GUJCET 2024 Preparation Guide PDF

GUJCET 2024
Preparation Guide
CONTENTS
About 3
Gujarat Common Entrance Test 4
Introduction 4
Exam Dates 4
Exam Pattern 4
Syllabus 4
Gujcet 2023 official question paper with solution 6
Preparation Study Material 75
Physics 75
Chemistry 81
Maths 84
Mock Tests 91
Mock Test 1 92
Mock Test 2 221
Mock Test 3 340
Mock Test 4 461
Mock Test 5 582
www.careers360.com 2
ABOUT
W
elcome to the definitive resource for mastering the Gujarat Common Entrance Test (GUJCET)
in 2024. Crafted with precision and expertise, this ebook is your companion on the journey to
success in one of Gujarat’s most esteemed entrance examinations.
Gujarat Common Entrance Test (GUJCET) serves as the gateway to prestigious undergraduate pro-
grams in various disciplines across the Gujarat state. As the landscape of education continually evolves,
staying ahead with thorough preparation and strategic insights becomes indispensable. This guide is
meticulously curated to equip aspiring candidates like you with the tools, knowledge, and confidence
needed to excel in GUJCET 2024.
What You Will Find in the Ebook:

Introduction: Gain a thorough understanding of GUJCET, its significance, and its role in shaping your
academic journey.
Exam Dates: Stay updated with crucial dates and deadlines to ensure you’re on track with your prepa-
ration schedule.
Exam Pattern: Familiarize yourself with the structure, format, and marking scheme of GUJCET 2024 to
formulate an effective exam strategy.
Syllabus: Delve into the detailed syllabus, ensuring you cover all the essential topics and domains as
prescribed for GUJCET 2024.
GUJCET 2023 Official Question Paper with Solution: Analyze previous year’s question papers along
with detailed solutions to comprehend the exam’s pattern and enhance your problem-solving skills.
Preparation Study Material: Access curated study materials designed to cater specifically to the sylla-
bus and requirements of GUJCET 2024, aiding in comprehensive preparation.
Mock Tests: Put your knowledge to the test with a series of 5 mock tests meticulously crafted to sim-
ulate the actual exam environment. These tests are invaluable for assessing your progress, identifying
strengths and weaknesses, and fine-tuning your exam-taking strategy.
Embark on your GUJCET 2024 preparation journey with confidence, armed with the insights and re-
sources provided in this comprehensive guide. Let this ebook be your trusted companion as you strive
towards achieving your academic aspirations and unlocking the doors to a brighter future.
Happy learning!
Warm regards,
Team Careers360
www.careers360.com Back to Index 3
Gujarat Common
Entrance Test
Introduction
GUJCET i.e. Gujarat Common Entrance Test is the entrance examination conducted by Gujarat Sec-
ondary and Higher Secondary Education Board for admission to various courses in Gujarat.
The exam is conducted annually offline as a pen and paper-based test. The exam assesses the stu-
dents’ knowledge based on the 10+2 (or equivalent) examination syllabus. All the aspirants must ful-
fill the required academic qualifications to be eligible for the exam. The counseling for the GUJCET
is conducted for qualified candidates. All the eligible students have to attend their counseling as per
their ranks and schedules. The final allotment is based on merit and preference set by the students.
Exam Dates
The GUJCET 2024 exam date is March 31, 2024.
Exam Pattern
GUJCET Exam Pattern 2024
Maximum Maximum Total

Section Questions Marks Duration
Section 1 – Physics and 80 Questions 80 Marks 120 Minutes

Chemistry
Section 2 – Mathematics 40 Questions 40 Marks 60 Minutes
Total 120 Questions 120 Marks 180 Minutes

(3 hours)
Marking scheme One mark will be awarded for every correct response.
0.25 marks will be deducted for every incorrect response.
Syllabus
Subject Chapter
PHYSICS Electric Charges and Fields
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Current Electricity
Moving Charges and Magnetism
Magnetism and Matter
Electromagnetic Induction

Alternating Current
Electromagnetic Waves
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Wave Optics
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Atoms
Nuclei
Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
CHEMISTRY Solutions
Electrochemistry
Chemical Kinetics
The d- and f-Block Elements
Coordination Compounds
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
Amines
Biomolecules
BOTANY Relations and Functions
Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Matrices
Determinants
Continuity and Differentiability
Application of Derivatives
Integrals
Application of Integrals
Differential Equations
Vector Algebra
Three Dimensional Geometry
Linear Programming
Probability

Gujcet 2023 Official
Question Paper With
Solution

Physics
Q.1) Two slits are made 10 millimetres apart and the screen is placed 1.5 meters away.
What is the fringe separation when the wavelength of is it used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Correct Answer:- (A)
Solution:-
Q.2) What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron,

accelerated through a potential difference of 64 V?
Correct Answer:-
Solution:-

Q.3) An electron, an alpha (α) particle, and a proton have the same kinetic energies.
Which one of these particles has the largest de Broglie wavelength?
Correct Answer:- (c) electron
Solution:-
Q.4) The number of photons emitted per second by a bulb of 60 W power emitting
waves of wavelength 600 nm is ______.
Correct Answer:- (D)

Solution:
Q.5) What will be the longest wavelength line in the Balmer series of the spectrum of
H atom _____?
A) 546 nm
B) 656 nm
C) 566 nm
D) 556 nm
Correct Answer:- (B) 656 nm
Solution:

Q.6) In a hydrogen atom an electron makes a transition from the 5th orbit to 3rd
orbit. The change in the angular momentum for this electron is ____.
Solution:
Q.7) A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 2 years. How long will it approximately
take the activity to reduce to 3 % of its initial value?
(A) 4.8 Years

(B) 7 Years
(C) 10 Years
(D) 9.6 Years
Correct Answer:- (C) 10 Years
Solution:

Q.8) In the proton-proton cycle in the Sun the energy released when an electron & its
antiparticle combines is
Correct Answer:-
Solution:
Q9) The ratio of halflife and average life for a radioactive sample is ____.
Correct Answer:-

Solution:
Q10) The given logic circuit behaves as a _____ gate.
(A) NAND
(B) NOR
(C) OR
(D) AND
Correct Answer:- (D) AND
Solution:
Q11) In a p-n junction solar cell, the ratio of thickness of the p-Si wafer and n-Si layer
is approximately ____.
(A) 300
(B) 1000
(C) 30
(D) 0.3
Correct Answer:- (A) 300

Solution:
In a typical p-n junction solar cell, the ratio of the thickness of the p-type silicon (p-Si) wafer
to the n-type silicon (n-Si) layer can vary, but it's often in the range of 1:10 to 1:100.
Among these above options, 0.3 and 30 seem too low, and 1000 seems too high, leaving
300 as the most plausible choice. So, the ratio of the thickness of the p-Si wafer to the n-Si
layer is approximately 300.
Q12) The minimum band gap (𝐸𝑔) of semiconductors used for fabrication of visible
LED is _____ eV.
(A) 1.8
(B) 1.4
(C) 2.3
(D) 3
Correct Answer:- (A) 1.8
Solution:-
The photon energy, of visible light photons, varies about 1.8 MeV to 3 EV.
Hence for visible LED, the semiconductor must have a band gap of 1.8 ev
Q13) Consider a uniform electric field . The electric flux of this

field through a square of 20 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to yz plane _____
2
𝑁𝑚 /𝐶.
(A) 90
(B) 120
(C) 60
(D) Zero
Correct Answer:- (B) 120
Solution:

Q14) Figure shows the electric field lines around three-point charges A, B, C, and D.
Which charge has the Maximum magnitude?

(A) C charge
(B) B charge
(C) A charge
(D) D charge
Correct Answer:- (B) B charge
Solution:
From the figure, it is clear that the maximum number of electric lines of force are associated
with charge B, so it must have the largest magnitude
Q15) A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of
. What is the number of electrons transferred?

Correct Answer:-
Solution:
Q16) The potential at the point B in the given figure is ____v.
(A) 30
(B) 50
(C) 22
(D) 25
Correct Answer:- (C) 22
Solution:-

Q17) A charge Q is placed at the center of the circle of radius 10 cm. Find the work
done in moving a charge q between any two points lying on the arc of this circle.
Correct Answer:- (D) 0J
Solution:-
The work done in moving a charge q between any two points lying on the arc of a circle, with
a charge Q placed at its center, is zero due to the radial symmetry of the electric field. This
symmetry ensures that the electric field is perpendicular to the direction of motion of q at
every point on the circumference. Consequently, there is no component of force in the
direction of motion, resulting in zero work done.
Q18) The dielectric strength of air is ____.
Correct Answer:-
Solution:- The dielectric strength of air is
Q19) Unit of mobility in terms of fundamental units is
Correct Answer:-
Solution:

Q20) A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular cross-section of 1 cm* ½ cm is
connected to a battery across opposite faces. The resistance will be ____.
(A) Maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm* ½ cm faces

(B) Maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm* 1 cm faces
(c) Maximum when the battery is connected across 1 cm* ½ cm faces
(D)same irrespective of the three faces.
Correct Answer:- (B) Maximum when the battery is connected across 10cm*1cm faces
Solution:-
Maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm*1 cm faces
Q21) The figure shows a 2.0 V potentiometer used for the determination of internal
resistance of a 1.5 V cell. The balance point of the cell in an open circuit is 77.4 cm.
When a resistor of 9.6 Ω is used in the external circuit of the cell, the balance point
shifts to the 64.5 cm length of the potentiometer. The internal resistance of the cell is
____ ohm?
(A) 1.92
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.62
(D) 0.96
Correct Answer:- (A) 1.92
Solution:-

Q22) An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of current carrying
a long solenoid. Which of the following is true?
(A) The electron path will be circular about the axis

(B) The electron will be accelerated along the axis
(C) The electron will experience a force at 45 degrees to the axis and hence execute a
helical path
(D) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the
solenoid
Correct Answer:- (D) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along
the axis of the solenoid
Solution:-
Let the electron (e) is projected with a uniform velocity (v) in a uniform magnetic field B. The
magnitude of force on it is
Hence the electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.
Q23) An electron is moving at a speed of m/s in a magnetic field of

perpendicular to the direction of motion of the electron. The radius of
the path of the electron is ____(cm).
(A) 30
(B) 13
(C) 15
(D) 26
Correct Answer:- (C) 15
Solution:-

Q24) A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 250 turns. It
carries a current of 5 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the
solenoid?
Correct Answer:-
Solution:-
Q25) The galvanometer has a resistance of . Calculate the value of the shunt to
increase the range of the galvanometer by 10 times.
Correct Answer:-
Solution:-

Q26) A bar magnet having pole strength 𝑞𝑚 and magnetic moment m is divided into
two equal parts along its length. The new pole strength is ______ and the magnetic
moment is ___ respectively.
Correct Answer:-
Solution:-
And The pole strength of each piece when a bar magnet is cut into two equal halves
perpendicular to its length is the same as the pole strength of the original bar magnet.
Q27) A solenoid has a core of a material with a relative permeability of 400. The
windings of the solenoid are insulated from the core and carry a current of 2A. If the
number of turns is 1000 per meter, the magnetic field B inside the solenoid is T.

(A) 1.8
(B) 1
(C) 1.5
(D) 2
Correct Answer:- (B) 1
Solution:-
Q28) The dimensional formula of self-inductance is ____.
Correct Answer:-
Solution:-
Q29) As shown in the figure a bar magnet is moving towards a stationary coil with
constant speed v. The direction of induced current in the coil observed by the
observer on R.H.S. is ____.

(A) Anticlockwise
(B) Clockwise
(C) Current changes its direction randomly
(D) Induced current will not be produced
Correct Answer:- (B) Clockwise
Solution:-
When a bar magnet moves towards a stationary coil, the magnetic flux through the coil
increases. According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, an induced current will
flow in the coil in such a direction as to oppose the change in magnetic flux.
Using the right-hand rule, if we point the thumb of our right hand in the direction of the
increasing magnetic field (towards the coil), and the fingers curl in the direction of the
induced current, the induced current in the coil will flow in a direction such that its magnetic
field opposes the incoming magnetic field of the bar magnet.
Therefore, the induced current in the coil, observed by the observer on the right-hand side
(R.H.S.), will flow counterclockwise.
2
Q30) A circular coil of area 2 𝑐𝑚 is placed in a magnetic field of 3 T perpendicularly.
The coil has 10 turns and 5 omega resistance. Now the coil is removed from the
magnetic field in 0.2 s. The value of induced charge flowing through the coil is _____.
Correct Answer:- (C) 1.2 mc
Solution:-

Q31) A pure inductor of 25.48 mH and a pure resistor of 8 Omega is connected in
series with an A.C. source of frequency 50Hz. The phase difference between current
(I) and voltage (V) in this circuit is ____.
Correct Answer:-
Solution:-

Q32) The charge of the capacitor in the L-C oscillatory circuit, when the energy
associated with the inductor and capacitor are equal, is ____. [ 𝑄 is the initial charge
on the capacitor ].
Correct Answer:-
Solution:-

Q33) The output of a stepdown transformer is measured to be 24V when connected to
a 12-watt light bulb. The value of peak current is ____ A.
(A) 1.41
(B) 0.71
(C) 2
(D) 2.83
Correct Answer:- (B) 0.71
Solution:-
Q34) If represent electric and magnetic field vectors of the

electromagnetic wave, the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is along
Correct Answer:-
Solution:-

The electric field and the magnetic field of an Electromagnetic wave are mutually
perpendicular to each other and their direction of propagation is perpendicular to both the
electric and magnetic fields.
represent electric and magnetic field vectors of electromagnetic waves, then the
direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is along the direction of vector
The vector product gives the negative direction of the propagation of the wave.
Q35) Frequency range of visible light is ______.
Correct Answer:-
Solution:
The visible light frequency is approximately 400 THz to 700 THz. A THz is a Terahertz, which
is a unit of frequency equal to one trillion Hertz.
Q36) The refractive index of air with respect to vacuum ____.
(A) 1.0029
(B) 1
(C) 1.00029
(D) 1.029
Correct Answer:- (C) 1.00029
Solution:-
The refractive index of air wrt vacuum is 1.00029
Q37) A lens of power - 4.0 Diopter. It means ____.

(A) Concave lens of focal length -25.0 cm
(B) Concave lens of focal length -0.25 cm
(C) Convex lens of focal length +0.25 cm
(D) Convex lens of focal length +25.0 cm
Correct Answer:- (A) Concave lens of focal length -25.0 cm

Solution:-
Q38) The earth takes 24 h to rotate once about its axis. How much time does the Sun
take to shift by 1 minute viewed from the Earth?
(A) 4 m
(B) 40 s
(C) 4s
(D) 40 m
Correct Answer:- (A) 4 m
Solution:-
Time taken for 360° shift = 24 h
Time taken for 1° shift = 24/360 h = 4 min.
Q39) For what distance is ray optics a good approximation when the aperture is 6 mm
0
wide and the wavelength is 6000 𝐴 ?
(A) 50 m
(B) 60 m
(C) 40m
(D) 10m
Correct Answer:- (B) 60m
Solution:-
Q40) Monochromatic light of wavelength 480 nm is incident from air to glass surface.
The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The ratio of the frequency of the incident and
refracted light is ____.
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:2

(C) 4:1
(D) 1:1
Correct Answer:- (D) 1:1
Solution:-
The frequency of light does not depend on the property of the medium in which it is traveling.
Hence, the frequency of the refracted ray in glass will be equal to the frequency of the
incident or reflected light in air.
Chemistry
Q1) Which one is the common name of the compound ?
(A) Mesityl Oxide

(B) Prop-2-Enal
(C) Acrolein
(D) Propanal-1-ene
Correct Answer:- (C) Acrolein
Solution:- Acrolein ( ) is the simplest unsaturated aldehyde. The

IUPAC name of Acrolein is Prop-2-enal.
Q2) What is the correct order of acidity of compound (I), (II) and (III)?

Solution:-
Electron donating group ( Methoxy Group) decreases the acidic strength whereas electron
withdrawing group (Nitro group) increases the same.
Hence Increasing order of acidic strength is :

4 - methoxy benzoic acid < benzoic acid < 4 - nitrobenzoic acid.
Q3) Which of the following compounds does not give a cannizzaro reaction?
A)
B)
C) HCHO
D) CH3CHO
Solution:-
The aldehyde/ ketone, which do not contain α − H atoms, show Cannizzaro reaction. In the
case of CH3CHO, the carbonyl group is attached to the Carbon atom having α − H atom.
Hence CH3CHO does not show Cannizzaro reaction.
Q4) Which compound will give Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction?

Solution:- When an amide undergoes treatment with bromine in a solution containing
sodium hydroxide, either aqueous or ethanolic, it undergoes degradation, resulting in the
production of a primary amine. This process, characterized by the degradation of the amide,
is commonly known as the Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction.
Q5) Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in the basic medium to give the
product. How many bonds are present in that product?
Correct Answer:- (C)

Solution:- Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in a basic medium gives
p-Hydroxy azobenzene which has 26 sigma bonds and 7 Pi bonds in the product.
Q6) Methylamine reacts with to form?
Correct Answer:- (B)

Solution:-
Methylamine reacts with nitrous acid to form aliphatic diazonium salts which, being unstable,
further react with water to form methanol.
Q7) Which statement is not correct for Glucose?
(A) When heated with HI it gives n-Hexane

(B) It is aldohexose
(C) It react with Hydroxylamine
(D) It contain furanose structure
Solution:- Glucose is an aldohexose as it consists of six carbon atoms and an aldehyde

group. It is present in the pyranose form and not in the furanose form. Hence Statement (D)
is incorrect.
Its cyclic structure is a six-membered ring similar to the organic compound pyrane.
Q8) Which base is not present in the DNA structure?
(A) Uracil
(B) Adenine
(C) Guanine
(D) Cytosine
Solution:- Base pairs found in DNA are adenine, guanine and cytosine and thymine. Uracil
is present in RNA not in DNA.
Q9) What are two monomers of Glyptal polymer?
(A) Ethylene Glycol and Isophthalic acid

(B) Ethane - 1, 2-Diol and Phthalic acid
(C) Ethylene Glycol and Terephthalic acid

(D) Formaldehyde and Ethylene Glycol
Solution:- The glyptal polymer is obtained by the phthalic acid + ethylene glycol.
Q10) Which polymer is used in making non-stick surface coated Utensils?
(A) PHBV
(B) Nylon 6,6
(C) Teflon
(D) Buna-N
Solution:- Teflon, which is also known as Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE), is the polymer

used in the preparation of non-stick cooking vessels and as an insulator.
Q11) Which artificial sweetening agent is limited for cold food and soft drinks?
(A) Sucralose
(B) Alitame
(C) Saccharin
(D) Aspartame
Solution:- Aspartame is the widely used artificial sweetener for cold food and soft drinks. It
is roughly 100 times as sweet as cane sugar. It is a methyl ester of dipeptide formed from
aspartic acid and phenylalanine. Use of aspartame is limited to cold foods and soft drinks
because it is unstable at cooking temperature.
Q12) Polyethylene-glycol is used in the preparation of which types of detergent?
(A) Anionic detergent

(B) Non Ionic detergent
(C) Cationic detergent
(D) Soap

Solution:- Polyethyleneglycols are used in the preparation of non-ionic detergents.

Non-ionic detergents do not contain any ions. They are actually esters of high molecular
mass alcohols obtained by reaction between polyethylene glycols and stearic acid.
Q13) The correct order of the packing efficiency in different types of unit cell is
(A) fcc bcc simple cubic

(B) fcc bcc simple cubic
(C) fcc bcc simple cubic
(D) fcc bcc simple cubic
Solution:-
Q14) Which of the following defects are obtained by heating of zinc-oxide?
(A) Impurity defect

(B) Metal deficiency defect
(C) Stoichiometric defect'
(D) Metal excess defect
Solution:- ZnO turns yellow on heating as Zn2+ ions move in interstitial sites and electrons
also get entrapped in nearby interstitial sites to maintain electrical neutrality. As extra Zn2+
ions are present in interstitial sites thus, it is a metal excess defect.

Q15) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point?
Solution:- Elevation in boiling point depends upon the van’t Hoff factor (i). Among the given
options, 0.1M K4[Fe(CN)6] will exhibit the highest boiling point since it will dissociate into
more ions when dissolved in the solution.
Q16) We have three aqueous solutions of labelled as A, B, C with -

concentration 0.1 M, 0.01 M and 0.001 M respectively. The value of Van't Hoff factor (i)
for these solutions will be in order …………..
Solution:- As van't hoff factor depends on the number of dissociated ions. As the dilution
increases, dissociation also increases which leads to increase in the value of Van't Hoff
factor.
Q17) What is the osmotic pressure of 0.02 M solution of NaCl?
(A) 0.01 RT
(B) 0.02 RT
(C) 0.04 RT
(D) 0.002 RT
Solution:- Osmotic pressure;

= 0.02RT

Q18) Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.1 M KCl solution is 100 and
conductivity of solution is 1.29 s/m. Then what will be the value of the conductivity
cell constant?
(A) 1.29
(B) 1.29
(C) 1.24
(D) 0.248
Solution:- Cell Constant = Conductivity * Resistance

= 1.29 s/m * 100
= 129 m-1 = 1.29
Q19) Which of the following is correct Nearst equation for the given electrochemical
cell?
Solution:-

Q20) Which of the following chemical reaction occur at anode during electrolysis of
higher concentrated solution?
Solution:- Chemical reaction occur at anode during electrolysis of higher concentrated
solution is
Q21) For which of the following graph of first order reaction the value of slope will be
?

Solution:- For first order reaction, integral rate law is
In the above equation, value of slope is
22) Which will be the unit of rate constant for the reaction having Rale
Solution:- Unit of rate constant for the reaction having Rale

Q23) A reaction is first order in terms of A and second order in terms of B. What will
be the rate of reaction, if concentration of B is increased two times?
(A) 4-Times
(B) 2-Times
(C) 8-Times
(D) 16-Times
Solution:- Rate equation for the reaction is

If concentration of B is increased two times,
Which is 4 times faster than the initial reaction rate.
Q24) Which of the following statement is incorrect for physisorption?

(A) It arises because of Van der Waals Force
(B) It is reversible in nature
(C) It is not specific in nature
(D) High temperature is favourable for adsorption. It increases with increase in temperature
Solution:- Physical adsorption happens when particles stick to a surface without forming
any strong chemical bonds. Instead, they're held by weak forces called Van der Waals
forces. When the gas temperature drops, its particles slow down because they have less
energy, making them more likely to stick to the surface. So, lower temperatures make
physical adsorption easier.
Q25) Which is correct order of flocculating power in the coagulation of , Sol ?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution:- sol is a negative sol and will be flocculated depending on the charge of
the cation. The more the charge the more flocculating power it has.
Q26) Mention percentage of Ag (Silver) in German silver alloy.

(A) 20-30 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 0.0 %
(D) 40-50 %
Solution:- German silver, sometimes referred to as nickel silver, is an alloy made of nickel
(Ni), zinc (Zn), and copper (Cu). It's frequently used to create decorations and kitchenware.
German silver, meanwhile, is only elemental silver (Ag) if it is plated, despite its name. As a
result, there is no silver in German silver.
Q27) Which of the following ore is not in oxide form?

(A) Malachite
(B) Haematite
(C) Magnetite
(D) Zincite
Solution:- Malachite is not an oxide ore; rather, it is a mineral resource composed of copper
carbonate hydroxide. Malachite's chemical formula is Cu3O2(OH)3
Q28) By thermal decomposition which of the following compounds very pure nitrogen
gas can be obtained?

(A) Ammonium dichromate
(B) Ammonium Chloride
(C) Sodium Azide
(D) Barium Nitrate
Solution:- Ammonium dichromate can thermally decompose to produce very pure nitrogen
gas. This process's chemical reaction is as follows: (NH4)2Cr2O7(s)→Cr2O3(s)+N2(g)+4H2O
Gas evolves quickly as a result of this exothermic process, mimicking a volcanic eruption.
Q29) Which of the following oxide show acidic properties?
Solution:- This oxide has Mn in its highest oxidation state, i.e., +7. It is a powerful oxidizing
agent that reacts with water to form HMnO4 which is a very strong acidic.
Q30) Which of the following are peroxo acids of Sulphur?
Solution:- Peroxoacids of sulphur must contain one O-O bond. Hence

are Peroxo acids of Sulphur.

Q31) When alkaline is treated with , Iodide ion is oxidised to …………
Solution:-
When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with KI, Iodide ion is oxidised to IO3-
Q32) In the electronic configuration of which of the following element-electrons is

arranged in 5d orbital?
Solution:- Gd possesses a single electron in the 5d subshell. In the case of other

lanthanoids, the 5d orbital is empty.
Electronic configuration of
Q33) What kind of isomerism exists between

(A) Ionisation
(B) Solvate
(C) Coordination
(D) Linkage
Solution:- This form of isomerism is known as 'hydrate isomerism' in cases where water is
involved as a solvent. This is similar to ionisation isomerism. Solvate isomers differ by
whether or not a solvent molecule is directly bonded to the metal ion or merely present as
free solvent molecules in the crystal lattice.
Q34) How configuration is possible for ion during crystal Field splitting in
Octahedral complex?
Solution:- Divided into t 2g and eg level are the d orbitals. Since there is little space between
the two levels in an octahedral field ( Δo > P), all d4 electrons are unpaired. As a result, the
low spin complex formed. In an octahedral field, the electronic configuration of d4 metal ions
is t2g4eg0.
Q35) Which of the following species is not expected to be a ligand?
Solution:- Ligand must donate a pair of electron or loosely held electron pair to metal and
form M - L bond in the process of coordination compound formation.
Among the given options NH4+ does not have any pair of electrons.

Q36) The following results are as under for the reaction Product by which
reaction mechanism this reaction occurs?
Solution:- Since doubling the amount of nucleophile or the substrate S, doubles the rate of
reaction the reaction requires both the substrate and the nucleophile in the reaction
mechanism. So, the reaction is SN2.
Q37) Which one is a reaction to prepare from ?
(A) Wurtz Reaction

(B) Finkelstein
(C) Elimination Reaction
(D) Swartz Reaction
Solution:- Freon-12 is prepared by the action of hydrogen fluoride on carbon tetrachloride

in the presence of a catalytic amount of antimony pentachloride. This reaction is called
"Swarts reaction."
Q38) How much gram of ethanol is required to obtain 280 ml dihydrogen at S.T.P. by
reaction of with Metal? (Mol. wt. of ethanol =46 g /mol ).
(A) 2.3
(B) 4.6
(C) 1.15
(D) 0.575

Solution:-
From the above reaction, it can be concluded that 1 mole of H2 is produced by 2 moles of
ethanol.
At STP, 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4 L
We have to produce 280ml of dihydrogen, the moles of ethanol required for the same are:
2 moles of ethanol produces 22.4L of H.
Let us assume that x moles of ethanol are required to produce 280 ml of dihydrogen.
22400 ml of H2 is produced in 2 moles of ethanol, hence x=( 2/22400)*180
x= 0.025 moles of ethanol.
The mass of ethanol required can be calculated by using the molar mass:
Molar mass of ethanol = 46.08 g/mol
Mass of ethanol required = 0.025 moles x 46.08 g/mol
= 1.152 g
Therefore, the answer is 1.152 g
Q39) Which product is obtained between reaction of and ?

(A) Only Ether
(B) Only Alkene
(C) Both alkene and ether
(D) Alcohol
Solution:- As a nucleophile, sodium methoxide targets the tert-butyl bromide.

The methoxide ion takes the place of the bromide ion.
The principal product that is produced is ether, more precisely (CH₃)₃COCH₃.

Sodium bromide (NaBr) is also produced as a byproduct.
Thus, (A) Only Ether is the right response.
Q40) Which of the following alcohol undergo dehydration reaction with Cu (Copper)
metal at 573 K temperature?
(A) Secondary and Tertiary
(B) Primary & Secondary
(C) Primary and Tertiary
(D) Only Tertiary

Solution:- Tertiary alcohol when reacted with copper metal at 573K dehydration takes place
which leads to formation of alkene. Whereas primary and secondary alcohol on reaction
gives aldehyde and ketone by dehydrogenation.
Following chemical reactions represents the treatment of Primary, secondary and tertiary
alcohols respectively with Copper.
Maths
Q.1)
π
A) cos 12
2π
B) 𝑠𝑖𝑛 9
5π
C) cos 12
7π
D) 𝑠𝑖𝑛 12
Correct Answer:- C
Solution:-
We can use the formula sin(𝐴 − 𝐵) = sin 𝐴 cos 𝐵 − sin 𝐵 cos 𝐴

11π 2π 2π 11π 11π 2π π
sin 36
cos 9
− sin 9
cos 36
= sin( 36
− 9
) = sin( 12 )
π
Also we know that sin( 2 − θ) = cos θ
π 6π 5π 5π
sin( 12 ) = sin( 12 − 12
) = cos 12
5π
Hence, Option C) cos 12
is correct.
Q.2) If A(K, 1), B(2,4), and C(1,1) are the vertices of the triangle
ABC, such that the area of the ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is 6 units, then K =?
A) -5 and 3
B) 5 and -3
C) 3 and -1
D) 5 and 3
Correct Answer:- B
Solution:-
A(K, 1), B(2,4), and C(1,1)
Area of triangle is given by
1 1
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 = 2
|𝑘(4 − 1) + 2(1 − 1) + 1(1 − 4)| = 2
|3𝑘 − 3| = 6
|3𝑘 − 3| = 12 ⇒ 3𝑘 − 3 = ± 12
⇒ 𝑘 = 5 𝑜𝑟 𝑘 = −3
Hence option B) 5 and -3 is correct.
Q.3)

𝑒 2
A) 𝑒 (1 + 𝑒 + 2𝑒)
𝑒 2
B) 𝑒 (3𝑒 + 2𝑒 + 2)
𝑒 2
C) 𝑒 (2𝑒 + 4𝑒 + 3)
𝑒 2
D) 𝑒 (1 + 4𝑒 + 2𝑒 )
Correct Answer:- C)
Solution:-
𝑑 𝑥 𝑥+1 𝑥+2
𝑑𝑥
(𝑥 + 𝑥 +𝑥 )
Using the concept of log and chain rule. Here consider log as ln.
𝑥 1 𝑑𝑦1 1 𝑑𝑦1
𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑦1 = 𝑥 ⇒ log 𝑦1 = 𝑥 log 𝑥 ⇒ 𝑦2 𝑑𝑥
= 𝑥 𝑥
+ log 𝑥 ⇒ 𝑑𝑥
= 𝑦(1 + log 𝑥
In a similar way
𝑥+1 1 𝑑𝑦2 1
𝑦2 = 𝑥 ⇒ log 𝑦2 = (𝑥 + 1) log 𝑥 ⇒ 𝑦2 𝑑𝑥
= (𝑥 + 1) 𝑥
+ log 𝑥
𝑑𝑦 𝑥+1 𝑥 + 1 + 𝑥log𝑥
𝑑𝑥
=𝑥 ( 𝑥
)
Finlay
𝑑 𝑥 𝑥+1 𝑥+2 𝑥 𝑥+1 𝑥+1+𝑥 log𝑥 𝑥+2 𝑥+2+𝑥log𝑥
𝑑𝑥
(𝑥 + 𝑥 +𝑥 ) = 𝑥 (1 + log 𝑥) + 𝑥 ( 𝑥
) +𝑥 ( 𝑥
)
Put the value of x = e

𝑒 𝑒 + 1 + 𝑒log𝑒 2 𝑒+2+𝑒log𝑒 𝑒 2
𝑒 [(1 + log 𝑒) + 𝑒( 𝑒
) +𝑒 𝑒
)] = 𝑒 [3 + 4𝑒 + 2𝑒 )
𝑒 2
Hence, Option C) 𝑒 (2𝑒 + 4𝑒 + 3) is correct.
2
𝑑𝑦
Q.4) If 𝑥 = 𝑎 cos θ, 𝑦 = 𝑎 sin θ, then 2 = ... (where
𝑑𝑥
𝑎 ≠ 0, θ ≠ 𝑘π, 𝑘 ϵ 𝑧)
1 2
A) − 𝑎
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ 𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ

1 3
B) 𝑎
𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ
2
C) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ
1 3
D) − 𝑎
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ
Correct Answer:- C)
Solution:-
2
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑥 = 𝑎 cos θ ⇒ 𝑑θ
= − 𝑎 sin θ; 2 = − 𝑎 cos θ
𝑑θ
2
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦
𝑦 = 𝑎 sin θ ⇒ 𝑑θ
= 𝑎 cos θ; 2 = − 𝑎 sin θ
𝑑θ
2
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 2
𝑑𝑥
= − cot θ ⇒ 2 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ
𝑑𝑥
2
Hence, option C) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ is correct.
−1 𝑑𝑦
Q.5) If 𝑦 = sin 𝑥 + 𝑦, then 𝑑𝑥
= ? (where 𝑥 ∈ (0, 1))
1
A) 2
(2𝑦−1) 1−𝑥
1
B) 2
(1−2𝑦) 1−𝑥
1
C) 2
(2𝑦−1) 𝑥 −1
1
D) 2
(2𝑦+1) 1−𝑥
Correct Answer:- A
Solution:-
−1
𝑦= sin 𝑥+𝑦
2 2 2
𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑦 − 𝑦) = 𝑥 ⇒ cos(𝑦 − 𝑦) = 1 −𝑥

Do the differentiation y with respect of x
2 𝑑𝑦
cos(𝑦 − 𝑦)(2𝑦 − 1) 𝑑𝑥
=1
2 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 1
1 − 𝑥 (2𝑦 − 1) 𝑑𝑥
=1 ⇒ 𝑑𝑥
= 2
1−𝑥 (2𝑦−1)
1
Hence, option A) 2
is correct.
(2𝑦−1) 1−𝑥
Q-6) For the function f(x) = x + x-1, x ϵ [1,3], the value of C for mean
value theorem is:
A) 3
B) 1
C) 2
D) 5
Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
The given function f(x) = x + x-1 is both differentiable and

continuous in the interval [1,3].
By the Mean Value Theorem, there exists a c ϵ [1,3], such that:

Hence, Option A) 3 is correct.
Q-7) Rate of change in the volume of a sphere of a radius r w.r.t. its

diameter =
2
A) 4π𝑟
2
B) 2π𝑟
2 2
C) 3
π𝑟
2
D) 8π𝑟
Correct Answer:- A
Solution:-
4 3
Volume of sphere = 𝑉 = 3
π𝑟 where r is radius of the sphere
Do the differentiation wrt r

𝑑𝑉 4 2 2
𝑑𝑟
= 3
π3𝑟 = 4π𝑟
2
Hence, option A) 4π𝑟 is correct.
π
Q-8) Which of the following function is decreasing on (0, 8
)?

A) sin x
B) -cos x
C) cos 4x
D) tan 4x
Correct Answer:- C)
Solution:-
Differentiate the functions

𝑑 sin 𝑥 π
𝑑𝑥
= cos 𝑥 > 0 𝑓𝑜𝑟 (0, 8
) 𝑡ℎ𝑢𝑠 𝑖𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑢𝑛𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
−𝑑 cos𝑥 π
𝑑𝑥
= 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 > 0 𝑓𝑜𝑟 (0, 8
) 𝑡ℎ𝑢𝑠 𝑖𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑢𝑛𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
𝑑 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4𝑥 π
𝑑𝑥
= − 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛 4𝑥 < 0 𝑓𝑜𝑟 (0, 8
) 𝑡ℎ𝑢𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑢𝑛𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
Hence, option C) is correct.
Q-9) An approximation values of (81. 5) is ? 4
A) 3.0436
B) 3.0033
C) 3.0046
D) 3.0465
Correct Answer:- C)
Solution:-
Consider y = (x)1/4
Let x = 81 and Δx = 0.5
Then, Δy = (x + Δx)1/4 - (x)1/4
= (81.5)1/4 - (81)¼ = (81.5)1/4 - 3
Δy + 3 = (81.5)1/4

Now, dy is approximately equal to Δy and is given by,
dy = (dy/dx) Δx
= (¼)(x)3/4 Δx [∵ y = (x)1/4]
= (¼)(81)3/4 (1) = 1/4(33) (0.5) = 0.5/108 = 0.0046
Hence, (81.5)1/4 = 3 + 0.0046 = 3.0046
Q-10) Equation of the normal to the curve x{2 / 3} + y{2 / 3} = 2 at (1,1) is:
A) 2𝑥 − 𝑦 − 1 = 0
B) 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 2 = 0
C) 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0
D) 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 0
Correct Answer:- D)
Solution:-
x{2 / 3} + y{2 / 3} = 2
Differentiate both side

1 1 1
2 −3 2 − 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑦
3
𝑥 + 3
𝑦 3 𝑑𝑥 = 0 ⇒ 𝑑𝑥
= −( ) 𝑥
3
slope of tangent of
curve.
At point (1,1), the

𝑑𝑦
𝑆𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒 = 𝑑𝑥
= −1
−1
Slope of normal is given by = 𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑡
= 1
Equation of normal passing point (1, 1) = 𝑦 − 𝑥 = 0
Hence, option D) 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 0 is correct.
Q-11) if , then K =

𝑥
A) 𝑒
𝑥
B) − 𝑒
−𝑥
C) 𝑒
−1
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥
D) 𝑒
Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
−1 1 −1
∫ 𝐾cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 − ∫ 𝐾 2
𝑑𝑥 = 𝐾cos 𝑥 + 𝐶
1−𝑥
𝑥 −1
Consider the function as 𝑒 cos 𝑥
Differentiation of this function using chain rule

−1 𝑥 𝑥 −1
cos 𝑥 𝑒 + 𝑒 2
1−𝑥
𝑥
Thus the value of K = 𝑒
𝑥
Hence, option A) 𝑒 is correct
Q-12)
A)
B)
C)

D)
Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
sin𝑥/cos𝑥 sin𝑥 𝑑𝑥
∫ (1 − cos𝑥)( 1 − 2 cos𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 = ∫ (1−cos𝑥)(1−2cos𝑥)
cos𝑥 2
cos 𝑥
Put 1 − cos 𝑥 = 𝑡 ⇒ 𝑑𝑡 = sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑡
∫ (𝑡)(2𝑡−1)
𝑑𝑡 (2𝑡−(2𝑡−1))𝑑𝑡 2 1 2𝑡−1
∫ (2𝑡−1)𝑡
=∫ 𝑡(2𝑡−1)
=∫ 2𝑡−1
𝑑𝑡 − ∫ 𝑡
𝑑𝑡 ⇒ ln | 𝑡
| +𝑐
Put 1 − cos 𝑥 = 𝑡
1 −2cos𝑥 sec 𝑥 − 2
ln | 1−cos𝑥
| = ln | sec 𝑥 −1
| +𝐶
Hence, Option A) is correct.
2020
2019 𝑥
Q-13) 𝑥 ·𝑒 𝑑𝑥 = ....... + 𝐶
2019
1 𝑥
A) 2019
𝑒
2019
1 𝑥
B) 2020
𝑒
2019
𝑥
C) 𝑒
2020
1 𝑥
D) 2020
𝑒
Correct Answer:- D)

Solution:-
2020 2019
Put 𝑥 = 𝑡 ⇒ 𝑑𝑡 = 2020𝑥 𝑑𝑥
2020
1 𝑡 1 𝑡 1 𝑥
∫ 2020
𝑒 𝑑𝑡 ⇒ 2020
𝑒 +𝐶 = 2020
𝑒 +𝐶
2020
1 𝑥
Hence, Option D) 2020
𝑒 is correct.
Q-14)
π
A) 12
π
B) 4
π
C) 2
π
D) 6
Correct Answer:- A
Solution:-
π π
Put the limit of 6
𝑡𝑜 3
log part will become zero because value of
π π
sin 2𝑡 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑡 6
𝑡𝑜 3
are the same.

π π
−6 π
Hence the value of I 3
2
= 12
Hence option A is correct.
Q-15)
Correct Answer:- C)
Solution:-
Integration by part
𝑥/3 𝑥 𝑥/3 1 𝑥
𝐼 = (0. 001) 𝑒 − ∫(0. 001) (3 ) ln(0. 001)𝑒 𝑑𝑥
𝑥/3 𝑥 1 𝑥/3 𝑥
𝐼 = (0. 001) 𝑒 − ( 3 ) ln(0. 001) ∫(0. 001) 𝑒 𝑑𝑥
𝑥/3 𝑥 1
𝐼 = (0. 001) 𝑒 − ( 3 ) ln(0. 001)𝐼
1 𝑥/3 𝑥
𝐼(1 + ( 3 ) ln(0. 001)) = (0. 001) 𝑒

𝑥/3 𝑥
(0.001) 𝑒
𝐼= 1
(1+( )ln(0.001))
3
Put the limit 0 to 1

1/3
(0.001) 𝑒 −1 𝑒 − 10
𝐼= 1 = 10 (1− ln10)
(1+( )ln(0.001))
3
Hence option C) is correct.
Q-16) The Area of the region bounded by the ellipse 9 x2 + 4 y2 = 1 in the

first quadrant is :
π
A) 6
π
B) 24
3π
C) 2
D) 6π
Correct Answer:- B)
Solution:-
9 x2 + 4 y2 = 1
2
1−9𝑥
𝑦 = ± 2
1 1
3 2 3
1−9𝑥 1 2
Area in first quadrant = | ∫ 2
𝑑𝑥| = | 2
∫ 1 − (3𝑥) 𝑑𝑥|
0 0
Put the limit 0 to ⅓

π
24
Hence option B) is correct.

Q-17) Find the area of the region bounded by the line 𝑦 = 3 − 𝑥 , the
X-axis and the ordinates x = 2 and x = 5.
A) 3
B) 1/2
C) 5/2
D) 3/2
Correct Answer:- C)
Solution:-
𝑦 = 3−𝑥
For x = 0; y = 3 and for y = 0; x = 3;
Area bounded by x-axis and given equations are

1
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 = 2
× 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒 × ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
1 1 5
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 = 2
×1×1+ 2
×2×2 = 2
Hence, option C) 5/2 is correct.
Q-18) Area of the region enclosed by the parabola y = x2 and the line y =
x + 2 is:

A) 9/2
B) 11/2
C) 5/2
D) 7/2
Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
The area is bounded by curves.
2
𝑦 = 𝑥 and 𝑦 = 𝑥 + 2
These two curve are intersect at

2
𝑥 − 𝑥 − 2 = 0 ⇒ 𝑥 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 1
2 2 3
2 𝑥 𝑥
Area bounded by curves = ∫ (𝑥 + 2 − 𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 = [ 2
+ 2𝑥 − 3
]
−1
Putting the lower and upper limit of integration
Area bounded by curves =

4 8 1 −1 9
(2 + 4 − 3
) − ( 2 + 2(− 1) − 3
) = 2
Hence, option A) 9/2 is correct.

Q-19) The order and degree of the differential equation
is :
A) 2 and 16
B) 3 and 15
C) 3 and 16
D) 2 and 12
Correct Answer:- B)
Solution:-
The order of a differential equation is defined to be that of the

highest order derivative it contains. The degree of a differential
equation is defined as the power to which the highest order
derivative is raised.
Highest order of derivative = 3
Make power of 12 both side

3 2
𝑑 𝑦 15 𝑑 𝑦 16
( 3 ) = ( 2 )
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
Thus degree is 15
Hence, Option B) 3 and 15 is correct.
Q-20) The integrating factor of the differential equation
is :
A) tan x
𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝑥
B) 𝑒

C) cos x
D) sec x
Correct Answer:- D)
Solution:-
𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
+ 𝑝(𝑥)𝑦 = 𝑄(𝑥)
∫𝑃(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 ∫tan𝑥 𝑑𝑥
ln 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝑥
𝐼𝐹 = 𝑒 = 𝑒 =𝑒 = sec 𝑥
Hence , option D) is correct.
Q-21) Particular solution of the differential equation , Given

that y=1, where x=0 is :
Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
𝑑𝑦 1 2
2 =− 4𝑥𝑑𝑥 ⇒ − 𝑦
= − 2𝑥 + 𝑐
𝑦
Put the y = 1 when x = 0 thus c = -1

1
𝑦 = 2
2𝑥 +1
1
Hence, Option A ) 𝑦 = 2 is correct.
2𝑥 +1
Q-22) For the vectors

Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
→ ^ ^ ^
Let's consider 𝑎 = 𝑎1𝑖 + 𝑎2𝑗 + 𝑎3𝑘
^
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(𝑎1𝑖 + 𝑎2𝑗 + 𝑎3𝑘) × 𝑖 = − 𝑎2𝑘 + 𝑎3𝑗
^
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(𝑎1𝑖 + 𝑎2𝑗 + 𝑎3𝑘) × 𝑗 = 𝑎1𝑘 − 𝑎3𝑖
^
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(𝑎1𝑖 + 𝑎2𝑗 + 𝑎3𝑘) × 𝑘 = − 𝑎1𝑗 + 𝑎2𝑖
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 →2
= 𝑎2 + 𝑎3 + 𝑎1 + 𝑎3 + 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 = 2(𝑎1 + 𝑎2 + 𝑎2 ) = 2|𝑎|
Hence, option A) is correct.
Q-23) For the vectors
A) 11
B) -11
C) 5
D) -5
Correct Answer:- B)
Solution:-
→ → ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
𝑎 + 𝑏 = 𝑖 + 𝑗 + 𝑘 + 𝑖 + 2𝑗 + 3𝑘 = 2𝑖 + 3𝑗 + 4𝑘

→ → ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
𝑎 − 𝑏 = (𝑖 + 𝑗 + 𝑘) − (𝑖 + 2𝑗 + 3𝑘) = − 𝑗 − 2𝑘
→ → → →
(𝑎 + 𝑏 ). (𝑎 − 𝑏) = −3 −8 = − 11
Hence, option B) -11 is correct.
Q-24) Let the vectors and be such that and and

is a unit vector, then the angle between and is :
π
A) 2
π
B) 3
π
C) 6
π
D) 4
π
Correct Answer:- D) 4
Solution:-
^ ^ ^
𝑎 × 𝑏 = 𝑎𝑏 sin θ 𝑛
2 1
𝑎𝑏 sin θ = 1 ⇒ 3 × 3
sin θ = 1 ⇒ sin θ =
2
π
θ = 4
π
Hence, option D) 4
is correct.
Q-25) Cartesian equation of the line through (5,-2,4) and which is

parallel to the vector is :

Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
→
Equation of a line passing through a point with position vector 𝑎
→ → → →
and parallel to 𝑏 is given by 𝑟 = 𝑎 + λ𝑏
Since line passes through (5,-2,4)
Since line is parallel to
𝑥−5 𝑦+2 𝑧−4

3
= 2
= −8
Hence, option A) is correct
Q-26) If a, b, and c are intercepts on X-axis, Y-axis and Z-axis

respectively of the plane x + 2y + 3z = 1, then 2a + 4b + 3c =?
A) 19
B) 5
C) 6
D) 17
Correct Answer:- B)
Solution:-

𝑥 𝑦 𝑧
The intercept form of a plane is given by 𝑎
+ 𝑏
+ 𝑐
= 1 where a, b
and c are the intercepts of the plane with x, y and z-axes
respectively.
For plan equation x + 2y + 3z = 1.

1 1
𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 2
, 𝑐= 3
2𝑎 + 4𝑏 + 3𝑐 = 2 + 2 + 1 = 5
Hence, option B) is correct.
Q-27) Measure the angle between the line

and the plane
10𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 11𝑧 = 3
Correct Answer:- C)
Solution:-
Direction ratios of line = 2, 3, 6
Direction ratio of normal to plane = 10, 2, -11

→ →
|𝑎·𝑛| |2×10+3×2+6×(−11)| |26−66| 8
sin θ = → → = = 7×15
= 21
|𝑎||𝑛| 4+9+36 100+4+121
−1 8
θ = sin ( 21 )
Q-28) The coordinates of the corner points of the bounded feasible

region are (0,10),(5,5),(15,15), and (0,20). The maximum of the objective
function Z=10 x+20 y is:
(A) 600

(B) 550
(C) 400
(D) 450
Correct Answer:- D)
Solution:-
Z = 10x + 20y
Put the values
For (0,10); Z = 400
For (5,5); Z = 150
For (15,15); Z = 450
For (0,20); Z = 400
Maximum value is 450 hence option D) is correct.
Q-29) Minimise objective function z = 3x + 2y subject to the constraints :
(A) 15
(B) 6
(C) 24
(D) No feasible region and hence no feasible solution.
Correct Answer:-D)
Solution:-

As, there is no common region so there is no feasible region.
Hence, there is no minimum value of Z, Option D) is correct.
Q-30) For independent events A and B, P(A) = P; P(B) = 1/2 and P(A ∪
B)=3 / 5, then P = ?
(A) 1 / 10
(B) 1 / 5
(C) 1 / 2

(D) 2 / 5
Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
P(A ∪ B) = 3 / 5
For independent event

3 1 1
𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐴) + 𝑃(𝐵) ⇒ 5
=𝑝+ 2
⇒ 𝑝 = 10
Hence, option A) 1/10 is correct.
Q-31) If a fair coin is tossed 5 times, then the probability of getting

exactly 3 heads is :
(A) 5 / 16
(B) 3 / 32
(C) 1 / 32
(D) 5 / 32
Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
Total case = 25 = 32.

5 5!
Getting exactly 3 heads is 𝐶3 = 3!2!
= 10
10 5
Probability = 32
= 16
Q-32) If the probability distribution of X is:
then

(A) 91 / 6
(B) 21 / 6
(C) 35 / 12
(D) 35 / 3
Correct Answer:- C)
Solution:-
1 21 7
µ = 6
(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6) = 6
= 2
1 7 2 7 2 7 2 7 2 7 2 7 2
𝑉 = 6
[(1 − 2
) + (2 − 2
) + (3 − 2
) + (4 − 2
) + (5 − 2
) + (6 − 2
)]
1 25 9 1 1 9 25 70 35
𝑉 =6 ( 4
+ 4
+ 4
+ 4
+ 4
+ 4
)= 24
= 12
Hence option C) is correct.
Q-33) Relation R in the set defined by

is :
(A) Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
(B) Symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
(C) Transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric
(D) Only symmetric and transitive
Correct Answer:-A)
Solution:-
Reflexive Property: According to this property, if (p, p) belong to R, for

every p belongs to N

valid for all values of the set. Thus R is reflexive.
Symmetric Property: According to this property if (p, q) belongs to R,

then (q, p) belong to R should also hold true.
Not valid for all elements.
Transitive Property: According to this property, if (p, q),(q, r) belong to

R, then (p, r) belong to R.
Q-34) If , then
(A) 1 / 6
(B) 3 / 2
(C) 2
(D) 2 / 3
Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
12 −1 1
( 2
) = 6
Hence option A) is correct.
Q-35)
A) 0
π
B) 2
C) π

π
D) − 2
Correct Answer:- B)
Solution:-
−1 −1 −1 −1
𝑐𝑜𝑡 {𝑐𝑜𝑡(𝑐𝑜𝑡 1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 3)}
−1 −1 −1 π
𝑐𝑜𝑡 1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 3 = 2
−1 π π
𝑐𝑜𝑡 {𝑐𝑜𝑡( 2 )} = 2
Hence, option B) is correct.
Q-36)
Correct Answer:- C)
Solution:-
−1 1 −1 1 −1 3 1 1 3 3+5
cos(cos 2
) + tan(𝑡𝑎𝑛 ) + sin(𝑠𝑖𝑛 2
= 2
+ + 2
=
3 3 2 3

Q-37) if then the value of x is:
1
A) − 2
3
B) 2
3
C) − 2
D) 0
Correct Answer:- A)
Solution:-
−1 3 −1
cos(cos 2
+ sin 𝑥) = 1
We know that cos 0 𝑑𝑒𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑒 = 1

−1 3 −1 1
cos 2
+ sin 𝑥 = 0 ⇒ 𝑥 = − 2
Q-38)
A) -9
B) 17
C) -25
D) -14
Correct Answer:- C) -25
Solution:-
We can compare the values

𝑥+𝑦= −7
𝑥−𝑦=0
𝑥= − 3. 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = − 3. 5
7+𝑧 =5 ⇒ 𝑧 = −2
Thus 2𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 2(− 3. 5) + 4(− 3. 5) + 2(− 2) = − 25
Hence, Option C) -25 is correct.
Q-39)
Correct Answer:- B)
Solution:-
Hence, Option B) is correct.

Q-40) If , then
Correct Answer:- D
Solution:-
Thus A2 = 25I
Hence, Option D) 25 I is correct.

Preparation
Study Material
PHYSICS
Chapter Name - Electrostatics

Concept Name STUDY LINKS
Electric Charge STUDY HERE
Electric Charge And Electrification STUDY HERE
Coulomb's Law STUDY HERE
Electric Field STUDY HERE
Electric Field Lines STUDY HERE
Electric Field Intensity: Continuous Charge Distribution STUDY HERE
Electric Field Due To A Uniformly Charged Ring STUDY HERE
Electric Field Of Charged Disk STUDY HERE
Electric Field Due To An Infinitely Long Charged Wire STUDY HERE
Motion of charged particle in uniform electric field STUDY HERE
Electric Dipole STUDY HERE
Electric Field Of A Dipole STUDY HERE
Torque On An Electric Dipole In A Uniform Electric Field STUDY HERE
Electric Flux STUDY HERE
Electric Flux Through Cone Or Disc STUDY HERE
Gauss Law And It's Application STUDY HERE
Electric Potential STUDY HERE
Relation Between Electric Field And Potential STUDY HERE
Electric Potential Of Uniformly Charged Ring, Rod, And Disc STUDY HERE
Potential Due To Hollow Conductiong, Solid Conducting, Hollow Non Con- STUDY HERE
ducting
Electric Potential Of A Dipole And System Of Charges STUDY HERE
Equipotential Surface STUDY HERE
Electrostatic Potential Energy STUDY HERE
Potential Energy Of A Dipole In An Electric Field STUDY HERE
Capacitor And Capacitance STUDY HERE

The Parallel Plate Capacitor STUDY HERE
Spherical And Cylindrical Capacitors STUDY HERE
Combination Of Capacitors - Parallel And Series STUDY HERE
Energy Stored In Capacitor STUDY HERE
Dielectrics STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Current Electricity

Electric Current STUDY HERE
Current Density STUDY HERE
Drift Velocity STUDY HERE
Ohms Law STUDY HERE
Mobility Of Electron STUDY HERE
Resistance And Resistivity STUDY HERE
Change Of Resistance In Wires By Stretching STUDY HERE
Resistor Colour Code STUDY HERE
Heat And Power Developed In A Resistor STUDY HERE
Resistors In Series And Parallel Combinations STUDY HERE
Emf Of A Cell STUDY HERE
Internal Resistance Of A Cell STUDY HERE
Current Given By A Cell STUDY HERE
Grouping Of Cells STUDY HERE
Charging Of Battery And Discharging Of Battery STUDY HERE
Kirchhoff First Law STUDY HERE
Kirchhoff's Second Law STUDY HERE
Galvanometer STUDY HERE
Ammeter STUDY HERE
Voltmeter STUDY HERE
Wheatstone's Bridge STUDY HERE
Meter Bridge STUDY HERE
Potentiometer - Principle And Applications STUDY HERE
Calculation Of Resistance By Symmetry STUDY HERE
Charging Of Capacitor And Inductor STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Biot-savart Law STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field Due To Current In Straight Wire STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field Due To Circular Current Loop STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field On The Axis Of Circular Current Loop STUDY HERE
Ampere's Circuital Law And Its Applications STUDY HERE
Solenoid STUDY HERE
Toroid STUDY HERE
Force On A Moving Charge In Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
Motion Of A Charged Particle In Uniform Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
Lorentz Force STUDY HERE
Cyclotron STUDY HERE
Force On A Conductor Carrying Current In A Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
Force Between Two Parallel Current Carrying Conductors STUDY HERE
Torque On Current Loop And Magnetic Moment Derivation STUDY HERE
Magnetic Moment Of Revolving Electron And Bohr Magneton STUDY HERE
Moving Coil Galvanometer STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field Lines STUDY HERE
Bar Magnet As An Equivalent Solenoid STUDY HERE
The Dipole In A Uniform Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
Gauss Law Of Magnetism STUDY HERE
Earth's Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
Magnetization And Magnetic Intensity STUDY HERE
Magnetic Properties Of Materials STUDY HERE
Hysteresis Curve STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Induction And Alternating Currents

Magnetic Flux STUDY HERE
Faraday's Law Of Induction STUDY HERE
Lenz's Law STUDY HERE
Motional Electromotive Force STUDY HERE
Induced Electric Field STUDY HERE
Time Varying Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
Eddy Currents STUDY HERE

Self Inductance STUDY HERE
Mutual Inductance STUDY HERE
Energy Stored In An Inductor STUDY HERE
AC Generator STUDY HERE
Average And Rms Value Of Alternating Current And Voltage STUDY HERE
AC Voltage Applied To A Resistor STUDY HERE
AC Voltage Applied To An Inductor STUDY HERE
AC Voltage Applied To A Capacitor STUDY HERE
Series LR Circuit STUDY HERE
Series RC Circuit STUDY HERE
Series LCR Circuit STUDY HERE
Resonance In Series LCR Circuit STUDY HERE
Quality Factor In An AC Circuit STUDY HERE
Power And Power Factor In AC Circuits STUDY HERE
LC Oscillations STUDY HERE
Transformers STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Waves

Displacement Current STUDY HERE
Maxwell's 4 Equations STUDY HERE
Nature Of Electromagnetic Waves STUDY HERE
Energy Density And Intensity Of EM Waves STUDY HERE
Electromagnetic Spectrum STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Optics

Laws Of Reflection STUDY HERE
Reflection On A Plane Mirror STUDY HERE
Object And Image Velocity In Plane Mirror STUDY HERE
Spherical Mirrors STUDY HERE
Image Formation By Spherical Mirrors STUDY HERE
Spherical Mirror Formula And Magnification STUDY HERE
Refraction Of Light STUDY HERE
Real Depth And Apparent Depth STUDY HERE
Total Internal Reflection STUDY HERE

Refraction Of Light Through Glass Slab STUDY HERE
Refraction And Dispersion Of Light Through A Prism STUDY HERE
Refraction At Spherical Surface STUDY HERE
Concave And Convex Lenses - Image Formation STUDY HERE
Lens Maker's Formula STUDY HERE
Power Of Lens And Mirror STUDY HERE
Magnification In Lenses STUDY HERE
Relation Between Object And Image Velocity In Lens STUDY HERE
Compound Lenses STUDY HERE
Silvering Of Lens STUDY HERE
Lens Displacement Method STUDY HERE
Structure And Functions Of Human Eye STUDY HERE
Simple Microscope STUDY HERE
Compound Microscope STUDY HERE
Astronomical Telescope STUDY HERE
Terrestrial Telescope STUDY HERE
Wavefronts STUDY HERE
Huygens Principle STUDY HERE
Interference Of Light - Condition And Types STUDY HERE
Young's Double Slit Experiment STUDY HERE
Optical Path STUDY HERE
Ydse With Thin Slab STUDY HERE
Lloyd's Mirror Experiment STUDY HERE
Fresnel's Biprism STUDY HERE
Thin Film Interference STUDY HERE
Diffraction Of Light STUDY HERE
Fraunhofer Diffraction By A Single Slit STUDY HERE
Resolving Power Of Microscope And Telescope STUDY HERE
Polarization Of Light STUDY HERE
Malus's Law STUDY HERE
Polarization By Reflection And Brewster's Law STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

Electron Emission STUDY HERE
Photon Theory Of Light STUDY HERE
The Photoelectric Effect STUDY HERE

Einstein's Photoelectric Equation STUDY HERE
Radiation Pressure STUDY HERE
Wave Nature Of Matter And De Broglie's Equation STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Atoms And Nuclei

Rutherford's Atomic Model And Limitations STUDY HERE
Bohr Model Of The Hydrogen Atom STUDY HERE
Energy Level - Bohr's Atomic Model STUDY HERE
Line Spectra Of Hydrogen Atom STUDY HERE
De-broglie's Explanation Of Bohr's Second Postulate STUDY HERE
Effect Of Nucleus Motion On Energy STUDY HERE
Atomic Collision STUDY HERE
Nucleus Structure STUDY HERE
Binding Energy Per Nucleon STUDY HERE
Radioactive Decay STUDY HERE
Law Of Radioactivity Decay STUDY HERE
Simultaneous And Series Disintegration STUDY HERE
Nuclear Fission STUDY HERE
Nuclear Fusion STUDY HERE
X-rays STUDY HERE
Continuous X-ray STUDY HERE
Characteristic X-rays STUDY HERE
Moseley's Law STUDY HERE
Bragg's Law STUDY HERE

CHEMISTRY
Chapter Name - Solutions

Types of Solutions STUDY HERE
Expression of Concentration of Solutions STUDY HERE
Vapour Pressure of solutions STUDY HERE
Ideal Solution STUDY HERE
Raoult’s Law STUDY HERE
Azeotropic Mixture STUDY HERE
Elevation in Boiling Point STUDY HERE
Depression in Freezing Point STUDY HERE
Osmotic Pressure STUDY HERE
Reverse Osmosis STUDY HERE
Isotonic, Hypertonic, Hypotonic Solution STUDY HERE
Van't Hoff Factor and Abnormal Molar Mass STUDY HERE
Solubility and Henry's Law STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Redox Reaction and Electrochemistry

Oxidation Number STUDY HERE
Redox Reactions STUDY HERE
Displacement Reaction STUDY HERE
Electrochemistry STUDY HERE
Electrochemical Series STUDY HERE
Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis STUDY HERE
Galvanic Cells STUDY HERE
Salt Bridge STUDY HERE
Standard Hydrogen Electrode STUDY HERE
Gibbs Free Energy of Reaction STUDY HERE
Nernst Equation STUDY HERE
Concentration Cells STUDY HERE
Molar Conductivity STUDY HERE
Kohlrausch's Law STUDY HERE
Types Of Battery - Primary cell & Secondary cell STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Chemical Kinetics
Rate of Reaction STUDY HERE
Rate Law STUDY HERE
Order of Reaction STUDY HERE
Zero Order Reaction STUDY HERE
First Order Reaction STUDY HERE
Second Order Reaction STUDY HERE
nth Order Reaction STUDY HERE
Methods of Determining Reaction Order STUDY HERE
Molecularity of reaction STUDY HERE
Pseudo First Order Reaction STUDY HERE
Elementary and Complex Reactions STUDY HERE
Arrhenius Equation STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - The d- and f-Block Elements

Transition Elements STUDY HERE
Colour Of Transition Elements STUDY HERE
Properties Of Interstitial Compounds STUDY HERE
KMnO4 - Potassium Permanganate STUDY HERE
Potassium Dichromate - K2Cr2O7 STUDY HERE
F Block Elements STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Coordination Compounds

Coordination Compounds STUDY HERE
Werner's Theory STUDY HERE
Valence Bond Theory of Coordination Compounds STUDY HERE
Crystal Field Theory (CFT) STUDY HERE
Factors Affecting the Stability of Complexes STUDY HERE
Isomerism in Coordination Complexes STUDY HERE
Organometallic Compounds STUDY HERE
Pi - Complex STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Alkyl Halides STUDY HERE
Physical & Chemical Properties of Haloalkanes STUDY HERE
Haloarene STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Organic Compounds containing Halogens

(Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids)
Preparation of Alcohols STUDY HERE
Physical and Chemical Properties of Alcohols STUDY HERE
Preparation of Phenols STUDY HERE
Physical and Chemical Properties of Phenols STUDY HERE
Williamson's Ether Synthesis STUDY HERE
Methods of Preparation of Aldehydes and Ketones STUDY HERE
Reaction of Aldehydes and Ketones STUDY HERE
Carboxylic Acids STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Amines

Preparation of Amines STUDY HERE
Test for Amines STUDY HERE
Basicity of Amines STUDY HERE
Azo-Coupling Reaction STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Biomolecules

Classification of Carbohydrates and its Structure STUDY HERE
Tests for Carbohydrates STUDY HERE
Properties of Glucose STUDY HERE
Amino Acids STUDY HERE
Proteins STUDY HERE
Enzymes STUDY HERE
Vitamins STUDY HERE

MATHS
Chapter Name - Sets, Relations and Functions

Sets, Roster and Set Builder form of Sets STUDY HERE
Equal and Equivalent Sets STUDY HERE
Subsets, Proper Subset, Improper Subset, Intervals STUDY HERE
Finite set, Infinite set, Singleton set STUDY HERE
Power set, Universal set STUDY HERE
Union of sets, Properties of union STUDY HERE
Intersection of Set, Properties of Intersection STUDY HERE
Difference of set STUDY HERE
Complement of a set, Law of Complement, Property of Complement STUDY HERE
Cardinal number of some sets STUDY HERE
De-Morgan's Laws STUDY HERE
Ordered pair, Cartesian product of two sets STUDY HERE
Relation, Number of relation STUDY HERE
Domain, Range of Relation STUDY HERE
Relation, and its types STUDY HERE
Functions, Image and Pre-image STUDY HERE
Domain of function, Co-domain, Range of function STUDY HERE
Inequalities STUDY HERE
Transcendental function STUDY HERE
Logarithmic Inequalities STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
Inverse Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
Modulus Function, Properties of Modulus Function STUDY HERE
Algebraic function STUDY HERE
Piecewise function STUDY HERE
One to One Function STUDY HERE
Many One Function STUDY HERE
Onto Function or Surjective STUDY HERE
Into Function and Bijective function STUDY HERE
Composition of function: Conditions and Properties STUDY HERE
Inverse of a function STUDY HERE
Even and Odd Function STUDY HERE

Periodic Functions STUDY HERE
Vertical and Horizontal Transformation STUDY HERE
Transformations of Functions STUDY HERE
f(x) = min{g1(x), g2(x).......... } or max{g1(x), g2(x).......... } STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Trigonometry

Measuring Angles STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Identities STUDY HERE
Sign of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Graphs of General Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Allied Angles STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Compound Angles STUDY HERE
Sum-to-Product and Product-to-Sum Formulas STUDY HERE
Product To Sum Formulas STUDY HERE
Double Angle Formulas STUDY HERE
Triple Angle Identities STUDY HERE
Half Angle Formula STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratio of Submultiple of an Angle STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Some Specific Angles STUDY HERE
Summation Of Series In Trigonometry STUDY HERE
Conditional Trigonometric Identities STUDY HERE
Maximum and Minimum value of Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
General Solution of Trigonometric Equations STUDY HERE
Simultaneous Trigonometric Equations STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Equation using Minimum and Maximum value of Function STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Inequality STUDY HERE
Law of Sines STUDY HERE
Law of Cosines STUDY HERE
Law Of Tangents STUDY HERE
Projection Formula STUDY HERE
Semiperimeter and Half Angle Formulae STUDY HERE
Area of Triangle STUDY HERE
Circumcircle of a Triangle STUDY HERE
In-Circle and In-Centre STUDY HERE

Escribed Circle of Triangle STUDY HERE
Important Solutions of Triangle Formulas STUDY HERE
Height and Distance STUDY HERE
Inverse Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Domain and Range of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Inverse Functions STUDY HERE
Graph of Inverse Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Complementary Angles STUDY HERE
Sum and difference of angles in terms of arctan STUDY HERE
Multiple Angles STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Matrices and Determinants

Determine The Order Of Matrix STUDY HERE
Types of Matrices STUDY HERE
Triangular matrix (Upper and Lower triangular matrix) STUDY HERE
Matrix operations STUDY HERE
Matrix Multiplication STUDY HERE
Transpose of a Matrix STUDY HERE
Symmetric Matrix & Skew Symmetric Matrix STUDY HERE
Conjugate of a Matrix STUDY HERE
Hermitian matrix STUDY HERE
Skew Hermitian Matrix STUDY HERE
Trace of a matrix and properties STUDY HERE
Orthogonal matrix and Unitary matrix and Idempotent matrix STUDY HERE
Periodic matrix and Nilpotent matrix and involutory matrix STUDY HERE
Elementary row operations STUDY HERE
Singular Matrix STUDY HERE
Minors And Cofactors STUDY HERE
Adjoint and Inverse of a Matrix STUDY HERE
Inverse Matrix STUDY HERE
Multiplication of Two Determinants STUDY HERE
Properties of Determinants STUDY HERE
System of Linear Equations STUDY HERE
Cramer’s Rule STUDY HERE
Homogeneous System of Linear Equations STUDY HERE
Solving Linear Equations Using Matrix STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Limit , Continuity and Differentiability
Limit STUDY HERE
Left-Hand Limits and Right-Hand Limits STUDY HERE
Algebra of Limits STUDY HERE
Limit of Indeterminate Form and Algebraic limit STUDY HERE
Limit of Algebraic function STUDY HERE
Limit Using Expansion STUDY HERE
Sandwich Theorem STUDY HERE
Limits of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Exponential and Logarithmic Limits STUDY HERE
Limits of the form (1 power infinity) STUDY HERE
L’ Hospital’s Rule STUDY HERE
Limit of the form (0 power 0 or infinity power 0) STUDY HERE
Differentiation STUDY HERE
Derivative of Polynomials and Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Differentiation Rules STUDY HERE
Differentiation of Implicit Function STUDY HERE
Differentiation of Function in Parametric Form STUDY HERE
Differentiation of Inverse Trigonometric Function (cos/sine/tan) STUDY HERE
Differentiation Using Logarithm STUDY HERE
Differentiation of a Function wrt Another Function and Higher Order deriva- STUDY HERE
tive of a Function
Differentiation of Determinants STUDY HERE
Differentiation of Function and Relation STUDY HERE
Differentiation of Inverse Function STUDY HERE
Continuity and Discontinuity STUDY HERE
Directional Continuity and Continuity over an Interval STUDY HERE
Non - Removable, Infinite and Oscillatory Type Discontinuity STUDY HERE
Continuity and Discontinuity obtained by Algebraic Operations STUDY HERE
Continuity of Composite Function STUDY HERE
The Intermediate Value Theorem STUDY HERE
Differentiability and Existence of Derivative STUDY HERE
Examining differentiability Using Graph of Function STUDY HERE
Continuity And Differentiability STUDY HERE
Differentiability of Composite Function STUDY HERE
Derivative as Rate Measure STUDY HERE

Approximations and Errors using Derivatives STUDY HERE
Tangent to the Curve at a Point STUDY HERE
Angle of Intersection between Two Curves STUDY HERE
Length of Tangent and Normal and Subtangent and subnormal STUDY HERE
Rolle’s Theorem STUDY HERE
Monotonicity and Extremum of Functions STUDY HERE
Inflection Point STUDY HERE
Maxima and Minima in Calculus STUDY HERE
First Derivative Test STUDY HERE
Application of Monotonicity STUDY HERE
Nature of Roots of Cubic Polynomial STUDY HERE
Application of Extremum in Plane Geometry and Solid geometry STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Integral Calculus

Integration as an Inverse Process of Differentiation STUDY HERE
Integration of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Integration by Substitution STUDY HERE
Fundamental Formulae of Indefinite Integration (Inverse Trigonometric STUDY HERE

Functions)
Integrals of Particular Function STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Integrals STUDY HERE
Integration By Parts Formula STUDY HERE
Integration Using Partial Fraction STUDY HERE
Integration of Irrational Algebraic Function STUDY HERE
Reduction Formula STUDY HERE
Indirect Substitution in Integral STUDY HERE
Definite Integral - Calculus STUDY HERE
Definite integral as the limit of a sum STUDY HERE
Evaluation of Definite Integrals by Substitution STUDY HERE
Properties of the Definite Integral STUDY HERE
Piecewise Definite integration STUDY HERE
Application of Even- Odd Properties in Definite Integration STUDY HERE
Newton-Leibnitz's Formula STUDY HERE
Application of Inequality in Definite Integration STUDY HERE
Area Between Two Curves - Calculus STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Differential Equations
Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Formation of Differential Equation and Solutions of a Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Differential equations with variables separable STUDY HERE
Homogeneous Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Linear Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Bernoulli’s Equation STUDY HERE
Orthogonal Trajectory STUDY HERE
Exact Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Application of Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Vector Algebra

3D Geometry STUDY HERE
Vectors and Scalars STUDY HERE
Vectors Joining Two Points STUDY HERE
Types Of Vectors STUDY HERE
Direction Cosines & Direction Ratios Of A Line STUDY HERE
Vector Addition and Subtraction STUDY HERE
Multiplication Of Vectors And Scalar Quantity STUDY HERE
Section Formula STUDY HERE
Linear Combination of Vectors STUDY HERE
Dot Product Of Two Vectors STUDY HERE
Finding Components of a vector Along and Perpendicular to another Vector STUDY HERE
Cross product STUDY HERE
Geometrical Interpretation of Product of Vectors STUDY HERE
Scalar Triple Product of Vectors STUDY HERE
Proof of the Vector Triple Product STUDY HERE
Lagrange's Identity STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Three Dimensional Geometry

Equation Of A Line In Three Dimensions STUDY HERE
Image of a Point in the given Line STUDY HERE
Shortest Distance between Two Lines STUDY HERE

Equation of A Plane In The Normal Form STUDY HERE
Equation of a plane perpendicular to a given vector and passing through a STUDY HERE
given point
Equation of a plane passing through three non collinear point STUDY HERE
Equation of a Plane Passing Through a Given Point and Parallel to Two Giv- STUDY HERE
en Vectors
Angle Between Two PlanesAngle Between Two Planes - Planes & Angles STUDY HERE
Family of Plane STUDY HERE
Perpendicular Distance Of A Point From A Plane STUDY HERE
Image of a Point in the Plane STUDY HERE
Two Sides of a Plane STUDY HERE
Equation of The Plane Bisecting the Angle Between Two Planes STUDY HERE
Line of Intersection of Two Plane and Angle Between a Line and a STUDY HERE
Plane
Coplanarity of Two Lines STUDY HERE
Equation of Sphere STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Statistics and Probability

Introduction STUDY HERE
Representation of Data STUDY HERE
Central Tendency STUDY HERE
Measures of Dispersion STUDY HERE
Dispersion (Variance and Standard Deviation) STUDY HERE
Coefficients of Dispersion STUDY HERE
Some Important Point Regarding Statistics STUDY HERE
Important Terminologies and Definitions of Probability STUDY HERE
Algebra of Events STUDY HERE
Basic Probability Practise Session STUDY HERE
Set Theoretical Notations of Probability STUDY HERE
Conditional Probability STUDY HERE
Multiplication Theorem on Probability STUDY HERE
Independent Event STUDY HERE
Total Probability Theorem and Bayes' Theorem STUDY HERE
Random Variables and its Probability Distributions STUDY HERE
Bernoulli Trials and Binomial Distribution STUDY HERE

Mock Tests

Mock Test 1
Physics
Q. 1 When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we Learned
Electric charge -The loss of electrons gives a Positive charge.
By using
Q. 2
In the above circuit the current (in A) in each resistance is :

Option 1:
0
Option 2:
0.25
Option 3:
0.5
Option 4:
0.4
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
The potential difference in each loop is zero
No current will flow or the current in each resistance is zero
Q. 3 A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7×10−2 Am2 and moment of inertia 7.5×10−6 kg m2
is performing simple harmonic oscillations in a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken ( in
seconds) for 10 complete oscillations is :
(give answer till 2 decimal places)
Correct Answer:
6.65
Solution:
As we learned in
The time period of Oscillating Bar Magnet -
Using
we get T = 0.665 s
For 10 oscillations, total time taken = t = 6.65 s

Q. 4 A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm.
The centre of the small loop is on the axis of the bigger loop. The distance between their
centres is 15 cm. If a current of 2.0 A flows through the smaller loop, then the flux linked
with bigger loop is:
Option 1:
6.6 10-9 weber
Option 2:
9.1 10-11 weber
Option 3:
6 10-11 weber
Option 4:
3.3 10-11 weber
Correct Answer:
9.1 10-11 weber
Solution:
Here we will calculate flux through smaller loop due to bigger loop
But

Q. 5 Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a
propagating electromagnetic wave?
Option 1:
A charge moving at constant velocity
Option 2:
A stationary charge
Option 3:
A chargeless particle
Option 4:
An accelerating charge
Correct Answer:
An accelerating charge
Solution:
As we learnt in
Total radiant Flux (Power) -
q = Charge
= Acceleration of particle
c = Speed of light in vacuum
- wherein
The accelerated charge particle produce EM wave. P is total radiant flux emitted by charge at any instant.
Electromagnetic wave can be produced by an accelerating charge.
Q. 6 In a Young’s double slit experiment with light of wavelength the separation of slits is d and
distance of screen is D such that D > > d > > . If the Fringe width is , the distance from
point of maximum intensity to the point where intensity falls to half of maximum intensity
on either side is :
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Malus Law -
angle made by E vector with transmission axis.
- wherein
Intensity of transmitted light after polarisation .
Intensity of incident light.
Fringe Width -
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima

Here
so
(i)
(ii)
Thefore, from equation (i) and (ii)
Correct option is 2.
Q. 7 Two identical photocathodes receive the light of frequencies and respectively.

velocities of the photo-electrons coming out are and respectively, then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:

Solution:
Q. 8 If N0 is the original mass of the substance of halflife period =5 years, then the amount of
substance left after 15 years is
Option 1:
N0/8
Option 2:
N0/16
Option 3:
N0/2
Option 4:
N0/4
Correct Answer:
N0/8
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of nuclei after disintegration -
or
Number of nucleon activity at a time t is exponentional function
Now,
No is the initial amount of substance and N is the amount left after decay.
So,

Q. 9 The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse bias
resistance is :
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
10−6
Option 3:
106
Option 4:
100
Correct Answer:
10−6
Solution:
.
Forward Resistance
Reverse bias Resistance
Ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance

Q. 10 When a body is earth connected, electrons from the earth flow into the body. This means the body is
Option 1:
Unchanged
Option 2:
Charged positively
Option 3:
Charged negatively
Option 4:
An insulator
Correct Answer:
Charged positively
Solution:
When a positively charged body is connected to the earth, electrons flow from earth to body and the body becomes
neutral.

Q. 11 What is measured between B and C ?
Directions : Consider a block of conducting material of resistivity shown in the figure.

Current I enters at A and leaves from D . We apply superposition principle to find voltage
developed between B and C The calculation is done in the following steps:
(i) Take current I entering from A and assume it to spread over a hemispherical surface
in the block.
(ii) Calculate field E(r) at distance r from A by using Ohm’s law Where J is the
current per unit area at r
(iii) From the r dependence of E (r) obtain the potential V (r) at r
(iv) Repeat (i),(ii) and (iii) for current I leaving D and superpose results for A and B
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:

Solution:
Current is spread over an area
The current is a surface current.
Current density,
'
Q. 12 A wire carrying current I is tied between points P and Q and is in the shape of a circular arch
of radius R due to a uniform magnetic field B (perpendicular to the plane of the paper,
shown by xxx) in the vicinity of the wire. If the wire subtends an angle at the centre of
the circle (of which it forms an arch) then the tension in the wire is :
Option 1:
IBR

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
IBR
Solution:
As we learned in
Total magnetic force -
Q. 13 When the current changes from +2 A to –2 A in 0.05 second, an e.m.f. of 8 V is induced in a

coil. The coefficient of self induction of the coil is (answer in terms of H)
Correct Answer:
0.1
Solution:

Q. 14 The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet
radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from:
Option 1:
3 2
Option 2:
4 2
Option 3:
4 3
Option 4:
2 1
Correct Answer:
4 3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Infrared Waves -
Frequency Range Hz to Hz
- wherein
Wavelength Range 7500 to 1 mm
Energy diffference for infrared radiation will be smaller than those ultraviolet region.
Transition corresponding to Infra red region is:


Q. 15 Using monochromatic light of wavelength , an experimentalist sets up the Young’s double
slit experiment in three ways as shown.
If she observes that , the wavelength of light used is :
Option 1:
520 nm
Option 2:
540 nm
Option 3:
560 nm

Option 4:
580 nm
Correct Answer:
540 nm
Solution:
Given
Now
Q. 16 The wavelength of an X-ray beam is . The mass of a fictitious particle having the same
energy as that of the X-ray photons is
The value of x is_________. (h = Planck's constant)
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Given wavelength of an X -ray beam =

will be the mass of a particle having the same energy
The mass of a fictitious particle having the same energy as that of the X-ray photons =
On comparing we get
So x=10
Q. 17 In the nuclear fission reaction,
given that the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei is
the temperature at which the gases must be heated to initiate the
reaction is nearly
[ Boltzmann's constant
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Nuclear fission -
e.g.
- wherein
In nuclear fission neutron trigger the reaction & in the process more than one neutron is released.
At temperature T, the kinetic energy is .
Q. 18 To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the input must be :
Option 1:
a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
Option 2:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
Option 3:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Option 4:
a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
Correct Answer:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Solution:
To get an output of 1, from the NAND gate
both input should be 1.
C=1
Now Resultant of a & b should be 1.

So the Correct option is 3.
Q. 19 Two copper balls, each weighing 10g are kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from every 106 atoms
is transferred from one ball to the other, the coulomb force between them is (atomic weight of copper
is 63.5)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Properties of Charge -
Transferable
- wherein
It can be transferred from one body to another.
Number of atoms in given mass =

Transfer of electron between balls =
Hence magnitude of charge gained by each ball.
Force of attraction between the balls
Q. 20 Carbon resistors used in electronic circuits are marked for their value of resistance and
tolerance by a colour code. A given resistor has colour scheme brown,red,green and gold. Its
value in ohms is
Option 1:
%
Option 2:
%
Option 3:
%
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Meaning of Color Band D -
Indicates the tolerance in percent about the indicated value
To remember the sequence of colour code -
B B ROY Great Britain Very Good Wife

- wherein
Q. 21 A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic
field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic
field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be
Option 1:
nB
Option 2:
n2B
Option 3:
2nB
Option 4:
2n2B
Correct Answer:
n2B
Solution:
As we learnt in
Magnetic field due to Circular Current Carrying arc -
- wherein

Let L be the length of the wire
At the centre of loop
Q. 22 An inductor of inductance and resistors of resistances

are connected to a battery of emf 12 V as shown in the figure. The
internal resistance of the battery is negligible. The switch is closed at . The potential
drop across as a function of time is
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Self Inductance -
An emf is induced in the coil or the circuit which oppose the change that causes it. Which is also known back emf.
- wherein
time constant of the given circuit is =0.2 sec
potential drop is
Q. 23 In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is
. The peak value of the magnetic field is:-
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relation between Eo and Bo -
- wherein
= Electric field amplitude
= Magnetic field amplitude
C= Speed of light in vacuum
Erms=6 V/m
peak value
magneitc field peak value
Q. 24 A ray of light is incident from a denser to a rarer medium. The critical angle for total internal
reflection is and the Brewster’s angle of incidence is , such that
. The relative refractive index of the two media is :
Option 1:
0.2
Option 2:
0.4
Option 3:
0.8

Option 4:
0.9
Correct Answer:
0.8
Solution:
= refractive index of the rarer medium.
= refractive index of the rarer medium.
In the case of Brewster’s angle
From Brew's law:
or
Q. 25 An electron of mass and a proton of mass are moving with the same
speed. The ratio of their de Broglie wavelength will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 26 The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition
shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Energy emitted due to transition of electron -

- wherein
Highest difference of energy is between n = 1 and n = 3.
According to . Correct option is III. Since I is absorption of photon.
Q. 27 A Zener diode is connected to a battery and a load as shown below :
The currents I, IZ and IL are respectively
Option 1:
5 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA
Option 2:
15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
Option 3:
12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
Option 4:
12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
Correct Answer:
12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
Solution:
In the given figure

Voltage across RL= 2K is same as that across zener dioxide i.e 10V
Total applied potential = 60 V
Potential difference across 4K will be 50 V
Current through 4K =
Current through diode
Q. 28 The electric field near a conducting surface having a uniform surface charge density is
given by
Option 1:
and is parallel to the surface
Option 2:
and is parallel to the surface
Option 3:
and is normal to the surface
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Surface charge distribution -
charge per unit Area

- wherein
(Plane sheet, sphere, cylinder etc)
Electric field near the conductor surface is given by and it is perpendicular to surface.
The correct option is 3.
Q. 29 In the following figure, the charge (in ) on each condenser in the steady-state will be
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As we have learned

Charging Of Capacitors -
- wherein
In the R-C circuit (Transient State).
In steady-state current flows through 4-ohm resistance only and it is . The potential
difference across 4W resistance is
Hence, the potential difference across each capacitor is 4V
So charge on each capacitor Q = 3 *´ 4 =
Q. 30 The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:
Option 1:
diamagnetic material only
Option 2:
paramagnetic material only
Option 3:
ferromagnetic material only
Option 4:
Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
Correct Answer:
diamagnetic material only
Solution:
As we learnt in
Current loop as a magnetic dipole -
A current carrying circular coil behaves as a bar magnet whose magnetic monent is M
- wherein

magnetic susceptibility is negative for diamagnetic material only
Q. 31 The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V
and 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is
Option 1:
0.4
Option 2:
0.5
Option 3:
0.8
Option 4:
1.0
Correct Answer:
0.8
Solution:
As we learnt in
Power factor -
- wherein
resistance
impedence
VR = 80 V, VC = 40V, VL = 100V
Power factor,
Q. 32 Out of below four equations of Maxwell which shows monopole do not exists
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Gauss's law for magnetism -
i.e Total magnetic flux passing through a closed area is equal to zero.
And this Gauss Law for magnetism shows that monopole does not exist
Q. 33 An object is at a distance of 10 cm from a mirror and the image of the object is at a distance
of 30 cm from the mirror on the same side as the object. Then nature of the mirror and its
focal length is:

Option 1:
Convex, 15cm
Option 2:
Concave, 1.5cm
Option 3:
Convex, 7.5cm
Option 4:
Concave, 7.5cm
Correct Answer:
Concave, 7.5cm
Solution:
As we learn
Sign Convention -
1) All distance are measured from pole.
2) Distance measured in the direction of incident rays are taken as positive.
3) Distance measured in the direction opposite to that of incident rays are taken as negative.
4) Distance above the principal axis as positive and below the principal axis as negative.
u = -10 cm
v = - 30cm from sign convention
from mirror formula
f = -7.5 cm
since focal length is negative hence its mirror concave

Q. 34 Match List I with List II.
List I List II
a. h(Plank's constant) i.
b. E(kinetic energy) ii.
c. V (electric potential) iii.
d. P (linear momentum) iv.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Option 1:
a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
Option 2:
a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
Option 3:
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Option 4:
a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
Correct Answer:
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Solution:
Q. 35 For which of the following Bohr model is not valid?
Option 1:
Hydrogen atom
Option 2:
singly ionised helium atom

Option 3:
Deuteron atom
Option 4:
singly ionised neon atom
Correct Answer:
singly ionised neon atom
Solution:
Bohr's theory is applicable to hydrogen-like atoms (single electron system).
But does not have one electron
So Bohr model is not valid for
Q. 36 For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of is
4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is ,
then the input signal voltage is
Option 1:
10 mV
Option 2:
20 mV
Option 3:
30 mV
Option 4:
15 mV
Correct Answer:
20 mV
Solution:
As we learnt in
Transistor -
Three layered semiconducting device .
NPN or PNP
- wherein
1. Emitter is heavily doped
2. collector is moderately doped .

3. Base is lightly doped & very thin
Q. 37 Electric charge passing through a cross secti on is quadrati c functi on of ti me then what can be
said about electric current?
Option 1:
Electric current is constant
Option 2:
Electric current is also quadrati c functi on of ti me
Option 3:
Electric current is linear functi on of ti me
Option 4:
We cannot determine electric current
Correct Answer:
Electric current is linear functi on of ti me
Solution:
As we learnt
Electric current -
- wherein
Instantaneous Current

tends to zero
Since i= dq/dt
Q is a quadrati c functi on of ti me hence on differenti ati ng we will get current as a linear functi on of ti me.
Q. 38 A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed
over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B', at radial distances and 2a
respectively, from the axis of the wire is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
As we learnt in
For Infinite Length -
- wherein

Magnetic field at a point inside the wire at a distance from the axis of wire is
Magnetic field at a point out side the wire at distance r=2a from the axis of wive is
Q. 39 A 250-Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A
and subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180°
against the torque is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 40 A light ray is incident on a glass sphere of refractive index at an angle of incidence

600 as shown the total deviation after two refraction is
Option 1:
300
Option 2:
450
Option 3:
750
Option 4:
600
Correct Answer:
600
Solution:

At point A:
from symmetry
Apply snell's law at B
total deviation =600
Chemistry
Q. 1 In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX, the degree of ionization is 0.3 .Taking
for water as 1.85 K molal-1 , the freezing point of the solution will be nearest to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Case of dissociation
Freezing point of solution = -0.4810 oc.
Correct option is (1)
Q. 2 Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 . The specific conductance of the

solution is 1.4 S m-1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 . The
molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol-1 is :
Option 1:
5 x 10-4
Option 2:
5 x 10-3
Option 3:
5 x 103
Option 4:
5 x 102
Correct Answer:
5 x 10-4
Solution:
Specific conductance,
Resistivity,

Resistance, R=
Now, for a 0.5 M solution, R=280
molar conductivity,
Therefore, the correct option is (1).
Q. 3 A first-order reaction is 50 % completed in 20 min at 27oC and in 5 min at 47oC. The energy
of activation (in kJ/mol) of reaction is:
Correct Answer:
55.14
Solution:
Given,
A first-order reaction is 50 % completed in 20 min at 27oC and in 5 min at 47oC.
Case 1 ; T1= 27oC = 300 K , t1/2 = 20 min
Case 1 ; T2= 47oC = 320 K , t1/2 = 5 min
Now,
Arrhenius Equation -

= Rate constant
So,
Take both sides (ln)-
Put values from the above calculations-
Q. 4 Apart from +3 oxidation state, other stable oxidation states shared by f-block elements
is/are:
Option 1:
+2 only
Option 2:
+2 and +4
Option 3:
+4 only
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
+2 and +4
Solution:
As we have learned
Valence characteristics of f- block elements -

– They are all metals.
– They show variable valency.The +3 is the most important oxidation state.Few elements show +2 and
+4 oxidation states.
+2 and +4 oxidation state are also shown by f-block elements.
Therefore, Option(2) is correct.
Q. 5 Consider the given complexes
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Out of the following, select the set containing only paramagnetic complexes
Option 1:
(i), (ii)
Option 2:
(ii), (iii)
Option 3:
(i), (iii)
Option 4:
(i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer:
(i), (iii)
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Cyanide ions are strong field ligands and cause pairing of electrons.
The electronic arrangement in the central metal ions in the given complexes with the Strong field ligand is
shown below:

Hence, only complexes (i) and (iii) are paramagnetic as they contain unpaired electrons
Therefore, option (3) is correct.
Q. 6 The organic chloro compound, which shows complete stereochemical inversion during a
reaction, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Stereochemical inversion happens in reaction while racemisation occurs in reaction.
Methyl halides react exclusively by reaction and as a result, these undergo complete stereochemical
inversion.
It is to be noted that tertiary halides almost always react by the reaction while secondary halides
react by a mixture of both and reaction.
Q. 7 In which of the following pairs A is more stable than B?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is resonance stabilised while is stable due to hyperconjugation, Since resonance is
dominating over hyperconjugation,
So, is more stable than .
option(1): B is more stable than A as B involves resonance.
Option(2): B is more stable than A as B has more alpha hydrogen(7 to 4) which implies more number of
hyperconjugation structures. This makes B more stable.

Option(3): B is more stable than A as a six-membered ring is more stable than a 3 membered ring due to
the lesser ring strain of the six-membered ring.
Option(4): A is more stable than B due to the possibility of resonance with each of the phenyl groups
attached to C.B doesn't show any resonance.
Q. 8 In the following sequence of reactions,
the compound D is
Option 1:
propanal
Option 2:
butanal
Option 3:
-butyl alcohol
Option 4:
-propyl alcohol.
Correct Answer:
-propyl alcohol.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Test for alcohols by Victor - Meyer's test -
Reagents used
- wherein
The reaction of Haloalkanes with Mg in the presence of ether - Grignard reagent is obtained
- wherein
Hence, the option number (4) is correct.
Q. 9 Chloro compound of Vanadium has only spin magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. This Vanadium
chloride has the formula :
(at. no. of V=23)
Option 1:
VCl2
Option 2:
VCl4
Option 3:
VCl3

Option 4:
VCl5
Correct Answer:
VCl4
Solution:
The value of the magnetic moment is 1.73 BM
where n is the number of unpaired electrons
After calculation n = 1
To obtain one unpaired electron V should be tetrapositive ion and the formula of its chloride should be
Option 2 is correct.
Q. 10 The reason for double helical structure of DNA is the operation of :
Option 1:
Electrostatic attractions
Option 2:
van der Waals forces
Option 3:
Dipole - Dipole interactions
Option 4:
Hydrogen bonding
Correct Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Solution:
As learnt in
The double-helical structure of DNA is the operation of hydrogen bonding.

Q. 11 Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution
containing 1 mol of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is
further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg.
Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be, respectively
Option 1:
200 and 300
Option 2:
300 and 400
Option 3:
400 and 600
Option 4:
500 and 600
Correct Answer:
400 and 600
Solution:
Given that 1 mole of X and 3 moles of Y are present
(1)
After adding 1 mole y the vapour pressure is 560
(2)
By solving equation 1 & 2
Therefore, option(3) is correct.
Q. 12 The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+/Zn, Ni2+ / Ni and Fe2+ / Fe are –0.76, –0.23 and –
0.44 V respectively.
The reaction X + Y2+ X2+ + Y will be spontaneous when :

Option 1:
X = Ni, Y = Fe
Option 2:
X = Ni, Y = Zn
Option 3:
X = Fe, Y = Zn
Option 4:
X = Zn, Y = Ni
Correct Answer:
X = Zn, Y = Ni
Solution:
For a spontaneous reaction, Eo must be positive.
So, Eo = Eo reduced constituent - Eo oxidized constituent
Eo = (-0.23) - (-0.76)
[We get this by maximizing EoR and minimizing EoO]
Alternatively, we can also solve this qualitatively. Elements with a low value of SRP are good reducing
agents and therefore, can be easily oxidized. Also, elements with a low negative value of SRP are good
oxidizing agents and can be reduced easily. Keeping the above in mind, we can clearly see that
and the reaction is:
Therefore, option(4) is correct
Q. 13 For the first-order reaction:
(A) The concentration of the reactant decreases exponentially with time.
(B) The half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature.
(C) The half-life of the reaction depends on the initial concentration of the reactant.
(D) The reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion in eight half-life duration.
The correct statements are -
Option 1:
Only A and B

Option 2:
Only B and C
Option 3:
A, B, and D
Option 4:
A, B, C, and D
Correct Answer:
A, B, and D
Solution:
A) The concentration of reactant which is following first-order kinetics always decreases exponentially and
becomes zero at infinity.
B) The half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature
As the temperature increases, the rate constant increases and the half-life decreases since half-life is
inversely dependent on the rate constant.
K increase on increasing T.
C) The half-life of the reaction does not depend on the initial concentration of the reactant.
D) The reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion in eight half-life duration
After eight half-lives.
So, A, B, and D are correct.

Q. 14 The complex, has electronic configuration and has one unpaired
electron, which of the following statements are true?
1 ) The complex is octahedral
2) It is outer sphere complex
3) It is diamagnetic
4) Coordination number of this compound is 6
Option 1:
1,2,3,4
Option 2:
1,2,3
Option 3:
2,3
Option 4:
1,2,4
Correct Answer:
1,2,4
Solution:
As we have learned
Metallic character of transition elements -
Transition elements have relatively low ionisation energies and have one or two electrons in their outer
most energy level (ns1 or ns2).As a result, metallic bonds are formed.The unpaired d- electron also result
in the formation of the metallic bond.
Since there are 6 H2O molecules attached as the ligand, thus its coordination number is 6 and its
geometry is octahedral but since it has 1 unpaired electron thus the complex is paramagnetic.
Therefore, Option(4) is correct,
Q. 15 In any ferric salt, on adding potassium ferrocyanide, a Prussian blue colour is obtained,
which is:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Potassium Ferrocyanide reacts with ferric chloride to form Prussian's Blue
Q. 16 Which ones are dihalogen derivatives of alkanes?
Option 1:
a, b only

Option 2:
a, b and d only
Option 3:
b only
Option 4:
a,b and c only
Correct Answer:
a,b and c only
Solution:
Dihalogen derivatives of hydrocarbons contain two halogen atoms apart from carbon and hydrogen
Here, in
It is Dihalogen derivatives of alkene not alkane.
In (c) Hydrogen is replaced from the alkane group, not from the Benzene group, so it is Dihalogen
derivatives of alkane.
a,b and c are Dihalogen derivatives of alkene.
Q. 17 Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated
nitric acid, gives:
Option 1:
nitrobenzene
Option 2:
2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzene
Option 3:
2,4,6- trinitrophenol
Option 4:
p-nitrophenol
Correct Answer:
2,4,6- trinitrophenol

Solution:
Direct nitration of phenol is difficult as it gets oxidised by the nitrating mixture
. However, picric acid is formed as a minor product in the reaction.
To get a better yield of Picric acid, it is prepared by treating phenol first with concentrated sulphuric acid
which converts it to phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid, and then with concentrated nitric acid to get 2,4,6-
trinitrophenol.
Q. 18 When is reduced with the compound obtained will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
LiAlH4 is a strong reducing agent, it reduces carboxylic group into primary alcoholic group without
affecting the double bond in the compound
Q. 19 An octahedral complex of Co3+ is diamagnetic. The hybridisation involved in the formation

of the complex is :
Option 1:
sp3d2

Option 2:
dsp2
Option 3:
d2sp3
Option 4:
dsp3d
Correct Answer:
d2sp3
Solution:
As we discussed in
Hybridisation -
sp3d2 - square bipyramidal or octahedral
d2sp3 - octahedral
sp3 - tetradedral
dsp2 - square planar
- wherein
sp3d2 - outer complex
d2sp3 - inner complex
sp3 -
dsp2 -
diamagnetic octahedralcomplex of is hybridised.
Q. 20 The dipeptide, Gln-Gly, on treatment with CH3COCl followed by aqueous work up gives :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of the dipeptide Gln-gly is given as
Now, acetylation occurs at the free hydroxy and amino groups. Amides do not undergo acetylation.
So, Gly-Gly on treatment with CH3COCl followed by hydrolysis gives
Hence, the correct answer is Option (3)
Q. 21 The Van't Hoff factor will be highest for:
Option 1:
Sodium chloride
Option 2:
Magnesium chloride
Option 3:
Sodium phosphate
Option 4:
Urea
Correct Answer:
Sodium phosphate
Solution:
Van't Hoff factor for dissociation of strong electrolyte

Na3PO4 gives the maximum ions and hence it shows the highest Van't Hoff factor.
Q. 22 Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000°C to furnish aluminium metal ( At. Mass = 27
amu,1 Faraday= 96,500 Coulombs ) The cathode reaction is
To prepare 5.12 kg of aluminium metal by this method would require
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 23 The half life of a first order reaction varies with temperature according to
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt for a first order reaction,
Now, ln(c) = b and Ea/R = a
So,
Hence, option number (1) is correct.
Q. 24 Which one of the following has highest metallic character?
Option 1:
K
Option 2:
Ni
Option 3:
Al
Option 4:
Ca

Correct Answer:
K
Solution:
As we have learned
Decreasing order of metallic character -
K has highest metallic character among the given elements as it has the highest size among the given
elements thus removing the electron from potassium is easiest.
Q. 25 An aqueous solution of potash alum gives
Option 1:
Two types of ions
Option 2:
Only one type of ion
Option 3:
Four types of ions
Option 4:
Three types of ions
Correct Answer:
Three types of ions
Solution:
Potash alum is a mixed salt of and and upon dissolution in water, it gives all the
three ions from which it is made viz.
Q. 26 Consider the Hunsdiecker reaction given below
What should be the order of reactivity of the above reaction if R is Carbon.

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The reaction mechanism involves formation of free radicals and 1o carbon free radicals will react faster
due to lesser steric hinderance followed by 2o and then 3o.
Q. 27 The increasing order of the acidity of the following carboxylic acids is:
Option 1:
I < III < II < IV
Option 2:
IV < II < III < I
Option 3:
II < IV < III < I
Option 4:
III < II < IV < I

Correct Answer:
III < II < IV < I
Solution:
As we learnt in
Acidic strength of carboxylic acid -
-NO2 and -Cl are electron withdrawing groups while -OH is electron donating group.
Ring deactivating groups increases the acidic character whereas ring activating groups decreases the
acidic strength.
Q. 28 The major product of the following reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Between OH and OMe, OH is more attacking species due to the formation of phenoxide ion by OH group.
Q. 29 The major product of the reaction
is
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 30
A is :
Option 1:
Glucose cyanohydrin

Option 2:
Glucose oxime
Option 3:
Glucosazone
Option 4:
Gluconic acid
Correct Answer:
Glucose cyanohydrin
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Glucose reacts with Hydrogen cyanide and undergoes nucleophilic addition reaction to form its
cyanohydrin.
Q. 31 The osmotic pressure of solution increases, if
Option 1:
Temperature is decreased
Option 2:
Solution concentration is increased
Option 3:
Number of solute molecules is increased
Option 4:
Volume is increased
Correct Answer:
Number of solute molecules is increased
Solution:
As we learned

Osmotic Pressure -
Osmotic Pressure ( ) is excess pressure developed on solution side due to osmosis.
As soon as the solute molecules increases the osmotic pressure of solution increase.
Q. 32 What type of redox reaction is the following?
Option 1:
Decomposition Reaction
Option 2:
Combination Reaction
Option 3:
Displacement Reaction
Option 4:
Disproportionate Reaction
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The different types of redox reactions are:
Disproportionation Reactions
This is the reaction that involves the breakdown of a compound into different compounds. Some
examples of this type of reaction are:
This must be noted here that all decomposition reactions are not redox reactions. For example, the
decomposition of calcium carbonate is not a redox reaction.

These types of reactions are the opposite of decomposition reactions and hence involve the combination
of two compounds to form a single compound. Some examples include:
Displacement reactions, also known as replacement reactions, involve compounds and the replacing of
elements. They occur as single and double replacement reactions. In other words, in these types of
reactions, an atom or an ion in a compound is substituted by another element. The general
representation of this reaction is as follows:
Disproportionation Reactions
Disproportionation reactions are those reactions in which a single element in one oxidation state is
simultaneously oxidized and reduced. Some examples include:
Since the reaction fits the form: and either A or B is in elemental

form so it's a combination reaction.
Therefore,option(2) is correct.
Q. 33 For a reaction scheme if the rate of formation of B is set to be

zero then the concentration of B is given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reaction:
Given,
Question [B]=?
So, Net rate of formation of
Correct Option is 4.
Q. 34 The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series of the element by and large
means?
Option 1:
Increase in both atomic and ionic radii.
Option 2:
Decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii.
Option 3:
Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii.
Option 4:
Increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii.

Correct Answer:
Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
As a result of the Lanthanoid contraction, both the atomic radii and ionic radii decrease gradually in the
lanthanoid series.
Therefore,option(3) is correct
Q. 35 Which of the following is Turnbull's blue?
Option 1:
Ferricyanide
Option 2:
Ferrous ferricyanide
Option 3:
Ferrous cyanide
Option 4:
Ferriferrocyanide
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Turnbull's blue has the formula
It is named as Ferrous ferricyanide
Q. 36 The order of reactivity of the given haloalkanes towards nucleophile is:
Option 1:
RI >RBr >RCl
Option 2:
RCl>RBr>RI
Option 3:
RBr>RCl>RI

Option 4:
RBr>RI>RBr
Correct Answer:
RI >RBr >RCl
Solution:
The reactivity for nucleophile will be higher for those which can release H+ or R+ as easily as possible.
Thus, the correct order is:
RI > RBr > RCl
Therefore, Option(1) is correct
Q. 37 The major product formed in the following reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cleavage of ether by acid -
– Products forms are alcohol and haloalkane.
– When HX is in excess
- wherein
Q. 38 Which one of the following will give 2 different types of alcohol upon reduction ?
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Alcohol formation by reduction of esters -
Yields two alcohols
- wherein
Esters with two different R groups yields different alcohols :

Q. 39 Arrange the following in the order of basicity :
Option 1:
c>a>b
Option 2:
b > a> c
Option 3:
a>b>c
Option 4:
a>c>b
Correct Answer:
a>b>c
Solution:
All the given bases are aromatic amines having their lone pairs in conjugation with the Benzene ring.
Among the given bases, " a" is most basic because of methyl at the para position and "c" is least basic
because it shares lone pair with both phenyl rings.
Therefore, the correct order of basic strength of the given aromatic amines follow the order:
(a) > (b) > (c)
Hence, option number (3) is correct.
Q. 40 Which of the following is a peptide bond ?
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Peptide bond is an amide linkage formed between two amino acids which is formed by condensation
reaction.
The bond formed between two amino acids by the elimination of a water molecules is called peptide
linkage or bond
Therefore, Option (2) is correct
Maths
Q. 1 Let be defined as
Then is increasing function in the interval
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So is a continuous function
Now
For
For
(Using Wavy Curve method)
is increasing in
Hence option (3) is correct.
Q. 2 If for some then value of
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Important Results of Inverse Trigonometric Functions -
- wherein
When
Q. 3 The system of equations and has

no solution if k is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:

Solution:
But for k = -2, at least one out of are not zero
Hence for no solution, k = -2
Q. 4
The maximum value of is
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 5 Let be any function continuous on and twice differentiable on If for all
and then for any is greater than :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem -
Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem

Rolle’s theorem is a special case of the Mean Value Theorem. In Rolle’s theorem, we consider
differentiable functions f defined on a closed interval [a, b] with f(a) = f(b) . The Mean Value Theorem
generalized Rolle’s theorem by considering functions that do not necessarily have equal value at the
endpoints.
Statement
Let f (x) be a function defined on [a, b] such that
1. it is continuous on [a, b],
2. it is differentiable on (a, b).
Then there exists a real number c (a, b) such that
Cauchy’s mean value Theorem
Cauchy's mean value theorem, also known as the extended mean value theorem. It states that if both
function f(x) and g(x) are continuous on the closed interval [a, b] and differentiable on the open interval
(a, b) and g’(x) is not zero on that open interval, then there exists c in (a, b) such that
Use LMVT for x [a,c]
also use LMVT for x [c,b]
f ''(x) < 0 f '(x) is decreasing

Q. 6 The area of the region, enclosed by the circle which is not common to the
region bounded by the parabola and the straight line is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area Bounded by Curves When Intersects at More Than One Point -
Area bounded by the curves y = f(x), y = g(x) and intersect each other in the interval [a, b]
First find the point of intersection of these curves y = f(x) and y = g(x) , let the point of intersection be x = c

Area of the shaded region
When two curves intersects more than one point
rea bounded by the curves y=f(x), y=g(x) and intersect each other at three points at x = a, x = b amd x =
c.
To find the point of intersection, solve f(x) = g(x).
For x ∈ (a, c), f(x) > g(x) and for x ∈ (c, b), g(x) > f(x).
Area bounded by curves,

Area between parabola and line is A1
Correct Option (2)
Q. 7
If where is the greatest integer less than or
equal to , then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now
is periodic with period
--------(i)
Q. 8 If the area (in sq. units) of the region is

, then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area between two curves -
If we have two functions intersection each other.First find the point of intersection. Then integrate to find
area
- wherein
Indefinite integrals for Algebraic functions -
so
- wherein
Where

Q. 9 If then is equal to:
Option 1:
125 y
Option 2:
224 y2
Option 3:
225 y2
Option 4:
225 y
Correct Answer:
225 y
Solution:
As we learnt in
Differential Equations -

An equation involving independent variable (x), dependent variable (y) and derivative of
dependent variable with respect to independent variable
- wherein
So that
Q. 10 If the vector is written as the sum of a vector , parallel to , and

a vector perpendicular to
then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Collinear Vectors -
Two vectors are said to be collinear if and only if there exists a scalar m such as that
- wherein
m is a Scalar.
Properties of Scalar Product -
- wherein
Provided that
Vector Product of two vectors -
- wherein

So
Q. 11 Let L be the line of intersection of planes

is the foot of
perpendicular on from the point then the value of is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Equation of planes are
Let
P will lie on both planes.
and
Also
Solving (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q. 12 Among the inequalities below, which ones are true for all natural numbers greater than

Option 1:
I and IV only
Option 2:
I,III and IV only
Option 3:
II and IV only
Option 4:
I,II,III and IV
Correct Answer:
I,III and IV only
Solution:
Sol (I):
Statement (I) is correct.
(III):
as
Statement (III) is correct
(IV) :
Now :
Statement (IV) is correct.
Hence option B is correct.
Q. 13 For three events A, B and C, P(Exactly one of A or B occurs) =P(Exactly one of B or C occurs)
=P(Exactly one of C or A occurs) and P(All the three events occur
simultaneously)
Then the probability that at least one of the events occurs, is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
P (exactly one of A or B) =P(exactly B or C)
=P (exactly one of A or C) =
P(A) + P (B) - 2P (A B)=
P(B) +P (C) - 2P (B C)=
P(C)+P(A)-2P (C A)=
P (A) + P (B) -2 P (A B) - P(B C)-P(C A) =
P(A B C)=
P(A B C)=
If is continuous at , then is equal to:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For to be continuous at
Hence, the correct answer is option (1)
Q. 15 Find the number of the solution of x if
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2

Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 16 The values of such that the system of equations

has no solution, are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Only option (4) has
Q. 17
Let . If is a
identity matrix, then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Hence option (4) is correct answer
Q. 18 Let then which of the following is true ?
Option 1:
,
Option 2:
is decreasing in and increasing in
Option 3:
is not differentiable at
Option 4:
is increasing in and decreasing in
Correct Answer:
is decreasing in and increasing in
Solution:
Application of Monotonicity (Part 1 ) -
Correct Option (2)

Q. 19 The area (in sq. units) of the region
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Area along x axis -
Let be two curve then area bounded between the curves and the lines
x = a and x = b is
- wherein

Where
Point of intersection of

Q. 20 The value of the definite integral
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 21 The area ( in sq. units ) of the region bounded by the curves and
, in the first quadrant is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
Indefinite integrals for Exponential functions -
- wherein
area
- wherein

and
The required area is
So, option (4) is correct.
Q. 22 If a curve passes through the point and satisfies the differential

equation, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Linear Differential Equation -
- wherein
P, Q are functions of x alone.
Put

Q. 23 Let . If is a vector such that
and the angle between and is then the value of
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
........(i)
Now ,
Now we need to get

Using (i)
Q. 24 If the line lies in the plane,
2x−4y+3z=2,
then the shortest distance between this line and the line
is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we have learned
Shortest distance between two skew lines (vector form) -
Shortest distance between is given by

- wherein
shortest distance is among the line which is perpendicular to both
shortest distance will be projection of PQ = on LM
So,
Where
So distance = 0
Q. 25 A fair coin is tossed a fixed number of times. If the probability of getting 7 heads is equal to
probability of getting 9 heads, then the probability of getting 2 heads is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the coin tossed n times
Given that
P(7 Heads) = P(9 Heads)
Q. 26
Let A and B two events such that
where stands for the complement of the event A. Then the events A and B are :
Option 1:
independent but not equally likely.

Option 2:
independent and equally likely.
Option 3:
mutually exclusive and independent.
Option 4:
equally likely but not independent.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt
Addition Theorem of Probability -
in general:
and
Independent events -
If A and B are independent events then A and as well as and B are independent events.
- wherein

Also,
Q. 27 Let the functions and be defined as :
and
Then, the number of points in R where is NOT differentiable is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

At x = 0
L.H.L. is not equal to R.H.L. (Discontinuous)
At x = 1
L.H.L. = 6 = R.H.L.
Hence option (4)is correct
Q. 28 is equal to
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
13
Option 3:
15
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
As we learnt in
Trigonometric Identities -

- wherein
They are true for all real values of
Q. 29
If then adj is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we leant in
Multiplication of matrices -
Adjoint of a square matrix -
Transpose of the matrix of co-factors of elements of is called the adjoint of
- wherein

adj A= Transpose of cofactors
so that
Q. 30 The solutions of the equation
are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 31 The value of k for which the function
is continuous at, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Result of 1 to the power of infinity Form -

-
Let
Put
So that,
Q. 32 The area (in sq. units) of the region described by A = {(x, y)|y ≥ x2 − 5x + 4, x + y ≥ 1, y ≤ 0} is
:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where

y= x2-5x+4 and x+y=1 are x=1,3
at x=1, y=0;
x=3, y= -2
Req Area
Q. 33
Let , where
.Then which one of the following is correct?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
is an odd function.
Now,
As f(x) is odd function is odd function.
So second integral is 0.
and is even function
Now,
Hence, the correct option is (2).

Q. 34 Let and is area of the region . If for a
, then equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
area
- wherein

Q. 35
If a curve passes through the point and satisfies then for
what value of b,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 36
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector Triple Product -
- wherein
x and y are scalars.
and
Scalar Product of two vectors -
- wherein
is the angle between the vectors
Also,

Also,
So,
Q. 37 The distance of the point (1, 3, −7) from the plane passing through the point (1, −1, −1),
having normal perpendicular
to both the lines and is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Distance of a point from plane (Cartesian form) -
The length of perpendicular from to the plane

is given by
Normal vector of Plane=
Equation of plane is of the form
With Point (1,-1,-1) we get
5-7-3=C=-5
So plane is 5x+7y+3y+5=0
distance from (1,3,-7) is
Q. 38 Let be real numbers such that ,
Then
Option 1:
The largest is a and the smallest is b
Option 2:
The largest is a and the smallest is c
Option 3:
The largest is c and the smallest is e
Option 4:
The largest is c and the smallest is b
Correct Answer:
The largest is a and the smallest is b

Solution:
from and
from and
from and
from and
from and
from , ,
is smallest.
from and
is largest
Hence, option A is correct.

Q. 39 It is given that the events are such that
Then is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Conditional Probability -
and
- wherein
where probability of A when B already happened.

Q. 40 Let where Then equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt in
Double Angle Formula -
- wherein
These are formulae for double angles.

1 1
-(sin4 x + cos4 x) - -(sin 6 x + cos6 x)
4 6
l (1 - 2 sm-
• ? ?
x cos- x) -
l (1 - •2 sm-
• ? ? • ? ? )
x cos- x - sm- x cos- x
4 6

Mock Test 2
Physics
Q. 1 The current produced in wire when 107 electron/sec are flowing in it
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2 In the circuit shown below, the key K is closed at . The current through the battery is
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 A current loop in a magnetic field:
Option 1:
can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable.
Option 2:
experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or nonuniform in all orientations.
Option 3:
can be in equilibrium in one orientation.
Option 4:
can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable.
Correct Answer:
can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable.
Solution:
As we know
A current loop in a magnetic field will behave as a dipole.

and
Equilibrium of Dipole-
1. Stable Equilibrium-
2. Unstable Equilibrium-
So A current loop in a magnetic field can be in equilibrium in two orientations according to the value of ,
one stable while the other is unstable.
Q. 4
The rms current in above fig is
Option 1:
20mA
Option 2:
14.14mA
Option 3:
0

Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
14.14mA
Solution:
As we learnt
Peak current / voltage -
Maximum value of alternating quantity
peak voltage
peak current
- wherein
At for beginning
rms value
From given fig peak current
Q. 5 The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an
electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to:
Option 1:
reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
Option 2:
the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum
Option 3:
unity

Option 4:
the speed of light in vacuum
Correct Answer:
reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 6 A right angled prism of apex angle 40 and r. i. 1.5 is located in front of vertical plane mirror as
shown in fig.A horizontal ray of light is falling on the prism. Find the total deviation produced
in the light ray at it emerges second time from the prism:
Option 1:
80 cw
Option 2:
60 cw
Option 3:
1800 cw
Option 4:
1760 cw
Correct Answer:
1760 cw
Solution:
As we learn
Deviation from thin prism -
- wherein
Applicable when A is very small
( i.e. thin prism )
Deviation produced by prism is
Angle of incidence of mirror is , so deviation produced by mirror is
deviation produced by the prism for second refraction is
Net deviation is 1760 cw
Q. 7 If and are the wavelengths of the third member of Lyman and first member of the
Paschen series respectively, then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2:1 The
ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From conservation of momentum
m1 v1 = m 2 v2
Hence, A1v1 = A2v2

Q. 9
Given : A and B are input terminals.
Logic 1 = > 5 V
Logic 0 = < 1 V
Which logic gate operation, the following circuit does ?
Option 1:
AND Gate
Option 2:
OR Gate
Option 3:
XOR Gate
Option 4:
NOR Gate
Correct Answer:
AND Gate
Solution:
As we have learned
AND Gate -

- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
When both inputs > 5 V then
When one of the inputs is > 5 V and other < 1 V we get
When both input are < 1V Then
Hence A B output
1 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 0
Q. 10 A charged particle is suspended in equilibrium in a uniform vertical electric field of intensity 20000 V/m.
If mass of the particle is , the charge on it and excess number of electrons on the
particle are respectively
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:

Solution:
Electric field of intensity =20,000 V/m
The mass of particle =9.6 x 10-16 kg
For charge in equilibrium, qE=mg
Q. 11 Two batteries with e.m.f. 12 V and 13 V are connected in parallel across a load resistor of 10
Ω. The internal resistances of the two batteries are 1 Ω and 2 Ω respectively. The voltage
across the load lies between :
Option 1:
11.7 V and 11.8 V
Option 2:
11.6 V and 11.7 V
Option 3:
11.5 V and 11.6 V
Option 4:
11.4 V and 11.5 V
Correct Answer:
11.5 V and 11.6 V
Solution:

Voltage across load=
Q. 12 Three straight parallel current carrying conductors are shown in the figure. The force
experienced by the middle conductor of length 25 cm is :
Option 1:
3 x 10-4 N toward right
Option 2:
6 x 10-4 N toward left
Option 3:
9 x 10-4 N toward left
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
3 x 10-4 N toward right
Solution:

Force due to wire one
towards right
Force due to wire two
towards left
Net force =
Q. 13 A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 x 104 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid,
a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis.
The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the
resistance of the coil is , the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Field at center of solenoid = B=μ0Nli where, Nl-number of turns per unit length
Flux through the inner loop =

emf induced = rate of change of flux =
Current through loop =
Total charge through the coil during this time=
Q. 14 The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15 ke V. To which part of the spectrum does it
belong ?
Option 1:
Infra - red rays
Option 2:
Ultraviolet rays
Option 3:
- rays
Option 4:
X - rays
Correct Answer:
X - rays
Solution:
As we learnt in
X Rays -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 0.1 to 100
The wavelength corresponding to 15KeV
This belong to X-ray region of EM wave.

Q. 15 The focal length of the objective and the eyepiece of compound microscope are 2cm and 3cm
respectively. The distance between the objective and eyepiece is 15 cm. The final image formed by
eyepiece is at infinity the distance (in cm) of the object and image produced by the objective,
measured from the objective lens are respectively.
Option 1:
2.4 and 12
Option 2:
2.4 and 15
Option 3:
2.3 and 3
Option 4:
2.3 and 12
Correct Answer:
2.4 and 12
Solution:
As we learnt
Length of compound microscope -
Image distance from objective.
Object distance from eyepiece
= 2 cm = 3cm
l = 15cm
Final image formed at infinity hence image formed by objective is at focal point of eyepiece
For objective:

or
or,
Q. 16 An particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 200V. After
this, their de Brogile wavelengths are respectively. The ratio is:
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
7.8
Option 3:
3.8
Option 4:
2.8
Correct Answer:
2.8
Solution:
Q. 17 Bragg's law for X-rays is -
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Bragg's law -
(condition of constructive maxima )
d=distance between parallel lines
= wavelength
= angle between light & plane
Q. 18 The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current
flowing through the resistance R1 will be
Option 1:
2.5 A
Option 2:
10.0 A

Option 3:
1.43 A
Option 4:
3.13 A
Correct Answer:
2.5 A
Solution:
As we learnt in
P -N junction as diode -
It is a one way device. It offers a low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
In the given figure is in Reverse biased mode. hence no current will flow through it while is in
forward biased mode hence will offer Zero resistance
Correct Option is 1.
Q. 19 Within a spherical charge distribution of charge density ρ(r), N equipotential surfaces of

potential V0, V0 + V, V0 + 2V, .......... ( ), are drawn and have increasing
radii r0, r1, r2,..........rN, respectively. If the difference in the radii of the surfaces is constant
for all values of V0 and then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relation between field and potential -
- wherein
Potential gradient.
If P lies inside -
We know
Here and are same for any pair of surfaces.
E= constant
Now, electric field inside the spherical charge distribution
E would be constant of
Q. 20 Five resistance have been connected as shown in figure . The equivalent resistance (in )
between the points X and Y will be equal to
Option 1:
10

Option 2:
20
Option 3:
22
Option 4:
50
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
We can rearrange the circuit as
This is a balanced wheatstone bridge,hence BD can be eliminated as no current will pass through it.
Q. 21 Needles N1,N2,and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic

substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will
Option 1:
attract all three of them
Option 2:
attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
Option 3:
attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
Option 4:
attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly.
Correct Answer:
attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly

Solution:
Ferromagnetic substance magnetizes strongly in the direction of magnetic field N1 is made up of
this material paramagnetic substance magnetizes weakly in the direction of magnetic field. N2 is made of
this material. Diamagnetic substance magnetizes weakly in the opposite direction of magnetic field. N3 is
made of this material.
∴ Magnet will attack N1 strongly, N2 weakly and it will repel N3 weakly.
Q. 22 A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux
linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 x 10-3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:
Option 1:
4H
Option 2:
3H
Option 3:
2H
Option 4:
1H
Correct Answer:
1H
Solution:
As we learnt in
Co efficient of self induction -
- wherein
Number of flux linkage with coil.
Total flux linked with the solenoid,

Q. 23 Displacement current is continuous
Option 1:
When electric field is changing in circuit
Option 2:
When magnetic field is changing
Option 3:
In both types
Option 4:
Through resistance and wires only
Correct Answer:
When electric field is changing in circuit
Solution:
As we learned
Continuity of electric current -
The total current (displacement conduction) going into the volume is equal to the total current coming
out of it.
So, 'A' is correct
Q. 24 In a Young's double slit experiment, the path difference , at a certain point on the screen
between two interfering waves is of the wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this
point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is close to:

Option 1:
0.80
Option 2:
0.94
Option 3:
0.85
Option 4:
0.74
Correct Answer:
0.85
Solution:
Resultant Intensity of two wave -
- wherein
The intensity of wave 1
The intensity of wave 2
Phase difference
Putting
we get
At the centre
and at that point

Q. 25 Given below are two statements :
Statement 1: Two photons having equal linear momenta have equal wavelengths.
Statement 2: if the wave length of photon is decreased, then the momentum and energy of a
photon will also decrease.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
Option 1:
Statement I is false but statement II is true.
Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are true
Option 3:
Both statement I and statement II are false
Option 4:
Statement I is true but statement II is false
Correct Answer:
Statement I is true but statement II is false
Solution:
If linear momenta are equal, then wavelength will also be equal as
On decreasing the wavelength, momentum and energy of the photon will increase as
Q. 26 The half-life period of a radio-active element X is same as the mean life time of another
radio-active element Y . Initially they have the same number of atoms. Then
Option 1:
X and Y decay at same rate always
Option 2:
X will decay faster than Y

Option 3:
Y will decay faster than X
Option 4:
X and Y have same decay rate initially
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So
And corresponding Activity is given as
The correct option is 2
Q. 27 In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V.
The resistance of collector is 3 . If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 ,
the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is :
Option 1:
200 and 1000
Option 2:
15 and 200
Option 3:
150 and 15000
Option 4:
20 and 2000
Correct Answer:
150 and 15000
Solution:
As we learnt in
Amplifier -
Transistor is used as an amplifier
- wherein
in such circuit output is amplified as compared to input .
Voltage gain =
Power gain=
Q. 28 A parallel plate capacitor is made of two plates of length l, width w and separated by
distance d. A dielectric slab (dielectric constant K) that fits exactly between the plates is held
near the edge of the plates. It is pulled into the capacitor by a force where U is
the energy of the capacitor when dielectric is inside the capacitor up to distance x (See
figure). If the charge on the capacitor is Q then the force on the dielectric when it is near the
edge is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 29 The current in a wire varies with time according to the equation I = 4 + 2t, where I is in
ampere and t is in sec. The quantity of charge (in coulomb) which has passed through a
cross-section of the wire during the time t = 2 sec to t = 6 sec will be
Correct Answer:
48
Solution:
As we learnt
Total charge flowing -
- wherein
Total charge

Let dq be the charge which has passed in a small interval of ti me dt,
then dq = idt = (4 + 2t)dt

Hence total charge passed between interval t = 2 sec and t = 6 sec
q= = 48 coulomb
Q. 30 Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each
magnet has magnetic dipole momentm . Which configuration has highest net magnetic
dipole moment?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Option 1:
(a)
Option 2:
(b)
Option 3:
(c)
Option 4:
(d)
Correct Answer:
(c)
Solution:
As we learnt in

Magnetic moment (M) -
M=NiA
- wherein
N-number of turns in the coil
i-current throughout the coil
A-area of the coil
In configuration (1) =
hence the correct option is 3.

Q. 31 A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness
of the bulb decreases when:
Option 1:
an iron rod is inserted in the coil.
Option 2:
frequency of the AC source is decreased.
Option 3:
number of turns in the coil is reduced.
Option 4:
a capacitance of reactance XC = XL is included in the same circuit.
Correct Answer:
an iron rod is inserted in the coil.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Self Inductance -
An emf is induced in the coil or the circuit which oppose the change that causes it. Which is also known back emf.
- wherein

As the iron rod is inserted the magnetic field inside the coil is magnetized, the iron increases the magnetic
field inside it. Hence the inductance of the coil increases. the inductive reactance of the coil increase. As a
result a larger fraction of the applied AC voltage appears across the inductor leaving less voltage across
the bulb i.e brightness of the bulb decreases.
Q. 32 In a plane electromagnetic wave the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency

and amplitude . The amplitude of oscillating magnetic field will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned,
- wherein

So the magnitude of Oscillating mag. field
Q. 33 In young's double slit experiment, 16 fringes are observed in a certain segment of the
screen when light of wavelength 700 nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400
nm, the number of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen would be:
Option 1:
30
Option 2:
28
Option 3:
18
Option 4:
24
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
Q. 34 A photoelectric effect experiment, the graph stopping potential V versus reciprocal of

wavelength obtained is shown in the figure. As the intensity of incident radiation is
increased:
Option 1:
straight line shifts to right
Option 2:
Slope of the straight line get more steep
Option 3:
straight line shifts to left
Option 4:
graph does not change
Correct Answer:
graph does not change
Solution:
Frequency and work function are constant therefore graph does not change.
Q. 35 Question is based on the following paragraph.
Wave property of electrons implies that they will show diffraction effects. Davisson and
Germer demonstrated this by diffracting electrons from crystals. The law governing the
diffraction from a crystal is obtained by requiring that electron waves reflected from the
planes of atoms in a crystal interfere constructively (see figure).
Question : Electrons accelerated by potential are diffracted from a crystal. If

should be about
Option 1:
50
Option 2:
2000
Option 3:
100

Option 4:
500
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
As we learnt in
Bragg’s formula -
- wherein
Condition of constructive interference is
Take n = 1
So
&
Square both side
Q. 36 Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
For forward biased P type should be at higher potential from the figure only 1 is in forward biased mode.
Q. 37 The electric field in a region of space is given by, where E0=100 N/C. The
flux of this field through a circular surface of radius 0.02 m parallel to the Y-Z plane is nearly :
Option 1:
0.125 Nm2/C
Option 2:
0.02 Nm2/C
Option 3:
0.005 Nm2/C
Option 4:
3.14 Nm2/C
Correct Answer:
0.125 Nm2/C

Solution:
New flux
Q. 38 Which of the following represent unit and dimension of current?
Option 1:
Amp. & [AT]
Option 2:
Amp/sec & [AT2]
Option 3:
Amp & [A]
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
Amp & [A]
Solution:
The current is said to be when of charge flows through any cross-section in every second
SI unit of current is ampere (A)
CGS unit of current is biot(Bi)
Dimension of current [I]=[A]

Q. 39 A circular coil ABCD carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic
force on the segment AB is , the force on the remaining segment BCDA is
Option 1:
Option 2:
-
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
-3
Correct Answer:
-
Solution:
As we learnt in
Torque -
T=
- wherein

M - magnetic moment
net force on the loop =0
Q. 40 A 100 resistance and a capacitor of 100 reactance are connected in series across a 220
V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is
Option 1:
2.2 A
Option 2:
11 A
Option 3:
4.4 A
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
2.2 A
Solution:
Chemistry

Q. 1 Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
Option 1:
The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2 > KCl >
CH3COOH > sucrose.
Option 2:
The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation where M is the molarity
of the solution.
Option 3:
Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its
mole fraction.
Option 4:
Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing
point depression.
Correct Answer:
Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing
point depression.
Solution:
As we have learnt
Freezing -
Freezing occurs when liquid solvent is in equilibrium with solid solvent. As non volati le solute decreases, the vapour
pressure freezing point decreases.
The extent of depression in freezing point varies with the number of solute particles for a fixed solvent
only and it is a characteristics feature of the nature of solvent also. So for two different solvents the
extent of depression may vary even if number of solute particles be dissolved.
Q. 2 If the reaction quotient of the cell
is , then what is x?
Option 1:
0.2
Option 2:
0.01

Option 3:
0.1
Option 4:
0.02
Correct Answer:
0.01
Solution:
As we have learned
M(s) is Solid -
[M] = 1
- wherein
Reaction is
as [Ag]= [Zn] =1
Q. 3 A bacterial infection in an internal wound grows as ,
where the time t is in hours. A dose of antibiotic, taken orally, needs 1 hour to reach the
wound.
Once it reaches there, the bacterial population goes down as .
What will be the plot of vs. t after 1 hour ?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From t hour =>
After 1 hour, it is given :
at t = 1 hour ,
Now,
After 1 hour the graph will be from 1 hour to t hour and N' from eNo to N.

This equation is similar to the straight-line equation (Y=mx+C)
So, the curve will be a straight line and the slope will be positive.
Option (3) is correct.
Q. 4 An octahedral complex of Co3+ is diamagnetic. The hybridisation involved in the formation

of the complex is :
Option 1:
sp3d2
Option 2:
dsp2
Option 3:
d2sp3
Option 4:
dsp3d
Correct Answer:
d2sp3
Solution:
As we discussed in
Hybridisation -
sp3d2 - square bipyramidal or octahedral
d2sp3 - octahedral
sp3 - tetradedral
dsp2 - square planar
- wherein
sp3d2 - outer complex
d2sp3 - inner complex
sp3 -

dsp2 -
diamagnetic octahedralcomplex of is hybridised.
Q. 5 In the extraction of which of the following, complex ion is formed:
Option 1:
Cu
Option 2:
Ag
Option 3:
Fe
Option 4:
Na
Correct Answer:
Ag
Solution:
The extraction of Silver is done using the McArthur Forest Cyanide method.
Sodium dicyano argentate
Sodium tetracyano zincate
Q. 6 The major product of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethyl bromide is:
Option 1:
Ethane
Option 2:
Ethene

Option 3:
Ethylalcohol
Option 4:
Nitroethane
Correct Answer:
Nitroethane
Solution:
Reaction of alkyl halide with AgNO_{2} -
Alkyl halides when treated with AgNO2 in aqueous ethanol, Nitro alkane is obtained as a product.
- wherein
Q. 7 When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with tert. butanol , which of the following is
formed?
Option 1:
Tert. butyl methyl ether
Option 2:
Benzene
Option 3:
Tert. butyl benzene
Option 4:
Phenol
Correct Answer:
Benzene
Solution:
As we learnt,
Zerewitinoff Method -
The reaction of the alcohol with the Grignard reagent.
- wherein
C6H5MgBr + (CH3)3C-OH C6H6 + [(CH3)3Co]MgBr
Q. 8 What is the chemical composition of power alcohol ?
Option 1:
30 % alcohol and 70 % petrol
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt,
Power alcohol -
A mixture of 80% petrol, 20% ethyl alcohol with co-solvent benzene.
It is used to run automobiles.
Mixture of alcohol and petrol in 20 : 80 ratio is called power alcohol . It is used in automobiles as they
generate energy from it for their operation.

Q. 9 Reaction of benzene diazonium with A will give us benzene. A is
Option 1:
Fluroboric acid
Option 2:
Hypophosphorus acid
Option 3:
Potassium halide
Option 4:
water
Correct Answer:
Hypophosphorus acid
Solution:
As we have learned
Benzene can be obtained by reacting benzene diazonium with H3PO2
Q. 10 Which of the following forces stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins i.e. further folding of
the secondary structure?
Option 1:
disulphide linkages

Option 2:
hydrogen bond
Option 3:
electrostatic forces of attraction
Option 4:
all of these
Correct Answer:
all of these
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Tertiary proteins are obtained when polypeptides undergo further folding and coiling of secondary
protein
Structure is stabalized by :
1. Ionic bond
2. Disulphide bond
3. bond
4. Vander waals forces
5. Electrostatic forces
Q. 11 The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 gram of glucose in 100 g of a solvent
in 0.10C. The molal elevation constant of the liquid is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 12 If the conductivity of the cell is ,then find the resistance of the cell. Cell constant
=
Option 1:
3.2
Option 2:
500
Option 3:
0.002
Option 4:
0.3125
Correct Answer:
500
Solution:
We know,
Q. 13 A first order reaction has a rate constant, , calculate the Half life of
reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Half life for a first order reaction is given as:
Q. 14 Consider the coordination compound, [Co(NH3)6]Cl3.
In the formation of this complex, the species which acts as the Lewis acid is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Central atom -
In coordination entity, the atom/ion to which a fixed no of ions/groups are bound in a definite
geometrical arrangement around it.
- wherein
eg: is called Central metal atom
In works as lewis acid and works as lewis base.

Q. 15 Types of isomerism shown by
Option 1:
Optical
Option 2:
Co-ordination
Option 3:
Geometrical
Option 4:
Linkage
Correct Answer:
Linkage
Solution:
As we have learnt,
is an ambidentate ligand and can be attached from both the N site as well as the O site in the form
of and respectively.
Hence, the given complex can show Linkage isomerism
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given substrate undergoes dehydrohalogenation to form an alkene and the
subsequent polymerisation reaction occurs as:

It is to be mentioned that the chlorine attached to the Benzene ring will not undergo substitution with
KOH very easily due to partial double bond character between the benzene ring and the chloro group.
Q. 17 Following conversion can be carryout using the reagent :
Option 1:
NaOH
Option 2:
NaOH/CaO,
Option 3:
,
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
,
Solution:
As we learned
Oxidation of Phenol -
Product form is conjugated diketone known as benzoquinone.

- wherein
Q. 18 Acetone upon reaction with methanol to give:
Option 1:
Acetal
Option 2:
Hemiacetal
Option 3:
Ketone
Option 4:
Ketal
Correct Answer:
Ketal
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Addition of ketones with alcohols -
Produces an unstable hemiketal intermediate and further stable compound called ketal.
- wherein
Ketal
Q. 19 Consider the reaction given below
The major product (A) obtained in the reaction is
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction of tertiary arylamines with HNO2 -
Tertiary arylamines react with nitrous acid to form p - Nitroso aromatic compounds. Electrophilic
aromatic substitution occurs on the benzene ring in which a Nitroso group is substituted on the Benzene
ring.
The reaction is given below

Q. 20
The above reaction is catalysed by which class of enzymes ?
Option 1:
Ligases
Option 2:
Hydrolases
Option 3:
Lyases
Option 4:
Oxidareductases
Correct Answer:
Ligases
Solution:
As we have learned
Ligase -
Enzymes are responsible for linking together of two molecules into one at the expense of energy.
- wherein
Eg. Synthetase
Ligases remove the elements of water from two fundamental groups to form a single bond.
Q. 21 What will be the molarity of a solution containing 5 g of sodium hydroxide in 250 ml solution:

Correct Answer:
0.5
Solution:
Q. 22 Which of the following is true about chemical cells?
Option 1:
Convert chemical energy to electrical energy
Option 2:
most batteries are chemical cells
Option 3:
i and ii
Option 4:
none
Correct Answer:
i and ii
Solution:
As we learnt
Chemical Cells -
The cells in which electrical energy is produced from the energy change accompanying chemical reactions
or a physical process are known as chemical cells.
Chemical cells convert chemical energy to electrical energy

Q. 23 For a first order reaction, calculate the ratio between the time taken to complete 3/4 th of
the reaction and time taken to complete half of the reaction?
Option 1:
4/3
Option 2:
8/3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 24 Which of the following is Turnbull's blue?
Option 1:
Ferricyanide
Option 2:
Option 3:
Ferrous cyanide

Option 4:
Ferriferrocyanide
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Turnbull's blue has the formula
It is named as Ferrous ferricyanide
Q. 25 The oxidation state of cobalt in the complex compound is
Option 1:
+3
Option 2:
+6
Option 3:
+5
Option 4:
+2
Correct Answer:
+3
Solution:
Applying charge balance on the cationic complex gives us
Q. 26 Which of the following potential energy (PE) diagram represents the reaction?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
reaction occurs in two steps. The first step is the formation of the Carbocation while the second step
is the attack of the nucleophile to form the final product.
Since the formation of the Carbocation is the slow step in the reaction, the energy profile diagram will
have a higher peak for the formation of the carbocation. The second peak represents the activation
energy required for the nucleophile to bond with the Carbocation which will have a lower peak than the
slowest step.
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Knoevenagel reaction -
Modified aldol condensation with nucleophilic addition between an aldehyde or ketone and an active
hydrogen compound, resulting in C-C bond formation.
- wherein

Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction is Benzoin Condensation
Q. 29 Pick the correct option about the reduction of nitro group:
a) in neutral medium converts to azobenzene
b) in neutral medium converts to hydroxylamine
c) in basic medium converts to azobenzene
d) in basic medium converts to hydroxylamine
Option 1:
a,c

Option 2:
a,d
Option 3:
b,c
Option 4:
b,d
Correct Answer:
b,c
Solution:
As we have learned
Reduction in neutral medium -
In a neutral medium, it converts into hydroxylamine {Reagent Zn + NH4Cl } and in the basic medium, it
converts to azobenzene { Reagent Zn + NaOH }
- wherein
In the neutral medium, it converts to hydroxylamine and in basic medium, it converts to azobenzene.
Q. 30 Which of the following are water-soluble vitamins?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Ascorbic acid
d ) Pyridoxine
e) Vitamin D
Option 1:
c,d
Option 2:
a,b,e
Option 3:
b,c
Option 4:
c,e

Correct Answer:
b,c
Solution:
As we have learned
Water-soluble vitamins -
They are soluble in water but not in fats or oils.
Vitamin groups, Vitamin are water-soluble vitamins.
Pyridoxine (Vitamin ) and ascorbic acid ( Vitamin ) are water-soluble.
Q. 31 A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure
hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm Hg for pentane and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole
fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be:
Correct Answer:
0.478
Solution:
Q. 32 What is the value of equilibirum constant for a reaction when
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Standard Gibbs Energy -
- wherein
K= equilibrium constant of the reaction
Q. 33 The half life of a first order reaction is 60 min. How long (in min.) will it take to consume 90%
of the reaction?
Correct Answer:
200
Solution:
For the first-order reaction,

Q. 34 Which of the following can be detected by the borax bead test ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both a and b
Correct Answer:
Both a and b
Solution:
Borax bead -
Used for the detection of coloured basic radicals in borax bead test.
Therefore,option (4) is correct.
Q. 35 The coordination number of a metal in coordination compounds is
Option 1:
Same as primary valency
Option 2:
Sum of primary and secondary valencies
Option 3:
Same as secondary valency
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Same as secondary valency
Solution:
According to Werner's theory, primary valency of complex compound is its oxidation number while
secondary valency is the co-ordination number.
Hence, the co-ordination number of any metal is the same as its secondary valency
Therefore, option (3) is correct
Q. 36 The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
(Cold)
Q. 37 In the following reaction :
Q and R respectively are,
Option 1:
HCOOH + C2H5OH

Option 2:
CH3COOH + C2H5OH
Option 3:
HCOOH + CH3OH
Option 4:
CH3COOH + CH3OH
Correct Answer:
CH3COOH + CH3OH
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Acidic and basic hydrolysis of Esters -
Acidic hydrolysis gives carboxylic acid directly. Basic hydrolysis gives carboxylates which acidify to give the
carboxylic acid.
- wherein

Q. 38 The increasing order of the reactivity of the following with is :
Option 1:
(B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
Option 2:
(B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
Option 3:
(A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
Option 4:
(A) < (B) < (D) < (C)
Correct Answer:
(A) < (B) < (D) < (C)
Solution:

Q. 39 Mulliken barker test induces which of the following?
Option 1:
Reduction of group to
Option 2:
yellow precipitate
Option 3:
Fehling's test
Option 4:
White precipitate
Correct Answer:
Reduction of group to
Solution:
As we have learned
Mullikan - Barker test -

Ethanolic solution of nitrobenzene is treated with Zinc dust and solution. The mixture is heated
and filtered in a test tube containing Tollen's reagent. A grey or black pricipitate ( Ag mirror ) is formed.
In the test is reduced to group. Hyroxlyamine group then reduces the fehlings reagent
and gets oxidiised to nitroso compound
Therefore, Option (1) is correct.
Q. 40
The above process in which and form remain in equilibrium with acyclic form and a
change in optical rotation is observed which is called as -
Option 1:
Mutarotation
Option 2:
Epimerisation
Option 3:
Condensation
Option 4:
Inversion
Correct Answer:
Mutarotation
Solution:
When either of the two forms of glucose ( and ) is dissolved in
water , there is spontaneous change in specific rotation till the equilibrium value of
The above phenomenon is called as mutarotation.

Maths
Q. 1
Let where
Then a value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Formulae of Inverse Trigonometric Functions
when

Q. 2 If S is the set of distinct values of ‘b’ for which the following system of linear equations
x+y+z=1
x+ay+z=1
ax+by+z=0
has no solution, then S is :
Option 1:
an infinite set
Option 2:
a finite set containing two or more elements
Option 3:
a singleton
Option 4:
an empty set
Correct Answer:
an empty set
Solution:
As we leant in
Cramer's rule for solving system of linear equations -
When and ,
then the system of equations has infinite solutions.
- wherein

and
are obtained by replacing column 1,2,3 of by column
= 1 (a -b) - 1(1 -a) + 1 (b - a2) = 0
=a - b - 1 + a + b - a2 = 0
=> 2a - 1 -a2 =0
=> a2- 2a +1 =0
=> (a - 1)2 = 0
=> a = 1
It is independent of b
Q. 3 The solutions of the equation
are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 Let a function be defined as
then the number of points in the interval is NOT differentiable,

is__________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Let,

Clearly it is non-differentiable at
Hence, the correct answer is (1).

is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along x axis -

x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
and
Area
, after standard calculation.

Q. 6
Evaluate
Option 1:
Option 2:
/4
Option 3:
/2
Option 4:
/8
Correct Answer:
/4
Solution:
As we learnt
Properties of Definite Integration -
Thus

Q. 7 The area of the region enclosed by the curves and the positive -axis
is
Option 1:
3/2 square units
Option 2:
5/2 square units
Option 3:
1/2 square units
Option 4:
1 square units
Correct Answer:
3/2 square units
Solution:
As we learnt in
Introduction of area under the curve -
The area between the curve axis and two ordinates at the point
is given by
- wherein

Q. 8 Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time t be governed by the differential equation
. If equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Solution of Differential Equation -
put
- wherein
Equation with convert to
Q. 9 Let be a vector perpendicular to the vectors and . If

then the value of is equal to:
Option 1:
28
Option 2:
82
Option 3:
14
Option 4:
41
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
Q. 10 The distance of the point (1, −2, 4) from the plane passing through the point (1, 2, 2) and
perpendicular to the planes x − y + 2z = 3 and 2x −2y + z + 12=0, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Distance of a point from plane (Cartesian form) -
The length of perpendicular from to the plane

is given by
Normal vector of plane is
So equation of plane is
passes through (1,2,2)
3+6=C
3x+3y=9 => x+y=3
Distance
Q. 11 x and b are real numbers. If and then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given: |x|> b
Thus, there will be 2 cases,

x > b → x (b,∞) …….. (i)
& -x > b → x < -b
Thus, x (-∞, -b) ……… (ii)
Therefore,
x (-∞, -b) U (b,∞)
Q. 12
Let A and B two events such that
where stands for the complement of the event A. Then the events A and B are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
independent and equally likely.
Option 3:
mutually exclusive and independent.
Option 4:
equally likely but not independent.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt
Addition Theorem of Probability -
in general:
and
If A and B are independent events then A and as well as and B are independent events.
- wherein
Also,
Q. 13 Let P be the relation defined on the set of all real numbers such that
.Then P is
Option 1:
reflexive and symmetric but not transitive.
Option 2:
reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.

Option 3:
symmetric and transitive but not reflexive.
Option 4:
an equivalence relation.
Correct Answer:
an equivalence relation.
Solution:
Hence P is Reflexive
Using Equation 1
Hence P is symmetric
Adding Eq 1 and 2

Hence, P is Transistive
So P is an equivalence relation
Q. 14 The trigonometric equation has a solution for
Option 1:
all real values
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
None of these
Solution:
As we learnt in
Domains and Ranges of Inverse Trigonometric Functions -
For
Domain
Range
For (1) to have solution,

Thus
Also, for to be defined . Thus solution is
None of the solution is correct.
Q. 15
if ,then the determinant of the matrix (A2016−2A2015−A2014) is :
Option 1:
2014
Option 2:
−175
Option 3:
2016
Option 4:
−25
Correct Answer:
−25
Solution:
We need to find determinant of the matrix

Q. 16
The maximum value of is
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17
If the function is differentiable at x = 1, then
is equal to :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Rule for continuous -
A function is continuous at x = a if and only if
L.H.L R.H.L value at x = a.
- wherein
Where

1+b=0 b=-1
Now f(x) will be continuous at x=1
Q. 18 The area (in sq. units) of the region common between the curves, x2 + y2 = 4 and y2 = 3x, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Finding point of intersection first
x2 + 3x - 4 = 0
x2 + 4x - x - 4 =0
x=1

and
Using symmetry,
Q. 19
The integral is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
so
- wherein
Where
Let
=>
Q. 20
The area bounded by curve is
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 Solution of diffrential equation is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
General form of Variable Separation -

Given equation can be written as xdy + y dx = xy cosx
on dividing both sides by xy , we get
on integrating , it gives
Q. 22 Let be three unit vectors such that
is not parallel to then the angle between
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector Triple Product (VTP) -

- wherein
are three vectors.
Hence,
Q. 23 If the image of the point P(1, −2, 3) in the plane, 2x+3y−4z+22=0 measured
parallel to the line, is Q, then PQ is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Intersection of line and plane -
Let the line
plane

intersect at P
to find P assume general point on line as
now put it in plane to find ,
Distance formula -
The distance between two points is =
- wherein
= -

PQ=2PM
Now, for finding M
Putting in equation of plane,
So,
Q. 24 The shortest distance between the lines
and
lies in the interval :
Option 1:
[0, 1)
Option 2:
[1, 2)
Option 3:
(2, 3]

Option 4:
(3, 4]
Correct Answer:
(2, 3]
Solution:
As we learnt in
Shortest distance between two skew lines (Cartesian form) -
Shortest distance between
and is given by
Where
Cross product of DRS is
So shortest distance =
It lies in interval (2,3]
Q. 25
If its equals
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and
- wherein
Q. 26
The domain of the function
then 'a' is equal to:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So for domain:
Q. 27 If are in A.P. and are also in A.P. , then:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
are in A.P

But
from (1) and (2)
Thus
Q. 28
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Hence,
And
Given that these two matrices are equal, so by comparing the elements of these 2 matrices
15a - 2b = 0 and 10a + 3b =13
(Also for these values , so these values are correct)

Q. 29 The number of distinct real roots of the
equation, in the
interval is
Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
As we leant in
When and ,
- wherein
and
C1 C1+C2+C3

Q. 30 Let k and K be the minimum and the maximum values of the function
in [0, 1] respectively, then the ordered pair (k, K) is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Use the concept of
Maxima Minima -

A functions graph follow up and down along x-axis then upper part is known as maxima and lower part is
known as minima.
Put x=0
Q. 31 The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the curves y + 2x2 = 0 and y + 3x2 = 1 , is
equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is

- wherein
Where
y+2x2=0; y+3x2=1
y= -2x2; y=1-3x2
Calculate the point of intersection first
-2x2= 1-3x2
=> x2=1
=> x= 1
=>
=>
Q. 32
The integral is equal to
(Here is a constant of integration)

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Put

is :
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Geometrical integration of a definite integral -
An algebraic sum of the area of the figure bounded by the curve the x axis and the striaght
lines x=a and x=b. The areas above x axis are taken as positive and the areas below x axis are taken as
negative.
- wherein
Where
Hence

Also shaded region
Q. 34
If the general solution of the differential equation for some function is
given by where c is an arbitrary constant, then (2) is equal to :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
Option 3:
-4
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

and
Q. 35 Let be three non-zero vectors such that no two of them are collinear and
if is the angle between vectors
then a value of is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
are three vectors.
and
Scalar Product of two vectors (dot product) -
- wherein
Thus

Q. 36 The number of distinct real values of λ for which the lines
and
are coplanar is:
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
For two lines to be coplanar
Two values of are possible

Q. 37 If x is a real number and then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given: |x|< 3
Thus, there will be two cases,
x < 3 …… (i)
& x > -3 ….. (ii)
Thus, -3 < x < 3 …….. [From (i) & (ii)]
Q. 38 There are two urns. There are m white & n black balls in the first urn and p white & q black
balls in the second urn. One ball is taken from the first urn & placed into the second. Now,
the probability of drawing a white ball from the second urn is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and
- wherein
If A and B are independent events then probability of occurrence of A is not affected by occurrence or non occurrence of
event B.
and
so
A ball from first urn can be drawn is two mannars

ball is white or ball is black
Let E selecting a white ball from second urn after a ball from urn first has been placed into it
Q. 39 If then is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Formulae of Inverse Trigonometric Functions -
- wherein

Squaring, we get
Q. 40
equals
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and
- wherein

Mock Test 3
Physics
Q. 1 The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolate and gamma rays is
Option 1:
Microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Option 2:
Gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
Option 3:
microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
Option 4:
infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Correct Answer:
Microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Solution:
As we learnt in
Micro Wave -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 1 mm to 0.3 mm
Infrared Waves -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 7500 to 1 mm

Ultra-Violet Radiation -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 100 to 3750
Ray (Gamma Ray) -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 0.0001 to 0.1
Q. 2 An object is placed at a distance of 15cm from a concave mirror of the focal lenth 10cm. The
magnification of the image is:
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
-2
Option 3:
0.4
Option 4:
-0.4
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
As we learn
Mirror Formula -

- wherein
Object distance from pole of mirror.
Image distance from pole of mirror.
focal length of the mirror.
Q. 3 The particle is moving 5 times as fast as an electron, the ratio of the of the particle to that
of the electron is 1.878 x 10-4, then the mass of the particle is close to
Option 1:
9.7 x 10-28 kg
Option 2:
4.8 x 10-27 kg
Option 3:
1.2 x 10-28 kg
Option 4:
9.1 x 10-31 kg
Correct Answer:
9.7 x 10-28 kg
Solution:
It is given that

me = 9.109 x 10-31 kg
Also given that
Vp = 5 Ve
After putting the values -
mp = 9.7 x 10-28 kg
Q. 4 X- rays are -
Option 1:
Stream of neutral particles
Option 2:
Stream of negatively charged particles
Option 3:
Stream of protons
Option 4:
electromagnetic radiations of high frequency
Correct Answer:
electromagnetic radiations of high frequency
Solution:
As we learn
Characteristics x-ray -
- wherein
Characteristics x ray can be defined by knocking out of electron from inner orbit of an atom

Q. 5 The given electrical network is equivalent to:
Option 1:
AND gate
Option 2:
OR gate
Option 3:
NOR gate
Option 4:
NOT gate
Correct Answer:
NOR gate
Solution:
As we learnt in
NOR Gate -
NOT + OR Gate
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
= =
It represent NOR gate

Q. 6 A charged particle is suspended in equilibrium in a uniform vertical electric field of intensity 20000 V/m.
If mass of the particle is , the charge on it and excess number of electrons on the
particle are respectively
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Electric field of intensity =20,000 V/m
The mass of particle =9.6 x 10-16 kg
For charge in equilibrium, qE=mg
Q. 7 In the given circuit all resistances are of

value R ohm each. The equivalent
resistance between A and B is :

Option 1:
2R
Option 2:
3R
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
2R
Solution:
When we connect a battery between A & B
No current will pass through any resistance other than R & R
Q. 8 A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full-scale deflection for 30 mA
current. It is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will
be

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Voltage range required is 30 V
Let resisitance added is R then (100+R) . 30 mA = 30 V
= 100 + R = 1000
Q. 9
In the above circuit, C = ,
, and . Current in L-R1 path is I1 and in C-R2 path it is I2 .

The voltage of A.C source is given by, volts . The phase difference
between I1 and I2 is : (in degrees)
Correct Answer:
150
Solution:
Phase difference -

- wherein
XL = inductive reactance
R = resistance
Phase difference -
For current I1
(lagging)
For I2 current
(leading)
Phase difference = 90+60 = 1500

Q. 10 An eletromagnetic wave of frequency v=3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric
medium with relative permittivity . Then
Option 1:
wavelength is doubled and frequency is unchanged
Option 2:
wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
Option 3:
wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
Option 4:
wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
Correct Answer:
wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
Solution:
As we learnt in
Wavelength of EM Wave -
- wherein
= Wavelength in vacuum

= Refractive index of medium
frequency of an electromagnetic wave is independent of medium
and frequency is unchanged
Q. 11 An object is placed at a distance of 15cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10cm. The
magnification of the image is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
-2
Option 3:
0.4
Option 4:
-0.4
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
As we learned
Mirror Formula -
- wherein
Object distance from pole of mirror.
Image distance from pole of mirror.

focal length of the mirror.
Q. 12 A beam of light has two wave lengths 4972 Å and 6216 Å with a total intensity of 3.6 10-3
Wm-2 equally distributed among the two wavelengths. The beam falls normally on an area
of 1 cm2 of a clean metallic surface of work function 2.3 eV. Assume that there is no loss of
light by reflection and that each capable photon ejects one electron. The number of
photoelectrons liberated in 2s is approximately :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Intensity with each wave length =
the energy of a photon is given by

And work function is
Since only
So only photons corresponding to will be able to eject photoelectrons
So
here
In 2 sec N will be
N=
Q. 13 Both the nucleus and the atom of some element are in their respective first excited
states. They get de-excited by emitting photons of wavelengths ,
respectively. The ratio is closest to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
10
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The nucleus emits radiation of order of 0.1 (like rays)
And the energy of rays is in order of Mev.
Similary for hydrogen-like atoms

that energy of hydrogen-like atoms is in order of eV.
or atom emits radiation of order of
ratio
or
Q. 14 The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 . Base current is changed by which
results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter
amplifier with a load resistance of . The voltage gain of the amplifier is:
Option 1:
3000
Option 2:
4000
Option 3:
1000
Option 4:
2000
Correct Answer:
2000
Solution:
As we learnt in
Transistor -
Three layered semiconducting device .
NPN or PNP
- wherein
1. Emitter is heavily doped
2. collector is moderately doped .
3. Base is lightly doped & very thin

Voltage gain
Q. 15 A charge of Q coulomb is placed on a solid piece of metal of irregular shape. The charge will distribute
itself
Option 1:
Uniformly in the metal object
Option 2:
Uniformly on the surface of the object
Option 3:
Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
Option 4:
Such that the total heat loss is minimised
Correct Answer:
Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
Solution:
As we learned
Charge on a conductor -
Charge given to a conductor always resides on it's outer surface.

Potential energy depends upon the charge at peaks of irregularities. Since every event in the universe leads to the
minimisation of energy
Q. 16 If terminal of a battery is short circuited then current flowing through it is
Option 1:
zero
Option 2:
minimum
Option 3:
maximum
Option 4:
none of the above
Correct Answer:
maximum
Solution:
When a battery is short-circuited, the terminal voltage is zero. The current passing through cell is
maximum
Q. 17 Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has
Option 1:
Low retentivity and high coercive force
Option 2:
High retentivity and high coercive force
Option 3:
Low retentivity and low coercive force

Option 4:
High retentivity and low coercive force
Correct Answer:
Low retentivity and low coercive force
Solution:
Electromagnet should be magnetic and demagnetise easily, hence it should have low retentivity and low
coercive force.
Q. 18 The figure shows a square loop L of side 5 cm which is connected to a network of

resistances. The whole setup is moving towards right with a constant speed of . At
some instant, a part of L is in a uniform magnetic field of 1 T, perpendicular to the plane of
the loop. If the resistance of L is , the current (in ) in the loop at that instant will be
close to :
Option 1:
170
Option 2:
115
Option 3:
60
Option 4:
150
Correct Answer:
170
Solution:
Motional EMF -
- wherein
magnetic field
length
velocity of u perpendicular to uniform magnetic field.
The circuit ABCD is a wheat stone bridge circuit
It is given the resistance of square =
R total =
Q. 19 Light with an energy flux of falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal

incidence. If the surface area is 15 , the average force exerted on the surface is:-
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Momentum of EM wave -
- wherein
u = Energy of EM wave
For a perfectly reflecting surface
Q. 20 Maximum intensity in YOSE is I1. The intensity at a point on the screen where the phase
difference between two interfering beam is :
Option 1:
0.25 I1
Option 2:
0.75 I1
Option 3:
I1
Option 4:
0.5 I1
Correct Answer:
0.75 I1
Solution:
As we learn
Young Double Slit Experiment -

- wherein
Distance of a point on screen from central maxima
Path difference at that point
Q. 21 The de Broglie wavelength of a proton and - particle are equal. The ratio of their velocities
is :
Option 1:
4:1
Option 2:
4:2
Option 3:
1:4
Option 4:
4:3

Correct Answer:
4:1
Solution:
The de-Broglie equation is given by:
So, If the de-Broglie wavelength for both the proton and alpha particle is the same then
And using
Q. 22 Muon ( ) is a negatively charged ( |q| = |e| ) particle with a mass = , where

is the mass of the electron and e is the electronic charge. If is bound to a proton to
form a hydrogen like atom, identify the correct statements.
(A) Radius of the muonic orbit is 200 times smaller than that of the electron.
(B) The speed of the in the orbit is times that of the electron in the orbit.
(C) The ionization energy of muonic atom is 200 times more than that of an hydrogen atom.
(D) The momentum of the muon in the orbit is 200 times more than that of the electron.
Option 1:
(A), (B), (D)
Option 2:
(A), (C), (D)
Option 3:
(B), (D)
Option 4:
(C), (D)
Correct Answer:
(A), (C), (D)
Solution:
As we learnt
Radius of nth orbital -
- wherein
and
Energy of electron in nth orbit -
- wherein
Velocity of electron in nth orbital
hence, opti on (2) is correct

Q. 23
Given : A and B are input terminals.
Logic 1 = > 5 V
Logic 0 = < 1 V
Which logic gate operation, the following circuit does ?
Option 1:
AND Gate
Option 2:
OR Gate
Option 3:
XOR Gate
Option 4:
NOR Gate
Correct Answer:
AND Gate
Solution:
As we have learned
AND Gate -
- wherein
A and B are input

Y is out put
When both inputs > 5 V then
When one of the inputs is > 5 V and other < 1 V we get
When both input are < 1V Then
Hence A B output
1 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 0
Q. 24 The acceleration of an electron in an electric field of magnitude 50 V/cm, if e/m value of the
electron is C/kg, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 25 One billion electrons pass from A to B in 1 ms. What is the directi on and magnitude of
current?

Option 1:
1.6 A
Option 2:
0.8 mA
Option 3:
0.16 A
Option 4:
1.6 mA
Correct Answer:
0.16 A
Solution:
As we learnt
Translatory motion of charge -
- wherein
particles charge pass per second per unit area , The current associated with cross-section area
i = 0.16 m A.
The current flows from B to A.

Q. 26 A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight
conductor carrying a steady current at a distance d from the conductor as shown in the
figure. The loop will experience
Option 1:
A net repulsive force away from the conductor
Option 2:
A net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane
Option 3:
A net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane
Option 4:
A net attractive force towards the conductor
Correct Answer:
A net attractive force towards the conductor
Solution:
As we learnt in
Force between two parallel current carrying conductors -
- wherein

I1 and I2 current carrying two parallel wires
a-seperation between two wires
Since magnetic moment and field both are parallel hence torque=0
But there will be an attractive force between wire and loop will be more than repulsive force between anti
parallel currents.
Q. 27
A conductor of 3 m in length is moving perpendicularly to magnetic field of 10-3 Tesla with
the speed of 102 m/s , then the e.m.f. produced across the ends of conductor will be
Option 1:
0.03 volt
Option 2:
0.3 volt
Option 3:
3×10-3 volt
Option 4:
3 volt
Correct Answer:
0.3 volt
Solution:
Q. 28 A radiation of energy 'E' falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is (C=Velocity of light)
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Momentum of EM wave -
- wherein
u = Energy of EM wave
For a photon E = pC
in case of reflection, change in momentum is 2p
momentum transferred
Q. 29 Which of the following is true about an object in light rays.
Option 1:
there are two types of objets real object and vitrul object
Option 2:
it may be point object or an extended pbject

Option 3:
both (A) ,and (B)23705
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
both (A) ,and (B)23705
Solution:
as we lern
Object -
A source of light rays that are incident on an optical element. It may be a point object or an extended
object .They are of two kind real object & virtual object.
- wherein
There are two types of objects, rel object and virtual object
Q. 30 When radiation of wavelength is used to illuminate a metallic surface, the stopping

potential is V. When the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength , the
stopping potential is V/4 . If the threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is then
value of n will be____________
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:

Q. 31 An x- ray tube is operated at 25 Kv. The minimum wavelength produced is :
Option 1:
0.25 A0
Option 2:
0.5 A0
Option 3:
0.75 A0
Option 4:
1.25 A0
Correct Answer:
0.5 A0
Solution:
As we learn
Continuous x-ray -
- wherein
Also called cutoff wavelength . All other wavelength are greater than this.

Q. 32 Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:
Option 1:
0A
Option 2:
10-2 A
Option 3:
10-1 A
Option 4:
10-3 A
Correct Answer:
10-2 A
Solution:
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
The potential difference =10V
since diode is ideal and it is in forward biased mode it will not offer resistance
Q. 33 Charge Q = 10 is distributed over a circumference of ring of radius 3 m alng x-y plane

with centre at origin. Find electric potenetial at point (0,0,4) .

Option 1:
1.8 X 104 V
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1.8 V
Option 4:
1.4 X 108 V
Correct Answer:
1.8 X 104 V
Solution:
The electric potential due to charged ring at its axial position is given by
Q. 34 Average value of a sinusoidal A.C. current over one cycle is
Option 1:
Positi ve
Option 2:
Negati ve
Option 3:
Zero
Option 4:
Can be positi ve negati ve or zero.
Correct Answer:
Zero
Solution:
As we learnt

Alternating current -
magnitude and direction both varies with time
- wherein
Average of sinusoidal A.C current over one cycle is zero.
Q. 35 An electron, moving along the x-axis with an initial energy of 100 eV, enters a region of the
magnetic field at S(See figure). The field extends between x=0 and
x=2 cm. The electron is detected at the point Q on a screen placed 8cm away from point S.
The distance d between P and Q (on the screen) is: (in cms)
(electron's charge , mass of electron
Correct Answer:
12.87
Solution:
The radius of charged particles -

m=mass of particle
P=momentum of particle
k= kinetic energy of the particle
R = 2.25 cm
here
Similarly
so

Q. 36 An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor and a resistor are connected in series across a
source of emf V = 10 sin 340 t. The power loss in A.C circuit :
Option 1:
0.51 W
Option 2:
0.67 W
Option 3:
0.76 W
Option 4:
0.89 W
Correct Answer:
0.51 W
Solution:
As we learnt in
Impedence -
Average power (True power) -
and
Power factor -
- wherein
resistance
impedence

Peak Current -
Power loss in A.C circuit = P = Vrms I rms
Q. 37 In an Electromagnetic wave the amplitude of electric field is . The frequency of wave is

. The wave is propagating along z axis, the average energy density of electric
field will be.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned

Average energy density of EM wave -
- wherein
= Permittivity of vacuum
Energy density =
Q. 38 if keeping the incedence ray fixed ,the mirrior rotates by an angle the reflected light will
deviate from its original path by an angle
Option 1:
o
Option 2:
00
Option 3:
2 0
Option 4:
4 0
Correct Answer:
2 0
Solution:
as we learn
Rotation of Mirror -
Keeping the incidence ray fixed, When mirror is rotated by an angle , the reflected ray is rotated by an
angle .
- wherein
The reflected raywill deviate by an angle 2
Q. 39 The surface of a metal is illuminated alternatively with photons of energies E=4eV and
E=2.5eV resp. The ratio of maximum speeds of the photoelectrons emitted is the two cases
is 2. The work function of the metal in eV is ......
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 40 In x-ray diffraction first maxima occur at =300 then the wavelength of X-ray are
( ):
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2

Option 3:
3
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Bragg's law -
(condition of constructive maxima )
d=distance between parallel lines
= wavelength
= angle between light & plane
Here in X-ray diffraction n=1
Chemistry
Q. 1 Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is
75 torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a
solution containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is:
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:

Q. 2 Iodine reacts with concentrated to yield Y along with other products. The oxidation
state of iodine in Y, is :
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
7
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Oxidation state of oxygen family -
Oxygen shows -2,+2 and -1
oxidation states other elements show +2,+4 and +6 oxidation states
Rules for Oxidation Number -
The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is -2. There are two exceptions.
In peroxide (H2O2; Na2O2), the oxidation number is -1.
- wherein
As we have learned in oxidation number the reaction is
The reaction occurs as follows:
Y here is HIO3 and the oxidation state of iodine in HIO3 is given below:
Q. 3 Raising the concentration of a particular reactant by a factor of 5 increases the reaction rate
25 times. What is the kinetic order of this reactant?
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Let the reaction rate -
Raising the concentration of a particular reactant by a factor of 5 increases the reaction rate 25 times.
Q. 4 Of the following outer electronic configurations of atoms, the highest oxidation state is
achieved by which one of them?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 Which complex has square planar structure?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is hybridised and thus has a square planar structure
and are hybridised and are tetrahedral
is hybridised and is an octahedral complex

Therefore, Option (4) is correct
Option 1:
CH2=CHCH2CH=CHCH3
Option 2:
CH2=CHCH=CHCH2CH3
Option 3:
CH3CH=C=CHCH2CH3
Option 4:
CH3CH=CH−CH=CHCH3
Correct Answer:
CH3CH=CH−CH=CHCH3
Solution:
Conjugated alkene in which double bonds are more substituted is the major product. When
dibromoalkane is heated with CH3OH/KOH, it undergoes dehydrohalogentation. Two molecules
of HBr are eliminated to form alkadiene.

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt
Therefore, option(4) is correct.
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction will be
Q. 9 The polymer obtained from the following reactions is :
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction occurs as
Q. 10 A certain compound gives a negative test with ninhydrin and positive test with Benedict's
solution. The compound is:
Option 1:
Protein
Option 2:
Monosaccharide

Option 3:
Lipid
Option 4:
An amino acid
Correct Answer:
Monosaccharide
Solution:
A compound which gives a negative test with ninhydrin, it cannot be a protein or an amino acid. As it
gives a positive test with Benedict's solution. So, it must be a monosaccharide but not a lipid.
Therefore, (2) option is correct.
Q. 11 Which of the following mixture form maximum boiling azeotrope?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Benzene + Toluene
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solution showing negative deviation from Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotropes. The mixture of
and form non-ideal solution which shows negative deviation form Raoult's law.

Q. 12 For the cell , different half cells and their standard
electrode potential are given below :
If which cathode will give a maximun value of per electron

transfered?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that
And
from above
For Ag2+/Ag
Electron transfer :
n (reaction) = 2 , n1(Zn) = 2, n2(Ag) = 1
and

After putting the value:
After calculating the other 1.16 will be the maximum.
Therefore,option(4) is correct.
Q. 13 If k1 and k2 are the rate constants at temperature T1 and T2 then which of the following
relation holds good?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of above
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have the rate constant K1 at temperature T1 and rate constant K2 at temperature T2.
We know that the Arrhenius equation is given as follows:

On subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get:
where, Ea is activation energy.
Q. 14 The number of - electrons retained in ions is
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
As we learnt in
Electronic Configuration -
The 'd' block elements follow the general configuration .
Q. 15 Which of the following is not true about valence bond theory?

Option 1:
It states there should be maximum overlapping of atomic orbitals
Option 2:
Greater is overlapping, higher is the strength of chemical bond.
Option 3:
It explains magnetic properties
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
It explains magnetic properties
Solution:
Valence bond theory does not explain the magnetic properties of the molecules.
Q. 16 Bromination of cyclohexene under conditions given below yields :
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Preparation of haloalkanes by treating alkenes with NBS -
NBS (N-bromosuccinimide) undergo free radical substitution at allylic position.
- wherein
It is free radical substitution reaction

Q. 17 The products formed in the reaction are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Esterification of carboxylic acid -
⇒ Carboxylic acid with alcohols or phenols forms esters in the presence of catalyst H2SO4 / HCl
⇒ It's a kind of nucleophilic acyl substitution.
⇒ Involves cleavage of C - OH bond.
- wherein
Q. 18 Major products of the following reaction are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
It is an example of Intermolecular Cannizzaro's reaction. HCHO is always oxidised if it is one of the
substrates undergoing Cross Cannizaro reaction because of kinetic factors

Q. 19
The basicity order of I, II and III is
Option 1:
III > I > II
Option 2:
II>I> III
Option 3:
I > II > III
Option 4:
I > III>II
Correct Answer:
III > I > II
Solution:
Reaction:

The basicity order will depend on the groups attached with 'N' other than the benzene ring.
In (III) −C2H5increases the basicity order due to its +I effect.
Therefore (III) has the highest basicity,
(II) has lowest basicity due to the -I effect of −COCH3group.
Hence the correct order is (III)>(I)>(II).
Q. 20 Match the following:
Species Deficiency disease
(i) Riboflavin (a) Beriberi
(ii) Thiamine (b) Scurvy
(iii) Pyridoxine (c) Cheilosis
(iv) Ascorbic acid (d) Convulsions
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
Vitamin - Night blindness , Xeropthalmia
Vitamin (Thiamine) - Beriberi
Vitamin (Riboflavin) - Cheilosis
Vitamin (Niacin) - Pellagra
Vitamin (Pyridoxine) - Convulsions , Anaemia
Vitamin - Pernicious anaemia
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) - Scurvy
Vitamin - Rickets ( in chilldrens )
Osteomalacia ( in adults )
Vitamin E - Increased RBCs fragility , muscular weakness
Vitamin K - Poor blood clotting
Hence, the correct match is
(i) Riboflavin - (c) Cheilosis

(ii) Thiamine - (a) Beriberi
(iii) Pyridoxine - (d) Convulsions
(iv) Ascorbic acid - (b) Scurvy
Q. 21 On increasing the temperature, the value of will
Option 1:
Increase
Option 2:
Decrease
Option 3:
Remain Same
Option 4:
Either Increase or Decrease

Correct Answer:
Increase
Solution:
Henry's constant depends on temperature and nature of gas.
increases on increasing temperature.
Q. 22 The standard Gibbs energy for the given cell reaction in at is :
(Faraday's constant, )
Option 1:
-384
Option 2:
384
Option 3:
192
Option 4:
-192
Correct Answer:
-384
Solution:

Q. 23 A flask contains a mixture of compounds A and B. Both compounds decompose by first-
order kinetics. The half-lives for A and B are and , respectively. If the
concentrations of A and B are equal initially, the time required for the concentration of A to
be four times that of B (in s) is : (Use e ln 2 = 0.693)
Option 1:
180
Option 2:
900
Option 3:
300
Option 4:
120
Correct Answer:
900
Solution:
We know this for first-order reactions-
So, half-lives
The concentration of A to be four times that of B
So, At and Bt are related as [A] = 4[B]
If the concentrations of A and B are equal initially, A0 = B0
Then,

t = 900 sec
Q. 24 What would happen when a solution of potassium chromate is treated with an excess of
dilute nitric acid?
Option 1:
and are formed
Option 2:
and are formed
Option 3:
is reduced to +3 state of
Option 4:
is oxidised to +7 state of
Correct Answer:
and are formed
Solution:
As we learned
Oxides of 3d metals -
The ability of oxygen to stabilise the highest oxidation number in the oxides of 'd' block elements are
shown in the table or shown in fig.

-
Reaction between Potassium Chromate and dilute HNO3 gives,
Here, and are formed
Q. 25 The magnetic moment of an octahedral homoleptic Mn (II) complex is 5.9 BM. The suitable
ligand for this complex is :
Option 1:
CO
Option 2:
ethylenediamine
Option 3:
NCS-
Option 4:
CN-
Correct Answer:
NCS-
Solution:
As we have learnt in magnetic moment,
implies that the number of unpaired electrons = 5 .

Now, has a configuration and presence of 5 unpaired electrons will only be possible for weak
field ligands like
Q. 26 The absolute configuration of
is :
Option 1:
(2R, 3S)
Option 2:
(2S, 3R)
Option 3:
(2S, 3S)
Option 4:
(2R, 3R)
Correct Answer:
(2S, 3R)
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Chiral Carbon -
Those carbon on which four different groups are present.
- wherein

For C2
This rotation suggests R but the least prior group is at horizontal position so the configuration is R.
For C3
This rotation suggests S but the least prior group is at horizontal position so the configuration is S.

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
CrO3 is a strong oxidising agent and converts alcohol to acids

Option (3) is correct
Q. 28 The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solution is:
0.1 M Formic acid (A),
0.1 M Acetic acid (B),
0.1 M Benzoic acid (C)
Option 1:
A>C>B
Option 2:
C>B>A
Option 3:
A>B>C
Option 4:
C>A>B
Correct Answer:
A>C>B
Solution:
K depends on No. of ions present in a unit volume of solution
No. of ions depends on the degree of dissociation ( )

Ka of formic acid =
Ka of Benzoic acid =
order of Ka
(A) (C) (B)
order of
(A) (C) (B)
order of K
(A) (C) (B)
Q. 29 The peptide that gives positive ceric ammonium nitrate and carbylamine tests is:
Option 1:
Ser-Lys
Option 2:
Gln-Asp
Option 3:
Lys-Asp
Option 4:
Asp-Gln
Correct Answer:
Ser-Lys
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Red coloration with Ceric ammonium nitrate confirms the presence of alcohols
Alcohol + Ceric Ammonium Nitrate Red Solution
Foul smelling isocyanide obtained in the Carbylamine Reaction indicates the presence of Primary amines
Thus,
Positive ceric ammonium nitrate group
Positive carbylamine tests group

(1) Ser-Lys ( Serine + Lysine )
Both amine as well as alcohol groups are present so it will give positive tests for both tests.
Q. 30 Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves:
Option 1:
6 molecules of ATP
Option 2:
18 molecules of ATP
Option 3:
10 molecules of ATP
Option 4:
8 molecules of ATP
Correct Answer:
18 molecules of ATP
Solution:
As we have learned in
Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves 18 molecules of ATP.
Q. 31 On increasing pressure of a gas, solubility of gas in liquid:
Option 1:
Decreases
Option 2:
Increases
Option 3:
First Increases then decreases

Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
Increases
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Solubility of Gases on Temperature and Pressure -
As
On increasing pressure, the collision of gas molecules on the liquid surface increases thus solubility of the
gas in liquid increases.
Q. 32 An example of a disproportionation reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Disproportionation reactions are those reactions where oxidation & reduction occur on the same species,
simultaneously
the oxidation state of Cu :
in KMnO4 reaction, Mn is going +7 to +6 and +4, only reduction.
In MnO4- and I- reaction, Mn is going to +7 to +2 and I is going to -1 to zero, both reduction and oxidation
but with different atoms.
In NaBr and Cl2 reaction, both reduction and oxidation but with different atoms.

Q. 33 If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 second and 75% of the reaction occurs in 200 second, the
order of this reaction is :
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 second and 75% of the reaction occurs in 200 second -
Here half-life is constant.
In First order reaction, Half-Life is constant.
Ans = 1
Q. 34 is
Option 1:
Black Oxide of Copper
Option 2:
Copper Oxide
Option 3:
Red Oxide of Copper
Option 4:
Cupric Oxide
Correct Answer:
Red Oxide of Copper
Solution:
As we learnt in
Oxides of 3d metals -
The ability of oxygen to stabilise the highest oxidation number in the oxides of 'd' block elements are
shown in the table or shown in fig.

-
Cu2O is red coloured oxide of copper. Whereas CuO is black coloured oxide.
Q. 35 Which of the following has a square planar geometry?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Electronic configuration of and are given as

Now, as Pt belongs to the 5d series, weaker ligands are also able to cause pairing because of greater
splitting due to larger size of the orbiratal.
Hence, it has hybridisation and square planar geometry.
With a weak field ligand like Chloride ion, it shows hybridisation
With a weak field ligand like Chloride ion, it shows hybridisation and tetrahedral geometry.
Hence, it has hybridisation and tetrahedral geometry.
Q. 36 Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of followed by treatment with a saturated

solution of gives
Option 1:
acetone
Option 2:
acetamide
Option 3:
2-methyl-2-propanol
Option 4:
acetyl iodide.
Correct Answer:
2-methyl-2-propanol
Solution:
As we learnt in
Reaction of Grignard reagent with Alcohol -
Alkane is obtained.
- wherein
Q. 37 What will be the major product when m-cresol is reacted with propargyl bromide
in the presence of in acetone?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction will be -
This process is also known as Williamson's synthesis of ether.
Q. 38 Which of the following statement about pinacolone is correct?
Option 1:
Pinacolone is used in Pesticide, Fungicides, and Herbicides
Option 2:
The IUPAC name of Pinacolone is 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanone
Option 3:
Pinacolone is a ketone
Option 4:
All of the Above
Correct Answer:
All of the Above
Solution:
As we learnt in Pinnacol- Pinnacolone reaction,

The IUPAC name of Pinacolone is 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanone. Pinacolone is a ketone.
Pinacolone is used in Pesticide, Fungicides, and Herbicides. Pinacolone is used to prepare the
cyanoguanidine drug – pinacidil.
Q. 39 Hinsberg's reagent is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is Hinsberg's reagent,
Hinsberg's reagent is used for the detection of primary, secondary and tertiary amine
Therefore, Option (3) is correct.

Q. 40 RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains
Option 1:
ribose sugar and thymine
Option 2:
ribose sugar and uracil
Option 3:
deoxyribose sugar and thymine
Option 4:
deoxyribose sugar and uracil.
Correct Answer:
ribose sugar and uracil
Solution:
As we learnt in
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) -
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and bases
(Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
DNS dioxysibose sugar
RNA ribose sugar
Also Instead of thymine, uracil is present in RNA.
Maths
Q. 1 The system of linear equations
x +λy −z = 0
λx − y − z = 0
x + y − λz = 0
has a non-trivial solution for :

Option 1:
infinitely many values of λ.
Option 2:
exactly one value of λ.
Option 3:
exactly two values of λ.
Option 4:
exactly three values of λ.
Correct Answer:
exactly three values of λ.
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and

Q. 2 The least value of the product xyz for
which the determinant
is
non-negative, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Value of determinants of order 3 -

So that minimum value of x, y, z are: x = -2, y = -2 and z = -2 which satisfy this inequality.
Q. 3 Let Be two functions defined by
and
Statement I : is a continuous function at x = 0.
Statement II : g is a differentiable function at x = 0.
Option 1:
Both statements I and II are false.
Option 2:
Both statements I and II are true.
Option 3:
Statement I is true, statement II is false.
Option 4:
Statement I is false, statement II is true.
Correct Answer:
Both statements I and II are true.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Condition for differentiable -

A function f(x) is said to be differentiable at if both exist
and are equal otherwise non differentiable
and
So f(x) is continuous at x = 0
So, g(x) is differentiable at
Q. 4 what is the equation of the tangent at(1,-2) on the curve;
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Equation of tangent -
Let is the point on the curve y = f(x) then for equation of tangent at on the curve, we can
do following replacements in the equation of curve and get the equation of tangent :

Q. 5
,then k is equal to:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Integration by substitution -
The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of
standard formulas.
- wherein
Since all variables must be converted into single variable ,
put t = x-1

Q. 6 The area (in sq. units) of the region is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

area
Here,
Point of intersection of and are and
Required Area,
Q. 7
If is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
eg:
Q. 8 If equals:
Option 1:
17

Option 2:
7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learnt in
Scalar Product of two vectors (dot product) -
- wherein
Thus
Q. 9 ABC is a triangle in a plane with vertices A(2, 3, 5), B(−1, 3, 2) and C(λ, 5, µ). If the median
through A is equally inclined to the coordinate axes, then the value of (λ3+µ3+5) is :
Option 1:
1130
Option 2:
1348
Option 3:
676

Option 4:
1077
Correct Answer:
1348
Solution:
DRs of median
So,
So,
Q. 10
If is the solution of the differential equation,
then the maximum value of the function over R is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation is linear differential equation
Now
Q. 11
If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and
- wherein
Q. 12
Let a function be defined by
Then is:
Option 1:
not injective but surjective
Option 2:
both injective as well as surjective

Option 3:
neither injective nor surjective
Option 4:
injective only
Correct Answer:
not injective but surjective
Solution:
Curve of
Hence, it is not injective but surjective
Q. 13
If then the values of is
Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
As we learnt in

- wherein
When
taking cos on both sides,
Q. 14
The value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
put a = 0, we get

OR
Given matrix is
Then is increasing function in the interval
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

So is a continuous function
Now
For
For
(Using Wavy Curve method)
is increasing in
Q. 16
Find Equation of tangent through (1 , -3) and having for .
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Equation of tangent from other point on the curve.
is the point where it passes through.Then therefore

- wherein
Where m is slope of tangent.
Let,
Q. 17 The value of the integral
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Integration By PARTS -
Let and are two functions then

- wherein
Where is the Ist function is he IInd function
Rule for integration by parts -
Take Ist function as according I L A T E
- wherein
Where ,
I : Inverse
L : Logarithmic
A : Algebraic
T : Trignometric
E : Exponential

is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is

- wherein
Where

Q. 19 The solution of the differential equation is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Bernoulli's Equation -
- wherein

Now put
Q. 20 if then a value of
Option 1:
Option 2:
12
Option 3:
24
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Collinear Vectors -
Two vectors are said to be collinear if and only if there exists a scalar m such as that
- wherein
m is a Scalar.
Q. 21
If the line, lies in
the plane, then is equal to:
Option 1:
26
Option 2:
18
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
2

Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Plane passing through a point and a line (vector form) -
Let the plane passes through and a line then the plane is given by
- wherein
line
lies in plane lx+my-z=9
So (3,-2,-4) statisfies lx+my-z=9
3l-2m+4=9
3l-2m=5 ----------(i)
and
2l-m=3 -------------(ii)
l=1, m=-1
Q. 22 If then
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given: 3x + 17 < -13
Now, we will subtract both sides by 17, we get,
-3x < -30
Now, we know that,
Multiplication or division by -ve no. Inverts the inequality sign
Thus, x > 10
Thus, x ∈ (10, )
Q. 23
Let then is equate
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and
- wherein
Q. 24 The range of the function is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Range -
The range of the relation R is the set of all second elements of the ordered pairs in a relation R.
- wherein
eg. R={(a,b),(c,d)}. Then Range is {b,d}
Now,
Range = {1, 2, 3,}
Q. 25
The value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Results of Compound Angles -

- wherein
Where A and B are two angles.
Now
Thus expression becomes
Q. 26
If
then ‘a’ is equal to :
Correct Answer: 24
Solution:
As we learnt in

-
Q. 27 If
then k is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in

-
Q. 28
If
Option 1:
continuous for all , but not differentiable at
Option 2:
neither differentiable not continuous at

Option 3:
discontinuous everywhere
Option 4:
continuous as well as differentiable for all
Correct Answer:
continuous for all , but not differentiable at
Solution:
As we learnt in
Condition for differentiable -
A function f(x) is said to be differentiable at if both exist

and are equal otherwise non differentiable
Q. 29
The maximum distance from origin of a point on the curve
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we learnt in
Rate Measurement -
Rate of any of variable with respect to time is rate of measurement. Means according to small change in
time how much other factors change is rate measurement:
- wherein
Where dR / dt means Rate of change of radius.
for min
Q. 30

Option 1:
1/2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Reduction formulae -
(let)
Then
We will use the reduction formulas

Q. 31 The area enclosed between the curves
Option 1:
1/6
Option 2:
1/3
Option 3:
2/3
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1/6
Solution:
As we learnt in
Area along y axis -
Let be two curve, then area bounded by the curves and the lines
y = a and y = b is
- wherein

Q. 32 The differential equation for the family of curves where is an arbitrary
constant is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Formation of Differential Equations -
A differential equation can be derived from its equation by the process of differentiation and other
algebraical process of elimination

Q. 33 If the vectors and are the sides of a triangle ABC ,then
the length of the median through A is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Mid point formula -
- wherein
If and , position vector of mid-point of AB

Q. 34
If the shortest distance between the lines and
,then
a value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Shortest distance between two skew lines (Cartesian form) -
Shortest distance between

and is given by
Where
Normal vector of line is
One point on is (0,1,-2) and on is (1,-1,0)
Distance =
Q. 35 The area of the plane region bounded by the curves is equal

to

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along y axis -
Let be two curve, then area bounded by the curves and the lines
y = a and y = b is
- wherein
x + 2y2=0 and x+3y2= 1
=>

=
Q. 36 Two Events E and F are independent if then

is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and
- wherein
for independent events.
Putting the values we get
Q. 37 Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that , and be an acute angle.

If is the vector that coincides with the altitude directed from the vertex B to the side AD,
then is given by
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
+
across
Projection of vector b on vector a -
- wherein
Q. 38
The equation
Option 1:
No solution
Option 2:
Only one solution
Option 3:
two solutions
Option 4:
three solutions

Correct Answer:
No solution
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
When
but
and
Q. 39 The set of all values of for which the system of linear equations :
has a non-trivial solution,
Option 1:
is an empty set.
Option 2:
is a singleton.

Option 3:
contains two elements.
Option 4:
contains more than two elements.
Correct Answer:
contains two elements.
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and

Mock Test 4
Physics
Q. 1 The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
X = A.B
Correct Answer:
X = A.B
Solution:
As we learnt in
AND Gate -
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put

Q. 2 Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ as shown in the following
figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Magnitude of the Resultant force -
- wherein

Hence force experienced by the charge at A in the direction normal to BC is zero.
Q. 3 current density through a cylindrical wire of radius R varies as j=kr, where k is a constant and
r is its distance from the axis of cylinder. Then total current passing through the wire is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
If the current density is not uniform -
- wherein
The direction for is usually in the direction of the E-field.
Q. 4 Two charged particles traverse identical helical paths in a completely opposite sense in a
uniform magnetic field,
Option 1:
They have equal z-components of momenta
Option 2:
They must have equal charges
Option 3:
They necessarily represent a particle-antiparticle pair
Option 4:
The charge to mass ratio satisfy
Correct Answer:
The charge to mass ratio satisfy
Solution:
The radius of the helical path, and the displacement of the charged particle along the
magnetic field is one rotation
Two charged particles will traverse identical helical paths in the opposite sense is for both the particle
is the same and opposite.
Q. 5 A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the
induced e.m.f. is:

Option 1:
six times per revolution
Option 2:
once per revolution
Option 3:
twice per revolution
Option 4:
four times per revolution
Correct Answer:
twice per revolution
Solution:
As we learnt in
If Angle theta — change -
Twice per revolution.
Q. 6 Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
Option 1:
Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same
time
Option 2:
The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
Option 3:
Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each and perpendicular to the direction to
propagation of wave

Option 4:
These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
Correct Answer:
Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each and perpendicular to the direction to
propagation of wave
Solution:
As we learnt in
Electromagnetic Wave -
Combination of mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic field is referred to as Electromagnetic

Wave.
EM wave have both electric and magnetic field mutually perpendicular and both perpendicular to
direction of propagation.
energy is equally divide between electric and magnetic field.
Both electric and magnetic field are in phase
They do not require any medium to propagate (e.g. vacuum)
Q. 7
Focal length of a convex lens water is 40cm. Find its focal length in air. Given that
and
Option 1:
80 cm
Option 2:
5 cm
Option 3:
10 cm
Option 4:
40 cm
Correct Answer:
10 cm
Solution:
As we learn
Lensmaker's Formula -
- wherein
refractive index of medium of object
refractive index of lens
are radius of curvature of two surface
Q. 8 The of the photoelectron is E when the incident wavelength is . To increse the

of the electron to 2E, the incident wavelength must be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
similarly
solving we get
Q. 9 If the Rydbarg's constant is R then the wave number in second brackett series is -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Brackett Series -
- wherein

When electron jump from higher orbital to n=4 energy level
Q. 10 In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true:
Option 1:
Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
Option 2:
Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
Option 3:
Electron are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Option 4:
Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Correct Answer:
Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Solution:
The n-type semiconductor can be produced by doping impurity atoms of valence 5 i.e. pentavalent atoms,
i.e., phosphorous.

Q. 11 Figure shows a solid hemisphere with a charge of 5 nC distributed uniformly throughout its
volume. The hemisphere lies on a plane and point P is located on the plane, along a radial
line from the centre of curvature at distance 15 cm. The electric potential (in Volt) at point P
due to the hemisphere, is :
Option 1:
150
Option 2:
300
Option 3:
450
Option 4:
600
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
Outside the sphere (P lies outside the sphere) -
- wherein
- surface charge density.

By argument of symmetry, it will be half of the potential produced by the full sphere
Q Charge on hemisphere = Q,
so charge on sphere = 2Q
Q. 12 In the following figure, the charge (in ) on each condenser in the steady-state will be
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As we have learned
Charging Of Capacitors -
- wherein
In the R-C circuit (Transient State).

In steady-state current flows through 4-ohm resistance only and it is . The potential
difference across 4W resistance is
Hence, the potential difference across each capacitor is 4V
So charge on each capacitor Q = 3 *´ 4 =
Q. 13 The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is
Option 1:
Equal to zero
Option 2:
Much greater than one
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
Between zero and one
Correct Answer:
Equal to zero
Solution:
As we learnt in
Diamagnetic Substance -
B<B0, B/B0<1 or
Relative permeability of diamagnetic substance.
For diamagnetic atom, electron exist in pair hence they cancel each other.Net magnetic moment is zero.
Q. 14 A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the
current in the secondary coil is 6 A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in
the primary coil respectively are :
Option 1:
300 V, 15 A

Option 2:
450 V, 15 A
Option 3:
450 V, 13.5 A
Option 4:
600 V, 15 A
Correct Answer:
450 V, 15 A
Solution:
As we learnt in
Efficiency of transformer -
Efficiency of the transformer
Q. 15
A Flashlight is covered with a filter that transmits red light. The electric field of the emerging
beam is represented by a sinusodial plane wave
The average intensity of beam will be
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Wave Equation -
E is in y-z plane
- wherein
E - Electric field at (x,t)
Eo - Electric field amplitude
w= Angular frequency
c= Speed of light in vacuum
From the equation given match with standarad equation
So
Q. 16 An astronomical teloscope has an angular magnification 8 for a distant objects. Determine

the focal length of eye piece if the the sepration between objective and eye piece is 36cm:

Option 1:
32 cm
Option 2:
2 cm
Option 3:
30 cm
Option 4:
4 cm
Correct Answer:
4 cm
Solution:
As we learn
Length of compound microscope -
- wherein
Image distance from objective.
Object distance from eyepiece
so
36
Q. 17 Work function of a metal was 3eV. If incident light with energy 6eV and 9eV is used in
photoelectric effect maximum kinetic energy for both cases:
Option 1:

Option 2:
2
Option 3:
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Kinetic Energy of Photo eletrons -
Remaining part of the energy is used in gaining a velocity to the emitted photoelectron

Q. 18 In the Bohr's model of hydrogen - like atom the force between the nucleus and the electrons
is modified as,
Where is a constant . For the atom, the radius of the nth orbit in the terms of the Bohr
radius
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From Bohr's postulate
comparing both we get

So,
Q. 19 Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by
the battery is:
Option 1:
0.75 A
Option 2:
zero
Option 3:
0.25 A
Option 4:
0.5 A
Correct Answer:
0.5 A
Solution:
As we learned in

biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
Since D2 is in Reverse biased mode, hence no current will flow through it.
Diode D1 is in forward biased mode hence it will offer zero resistance
Q. 20 A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The magnitude of the electric field
due to the sphere at a distance r from its centre
Option 1:
Increases as r increases for r<R
Option 2:
Decreases as r increases for
Option 3:
Decreases as r increases for
Option 4:
both a and c
Correct Answer:
both a and c
Solution:
As we learned
Uniformly charged Non conducting sphere -
Suppose charge Q is uniformly distributed in the volume of a non conducting sphere of Radius R.
- wherein
For non-conducting solid sphere
and
i.e. for r<R; E increases as r increases
and for R<r< ; E decreases as r increases
Q. 21 In the colour coding system , if only 3 bands are present then its tolerance is taken as
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
10%
Option 3:
20%
Option 4:
150%
Correct Answer:
20%
Solution:
Colour coding of a Resistance -The carbon resistance has normally four coloured rings as shown in the
figure

In the colour code of resistance, generally, silver and gold are used for tolerance value. If there is no
fourth band the tolerance is taken to be 20%
Q. 22 In a certain region of space electric field and magnetic field are perpendicular to each
other and an electron enters in region perpendicular to the direction of and both and
moves undefected, then velocity of electron is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Lorentz Force -
- wherein
Lorentz equation
For particle to move unaffected magnetic force=electric force
Q. 23 Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each
other. The currents flowing in them are I and 2 I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field
induction at the centre will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 24 A parallel plate capacitor of plate separation 2 mm is connected in electric circuit having
source voltage 400V. If the display of area is then the value of displacement current
for will be
Option 1:
1.062 A
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learned
Maxwell's Displacement Current -
- wherein
= Displacement Current
= Electrical permittivity for vacuum
= Total electric flux
let plate separation=h
Q. 25 An object is placed between two plane morriors inclined at an angle of 600 the number of
image formed are

Option 1:
2
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
5
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
as we learn
Combination of two plane Mirror -
No. of image formed
a) If even number
Number of image =
b) If odd number
Number of image =
If object is placed on the angle bisector.
b) If odd number
Number of image =
If object is not placed on the angle bisector.
number of images=

Q. 26 Monentum of a photon can be made twice by:
Option 1:
increasing its energy twice
Option 2:
by reducing its wavelength by 50%
Option 3:
both a and b
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
both a and b
Solution:
As we learn
Momentum of photon -
- wherein
if E2 = 2E
if

Q. 27 When electron jumps from higher orbital to n = 3, energy level then this is belongs to
spectral series:
Option 1:
Lymen
Option 2:
Pfund
Option 3:
Paschen
Option 4:
Balmer
Correct Answer:
Paschen
Solution:
As we learn
Paschen Series -
- wherein
When electron jump from higher orbital to n=3 energy level

Q. 28 In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 k is
2 V. If the base resistance is 1 k and the current amplification of the transistor is 100, the
input signal voltage is:
Option 1:
0.1 V
Option 2:
1.0 V
Option 3:
1 mV
Option 4:
10 mV
Correct Answer:
10 mV
Solution:
Q. 29 Which of the following is correct
Option 1:
for charged non-conducting sphere
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Potential - If P lies at centre of uniformly charged non-conducting sphere -
i.e
Q. 30 In the given circuit potential difference across resistor is (in V)
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learnt
For n identical resistance -

-
P.D. across any resistor is V=IR=5V
Q. 31 A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current

in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvannometer is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Effective resistance should remain equal to G

Q. 32 A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage source. Consider two situations:
a. When capacitor is air filled.

b. When capacitor is mica filled.
Current through resistor is i and voltage across capacitor is V then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Impedence -
Current through resister = current in the circuit
Voltage across capacitor

Q. 33
Intensity of the electromagnetic wave (in ) is about
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learned
Average energy density of EM wave -
- wherein
= Permittivity of vacuum
Average Intensity of elecctro magnetic wave is

Q. 34 In the given figure the image formed will be
Option 1:
real
Option 2:
virtual
Option 3:
real or virtual depending upon the distance of object from mirror
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
virtual
Solution:
as we learn
Image -
Point of convergence or apparent point of divergence of rays. Image can be real or virtual.
- wherein
The image formed will be virtual

Q. 35 If dimension of and dimension of then wahat is the dimension of
speed of light in terms of P and K :
Option 1:
[K] [P]
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Velocity -
It travels at speed of light in vacuum
- wherein
Speed of light is given as

Q. 36 If the energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 13.6 ev then the energy of He+ ion in
the first excited state will be -
Option 1:
-6.8 ev
Option 2:
-54.4 ev
Option 3:
-27.2 ev
Option 4:
-13.6 ev
Correct Answer:
-13.6 ev
Solution:
As we learn
Energy of electron in nth orbit -
- wherein

Q. 37 C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is
insulator where as Si is intrinsic semiconductor. This is because:
Option 1:
In case of C the valence band is not completely filled at absolute zero temperature.
Option 2:
In case of C the conduction band is partly filled even at absolute zero temperature.
Option 3:
The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they lie in
the third.
Option 4:
The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the third orbit, whereas for Si they lie in the fourth
orbit.
Correct Answer:
The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they lie in
the third.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Intrinsic semi conductor -
It is pure semiconductor
e.g. pure Ge, or Pure Si
- wherein
low conductivity
ne = n h
The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit whereas in case of Si they lies in the
third orbit. So loosely bound valence electrons are present in Si as compared to C.
Q. 38 The electric potential V at any point x, y, z (all in metres) in space is given by The
electric field at the point (1m, 0, 2m) in volt/metre is
Option 1:
8 along negative X-axis

Option 2:
8 along positive X-axis
Option 3:
Option 4:
16 along positive Z-axis
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
- wherein
Potential gradient.
By using Hence at point (1m, 0, 2m). volt/mi.e. 8 along
– ve x-axis.
Q. 39 In the network shown
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Current through any resistance -
- wherein
Q. 40 A short bar magnet of magnetic moment is placed in a uniform magnetic field of

0.16T. The magnet is in stable equilibrium when the potential energy is
Option 1:
-0.064J

Option 2:
zero
Option 3:
-0.082J
Option 4:
0.064J
Correct Answer:
-0.064J
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potential energy of current carrying coil -
In stable equilibrium
Chemistry
Q. 1 The value of & are 80, 145, 75, and 35 Kbar respectively, the least
soluble gas in water is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Gases having more values will have less solubility.
Among the given gases 'He' has the highest value.
Q. 2 The equivalent conductances of Ba2+ and Cl- are 63.5 ohm-1 cm2 eq-1 and 76 ohm-1 cm2 eq-
1,respectively, at infinite dilution. The equivalent conductance (in ohm-1 cm2) of BaCl at
2
infinite dilution will be:
Option 1:
101
Option 2:
239.5
Option 3:
203
Option 4:
139.5
Correct Answer:
139.5
Solution:
From Kohlrausch's Law :
Q. 3
For a first-order reaction, , (half-life) is 10 days. The time required for
conversion of A (in days) is :
(ln 2=0.693, ln 3=1.1)

Correct Answer:
4.1
Solution:
Fro the first-order reaction: -
Q. 4 Coordination number and oxidation number of Cr in
are respectively:
Option 1:
4 and +2
Option 2:
6 and +3
Option 3:
3 and +3
Option 4:
3 and 0
Correct Answer:
6 and +3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Chelate ligands and Chelate complex -
When a di or polydentate ligand uses its two or more donor atom to bind a single metal atom to form a
cycle ring, it is known as chelate ligand.
Complex formed by chelate ligands are called chelate compound.

- wherein
Chelate complex are more stable than ligands containing unidentate ligand.
is a chelate ligand and forms two coordinate bonds. Coordination number is 6.
Also on balancing the charge, we find central atom is Cr3+
Therefore, charge is +3
Q. 5 Consider the complex ions -
trans- (A) and cis - (B)
The correct statement regarding them is :-
Option 1:
Both (A) and (B) cannot be optically active.
Option 2:
Both (A) and (B) can be optically active.
Option 3:
(A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active.
Option 4:
(A) can be optically active, but (B) cannot be optically active.
Correct Answer:
(A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active.
Solution:
Trans - [Co(en)2Cl2]+ has plane of symmetry. So it is not optically active.
Cis - [Co(en)2Cl2]+ does not have any plane of symmetry, so it can be optically active.
Q. 6 Among the following compounds which can be dehydrated very easily ?
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Dehydration of alcohols -
Ease of dehydration
- wherein
The more stable carbocation generated, more easily it will dehydrated. The order of stability of
carbocations
tertiary > secondary > primary
Q. 7
What are A and B?

Option 1:
Sodium Phenoxide and Methyl Phenol
Option 2:
Sodium Phenoxide and Phenol
Option 3:
Methyl Phenol and Sodium Phenoxide
Option 4:
Phenol and Sodium Phenoxide
Correct Answer:
Sodium Phenoxide and Phenol
Solution:
Preparation of Phenol by Dow's process
Q. 8 Phenol reacts with dil. at low temperature. What is the major product of this
reaction?
Option 1:
o-Nitrophenol
Option 2:
p-Nitrophenol
Option 3:
2,4,6-Trinitrophenol
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
o-Nitrophenol
Solution:

O-Nitrophenol has 40% yield while P- nitrophenol has only 13% yield.
Q. 9 Which of the folllowing is least basic?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Therefore, Option 2 is correct.

Q. 10 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
Option 1:
D-fructose
Option 2:
D-ribose
Option 3:
D-glucose
Option 4:
L-glucose.
Correct Answer:
D-glucose
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cellulose -
A straight chain polymer of
- wherein
Constituent of plant cell wall
Linkage : linkage
Cellulose is a straight chain polymer of D-glucose, which upon hydrolysis gives its monomer (D-glucose)
Q. 11 The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found to be , while it should have
been for pure milk. How much water has been added to pure milk to make the
diluted sample ?
Option 1:
2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk.

Option 2:
Option 3:
1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk.
Option 4:
1 cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Freezing point of milk
Freezing point of milk (diluted)
Q. 12 The resistance of a 0.1 N solution of acetic acid is 250 when measured in a cell of cell
constant 1.15 cm-1. The equivalent conductance (in ohm-1 cm2 eq-1) of 0.1 N acetic acid is:
Option 1:
9.2
Option 2:
24.6
Option 3:
36.8
Option 4:
46
Correct Answer:
46
Solution:

Q. 13 decomposes to and and follows first order kinetics. After 50 minutes, the
pressure inside the vessel increases from 50 mmHg to 87.5 mmHg.
The pressure (in mmHg ) of the gaseous mixture after 100 minute at constant temperature
will be :
Correct Answer:
106.25
Solution:
t=0 50 0 0
t=50min
=25
t=100min
12.5
+ +
50 minutes is half-life period
for 100 minutes (2 half-life)
of Hg
Total Pressure at 100 minutes

=50+56.25
=106.25mm of Hg
Q. 14 Calomel is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Reaction with Mercury (I) Chloride with Chlorine -
- wherein
Cl2 oxidise Hg22+ into Hg2+
Calomel is Mercury (I) chloride with the formula Hg2Cl2. It was earlier used in medicine as a laxative.
Q. 15 The d-electron configuration of and , respectively are :
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ru belongs to the 4d series of elements and ethylene diamine(en) is a chelating ligand which causes a
larger splitting in the 4d orbitals. This leads to a pairing of electrons in the orbital due to which the
electronic configuration is
is a weak field ligand which is unable to cause pairing in and hence the configuration is
accomodated as
Q. 16 Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give:
Option 1:
alkenes
Option 2:
alkyl copper halides

Option 3:
alkanes
Option 4:
alkenyl halides
Correct Answer:
alkanes
Solution:
As we learnt in
The reaction of an alkyl halide with R2CuLi -
Corey House alkane synthesis, the alkane is obtained as a product.
- wherein
(alkane)
Q. 17
What will be product?
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Clemmenson's Reduction (Zn-Hg/HCl) is used to reduce C=O to CH2.
It also reacts with -OH group which is susceptible to protonation and substitution by Chloride ions.
Q. 18 Which of the following does lead to the formation of ethanol:
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Alcohol formation by reduction of carboxylic acids -
Yields primary alcohol.
- wherein
[ Reduction of carboxylic Acid]
Mechanism
Q. 19 The conjugate base of is:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Comparison of Basic nature in aliphatic amines in gaseous phase -
The +I effect of the alkyl group, which increase the electron density on N atom, facilitates the nitrogen
atom to use its unshared pair of electrons for bond formation. Thus R - NH2 is expected to be more basic
than NH3. Going by the same arguments the basic strength of amines is expected to increase with the
increase in the number of alkyl groups attached to the nitrogen atom.
- wherein
Conjugate base
Q. 20 Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
Option 1:
Uracil
Option 2:
Cytosine

Option 3:
Guanine
Option 4:
Thymine
Correct Answer:
Uracil
Solution:
As we learnt in
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) -
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is deoxyribose, Phosphoric acid

and bases (Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and thymine)
In RNA uracil is present instead of thymine.
Q. 21 A mixture of 100 m mol of and 2 g of sodium sulphate was dissolved in water

and the volume was made up to 100 mL .The mass of calcium sulphate formed and the
concentration of in resulting solution , respectively , are : (Molar mass of
, are 74, 143 and 136 g , respectively ;
)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given,
Mol of Na2SO4 = 2/142 = 14 m mol
Q. 22 The potential (in V) of a hydrogen electrode in a solution with pH = 5 at 25oC

is :
Option 1:
0.295
Option 2:
-0.295
Option 3:
-0.59
Option 4:
0.59
Correct Answer:
-0.295
Solution:

Q. 23 for a reaction
What is the rate of the reaction with respect to A?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Rate of reaction -
The rate of the reaction during the courses of a reaction in any instant of time is the change in
concentration of reacting species. Rate is a positive quantity.
Q. 24 The formula dichloridobis (urea) copper (II) is
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Writing the name of Complex compound formula -
(i) Cation is named first
(ii) ligands are named in alphabetical order before name of central metal atom.
(iii) Prefixes, mono, di, tri are used to indicate the no of ligands
(iv) when name of ligand used a numerical prefix, then term bix, tris, tetrakis are used.
eg:
is named as dichlorobis (triphenylphosphine)nickel(II)
(v) Oxidation state is represented by roman numerical in parenthesis
(vi) If the complex ion is an anion, the name of metal ends with suffix -ate
eg: co in complex anion
is called cobaltate.
- ferrate
- wherein
The formula for dichlorobis (Urea) Copper (II) is

Q. 25 The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) of is:
Option 1:
-0.8 + 2P
Option 2:
-0.4
Option 3:
- 0.8
Option 4:
-0.4 +P
Correct Answer:
-0.4
Solution:
Means all ligands behaves as weak field ligands
So,
Q. 26 Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give
Option 1:
a mixture of anisole and
Option 2:
a mixture of benzene and
Option 3:
a mixture of toluene and
Option 4:
a mixture of phenol and
Correct Answer:
a mixture of benzene and
Solution:
As learnt in
Zerewitinoff Method -
Reaction of alcohol with grignard reagent.
- wherein
Reaction of Grignard reagent with Alcohol -
Alkane is obtained.
- wherein
Q. 27 Alcohols have the general molecular formula:-
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Alcohols -
Hydroxy derivatives of alkanes.
- wherein
Q. 28 Which of the following product will form, because of the esterification of the phenolic
hydroxyl group of salicylic acid and active anhydride is:-
Option 1:
Aspirin
Option 2:
pinacol
Option 3:
o-cresol

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Aspirin
Solution:
As we learned
Esterification of phenolic hydroxyl group of salicyclic acid -
Product form is aspirin, which is analgesic and anti-inflammatory drug.
- wherein
Q. 29 Gabriel Phthalimide reaction is used in the synthesis of
Option 1:
Primary aromatic amines
Option 2:
Secondary amines
Option 3:
Primary aliphatic amines
Option 4:
Tertiary amines
Correct Answer:
Primary aliphatic amines

Solution:
As we learnt
Gabriel Phthalimide Synthesis -
Further alkylati on can be stopped and a pure primary amine can be obtained by alkylati on of phthalimide ( Gabriel
synthesis ) followed by hydrolysis.
- wherein
Gabriel Phthalimide reaction is used in the synthesis of Primary aliphatic amines
Q. 30 The correct match between items of List - I and List - II is :

List - I List - II
(A) Phenelzine (P) Pyrimidine
(B) Chloroxylenol (Q) Furan
(C) Uracil (R) Hydrazine
(D) Ranitidine (S) Phenol
Option 1:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Option 2:
(A)-(S), (B)-(R), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Option 3:
(A)-(S), (B)-(R), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
Option 4:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
Correct Answer:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)

Solution:
As we learnt in
Phenelzine contains Hydrazine
Chlaroxylenol contains Phenol
Uracil is the Pyrimidine base
Ranitidine contains Furan ring.
Q. 31 Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range . At 350 K , the vapor
pressures of pure A and pure B are , respectively . The
composition of the vapor in equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mol percent of A at this
temperature is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that

Q. 32 A certain amount of charge is passed through acidulated water. A total of 504 mL of

hydrogen and oxygen were collected at STP. Find the magnitude of charge that is passed
during electrolysis in coulombs.
Option 1:
2895 C
Option 2:
5040 C
Option 3:
1680 C
Option 4:
8467.2 C
Correct Answer:
2895 C
Solution:
Q. 33 For a reaction .
Which graph is correct for the rate of disappearance of A?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Rate of disappearance of R
This can be seen that conc. of A decreases with time as the reaction proceeds.
So, Correct graph will be -
Q. 34 Which of the Following is a lanthanoid?
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Lanthanoides -
The fourteen elements from Ce - Lu is Lanthanoids but the properties of La is much closer to lanthanoid.
- wherein
The fourteen elements from Ce----Lu are called Lanthanoids. Of all the elements given only Lu falls in the
category.
Q. 35 The number of isomers possible for is:
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
does not show G.I. as well as optical isomerism -
1. Geometrical isomerism does not show due to the steric hindrance of en ligand.

2. Optical isomerism does not show due to the presence of a plane of symmetry.
But, this complex will have three linkage isomers as follows -
So, other than this, there are 2 isomer is possible.
Ans = 2
Q. 36 Fluorobenzene can be synthesised in the laboratory
Option 1:
by heating phenol with and
Option 2:
from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with
Option 3:
by direct fluorination of benzene with gas
Option 4:
by reacting bromobenzene with solution.
Correct Answer:
from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with
Solution:
As we learnt in
By Sandmeyer's reaction -
In the reaction benzene diazonium chloride is treated with cuprous chloride cuprous bromide.

Q. 37
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Primary alcohols -
group is attached to primary carbon.
- wherein
Q. 38
Now the products 'A' and 'B' are respectively
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Both (a) and (b)
Option 4:
none of these.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Alcohol formation by reduction of esters -
Yields two alcohols
- wherein

Q. 39 Before proceeding for the nitration of amino-benzene the group is first protected by
Option 1:
Alkylation
Option 2:
Acetylation
Option 3:
formylation
Option 4:
Chloromethylation
Correct Answer:
Acetylation
Solution:
As we learnt
Nitrati on of Aniline -
Aniline gives trinitro derivati ve on reacti ng with conc HNO3. For mononitrati on, Aniline is first acetylated, because
is only moderately acti vati ng and is O and P - directi ng in nature.
- wherein

Q. 40 Among the following, the incorrect statement is :
Option 1:
Maltose and lactose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage.
Option 2:
Sucrose and amylose has 1, 2-glycosidic linkage.
Option 3:
Cellulose and amylose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage.
Option 4:
Lactose contains β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose.
Correct Answer:
Sucrose and amylose has 1, 2-glycosidic linkage.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Starch -
A polymer of that consists of having two components , amylose ( water soluble

unbranched chain ) and amylopectin ( water insoluble having branched chain)
- wherein
Main storage polysaccharide of plants

Amylose : , glycosidic linkage
Amylopectin : linkage and linkage
In amylose 1,4 - glycosidic linkage is present
Maths
Q. 1 The set of all values of , for which the matrix
is invertible, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 2 If 2
Option 1:
f (x) = g(x) = h(x)
Option 2:
f (x) = g(x) > h(x)
Option 3:
f (x) > g(x) = h(x)
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
f (x) = g(x) = h(x)
Solution:
As we have learned
Reason for indefinite integration -
We know that , this implies that and are both integrals of the same
function . For different values of , we obtain different integrals of . So is not definite
hence indefinite .
- wherein
Where is differential of constant w.r.to
similarly
G(x)
= 1/x
= H(x)
Q. 3 If the function attains its maximum and

minumum at and respectively such that
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
1/2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Rate Measurement -
Rate of any of variable with respect to time is rate of measurement. Means according to small change in
time how much other factors change is rate measurement:

- wherein
Where dR / dt means Rate of change of radius.
or
But
but

Q. 4
Correct Answer:
18
Solution:
We have learnt that
where is periodic function with period T and n and m are integers.
Now |sin(x)| is a periodic function with period T =
Hence,
Q. 5 The region represented by and is
bounded by a :
Option 1:
square of side length units
Option 2:
rhombus of side length 2 units
Option 3:
square of area 16 sq. units
Option 4:
rhombus of area sq. units
Correct Answer:
square of side length units
Solution:

If the function is symmetric in x as well as y axis, then the absolute area of the closed figure is four
times the integral of the same function in any one of the quadrant.
- wherein
region bounded by and
Graph of this is
Area = 8
side =
option (1) is correct.
Q. 6 The differential equation from is

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
eg:
Q. 7 If and such that and

then is equal to __________.

Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:

Q. 8
A plane containing the point (3, 2, 0) and the line also contains
the point :
Option 1:
(0, -3, 1)
Option 2:
(0, 7, 10)
Option 3:
(0, 7, -10)
Option 4:
(0, 3, 1)
Correct Answer:
(0, 7, 10)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Normal form (cartesian form ) -
where d is the distance from origin.
- wherein
putting in
We get -
Normal vector of Plane is

15x-11y+10z=23
It passes through (0,7,10)
Q. 9 Let be two positive real numbers such that Let be

respectively. the areas of circles with radii . Then the maximum possible value
of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now,

Option (2) is correct.
Q. 10
The probability of a man hitting a target is . The least number of shots required, so that
the probability of his hitting the target at least once is greater than is___________
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 11 Let be a function defined as
where
Show that is invertible and its inverse is
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Bijective Function -
The function which is both one-one and onto is Bijective Function.
f(x) = 4x + 3
Let y = 4x + 3
Q. 12
The largest interval lying in for which the function,
is defined, is
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Domains and Ranges of Inverse Trigonometric Functions -
For
Domain
Range
Now always differed
is differed if
log is difred if
Combining

Q. 13 If a, b, c are non - zero real numbers and if the system of equations
has a non-trivial solution, then ab+bc+ca equals :
Option 1:
a+b+c
Option 2:
abc
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
-1
Correct Answer:
abc
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and

Q. 14
Let . Then find the value of x such that
Option 1:
Real value
Option 2:
Purely imaginary
Option 3:
Complex no
Option 4:
both (1) and (3)
Correct Answer:
both (1) and (3)
Solution:
As we have learnt
Property of determinant -
If rows be changed into columns and columns into the rows , then the values of the determinant remains
unaltered.

Take common from
Interchanging row and column of 2nd det.
Apply on 2nd matrix
cube root of unity
If is continuous at , then the value of is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:

Solution:
Hence option (3) is correct
Q. 16 What is the angle made by the tangent with -axis, drawn at (1 , 2) on the curve
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Geometrical interpretation of dy / dx -
Slope of tangent line is where is the angle made by the line with the +ve direction of x axis.
Q. 17
If then
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt
If is an odd function of then integral of the function from -a to a is ZERO
- wherein
Check
Odd function
Q. 18 The area ( in sq. units ) of the region bounded by the curves and
, in the first quadrant is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Indefinite integrals for Exponential functions -

- wherein
area
- wherein
and
The required area is

Q. 19 If is the solution of the equation then
is equal to ________.
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Now, we have given equation is

Note that:
Q. 20 If the vectors and are mutually

orthogonal, then
Option 1:
( -3, 2 )
Option 2:
( 2, -3 )
Option 3:
( -2, 3 )
Option 4:
( 3, -2 )
Correct Answer:
( -3, 2 )
Solution:
As we learnt in
Scalar Product of two vectors -

- wherein
For mutually orthogonal,
On solving
Q. 21 If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes
and the point is
then the value of is ___________.
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
8
Option 3:
12
Option 4:
16
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Required plane is
which is satisfied by the point (-2,1,3).
Hence,

Thus, plane is
So,
Q. 22
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Properties of definite integration -
If is an EVEN function of x: then integral of the function from - a to a is the same as twice the
integral of the same function from o to a.
- wherein
Check even function and symmetrical about y axis.

And,
- wherein
Check
Odd function
And,

-
Q. 23
If the probability of hitting a target by a shooter, in any shot, is , then the minimum number
of independent shots at the target required by him so that the probability of hitting the
target at least once is greater that , is:
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
Binomial Theorem on Probability -
If an experiment is repeated n times under similar conditions we say that n trials of the experiment have
been made.
Let E be an event.
P= the Probability of occurrence of event E in one trial.
q = 1- p = probability of non occurrence of event E in one trial such that p+q = 1
x= number of successes.
Binomial Theorem on Probability -
Then
or
From the concept

Q. 24
If and . Then the value of is ....
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Correct answer: Option D
Q. 25
Calculate the value of x if

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Sum and difference of angles in terms of arccos
Now,
Q. 26 Let A be a 3 3 matrix such that
Then A-1 is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Inverse of a matrix -
We have

Now let
so , adj(B) =
|B| = 1
Therefore
Q. 27 Let the determinant of a square matrix A of order m be m-n, where m and n satisfy
and . If det
, then is equal to
Option 1:
101
Option 2:
84
Option 3:
109
Option 4:
96
Correct Answer:
96
Solution:

Q. 28 Let be the differentiable for If and for then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Lagrange's mean value theorem -
If a function f(x)
1. is continuous in the closed interval [a,b] and
2. is differentiable in the open interval (a, b) then

Geometrical interpretation of Lagrange's theorem -
Let A, B be the points on the curve y = f(x) at x = a and x = b so that A [a, f(a)], and B [b, f(b)]
So slope of the chord AB = f'(c) the slope of the tangent to the curve at x = c.
- wherein
We have
f(x) is an increasing function ,
For some

Q. 29 A function has a second order derivative
If its graph passes through the point and at that point the tangent to the graph is
then the function is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Equation of the tangent -
To find the equation of the tangent we need either one slope + one point or two points.
- wherein
Where is the point on the curve and M = MT slope of tangent.
Geometrical interpretation of dy / dx -
Slope of tangent line is where is the angle made by the line with the +ve direction of x axis.
Equation of tangent from other point on the curve.
is the point where it passes through.Then therefore
- wherein
Where m is slope of tangent.
Q. 30
The value of , where denotes
greatest integer function, is :
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Properties of Definite integration -
When
- wherein
Put the at the place of x in
lower and upper limit -
- wherein
Where a is lower and b is upper limit.
.....................(1)

..............................(2)
Add (1) and (2)
Q. 31 If the area (in sq. units) of the region is

, then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
area
- wherein
so
- wherein
Where

Q. 32
If Sinx is an integrating factor of the differential equation , then P can be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
If
Q. 33
If then the value of
Option 1:
5

Option 2:
3
Option 3:
-5
Option 4:
-3
Correct Answer:
-5
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector Product of two vectors(cross product) -
If and are two vectors and is the angle between them , then
- wherein
is unit vector perpendicular to both
Scalar Triple Product -
- wherein
Scalar Triple Product of three vectors .

STP
We saw
So value = -5
Q. 34 The distance of the point (1, 0, 2) from the line point of intersection of the line
and the plane , is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Intersection of line and plane -
Let the line
plane
intersect at P
to find P assume general point on line as
now put it in plane to find ,

-
Point of intesection of line
x=3k+2, y=4k-1,z=12k+2
x-y+z=16
3k+2-4k+1+12k+2=16
11k-11 k=1
Point is (5,3,14)
Distance between (5,3,14) and (1,0,2)
is
Q. 35 be fixed real numbers such that If are arbitrary real numbers such
that then the minimum value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given is real number and
This implies is fixed point outside of the circle of radius 1 and center at
Given,
min value of is same as square of minimum distance between circle and
Correct answer is option 1
Q. 36 An unbiased coin is tossd. If the outcome is a head then a pair of unbaised dice is rolled and
the sum of the numbers otained on them is noted. If the toss of the coin results in tails then
a card from a well-suffled pack of nine cards numbered 1,2,3,.....,9 is randomly picked and
the number on the card is noted. The probability that the noted number is either 7 or 8 is:
Option 1:
13/36
Option 2:
15/72
Option 3:
19/72
Option 4:
19/36
Correct Answer:
19/72
Solution:
Probability of occurrence of an event -

Let S be the sample space then the probability of occurrence of an event E is denoted by P(E) and it is
defined as
- wherein
Where n repeated experiment and E occurs r times.
If A and B are independent events then probability of occurrence of A is not affected by occurrence or
non occurrence of event B.
and
so
-
From the concept
getting head or tail, probability is
Now,
Start H sum 7 or 8
T number 7 or 8
P(A) =

Q. 37
Let be a function defined as , where and
. Then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The function is invertible and
Q. 38
The value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
or
- wherein

Q. 39 If
then k is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in

Q. 40
If then which of the following is true.
Option 1:
a+b+c=0
Option 2:
Option 3:
Both (1) and (2)
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
Both (1) and (2)
Solution:
As we have learnt
Property of determinant -
If to each element of a line ( row or column ) of a determinant be added the equimultiples of the
corresponding elements of one or more parallel lines , the determinant remains unaltered
- wherein

Apply
either
Or

Mock Test 5
Physics
Q. 1 A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and angular frequency ( ) as 320 rad/s is applied to
a series LCR circuit. Given that R=5 , L=25 mH and C=1000 µF. The total impedance, and
phase difference between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Impedence -

R= , L = 25 mH, C = 1000 F
= 320/s
Total Impedance
Z=
Phase difference =
Q. 2 The nature of electromagnetic wave is
Option 1:
Longitudnal
Option 2:
Transverse
Option 3:
Longitudnaly stationary
Option 4:
Transverse stationary
Correct Answer:
Transverse
Solution:
As we learned
Property of Electromagnetic waves -
These waves are transverse in nature and it does not require a medium for propagation.

Q. 3 An object of length 9 Cm is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 'F
' at a distance 4F the length of image will be
Option 1:
2 Cm.
Option 2:
3Cm
Option 3:
4Cm
Option 4:
5Cm
Correct Answer:
3Cm
Solution:
as we learn
Longitudinal magnification -
- wherein
Longitudinal magnification is used when object is placed along principal axis.
u = object distance
v = image distance

Q. 4 In a Davisson German experiment the intensity of scattered beams of electron is found to be
maximum when:
Option 1:
angle of scattering is 500
Option 2:
accerlerating potential is 54 V
Option 3:
both a and b
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
both a and b
Solution:
As we learn
Davisson Germer Experiment -
The energy of the incident beam of electrons can be varied by changing the applied voltage to the
electron gun.
- wherein
Intensity of scattered beam of electrons is found to be maximum when angle of scattering is and the
accelerating potential is 54 V
Q. 5 In a radioactive decay chain , the initial nucleus is . At the end there are 6 -
particles and 4 - particles which are emitted. . If the end nucleus is , A and Z are given
by :
Option 1:
A = 208 ; Z = 80

Option 2:
A = 200 ; Z = 81
Option 3:
A = 202 ; Z = 80
Option 4:
A = 208 ; Z = 82
Correct Answer:
A = 208 ; Z = 82
Solution:
α -decay -
- wherein
β minus decay -
- wherein
Initially
Let finally
So let reaction
Balance Z -
Balance A -
So A =208 and Z = 82
Q. 6 The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave
forms across A, B and C are as given. The logic circuit gate is:
Option 1:
OR gate
Option 2:
NOR gate
Option 3:
AND gate
Option 4:
NAND gate
Correct Answer:
OR gate
Solution:
As we learnt in
OR gate -
Relation between input and output

- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
Input Output
A B C
0 0 0
1 0 1
1 1 1
0 1 1
This truth table obtained is of OR gate . Hence logic gate is OR gate.
Q. 7 The electric potential V is given as a function of distance x (metre) by

. Value of electric field at x = 1m is
Option 1:
– 20 V/m
Option 2:
6 V/m
Option 3:
11 V/m
Option 4:
– 23 V/m
Correct Answer:
– 20 V/m
Solution:
As we learned

- wherein
Potential gradient.
By using
x = 1m
Q. 8 In the given figure,which of the following relation is correct?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In a circuit at any junction the sum of the currents entering the junction must equal the sum of the
currents leaving the junction .
This law is also known as Junction rule or current law

Total incoming current = Total outgoing current
Q. 9 A galvanometer having a coil resistance of shows full scale deflection when a current of
1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read current upto 5.0amp
by
Option 1:
putting in series a resistance of 15
Option 2:
putting in series a resistance of 240
Option 3:
putting in parallel a resistance of 15
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
It can be converted into ammeter by adding a shunt resistance in parallel.
Q. 10 The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11 A point source of EMW radian has power output of 800 W. The max. value of electric field (in
V/m ) distance 3.5 m from the source will be
Option 1:
62.6

Option 2:
56.7
Option 3:
39.3
Option 4:
47.5
Correct Answer:
62.6
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Total radiant Flux (Power) -
q = Charge
= Acceleration of particle
- wherein
The accelerated charge particle produce EM wave. P is total radiant flux emitted by charge at any instant.

Q. 12
In the given digram the mirror and object is moving with speed 2 m/s
as shown then the velocity of image with respect to object
Option 1:
0 m/s
Option 2:
5 m/s
Option 3:
2 m/s
Option 4:
4 m/s
Correct Answer:
0 m/s
Solution:
AS we learn
Relation between object and image velocity if object is moving along principal axis -
= -
= -
- wherein
= velocity of light
= velocity of image
= velocity of mirror
= velocity of object w.r.t. mirror

= velocity of image w.r.t. mirror
Q. 13 The de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron of hydrogen atom in this ground state is
Option 1:
6.26 Ao
Option 2:
10 Ao
Option 3:
0.3 Ao
Option 4:
3.3 Ao
Correct Answer:
3.3 Ao
Solution:
Q. 14
A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U(r) = . If
Bohr's quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals and energy levels vary
with quantum number n as :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 15 Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates ?
Option 1:
AND
Option 2:
NOR
Option 3:
OR
Option 4:
NAND

Correct Answer:
AND
Solution:
As we learnt in
AND Gate -
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is output
Y1 =
Y2 =
(from D'morgan law)
this system represent AND gate.
Q. 16 If the potential function is given by then the magnitude of electric field intensity at
the point (2, 1) will be
Option 1:
11
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learned
In space -
, ,
By using i.e.,
Q. 17 In the circuit shown, the battery is ideal, with emf E = 15 V and it sends a current I in the
circuit. All resistors are identical and each resistor has resistance R = 3Ω. The potential
difference (in V) across the capacitor in steady state is Vc =
Option 1:
12
Option 2:
9
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
15

Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Solutions
In steady state, no current passes through the branch that contains a fully charged capacitor, because a
fully charged capacitor is a dc blocking element. Hence the circuit becomes
Q. 18 A straight wire of mass 300g and length 2.5m carries a current of 3.5A. It is suspended in mid
air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field?
Option 1:
0.654T
Option 2:
0.336T

Option 3:
1.576T
Option 4:
0.939T
Correct Answer:
0.336T
Solution:
As we learnt
Tensionless strings -
- wherein
Here, weight of the wire is balanced by the external magnetic force.
So,Bil=mg,
Q. 19 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac

source of 200 volt, 100 Hz is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be

Option 1:
Option 2:
2.0 A
Option 3:
4.0 A
Option 4:
8.0 A
Correct Answer:
4.0 A
Solution:
Q. 20 What is the range of frequency (in KHz) for ultrasonic wave ?
Option 1:
50
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Audio Wave -
Frequency range 20Hz to 20 KHz
- wherein
Wavelength range to
The frequency of ultrasonic wave is above the audible frequency whose range is 20 Hz to 20 KHz .
Q. 21 If the speed of light in vacum 10 m/s then the velocity of light in a medium of refrective
index 1.3 is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Refractive index -

- wherein
speed of light in vacuum.
speed of light in medium.
Q. 22 The work function of metal A and B are in ratio 3:2 then waht is the ratio of their
corresponding threshold wavelength :
Option 1:
3:2
Option 2:
2:3
Option 3:
1:3
Option 4:
3:1
Correct Answer:
2:3
Solution:
As we leran
Work function -
Energy used to overcome the surface barrier and come out of metal surface.
- wherein

Q. 23 For a radioactive material T is half life, then the fraction that would remain after a time T/2 is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Number of nuclei in terms of half life -
- wherein
Very useful to determine number of nuclei in terms of half life
Fraction remain after n half lives

Q. 24 If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied, as shown,
then the output across RL will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
Diode will pass the current only when it is forward biased. Hence output will be obtained when voltage is
positive that is it lies between 0 - 5 V.
Q. 25 A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field E
. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after ‘t’ second is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Force on particle=
Hence, acceleration of the particle
Initial speed = u=0
Hence, the final velocity
Kinetic energy
Q. 26 In the given circuit,the potential difference across is 40V and ammeter reads 2A. The
value of is (in )
Correct Answer:
60
Solution:

P.D. across
Q. 27 Magnetic dipole moment of a rectangular loop is
Option 1:
Inversely to current in the loop
Option 2:
Inversely to Area of loop
Option 3:
Parallel to plane of loop and directly to area
Option 4:
Perpendicular to plane of loop and directly to area of loop.
Correct Answer:
Perpendicular to plane of loop and directly to area of loop.
Solution:
As we learnt

Maximum area -
Maximum magnetic moment
M=NIA
If A is max and M is max so perpendicular to plane of loop and directly to area of loop will give M.
Q. 28 In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 300 sin 100 t volts is connected to a capacitor of

capacity 1 F. The r.m.s value of the current in the circuit is:
Option 1:
30 mA
Option 2:
10 mA
Option 3:
100 mA
Option 4:
200 mA
Correct Answer:
30 mA
Solution:
As we learnt in
Wave Form (Sinusoidal) -
R.M.S. Value=
average value=

Q. 29 The ray used to study nuclear structure is
Option 1:
X - ray
Option 2:
- ray
Option 3:
- ray
Option 4:
- particle
Correct Answer:
- ray
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Application of γ - ray -
γ - rays are used for the study of nuclear structure.
- rays are used to study nuclear structure.
Q. 30 Two coherent sources of light can be obtained by
Option 1:
Two different light source
Option 2:
Two different light source but of same power
Option 3:
Two different light source of same colour
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
None of the above
Solution:
As we learn
Coherent Source -
If they produce wave of same frequency with a constant phase different.
- wherein
Necessary condition to observe interference.
Two coherent sources of ligh can be obtainrd by one source only
Q. 31 The maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons depends on:
Option 1:
Incident angle
Option 2:
Frequency
Option 3:
Pressure
Option 4:
All of these
Correct Answer:
Frequency
Solution:
as we learn
Conservation of energy -

- wherein
Q. 32 The half life period of radium is 1600 years. Its average life time will be-
Option 1:
4215 yrs
Option 2:
3250 yrs
Option 3:
2319 yrs
Option 4:
5000 yrs
Correct Answer:
2319 yrs
Solution:
Average life -
Average life -

Q. 33 The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage gain of 150 is
. The corresponding output signal will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Amplifier -
Transistor is used as an amplifier
- wherein
in such circuit output is amplified as compared to input .
Input signal of a CE amplifier,
Voltage gain = 150
As CE amplifier give phase difference of between input and output signals,

so
Q. 34 A positively charged particle moving along x-axis with a certain velocity enters a uniform electric field
directed along positive y-axis. Its
Option 1:
Vertical velocity changes but horizontal velocity remains constant
Option 2:
Horizontal velocity changes but vertical velocity remains constant
Option 3:
Both vertical and horizontal velocities change
Option 4:
Neither vertical nor horizontal velocity changes
Correct Answer:
Vertical velocity changes but horizontal velocity remains constant
Solution:
As we have learned
Velocity at any instance -
- wherein
Vertical velocity changes due to electric field, but no change in horizontal velocity.

Q. 35 Which of the following relation between internal resistance(r) of a cell and distance between
electrode(d) is correct?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Internal resistance of a cell -
Depends on the distance between electrodes
- wherein
Q. 36 A long magnetic needle of length 2L, magnetic moment M and pole strength m units is
broken into peices at the middle. The magnetic moment and pole strength of each piece will
be

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Pole Strength (m) -
It is represented by +m and -m.
Pole strength of each part = m
magnetic moment of each part = M' = m'L' = mL =
Q. 37 A 220-volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0
ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the
primary windings of the transformer is
Option 1:
5.0 ampere
Option 2:
3.6 ampere

Option 3:
2.8 ampere
Option 4:
2.5 ampere
Correct Answer:
5.0 ampere
Solution:
Q. 38 Which color of the light has the longest wavelength ?
Option 1:
red
Option 2:
blue
Option 3:
green
Option 4:
violet
Correct Answer:
red
Solution:
Visible radiation -
- wherein
Wavelength Range 3750 to 7500
Increasing order for wavelength= VIBGYOR
Red color has the highest wavelength . This can be easily detected by human eye .

Q. 39 In a wave the path difference corresponding to a phase difference of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Relation between phase & path difference -
- wherein
Phase difference
Path Difference
Wavelength

Q. 40 The stopping potential for photoelectric current is found to be 2 when we incident light of
wavelength on metallic surface. But if we increased wavelength of light by 50% . Then the
stopping potentail was found to be then waht is value of the threshold wavelength for the
surface:
Option 1:
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learn
Threshold Wavelength -
The maximum wave length of incident raditaion required to eject the electron is Threshold Wavelength
- wherein
If No photoelectron emission
As we known
For stopping potential was
so ...........(1)
(where is the work finction)
now if is increase by 50%
means
then stopping potential
so ....................(2)

from (1) and (2)
we get
and
Chemistry
Q. 1 Solution of two components containing n1 moles of 1st component and n2 moles of 2nd
component is prepared, M1 and M2 are molecular weight of component 1 and 2
respectively. If d is the density of the solution in g mL-1, C2 is the molarity and x2 is the mole
fraction of 2nd component, C2 can be expressed as:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 2 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

reason (R).
Assertion: Zn metal can displace Ag metal from a solution containing the complex ion [Ag(CN)2].
Reason : E0zn+2/zn is greater than E0Ag+/Ag.
Mark the correct choice as:
Option 1:
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
Option 2:
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
Option 3:
If assertion is true but reason is false
Option 4:
If both assertion and reason are false
Correct Answer:

Solution:
As we learn
Electrochemical series -
The standard reduction potential of a large number of electrodes has been measured using standard
hydrogen electrode as the reference electrode. These various electrodes can be arranged in increasing
electrode potential.
Zn is more reactive metal than Ag. So it displaces less reactive. Ag metal from its salt solution.
Reduction potential of Ag+ is greater than that of Zn+2, hence Ag+ has higher tendency to get reduced to
Ag. Therefore reason is the false statement while Assertion is true.
Q. 3 Temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2,by what factor the rate of reaction increases when
the temperature is increased from ?
Option 1:
16
Option 2:
32
Option 3:
64
Option 4:
86
Correct Answer:
32
Solution:
Temperature Coefficient -
In homogenous thermal reaction, the rate constant of the reaction becomes double / thrice by changing
the temperature by .
- wherein
Formula:
= Rate constant of the reaction which is temperature dependent
So rate of reaction doubles by rise in which means that temp is increased by so rate of
reaction becomes times.
Q. 4 The color of Mohr's salt is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Pseudoalums -
Double sulphates of divalent ions and trivalent ions, which are not isomorphous with alums
- wherein

Mohr's salt or Ammonium iron (II) sulphate is green in colour.
Q. 5 The pair in which both the species have the same magnetic moment (spin only) is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For solving need to know the concept of WFL (weak field ligand) and SFL (strong field ligand).
Electronic configuration and unpaired electrons of given complexes-
Thus complex [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ have the same no. of unpaired e- and hence same magnetic
moment (spin only).

Q. 6
The above reaction gives the best yield for
Option 1:
Primary alkyl halides
Option 2:
Tertiary alkyl halides
Option 3:
Secondary alkyl halides
Option 4:
All yields are similar irrespective of alcohol
Correct Answer:
Primary alkyl halides
Solution:
As we learnt
Alkyl halides are produced by treating alcohol with
When alcohol treated with , OH group is replaced by Cl.
Normally is use to produce primary alkyl halide but under extreme conditions, it can also produce
secondary alkyl halides
Q. 7 IUPAC name of is
Option 1:
3-hydroxy Butane
Option 2:
2-hydroxy Butane

Option 3:
Butan-2-ol
Option 4:
Butan-3-ol
Correct Answer:
Butan-2-ol
Solution:
As we learned
Secondary alcohol -
group is attached to secondary carbon.
- wherein
Q. 8 Pick up the strongest acid in the following:-
Option 1:
flouro acetic Acid
Option 2:
chloroacetic Acid
Option 3:
Trifluoroacetic Acid
Option 4:
Trichloroacetic Acid

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Acidic strength of carboxylic acid -
– More acidic than phenols or alcohols.
– Acidity increase with the presence of a group with -I effect in the alkyl group.Whereas it decreases with
the presence of +I group.
– Acidity increases with increase in the number of halogen atoms on - position.
– It decreases with increasing distance of halogen from
– It increases with increase in the electronegativity of halogen.
Because of the -I effect of -Floro group acidic strength of is highest
Q. 9 On treating alkyl halide with alcoholic solution of , the product formed is/are
Option 1:
Nitroalkane
Option 2:
Alkyl nitrite
Option 3:
Both (a) and (b)

Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Both (a) and (b)
Solution:
As we learnt
Methods of preparati on of nitroalkane -
By heati ng an alkyl halide with alcoholic soluti on of silver nitrite.This method also leads to the formati on of some
alkyl nitrites.
- wherein
Q. 10 Which of the following is the correct structure of Adenosine ?
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Nucleoside -
Made up of two components :
1. Pentose sugar
2. Nitrogenous base

-
Q. 11 A mixture has 18 g water and 414 g of ethamol. The mole fraction of water in mixture is :
Option 1:
0.1
Option 2:
0.4
Option 3:
0.7
Option 4:
0.9
Correct Answer:
0.1
Solution:
As we learn
Mole Fraction -

The mole fraction of water =

reason (R).
Assertion : Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration for strong electrolyte.
Reason : The number of ions per unit volume that carry the current in a solution decreses on dilution.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Conductivity -
Inverse of resistivity is called conductivity.
- wherein
SI unit of Conductivity =
On increasing dilution (decreasing the concentration) the number of ions per unit volume that carry the
current in the solution decreases. Therefore conductivity always decreases with decrease in
concentration both for weak and strong electrolytes. Hence reason is the correct explanation for the
given assertion.

Q. 13 for a reaction
what is the order of reactions?
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
Can not be more than 2
Option 4:
Can not be determined
Correct Answer:
Can not be determined
Solution:
Order of a Reaction -
The order of a reaction is determined as the sum of the powers of the concentration terms that appear in
the experimental rate equation. It is an experimental quantity.
Formula:
The order has a relation with stoichiometry & is determined experimentally. It can be
zero/fraction/negative/positive
So, for the given reaction order can not be determined because experimentally determined stoichiometry
of powers of the concentration is not given.
Q. 14 A Hard and resistant alloy generally used in tip of nib of pen is :
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Magnetic properties -
when a magnetic field is applied to a substance of metals, they show generally two types of magnetic
behaviour
1. Diamagnetism
2. Paramagnetism
KMmO4, in this compund, the O.S. of Mn is +7 and it's d-orbitals are vacant. With no unpaired electrons,
the compound is diamagnetic.
Q. 15 The complex that can show optical activity is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
The complex that can show optical activity is:
The structure is given below:
This compound has 2 forms, i.e, d, and l. Hence it is optically active.

Q. 16 In the reaction,
The product B is Phosphorus containing.
Select the correct option
Option 1:
B is
Option 2:
A is
Option 3:
A is
Option 4:
Both (i) and (ii)
Correct Answer:
Both (i) and (ii)
Solution:
As we learnt
By treating alcohol with , OH is replaced by X.
Hence, the correct option is (4)
Q. 17 Which of the fo allowing is the example of tertiary alcohols
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Tertiary alcohol -
group is attached to tertiary carbon.
- wherein
Q. 18
The 'A' and 'B' respectively are

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Phenol formation from Benzenesulphonic acid -
Acidification of sodium salt gives phenol.
- wherein

Q. 19 Which of the following statements are true for Nitro alkanes?
Option 1:
Nitro alkanes are reduced to form aminos by reducing agents
Option 2:
Due to tautomerism Pri and secondary nitroalkanes are weakly acidic.
Option 3:
Nitro compounds have large dipole moment
Option 4:
All of the above

Correct Answer:
All of the above
Solution:
As we learnt
Acidity of Nitroalkanes -
Due to tautomerism P and S - nitroalkane are weakly acids. The nitroalkanes behave as acids in the presence of
strong alkalies.
- wherein
Q. 20
What are A and B ?
Option 1:
Glucose and manmose
Option 2:
mannose and galactose
Option 3:
Glucose and fructose
Option 4:
fructose and galactose
Correct Answer:
Glucose and fructose
Solution:
As we have learned
Preparation of glucose and fructose from sucrose ( cane sugar ) -

Sucrose is boiled with dilute or in alcoholic solution , glucose (dextorotatory) and fructose
(laevorotatory) are obtained in equal amount .
- wherein
Glucose and fructose are obtained when sucrose is boiled with dilute acid
Q. 21 Which of the following will have highest freezing point at 1 atm?
Option 1:
0.1 M Nacl solution
Option 2:
0.1 M sugar solution
Option 3:
0.1 M BaCl2 solution
Option 4:
0.1 M Fecl3 solution
Correct Answer:
0.1 M sugar solution
Solution:
As we learn
Non electrolyte solute -
Solute which neither dissociates nor associates when dissolved in solvent.
e.g. Glucose ,Urea
Lesser the number of particles in solution, lesser the depression in freezing point, hence higher freezing
point.

reason (R).
Assertion: Galvonized iron does not rust
Reason: Zn has a more negative electrode potential than Fe.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Corrosions -
Slow formation of undesirable compounds such as oxides, sulfides or carbonates at the surface of metals
by reaction with moisture and other atmospheric gases is known as corrosion.
Zn is used for covering the iron to protect it from rusting. This process is called galvanization. Zn is more
reactive metal than iron.
Zn has more negative electrode potential (standard reduction potential) than that of Fe. Therefore Zn
loses electrons in preference to iron. When the layer of zinc comes in contact with moisture, oxygen and
co2 a protective thin layer of Znco3. Zn(oH)2 is formed. Hence reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
Q. 23 In the hydrolysis of an organic chloride in presence of large excess of water,
Option 1:
Molecularity and order of reaction both are 2
Option 2:
Molecularity is 1 but order of reaction is 2
Option 3:
Option 4:
Molecularity and order of reaction both are 1
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As water used is in large excess thus, the order depends only upon the concentration of RCl.
However molecularity is the number of reactants taking part in a reaction, thus, here is equal to 2.
Q. 24 Which of the following not a normal oxide ?
Option 1:
MgO
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Normal oxides -
These contain oxygen atoms according to the normal oxidation number
MgO, H2O, CaO, Li2O.
MgO, and contain oxygen atoms according to the normal oxidation number but
have the periodic bond.
Q. 25 The hybridization and magnetic nature of and , respectively

are:
Option 1:
and diamagnetic
Option 2:
and diamagnetic
Option 3:
and paramagentic
Option 4:
and paramagentic
Correct Answer:
and paramagentic
Solution:

hybridization is d2sp3
and magnetic nature is paramagnetic due to
Q. 26
A could be
Option 1:
CH2=CH2
Option 2:
CH3CH2Cl
Option 3:
Cl2
Option 4:
Both (ii) and (iii)
Correct Answer:
CH3CH2Cl
Solution:
The reaction occurs as follows:
A, B and C can be any one of CH3CH2Cl, SO2, HCl

Q. 27 other name of Hydroxy Benzene is
Option 1:
phenol
Option 2:
Hex-1,3,5-trien-1-ol
Option 3:
cyclohexanol
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
phenol
Solution:
As we learned
Phenols / Carbolic acid -
group is linked directly to aromatic ring system.
- wherein

Q. 28
product
for the above Reaction, which of the following product is formed?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Oxidation of Alkyl benzene -

The entire side chain of alkyl benzene is oxidised to carboxyl group irrespective of the length of the side
chain.
- wherein
The entire side chain of alkyl benzene is oxidised to carboxyl group irrespective of the length of the side
chain.
Q. 29 The presence of Nitro group in nitrobenzene is as certained by
Option 1:
Schiff's test
Option 2:
Mulliken and Barkar's Test
Option 3:
Both the above
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
Mulliken and Barkar's Test
Solution:
As we learnt
Mullikan - Barker test -
Ethanolic soluti on of nitrobenzene is treated with zinc dust and CaCl2 soluti on. The mixture is heated and filter in a
test tube containing Tollen's reagent a grey or black pricipitate ( Ag mirror ) is formed.
- wherein
Q. 30
What is A ?
Option 1:
Fructose
Option 2:
Glucose
Option 3:
mannose
Option 4:
Galactose
Correct Answer:
Glucose
Solution:
As we have learned
Preparation of glucose from starch -
By the hydrolysis of starch.
- wherein

Starch can be hydralysed to glucose by boiling with dilute acid or by actiion of enzymes like amylase
Q. 31 0.6% solution of urea (mol. wt =60) would be isotonic with -
Option 1:
0.1 M glucose
Option 2:
0.1 M Kcl
Option 3:
0.6% glucose soln
Option 4:
0.6 KCl solution
Correct Answer:
0.1 M glucose
Solution:
As we learn
Isotonic solutions -
Solutions having same osmotic pressures.
- wherein
at constant Temp.
Isotonic solutions - Having same osmotic pressure,
(At const. temp)

reason (R).
Assertion : In electrolysis, the quantity of electricity needed for depositiong 1 mole of Ag is different
from that required for 1 mole copper.
Reason: The atomic masses of Ag and Cu are different.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Faraday's first law of electrolysis -
The mass of any substance deposited or dissolved at any electrode during electrolysis is directly
propotional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution.
- wherein
W=ZIt
Z = mass of electrolyte get deposited
Z = electro chemical equivalent
Ag+ + e- Ag
to deposit 1 mole Ag, 1 Faraday charge ( change on 1 mol electrons) is needed.
Cu+2 + 2e- cu
to deposit 1 mole cu, 2 F charge is required.
Q no of equivalents of the substance as number of equivalents are different so charge required is

different for Cu and Ag. Therefore reason is not the correct explanation.
Q. 33 The rate law for a reaction between the substance A & B is given by
On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new
rate to the earlier rate of reaction will be as:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given, expression for rate

Q. 34 Which of the following is mixed oxide -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
All of the above
Correct Answer:
All of the above
Solution:
As we have learned
Mixed oxides -
These oxides are made up of two simple oxides
Q. 35 On treatment of of solution of with excess ;

ions are precipitated. The complex is:
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 36
For the above reaction, what would be the order of reaction for Primary, Secondary and
Tertiary alkanes?
Option 1:
Primary=Secondary=Tertiary
Option 2:
Primary=Secondary>Tertiary
Option 3:
Tertiary>Secondary>Primary
Option 4:
Primary>Secondary=Tertiary
Correct Answer:
Tertiary>Secondary>Primary
Solution:
As we learnt
Preparation of haloalkane by free radical halogenation of Alkanes -

Alkanes undergo free radical substitution reaction when treated Cl2/Br2 in presence of sunlight.
- wherein
Tertiary radical>Secondary radical> Primary radical in stability accounts for the order of rate of reaction.
Q. 37 Consider the following reaction product
which of the following product will be formed majorly?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Both (a) and (b)
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Alcohol formation by hydration of alkenes follows electrophilic addition mechanism forming the major
product using the Markownikoff rule which is shown here

is majorly formed due to Markownikoff's rule.
Here the detailed mechanism is shown.
Q. 38 Which of the following compounds does not give aldol condensation:
Option 1:
Ethanal
Option 2:
Propanal
Option 3:
Methanal
Option 4:
Butanal
Correct Answer:
Methanal
Solution:
As we learned
Aldol condensation -
Aldehydes and ketones possessing - hydrogen atom in the presence of dilute alkali undergo self-
condensation to form - hydroxy aldehyde and

- hydroxy ketone.
- wherein
Methanal
Because HCHO does not contain atom
Q. 39 Compound 'A' reacts with nitrous acid to form p-nitroso N-N- dimethyl amiline compound 'A'
is
Option 1:
N-nitroso amiline
Option 2:
p-nitroso N methyl amiline
Option 3:
N-N- dimethyl amiline
Option 4:
N-phenyl-N-methyl methanamine
Correct Answer:
N-N- dimethyl amiline
Solution:
As we learnt
Reacti on of terti ary arylamines with HNO2 -
terti ary arylamines react with nitrous acid to form P - nitroso aromati c compounds.
- wherein

Q. 40 At which carbon number in the chain does fructose contain a ketone group ?
Option 1:
1st
Option 2:
2nd
Option 3:
3rd
Option 4:
4th
Correct Answer:
2nd
Solution:
As we have learned
Fructose / fruit sugar -
Contain a ketonic functional group at carbon number 2
Structure of fructose (open chain form )
Maths
Q. 1 Let a function be defined as
Where [x] is the gretest integer less than or equal to x. If is continuous on R, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
5
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
At
LHL:
RHL :
Continuous at
At
LHL :
RHL:
Continuous at

Q. 2 If m is the minimum value of k for which the function is increasing in
the interval and M is the maximum value of in when then the ordered
pair is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Condition for increasing functions -
For increasing function tangents drawn at any point on it makes an acute slope with positive x-axis.
- wherein
Where f(x) is continuous and differentiable for (a,b)
Method for maxima or minima -
By second derivative method :

- wherein
For
so
&
minimum value of
minimum value of k is

Q. 3
The value of the integral,
Option 1:
1/2
Option 2:
3/2
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
3/2
Solution:
As leant in concept
Properties of Definite integration -
When
- wherein
Put the at the place of x in
Also, we know that
Thus,

is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
area
- wherein

Area of OAC where, C(1,4)
Area of OADB - Area of OAC
Q. 5 The general solution of the differential equation is

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Solution is

Q. 6 The vectors are not perpendicular and are two vectors satisfying :
and . Then the vector is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
are three vectors.

Q. 7
The image of the line in the plane is the line :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Image of a point -
Let be the image of point in the plane
will be given by the formula
Image of (1,3,4) in plane is

So equation of line is
Q. 8
What is the slope of normal at on the curve ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Slope of Normal for parametric form -
- wherein

We have
Q. 9 Let E and F be two independent events such that P(E) > P(F). The probability that both E and F
happen is 1/12 and the probability that neither E nor F happens is 1/2. Then
Option 1:
P(E) = 1/3, P(F) = 1/4
Option 2:
P(E) = 1/2, P(F) = 1/6
Option 3:
P(E) = 1/2, P(F) = 1/6
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
P(E) = 1/3, P(F) = 1/4
Solution:
As we learned
If A and B are independent events then and independent event.
- wherein

From (1) and (2) choice (a) is correct.
Q. 10 Let [t] denote the greatest interger . Then the equation in x,

has:
Option 1:
exactly two solutions
Option 2:
exactly four intergral solution
Option 3:
no integral solution
Option 4:
infinitely many solutions
Correct Answer:
infinitely many solutions
Solution:
Q. 11
Let and let , where Then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we leant in
- wherein
Adding (1) and (2)

Q. 12
If and that then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Solution of a non-homogeneous system of linear equations by matrix method -
If is a non-singular matrix then the system of equations given by has a unique solution given
by
- wherein

Q. 13
If a,b,c are all different and if then abc=?
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
-1
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
both (a) and (c)
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
As we have learnt
Summation of two determinants -
Since,
So,
correct option a

Q. 14 The values of for which the function
is continuous for all in R,are
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Continuity -
If the function is continuous, Its graph does not break but for discontinuous functions there is a break in
the graph.
- wherein

Since f(x) is continuous so that
= P+2 = q =
P=
q=
Q. 15 Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 5 such that are its critical points. If
then which one of the following is not true ?
Option 1:
.

Option 2:
is a point of maxima and is a point of maxima and
Option 3:
is an odd function.
Option 4:
is a point of minima and is a point of maxima of
Correct Answer:
is a point of minima and is a point of maxima of
Solution:
Algebraic Function of type ‘infinity (∞) -
Algebraic Function of type ‘infinity (∞)’
To find the limit of the type x ➝ ∞, write the given expression in the form of (D ≠ 0), (N is numerator, D
is denominator). Then divide both N and D by highest power of x occurring in both N and D to get a
meaningful form.
An important result:
On solving

f(x) is maxima at x = 1 and minima at x = –1
Correct Option (4)
Q. 16
The integral is equal to : (Here C is a constant of integration)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Type of integration by substitution -
- wherein
Let such that

Q. 17 The area of the region, enclosed by the circle which is not common to the
region bounded by the parabola and the straight line is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Area Bounded by Curves When Intersects at More Than One Point -
Area bounded by the curves y = f(x), y = g(x) and intersect each other in the interval [a, b]
First find the point of intersection of these curves y = f(x) and y = g(x) , let the point of intersection be x = c
Area of the shaded region
When two curves intersects more than one point
rea bounded by the curves y=f(x), y=g(x) and intersect each other at three points at x = a, x = b amd x =
c.
To find the point of intersection, solve f(x) = g(x).
For x ∈ (a, c), f(x) > g(x) and for x ∈ (c, b), g(x) > f(x).
Area bounded by curves,

-
Area between parabola and line is A1
Correct Option (2)
Q. 18
If Sint, Cost, t is a parameter then at (1, 1) os equal to
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
eg:

Put
Q. 19 are two vectors and is a vector such that then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector Product of two vectors(cross product) -
If and are two vectors and is the angle between them , then
- wherein
is unit vector perpendicular to both

Ratio =
Q. 20 If the lines are coplanar, then k can

have :
Option 1:
exactly three values
Option 2:
any value
Option 3:
exactly one value
Option 4:
exactly two values
Correct Answer:
exactly two values
Solution:
For coplaner lines we have
k = 0, - 3
We have two values.
Q. 21
The function is continuous
Option 1:
Everywhere except at and
Option 2:
Nowhere
Option 3:
Everywhere
Option 4:
Everywhere except at
Correct Answer:
Everywhere except at
Solution:
As we discussed in concept
Continuity at a point -
A function f(x) is said to be continuous at x = a in its domain if
1. f(a) is defined : at x = a.
of f(x) at x = a exists from left and right.
We know that
For continuous:
Now
So it is not continuous at x=0

Q. 22 Two dices are rolled. If both dices have six faces numbered 1,2,3,5,7 and 11, then the
probability that the sum of the numbers on the top faces is less than or equal to 8 is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Dice I : 1 and Dice II : 1,2,3,5,7
Dice I : 2 and Dice II : 1,2,3,5
Dice I : 3 and Dice II : 1,2,3,5
Dice I : 5 and Dice II : 1,2,3
Dice I : 7 and Dice II : 1
Q. 23 Let
be a relation on the set The relation is
Option 1:
Symmetric
Option 2:
Transitive

Option 3:
Reflexive
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
None of these
Solution:
A = {1, 2, 3, 4}
R = {(1, 3), (4, 2), (2, 4), (2, 3), (3, 1)}
Reflexive: (1,1) is missing, so not reflexive
Symmetric: (2,3) is there, but (3,2) is not, so not symmetric
Transitive: (1,3), (3,1) are present, but (1,1) is not, so not transitive
Q. 24 The value of is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein

or
- wherein
Q. 25
Let .The only correct statement about the matrix A is
Option 1:
does not exist
Option 2:
is a unit matrix
Option 3:
is a zero matrix
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Multiplication of matrices -
Q. 26
a,b,c are the root of equation then the value of
is
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
-1
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
9
Correct Answer:
0

Solution:
As we have learnt
Multiplication of two determinants -
- wherein
Determinant multiplication is row to row , row to column , column to row or column to column
roots of is
where is the cube root of unity.
and
Q. 27 Let
If (x) is continuous for all x, then K=
Option 1:
7
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
-1
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Rule for continuous -
A function is continuous at x = a if and only if
L.H.L R.H.L value at x = a.
- wherein
Where
Q. 28 Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 3 such that f(-1)=10, f(1)=-6,f(x) has a critical point at x=-1
and has a critical point at x=1, Then f(x) has a local minima at x= ______.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Non-Monotonic Function and Critical Point -
Critical Point:
The critical point of a function is when its derivative does not exist or its derivative is equal to zero.
All the values of ‘x’ obtained by bellow conditions are said to be the critical points.
1. f(x) does not exists
2. f’(x) does not exists
3. f’(x) = 0.
Critical points are interior points of the intervals.
For the function f(x) = | x2 - 4|, critical points are x = +2, -2 and x = 0 where its derivative is zero.
Let f (x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d
a = 1/4, d = 35/4, b = –3/4, c =9/4
f(x) = a(x3 – 3x2 – 9x) + d
f ' (x) = 0 x = 3, –1
local minima exist at x = 3
OR
Q. 29
If and then value of the integral
is :
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
Check
Odd function
then

is an odd function
Q. 30 If the area ( in sq. units) bounded by the parabola and
the line , , is , then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
48
Option 3:
24
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
24
Solution:
area
- wherein

so
- wherein
Where
the parabola and the line
If , then
Area =
=>
=>
=>
=>
=>

Q. 31 The difference between degree and order of a differential equation that represents the
family of curves given by is _______.
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Order = 1
Degree = 3
Q. 32 Let three vectors be such that .

Then which one of the following is not true ?
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
are mutually perpendicular is parallel to
(i)
(ii)

Now,
Hence (iv) is false.
Q. 33 The lines are coplanar, if :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Lines can be re-written as
Line 1:
( is position vector of point lying on it and is the vector parallel to this line ).
Line 2:

Now lines are co-planar if
Expanding along row 1.
Q. 34 If then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given: |x-1|> 5
Thus, there will be two cases,
(x-1) > 5, x > 6 → x (6,∞) …….. (i)
& -(x-1) > 5 → -x + 1 > 5 → -x > 4
i.e., x < -4
x (-∞, -4) …… (ii)
Therefore, x (-∞, -4) U (6,∞)

Q. 35 A box ‘A’ contains 2 white, 3 red and 2 black balls. Another box ‘B’ contains 4 white, 2 red and
3 black balls. If two balls are drawn at random, without replacement, from a randomly
selected box and one ball turns out to be white while the other ball turns out to be red, then
the probability that the balls are drawn from box ‘B’ is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let A: box A is chosen
B: box B is chosen
C: One white and one red ball are drawn
As boxes are randomly selected: P(A) = P(B) = 1/2
The probability of drawing a white ball and a red ball from bag B
= P(C/B)

The probability of drawing a white ball and a red ball from bag A
= P(C/A)
Hence, the probability that box B was chosen given that a white ball and a red ball have been drawn
= P(B/C)
= P(B ∩ C) / P(C)
Now using Baye's Theorem
Q. 36 A relation on the set where Z is the set of integers is defined by

Then the number of elements in the power set of R is :
Option 1:
32
Option 2:
16
Option 3:
8
Option 4:
64
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Consider set .
All elements of the set A, defined by x, are also contained in Z, the set of integers. It's also given that the
absolute value of these elements is strictly less than 3.
Hence possibly this set in roster form will be,
A relation R on the set A where is defined in set builder notation as

.
Thus is possible if y is the absolute value of x and x is not equal to -1.
And also,
Hence possibly R in roster form will be,
Here we get that .
Thus,
Q. 37 If then the value of is
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:

Q. 38 If
Then the value of :
Option 1:
depends only on a
Option 2:
depends only on n
Option 3:
depends both on a and n
Option 4:
is independent of both a and n.
Correct Answer:
is independent of both a and n.
Q. 39
Let be the adjoint of a matrix then
is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given,
Given
So, is rejected
Q. 40 Let 'a' be a real number such that the function is increasing

in and decreasing in
. Then the function has a
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

increasing in & decreasing in
As is linear, so
Now,
It is a downward parabola, so it will have maximum at
So maximum at

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GUJCET 2024

Gujarat Common Entrance Test 4

Gujcet 2023 official question paper with solution 6

Preparation Study Material 75

Mock Test 2 221

Mock Test 3 340

Mock Test 4 461

Mock Test 5 582

What You Will Find in the Ebook:

GUJCET Exam Pattern 2024

Maximum Maximum Total

Section 1 – Physics and 80 Questions 80 Marks 120 Minutes

Section 2 – Mathematics 40 Questions 40 Marks 60 Minutes

Total 120 Questions 120 Marks 180 Minutes

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Correct Answer:- (A)

Q.2) What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron,

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Correct Answer:- (c) electron

waves of wavelength 600 nm is ______.

Correct Answer:- (D)

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Correct Answer:- (B) 656 nm

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Correct Answer:- (A)

(A) 4.8 Years

Correct Answer:- (C) 10 Years

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Q10) The given logic circuit behaves as a _____ gate.

Correct Answer:- (D) AND

Correct Answer:- (A) 300

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Correct Answer:- (A) 1.8

Q13) Consider a uniform electric field . The electric flux of this

Correct Answer:- (B) 120

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Which charge has the Maximum magnitude?

Correct Answer:- (B) B charge

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Q16) The potential at the point B in the given figure is ____v.

Correct Answer:- (C) 22

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Correct Answer:- (D) 0J

Q18) The dielectric strength of air is ____.

Solution:- The dielectric strength of air is

Q19) Unit of mobility in terms of fundamental units is

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(A) Maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm* ½ cm faces

Correct Answer:- (A) 1.92

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(A) The electron path will be circular about the axis

Q23) An electron is moving at a speed of m/s in a magnetic field of

the path of the electron is ____(cm).

Correct Answer:- (C) 15

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