x4 + x3 – 7x2 –x + 6 by factor theorem
Q.16 Prove that 2x4 – 6x3 + 3x2 + 3x – 2 is exactly divisible by x2 – 3x +2 (i) by actual
division (ii) without actual division
Q.17 When a polynomial p(x) = x 4 – 2x3 + 3x2 – ax + b is divisible by x – 1 and x + 1, the
remainders are 5 and 19 respectively. Find the remainder when p(x) is divided by x – 2.
1
Q.18 If x – 3 and x – 3 are both factors of ax2 + 5x + b , show that a = b
Q.19 Factorize: (i) 3(x+2)2 – 5(x+2)+ 2 (ii) x 6 + y6 (iii.) 3√3x 3 – 5√5y3

Chapter :3(Coordinate Geometry)


Q.1 Find the perpendicular distance of the point P (7, 3) from the y axis.
Q.2. In which quadrant does the point (4,-2) lie?
Q.3 If both the coordinates of a point are positive, in which quadrant does it lie?
Q.4 Find the coordinates of the point
a. Which lies both on x and y axis
b. Whose abscissa is 5 and lies on x axis
c. Whose ordinate is -3 and lies on v axis
Q.5 Write the coordinates of the vertices of a rectangle whose length and breadth are 7 and
4 units respectively, one vertex at the origin, the longer side lies on the x axis and one
of the vertices lies in the third quadrant. Plot the point (2, 3), (3, 2), (1, -5) and check
whether they are collinear or not.
Q.6 Write the mirror image of the point (2, 5) on the x - axis.
Q.7 Plot the points A (2, 5); B (-2, 2) and C (4, 2) on a graph paper. Join AB, BC and AC.
Calculate the area of A ABC.
Q.8 Three vertices of a rectangle ABCD are A (3, 1); B (-3, 1) and C (-3, 3). Plot these points
on a graph paper and find the coordinates of the fourth vertex D.
Chapter :4 ( Linear Equations in Two Variables)
Q1 Express the following linear equations in the form ax + by + c = 0 and indicate the
value of a, b and c in each case: (i) x – y/5 – 10 = 0 (ii) y – 2 = 0
Q.2 Draw the graph of each of the following linear equations in two variables: (i) y = 3x (ii) 3
= 2x + y
Q.3 If the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = ax + 7, find the value of a.
Q.4 Show that the points A (1, 2), B ( – 1, – 16) and C (0, – 7) lie on the graph of the linear
equation y = 9x – 7.
Q.5 Find m, if point (7,-3) lies on the equation(y-3/7)=m(x-2/7).
Q.6 A fraction becomes 1/3 ,if 2 is added to both numerator and denominator. If 3 is added
to both numerator and denominator it becomes 2/5. Assuming the original fraction to be
x/y,form a pair of linear equations in two variables for it.
Q.7 Draw the graph of the linear equation y= mx + c for m=1/2 and c=3/2 .Read from the
graph ,the value of x ,when y=4.5.
Q.8 Draw the graph of the linear equation 3x + 4y = 6. At what points, the graph cuts x and
y-axis?
Q.9 If the work done by a body on application of a constant force is directly proportional to
The distance travelled by the body, express this in the form of an equation in two
variables and draw the graph of the same by taking the constant force as 5 units. Also
read from the graph the work done when the distance travelled by the body is:2 units and
0 unit.
Q.10 The taxi fare in a city is as follows: For the first kilometre, the fare is ₹ 8 and for the
subsequent distance it is ₹ 5 per km. Taking the distance covered as x km and total
fare as ₹ y, write a linear equation for this information, and draw its graph.
Q.11 Write the linear equation such that each point on its graph has an ordinate 3 times its

abscissa.
Q.12 Give the geometric representations of 2x+9 = 0 as an equation: a) in one variable b)in
two variables
Q.13 Raj tells his daughter Aarvi, ‘Seven years ago, I was seven times as old as you were
then also, three years from now, I shall be three times as old as you will be.’ If the
present ages of Aarvi and Raj are x and y years respectively, represent this situation
algebraically as well as graphically.
Q.14 A and B are friends. A is elder to B by 5 years. B’s sister C is half the age of B while A’s
father D is 8 years older than twice the age of B. If the present age of D is 48 years, find
the present ages of A, B and C.
Q.15 The parking charge for vehicles in super Delhi Metro is Rs 20 for first two hrs and Rs.
10 for subsequent hr. Assume total parking time to be x hrs. (where x≥ 2) and total
Parking charge as y. Write the linear equation for above relation and draw graph. Find
the parking charges for 5 hrs from Graph
Q.16 Thrice the cost of a kettle is equal to five times the cost of an oven. Write a linear
equation in two variables to represent this statement.
Q.17 Draw the graph of the equation y = mx + c for m = 3 and c = -1 (a straight line in
Cartesian plane).From the Graph , write the value of y when x = 2.
Q.18 If x is the number of hours a labourer is on work and y is his wages in rupees, then y =
4x + 3. Draw the work wages graph of this equation. From the graph, find the wages of
A labourer who puts in 4 hours of work.
Q.19 Ram is half of his father’s age. Twenty years ago the age of father was six times age
of Ram. Find the present ages of Ram and his father.
Q.20 Find the coordinates of the points where the line represented by the linear equation
y= 2x- 4 intersects x-axis and y-axis.
Chapter: 5 ( Introduction to Euclid*s Geometry)
Q.1 State two equal versions of Euclid fifth postulate.
Q.2 If lines AB, AC, AD and AE are parallel to a line l , show that the points A,B,C, D and E are
collinear.
Q.3 What is an axiom ? Give example.
Q.4 Write all the Axioms & Postulates.
Chapter : 6 ( Lines and Angles)
𝑥 𝑦
Q.1 If 2 = 3 = k and x+ y = 900 then find the values of x - y.
Q.2 If a+200 = b+300 =900 then find the complement of a and b.
Q.3 Find y, if x=360 as per the given figure.

x 4y

A 2y
3x B

Q.4 If 4a+200 = 5b + 300 = 1800 then find the supplement of a and b.


Q.5 If a + 2000 forms a complete angle , find the supplement of a.
Q.6 If 6x+200, 9y + 300 and 3z+400 forms a complete angle, then what is the relationship between
x,y,z.
Q.7 Find ∠DOE in the figure given below.
E
B

400 310
C D

F
A

Q.8 How many degrees are there in an angle which equals to one fifth of its supplementary
angle ?
1 3 2 1
Q.9 If 6 ∠A=10, ∠B=12, ∠C=3600 where 2 ∠A +24 ∠B + 25 ∠C + 12 ∠x = 3600. Find the value of
x.
Q.10 If ∠x=(52)0 , ∠y=100 and ∠z=(43)0 then find the reflex angle of x + y + z.
Q.11 In the figure BC ǁ DE , then ∠ADE= ? C

E
B x0
1120

150
A
Q.12 The figure , l,m and n are parallel lines and the lines p and q are also parallel.Then find a 0 + b0
– c0 = ? l m n

3b 5c
> p

4a 1200
> q

Q.13 At 5’0 clock, find the angle between the minute and hour hand in a clock.
Q.14 In the figure, AB ǁ CD. Find x0
E

x0
1250
C D

1300
A B
Q.15 In the figure , AB ǁ CD and ∠F = 300. Find ∠ECD
F

300

E
>
A B

>
C D

Chapter :7( Triangles)

Q.1 In the given figure, triangles PQC and PRC are such that QC = PR and PQ = CR. Prove
that ∠PCQ = ∠CPR.
Q.2 In the given figure, AB = AD, AC = AE and ∠BAD = ∠EAC, then prove that BC = DE.

Q.3 ΔPQR is given and the sides QP and RP have been produced to S and T such that PQ =
PS and PR = PT. Prove that the segment QR || ST.
Q.4 In the given figure, AB = BC and ∠ABO = ∠CBO, then prove that ∠DAB = ∠ECB.

Q.5 In the given figure, AD is bisector of ∠BAC and ∠CPD = ∠BPD. Prove that ΔCAP ≌ ΔBAP.

Q.6 In the given figure, PS is median produced up to F and QE and RF are perpendiculars
drawn from Q and R, prove that QE = RF.

Q.7 In the given figure, equilateral ΔABD and ΔACE are drawn on the sides of a ΔABC. Prove
that CD = BE.

Q.8 Assertion and Reasoning Questions: Choose the correct option from these questions
a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion is false but reason is true

1) Assertion : In the given figure, X and Y are respectively two points on equal sides AB and
AC of ΔABC such that AX = AY then CX = BY.
Reason: If two sides and the included angle of one triangle are equal to two sides and the included
angle of the other triangle, then the two triangles are congrue

2) Assertion : In the given figure, BO and CO are the bisectors of ∠B and ∠C respectively.

If ∠A = 50° then ∠BOC = 115°

Reason: The sum of all the interior angles of a triangle


3) Assertion: Two angles measures a – 60° and 123º – 2a. If each one is opposite to equal sides of
an isosceles triangle, then the value of a is 61°.
Reason: Sides opposite to equal angles of a triangle are

4) Assertion: Assertion : In ΔABC, ∠C = ∠A, BC = 4 cm and AC = 5 cm. Then, AB = 4 cm

Reason: In a triangle, angles opposite to two equal sides are

5) Assertion: In ΔABC, BC = AB and B = 80°. Then, ∠A = 50°


Reason: In a triangle, angles opposite to two equal sides are equal

6) Assertion : Sides opposite to equal angles of a triangle are equal.

Reason: Angles opposite to equal sides of a triangle are not equal.

7) Assertion: In triangles ABC and PQR, ∠A = ∠P, ∠C = ∠R and AC = PR. The two triangles are
congruent by ASA congruence.
Reason: If two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to two angles and the included
side of the other triangle, then the two triangles are congruent.

8) Assertion : In ΔABC, AB = AC and ∠B = 50°, then ∠C is 50°.

Reason: Angles opposite to equal sides of a triangle are equal


9) Assertion : ΔABC and ΔDBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC and vertices A and
D are on the same side of BC. If AD is extended to intersect BC at E, then ΔABD ≅ ΔACD
Reason: If in two right triangles, hypotenuse and one side of a triangle are equal to the hypotenuse
and one side of other triangle, then the two triangles are congruent.

10) Assertion: In triangles ABC and PQR, ∠A = ∠P, ∠C = ∠R and AC = PR. The two triangles are
congruent by ASA congruence.
Reason: If two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to two angles and the included
side of the other triangle, then the two triangles are
Chapter :8 (Quadrilaterals)

Q.1 Choose the correct option:

(i) In which of the following the diagonals are equal?


(a) Parallelogram (b) Rhombus (c) Rectangle (d) trapezium
(ii) In a parallelogram ABCD, if ∠DAB = 75° and ∠DBC = 60°, then ∠BDC is –
(a) 75° ( b) 60° ( c.) 45° ( d) 55°
(iii) A quadrilateral in which the diagonals are equal and bisect each other at right angles is a
(a) Rectangle which is not a square (b) Rhombus which is not a square
(c) kite which is not a square (d) square
(iv) A diagonal of rectangle is inclined to one side of the rectangle at 25°. The acute angle
between the diagonal is
(a) 55° (b) 50° (c) 40° (d) 25°
(v) A diagonal of a rectangle is inclined to one side of the rectangle at 25°. The acute angle
between the diagonals is
(a) 55° (b) 50° (c) 40° (d0 25°
Q.2 Fill in the blanks
(i) A quadrilateral will be a parallelogram if and only if its diagonals __________ each
other.
(ii) The angles of a quadrilateral are 75°, 90° 75° . Then fourth angle is ___________ .
(iii) If all the angles of a parallelogram are equal then it will be a -------------- .
(iv) In parallelogram both pair of adjacent angles are ----------------
(v) A quadrilateral in which diagonals are equal and bisect each other at 90° is a -----------
Answer the following:
Q.3 Two consecutive angles of parallelogram are in the ratio 2:3. Find the smaller angle.
Q.4 If ABCD is rectangle with ∠BAC = 32° , find the measure of ∠DBC.
Q.5 The diagonal of a rectangle ABCD intersect at the point O . If ∠BOC = 50°, then
Find ∠OAD.
Q.6 In a triangle ABC, AD is the median and DE II AB . Prove that BE is the median.
Q.7 E and F are points on diagonal AC of a parallelogram ABCD such that AE =CF. Show
that BFDE is a parallelogram.
Q.8 Show that the line segment joining the mid-points of the opposite sides of a
Quadrilateral bisect each other.
Q.9 ABC is a triangle and through vertices A, B and C lines are drawn parallel to BC, AC
and AB respectively intersecting at D, E and F. Prove that perimeter of ΔDEF is double
the perimeter of △ABC
Q.10 ABCD is a parallelogram in which E is mid-point of AD. DF∥EB meeting AB produced
at F and BC at L prove that DF=2DL
Chapter : 9 (Circles)
Q1.In the figure, O is the centre of a circle passing through points A, B, C and D and
∠ADC =120°. Find the value of x.

Q.2 In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, ∠AOB = 60°
and CDB = 90°. Find ∠OBC.

Q.3 In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle with chords AP and BP being produced to R
and Q respectively. If ∠QPR = 35°, find the measure of ∠AOB.

Q.4 In the figure, PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral. Find the value of x.

Q.5 In the given figure, ∠ACP = 40° and BPD = 120°, then find ∠CBD.

Q.6 In the figure, chord AB of circle with centre O, is produced to Csuch that BC = OB. CO is
joined and produced to meet the circle in D. If ∠ACD = y and ∠AOD = x, show that x = 3y.

Q.7 Two circles whose centres are O and O’ intersect at P. Through P, a line parallel to OO’,
intersecting the circles at C and D is drawn as shown in the figure. Prove that CD = 2OO’.

Q.8 ABCD is a parallelogram. The circle through A, B and C through A, B and C intersects

(produce if necessary) at E. Prove that AE = AD.

Q.8 In the given figure, AC is a diameter of the circle with centre O. Chord BD is
perpendicular
to AC. Write down the measures of angles a, b, c and d in terms of x.
Chapter :10 (Heron's Formula)
Q.1 Find the length of each side of an equilateral triangle having an area of .
Q.2 Find the area of an isosceles triangle having base 2 cm and the length of one of the equal
is 4 cm.
Q.3 How many times area is changed, when sides of a triangle are doubled.
5
Q.4 If the perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 11 cm and its base is 5cm, its area is 4
√11 cm2
State true or false and give reason.
Q.5 If the area of an equilateral triangle is , then find the perimeter of the triangle.
Q.6 The cost of levelling a ground in the form of a triangle having the sides 51m, 37m, and 20m
at the rate of ₹3 per 𝑚2 is ₹ 918. State whether the statement is true or false and justify
your answer.
Q.7 The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm. The ratio of the equal side to its base is 3:
2. Find the area of the triangle.
Q.8 The lengths of the sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 13 cm and 12 cm. Find the length of
perpendicular from the opposite vertex to the side whose length is 12 cm.
Q.9 The lengths of two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 17 cm and 12
cm. One of its diagonals is 25 cm long. Find the area of the
parallelogram. Also find the length of altitude from vertex on the side of
length 12 cm.
Q.10 The perimeter of a triangle is 50 cm. One side of a triangle is 4 cm
longer than the smaller side and the third side is 6 cm less than twice the
smaller side. Find the area of the triangle.
Q.11 The area of a trapezium is 475 and the height is 19 cm. Find the lengths
of its two parallel sides if one side is 4 cm greater than the other.
Q.12 If each side of a triangle is doubled, then find the ratio of area of new triangle
thus formed and the given triangle.
Q.13 Find the area of quadrilateral ABCD in the given figure below:
Q.14 In the given figure, is equilateral triangle with side 10 cm and is right angled at D. If BD =
6 cm, find the area of the shaded region .

Chapter :11 ( Surface Areas and Volumes)


Q.1 If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 27cm . Find the diameter of the
sphere.
Q.2 A conical tent is to accommodate 11 persons. Each person must have 4 square meters of space on
the ground and 20 cubic meter of air to breathe. Find the height of the tent.
Q.3 The diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25% .By what percent its curved surface area decreases?
Q.4 A semi circular sheet of metal of diameter 28 cm is bent into an open conical cup. Find the depth
and capacity of the cup.
Q.5 If the height and radius of a cone are tripled, Then find the ratio of volume of new cone and that of
the original one.
Q.6 The height , curved surface area and volume of a cone are h,c and v respectively. Prove that:
3𝜋𝑣ℎ3 - c2h2+9v2=0
Q.7 The volume of a right circular cone is 9856 cm3. If the diameter of base is 28 cm, find (i) height of the
cone (ii) Slant height of the cone (iii) Curved surface area of the cone.
Q.8 A solid sphere and solid hemisphere have the same total surface area. Find the ratio of their volumes.
Q.9 The water for an industry is stored in a hemispherical tank of internal diameter 14m. The tank contains 40
kilo litres of water. Water is pumped into the tank to fill it to its full capacity. Calculate the volume of
water pumped into the tank.
Q.10 The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio of 64:27. Find their radii if the sum of their radii is 21 cm.
Chapter :12 (Statistics)
Q.1 Mean of 20 observations is 17. If observation 40 is replaced by 12, find new mean.
Q.2 Ten observations 6,8,14,15,x +1, 2x-13,30,32,34,43 are written in ascending order. The median of data
is 24,.Find value of x.
Q.3 The mean of 16 numbers is 8 .If 2 is added to each number, what will be the new mean?
Q.4 The mean weight per student in a group of 7 students is 55 kg. The individual weights of 6 of them in kg
are 52, 54,55,53,56,54 . find the weight of seventh student.
Q.5 The mean of 90 observations was calculated.as 50. Later ,it was detected that two of the values were
misread as 92 and 8 instead of 192 and 88. Find the correct mean.
Subject: Science
Assignment-1 Topic -Sound
1. Sound is produced when particles of a body
(a) rotate (b) translate (c) vibrate (d) either (a) or (b)
2. Astronauts cannot hear one another on the Moon because
(a) the Moon has small mass (b) the Moon has low force of gravity
(c) there is no atmosphere on the moon none of these (d) none of these
3. A wave transfers only
(a) energy from place to place (b) mass from place to place (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
4. A density-distance graph represents
(a) light waves (b) magnetic waves (c) longitudinal waves (d) transverse waves
5. Sl unit of amplitude is
(a) hertz (b) kilometres (c) metre (d) decibels
6. What is the frequency of sound of wavelength 50 cm?
7. Can we hear the sound of a bullet fired from the gun in vacuum? Give reason.
8. Why do we see the flash of light before hearing the sound of thunder?
9. A boy shouts 'hello' in front of a distant hill. He hears his sound back after 1.5 second. If the speed of
sound in air is 345 m/s, then calculate the distance of the hill from the boy.
10. What do you understand by the term 'reverberation'? Discuss, how to reduce reverberation in a big
lecture hall?
11. What do you mean by 'echo'? Show that the minimum distance between the source of sound and
obstacle for the formation of an echo is approximately 17.2 m
12. If a man hears the thunder 5 seconds after lightning is seen, how far is the lightning from the man, if the
speed of sound is 344 m/s.
13. Discuss the conditions for the formation of an echo.
14. Represent graphically by two separate diagrams in each case:(i) Two sound waves having the same
amplitude but different frequencies.(ii) Two sound waves having the same frequency but different
amplitudes.(iii) Two sound waves having different amplitudes and also different wavelengths.
15. Draw a curve showing density or pressure variations with respect to distance for a disturbance produced
by sound. Mark the position of compression and rarefaction on this curve. Also define wavelength and
time period using this curve.
16. A person standing between two cliffs here’s two echos of his voice at three seconds and four seconds
respectively what is the distance between the cliffs if the speed of sound is 340 m/s.
17. Differentiate between transverse and longitudinal wave.
18. Derive the relationship between speed, wavelength and frequency.
19. What is the time period of oscillations of a sound source if it makes 360 oscillations in 2 minutes?
Two statements are given-one labeled Assertion(A) and other labelled Reason(R).Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true (e) Both A and R are false.
20. (A): Sound waves cannot travel in vacuum but light wave can travel in vacuum.
(R): Sound waves are longitudinal waves and light waves are transverse waves.
21. (A): In a longitudinal wave, the particles of medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of wave.
(R): In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of
propagation of wave.
22. (A): During rainy season, lightning is seen first followed by hearing the thunder.
(R): Speed of light is much greater than speed of sound in air.
23. (A): Minimum distance between the observer and reflector for echo to be heard is 1.72m where the
velocity of sound in air is 344 m/s.
(R): This is due to persistence of hearing that the sound we hear has an impression on our mind for 0.1s.
Assignment-2 Topic –Work and Energy
1. When a ball falls down from a height, which of the following remains conserved?
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy (c) Mechanical energy (d) Both (a) and (c)
2. Magnitude of work done depends upon
(a) shape of the object (b) magnitude of distance travelled by the object
(c) magnitude of displacement covered by the object (d) mass of the object
3. SI unit and commercial unit of energy are respectively,
(a) kilowatt-hour and erg (b) kilowatt-hour and newton
(c) joule and kilowatt-hour (d) none of these
4. Total work done by a coolie when he move up an inclined slope with luggage on his head is
(a) zero (b) equal to mass of the luggage (c) non-Zero (d) may be zero or non-zero
5. If potential energy of a body held at some height from the ground is 20), then after falling through 20%
height, loss in its potential energy and gain in its kinetic energy will be
(a) 4J and 16J (b) 10J (c) 20J (d) equal
6. Define SI unit of work.
7. A body of mass 50 kg is moving with the constant speed of 30m/s. Calculate the amount of energy
possessed by the body by virtue of its motion.
8. When a boy stretches a bow, he has to apply force on it. Give the names of the energies transformed in
stretching the bow.
9. Write down the conditions for negative work done.
10. A body has 150 J of energy at some height. It is falling freely. The kinetic energy of the body on striking
the ground is 90J. Explain this observation.
11. Give the relation between the commercial unit and SI unit of energy.
12. Derive the formula for kinetic energy gained by a body starting from rest.
13. Let an object of mass m be falling freely from the height h. If frictional forces are neglected then prove
that at the height h/2, kinetic energy of the object is equal to its potential energy.
14. A man is loading a truck with coal. He lifts one ton coal in half an hour to the height of 2m. Calculate
his power.
15. A body is moving initially with some velocity. An external force is applied on it, which changes its
velocity. Show that the work done by the external force is equal to change in kinetic energy of the body.

Two statements are given-one labeled Assertion(A) and other labelled Reason(R).Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true (e) Both A and R are false.

16. (A): Centripetal force does not work.


(R): Force and displacement is perpendicular to each other.
17. (A): Work done by a force maybe negative, positive or zero.
(R): W= FScos0 and cos0 is always positive.
18. (A): Work done by coolie on luggage while moving in a horizontal plane is zero.
(R): The force applied by the coolie and displacement are in the same direction.
19. (A): If velocity of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes four times.
(R): Kinetic energy is proportional to square of velocity.
20. (A): Power is rate of doing work.
(R): During a free fall, mechanical energy is conserved.
Assignment-3 Topic – Gravitation
1. Gravitational force does not explain
(a) the formation of tides (b) the motion of the Moon around the Earth
(c) the motion of electrons (d) snowfall
2. As the depth from the free surface of a liquid increases, the pressure exerted by the liquids
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains unchanged (d) none of these
3. Four balls A,B,C and D when immersed in a liquid completely displace 10 mL,12 mL, 24 mL and 6 mL
of liquid respectively. The ball which will undergo maximum loss in apparent weight is
(a) A (b) B (c)C (d) D
4. When the mass of a body is increased to four times, the new density will be
(a) 1/4 times (b) unchanged (c) 4 times (d) 8 times
5. Apiece of ice is floating in a beaker containing water. When the ice melts the level of water
(a) falls (b) remains unchanged (c) rises (d) none of these
6. SI unit of relative density is
(a) newton (b) pascal (c) joule (d) no unit
7. Two particles are placed at some distance. If the mass of each of the two particles is doubledkeeping the
distance between them unchanged, the value of gravitational force between them will be
(a) 1/4times (b) 4times (c) 1/2times (d) unchanged
8. The relative density of a substance is 0.8. Will this object float or sink in water?
9. A body weighs 6 kg on the surface of the Moon. What is its weight on the Earth?
10. What happens to the weight of an object as it goes from a height of 100 km above the surface of the
Earth at the centre of the Earth?
11. The relative density of mercury is 13.6. What does it mean?
12. Why is it easier to walk on sand with flat shoes than with high heeled shoes?
13. Distinguish between mass and weight.
14. State the principle of floatation. Explain,why a ship floats on water.
15. A body of mass 200 g has volume of 300 cm3. Will this body float or sink in water?
16. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, why does its velocity decrease?
17. A body may sink in one liquid while it may float in another liquid. Explain why.
18. State Archimedes principle. Write down its three applications.
19. Weight of gold purchased at the equator is 98 N. If this piece of gold is taken to Antarctica, what will
happen to its weight?

Two statements are given-one labeled Assertion(A) and other labelled Reason(R).Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true (e) Both A and R are false.

20. (A): At pole, value of acceleration due to gravity is greater than that of equator.
(R): Moon is a natural satellite of Earth.
21. (A): An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same size are dropped from the same height in vacuum. Both
will fall on the ground in the same time and with the same velocity.
(R): In vacuum, the velocity and time is independent of mass.
22. (A): The gravitational force is always attractive.
(R): Gravitational force is directly proportional to the square of the distance between the masses.
23. (A): The acceleration due to gravity on different planets is different.
(R): g= GM/R2
24. (A): An artificial communication satellite is a free falling body.
(R): It is only the under the influence of Earth’s gravitational pull.
Assignment-4 Topic –Force and laws of motion
1. A body moving along a straight line is brought to rest in 2s by a force F1, and in 3s by a force F2. The
ratio F1/ F2
(a) 2:3 (b) 1:1 (c) 3:2 (d) 9:4
2. A ball of mass M is moving with Vm/s strikes a wall perpendicularly and rebounds at the same
speed.The change in momentum will be
(a) 2 MV (b) MV (c) 1/2MV (d) Zero
3. If same force acts on objects A, B, C and D having mass 4 kg, 3 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, which of
the object has least acceleration?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
4. The Earth attracts a stone towards itself with a force of 10N. The force with which the stone attracts the
earth is
(a) 20 N (b) infinite (c) zero (d) 10N
5. A gun recoils after firing to conserve
(a) force (b) velocity (c) speed (d) momentum
6. What other name is given to Newton's first law of motion? State it.
7. Which force slows down the bicycle when pedalling is stopped? In which direction does this force act?
8. Water sprinkler used for grass lawns begins to rotate as soon as the water is supplied. Explain the
principle on which it works.
9. Two identical bullets are fired one by a light rifle and another by a heavy rifle with the same force.
Which rifle will hurt the shoulder of the shooter more and why?
10. Despite being equal and opposite, action and reaction forces do not cancel each other. Why?
11. How much force is required to change the momentum of a body by 30 kg m/s in 12 seconds?
12. Explain, why do we give jerk to the wet clothes before spreading them in sunlight.
13. Why does hitting a heavy stone hurt more than hitting a light stone?
14. Why is it difficult to balance our body when our foot falls accidently on a peel of banana?
15. Why do the doors of a train (local) open or shut, when the train starts or stops?
16. Two different bodies are acted upon by the equal forces, such that the acceleration in the first body is
four times the acceleration in the second body. What is the ratio of the mass of first body to that of
second body?
17. Discuss the various effects of force.
18. State Newton's second law of motion. Derive the relation F= ma, where symbols have their usual
Two statements are given-one labeled Assertion(A) and other labelled Reason(R).Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true (e) Both A and R are false.
19. (A): It is difficult to move a cycle along the road with its brakes on.
(R): Sliding friction is greater than rolling friction.
20. (A): Impulse produces change in momentum.
(R): Change in momentum is produced by a force.
21. (A): A body is accelerating.
(R): The body is under the action of balanced forces.
22. (A): While running a deer can take turn quickly as compared to a leopard chasing it.
(R): Mass is a measure of inertia.
23. (A): Action and reaction cannot cancel each other.
(R): Action and reaction act on different bodies.

Assignment-5 Topic–Motion
1. Velocity-time graph of a body coincides with the time axis, the body is
(a) at rest (b) in uniform motion
(c) in uniformly accelerated motion (d) in non-uniformly accelerated motion
2. A car is moving on a straight road with the constant speed of 40 m/s, then
(a) acceleration of the car is constant (b) the car is moving with variable acceleration
(c) motion of the car is non-uniform (d) acceleration of the car is zero
3. A car is moving on a circular road of radius r. The displacement after moving half a circle would be
(a) zero (b) 2r (c) π r (d) 2πr
4. A device used to measure the distance travelled by a vehicle is
(a) sonometer (b) odometer (c) galvanometer (d) speedometer
5. A student goes 4 m east and then turns at right angle and travels 3m more. The displacement of the boy
is
(a) 7metres (b)5 metres (c)1 metre (d) 25 metres
6. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is
(a) always less than1 (b) always equal to l (c) always more than1 (d) equal to or less than 1
7. The distance traveled by a car moving at a speed of 36 km/ hr in 15 minutes is
(a) 900 km (b) 90 km (c) 9 km (d) 0.9 km
8. A body is in uniform circular motion if,
(a) it moves along a circular path (b) it moves along a circular path with uniform velocity
(c) it moves along a circular path with uniform speed
(d) it moves along a circular path with constant acceleration
9. What type of motion is represented by the curved velocity-time graph?
10. What is the distance covered by a body in taking half round on a circular track of radius 50 m?
11. What is the condition of motion of a body in which the ratio of distance to the displacement is equal to
one?
12. What is the difference between speed and velocity?
13. Give one example each of uniformly accelerated motion and non-uniformly accelerated motion.
14. Draw the velocity-time graph for a body in uniformly accelerated motion. Hence show that the slope of
velocity-time graph gives acceleration.
15. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 30 m s. Calculate the time taken to reach
maximum height.
16. Define uniformly accelerated motion. Give three examples from practical life.
Two statements are given-one labeled Assertion(A) and other labelled Reason(R).Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true (e) Both A and R are false.
17. (A): The distance travelled by a body in moving in a complete circle of radius ‘r’ is 2πr.
(R): The displacement of a body in moving in a complete circle of radius ‘r’ is zero.
18. (A): Uniform circular motion is a case of accelerated motion.
(R): In uniform circular motion the direction of velocity changes continuously.
19. (A): A body moving along X axis travels x1 distance in time t1 and x2 distance in time t2 then its average
speed is (x1+x2)/ (t1+t2).
(R): Average speed= Total distance travelled/ Time interval
20. (A): A body at rest maybe in motion simultaneously with respect to different observers.
(R): Rest and motion are absolute terms and do not depend on the observers.
Assignment-6 Topic–Matter in our Surroundings

1. The change from solid to liquid can be brought about by


(a) increasing pressure (b) decreasing temperature (c) increasing temperature
(d) decreasing temperature and increasing pressure
2. If a LPG cylinder is opened in a corner of a room suddenly an unpleasant smell spread out. By the
experiment which properties of matter can be explained?
(a) the matter has mass (b) the matter can sublimate (c) the matter can evaporate
(d) the matter can flow from high concentrated area to low concentrated
3. Solid cannot be compressed because
(a) of low interparticle force (b) constituent particles are very closely packed
(c) constituent particles diffuse rapidly (d) all of these
4. When change in state takes place then the heat supplied
(a) can increase the temperature of the system (b) can decrease the temperature of the system
(c) cannot change the temperature of the system (d)first increase then decrease the temperature of the
system
5. What is sublimation name two substances which undergo sublimation
6. We can move our hand in air and water but not in solid ice. Why?
7. How does perspiration help in maintaining constant body temperature?
8. Explain why evaporation is considered as a surface phenomenon.
9. What are the various factors which affect the rate of evaporation ? Explain.
10. Compare the fluidity, rigidity and compressibility in solids, liquids and gases.
11. What is the meaning of latent heat? Define latent heat of fusion and latent heat of vaporization with one
example of each.
12. Why does sugar disappear when we dissolve it in water ?
13. Why does a balloon inflate on blowing air into it?
14. How gases can be liquefied by applying pressure?
15. Why are naphthalene balls stored in airtight packings ?
16. What is the effect of temperature on liquid state?
17. Why does the temperature of a substance remain constant during the change of its state?
18. How do gaseous particles exert pressure on the walls of a container?
19. Why do different liquids have different boiling points?
20. Why does water kept in earthen pot become cool during summer?
21. Though the rubber band is solid its shape can be changed on stretching. Assign the reason.
22. Explain the effect of increasing pressure and decreasing temperature on a gas.
Two statements are given-one labeled Assertion(A) and other labelled Reason(R).Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true (e) Both A and R are false.
23. (A): Solids do not diffuse in air.
(R): The particles of solids are closely packed.
24. (A): The temperature of water remains constant during evaporation.
(R): Liquid water on heating, changes to water vapour.
25. (A): Ice floats over water.
(R): Liquids have lower density than solids.
26. (A): Evaporation is a surface phenomenon.
(R): Particles of a liquid lose energy and leave the su
Assignment-7 Topic –Is Matter Around us Pure
1. Which of the following is a suspension?
(a) sugar solution (b) milk (c) milk of magnesia (d) sugar
2. Which of the following is a pure substance in the liquid form?
(a) milk (b) sugar solution (c) mercury (d) germanium
3. Milk of magnesia is a
(a) true solution (b) suspension (c) colloid (d) homogeneous mixture
4. Which of the following is not a physical change?
(a) freezing of water (b) mixture of iron filings and sulphur
(c) cooking of food (d) evaporation of alcohol
5. The correct order which describes the true solution, colloidal solution and suspension in the order of
their increasing stability is
(a) suspension < colloidal solution < true solution (b) colloidal solution < true solution < suspension
(c) true solution < colloidal solution < suspension (d) colloidal solution < suspension < true solution
6. In which of the following the dispersion medium is liquid?
(a) Emulsion (b) Gel (c) Aerosol (d) Alloy
7. Differentiate between compounds and mixtures.
8. With the help of flow chart explain how is water purified in Water Works.
9. How colloidal solutions are different from true solutions and suspensions ?
10. Explain applications of colloids in everyday life.
11. Calculate the solubility of a solute at 298K when a saturated solution is prepared by dissolving 3 gram of
solute in 30 gram of water.
12. Calculate the volume by volume percentage of a solution of 15ml of ethyl alcohol in 60ml of gasoline.
13. Explain Tyndall effect.
14. Differentiate between (i) physical and chemical change (ii) homogeneous mixture and heterogeneous
mixture.
15. Define solubility. What are the factors which affect the rate of solubility ?
16. What do you mean by dilute solution and concentrated solution?
17. Milk is a colloidal solution. How can it be converted into a suspension?
18. Why should water be called a compound? Give two reasons.
19. Give one method to separate the components of colloids.
20. What do you mean by saturated and unsaturated solution?
21. What is the principle of chromatography and centrifugation? Name the substances which can be
separated by these two techniques.
Two statements are given-one labeled Assertion(A) and other labelled Reason(R).Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true (e) Both A and R are false.
22. (A): Air is considered to be a mixture.
(R): A mixture is said to be a homogeneous if it has the same composition throughout the sample.
23. (A): Mercury, bromine and diamond are elements.
(R): All these are solids.
24. (A): Pure substances have fixed melting points.
(R): The properties of a compound are similar to those of its components.
25. (A): A colloidal solution is a homogeneous mixture.
(R): The particle size of colloidal solution is more than that of a true solution.
Assignment-8 Topic –Atoms and Molecules
1. Read the following paragraph and answer questions:
The compounds containing metal and non-metals consist of charged particles called ions. In ionic
compounds, the ions are present in a fixed ratio by mass. The formula by an ionic compound gives the
simplest whole number ratio of ions present in it. The valency of an atom may be used to find out how
many atoms of one element will combine with other to form a chemical formula. Four elements A, B, C
and D exhibit the following valencies:
A= +1 B= +2 C= +3 D= +4
(i) The chemical formula of A sulphide and C phosphate are respectively
(a) ASO3, C2(PO4)3 (b) A2S, C2(PO4)3 (c) A2S, CPO4 (d) AS, CPO4
(ii) The elements A, B and C form sulphates. Which of these will have larger number of oxygen atoms.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) all have same
(iii) The differences in atomic masses of B and D is 70. What will be the difference in molecular masses
of their chlorides?
(a) 71 (b) 131 (c) 105.5 (d) 141
2. Explain the following terms:
(a) Atomic mass (b) Molecular mass (c) Polyatomic ions
3. What is Dalton’s atomic theory? Give its main postulates. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory
explains the law of conservation of mass?
4. (a) State law of conservation of mass and law of constant proportions.
(b) What are atoms? How big are atoms? How do atoms occur?
5. Write the chemical formulae of the following compounds:
(i) Magnesium bromide (ii) Sodium nitrate (iii) Copper sulphite
(iv) Ammonium bicarbonate (v) Zinc phosphate
Two statements are given-one labeled Assertion(A) and other labelled Reason(R).Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true (e) Both A and R are false.
6. (A): Atomic mass of sulphur is 32u.
(R): Carbon-12 isotope was selected as a standard.
7. (A): The formula of a metal oxide is M2O but the formula of the metal nitride M3N.
(R): The valency of metal is +1 and that of oxide and nitride are -2 and -3 respectively.
8. (A): Ammonium ion is a polyatomic ion.
(R): The valency of ammonium ion is +3.
9. (A): The atomicity of sulphur is 8.
(R): Sulphur has 8 atoms in its molecule.
Assignment-9 Topic–Structure of Atom
1. On the basis of the following table, answer the questions that follow:
Element Atomic no. No. of neutrons
A 3 4
B 9 10
C 13 14
D 17 18
E 18 22
(i) The number of protons in an atom of D are
(a) 18 (b) 17 (c) 35 (d) 34
(ii) The mass number of atoms of E and B differ by
(a) 21 (b) 59 (c) 9 (d) 12
(iii) The number of electrons present in a monovalent cation of A and a monovalent anion of D are
respectively
(a) 4, 16 (b) 2, 16 (c) 2, 18 (d) 4, 18
(iv) The electronic distribution of C3+ is
(a) 2, 8, 3 (b) 2, 8, 6 (c) 2, 8, 8 (d) 2, 8
2. The number of protons in S2- ion is
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 14 (d) 32
3. Neutron was discovered by
(a) Bohr (b) Goldstein (c) Thomson (d) Chadwick
4. Why the shells in which the electrons revolve are called energy shells? How many electrons can be there
in M shell?
5. Show the distribution of electrons in magnesium atom and magnesium ion diagrammatically. Atomic
number of magnesium is 12.
6. (i) Will 35Cl and 37Cl have different valencies? Justify your answer.
(ii) What is the valency of Na(11) atom?
7. Explain:
(i) Nucleus of an atom carries positive charge.
(ii) Most of the space in an atom is empty.
(iii) The whole mass of an atom is present in the centre of the atom.
8. Complete the following:
(i) Mercury (+2) ion contains 80 protons, 78 electrons and 120 nucleons. Its mass number is _______
(ii) The element F has _______ valence electrons.
(iii) The maximum number of electrons that can be present in the outermost shell of an atom is _____
9. Explain three main postulates of Bohr’s model of an atom.
10. What observations in scattering experiment led Rutherford to make the following conclusions:
(i) The most of the space in an atom is empty.
(ii) The whole mass of an atom is present in the centre of the atom.
(iii) Nucleus has positive charge.
Two statements are given-one labeled Assertion(A) and other labelled Reason(R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true (e) Both A and R are false.
11. (A): An atom of an element is electrically neutral.
(R): It contains equal number of protons and neutrons.
12. (A): Bohr’s orbits are also called stationary orbits.
(R): Electrons remain stationary in these orbits.
13. (A): Cathode rays get deflected towards the positive plate of electric field.
(R): Cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles known as electrons.
14. (A): Isotopes of an element have almost similar properties.
(R): Isotopes have same electronic distributions which determine the chemical properties.
Assignment-10 Topic –The Fundamental unit of life
1.What is the energy currency in mitochondria?
2. Which organelle make digestive enzyme of lysosome?
3. What do you mean by membrane biogenesis?
4. Name the three functional regions of a cell.
5. State two points of difference between cell wall & cell membrane.
6. What are chromosomes? What are they composed of?
7. A cell is placed in a solution’A’ and swells up. What kind of solution is it? Why does it happen?
8.Name the endoplasmic reticulum that has ribosomes on it .
9. Give reasons for the following;
a) Viruses cannot reproduce outside a living cell.
b) Amoeba can have exchange of gases through its body surface.
c) Chloroplasts are called the kitchen of the cell
10. Why are lysosomes known as the ‘Scavengers of the cell’?
11. Draw and explain the structures and functions of following;
i) Nucleus ii) Mitochondria iii) Endoplasmic reticulum
12. Name the cell organelle that are semiautonomous and why are they called so?
13. differentiate between
i) Osmosis and diffusion
ii) Plasma membrane and nuclear membrane
iii) Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell
14.What is membrane biogenesis?
15. Draw and differentiate between plant and animal cell.
16. What is the full form of ATP.
17. State one term for the following;
i) Rod –shaped structure that appear in the nucleus when the cell is about to divide
ii) An unidentified nuclear region containing only Nucleic acid.
iii) Functional segment of DNA.
18. Why do plant cells have large vacuole? Name the fluid present in them.
Assignment-11 Topic –Tissue
1.Name a plant tissue having dead cells.
2.What minerals is the bone matrix rich in?
3.Name the water conducting tissue generally present in gymnosperms.
4.Presence of which chemical in cork cells makes them impervious to water and gases?
5.Which tissue in plants provides them flexibility?
6.Name the muscular tissue that functions throughout life without fatigue.
7.In desert plants, how does the rate of loss of water get reduced?.
8. Which animal tissue helps in repair of tissue and fills the space inside the organ?
9.What is a goblet cell?
10.What is the name of bone cells?
11.Which blood cells deal with immune reaction?
12.Which cells are responsible for contraction and relaxation movements?
13.Which cells are responsible for carrying messages?
14.How are oxygen, food, hormone and waste material transported in the body?
15. What is responsible for increase in girth of the stem or root?). 16.What is lignin?
17.What is cuticle?
18.Which tissue forms a barrier to keep different body systems separate?
19. What is the composition of the cartilage matrix?
20. What are responsible for contraction and relaxation in muscles
Assignment-12 Topic –Improvement in Food Resources
1. What are the different types of fisheries?
2. What is ‘apiculture’? Name a few products obtained from apiculture.
3. What are weeds and fertilizers?
4. What are the harmful effects of using excessive fertilizers?
5. What are the different ways of hybridisation?
6. What do you understand by organic farming?
7. Define one method of crop production ensuring high yield.
8. What are macro-nutrients?
9. Give points of difference between egg producing chicken and boiler producing chicken.
10. Name any two weeds.
11. How do efficiency of nutrients affect the crop?
12. Name two rabi and two kharif crops.
13. How should one care for a diary farm to obtain maximum yield?
14.Why apiculture is a beneficial branch of applied science?
15.Name two freshwater and two marine fish.
16.Differentiate between aqaculture and pisciculture.
17.Comment on milch and draught varieties of cattle.
SUBJECT- HISTORY
TOPIC- The French Revolution & Socialism in Europe and Russian Revolution
The French Revolution
Choose the correct option: -
1. In which year did the French Revolution begin?
A) 1789 B) 1792 C) 1793 D) 1799
2. What was the slogan of the French Revolution?
A) "Liberty, Equality, Fraternity" B) "No taxation without representation"
C) "Power to the people" D) "Workers of the world, unite!"
3. Who was the king of France at the beginning of the French Revolution?
A) Louis XIV B) Louis XV C) Louis XVI D) Louis XVII
4. What was the name of the French prison that was stormed by the people of Paris on July 14, 1789?
A) Versailles B) Bastille C) Tuileries D) Champs-Élysées
5. Who was the leader of the Jacobin Club during the Reign of Terror?
A) Maximilien Robespierre B) Napoleon Bonaparte C) Georges Danton D) Jean-Paul Marat
6. What was the name of the French general who became the leader of France after the Revolution and
went on to conquer much of Europe?
A) Maximilien Robespierre B) Georges Danton C) Jean-Paul Marat D) Napoleon Bonaparte
7. What was the name of the social class that made up the majority of the French population but had
very little political power before the Revolution?
A) The First Estate B) The Second Estate C) The Third Estate D) The Fourth Estate
8. What was the name of the document that established a constitutional monarchy in France during the
Revolution?
A) The Constitution of 1791 B) The Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen
C) The Civil Constitution of the Clergy D) The Napoleonic Code
9. Who among the following abolished the slavery in France
A) Napoleon Bonaparte B) Louis XVI C) The Jacobins D) The National Assembly
10. What was the main objective of the constitution of 1791.
A) To limit the power of Monarch B) To confiscate church property
C) To give up the privileges of first and second estates D) To give equal voting rights
11. What did the red cap wear by sans culottes in France symbolize?
A) Brotherhood B) Anger C) Danger D) Liberty
12. In which of the battle was Napoleon finally defeated.
A) Russia B) Waterloo C) Versailles D) Paris
13. King Louis XVI was married to the princess of—
A) Italy B) Australia C) Prussia D) Austria
14. What were the social, economic, and political factors that led to the French Revolution?
15. How did the French Revolution lead to the rise of Napoleon Bonaparte and the establishment of his
empire?
16. What was the Reign of Terror, and what impact did it have on the Revolution and French society.
17. What was the role of women in the French Revolution, and how did their participation lead to
changes in French society?
18. What were the causes and consequences of the Napoleonic Wars, and how did they reshape Europe
and the world?
19. “The French philosophers greatly influenced the people and it led to the French revolution”
Comment on this statement.
20. Explain the triangular slave trade carried during 18th &19th century?
21. Write the dates of the following incidents.
1. Napoleon crowned himself as the emperor of France __________________
2. Slavery was finally abolished from France in_______________________
3. The women in France won the voting right in________________________
4. Robespierre was guillotined in________________________
5. The fortress of Bastille was stormed in _______________
22. On the outline map of France mark the following: -
a. Capital of France
b. A port related to slave trade
c. The epic centre of main panic movement
_____________________________________________________________________________
Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution
1. Which country did the Bolsheviks seize control of during the Russian Revolution?
A) Germany B) Italy C) Russia D) France
2. What was the name of the Bolshevik leader who became the first leader of the Soviet Union?
A) Vladimir Lenin B) Joseph Stalin C) Leon Trotsky D) Karl Marx
3. What was the name of the policy of forcibly taking land from wealthy landowners and redistributing
it to peasants in the Soviet Union?
A) The Five-Year Plan B) The New Economic Policy
C) Collectivization D) The Great Purge
4. What was the name of the group of revolutionary socialists who carried out the October Revolution
in Russia?
A) The Mensheviks B) The Bolsheviks C) The Kadets D) The Social Revolutionaries
5. What was the name of the organization founded by Karl Marx to promote socialist ideas and political
action?
A) The Communist Party B) The Socialist International
C) The Workers' Party D) The Soviet Union
6. What was the name of the Russian czar who was overthrown during the February Revolution?
A) Nicholas II B) Alexander II C) Peter the Great D) Ivan the Terrible
7. What was the name of the Soviet secret police force responsible for carrying out political repression
and purges?
A) The KGB B) The NKVD C) The Red Army D) The Cheka
8. What were the main policies and programs of the Soviet Union under Lenin and Stalin, and how did
they shape the country's development?
9. What was the impact of socialist ideas and movements on the world in the 20th century, and how did
they influence later political and social movements?
10. How should society according to liberals and radicals develop?
11. Write the most important demands of Russian revolutionaries in 1917?
12. What was Collectivization? How did Stalin use this programme?
_______________________________________________________________________________________
TOPIC- Forest, Society & Colonialism& Pastoralists in Modern World
Forest, Society and Colonialism
1. Which colonial power first established control over India's forest resources?
A) British B) French C) Portuguese D) Dutch
2. Which community in India was traditionally involved in the management and use of forests?
A) Brahmins B) Kshatriyas C) Dalits D) Adivasis
3. Which law passed by the British colonial government in India gave them control over forests and
prohibited people from using forest resources without permission?
A) Forest Conservation Act B) Indian Forest Act
C) Wildlife Protection Act D) Environment Protection Act
4. Which British official is known for his efforts to conserve forests in India and establish the Indian Forest
Service?
A) James Rennell B) Sir William Jones C) Sir Dietrich Brandis D) Charles Metcalfe
5. What was the impact of colonial policies on the traditional forest-based economies of India's Adivasi
communities?
A) They became more prosperous and developed new industries.
B) They were forced to abandon their traditional livelihoods and become laborers on plantations or in
mines.
C) They resisted colonial policies and maintained their traditional ways of life.
D) They migrated to urban areas and became part of the new industrial workforce.
6. Which forest-based industry developed in India during colonial times and became a major source of
revenue for the British colonial government?
A) Timber industry B) Paper industry C) Rubber industry D) Tea industry
7. Which British official is known for his role in promoting the idea of scientific forestry in India and
establishing the Dehra Dun Forest Research Institute?
A) James Rennell B) Sir William Jones C) Sir Dietrich Brandis D) Charles Metcalfe
8. Who were the first people to resist the British forest policy in India?
A) The Santhals B) The Mundas C) The Bhils D) The Gonds
9. How did colonial policies in India affect the traditional forest-based economies and livelihoods of
Adivasi communities, and what were the consequences of these policies?
10. Mention the causes of deforestation in India during the colonial period.
11. Explain any five reasons for the expansion of cultivation by the colonial rulers in India.
12. Describe the Saminist Movement in Indonesia.
13. What new occupations were adopted by the people when forest department control the forest?

______________________________________________________________________________________
Pastoralists in Modern World
1. What is the primary occupation of pastoralists?
A) Agriculture B) Fishing C) Hunting and gathering D) Animal husbandry
2. Which of the following is a major threat to the survival of pastoralism in the modern world?
A) Climate change B) Technological advancements
C) Globalization D) Political instability
3. Which of the following is an important product obtained from pastoral animals?
A) Meat B) Fruits C) Timber D) Textiles
4. What is the name of the traditional form of pastoralism practiced by the Maasai people in East Africa?
A) Mesta B) Alpage C) Transhumance D) Pastoral nomadism
5. ____ are the people who account for the history of the community of the pastoral groups
A) Philanthropist B) Anthropologist C) Genealogist D) Economist
6. The seasonal movement of the pastoralist of high mountains is called
A) Bugyal B) Kafila C) Mandap D) None of the these
7. The camel herders known as Maru Raikas stay in their villages during monsoons due to
A) Availability of pastures B) High temperatures
C) Prepare camels for fair D) Availability of Bajra
8. Environmentalists recognise that pastural nomadism is perfectly suited to
A) Forested areas B) Desert areas C) Hilly areas D) Both a & b
9. The Dhangars of the central plateau of Maharashtra are welcomed by the Konkani peasants because
A) The Dhangars bring Bajra for them
B) The Dhangar flocks help in the manuring of the fields
C) The sheep tolerate the wet monsoon condition
D)The Dhangars like rice supplied by the Konkani peasants
10. Raiding was an important part of the Masai society to prove
A) Humanity B) Manliness C) Both a & b D) Cruelty
11. What is the impact of government policies and development programs on pastoralist communities,
and how do they respond to these challenges?
12. What was the social structure of Masai community before the colonial period?
13. What was the effect of the changes made by the colonial govt.in the social life of the Masai
community?
______________________________________________________________________________________
Nazism and the Rise of Hitler
1. What was the full name of Hitler's political party?
A) National Socialist Workers' Party B) Democratic Socialists Party
C) Fascist Party of Germany D) Communist Party of Germany
2. Which event is considered to be the turning point for Hitler's rise to power?
A) The Munich Putsch B) The Reichstag Fire
C) The Beer Hall Putsch D) The Night of the Long Knives
3. What was the name of the law passed by the Nazi Party that deprived Jews of their German citizenship?
A) Nuremberg Laws B) Kristallnacht Laws C) Final Solution Laws D) Aryan Laws
4. Who was the President of Germany when Hitler was appointed as Chancellor?
A) Paul von Hindenburg B) Gustav Stresemann C) Franz von Papen D) Friedrich Ebert
5. What was the purpose of the Hitler Youth organization?
A) To provide military training to young Germans
B) To promote Nazi ideology among young Germans
C) To prepare young Germans for careers in the arts and humanities
D) To encourage young Germans to travel and explore the world
6. What was the name of the concentration camp that was the largest and most infamous during the
Holocaust?
A) Auschwitz B) Dachau C) Buchenwald D) Treblinka
7. What was the name of the battle in which the Soviet Union defeated Germany, marking a turning point
in the war on the Eastern Front?
A) Battle of Stalingrad B) Battle of Kursk
C) Battle of Moscow D) Battle of Leningrad
8. How did the Treaty of Versailles contribute to the rise of Hitler and the Nazi Party in Germany?
9. How did Hitler consolidate his power after becoming Chancellor in 1933?
10. How did the Nazi Party use propaganda to gain support from the German people?
11. What were the factors that led to hyperinflation in Germany?
12. Illustrate Hitler’s foreign policy.
13. Hitler said” in mi state mother is the most important citizen” Justify the statement.
14. Describe the problems faced by Weimer Republic.
______________________________________________________________________________________
SUBJECT- GEOGRAPHY
TOPIC- India-Size and Location & Physical Features of India Drainage
India-Size & Location
1. India is the ____ largest country in the world.
A) Fourth B) Seventh C) Fifth D) Eighth
2. The island country that is separated from India by Gulf of Mannar.
A) Sri Lanka B) Lakshadweep C) Maldives D)Madagascar
3. Which place of India is very close to equator?
4. Which latitude divides India in two equal parts?
5. Name the states through which Tropic of Cancer passes.
6. Which canal has reduced the distance between India and Europe.
7. Why is duration of day and night hardly felt at Kanyakumari?
8. India has contributed in making the world history. Justify the statement with examples.
9. What is India’s Prime Meridian and why there is a need for it?
10. How has India benefited with its location at the head of the Indian Ocean.
11. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reasoning(R). Mark the correct option.
Options(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) A is true but R is false
Assertion (A): India could develop its trade relation with both eastern and western countries
Reasoning(R): India has developed its large coastline

12. Map Skill: - On the political map of India mark the following:Standard Meridian, Capital of Tamil
Nadu, Maharashtra, Nagaland, Jharkhand,Two states having boundary with Bangladesh, Pakistan

Physical Features Of India


1. Name the three parallel ranges of Himalayas.
2. The peninsular plateau is divided into___________ and ___________
3. The Deccan plateau lies to the south of which river?
4. Name the two sections of eastern coastal plains.
5. Which Island group of India is formed of corals?
6. Name the highest peaks of Deccan plateau.
7. The western ghats are responsible for____ rainfall
A) Monsoon B) Orographic C) Torrential D)Cyclonic
8. Solve the puzzle
Z E H J A Q Z M i.) Largest salt water lake.
ii). Only River of Indian desert.
D C H I L I K A
iii). The peninsular plateau is composed of ____ rocks.
D E L T A T R L
iv). The southern part of western coast.
I G N E O U S A
v). The wet and marshy region of northern plains.
M L X R J O T B
vi). The super continent.
V T P A N G E A
vii). The area formed at the mouth of the river.
L U N I Y S K R
9. Explain the Purvanchal Hills.
10. How are western ghats different from eastern ghats?
11. Explain the divisions of Northern plains on the basis of relief features.
12. How do the diverse physical features of India contributes to its development?
13. Differentiate between the two island groups of India.
14. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reasoning(R). Mark the correct option.
Options:(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) A is true but R is false
Assertion (A): Himalayas are the loftiest mountain range which run from west to east.
Reasoning (R): Himalayas are of recent origin made up of volcanic eruption.
15. Map Skill:-On a political map of India mark the following: The Shivalik, Vindhya and Aravalli ranges,
Anai Mudi, Malwa and Chhota Nagpur Plateau, Coromandel and Northern Circar.

DRAINAGE
1. The total length of river Ganga is _________________.
2. The tributaries of ________ river joins near Mithankot in Pakistan.
3. The river Narmada rises from Garo Hills of Meghalaya. Correct the statement.
4. Which states of India are benefited by the Indus?
5. Name two fresh water lakes of India.
6. Match the column.
RIVERS TRIBUTARIES
1. Krishna a. Wananga, Penganga, Purna
2. Tapi b. Dibang, Lohit
3. Godavari c. Mahi, Bharatpuzha
4. Ganga d. Bhima, Musi, Ghatprabha
5. Brahmaputra e. Gandak, Kosi
7. Why are peninsular rivers not navigable?
8. Write the important features of Godavari Basin.
9. How are Humans responsible for destroying the rivers and lakes?
10. Explain the formation of Sunder ban delta.
11. How is Ganga River basin different from Brahmaputra River basin?
12. How is Sunder ban delta formed?
13. Give two examples of fresh water & salt water lakes.
14. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reasoning(R). Mark the correct option.
Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) A is true but R is false
Assertion (A): Narmada and Tapi are the west flowing rivers of peninsular plateau.
Reasoning (R): These two rivers make estuary.
Assertion (A): Rising pollution in our rivers is due to the growing domestic& industrial waste.
Reasoning (R): The untreated sewage and industrial effluents are emptied into the rivers.
15. Map Skill: - On the political map of India mark the following lakes: Wullar, Pullicat, Sambhar,
Chilika

Topics: Climate, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife & Population


Climate
1. Which of the following is a factor that affects climate?
A) Elevation B) Population C) Soil type D) None of the above
2. The climate of an area can be described based on:
A) Temperature B) Precipitation C) Both A and B D) None of the above
3. Which of the following is not a type of rainfall?
A) Orographic B) Cyclonic C) Convective D) Magnetic
4. Which of the following Indian states is not a part of the Western Ghats?
A) Tamil Nadu B) Maharashtra C) Kerala D) Karnataka
5. The Coriolis force affects:
A) Wind direction B) Wind speed C) Both A and B D) None of the above
6. Which of the following factors influence the climate of India?
A) The Himalayas B) The Indian Ocean C) The Thar Desert D) All of the above
7. Which of the following is a characteristic of a tropical monsoon climate?
A) High temperature throughout the year B) High humidity throughout the year
C) Heavy rainfall in summer and dry winter D) Dry and hot climate throughout the year
8. Which of the following is a major factor responsible for the formation of cyclones in the Bay of Bengal?
A) Low pressure B) High pressure C) Strong winds D) None of the above
9. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the distribution of temperature?
A) Latitude B) Elevation C) Ocean currents D) Soil type
10. The monsoon winds in India are a result of:
A) Pressure differences over land and sea B) Rotation of the earth
C) Both A and B D) None of the above
11. Which of the following is not a natural disaster that can be caused by extreme weather events?
A) Floods B) Droughts C) Earthquakes D) Cyclones
12. Define the term 'climate'.
13. How does the location of an area affect its climate?
14. What are the factors that influence the climate of a place?
15. What is the difference between weather and climate?
16. What are the two monsoon branches in India?
17. What is the importance of the Himalayas in influencing the climate of India?
18. What is a cyclone?
19. What is ITCZ?
20. What is the effect of loo?
21. What is Western Disturbances and what is its impact?
22. What is October Heat?
23. Map Work- On the outline map of India mark the following: -
1.Area receiving rainfall over 400cm
2.Area receiving rainfall less than 20cm
3.Direction of south-west monsoon
_______________________________________________________________________________________
Natural Vegetation And Wildlife
1. What is the main factor that influences the distribution of natural vegetation in an area?
a) Temperature b) Altitude c) Rainfall d) All of the above
2. Which of the following is an example of evergreen forest in India?
a) Teak b) Sal c) Pine d) Oak
3. Which of the following is an example of a wetland ecosystem?
a) Mangrove forest b) Alpine forest c) Desert d) Grassland
4. Which of the following is an example of a migratory bird?
a) Peacock b) Sparrow c) Siberian crane d) Ostrich
5. Which of the following is a species of Indian rhinoceros?
a) Black rhino b) White rhino c) One-horned rhino d) Two-horned rhino
6. Which of the following is a critically endangered species in India?
a) Asiatic lion b) Bengal tiger c) Indian elephant d) Indian rhinoceros
7. Which of the following is a national park in India?
a) Bandhavgarh b) Serengeti c) Kruger d) Masai Mara
8. Which of the following is a type of vegetation found in the Himalayan region?
a) Tropical rainforest b) Alpine vegetation c) Mangrove forest d) Deciduous Forest
9. Which of the following is a type of natural vegetation found in the Thar Desert?
a) Deciduous forest b) Scrub vegetation c) Tropical rainforest d) Alpine vegetation
10. Which of the following is a threat to the survival of wildlife in India?
a) Habitat destruction b) Climate change c) Pollution d) All of the above
11. What is natural vegetation?
12. What are the types of natural vegetation found in India?
13. What are the factors that affect the distribution of natural vegetation in India?
14. What is wildlife?
15. What are the different types of wildlife found in India?
16. What is the importance of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries?
17. What are the threats to wildlife in India?
18. What is a biosphere reserve?
19. What action has been taken by the government to protect the fauna of our country?
20. What is the need for conservation of natural vegetation and wildlife?
21. Map Work- On the outline map of India mark the following: -
National Parks- Corbett, Kaziranga,,Ranthambore, Shivpuri, kanha, Simlipal
Bird Sanctuaries- Bharatpur, Ranganthitto
Wild life Sanctuaries-Sariska, Mudumalai,Rajaji, Dachigam
_______________________________________________________________________________________
Population
Directions: In each of the following questions, there are two statements. The first statement is an assertion
(A) and the second statement is a reason (R). Examine the statements carefully and mark the correct answer
using the following options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): The high population growth rate in India is due to the decline in death rate. Reason (R):
Advancements in medical science and healthcare have increased the average lifespan in India.
2. Assertion (A): Migration is a response to economic, social, and political factors.
Reason (R): People migrate in search of better employment opportunities, education, and a better
quality of life.
3. Assertion (A): India's population growth rate has been declining over the years.
Reasoning (R): The government of India has implemented various family planning programs to control
population growth.
4. Assertion (A): High fertility rates are a major cause of population growth in developing countries.
Reasoning (R): Women in developing countries have less access to family planning methods.
5. Assertion (A): India's population is predominantly rural.
Reasoning (R): The majority of India's population depends on agriculture for livelihood.
6. Assertion (A): The literacy rate has a positive impact on population growth.

Reasoning (R): Education and awareness about family planning methods help in controlling population
growth.
7. What is demography?
8. Define population growth.
9. What is mortality rate?
10. Explain birth rate and death rate.
11. Define sex ratio.
12. What is population density?
13. What are the causes of migration?
14. What is urbanization?
15. What is the importance of literacy rate in population studies?
16. Explain Occupational structure?
17. Why Arunachal Pradesh has low density of population than Uttar Pradesh?
18. What is Census?
19. Who are adolescents? Why do we need more attention towards them?
20. Why India is facing the problems of rural migration.
21. Map Work- On the outline map of India mark the following: -
1.State with lowest density of population
2. State with the highest literacy rate.
3. State having high density of population
_____________________________________________________________________________________
SUBJECT- POLITICAL SCIENCE
Topics- What Democracy? Why Democracy? & Constitutional Design
What Democracy & Why Democracy
1. What is the role of the citizen in promoting democracy?
2. What is the name of China’s Parliament?
3. What is representative democracy? Why do we need it?
4. Name the party which ruled Mexico. What methods were employed by the party to win the election?
5. Explain any three differences between democratic and non- democratic country.
6. Name the party and the leader who led to the freedom struggle in Zimbabwe. How the leader
misused his popularity?
7. Correct the sentences.
i) Russian minorities were very happy with the Estonian government.
ii) In China, people had lots of choices as election is held in free and fair way.
8. Explain the main features of Democracy.
9. Read the extract and answer the questions.
General Musharraf who led a military coup in October 1999 in Pakistan overthrew a democratically
elected government and declared himself the president of the country in 2002.He issued a legal
framework ordering the amendment of the constitution. He was considered as a fraud by Pakistani
media & human right organisations. After passing the law the elections were held in Pakistan but the
elected representatives have limited powers. He did not allow the elected representatives to take
part in decision making, the civilian cabinate was supervised by a National Security Council
dominated by the military officers. Pakistan under him formally had an elected parliament and
government but the real power was in the hand of those who were not elected.
i) Who was Pervez Musharraf?
ii) How Musharraf became the president of Pakistan?
iii) What was the order given by him through the referendum passed in August 2002?
iv) Who did not favour him?
v) Why Pakistan under Musharraf should not be called a democracy?
10. Choose the correct pair.
Democratic decisions take time It improves the quality of decision
making
Democracy leads to corruption It enhances the dignity of citizens
Constitutional Design
Choose the correct option: -
1. Republic in context of our constitution means: -
A) No favourism for any religion B) Head of the state is elected C) Both a& b D) None of these
2. Strike the odd one out: -
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad B) H.C Mukherjee C) B.R Ambedkar D) Nelson Mandela
3. Which one of the following terms is not there in the preamble of the constitution: -
A) Democratic B) Secular C) Sovereign D) Gandhian
4. When was the constitution of India adopted: -
A) 26th Nov.1949 B) 26th Nov. 1950 C) 26th Jan.1949 D) 26th Jan.1950
5. Who among the following was not the member of constituent assembly.
A) Kanhaiya Lal B) T.T Krishnamacharya C)Mahatma Gandhi D)Abul kalam Azad
6. The Constituent Assembly constituted _________________ members.
7. The chairman of the drafting committee was__________________________
8. When the state does not have any official religion , it is called_______________________
9. _______________________prepared the constitution of India in 1928.
10. Tryst with destiny was the speech given by__________________________
11. Gandhiji wrote his vision about India in the magazine_______________________ in 1931.
12. The country wide lock down was the decision taken by PM of India during covid 19, which proves
that India is a_________________________ country.
13. What did Gandhiji wanted the constitution to do?
14. Why should we accept the constitution made by the Constituent Assembly?
15. Match the column with the correct meaning of the feature of the preamble.
Column-I Column-II
Secular All are equal before the law.
Socialist Government treats all religion with equal respect.
Liberty No one should treat a fellow citizen inferior
Equality Wealth should be shared equally by society
Republic There is no restrictions on citizens thoughts and expressions
Fraternity The head of the state is an elected person
_______________________________________________________________________________________
TOPIC- Electoral politics,Working of Institution & Democratic Rights
Electoral Politics
1. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reasoning(R). Mark the correct option.
Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) A is true but R is false
i) Assertion: Political parties are important institutions in a democracy.
Reasoning: Political parties represent different ideologies and compete for power through
elections.
ii) Assertion: Electoral reforms are necessary for free and fair elections.
Reasoning: Electoral reforms aim to eliminate corruption, increase transparency and ensure fair
representation in elections.
ii) Assertion: The Election Commission of India is an autonomous institution.
Reasoning: The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting free and fair elections and
is not subject to the control of any other institution.
2. Choose the correct option: -
i) What is the primary purpose of political parties in a democracy?
A) To promote individual interests B) To promote national interest
C) To suppress opposition D) None of the above
iii) Which of the following institutions is responsible for conducting elections in India?
A) The President of India B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Election Commission of India D) None of the above
iv) What is the purpose of a political campaign?
A) To win elections B) To spread false information
C) To suppress opposition D) None of the above
v) What is the role of the media in electoral politics?
A) To promote one political party B) To criticize all political parties
C) To provide accurate information about the candidates and issues D) None of the above
vi) What is the purpose of the Election Commission of India?
A) To promote a particular political party B) To conduct free and fair elections
C) To suppress opposition D) None of the above
3. What is the role of the Election Commission of India?
4. What is the purpose of nomination in an election?
5. What are the different types of elections in India?
6. What are the eligibility criteria for contesting elections in India?
7. Why is universal adult franchise important for democracy?
8. Discuss the merits and demerits of political competition?
9. What are the restriction imposed by the election law?
10. What is voter’s list and why it is important?
______________________________________________________________________________________
Working Institutions
1. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reasoning(R). Mark the correct option.
Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) A is true but R is false
i)Assertion: The legislature plays a crucial role in a democratic system of governance.
Reasoning: The legislature is responsible for making laws, representing the interests of citizens and
holding the government accountable.
ii) Assertion: The judiciary is not an independent institution in a democratic system of governance.
Reasoning: The judiciary is responsible for interpreting the Constitution and ensuring that the
government and citizens follow the rule of law.
iii) Assertion: The executive is responsible for implementing laws and policies in a democratic system
of governance.
Reasoning: The executive is responsible for administering the day-to-day affairs of the
government and implementing policies and programmes.
2. Choose the correct option:-
i) Which of the following is not a feature of a democratic government?
a) Separation of powers b) Rule by a single party
c) Fundamental rights d) Independent judiciary
ii) The Constitution of India provides for how many tiers of government?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
iii) Which of the following is not a function of the legislature?
a) Making laws b) Implementing policies
c) Holding the government accountable d) Representing citizens
iv) The judiciary is responsible for
a) Making laws b) Implementing policies
c) Interpreting the Constitution d) None of the above
v) The President of India is elected by
a) The people of India b) The Members of Parliament
c) The State Legislatures d) All of the above
vi)What is the term of office of the President of India?
a) 4 years b) 5 years c) 6 years d) 7 years
vii) The Parliament of India consists of
a) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
c) Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha d) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
viii) Which of the following is not a feature of federalism?
a) Division of powers b) Shared governance c) Unitary government d) Autonomous regions
ix) Which of the following is not a function of the executive?
a) Making laws b) Implementing policies
c) Administering the government d) Providing governance
x)Which of the following is not an independent institution in a democratic system of governance?
a) Judiciary b) Executive c) Election Commission d) Auditor General
3. What is the role of the parliament in a democratic system of governance?
4. What is the role of the judiciary in a democratic system of governance?
5. What is the difference in the houses of the Parliament of India?
6. What is the procedure for impeaching the President of India? Write his power & functions.
______________________________________________________________________________________
Democratic Rights
1. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reasoning(R). Mark the correct option.
Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) A is true but R is false
i) Assertion: Democracy is the best form of government.
Reasoning: Democracy ensures equal representation of people in the government and provides
freedom to express opinions and ideas.
ii) Assertion: Universal adult franchise is a nominal feature of democratic elections.
Reasoning: Universal adult franchise ensures that every adult citizen has the right to vote and
participate in the democratic process.
iii) Assertion: Freedom of speech and expression is a Fundamental right in a democracy. Reasoning:
Freedom of speech and expression enables citizens to express their opinions, criticize the
government and hold them accountable.
iv) Assertion: The right to vote is a legal right.
Reasoning: The Constitution of India provides right to vote so that the citizens can show their power
to do anything and challenged in court.
2. Choose the correct option: -
i) Which of the following is not a feature of a democratic government?
a) Universal adult franchise b) Rule by a single party
c) Free and fair elections d) Independent judiciary
ii) The right to vote is a ___________ right.
a) Constitutional b) Fundamental c) Legal d) Moral
iii) Which of the following is not a condition for universal adult franchise?
a) Education b) Age c) Gender d) Religion
iv) Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
a) Right to equality b) Right to property
c) Right to freedom of speech and expression d) Right to freedom of religion
v) The Constitution of India provides for the right to vote to
a) Only citizens above 18 years of age
b) All citizens irrespective of their age
c) Only citizens who have completed their education
d) Only citizens who have paid their taxes
vi) Which of the following is not a condition for free and fair elections?
a) Secret ballot b) Independent Election Commission
c) Only one party contesting the elections d) Active participation of citizens
vii) The Preamble to the Constitution of India begins with the words
a) We, the people of India b) India, a democratic republic
c) Justice, liberty, equality d) None of the above
______________________________________________________________________________________
SUBJECT-ECONOMICS
Topics- The Story of Village Palampur & People as Resource
The Story Of Village Palampur
1. The main activity of Palampur village is____________ (Dairy farming/Farming).
2. The number of families residing in this village is 450. (True or False).
3. Which group of people in this village are landless. ______________
4. Crops grown in rainy season are called ______________ crops.
5. During which season do the farmers of palampur grow Jowar and Bajra. __________
6. The standard unit of measuring land is_______________
7. Physical capital includes _______________ and ______________________.
8. Which crop is grown by the farmers of palampur between October and December.
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Potato (d) Sugarcane
9. Do all parts of land in India is under irrigation Yes OR No. If yes why or if no why
10. Read and write down the correct option.
Options: -(a)Both A & R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)Both A & R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R are true.
Assertion (A): - The farmers of palampur are able to grow different crops in a year due to well-
developed irrigation system.
Reason (R): - The government installed tube wells in many places of Palampur
11. Which one of the following states was first to try out Modern Farming.
(a) Bihar (b) Odisha (c) Haryana (d) Jharkhand
12. Which cash crop is sown in Palampur.
(a) Potatoes (b) Sugarcane (c) Both A & B (d) None
13. How much percentage of people are engaged in farming activity?
(a) 55% (b) 85% (c) 75% (d) 25%
14. Which of the following is an example of working population?
(a) Paying wages to labours (b) Tractor (c) Human capital (d) All of these
15. What are the limitations of Green Revolution ?
_______________________________________________________________________________________

People As Resource
1. Large population which is considered a liability can be turned into a productive asset by investing
in_____
(a) Land (b) Irrigation (c) Electricity (d) Human capital
2. The work force population of India includes people from the age group of----
(a) 10-59 years (b) 20-59 years (c) 15-59 years (d) 25-59 years
3. Which is the most Lab our absorbing sector in India?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Tertiary Sector (c) Secondary Sector (d) Public Sector
4. What is the major aim of “Sarva Siksha Abhiyan”?
(a)To provide elementary education to women (b)To provide education to the rural poor
(c)To provide elementary education to all children in age group of 6-14 years.
(d)To provide education to urban poor
5. Which is the most literate state in India?
(a) Bihar (b) Goa (c) Kerela (d) Assam
6. Which of the following belongs to the Tertiary sector?
(a) Banking (b) Transportation (c) Communication (d) All of these
7. Which of the following is the economic activity
(a) Farming (b) Teaching (c) Tailoring (d) All of these
8. Which of the following activity belong to secondary activity?
(a) Mining (b) Education (c) Agriculture (d) Manufacturing
9. Which type of unemployment is common in Urban areas?
(a) Seasonal (b) Disguised (c) Educated (d) None of these
10. Which of the following is the non-economic activity?
(a) Selling fish in the market (b) Teaching in an institution
(b) Cooking food for the family (d) Working in factory
______________________________________________________________________________________
Topics- Poverty as a challenge & Food security in India
Poverty As A Challange
Read the paragraph and answer the following questions.
One of the biggest challenges of independent India has been to bring million’s of its people out of abject
poverty. Since poverty has many facets, social scientists look it through a variety of indicators. Income &
consumption, lack of access to health care, lack of job opportunities etc. What is necessary to satisfy basic needs
is different at different times and in different countries. Therefore poverty line may vary with time and place.
The poverty line is estimated periodically after every five years. The proportion of poor people is not the same
in every state in India. There has been significant decline of poverty in many states. Removal of poverty has
been one of the major objectives of Indian developmental strategy. Poverty reduction remains India’s most
compelling challenges. The challenge is becoming bigger as scholars are broadening the concept into Human
Poverty.
1. What are the dimensions of poverty?
2. What is poverty line?
3. Which organisation carry the survey for estimating poverty?
4. Name the two poorest states of India.
5. Mention some anti-poverty programmes undertaken by the government.
6. What are the various causes of poverty in India?
7. Answer these by selecting the appropriate options.
OPTIONS :a. Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A & R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
i) ASSERTION(A)- The amount of poverty line for rural area is less than the amount for urban
areas.
REASONING (R)- The urban people actually requires more calories than the people of rural
areas.
ii)ASSERTION(A)- Vulnerability describes the greater probability of poor being more adversely
affected than others.
REASONING (R)- Widow, children and handicapped are certain individuals who are vulnerable to
poverty in India.
iii)ASSERTION(A)- There has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerela
.REASONING (R)- The public distribution of Food grains has been responsible for the reduction
of poverty.
7. Match the column
Column-I Column-II
NREGA 2000
PMRY 1995
REGP 2005
SGSY 1993
PMGY 1999
______________________________________________________________________________________
Food Security In India
Choose the correct option: -
1. In which state the most devastating famine take place in 1943?
a. Bengal b. Uttar Pradesh c. Kerela d. Maharashtra
2. According to Antyodaya Anna Yojana at what rate wheat is given to poor people
a. Rs 3/kg b. Rs 4/kg c. Rs 2/kg d. Rs 1/kg
3. Which of the following is the full name of FCI.
a. Famine Corporation of India b. Food Corporation of India
c. Fisheries Corporation of India d. Financial Corporation of India
4. Which of the following groups is likely to be more food insecure.
a. Traditional artisans b. Small entrepreneurs c. Medium farmers d. Shopkeeper
5. Academy of Development Science is located in which Indian state?
a. Gujarat b. Tamil Nadu c. Punjab d. West Bengal
6. Starvation deaths are reported in Baran district of------
a. Rajasthan b. Kerela c. Orissa d. Jharkhand
7. Inspite of irregular income Ahmad is not a food insecure. Why?
a. All his family members are earning b. He is involved with some illegal activities
c. He has a yellow card, which is PDS card for below poverty line.
d. He is a OBC, who lives in slum of Patna.
8. Answer the following questions.
1. What is famine?
2. What are the main dimensions of “Food Security”?
3. What is Hunger? Explain its two types.
4. Why was buffer stock created?
5. What is PAP? Name some programmes under it.
6. Why in many states of India ration shops has been closed?

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¼d½ lTtuk% ¼[k½ lalkjs ¼x½ euq";% ¼?k½ iksf"kdk
III. laLd`r Hkk"kk] nsoHkk"kk] izk;% lokZlka Hkkjrh;&Hkk"kk.kka tuuh] izknsf’kd&Hkk"kk.kka p izk.kHkwrkA ;Fkk izk.kh vésu thofr]
ija ok;qa fcuk {k.kefi thoua jf{kraq u 'kDuksfr] rFkSo vL; ns’kL; dkfi Hkk"kk lald`rHkk"kkoyEca fouk thforqe~
v{kek vfLrA bfr fu%la’k;e~A~ vL;ke~ ,o vLekda /keZ%] vLekda bfrgkl%] vLekda Hkwra Hkfo";Œp loZa lqlféfgre~A
1- ,dinsu mÙkjr &
(i) laLd``rHkk"kk dklka izk.kHkwrk vfLr\ (ii) izk.kh dsu thofr\
2- iw.kZokD;su mÙkjr&
(i) dk nsoHkk"kk vfLr\ (ii) dq= vLekda /keZ% bfrgkl%] Hkwra Hkfo";a
p lféfgre~\
3- Hkkf"kddk;Ze~&
(i) ^v{kek* bfr inL; foykseina fy[kr&
¼d½ {kek~ ¼[k½ n;k ¼x½ Øwjrk ¼?k½ ?k`.kk
(ii) ^thofr* bfr inL; fda dr`Zine~\
¼d½ euq";% ¼[k½ izk.kh ¼x½ i'kq% ¼?k½ thod%
(iii) ^vL; ns’kL;* v= fo’ks";ina fy[kr&
¼d½ vL; ¼[k½ v= ¼x½ ns’kL; ¼?k½ vusu
(iv) ^vL;ke~~ ,o vLekda /keZ%* v= ^vL;ke~* bfr ina dL;S iz;qDre~\
¼d½ teZuHkk"kk;S ¼[k½ vkaXyHkk"kk;S ¼x½ fgUnhHkk"kk;S ¼?k½ laLd`rHkk"kk;S
IV. jkek;.kL; jpf;rk egf"kZ% okYehfd% vfLrA ukjnL; izsj.k;k ckYehfd% jkeL; pfjre~ vfLeu~ egkdkO;s fyf[kroku~A
jkek;.ka laLd`r&lkfgR;L; mRd`"Va egkdkO;e~~ vfLrA vfLeu~ JhjkeL; thouL; o.kZue~ vfLrA Hkkjrh;lekts
/kkfeZdn`"V~;k vL; fo’ks"kegÙoa fofnre~A bna egkdkO;e~ u dsoya Hkkjrns’ks vfirq lalkjs vfi izfl)e~A
1- ,dinsu mÙkjr &
(i) okYehfd% dL; xzUFkL; jpf;rk vfLr\ (ii) laLd`rlkfgR;L; vkfndkO;a fde~ vfLr\
2- iw.kZokD;su mÙkjr&
(i) Hkkjrns’ks fda izfl)e~ vfLr\ (ii) jkek;.ks fde~ of.kZre~ vfLr\
3- Hkkf"kd dk;Ze~&
(i) ^vizfl)e~* bR;L; foykseI’kCn% d%\
¼d½ izfl)e~ ¼[k½ Js"Be~ ¼x½ fud`"Be~ ¼?k½ mRd`"Ve~~
(ii) ^mRd`"Va* bR;L; i;kZ;% d%\
¼d½ v/kee~ ¼[k½ Js"Be~ ¼x½ fud`"Ve~ ¼?k½ izfl)e~
(iii) ^JhjkeL;* bR;= dk foHkfDr\
¼d½ lIreh ¼[k½ r``rh;k ¼x½ "k"Bh ¼?k½ prqFkhZ

V. ,dfLeu~ uxjs }kS /kfudkS fuolr% LeA rkS ijLija fe=kS vkLrke~A ,dnk /kueso vknk; r;ks% /kfud;ks% e/;s fookn%
tkr%A fookn% ;nk dsukfi mik;su uSo 'kkUrks·Hkor~ rnk mHkkS vfi U;k;ky;a xroUrkSA U;k;ky;a xeule;s ,d%
/kfud% ekxsZ ,o vfpUr;r~ & ^^;fn vga y{ka :I;dkf.k U;k;k/kh’kk; mRdksp:is.k nnkfe rfgZ fu.kZ;% eRi{ks Hkfo";fr**
bfrA l% L;wrs y{ka :I;dkf.k LFkkif;Rok U;k;k/kh’kL; x`ga xroku~A U;k;k/kh’k% rL; eUrO;a KkRok Øq)% vHkor~A
/kfud% U;k;k/kh’ke~~ vonr~ & Hkks% ! eRln`’kk% y{k:I;dk.kka nkrkj% nqyZHkk% ,oA U;k;k/kh’k% /kfude~ vonr~&
y{k&y{k:I;dk.kka nkrkj% dnkfpr~ vU;s vfi Hkos;q%] ijUrq y{k:I;dk.kka fujkdkÙkkZj% eRln`’kk% vU;s fojyk% ,oA
vr% d`i;k xPN Roe~A U;k;LFkkua efyua ek djksrqA yfTtr% l% /kfud% /kuL;wra x`ghRok rr% fuxZr%A
iz'uk%&
1. ,dinsu mÙkjr&
(i) d;ks% e/;s fookn% tkr%\
(ii) d% yfTtr% Hkwrok fuxZr%\
(iii) /kfud% dfr :I;dkf.k U;k;k/kh’kk; nkrqe~ bPNfr Le\
2. iw.kZokD;su fy[kr&
(i) /kfud% U;k;k/kh’ka fde~ vonr~\
(ii) U;k;/kh’k% fde~ vonr~\
(iii) ,d% /kfud% fde~ vfpUr;r~\
3. vL; vuqPNsnL; d`rs mi;qDra 'kh"kZda laLd`rsu fy[krA
4. ;FkkfunsZ’ke~ mÙkjr&¼,dinsu&KkukRediz’u%½
(i) ^vr% d`i;k xPN Roe~* v= fda fØ;kine~\
(ii) ^yfTtr%* bfr fo’ks"k.kinL; fo’ks";ina fde~\
(iii) ^fu/kZu%* bfr inL; fda foykseina x|ka’ks iz;qDre~\
(iv) ^fuolr%* bfr fØ;kinL; dr`Zina fda Hkosr~\
VI. vk/kqfudthous lax.kdL; vkfo"dkjs.k m|ksxs] f’k{kk;ka euksjatus bR;kfn losZ"kq {ks=s"kq dYiukrhr% fodkl% n`’;rsA
nwjHkk"k&ok;q;ku&vkfnfHk% nwjLFk% lalkj% vo’;eso lehie~ vk;kfr ije~ ^b.VjusV* ek/;esu rq olq/kk vLekda
eqf"Vdk;kfeo izfrHkkfrA vusu izsf"kr% lUns’k% {k.ksuSo lIrleqnzk.kka ikja xPNfrA oSc&dsejk&ek/;esu o;a nwjLFkku~~
cU/kq&ckU/koku~ nz"Vqa rS% lg okrkZa p drqZa leFkkZ% Hkoke%A oLrqr% v/kquk ^olq/kSo dqVqEcde~* bfr mfDr% lQyk HkofrA
iz'uk%&
1. ,dinsu mÙkjr&
(i) dL; vkfo"dkjs.k dyiukrhr% fodkl% n`’;rs\
(ii) nwjHkk"k;U=s.k lUns’k% ds"kka ikja xPNfr\
(iii) dL; ek/;esu olq/kk vLekda eqf"Vdk;kfeo izfrHkkfr\
2. iw.kZokD;su fy[kr&
(i) oSc&dsejk;U=L; d% ykHk\
(ii) v/kquk dk mfDr% lQyk\
(iii) nwjHkk"ok;q;kusu d% vo’;eso lehia vk;kfr\
3. vL; vuqPNsnL; d`rs ,da mfpra 'kh"kZda fy[krA
4. ;FkkfunsZ’ke~ mÙkjr&¼,dinsu&KkukRediz’u%½
(i) ^Hkoke%* bfr inL; dr`Zina fde~\
(ii) ^dYiukrhr% fodkl%* v= fo’ks";ina fde~~\
(iii) ^i`Foh* bfr inL; d`rs v= fda ina iz;qDre~\
vf/kU;kl&3 % ikB & i=ys[kue~
1- Hkorh _pk vfLrA Lofo|ky;L; okf"kZdksRloL; o.kZ;u~ Lofi=s ,da i=a fy[krA
fryd% Nk=kokl%
e;jk"Vªe~
fnukad &
ijeiwT;k; fi=s ue%A
v= loZa dq’kya r=kLrA xrs ¼1½--------- vLekde~ ¼2½----------- okf"kZdksRlo%A ¼3½-----------vLekda mRlos ¼4½-
--------- izeq[kkfrfFk vklhr~A vLekda fo|ky;s vusds lkaLd`frdk% ¼5½---------vHkou~A dspu~ Nk=k% vxk;u~ dspu~
p vu`R;u~A izkpk;Z% fo|ky;L; ¼6½----------- viBr~~A f’k{kkfuns’kd% ¼7½---------- vdjksrA~ vge~ vfi ¼8½----
---A
izkIroku~ ;r% vga d{kk;ka izFkea LFkkue~~ ¼9½-------------A ekr`pj.k;ks% ee iz.kkek%A
¼10½------------ru;k]
_pk
eŒtw"kk & f’k{kkfuns’kd%] lIrkgs] fo|ky;L;] vHkor~] dk;ZØek%] Hkonh;k%] izfrosnue~] izkIroku~]~ iqjldkjforj.ke~]
iqjLdkje~~A
2- Hkor% uke 'k’kkad% vfLrA Hkoku~ fo|ky;L; Nk=kokls fuolfrA ^fnYys% laln Hkoue~* bfr LFkkus 'kSf{kd Hkze.kk;
xUrqa Hkoku~ bPNfrA rnFkZa /kuizs"k.kkFkZe~ fijra izfr fyf[krs vFk% iznÙka viwoZa i=a eŒtw"kka iznÙkS% 'kCnS% fjDrLFkkukfu
iwj;rA
20] #fDe.kh fo|ky; Nk=kokl% e;jk"Vªe~
fnukad %---------
ije ¼1½-------- fir`egkHkkxk%A ¼2½---------- iz.kkek%A
lfou;a fuosnue~¼3½------- ;r~ ee ¼4½---------- ijh{kk lekIrk tkrkA ee ¼5½--------- 'kksHkkukfu vHkou~A
vfLeu~ ¼6½------- vga x`ga u vkxfe";kfe ;r% ¼7½-------- ,dL;k% 'kSf{kd;k=k;k% vk;kstua ¼8½-------A ,"kk
;k=kk ^fnYys% laln Hkoua* nz"Vqa ¼9½---------- vfLrA vL; ;k=k O;;kFkZa "kV~’kra #I;dkf.k HkoUr% ¼10½---------A
'ks"ka loZa dq’kyaA ek=k;S vxztk; p ee iz.kkek%A
Hkonh;% fiz;% iq=% 'kadj%
eŒtw"kk & fo|ky;su] vknj.kh;k%] d`re~] lknja] vfLr] vk;ksftrk] okf"kZd%] izs"k;Urq] mÙkji=kf.k] xzh"ekodk’ksA
3- Hkoku okjk.kL;ka fLFkr% mes’k% vfLrA Hkor% fe=a lksesUnz% iz;kxs olfrA l uoed{kk;ka izFkeJs.;ke~mÙkh.kZ%A eŒtw"kk;k%
lgk;r;k ra izfr o/kkZiu&i=a fy[krA
y{ehukjk;.k laLd``rfo|ky;%]
¼1½---------A
fnukad% ----------------
fiz;% fe= ¼2½-----------]
ueLrsA v= dq’kya ¼3½-----------A Hkor% i=a ifBRok Kkra ;r~ Hkoku~ ¼4½----------izFkea LFkkua izkIroku~A bna ¼5½-
------ee fpÙka izQqfYyra tkre~ ¼6½---------,rr loZa ro lrrifjJeL; ,o Qye~ vfLrA ee x`gL; losZ"kke~¼7½-
-------i{kr% Hkors o/kkZiukfuA Hkoku mÙkjksÙkja lQyrka izkIuksrq ¼8½---------- vLekda 'kqHkdkeukA ekr`fir`pj.k;ks%
¼9½--------iz.kkek%A vuqtk; Lusgjkf’k%A
Hkor% l`g`n%
¼10½----------
eŒtw"kk & okjk.klhr%] fe=o;Z] r=kLrq] ee] ,"kk] KkRok] mes’k%] ijh{kk;ke~] lnL;kuke~] lksesUnz%A
4- fo|ky;L; okf"kZdksRlo% vf/kd`R; fe=a izfr fyf[krs i=s eatw"kk;ka iznÙkS% 'kCnS% fjDrLFkkukfu dq#r&
¼1½--------A
fiz;% ¼2½--------A
¼3½----------ro i=e~ v|So vf/kxre~A e;k i=s.k Kkra ;r~ xrlIrkgs fo|ky;L; ¼4½--------vklhr~A Roa losZ
v/;kidk% p ¼5½--------vfr"Bu~A dk;ZØeL; eq[;kfrfFk% ¼6½------vklhr~A l% ¼7½----------- dk;ZØeL; iz’kalke~~
vdjksr~A l ¼8½--------------- Nk=sH;% iqjLdkjku~ izk;PNr~A ¼9½-------- lknja iz.kkek%A ¼10½---------A
d-[k-x-
eŒtw"kk & ijh{kkHkoukr] Hkor%] fe=e~] f’k{kkfuns’kd%] e;k] okf"kZdksRlo%] O;Lrk%] fir`H;ka] ;q"ekda] ;ksX;sH;%] fe=
5- Hkoku~ nsoozr 'kekZ Lox`gL; lehia tylaj{k.ka drqZe~ bPNfrA ,rnFkZa Hkoku~ uxjfuxeL; vk;qDra lgk;rk;S i=a
fy[kfrA eŒtw"kk;k% leqfpr inkfu uhRok Loi=a iwj;rq Hkoku~
¼ i½
iŒtkc&izkUre~
frfFk%
lsok;ke~
Jheu~ vk;qDregksn;!
¼ii½
eksgkyhuxje~
fo"k;%& tylaj{k.kkFkZa 'kkluL; lgk;rk&;kpue~A
egksn;]
vga ¼iii½ lIres [k.Ms ¼lSDVj½ fuolkfeA bnkuhe~ vL; {ks=L; tuk% ¼iv½
vuqHko dqoZfUrA Hkfo";s vL;k% leL;k;k% ¼v½ drqZe~ vga Lox``gs tyL; ¼vi½ drqZe~ bPNkfe
vr% 'kkluL; ¼vii½ bPNkfeA

Hkoku~ uxjfuxekr~ lk/ku:is rduhd:is p ;ka lgk;rka drqZa ¼viii½ vfLr] d`I;k 'kh?kzeso fy[krqA
vga Hkorke~ ¼ix½ Hkfo";kfeA

Hkorka i=ksÙkja izrh{;ek.k%A

Hkonh;%
¼x ½
x`gla[;k 16] [k.M%&7]
eksgkyhuxje~

eŒtw"kk &vkHkkjh] laj{k.ke~] eksgkyhuxje~~] leFkZ%] nsoozr%] v=] lgk;rke~] uxjfuxe%] lek/kkue~] tykHkkoL;
6- Hkoku~ lqjs’k% ! laLd`rlEHkk"k.kf’kfojfo"k;s Lofe=a izfr fyf[kra i=a eŒtw"kk;ka iznÙk’kCnS% iwjf;Rok i=a iqu% fy[krA
jksfg.kh lsDVj-9]
¼ i½
frfFk%
fiz; fe= jkds’k!
lLusga ¼ii½ A
v= loZxra dq’kye~A eU;s Hkoku~ ¼iii½ A xrlIrkgs vLekda fo|ky;s laLd`r&lEHkk"k.kf’kfoje~~ ¼iv½
vklhr~A n’k fnukfu ;kor~ o;a laLd``rs lEHkk"k.kL; ¼v½ d`roUr%A
,dL;k% y?kqukfVdk;k% eŒpua ¼vi½ vdqeZA vga rq fonw"kdL; ¼vii½
d`roku~A losZ tuk% gflRok okja okja djry/ofua vdqoZu~A vga rq bnkuha loZnk laLd`rsu ,o onkfeA ee f’kf{kdk
vfi ¼viii½ Lusga djksfrA Roe~ vfi iz;Rua dq#A uwua ;’kLoh Hkfo";flA firjkS ¼ix½
ee iz.kkekŒtfya fuosn;rqA
ro ¼x½ A
lqjs’k%
eŒtw"kk & ueLrs] vH;kle~] fnYyhr%] izfr] dq’kyh] vfHku;e~] ef;] vk;ksftre~] o;e~] vfHkUuân;%
7- Lofe=a ,dkn’k&d{kk;ka laLd`ra ifBra izsjf;rqa fyf[krs i=s fjDrLFkkukfu iwjf;Rok i=a p iqu% mÙkjiqfLrdk;ka fy[krqA
Nk=kokl%
¼ i½
fnukad
fiz; vkfnR;]
¼ii½ A
v= dq’kya r=kLrqA ro ¼iii½ Kkra ;r~ Roe~ ,dkn’k&d{kk;ka laLd`rHkk"kka ifBrqe~ bPNflA ,rr~ KkRok
vge~ vfr izlUu% ¼iv½ ;r% laLd`re~ ifBRok o;a Lons’kL; xkSjoe~ vuqHkforqa ¼v½
A b;a nsoHkk"kk fo’oL; lokZlq Hkk"kklq izkphurek oSKkfudh p vfLrA fo’oL; ¼vi½
Hkk"kklq Hkkjrh;Hkk"kklq p ¼vii½ 'kCnk% izkI;UrsA fda Roa tkukfl ;r~ osnk%]
jkek;.ke~] egkHkkjre~] mifu"kn% iŒprU=fgrksins’kkn;% ¼viii½ laLd`rs ,o fyf[krk% lfUr\ vr% Loa
loSZ% ¼ix½ lg laLd`re~ vfi ifjJes.k iBA vodk’ks"kq ee x`ge~ vkxPNA ekrkfir`H;ka ee
iz.kkeku~ dFk;A
ro ¼x½ A
oSHko%
eŒtw"kk & vHkoe~] ueksue%] fe=e~] 'kDuqe%] fo"k;S%] nsgjknwur%] laLd`rL;] vusdklq] i=s.k] xzUFkk
8- lkSjHk% Hkoku~] iq.ks&fuokfluha Lodh;ke~ vuqtka izfr fnYyhuxjs ekfurL; x.krU=fnol&lekjksgL; o.kZua dqoZu~ i=a
fyf[krqfePNfrA rRi=a eŒtw"kk;k% inS% iwjf;Rok iqu% fy[kr&
Nk=kokl%
¼ i½
frfFk%
fiz;s Hkkfxfu! ¼ii½ A
v= dq’kya r=kLrqA vga Roka oDqre~ bPNkfe ;r~ v= dfrfpr~ fnusH;% izkd~ ,o lEiw.ksZu ¼iii½
HkkjrL; loZdkjs.k x.krU=fnollekjksg% ¼iv½ J);k mYyklsu p ekfur%A vfLeu~
lekjksgs lEiw.kZns’kL; ¼v½ ;= iznf’kZrk vklhr~ r=So lkaLd`frdh vkS|ksfxdh p izxfr% vfi
iznf’kZrkA fnYyh vLekda ns’kL; ¼vi½ orZrsA lekjksgL; egRoa o/kZf;rqa jk"VªifrHkoukr~ Hkkjr}kji;ZUra
laiw.kZ% ekxZa lfot;prq"iFka uoo/kwfjo lqlfTtre vklhr~A vfLeu~ o"ksZ Hkkjrns’kL; fe=a :lns’kL; ¼vii½
JhCykfnfejiqfruegkHkkxk% eq[;kfrfFk% :is.k r= vklu~A jk"Vªifruk /otkjksg.ka d`re~~A rnUrja lsuk;k%
fofHkUufoHkkxkukŒp ¼viii½ vHkor`] ;a n"V~~ok tulEenZ% izksRlfgr%] izQqfYyr% p tkr%A Roefi nwjn’kZus
bea ¼ix½ vo’;e~ i';s%] bfr ee bPNk vfLrA
ro ¼x½ A
lkSjHk%
eŒtw"kk & mRlkgsu] vxzt%] jk"Vªifr%] fnYY;ka] dk;ZØee~] lSU;’kfDr%] uo&fnYyhr%] jkt/kkuh] izn’kZue~~] fueZys

vf/kU;kl&4 % ikB & lfU/k


1- js[kkafdrinkuka lfU/kPNsne~ vfkok lfU/ke~ d`Rpk fy[krA
Loj lfU/k %&
(i) rFkkfi vgefi Hk;Hkhr% u vfLeA (xiii) vFk czkã.k jkKk Jk)kFkZa fuefU=r%A
(ii) yksdS"k.kk u mfprk oÙkZrsA (xiv) v| [kyq$voxPNkfe fi=k esa nq"dja d`re~A
(iii) vXu;s LokgkA (xv) tus"kq egksRlkg% L;kr~A
(iv) v|kodk’k% oÙkZrsA (xvi) lkEizre~ xzh"e$_rq% vfLrA
(v) ,d$,defi vuFkkZ; fdeq ;= prq"V;e~A (xvii) vL; 'yksdL; vUo;a dq#A
(vi) ;L; ukfLr$vU/k% ,o l%A (xviii) x.ks’k% yEcksnj% vfi dF;rsA
(vii) Rk= loZLokeh xq.k$misr% u`i% volr~A (xix) ek=kns’k% lnk ikyuh;%A
(viii) rL; uke fgr$mins’k%A (xx) v| o/kwRlo% ekU;rsA
(ix) b;a Lo;a xPNrq ekugsrksA ekrk$bo Hkkoa ru;s (xxi) dohÜoj% ¼--------$-------½ dkfynkl% vklhr~A
fuos’;A (xxii) lokZf.k nq[kkfu$vuqHkw; ¼--------½ ,oa ek dFk;A
(x) uku`ra czw;kr~A (xxiii) ;kfRofr ¼--------$-------½ ek dFk;A
(xi) oukS"k/khuka rq v;a izns’k%A (xxiv) Ekf=PNka ¼--------$-------½KkRoSo O;ogjsr~A
(xii) iqLrdky;s 'kkUra fr"BA (xxv) enh;k izkFkZuk$,"kk] ¼----------½ iwj;rke~A

O;atu lfU/k %&


(i) vge~ foky;e~ $ xPNkfe ¼-----------½A (xi) tx}U/kq% ¼--------$-------½ izHkq losZ"kke~ fgre~~
(ii) izkr% pVdke~$n`"V~~ok ¼------------½ pfdrk djksfrA
vHkoe~A~ (xii) r)ue~ ¼--------$-------½ cky% O;;e~ vdjksr~A
(iii) jek iqLrde~~$iBfr ¼------------½ A (xiii) "kM~n’kZukfu¼--------$-------½lfUrA
(iv) uhjle~ ¼------------½ okD;a ek onA (xiv) fu;ekuke~ mr~$ya?kue~ ¼----------½ ek dq#A
(v) Roe~ uhjksx% ¼--------$-------½ HkoA (xv) f’k’kqe~ n`"V~ok ekrk mr~$yflr% ¼-------½ tkr%A
(vi) lsfodk Hkkje~ $ ogfrA (xvi) rr~$~ fpUrf;Rok ¼-------½ ek dq#A
(vii) dkd% pVdke~~$ekjf;rqe ¼-----------½ bPNfrA (xvii) ekrq% pj.ke~ LoxkZr~ $ vfi ¼------½ Js"B%A
(viii) ckyd% rYyhua ¼--------$-------½ HkwRok ikBa (xviii) fHkfrdk;ke~ fpf=re~ rfPp=e~ ¼--------$-------½
iBfrA vfr’kksHkue~ vfLrA
(ix) lPpfj=e~ ¼--------$-------½ vfr’kksHkue~A (xix) vLer~ $ opue~ ¼----------½ /;kusu Jq.kqA
(x) v= ,da ys[ke~~ mfYyf[kre~ ¼--------$-------½A (xx) "kMkuuL; ¼--------$-------½dhfrZds;L; v=
efUnja orZrsA
folxZ lfU/k %&
(i) Xkksiky LrFkSo djksfr ;Fkk vge~ bPNkfeA (vi) vFkkssZ fg dU;k ijdh;ks ,oA
(ii) rrLrr% fde~ vHkor~A (vii) l bPNfrA
(iii) f’k’kq% $ glfrA (viii) ,"kks·/kkor~A
(iv) lks·glr~A (ix) nso mifo’kfr A
(v) l onfrA (x) flagks·= xtZfrA
(xi) n’kjFkL; dhn``’k%$ru;L; Lusg% vklhr~A (xv) ro efrfj;a dq= xrk\
(xii) rsu lg jke% vfi vfLrA (xvi) Hkxoku~ ro eu% $ jFka iwj;rqA
(xiii) HkfDrekukxr% d% $ fpr~A (xvii) ee firk nUrSghZu% vfLrA
(xiv) iqu%$vfi dksykgya ek dq#A

vf/kU;kl&5 % ikB & 'kCn #ikf.k


mfpr’kCn:ia okD;iwfÙkZ% fØ;rke~~ %&
(i) vfLeu~ d{ks prL=% --------- lfUrA ¼ckfydk½ (xiii) ^vkReu~* inL; r`rh;k foHkDrkS ,dopus fda #ia
(ii) ee --------- dk;kZy;% mn;iqjuxjs vfLrA ¼ekr`½ Hkofr\
(iii) --------- nqX/ka jksprsA ¼ckyd½ (xiv) -------- iq=% fo|ky;e~ xPNfrA mfprinsu
(iv) --------- fouk thoua fu"Qya oÙkZrsA ¼fo|k½ fjDrLFkkua iwj;rA ¼jktu~~½
(v) ---------'kksHkrs thoua u rq lkSUn;sZ.kA ¼fo|k½ (xv) fonq"k% fonq"kks% ------------A ¼fo}l~½
(vi) vkKk --------- fg vfopkj.kh;kA ¼xq#½ (xvi) tye~~] vUua] lqHkkf"kre~ p ,rkfu =hf.k ---------
(vii) --------- iBua iq.;a HkofrA ¼'kkL=½ lfUrA ¼jRu&izFkek½
(viii) Nk=k% -------- lfe/kk% vku;fUrA ¼xq#½ (xvii) rs lokZu~ --------- uefUrA ¼xq#&prqFkhZ½
(ix) -------- xaxk Js"Brek mP;rsA ¼unh½ (xviii) jke% ------vkxPNfrA ¼fo|ky;&iapeh½
(x) o`{ks"kq -------'kksHkUrsA ¼Qy½ (xix) vga --------- iz.kekfeA ¼Hkor~½
(xi) ee ------- bna Js"Ba fopkja ukfLrA ¼cqf)½ (xx) ---------iq=% oua xPNfrA ¼jktu~½
(xii) v/kquk Roa rr~ --------- vku;A ¼dye~½ (xxi) ,rr~ tya -------- u|k% vfLrA ¼xPNUR;%]
xPNUR;k%] xPNUrh] xPNUR;k½

vf/kU;kl&6 % ikB & /kkrq #ikf.k


/kkrq#ia fpRok fy[kr% &
(i) ^fpUr;Fk%* bfr ins d% ydkjks oÙkZrsA (xii) ^d`* /kkrks% yM~ ydkjs #ia HkofrA
(ii) ^gfUr* ina yV~ydkjL; -------- opus HkofrA (xiii) ^tkukrq* inL; ewy /kkrq% vfLrA
(iii) ^ip~* /kkrks% y`V~ydkjL; #ie~ fy[krA (xiv) ^ip~* /kkrks% yksV~ ydkjL; #ie~ fy[krA
(iv) ekxkZjC/kk% loZ;Ruk% --------A ¼Qy~~½ (xv) ^b"k~* /kkrks% yksV~ydkjL; #ie~ fy[krA
(v) vga ijh{kkfo"k;s fufÜpUr% --------A ¼vl~½ (xvi) ikpdk% Hkkstua ipUrqA ydkj% d% oÙkZrsA
(vi) lEHkor% v| o"kkZ --------A ¼Hkw½ (xvii) dnkfi vlR;a u fpUr;s;q%A fda opua oÙkZrsA
(vii) jko.k% lhrke~~ ---------A ¼g`½ (xviii) ekrk ckydk; ;nk&dnk ------- vfiA ¼dFk~&yV~½
(viii) Lokfreqfu% laxhrlk/kuL; fuekZ.ke~ ---------A ¼d`] (xix) ukjn% l nk fo".kqina -------A ¼ue~&yM~½
yax ydkj½ (xx) lk 'kh?kze~ mUufra --------A ¼d`] yksV~ ydkjs½
(ix) firk iq=k; -------A ¼Øq/k~½ (xxi) fo|k fou;a -------A ¼nk] yksV~ ydkjs½
(x) lwidkj% Hkkstua ------A ¼ip~] y`V~ ydkj½ (xxii) lnk lR;a --------A ¼on~] fof/kfyax ydkjs½
(xi) ckYehfd% jkek;.kL; jpuke~ -------A ¼d`] (xxiii) losZ Hknzkf.k ------A ¼i';~½
yaxydkj½
vf/kU;kl&7 % ikB & miin~ foHkfDr
miinfoHkfDruqlkjs.kfjDrLFkkukfu iwj;r% %&
(i) -------- ifjr% deykfu n`’;UrsA ¼rM+kx½ (xi) -------- ghua osnk% vfi u iqufUrA ¼vkpkj½
(ii) fodykax% v"VkoØ% --------- ewd% uklhr~A ¼okd~½ (xii) lwjnkl% -------- vU/k% vklhr~A ¼us=½
(iii) Roa ------- lg pyA ¼vLen~½ (xiii) xzkeL; le;k unh ogfrA ¼miinfoHkfDra 'kq)a
(iv) v/;;ule;s -------- cfg% ek xPNA ¼d{kk½ dq#r½ ¼xzke½
(v) l% ------- izoh.k% orZrsA ¼O;kdj.k½ (xiv) d`".k% dalsu vye~A ¼dal½
(vi) -------- v/k% tye~ oÙkZrsA ¼/kjk½ (xv) d`".k% ---------izfr vxPNr~A ¼}kfjdk½
(vii) -------- i`"Br% lw;Zizfrek fo|rsA ¼jFk½ (xvi) ee Hkzkrk ---------fLuáfrA ¼vLen~½
(viii) -------- fcuk uxjL; 'kksHkk u vfLrA ¼m|ku½ (xvii) ckydk% -------- izfr uefUrA ¼xq#tu½
(ix) ee ekrk izkr%dkys ^vkse~ ue% ---------* bfr (xviii) --------- nf{k.kr% dU;kdqekjh vfLrA
tifrA ¼x.ks’k½ (xix) ekrk -------- fLuáfrA ¼ckyd½
(x) -------- ij% dfÜpnfi fof’k"V% u oÙkZrsA ¼Jhjke½ (xx) ------- fouk ukfjdsyo``{kk% u HkofUrA
vf/kU;kl&8 % ikB & izR;;a
v/kksfyf[krokD;s"kq js[kkafdrins"kq izR;;a foHkT; la;ksT;k ok fy[krA
(i) fou;% ØhfMrqa fe=e~ vkà;frA (xvii) egkiq#"kk% tuku~ --------- izlhnfUrA
(ii) eksgu% r= xe~$~ rqequ~ bPNfrA ¼mi$d`$Y;i~½
(iii) eksgu% dhMudkfu Øsrqe~ xfe";fra (xviii) dnkfi tuku~ --------ek izlhnsr~A
(iv) _f"k% Øq)% HkwRok cykdka i';frA ¼frjl~$d`$Y;i~½
(v) lSU;foKkus vfi v/;;ua d``Rok viwokZ% fl);% (xix) rs losZ lq[ke~ -------- eksnUrsA ¼vuq$Hkw$Y;i~½
leizkIrk%A (xx) Nk=% d{kk;k% -------- m|kua xPNfrA
(vi) vga leLrs uxjs HkzkURok defi ew[kZa tua u ¼fuj~$xe~$Y;i~½
vi’;e~A (xxi) izrki% Lons’ka ifjR;T; dq= xr%\ ¼izd`fr&izR;;ks%
(vii) jke% jko.ka gu~$DRok yadke~ vt;r~A foHktua dq#r½
(viii) ,rr~~ rq dFkka ifBRok ,o KkL;ke%A (xxii) ra oØnsga oh{; if.Mrk% rkjLojs.k vglu~A
(ix) f’k’kq% eksnda n`"V~ok izlhnfrA (xxiii) ikf.kikne~ iz{kkY; d`"kd% Hkkstuk; mifr"Br~A
(x) l% izlUu% Hkw$DRok ØhMfrA (xxiv) Üosrdsrq% osnku~ v/khR; x`ge~ izR;kxPNr~A
(xi) vga jkf=fUno% ifjJE; thfodke~ vtZ;kfeA (xxv) xq#e~ mixE; rL; lsoke~ dq#A
(xii) lSfudk% lhekizns’ka izkI; ns’ka j{kfUrA
(xiii) l% eqfu% ,da czkã.kx`ge~ ,R; fHk{kke~ v;kpr~A
(xiv) nsoa lEiwT; ikBa iBA
(xv) lTtuk% fopk;Z ,o dk;Za dqoZfUrA
(xvi) fo|ky;e~~ -------Roa fda djksf"kA ¼la;kstua d`Rok
fjDrLFkkukfu iwj;r½ vk$xe~$Y;i~~
vf/kU;kl&9 % ikB & mPpkj.k LFkkukfu
I. v/kksfyf[kriz’ukukeqÙkje~ mfpr ine~ fpRok fy[krA
1- p oxZL; fuflD;a o.kZe~ vfLr&
¼d½ .k~ ¼[k½ Œk~~ ¼x½ ³
2- o~ bfr o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkua fde~\
¼d½ ew/kkZ ¼[k½ nUrks"BkS ¼x½ d.Brkyq%
3- b] N~] ,] 'k~ ,rs"kq o.ksZ"kq d% o.kZ% rkyO;% u vfLr\
¼d½ N~ ¼[k½ , ¼x½ 'k~
4- nUR;% o.kZ% d%\
¼d½ /k~ ¼[k½ c~ ¼x½ .k~~
5- xt% bfr ins dL; o.kZ mPpkj.kLFkkua d.B% u vfLr\
¼d½ x~ ¼[k½ t~ ¼x½ v%
6- dL; o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkua d.Bks"BkS vfLr\
¼d½ ,s ¼[k½ vks ¼x½ o~
7- d% o.kZ% rkyO;% vfLr\
¼d½ p~ ¼[k½ i~ ¼x½ [k~
8- f’ko% bfr ins ^’k* o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkue~ fde~\
¼d½ ew/kkZ ¼[k½ rkyq% ¼x½ nUrk%
9- d`i;k v= ^_* o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkue~ fde~\
¼d½ ew/kkZ ¼[k½ rkyq% ¼x½ ukfldk
10- nUR;% o.kZ% d%\
¼d½ Hk ¼[k½ /k~ ¼x½ "k~
11- ukflD;% vks"B~;% p d% o.kZ%\
¼d½ u ¼[k½ Œk~ ¼x½ e~
12- dL; o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkua ew/kkZ Hkofr\
¼d½ o~~ ¼[k½ <~ ¼x½ u~
13- dL; o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkua d.Brkyq% vfLr\
¼d½ o~ ¼[k½ b ¼x½ ,
14- d% o.kZ% rkyO;% vfLr\
¼d½ l~ ¼[k½ l~ ¼x½ >~
15- c~ o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkue~ fde~~ vfLr\
¼d½ vks"BkS ¼[k½ nUrks"BkS ¼x½ nUrk%
16- d% o.kZ% nUR;%\
¼d½ y~ ¼[k½ V~ ¼x½ e~
17- ukflD;% o.kZ% d%\
¼d½ m ¼[k½ i~ ¼x½ u
18- 'kjn~~ bfr ins dL; o.kZL;ksPpkj.kLFkkua ew/kkZ vfLr\
¼d½ 'k~ ¼[k½ j~ ¼x½ n~
19- d% o.kZ% d.B~;% vfLr\
¼d½ p~ ¼[k½ e~ ¼x½ g~
20- i=e~ ins ^e~* o.kZL;ksPpkj.kLFkkua fde~ vfLr\
¼d½ vks"BkS ¼[k½ ukfldk ¼x½ vks"BkS ukfldk p
21- dPNikS ins ^i~~*] o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkue fde~~ vfLr\
¼d½ ew/kkZ ¼[k½ ukfldk ¼x½ vks"BkS
22- _f"k% inL; d% o.kZ% ew/kZU;% u vfLr\
¼d½ b ¼[k½ _ ¼x½ "k~
23- jklHkL; ins ^Hk~* o.kZL;ksPpkj.kLFkkua fde~ vfLr\
¼d½ rkyq% ¼[k½ vks"BkS ¼x½ ew/kkZ
24- ,rs"kq o.ksZ"kq ew/kZU;% d% o.kZ%\
¼d½ p~ ¼[k½ d ¼x½ <~
25- ,rs"kq d% o.kZ% nUR;% vfLr\
¼d½ 'k~~ ¼[k½ "k~ ¼x½ l~

II. fuEukafdrokD;s"kq mfprL;kxzs ¼½ vuqfprL;kxzs ¼½ bfr fpUga fy[krA


1- ^ckydL;* inL; ^c* o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkua rkyq% vfLrA ¼ ½
2- ^vt%* ins ^v* o.kZ% d.B~;% vfLrA ¼ ½
3- u~ $ v $ e~ $ v% v= }kS o.kkSZa d.B;kS u Lr%A ¼ ½
4- n~ $ , $ o $ bZ v= ^bZ* o.kZL;ksPpkj.kLFkkua ew/kkZ vfLrA ¼ ½
5- ^y`* o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkua nUrk% vfLrA ¼ ½
6- ^e~* o.kZ% ukflD;% vfLrA ¼ ½
III. leqfpra esyua dq#rA o.kkZ% LFkkukfu
1- <~ ¼d½ nUrks"BkS
2- bZ ¼[k½ ew/kkZ
3- o~ ¼x½ rkyq%
4- Œk~ ¼?k½ nUrk%
5- ,s ¼M-½ ukfldk
6- y` ¼p½ d.Brkyq%

IV. eŒtw"kkr% mfpra ina fpRok fjDrLFkkukfu iwj;rA


¼.k~] o~] d.B%] n~] ukfldk ,oa d.B%] ukfldk ,oa rkyq%½
1- ------------ o.kZL;ksPpkj.kLFkkua nUrks"Ba vfLrA
2- ------------ o.kZL;ksPPkkj.kLFkkua nUR;% vfLrA
3- ------------ o.kZ% ukflD;% ew/kZU;% p vfLrA
4- ^[k* o.kZL;ksPpkj.kLFkkue~ --------- vfLrA
5- ^K* o.kZL;ksPpkj.kLFkkue~~ ---------- vfLrA
6- ^³~* o.kZL;ksPpkj.kLFkkue~ ----------- vfLrA
…………………………………

RMVM/2023-24/Assignment booklet/IX/66 of 74
vf/kU;kl 10 % ikB& vO;;
iz01- eŒtw"kkiznÙkS% vO;;inS% v/kksfyf[krs"kq vuqPNsns"kq fjDrLFkkukfu iwj;rA
¼d½ rs tuk% ¼1½-------- /kU;k% ;s ¼2½------------fu#Rlkfgrk% u HkofUrA rs ¼3½-------/kU;k%] ;s ¼4½--------u
onfUrA rs ¼5½---------xPNfUr r=&r= lkQY;e~ izkIuqofUrA eŒtw"kk & dnkfi] ,o] o`Fkk] vfi] ;=&;=
¼[k½ lTtuk% ¼1½--------fpUr;fUr ;r~ dk;Za ¼2½--------rq thoue~ ¼3½---------O;FkZe~A rs"kke~ vfLeu~ ,o dFkus
fo’okl% Hkofr ;r~ dk;Za rq ¼4½---------- dj.kh;e~ 'o% ¼5½---------A eŒtw"kk & u] fouk] lnSo] ,o] v/kquk
¼x½ Hkks Nk=k% dksykgye~ ¼1½-------dq#A ¼2½-------lR;e~ onA dnkfi ¼3½-------ek onA le;a ¼4½------- ek ;ki;A
lnk vkpk;Ze~ iz.kE; ¼5½---------d{kk;ke~ iBA eŒtw"kk & ,o] e`"kk] ek] lnSo] o`Fkk
¼?k½ ¼1½--------,d% u`i% vklhr~A rL; ,d% lfpo% ¼2½--------dFk;fr Le&bZ’oj% ¼3½-------djksfr ¼4½--------
'kksHkue~ djksfrA ladVs·fi l% ¼5½--------fopfyr% u HkofrA eŒtw"kk & dnkfi] rr~] iqjk] ;r~] lnSo
¼M-½ fgre~ euksgkfj ¼1½------nqyZHka op%A ¼2½--------uk;Z% rq iwT;Urs jeUrs ¼3½ --------nsorkA fo|koku ¼4½-------
iwT;rsA lR;e~ ¼5½-------e`xsUnzrkA eŒtw"kk & ,o] loZ=] p] r=] ;=
¼p½ vge~ ¼1½--------ro x`gs u vkxfe";kfeA ee laLd`rL; ijh{kk ¼2½--------Hkfo";frA ro laLd``rijh{kk ¼3½----
--- Hkfo";fr\ ee vEck izrh{kka djksfrA vr% vge~ ¼4½-------- pykfeA x`ge~ xRok ¼5½------ ikBe~ LejkfeA
eŒtw"kk & 'o%] dnk] v|] p] 'kh?kze~
¼N½ ,rr~ mioue~ euksgje~ vfLrA ;% iq"ikf.k =ksV~;fr ¼1½-------- l% ekykdkj% ,oA tuk% rq vkxPNfrA vge~
¼5½----------- rsu lg iq"ikf.k =ksV~;kfeA eŒtw"kk & 'kh?kze~] vfi] uwue~] 'kuS%&’kuS%] ,o
¼t½ ¼1½-------cq/koklj% vklhr~A ¼2½-------c`gLifroklj% vfLrA ¼3½------'kqØoklj% Hkfo";frA 'kqØokljs ¼4½----
o;e~ LoekrqyL; x`gs xfe";ke%A ee firkeg% firkegh pkfi ¼5½-------,o Lr%A eŒtw"kk & v|] á%] r=]
,o] 'o%
¼>½ tya ¼1½-----------dL; thoue~\
¼2½------------- ro x`gs d% vkxr%\
¼3½-------------deZa ----------Qye~A~
dPNi% ¼4½--------------xPNfr ije~ e`x% ¼5½------------/kkofrA eŒtw"kk & 'kuS%] rhoze~] ;Fkk&rFkk] á%] fouk
¼Œk½ lHkk;ke~~ ¼1½------------ u gflrO;e~~A ¼2½--------'kksHkue~ O;ogkje~ ¼3½--------dj.kh;e~ ¼4½------------
eq[;kfrfFk% vkxPNsr~ ¼5½------------rL; Lokxre~ djry/ous% dj.kh;e~A eŒtw"kk & ;r~] rr~] ;nk] rnk] mPpS%
¼V½ ¼1½--------- ,d% ujs’k% vHkor~A fo|ka fouk thoue~ ¼2½--------A ¼3½ ---------- thoue~ vfLr ¼4½ --
----------- /keZa pjA ¼5½ ---------- rL; f’kjfl ,de~ Qye~ virr~A eŒtw"kk & o`Fkk] ;kor~] rkor~] lglk]
iqjk
iz02- v/kksiznÙk&oxZizgsfydkr% fufnZ"V ladsrkuqlkje~ n’k vO;;ku~ fpRok fy[krA
ladsrk%
¼d½ 1 1- oker% nf{k.ke~~ izfr
o = U; v
, 2- fuEur% mifj
3 2 7 5 3- mifjr% v/k%
c
vk b r uw 4- nf{k.kr% okee~ izfr
4 10 5- mifjr% v/k%
e~ r D 6- oker% nf{k.ke~ izfr
u Uh
6 7- fuEur% mifj
e FkZ e~ ps 8- nf{k.kr% okee~~ izfr
fd
9 9- oker% nf{k.ke~ izfr
/k L rk r~ 10- mifjr% v/k%
v
RMVM/2023-24/Assignment booklet/IX/67 of 74
ladsrk%
¼[k½ 5 7 8-9 1- mifjr% v/k%
nk fi
o` , D 2- oker% nf{k.ke~~ izfr
10 3- fuEur% mifj
Fkk "k% E l
v 4- mifjr% v/k%
l 5- nf{k.kr% okea izfr
Ur% l Y iz 6- nf{k.kr% okea izfr
1]2]3 7- oker% nf{k.ka izfr
/kq uk Fkk Z 8- oker% nf{k.ka izfr
v
6 4 9- oker% nf{k.ka izfr
= e~ ; 10- fuEur% mifj
dq Fo

iz03- uhps fy[ks okD;ksa ls vO;;in pqudj fyf[k,A


¼d½ bZ’oj% loZ= fo|rsA ¼[k½ vge~ dnkfi vlR;a u onkfeA
¼x½ jke% ';ke% p ØhMr%A ¼?k½ xt% 'kuS%&’kuS% pyfrA
¼M-½ tye~ uhpS% ogfrA ¼p½ Roe~ dq= xPNfl\
¼N½ /kue~ fouk dk;Ze~ u pyflA ¼t½ pkSj% feF;k onfrA
¼>½ ok;q;kue~ mifj xPNfrA ¼Œk½ vge~ r= iBkfeA

iz04- uhps fy[ks vO;; inksa dk fgUnh vFkZ fyf[k,A


fcuk] vc] gh] vkSj] dgk¡] Hkh] vxj] rc] dc] vkt
iz05- fuEufyf[kr vO;;inksa dks muds vFkkZas ls feykb,A
loZ= jkr esa
vfi >wB
v/k% dgk¡ ls
lg dc
rw".khe~ b/kj&m/kj
usDre~~ ds lkFk
e`"kk pqipki
dqr% uhps
dnk Hkh
brLrr% lc txg

iz06- fuEu oxZigsyh esa ls vO;; 'kCn pqudj fyf[k,A


v | d d iq m
/k% l nk Fk u% PpS%
m i fj e~ l g
fc uk c fg% oZ r
v /kq uk dq = =

RMVM/2023-24/Assignment booklet/IX/68 of 74
vf/kU;kl&11 % ikB& la[;kokph 'kCnk%
iz01- la[;kokph 'kCnksa ls fjDrLFkku Hkfj,&
¼d½ ----------- cky% iBfrA ¼[k½ --------- dU;s xPNr%A ¼x½ ------- efgyk% ipfUrA
¼?k½ ----------- pVdk% r= lfUrA ¼M-½ --------- ckydk% [ksyfUrA ¼p½ ------- tuk% /kkofUrA
¼N½ ---------- Qye~ r= vfLrA ¼t½ ---------- i=s irr%A ¼>½ ee ------ Hkzkrk vfLrA
¼Œk½ ---------- deya r= vfLrA ¼V½ --------- lw;Z% A ¼1½ ¼B½ --------- efgyk%A ¼3½
¼M½ ---------- iqLrdkfuA ¼3½ ¼<½ --------- pØkf.kA ¼4½ ¼.k½ --------- ckyk%A ¼5½
¼r½ ---------- unhA ¼1½ ¼Fk½ -------- okuj%A ¼1½ ¼n½ --------- Nk=sA ¼2½
¼/k½ --------- iq"ie~A ¼1½ ¼u½ --------- QykfuA ¼7½
iz02- uhps fy[ks vadksa ds fy, laLd`r la[;kokph 'kCn crkb,A
12] 7] 9] 4] 20] 3] 16] 2] 1] 11] 15] 19] 6] 8] 10] 13] 14] 17] 25] 22] 28] 27] 30] 55] 59]
62] 67] 70] 77] 75] 80] 82] 88] 90] 92] 96] 98] 100
vf/kU;kl&12 % ikB& dFkk iwfrZ
eŒtw"kkr% 'kCnkfu fpRok fjDrLFkkukfu dFkk iwj;r&
I. ,dfLeu~ ous ---------- O;k/k% tkya foLrh;Z nwjs fLFkr%A Øe’k% vkdk’kkr~ lfijokj% diksrjkt% uhpS% vkxPNr~A
;nk diksrk% r.Mqyku~ vi’;u~ rnk rs"kka yksHkks tkr%A ija jktk lger% uklhr~A rL; ;qfDr% vklhr~ ----------
ous dks·fi euq";% ukfLr rfgZA dqr% r.Mqykuke~~ lEHko%A ----------- jkK% mins’ke~ vLohd`R; diksrk% r.Mqyku~
[kkfnrqa izo`Ùkk% tkys --------fuifrrk%A vr% mDre~ ^---------- fon/khr u fØ;ke~*A
eŒtw"kk
;fn] p d’pu] ije~] lglk
II. dfLeaf’pn~~ xzkes ,d% o`)% ----------- vHkor~A l% ifjJeh nwjn’khZ rFkk ljyLoHkko% p vklhr~A rL; ------
-- iq=k% vklu~ ija rs vylk% vHkou~A rs d`f"kdk;sZ firq% lg;ksxa u vdqoZu~] u rs"kka d`f"k dk;sZ ---------
vklhr~A~ vLekr~ dkj.kkr~ o`)% d`"kd% fpfUrroku~A ej.kklUuoljs o`)% d`"kd% Loiq=ku~ --------- ;r~ ee {ks=s"kq
xqIra /kua orZrsA ee ej.kkuUrja {ks=ku~ [kfuRok lqxqIra /kua izkIuq;kr~A iq=k% ,rr~ JqRok izklhnu~A fut firq% e`R;q%
i'pkr~ fut{ks=ku~ vd"kZu~A ija lqxqIra ---------- u yC/ke~A vr% rs fujk’kk% latkrk%A vUrs fut ekrq% izsj.k;k
rs fut {ks=s"kq chtkfu voiu~] /kfuu% p latkrkA
eŒtw"kk
/kua] #fp%] vdFk;r~] d`"kd%] pRokj%
III. ,rfLeu~ vUrjs xqgk;k% Lokeh nf/kiqPN% uke --------- lekxPNr~A l% p ;kor~ i';fr] rkor~ flag in i)fr%
xqgk;ka izfo"Vk n`’;rs] u p cfgjkxrkA Ük`xky% vfpUr;r~ & ^^vgks fou"Vks·fLeA uwua vfLeu~ fcys -------
vfLrA rr~~ fde~ djokf.k\** ,oa fofpUR; -------- joa drqZe~ vkjC/k%A ^^Hkks fcy! fda u Lejfl] ;r~ e;k Ro;k
lg------ d`rks·fLr ;r~ ;nkga ckg~;r% izR;kxfe";kfe -------- Roa eke~ vkdkjf;";kflA**
eŒtw"kk
rnk] Ük`xky%] le;%] flag%] nwjLFk%
IV. lqnkek ------- fe=e~ vklhr~A l% loZizFkea xq#dqys Jh d``".ks lg vfeyrA ,rkS fefyRok xqjks% lehia ---------
ikBku~ viBrke~A dkyØes.k oklqnso% }kfjdk;k% -------- vHkor~A lqnkek rq nfjnz% ,o vklhr~A l% Jhd`".k
n’kZuk; }kfjdke~ vxPNr~A -------- ra jktlHkka vu;u~A ckY;cU/kq% oklqnso% rL; vkfyaxue~ vdjksr~A Jhd`".k%
lqnkEu% Hkk;Z;k iznÙkku~ ------- v[kknr~A nkfjnz;L; fuokj.kk; Jhd`".k% rLeS ,s’o;Ze~ v;PNr~A

RMVM/2023-24/Assignment booklet/IX/69 of 74
eŒtw"kk
r.Mqyku~] u`i%] }kjj{kdk%] ,dkn’k] Jhd`".kL;
V. ,dfLeu~ ------- df’pr~ fu/kZu% ;qod% vklhr~A rL; uke ------- vklhr~A l% izfrfnua fHk{kk;S% xzkea&xzkea
izfrHkzefr LeA fHk{kk;ka --------lDrqfHk% rL; ?kV% iw.kZ% vHkor~A l% ?kVa --------voyEC; rL; uhpS% [kV~ok;ka
'k;ua djksfr Le] 'k;u&dkys p fujUrje~ --------- ?kVa i';fr LeA
eŒtw"kk
,dn`"V~;k] xzkes] izkIrS%] /kuiky%] ukxnUrs
VI. ,dnk ,d% --------- fiikflr% vklhr~A l% tya ikrqa -------- vHkzer~A ija dq=kfi tya u izkIuksr~A vUrs l%
,da ?kVa vi’;r~A ?kVs LoYia tyeklhr~A vr% l% tya ikrqa -------- vHkor~A l% ,da mik;a vfpUr;r~A l% -
------- [k.Mkfu ?kVs vf{kir~A ,oa Øes.k ?kVL; tye~ mifj vkxPNr~A dkd% tya ihRok ------- vHkor~ A
ifjJes.k ,o dk;kZf.k fl/;fUr u rq euksjFkS%A
eŒtw"kk
lUrq"V%] brLrr%] vleFkZ%] ik"kk.kL;] dkd%
VII. eq[ks jksfVdk[k.Ma x`ghRok ,d% ------- o`{ks% mifo"V% vklhr~A ,d% Ük`xky% re~ n`"V~ok vonr~ & Hkks fe=! [kxs"kq
Hkoku~~ ,o lqUnj%] ----------] e/kqjxk;d% pA d`i;k xk;rq bfrA jksfVdk[k.Ma ikn;ks% ----------LFkkif;Rok dkd%
vonr~ & js ukga iwoZor~ --------A xrk% rs fnolk%A rfgZ xPNrq bfr yfTtr% ---------- f’kj% uRok rr%
iykf;r%A
eŒtw"kk
v/k%] Ük`xky%] dkd%] ew[kZ%] prqj%
VIII. ,rfLeu~ vUrjs xqgk;k% Lokeh ---------- uke 'k`xky% lekxPNr~A l p ;kor~ --------- rokr~ flagini)fr%
xqgk;ka izfo"Vk n`’;rs] u p cfgjkxrkA --------- vfpUr;r~&^^vgks fou"Vks·fLeA uwue~ ---------- fcys flag%
vLrhfr rdZ;kfeA rr~~ -------- djokf.k\**
eŒtw"kk
v/k%] 'k`xky%] fda] nf/kiqPN%] vfLeu~] i';fr
IX. dfLeaf’pr~~ ous ------ uke flag% izfrolfr LeA l% dnkfpr~ brLrr% ifjHkzeu~ {kq/kkrZ% u fdfŒpnfi vkgkja --
---A rr% lw;kZLrle;s ------ egrha xqgka n`"V~ok l% vfpUr;r~&^^uwue~ ,rL;ka xqgk;ka --------- dks·fi tho%
vkxPNfrA vr% v=So fuxw<ks HkwRok ------- **bfrA
eŒtw"kk
fr"Bkfe] [kju[kj%] ,dka] izkIroku~] jk=kS
X. vklhr~ df’pr~~ --------- uke O;k/k%A if{ke`xknhuka xzg.ksu l% Lodh;ka -------- fuokZg;fr LeA ,dnk l% ous
tkya foLrh;Z x`ge~ vkxroku~A vU;fLeu~ fnols --------- ;nk pŒpy% oua xroku~ rnk l% n`"Voku~~ ;r~ rsu
foLrkfjrs tkys nkSHkkZX;kn~ ,d% ------ c)% vklhr~A~ lks·fpUr;r~ ^O;k?kz eka [kkfn";fr vr,o iyk;ua dj.kh;e~A*
O;k?kz% U;osn;r~&^Hkks ekuo! -------- Hkorq rsA
eŒtw"kk
O;k?kz%] dY;k.ka] pŒpyks] izkr%dkys] thfodka
XI. ,dfLeu~ ous ,d% fo’kky% -------- fr"Bfr LeA rfLeu~ vusds [kxk% U;olu~A rs HkkstukFkZa izfrfnue~ ------
xPNfUr LeA ,dnk O;k/ksu r.Mqyku~ f{kIRok ik’k% izlkfjr%A r.Mqyku~ ------- [kxk% v/k% vkxR; tkys cn~/kk%
vHkou~A [kxkf/ki% foe`’; --------lg ltkye~ mM~Mh; fe=a ew"kda fgj.;de~ mikxPNr~~A ew"kd% tkye~ vdrZr~A
rs ------- vkIuqou~~A
RMVM/2023-24/Assignment booklet/IX/70 of 74
eŒtw"kk
LorU=rke~]~ oVo`{k%] fe=S%] [kkfnrqe~] brLrr%
XII. O;k?kz% rn~ o`ÙkkUra izn’kZf;rqa rfLeu~ --------izfo’kr~~A yksef’kdk iqu% vdFk;r~ & lEizfr iqu% iqu% -------d`Rok
n’kZ;A l% rFkSo lekpjr~A vukjra dwnZusu l% ------- vHkor~A tkys c)% l% O;k?kz% DykUr% lu~ ------ HkwRok
r= virr~ izk.kfHk{kkfeo p v;kprA yksef’kdk O;k?kze~ vonr~ lR;a Ro;k Hkf.kre~ ^loZ% -------- lehgrs*A
eŒtw"kk &JkUr%] tkys] LokFkZa] dwnZua] fu%lgk;ks
Information Technology

[1] List any two tasks done by Operating System.


[2] Describe the mobile phone as ICT tool.
[3] What is the purpose of using External devices?
[4] What is the purpose of using following peripheral devices
[5] Plotters b. Joystick c. Microphone
[6] List any three components of your Computer Desktop
[7] Give some applications of Internet.
[8] Mention three common properties of Internet Browser.
[9] Define the following terms :
[10] Blog b. Digital India c. Youtube“Doing Exercise regularly will affect your Thinking in any way “.
Discuss.
[11] How do people work on self management through self monitoring?
[12] What are the three broad areas influenced by Self management?
[13] Explain the “Locus of control” and “Self Efficacy” with respect to Self Management.
[14] What is hybrid business?
[15] Describe the function of Quick Access Toolbar.
[16] Describe what row headers are.
[17] Give any four options of the Print Screen and explain them.
[18] Write down the steps for Find a replace in Ms-Word.
[19] What is thesaurus in Ms-Word?
[20] What are the steps to add border to a page?
[21] How can you put bold, italic or underline formatting into characters using keyboard?
[22] What is the use of print preview?
[23] How do you set margins on a page in word?
[24] Name any two word processing applications.
[25] List any five components of word processing window.
[26] What is the difference between Full Screen Reading view and Web Layout View?
[27] Which company had acquired WhatsApp and for how much?
[28] What kind of OS is a multitasking OS?
[29] What are the various Promotional Functions of an Entrepreneur?
[30] What can we done with by using Rulers in Ms Word .
[31] How is navigation pane used in Word?
[32] Identify the following Shortcut keys used in MS-Word :
a. CTRL+ J b. CTRL +U c. CTRL+O
d. CTRL+N e. CTRL+G f. CTRL+H
g. CTRL+A h. CTRL+F i. Shift+ F7
[33] What is clipboard? What function does it perform?
[34] Write the steps to increase the paragraph spacing using shortcut keys.
[35] How spelling error and grammatical errors indicated in Ms Word.
RMVM/2023-24/Assignment booklet/IX/71 of 74
[36] Write steps to search for a synonym of a word.
[37] What are the keyboard shortcuts to nudge the text size up or down?
[38] Where can we find Page break option?
[39] Why we require footnotes in MS Word?
[40] Write down the steps to insert picture Watermark.
[41] What is the difference between Print Selection and Print custom Range options of Print command?
[42] Which page orientation displays the page vertically?
[43] Write the formula for adding 6th and 7th column of 16th row.
[44] What is the basic difference between absolute and relative referencing of Ms-Excel?
[45] Write the purpose for the following charts :
[46] Column chart b. Line chart c. Pie chart
[47] How will you add graphs to the excel sheet?
[48] Explain the following chart elements :
[49] Legend b. Data series c. Plot area
[50] How will you differentiate between Formula’s and Function in Excel?
[51] How many types of error are faced in Excel while writing the content?
[52] What is name box?
[53] Write the steps to sort and filter data?
[54] Write the benefits of the freeze panes on the spreadsheet.
[55] Write down the steps to remove animation from presentation object.
[56] List the different types of data can be entered in Excel.
[57] Identify the various excel functions for the following :
a. For counting the total number of rows. ______________
b. For finding the maximum among given range.____________________
c. For fining the minimum among given range. _____________________
d. For calculating the avg. __________
[58] What is absolute referencing and Relative Referencing? Explain the concept of it with example.
[59] Which option do you choose to take printouts of selected portion in print window?
[60] What we call a cell with dark boundary?
[61] What is an excel file called? What is the meaning of formatting?
[62] What is the smallest unit of worksheet that can contain data?
[63] In excel, which key do you press to complete an entry?
[64] How do we change the width of the cell in Excel?
[65] Distinguish between sorting and filtering.
[66] What is name box?
[1] Give one word for the following: 1⁄2 marks each
a) Which view in ms-word provides you the maximum space for reading and commenting?
b) Which view allows you to see the entire structure of the ms-word document?
c) Which view that helps in proof reading of the word document?
d) What we call a block of text?
e) The shortcut key to make text italic is _________________.
[2] Very Short Question 1 marks each
a) What is the extension for ms-word and Ms-excel document?
b) How many possible rows are there in an excel spreadsheet window?
c) What are the advantages of using Word Processing application?
d) List any two navigation keys for ms-excel.
e) List any two components of Word Processing window.
f) What is clipboard?
RMVM/2023-24/Assignment booklet/IX/72 of 74
g) List any two methods for adding a table in MS-Word document.
h) What does PDF stands for?
[3] Short Question Answer. 2 marks each
a) How are rulers and gridlines used in word document?
b) How a grammatical and spelling error is is shown in MS-Word Window.
c) What is the purpose of adding header and footer in ms-word document?
d) Write down the steps to add picture watermark in a ms-word document.
e) Give any two options of the print screen and explain them.
f) What is the difference between workbook and worksheet?
[4] Long Question Answer. 3 mark each
a) What is difference between AutoComplete and Autofill?
b) Why is conditional formatting important?
c) What is Legend and Data Series while creating the chart in Ms-Excel?
d) Compare Pie chart and Column Chart.
e) How is Function and Formula different in Excel?

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