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PHYSICS

Question No: 1
Three large parallel plates have uniform surface change densities as shown in the figure. Find the
electric field at point

a) b) c) d)
Question No: 2
An electric field of 1500 Vm-1 and a magnetic field of 0.40 Wbm-2 act on a moving electron. The
minimum uniform speed along a straight line the electron could have is
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 3
A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth’s magnetic field with a period . What happens to its period
of motion if its mass is quadrupled?
b) Motion remains SHM and period remains
a) Motion remains SHM with time period = /2
nearly constant
c) Motion remains SHM with time period d) Motion remains SHM with time period
Question No: 4
Which of the following statement is correct:
a) ductile metals can be drawn into wires
b) malleable materials like gold cannot be hammered into thin sheets
c) castiron is a ductile material, which snap immediately
d) all material beyond elastic limit are brittle
Question No: 5
If a single drop of liquid is splited into large number of droplets all of the same size, then the energy
in this process will be
a) liberated b) absorbed
c) neither liberated nor absorbed d) some mass is converted into energy
Question No: 6
Let and represent the number density of electrons and holes in a semiconductor. Then
a) > if the semiconductor is intrinsic
b) < if the semiconductor is intrinsic
c) if the semiconductor is intrinsic
d) = if the semiconductor is intrinsic
Question No: 7
The sun radiates energy in all directions. The average radiations received on the earth surface from
the sun is . The average earth sun distance is . The mass lost
by the sun per day is

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a) b) c) d)
Question No: 8
An electron is moving in an orbit of a hydrogen atom from which there can be a maximum of six
transition. An electron is moving in an orbit of another hydrogen atom from which there can be a
maximum of three transition. The ratio of the velocities of the electron in these two orbits is

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 9
An electron of mass when accelerated through a potential difference has de-Broglie
wavelength The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a proton of mass accelerated through
the same potential difference will be

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 10
In a Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are placed 0.90 mm apart and the fringes are
observed one meter away. If it produces the second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from the
central fringe, the wavelength of monochromatic light used will be
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 11
The exposure time of a camera lens at the setting is second. The correct time of exposure at

is

a) b) c) d)
Question No: 12
In the figure shown, three AC voltmeters are connected. At resonance,

a) b) c) d)
Question No: 13
A gang capacitor is formed by interlocking a number of plates as shown in figure. The distance
between the consecutive plates is and the overlapping area of the plate is The
capacity of the unit is

a) b) c) d)
Question No: 14
An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder with inner radius and outer radius carries a
uniform current density along its length. The magnitude of the magnetic field as a function of
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the radial distance from the axis is best represented by

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 15
An ammeter, suspected to give inaccurate reading, is connected in series with a voltameter.
The ammeter indicates A steady current passed for one hour deposits of .
If the E.C.E. of is then the error in ammeter reading is
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 16
is the unit of
a) Energy b) Momentum c) Force d) Pressure
Question No: 17
A capacitor of capacity 10 is charged to a potential of 400V. When its both plates are connected
by a conducting wire , then heat generated will be
a) 80 J b) 0.8 J c) d)
Question No: 18
Two waves are approaching each other with a velocity of and frequency The distance
between two consecutive nodes is

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 19
The variation of potential energy of harmonic oscillator is as shown in figure. The spring constant is

a) b) c) d)
Question No: 20
A particle is having kinetic energy 1/3 of the maximum value at a distance of 4 cm from the mean
position, Find the amplitude of motion.
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 21
Which of the following formula is wrong

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 22
Figure shows two processes and for a given sample of a gas, if are the amounts of

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heat absorbed by the system in the two cases, and are changes in internal energies
respectively, then

a) b)
c) d)
Question No: 23
A satellite whose mass is , is revolving in circular orbit of radius around the earth. Time of
revolution of satellite is

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 24
A solid sphere is rotating in free space. If the radius of sphere is increased keeping mass same
which one of the following will not be affected?
a) Angular velocity b) Angular c) Moment of inertia d) Rotational Kinetic
momentum energy
Question No: 25
The potential energy function for the force between two atoms in a diatomic molecule is
approximately given by U - ,where a and b are constants and is the distance between

the atoms , If the dissociation energy of the molecule is is

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 26
A cylinder roll up an inclined plane, reaches some height and then rolls down (without slipping
throughout these motions). The directions of frictional force acting on the cylinder are
a) Up the inclined while ascending and down the incline while descending
b) Up the incline while ascending as well as descending
c) Down the incline while ascending and up the incline while descending
d) Down the incline while ascending as well as descending
Question No: 27
A square plate of side and mass M = 2 kg is lying on the horizontal plane. What will be
the moment of inertia of the plate about an axis in the plane of the plate and at an angle of
from one of its sides?

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a) b) c) d)
Question No: 28
A cyclist is going on an overbridge with constant speed. The value of frictional force acting on the
cycle

a) First decreases and then increases b) First increases and then decreases
c) Decreases continuously d) Increases continuously
Question No: 29
A car is circulating on the path of radius and at any time its velocity is and rate of increases of
velocity is . The resultant acceleration of the car will be

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 30
A particle covers 4m, 5m, 6m, and 7m, in 3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th second respectively. The particle
starts
a) With an initial non- b) From rest and moves c) With an initial d) From rest and moves
zero velocity and with uniform velocity velocity and moves with uniform
moves with uniform with uniform velocity acceleration
acceleration

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CHEMISTRY

Question No: 1
The rate of a chemical reaction doubled for every rise in temperature. If the temperature is
increased by the rate of reaction increase by
a) 20 times b) 32 times c) 64 times d) 128 times
Question No: 2
The number of radioactive isotopes of hydrogen is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None of these
Question No: 3
Among the C—X bond (where X = Cl, Br, I) the correct bond energy order is:
a) C—Cl > C—Br > C—I
b) C—I > C—Cl > C—Br
c) C—Br > C—Cl > C—I
d) C—I > C—Br > C—Cl
Question No: 4
In oxo-acids of halogen, = bond is formed as a result of:
- - - d) either of these
a) b) c)
overlapping overlapping overlapping
Question No: 5
Solubility of alkaline earth metal hydroxides increases from to because:
a) Hydration energy > lattice energy
b) Lattice energy > hydration energy
c) Hydration energy is equal to lattice energy
d) None of the above
Question No: 6
Methyl bromide is not used:
a) As an insecticide
b) As disinfectant
c) For dyeing clothes
d) As disinfectant for young fruit trees
Question No: 7
Which of the following will give a primary amine on hydrolysis?
a) Nitroparaffin b) Alkyl cyanide c) Oxime d) Alkyl isocyanate
Question No: 8
To which class of dyes does phenolphthalein belong?
a) Azo dyes
b) Nitro dyes
c) Triphenyl methane dyes
d) Phthalein dyes
Question No: 9
The ultimate products of oxidation of most of hydrogen and carbon in food-stuffs are:
a) alone b) alone c) and d) None of these
Question No: 10

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Which of the following is not a thermoplastic?

a) Polystyrene b) Teflon c) Polyvinyl chloride d) Novalac
Question No: 11
crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the
atomic mass of and that of amu and Avogadro number being
the density of is :
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 12
Which aldehyde cannot be obtained by Rosenmund’s reaction?
a) b) HCHO c) d) All of these
Question No: 13
The correct order of ease of dehydration of following is

a) I > II > III b) III > II > I c) I > III > II d) III > I > II
Question No: 14
The matte is impure substance obtained during extraction of:
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 15
According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases because
a) The concentration of reactant molecules at the active centres of the catalyst becomes high due to
adsorption
b) In the process of adsorption, the activation energy of the molecules becomes large
c) Adsorption produces heat which increases the speed of the reaction
d) Adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction
Question No: 16
An ore contains 1.34% of the mineral argentite, by mass. How many gram of this ore would
have to be processed in order to obtain 1.00 g of pure solid silver,
a) 74.6 g b) 85.7 g c) 107.9 g d) 134.0 g
Question No: 17
Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is . The specific conductance of the solution is
1.3 S . If resistance of the 0.4M solution of the same electrolyte is 260Ω , its molar conductivity
is
a) b)
c) d)
Question No: 18
Two solutions containing and containing are separated by
semipermeable membrane as shown below. If on reaction with , produces blue
colour of , the blue colour will be noticed in :

a)

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b)
c) In both and
d) Neither in nor in
Question No: 19
Which one of the following shows maximum value of paramagnetic behaviour?
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 20
When and are used in Friedel-Craft’s reaction, the electrophile is:
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 21
Ethylene di bromide on heating with metallic sodium in ether solution yields
a) Ethene b) Ethyene c) 2-butene d) 1-butene
Question No: 22
The name of the compound

a) (2Z,4Z)-2, 4-hexadiene b) (2Z-, 4E)-2, 4-hexadiene

c) (2E, 4Z)-2, 4-hexadiene d) (4E, 4Z)-2, 4-hexadiene
Question No: 23
If the ionization potential for hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then the ionization potential for ion
should be:
a) 72.2 eV b) 54.4 eV c) 6.8 eV d) 13.6 eV
Question No: 24
Value of in potash alum,
is
a) 4 b) 1 c) 2 d) None of these
Question No: 25
Observe the following statement
1. The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their electronic
configuration.
2. Electronegativity of fluorine is less than the electronegativity of chlorine.
3. Electropositive nature decreases from top to bottom in a group.
The correct answer is
a) I, II and III are correct b) Only I is correct
c) Only I and II is correct d) Only II and III are correct
Question No: 26
What is the normality of a solution to be used as an oxidant in acid medium, which contain
15.8 g of the compound in 100 mL of solution? Mol. wt. of is 158 :
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 27
The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt is at a given temperature.
What is the mass of (mol. Mass ) contained in solution at this temperature
is:

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a) b) c) d)
Question No: 28
The standard molar heat of formation of ethane, and water are respectively
and kcal. The standard molar heat of combustion of ethane will be
a) kcal b) 162 kcal c) kcal d) 183.5 kcal
Question No: 29
For one mole of a van der Waals’ gas when and the plot is shown
below. The value of the van der Waals’ constant is:

a) b) c) d)
Question No: 30
The work function for a metal is To emit a photoelectron of zero velocity from the surface of
the metal, the wavelength of incident light should be:
a) b) c) d)

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VERBAL & NON VERBAL REASONING INTELLIGENCE

Question No: 1
Find the missing character (?) in the following diagram.

(a) 4 (b) 305 (c) 343 (d) 729

Question No: 2
It was the end of performance review cycle for the year 2012, when you asked your subordinates about any
problems they were facing. Natraj told you that an important member of his team, Vardarajan, who has also
won the best performance award for the year 2011, was not taking interest in work. Despite Natraj’s
counselling, no change was noticed in Vardarajan, rather his attitude deteriorated. You had also received
such information from other employees. You had not interfered hoping that Natraj, an experienced hand,
would be able to solve the problem. But, now that Natraj himself brought this your notice, you decided to
call Vardarajan and counsel him.
Vardarajan did not find his work challenging enough, given below are some steps that could be taken to
motivate him.
I. Give Vardarajan a more challenging assignment
II. Transfer Vardarajan from projects department to training department
III. Ask him to take a vacation for 2 months.
IV. Send him for further training on decision making under stress
Which of the following combinations would be the most appropriate?
(a) I, II, III (b) I, III, IV
(c) I, IV (d) II, III, IV
Question No: 3
Ram cycled 10 km southward from his home, turned right and cycled 6 km, turned right cycled 10 km,
turned left and cycled 15 km. How many Kilometres will he have cycled to reach straight home?
(a) 10 km (b) 21 km
(c) 16 km (d) 20 km
Question No: 4
If 5th January, 1991 was Sunday, then what day of the week was it on 4th March 1992?
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday
(c) Friday (d) Sunday
Question No: 5
How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?
(a) 24 (b) 20
(c) 12 (d) 22
Question No: 6
Arti and Saurabh are the children of Mr and Mrs Shah. Ritu and Shaki are the children of Mr and Mrs
Mehra. Saurabh and Ritu are married to each other and two daughter Mukti and Shruti are born to them.
Shakti is married to Rina and two children Subhash and Reshma are born to them. How is Arti related to
Shruti?
(a) Mother (b) Mother-in-law
(c) Sister (d) Aunt

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Question No: 7
In the following question below contains three groups of items. Find out the correct relationship among the
three groups of items in the following question.
Asia, Delhi, India
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Question No: 8
In a college of 150 students and 30 teachers, there are 20% students and as many teachers who play cricket.
If the shaded portion represents the cricketers, then which of the following diagrams will most suitably
depicts situation?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Question No: 9
If ‘P’ means ‘+’, ‘Q’ means ‘x’, ‘T’ means ‘÷’ and ‘V’ means ‘-‘, find the value of
18 P 12 T 4 Q 8 V 10 =?
a) 42 b) 36
c) 32 d) None of these
Question No: 10
In the following question, which character when placed at the sign of interrogation (?) shall complete the
given pattern.

P C Z L T Q
M N ?

(a) O (b) C
(c) S (d) J
Question No: 11
Select the related letters/numbers from the given alternatives.
GJMP : FHJL :: FILO : ?
(a) EGKI (b) EGIK (c) GEIK (d) GEKI
Question No: 12
Write which number in the given sequence replaces the question mark (?).
197, 171, 147, 125, 105, ?
(a) 71 (b) 87 (c) 97 (d) 101
Question No: 13
In the following question, a letter is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters
are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative.
A_CC_AAB_CB_
(a) BCAB (b) BBCA (c) ABCA (d) AABC
Question No: 14
If ‘MERCURY’ is written as ‘FGIECAB’ in a code, how can ‘CURE’ be written in that code?
(a) GCFI (b) ECAB

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(c) ECAG (d) EAGC

Question No: 15
If DEMOCRATIC is written as ‘EDMORCATCI’ how will ‘CONTINUOUS’ be written in the same
code?
(a) OCTNNIOUSU (b) OTCNINUOUS
(c) OCNTINIUOSU (d) OTNCINUOSU
Question No: 16
If the 2nd half of the letters of the word ‘TRANSPORTATIONAL’ are reversed and placed before 1st half of the
letters, which letter will be the third to the right of the 13th letter from the right?
(a) R (b) N
(c) L (d) A
Question No: 17
If January 1 is a Friday, then what is the first day of the month of March in a leap year?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday
Question No: 18
In the following question, a group of four words are given. Choose the word which is odd.
(a) Tomato (b) Potato
(c) Rice (d) Rose
Question No: 19
In the following question, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in all pairs except one,
bear a certain common relationship. Choose the odd pair.
(a) Pistol : Gun (b) Knife : Dagger
(c) Engine : Train (d) Car : Bus
Question No: 20
Complete the given figure analogy by choosing the correct answer from the given alternatives

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ENGLISH

OBJECTIVE TYPE [ Marks:0X0 = 0]

Question No: 1
Choose the part of sentence with the error and select as your answer. If there is no error, select No
error(s) as your answer
(a) Gratitude is one of the more essential virtues (b) inner prosperity and happiness,
for real because it
(c) can connect us to the Divine. (d) No error
Question No: 2
In the question below, a part of the sentence is in bold. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed your answer is (d)
One day a wounderful plate of gold fell into the courtyard of a temple from
Heaven at Banaras.
(a) One day at Banaras a wonderful plate of gold (b) One day fell into the courtyard
fell into the courtyard from Heaven of a of a temple at Banaras a
temple wonderful plate of gold from
Heaven
(c) One day a wonderful plate of gold fell from (d) No improvement
Heaven into the courtyard of a temple at
Banaras
Question No: 3
In the following question, the sentences have been given in Active/Passive Voice. From the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
Then her face was bowed.
(a) Then she bowed her face. (b) Then her face has been bowed.
(c) Then she was being bowed. (d) Her face was bowed by then.
Question No: 4
Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives
Corruption is a standing hindrance _________ the nation’s development.
(a) of (b) over
(c) to (d) upon
Question No: 5
In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
MISTAKE
(a) precise (b) error
(c) accurate (d) mistook
Question No: 6
Select the antonym of
CONTROVERSY
(a) argument (b) difference
(c) agreement (d) quarrel
Question No: 7
In the question, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence.
Animals that can live on land and in water
(a) anthropoids (b) aquatics

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(c) amphibians (d) aquarians

Question No: 8
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses
the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Scot-free
(a) to escape from captivity (b) be free of all responsi-bilities
(c) to get something unexpe-cted (d) without suffering any punishment or injury
Question No: 9
In the question, four words are given out of which only one is misspelt/correctly spelt. Find that mis-
spelt/correctly spelt word.
(a) acoustic (b) norcoctic
(c) pesimist (d) permantant
Question No: 10
In the question, the 1st and the last sentence of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the
passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their
proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. The man who does his duty without any selfish desire for fruit may be called a sanyasi as well as
yogi
P. The man who has achieved much evenness of temper will be serene, because his mere thoughts
are changed with the strength of action.
Q. He would practice yoga, i.e., evenness of temper, and can not but perform action.
R. The root of the matter is that one should not allow his mind to flit from object of desire to another
and from that to a third.
S. But he who abstains from action altogether is only an idler.
6. A yogi is one who is not attached to is objects of sense or to action and whose mind has ceased to
roam restlessly.
(a) SRQP (b) RQPS
(c) QRSP (d) PRSQ

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MATHEMATICS

Question No: 1
A spherical iron ball of radius 10 cm, coated with a layer of ice of uniform thickness, melts at a rate
of 100 .The rate at which the thickness of decreases when the thickness of ice is 5 cm,
is
a) 1cm/min b) 2 cm/min d) 5 cm/min
c)

Question No: 2
If then the value of is
a) 1
b) c) d)

Question No: 3

If , then the value of is equal to

a) 1 b) c) 0 d) None of these
Question No: 4

The determinant vanishes, if

d) Both (b) or ( c)
a) are in AP b) c) are in GP

Question No: 5
If , then
a) is not differentiable at
b) is continuous at

c)

d) is periodic with period

Question No: 6
If and , then the function

a) Is not continuous at
b) Has a limit when and it is equal to
c) Is continuous at
d) Has a limit when but it is not equal to
Question No: 7

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If , then is equal to
a) 1 b) c) d) None of these
Question No: 8
If , then

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 9
is equal to
c) 0
a) b) d)

Question No: 10
The equation of the tangent to the curve is
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 11
Matrix A is such that where is the indentity matrix, then for
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 12
The area of the region bounded by and is
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 13
The figure shows a and the parabola The ratio of the area of the to the area
of the region of the parabola is equal to

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 14

The order and degree of the differential equation are

a) b) c) d)
Question No: 15
The differential equation whose solution is is ( is a constant)

a)

b)

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c)

d) None of these
Question No: 16
is an isosceles triangle if the coordinates of the base are and , the
coordinates of vertex can be

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 17

a) b) c) d) None of these

Question No: 18
If the projection of the vector is and if , then the angle between
is

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 19
The angle between the line and the plane is equal to

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 20
The direction cosines of a line equally inclined to three mutually perpendicular lines having
direction cosines as are
a)

b)

c)

d) None of these
Question No: 21
The sum of the series upto term is

a) b)

c) d)

Question No: 22
The period of

a) b) c) d) None of these
Question No: 23

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If then the value of

is
a) 0 b) 1 c) d) None of these
Question No: 24
The equation for has
a) One solution b) Two sets of solution c) Four sets of solution d) No solution
Question No: 25
If the equation is satisfied values of , then

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 26
If , then is equal to
a) b) c) d) None of these
Question No: 27
Sixteen men compete with one another in running swimming and riding. How many prize lists could
be made if there were altogether 6 prizes of different values, one for running, 2 for swimming and 3
for riding?
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 28
If , then is equal to
a) 34 b) 35 c) 36 d) 37
Question No: 29

Then which one of the following holds for all , by the

principle of mathematical induction?
a) b)
c) d)
Question No: 30
If the sum of 12th and 22nd terms of an AP is 100, then the sum of the first 33 terms of the AP is
a) b) 1650 c) 3300 d) 3400
Question No: 31
In a set of ants in a locality, two ants are said to be related iff they walk on a same straight line,
then the relation is
a) Reflexive and symmetric
b) Symmetric and transitive
c) Reflexive and transitive
d) Equivalence
Question No: 32
A line passes through the point of intersection of the lines and
and makes equal intercept on the axes. Its equation is
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 33
The angle between the tangent drawn from the point (1, 4) to the parabola is

a) b) c) d)

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Question No: 34
If the tangent at any point on the ellipse meets the tangents at the ends and
of minor axis at and respectively, then
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 35

The value of the constant and such that are respectively

a) (1, 1) b) (-1, 1) c) (1, -1) d) (0, 1)

Question No: 36
is logically equivalent to
a) b) c) d)
Question No: 37
1. Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101,102,….,200 and another population B has 100
observations 151,152,….,250 if and represent the variances of the two populations
respectively, then is

a) b) c) d) 1

Question No: 38
If is

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 39
For a party 8 guests are invited by a husband and his wife. They sit for a dinner around a round
table. The probability that the husband and his wife sit together, is

a) b) c) d)

Question No: 40

adj then [ ] is equal to

a) [-4 1] b) [-4 -1] c) [4 1] d) [4 -1]

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