TEM COMMUNICATIONS

TEM stands for Threat and Error Management

Threats are (All of the above) Undesired
status is caused by errors  VSAT – Inbound and outbound date flow
Team climate countermeasures are used for (All of the above)  Antenna and wave propagation – 1st two handouts (di na kasama yun
Planning countermeasures are used for Threat Management Task general antenna pair, SIP at SOP) focus on terms, frequency spectrum
Execution countermeasures are used for Error Management The best (frequency and uses), ionosphere layers
style to use in communication Assertive  Konting System Monitor and control by mam Rapunzel (MARC part)
What term is used to achieve safe and effective flight CRM
What is the application of knowledge of how we see, hear, think . . . *NOTE: mas marami lumabas sa antenna and wave prop compared sa VSAT
Human Factors tapos alien mga tanong ni VSAT at SMC
This model explains how human makes mistakes SHELL Model
Sample questions:
Miscellaneous
VSAT
Personnel licensing: Age allowed to take ATSEP = 21  What is the function of RFT
CAAP law something basta RA 9497  What is not supplied by GILAT (Transponder)
TCC Technical Competency Certification  What is the function of MCR
SARPs Standards and Recommended Practices  Ano nasa IB
Core/ essence blabla basta choices includes AIP amendment and AIP  Which is true in star topology
supplement AIP  IP to BB conversion
A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information  Which is true regarding VSAT to VSAT comms (with IB/OB)
concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility,  If electric current is at -30 deg, where is electric voltage after half
service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to wavelength (check mo na lang pano ikot, then add 180 deg sa -30
personnel concerned NOTAM mali sagot ko dito eh wahahaha)
ICAO Annexes Filipino version PCAR  Function of QoS
ICAO DOC 8697 Aeronautical Chart Manual (basis for charting/ Annex 4) ICAO
DOC 8126 AIS Manual (basis for AIS/ Annex 15)

AIRAC
Interval between the distribution date and effective date 48 days (42 sa
handsout) up to 14 days distribution time in order for recipients to receive
information at least 28 days in advance of effective date

ANTENNA AND WAVE PROPAGATION (pointers)

  Velocity of waves depends on the medium
 Fundamental properties of EM radiation Frequency, Field Strength,  Types of propagations
Polarization, Direction of travel  If tx height = rx height, what is the max distance between 2 towers
 Impedance of free space 377 ohms for LOS comms (8Hr)
 Plot of electric field intensity radiation pattern  Critical frequency highest frequency that will be returned down to
 Patterns are usually plotted in terms of relative field intensity earth
 Nulls  Skip distance shortest distance from a tx measured along the
 Lobes surface of the earth
 Major Lobes  Electromagnetic spectrum (frequency range at uses)
 Minor Lobes  Factors affecting EM radiation (Reflection, Refraction, Interference,
 Maximums Diffraction plus meanings nila)
 Minimums  Shape description of pattern
 Polarization of wave determined by position of E field
 Horizontal/vertical polarization
 Type of polarization is determined by physical placement of the
antenna with respect to ground
 Isotropic radiator, study of radiation patterns is simplified if the
radiating element is considered isotropic
 Nature of EM waves (Maxwell’s equation, Induction and radiation
field)
 Antenna gain increases Ground-wave coverage
 Sky wave propagation is used for long distance comms at 3 – 30
MHz
 Beyond 30 MHz Space waves is used
 Ionosphere layers (height in miles and critical frequencies)
MARC
 MARC fault = white cross on red background 6. What is a traffic slot?
a) Carries the OB Es/No readings to the hub using the relative robust modcod
 Ano hindi makikita if naka standby yung radio (Screen is blank/
b) Composed of two or more atm cells
Transmit, Alarm, Ready indicators unlit/ Standby indicator (red) lit)
c) Contains a SAC field
yung wala dyan sa tatlo yung sagot d) Can include ATM cells from other sources

Nakalkal kong progress test:

7. In the SE II network segment, which component(s) is present on both inbound and
1. Which statement(s) is true about the SE II OB? outbound data flow?
a) Receives user traffic and the vsat maintenance information a) RFT
b) used in satellite communication to uplink data b) HSP
c) the DPS is used to convert data to baseband frames c) DPS
d) carries the RCS table d) QoS

2. In the SE II network segment, how many is the maximum number of IPM? 8. During a traffic burst which is the most efficient MODCOD will be used?
a) 8
b) 4 a) QPSK 4/5
c) 2 b) 32 APSK 3/4
d) 1 c) 8PSK 2/3
d) 16APSK 5/6
3. In a star topology which statement or statements is false?
a) vsat cannot call other vsat 9. In the SE II IB, which statement or statements is true?
b) the OB is only one hop a) The inbound uses DVB-S2 as its standard
c) all user traffic is going through the hub b) Uses MF-TDMA
d) only the hub can access the vsat c) Multiple IB channels of different types
d) Carries capacity request from the hub

4. What is CCM? 10. The hub component that creates the DVB-RES table?
a) The most robust modcod is used as a standard a) DPS
b) A single modulation scheme is used by the hub and does not change b) IPM
c) Constant Coding and Modulator c) HSP
d) All vsat receives the same modcod d) RSP
11. In the outbound data flow, which component(s) is not included?
5. In the SE II, which is not supplied by GILAT? a) RFT
a) VSAT b) RSP
b) Hub c) DRPP
c) Transponder d) BUC
d) Antenna
12. L-band signal is present on the following component(s) of the SE Il network SURVEILLANCE
segment?
a) LNB
b) MCR
c) HSP PSR: weird questions ni sir pero no Asterix SSR:
d) RFT 1st two handouts ni sir gay na manipis

13. In the SE Il system. Which statement or statements is true? Sample questions:

a) Multiple VSAT transmits at the same time and frequency.  What determines range resolution of radar system Beam Width
b) The hub manages the network  Measure of how well a radar can distinguish 2 targets of different
c) MPEG2 frames are converted into backbone then to IP bearing but same range Azimuth resolution
d) VSAT will send its capacity request during the maintenance burst only
 Measure of how well a radar can distinguish 2 targets of same
bearing but different range Azimuth resolution
14. The component that creates the NCR signal
a) DPS  1030 MHz – interrogator
b) HSP  1090 MHz – transponder
c) IPM  Distance between 2 pulses in Mode A 8us
d) Satellite  Distance between 2 pulses in Mode C 21us
 A 3-dimensional radar measures: Elevation, azimuth, range
15. In the SE II, which statement(s) is true?  Radar cross section means scattering ability of the target
a) the IBSS demodulates and decodes the traffic coming from the hub
 May All-call/ roll call yung pagkasunod sunod sa SSR something.
b) the ATM cells can contain capacity request (piggybacked)
c) VSAT’s recognizes traffic that is intended for them  SSR Interrogator
d) efficient MODCOD is used during fade conditions  RUIT- Received Reply Meant for other Interrogator
 Garbling – fundamental problem
 X-band – 8 – 12
 Mode C – pressure altitude info
 Monopulse – angle error
 Uplink format pulse – P6
 Uplink mod – DPSK
 Detector
 Receiver has – matched filters
 Tx and Rx are the same – monostatic
 Get Max range;
o Given: Tx power = 2kW, antenna gain = 28 dB, freq = 10GHz,
Radar cross section area = 12m2, MDS = -90 dBm
o Choices: 1k, 2k+, 4k+, 8k+
o NOTE: mali yung 1k+ at 4k+
PSR 12. Besides improving the range resolution of the radar system, pulse
1. ASR system may employ a to suppress not just ground clutters but compression also improves ______ signal-to-noise ratio
also weather and other mobile clutters. Multi Doppler Filter
13. A type of radar pulse used in pulse compression system in which
2. What is the measure of how well a radar can distinguish two different frequency increases or decreases with time. CHIRP
targets of different bearing but of the same range? Azimuth resolution
14. Video signals that exceed the detection threshold level in the direction of
3. is an erroneous radar target caused by noise or other interfering the radar sweep is called Hit
signals exceeding the radar’s detection threshold. False alarm
15. ASR are used to monitor aircraft positions up to___nautical miles. 60
4. What characteristic of the transmitted radar pulse determines the range
resolution of a radar system? Pulse width 16. The time that an antenna beam spends on a target is called dwell
time
5. What is the name of an adaptive algorithm in radar systems that varies the
detection threshold as a function of the sensed environment to maintain 17. Radar video signal that consists of moving targets only is called........MTI
the desired number of false alarms? Constant false alarm rate video

6. Azimuth resolution of a radar system is determined what antenna 18. are unwanted echoes from weather (dense cloud formation,
characteristic? Beam width precipitation, etc.), sea (waves), ground (buildings, mountains, grass,
etc.) and even flocks of birds Clutter
7. This method of determining the azimuth requires the radar to get the
average between the leading and the trailing azimuth of the target. 19. What is used to transform the amplitude and phase of an IF signal into
Sliding window digital form.

8. This radar video signal consists of both MTI and clutters. Normal Video • Amplitude and phase detector
• A/D converter ???
9. One principle used in radar systems is that EM waves travel at constant • I/Q demodulator
speed, this allows for determining the of the target. Distance • IF amplifier

10. This component of the primary radar alternatively switches the antenna 20. 1 radar mile is equivalent to____microseconds 12.36
between the transmitter and the receiver so that only a single antenna is
used. Duplexer 21. An ASR system uses two pulse width: short and long pulses. Short pulses
are used for what purpose? Short range surveillance
11. The minimum range that the radar can measure is affected by _______
Pulse width 22. Which primary radar is used to detect and display an aircraft’s position
in the terminal maneuvering area? Airport Surveillance Radar
23. What characteristic of the transmitted radar pulse determines the POWER SUPPLY SYSTEMS
maximum unambiguous range of a system? Pulse Repetition Time
1. The voltage is reduced at the aerodrome substation to an intermediate voltage
24. It is the ability of the radar to distinguish two or more targets of the same for distribution. What is the range of an intermediate voltage?
Ans: 2000 – 5500 V
bearing at different ranges. The lower it is, the better the radar is. Range
Resolution 2. For major airports, it is desirable to have at least two incoming power sources
must be:
25. A primary radar with pulse compression system employs a pulse Ans: Independent
compressor at the receiver and what circuit in the transmitter? Chirp
modulator 3. Engine-generator sets are often expected to operate without refueling for how
many hours?
Ans: 24 – 72 hours
26. In pulse radar systems, the average power is directly proportional to the
of the radar pulse. PRF, Pulse width, Duty cycle 4. It is commonly known as short time circuit breaker setting (100% - 110% for
0.05 sec – 0.4 sec)
27. Airport Surveillance Radars operate at what band in the RF spectrum S- Ans: Time Delay Breaking
band
5. What is the device used to simultaneously load two or more AC power sources?
Ans: Synchronizer

6. Power to the aerodrome main power substation is usually supplied at a high

voltage.
Ans: over 5000 V

7. It is a mechanical device provided on each of the main Auto-transfer breaker, as a

gadget to prevent two or more breakers to closed at the same time
Ans: mechanical interlock

8. It is a protective device designed to protect electrical equipment loads against

the damaging effects of transient voltages that can be induced or generated as a
result of remote lightning, power equipment switching or high frequency
disturbances
Ans: Surge protective device

9. Aerodromes that will require a stipulated transfer time of 1 second for the IPU to be
brought into operation.
Ans: Runway Visual Range less than 800 m

10. What is the National Grid standard low voltage distribution voltage? Ans:
11,000 V
11. What is the National Grid standard network distribution voltage? Ans: 22. Transformer derived from delta transformation
33,000 V Ans: Zigzag Transformer

12. An ICAO document that contains the power supply standards requirements for an 23. Parallel generator
Aerodrome? Ans: poles
Ans: ICAO Doc 9157
Problem solving:
13. Any mechanical device used to drive a generator to produce electricity. Ans:
prime mover  Wye-wye question = 800 something
 Per-unit = 0.01
14. Installed within the aerodrome for the protection of electrical equipment  Number of batteries needed = 80 batts
against weather and for better security  Power factor (S= 1000kVA, PF1 = 0.68, PF2 = 0.90) = 297 KVar
Ans: vaults and shelter  Isc @ secondary, neglecting conductor (100kVA @ 34.5 – 0.46 KV, %Z = 5.7
%, Heater load = 70% ) = 22kA
15. It is commonly known as long time circuit breaker setting (80% - 100% for 0.5 sec -  Ifl @ Secondary, combi (200kVA @ 34.5/19/92 – 0.48/0.277 kV) 2405
20 sec)  Primary current, 3 phase (Vp = 34.5 kV, Vs = 230 V, Is = 1050 A, Ip = ?) = 7A
Ans: Overload trip  12.9 Hp, divide ng lahat ng given then divide by sq rt of 3 = 38 . something
 400 V, Vs = ? = divide by sw rt of 3 = 230 V
16. It include all CNS equipment, critical airfield lightings (1 sec maximum transfer time),
alarms, protection devices, and computers, wherein power interruption may result to
an accident, serious incident, life threat or financial loss.
Ans: uninterruptible loads

17. Switches that are provided with an interrupting device capable of disconnecting
circuits under load.
Ans: load break switch

18. The “maximum switch over time” is defined as the duration for the measured
to fall from 50% of the original value and recover to 50% during a power supply
changeover
Ans: intensity of light

19. Increasing the transmission voltage will decrease the current and minimized the
power loss in transmission lines and also decreases its requirements.
Ans: conductor
20. The engineers at the central control of the National Grid Network continually
asses the demand, direct the flow and electrical energy when breakdown
occurs.
Ans: reroute
21. Which of the following is not a current protection device
Ans: Overload Switch