VIETNAM NATIONAL UNIVERSITY - HCM

UNIVERSITY OF SOCIAL SCIENCES AND HUMANITIES

FACULTY OF ENGLISH LINGUISTICS AND LITERATURE

TESOL CERTIFICATE PROGRAM

AMERICAN ENGLISH FILE - ACHIEVEMENT TEST

1. Project title: Language Assessment Final Project
2. Coursebook: Upper-Intermediate American English File 4, second edition (Christina
Latham-Koenig Clive Oxenden)
3. Course level: B2- CEFR (Upper-Intermediate)
4. Instructor name: M.A. Dang Thi Van Di
5. Group number: 5
6. Group members:
● Nguyễn Ngọc Lan Tường
● Nguyễn Thị Kim Chi
● Lê Thị Phương Khanh
● Phạm Thị Kim Tuyền
7. Test purpose:
● To evaluate how much students have learned during the course
● To investigate which areas the teacher and learner need to improve
8. Test Type: Achievement test
9. Description of:
A. Book:
With texts and topics that make learners want to speak, American English File is
the course that gets students talking. It gives you full skills coverage with a clear
focus on pronunciation, plus wide-ranging support and resources too. The book
retains the popular methodology developed by world-renowned authors Christina

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 Latham-Koenig and Clive Oxenden: language + motivation = opportunity. With
grammar, vocabulary, and pronunciation practice in every lesson, students are
equipped with a solid foundation for successful speaking.
B. Students:
This book is suitable for adults at upper-intermediate level who are mature enough
to understand the world’s issues mentioned in the book.
C. Course
The aim of the course is to provide students with grammar, vocabulary,
pronunciation as well as to help them develop the four skills so that students can
apply them in real-life situations.
10. Content/Topic: Unit 1-10

Unit 1: Unit 6:
- A: Questions and answers - A: Music and emotion
- B: Do you believe in it? - B: Sleeping Beauty
Unit 2: Unit 7:
- A: Call the doctor! - A: Don’t argue
- B: Older and wiser - B: Actors’ acting
Unit 3: Unit 8:
- A: The truth about air travel - A: Beat the robbers and the
- B: Incredibly short stories burglars
Unit 4: - B: Breaking news
- A: Eco-guilt Unit 9:
- B: Are you a risk taker? - A: Truth and Lies
Unit 5: - B: Megacities
- A: The survivors’s club Unit 10:
- B: It drives me crazy! - A: The dark side of the moon
- B: The power of words

Table of contents list in textbook

2
11. Language Skills and Language Focus:
• Reading • Vocabulary
• Listening • Grammar
• Speaking • Pronunciation
• Writing
The final test is divided into 5 sections with the total points of 20 for each, including:
1. Vocabulary - Grammar section
2. Reading Comprehension section
3. Writing section
4. Listening section
5. Speaking section
The reason why our group decided to divide the final test into 5 sections is that the
students will be able to reflect on their skills better if they can take 5 separate sections.
In other words, if the final test is in the format of 1 long test only with the total points of
10, the students will not know which part of the test they did poorly. Therefore, with the
5 separate grades from separate tests, the students will know which skills they need to
improve based on the grades they get.

The students do the 5 sections in the order stated above. The Speaking section is often a
difficult one for language learners, so the students will do this test last. The Listening
section will take place before the Speaking section. This will help the students to prepare
better for the Speaking section because the speaking skills are directly involved with the
listening skills. As for the other 3 sections, the students will do the Vocabulary &
Grammar first as this is easier than the other one then the Reading Comprehension
section, followed by the Writing section. This is also a good preparation for the students
in reviewing vocabulary and grammar before writing a text. Besides, there is an interval
between every two sections. After that, the students will do the Listening section. Finally,
the test ends with the Speaking section.

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At first, we intended to design the final test into 5 sections, with the first section divided
into Vocabulary - Grammar test and Pronunciation test. However, considering the fact
that pronunciation is more related to listening and speaking skills, we decided to omit the
pronunciation test section. Besides, evaluating pronunciation through listening and
speaking skills is much easier and more accurate than taking a paper test. On the one
hand, students must recognize the correct pronunciation of a certain word to determine
the meaning of the word, thereby understand what they are listening to and do the tasks
correctly. On the other hand, students need to produce correct sounds, intonations, word
stress, etc. in their speaking tasks in order to convey their ideas and get high scores.

Initially, we plan to distribute equally with each task in each section covering different
units without using the units twice. However, after considering the fact that unit 1 does
not consist of a certain topic, making it difficult to design a test, this leads us to design a
prompt in the Writing section based on Unit 6, part A: Music and Emotions once more,
which is already covered in the Reading section - task 3.

The test specifications and test paper with answer keys / scoring rubrics of each sections
are presented below in the order stated above

Below is the table of an overview of the test tasks in each of the 5 sections:

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 Vocabulary + Reading Writing Listening Speaking
Grammar

Learning ● Recognize the ● Determine the ● Recognize the ● Identify main ● Apply appropriate
outcomes vocabulary and meaning of format, features, ideas and vocabulary, structure
grammar points vocabulary in texts language, and details in the and the learned
learned in the level B2 by using structures of each audios. pronunciation in the
textbook level B2. context clues. type of writing in ● Take note of course to
● Apply the ● Identify main ideas level B2. specific communicate with a
vocabulary of topics in written texts at ● Develop writing information. partner, discuss in a
covered in the 10 level B2 through skills in informal group or express
units (Illness and skimming. email, short story, ideas individually
Injuries, Clothes and ● Determine specific for and against about the following
Fashion, Air travel, information in essay, article topics (Illness and
The Environment, written texts level giving advice, Injuries, Clothes and
Weather, Feeling, B2 through picture Fashion, Air travel,
Music, Sleep, Body, scanning. description, The Environment,
Crime and opinion essay Weather, Feeling,
Punishment, Media, (agree or Music, Sleep, Body,
Advertising, disagree) and Crime and

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 Business and report. Punishment, Media,
Science) in reading ● Apply features, Advertising, Business
and writing. language and and Science) in level
● Produce the correct structures of each B2 for daily
grammatical points type of writing in conversation and
covered in the book in completing a real-life situations.
written and oral forms writing task.
● Use grammar points
correctly (quantifiers,
article, the…. the, so/
such.. that, countable
and uncountable
nouns, If clause type
zero, first, second,
mix, Wish + would,
Past perfect
continuous, Future
perfect, Future
continuous, gerund/
infinitive, past model,

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 used to//be used to,
passive, would
rather, reported
speech, causative
passive (have/ get)

Skills ● Reading ● Reading ● Writing ● Listening for ● Speaking

● Writing comprehension ● Reading main ideas ● Listening
● Speaking ● Writing comprehension ● Listening for comprehension
● Listening details
● Vocab, Grammar ● Listening
comprehensi
on

Level B2- CEFR (Upper-Intermediate)

Time 25 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes 35 minutes 6-8 minutes/student

Allotted

No. of 6 3 1 4 2
parts/tasks

7
No. of items 40 20 1 28 4

Source ● American English ● Reading Articles, ● 1st prompt: Good ● Cambridge, FCE ● Picture bank:
File 4, 2nd edition, pp Absolute English, Luck TOEFL Listening Test 1 All the pictures used in
152-163, Oxford “Why you TOEFL Essay Part 4 this task are taken from
University Press 2014 shouldn't be afraid Question Types – ● British Council - the internet (Google
● English Dictionaries: of flying!”, Agree or A lecture about Images)
Cambridge ● Mini-ielts Reading Disagree, writing an experiment ● Question bank:
Dictionary, Longman Practice Tests, The topic no. 23 ● Cambridge, Illness: IELTS Speaking
Dictionary of Muscles in Our ● 2nd prompt: CAE (Advanced Questions (Part 3
Contemporary Body writing9.com Exam) Listening Topic – Health
English, Oxford ● B1/B2 Multi Level IELTS Writing Test 4 Part 4 Advertising IELTS
Learners’ Dictionary, Exam Sample Samples by topic ● Cambridge, Speaking Part 3:
Sentence Tasks for Reading ● Rubric: CAE (Advanced Advertisements
Yourdictionary Comprehension, pp Cambridge Exam) Listening Media IELTS Mentor
dictionaries, ets. 3-4, Richmond, Assessment Test 2 "IELTS Preparation
● British Council, UIC Barcelona The English level B2 & Sample Answer",
Solution textbook Importance of Assessing writing Discussion Topic
Level B2. Music in Schools for Cambridge Environment IELTS
English Speaking Part 3

8
 Qualifications: A Questions – The
guide for teachers Environment
● Rubric: Cambridge
English
Qualifications level
B2 Assessing
Speaking
Performance – Level
B2

Test ● Part 1: ● Task 1: - Task: Write an - Task 1: ● Task 1: Picture-

Components Vocabulary (10 True/False (3 essay (20 pts) True/False cue Description
pts) pts) (Unit 8A) (Units 6A, 8A) (self-designed) (8 pts) (Units 2A,
- Task 1: Multiple - 6 items - 1 item (1.75 pts) (Unit 4A, 8B, 9A)
Choice (3 pts) - 1 correct answer - 20 pts 2B) - 2 items
(All 10 units) = 0.5 pts - 7 items - 8 pts
+ 10 items - 1 correct
+ 1 correct answer = ● Task 2: answer = ● Task 2: Follow-
0.4 pts Multiple Choice 0.25 pts up questions (12
(self-designed pts) (Units 2A, 4A,
- Task 2: Sentence adjustments) (8 ● Task 2:

9
 completion (3 pts) (Unit 7B) Multiple 8B, 9A)
pts) (4 units: 1B, - 8 items Choice (4.5 - 3 items
4B, 7A, 10B ) - 1 correct answer pts) (Unit - 12 pts
+ 5 items = 1 pt 10A)
+ 1 correct answer = - 9 items
0.6 pts ● Task 3: Short - 1 correct
- Task 3: Word answer (9 pts) answer = 0.5
form (4 pts) (Unit 6A) pts
(3 units: 3B, 5B, - 6 items
9B) - 1 correct answer ● Task 3:
+ 5 items = 1.5 pts Matching (5
+ 1 correct answer = pts) (Unit
0.8 pts 6B)
● Part 2: Grammar - 5 items
(10 pts) - 1 correct
- Task 1: Multiple answer = 1 pt
Choice (2.5 pts)
(Units 1B, 2B, 3A, ● Task 4:
4B, 5A, 5B, 9B, Gap-filling
10A, 10B) (8.75 pts)

10
 + 10 items (Unit 5A)
+ 1 correct answer = - 7 items
0.25 pts - 1 correct
answer =
- Task 2: Verb 1.25 pts
form (2.5 pts)
(Units 3A, 4A, 6A,
7A)
+ 5 items
+ 1 correct answer =
0.5 pts

- Task 3: Sentence
transformation (5
pts) (Units 6B,
7A, 8A, 8B)
+ 5 items
+ 1 correct answer =
1 pt

Explanation ● The section involves ● The section involves ● The section aims ● The section ● The section aims to

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 and vocabulary and three units (Air to assess how well involves four assess students’
description grammar in 10 units travel, Body, Music) the students apply units (Science, ability to express
of the textbook. in the book with the formal language, Fashion, Sleep, their ideas clearly
● Most of the test types focus on two organize ideas and Feeling) in the and respond quickly
chosen are similar to different skills of explain their point book with the to the questions given
those in the reading: Reading for of views and focus on two by the examiner.
textbook; therefore, skimming and supporting ideas in different skills of ● The section is
the students are quite Reading for their writing. listening: conducted in the
well-familiar with scanning. ● The test follows Listening for format of individual
these test types. ● Most of the test the type of writing details and response for both
● The section is types chosen are task in Unit 7, Listening for task 1 and 2, so that
divided into 2 parts: similar to those in page 77, 118 - main ideas. the test takers can
First part: Vocabulary the textbook; Writing Skills, ● Most of the test produce longer
● Task 1 & Task 2 are therefore, the where the students types chosen are performances, which
aimed to test whether students are quite are introduced to similar to those is easier for
the students can well-familiar with the useful in the textbook; assessing.
recognize and apply these test types. expressions of therefore, the
vocabulary or not by - Task 1 is designed giving opinions students are
choosing the correct to test student’s and giving quite well- ● Task 1:
answers. ability in reading for examples. familiar with + The pictures used

12
- Task 1: scanning by asking Therefore, the these test types. in this part were
Items 1- 10: Multiple students to read and students are quite ● Task 1 & 2 are chosen according to
Choice: find specific well-familiar with designed to test the textbook’s
+ The vocabulary information then it. student’s ability topics, which are
items in the textbook decide whether the ● The opinion essay in listening for Environment;
are chosen and statements are true is selected for a details by asking Media; Illness and
rewritten into or false. number of reasons. students to listen Injuries;
multiple choice - Task 2 is designed - Firstly, the for reasons, Advertising and
options. to test student’s content of the numbers, dates, business. Each
+ Items 1- 10 are ability in reading for book is mainly years etc. topic consists of 2
created by taking the scanning and about teaching ● Task 3 is pictures and the
keywords and skimming by how to write designed to test students will be
distractors from the providing items with paragraphs and student’s ability asked to describe
textbook and the multiple options to introducing the in listening for one of the pictures
stems are extracted choose. structures for gist by providing randomly.
from the Cambridge, - Task 3 is designed writing a full test takers with + The task is used to
Oxford, Longman to test student’s essay. Specifically, five short test the students’
and sentence ability in reading among 7 writing extracts in which memory of
dictionaries, British for scanning and sections of the people are vocabulary of
Council, Solution skimming by textbook, exercises talking about certain topics

13
 textbook Level B2. asking students to requiring writing falling asleep in covered in the
+ The vocabulary write the correct paragraphs appear a public place textbook as well as
items have been answers within 5 6 out 7 times. and asking them the ability to apply
checked to ensure words from the text Therefore, they are to match the simple grammatical
that their level is to fit the slightly- the main focus of reason each forms and
equivalent to the changed sentences this textbook. speaker gives for expressions in
expected level of that have the - Moreover, writing falling asleep in describing a picture
students after information taken paragraphs, the place they in detail. Moreover,
learning the from the text. especially writing did. students are also
coursebook. an essay, is vital ● Task 4 is tested on the ability
- Task 2: Item 11-15: when studying at a designed to test to process
Gap filling higher level, which student’s ability information
+ The task is aimed is advanced. in combination through provided
to test whether the ● The topics of of two subskills: photos and produce
students can “Music” and Listening for descriptions.
recognize “Crime” are main ideas - by
vocabulary or not chosen because all understanding - Task 2:
by choosing the the other topics the paraphrased + The task is used to
correct answers have been covered items of the test students' ability
from the table. in other sections. speakers’ to discuss the topic

14
+ The stems are the + Prompt 1: In the sayings in the related to task 1 in a
dictionary context that access audio, and more general and
examples with the to the Internet is listening for abstract way as well
tested vocabulary widely available details - to hear as the ability to give
omitted. The and the outbreak and choose the their opinions and
distractors are of Covid-19, many suitable word to ideas, to analyze,
designed based on outdoor events fill in the gap. discuss and
the same level, the such as concerts, speculate about
same type of the festivals, etc are issues being
tested words. remarkably discussed in greater
- Task 3: Item 16- affected, hence depth.
20: Word form those events had to
+ The task is aimed resort to online
to test whether the plattform. This
students can topic is the most
recognize the parts appropriate for the
of speech or not current situation.
by filling the + Prompt 2: The
correct form of juvenile
words in the delinquency is

15
 bracket. alarming due to
+ The stems are the violence in video
dictionary games. This topic
examples with the is chosen in order
tested vocabulary to be on the alert
omitted. for parents and
society.
Second part: Grammar
● The task is aimed to
test whether the
students can
recognize and apply
grammatical points
or not by choosing
and writing the
correct answers.
- Task 1: Items 1-10:
Multiple choice.
+ The grammatical
points include:

16
 Quantifier + article;
The … the +
comparatives;
so/such… that;
countable/
uncountable nouns;
If clause: zero, first,
second, mix ; Wish;
Adjectives order.
- Task 2: Item 11-15:
Verb form
+ The grammatical
points include: Past
perfect continuous,
future perfect, future
continuous, gerund/
infinitive, past model
- Task 3: Item 16-20:
Sentence
transformation

17
 + The grammatical
points include: get
used to/ used to;
passive; would
rather; reported
speech, causative.

Weight Vocabulary ● True/False: 0.5 ● Write an ● True/False: The weighting of each

● Multiple Choice: pts/answer essay: 20 pts 0.15 task is divided into 8:12
0.4 pts/answer ⇒ This type of test ⇒ The weighting of pts/answer based on the difficulty
⇒ This type of test tasks tasks offers students this section is fully 20 ⇒ This type of test level of the items and the

offers students 25% of 50% of choosing the pts because there is tasks offers students complexity of skills
needed to answer the
choosing the correct correct answer, so it is only 1 task. 50% of choosing
questions.
answer, so it is less the easiest task of the correct answer,
● Task 1: Picture-cue
difficult in comparison so it is the easiest
the whole test. Description: 8pts
with the gap- filling (0.6
task of the whole ⇒ This section takes up
pts/answer)
● Multiple test. 40% (8 pts) of the total
Choice: 1
● Gap- filling: 0.6 speaking score for some
pts/answer
● Multiple
pts/answer reasons:
⇒ This type of test

18
⇒ This type of test tasks tasks offers students Choice: 0.5 - Firstly, this test task

offers students 12,5% of 25% of choosing the pts/answer only tests students’
⇒ This type of test ability to process the
choosing the correct correct answer, so it is
tasks offers students information shown in
answer, so it is more a little more difficult
the picture and then
difficult in comparison 25% of choosing
in comparison with the use the vocabulary,
with the MC. T/F task. the correct answer,
language expressions
● Word form: 0.6 so it is a little more and grammar points
pts/answer ● Short answer : difficult which they have
⇒ This type of test tasks 1.5 pts/answer
in comparison with learnt during the
are the most difficult of ⇒ This type of test whole course to
the T/F task.
the whole test. There tasks are the most describe. What
are no options for difficult of the whole ● Matching : 1 students need to do is

students to choose from, test. There are no pt/answer talk about what they
⇒ This type of test see in the picture.
students have to options for students to
tasks is more There’s no need for
discover the correct choose from. Students
further explanation or
more difficult than
form of the words, so it need to read the whole discussion of the
the MC task,
is more difficult in text and find words to issue in depth.
because it offers
comparison with the complete the answers. - Secondly, there are
students 12.5% of

19
MC and GF. The integrated skill set choosing the correct some questions

needed for this task is answer, so it is a which will be used to

little more difficult help the test takers in
not easy to achieve, so
Grammar in comparison with case that they cannot
they are more difficult
● Multiple Choice: the MC. say anything about
in comparison with the given picture.
0.25 pts/answer
⇒ This type of test tasks the two previous parts ● Gap-filling: This makes the task
since it requires them 1.25 become easier for
offers students 25% of
to write the correct pts/answer them because they
choosing the correct
⇒ This test task is just need to answer
answer, so it is less answers within 4
the most difficult of those questions to
difficult in comparison words from the text to
complete the task.
the whole test.
with verb form: 0.5 fit the slightly-
There are no
pts/answer changed ● Task 2: Follow-up
options for students questions: 12pts
sentences that have the
information taken from to choose from. ⇒ This section takes up
● Sentence
the text. The Gap Filling 60% (12 pts) of the total
transformation:
1pt/ answer. task requires them speaking score for some
⇒ There are no options to write the correct reasons:
for students to choose

20
from. Students need to word or phrase - Firstly, this part of
recognize structures and from the text to fit the test focuses on
apply structures the ability to express
the slightly-
correctly. This part is and justify opinions
changed
challenging because and to analyze,
students need time to sentences that have discuss the issues.
think about grammatical the information Test takers are
structures. taken from the text. required to have a
great understanding
about the given topic.
They need to convey
the ideas in a more
general way rather
than just talk about
their own opinions.
- Secondly, students
have to understand
the questions
completely,
brainstorm the ideas,

21
and produce a
depiction about a
topic clearly and
logically in order to
persuade the listeners
(examiner). The
integrated skill set
needed for this task is
not easy to achieve,
so they are more
difficult in
comparison with the
previous section.

22
Student’s name:................................................ Student’s ID:.............................
Class:.............................

TEST PAPER
ACHIEVEMENT TEST (UNIT 1 - UNIT 10)
SECTION 1: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
TIME ALLOTTED: 25 MINUTES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 34

Notes: Materials and dictionaries of all kinds are NOT allowed

Students write their answers on the ANSWER SHEET.

PART 1: VOCABULARY (10 points)

Task 1: Question 1 – 10 : Choose the word or phrase that best completes each of the
following sentences. The first has been done as an example.
(3 points- 0.3 points/correct answer)

Example: In about an hour I had terrible _______ , then I decided to take a bath.

A. dizzy B. diarrhea C. backache D. measles

The gap will be filled with “ diarrhea”, so on the ANSWER SHEET write B.

1. Teenagers like to _________ fashionably but their parents do not always think their
clothes are suitable.

A. wear B. cover C. clothe D. dress

2. Make sure you keep all your _________ documents safely.

A. trip B. journey C. travel D. voyage

23
 3. I was as _________ as a school kid passing a final.

A. inspired B. bewildered C. embarrassed D. relieved

4. She held the money tightly in her _________.

A. heel B. wrist C. fist D. hip

5. Children who experience primary _________ may develop anxiety related to not
being able to sleep.

A. insomnia B. nightmare C. sleepwalking D. snoring

6. Angelina Jolie has appeared on lists of the most beautiful people and is often
photographed by the _________.

A. reporters B. paparazzi C. editors D. newscasters

7. The _________ of that company is located on the conrner of Bui Vien Street
and De Tham Street.

A. locality B. manufacture C. headquarters D. resident

8. During the _________, the climate is very damp. Thick clouds and mist envelop the
sky for many days together.

A. monsoon B. tsunami C. tornado D. hurricane

9. She sang regularly as a _________ in many choral works. She always handled the
highest notes expertly.

A. soprano B. mezzo C. conductor D. choir

10. An experienced _________ may recognize subtle differences in facial

characteristics.

A. chemist B. biologist C. geneticist D. physicist

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Task 2: Question 11 – 15 : Choose the most suitable word from the table below to
complete the sentence. There are THREE EXTRA words. The first has been done as an
example
(3 points- 0.6 points/ correct answer)

Example: The story takes _________ in the 18th century.

The gap will be filled with “place”, so on the ANSWER SHEET write place

laid-back two-face into off ends denied up prevented

11. I hope my teacher will take _________ account the fact that I was ill just before the
exams when she marks my paper. ⇒ (into) EXPRESSION WITH TAKE

12. I took _________ a position in a university library after a career break. ⇒ (up)
PHRASAL VERB
13. I took most of the big things to the new house, but there are a few odds and
_________ left to pick up. ⇒ (ends) WORD PAIR
14. She would go over the accident again and again in her mind, wishing that she could
somehow have _________ it. ⇒ (prevented) VERBS OFTEN CONFUSED
15. I've never seen her worried or anxious in any way - she's so _________.
⇒ (laid-back) COMPOUND ADJECTIVE

Task 3: Question 16-20: Complete the sentences with the correct form of the BOLD
word. The first has been done as an example. (4 points- 0.8 points/ correct answer)

Example: Parents of young children often become depressed, and this is _______ true
of single parents.
The gap will be filled with “especially”, so on the ANSWER SHEET write especially.

25
16. It was the students of the new schools who would _________ challenge the regime
they were educated to protect and maintain. (eventual) ⇒ (eventually) ADVERB
17. It is _________ to talk to someone who just looks out of the window. (infuriate)
⇒ (infuriating) ADJECTIVE-ING
18. She's _________ of him and won't make a statement until we've got him banged up
in the cells. (terrify) ⇒ (terrified) ADJECTIVE-ED
19. Measures must be taken to prevent confidential data from being _________ .(use)
⇒ (misused) PREFIXES

20. Half a million people held a mass protest against ______ last night. (race)

⇒ (racism) SUFFIXES

PART 2: GRAMMAR (10 points)

Task 1: Question 1-10: Choose the words that best completes each of the following
sentences. The first has been done as an example. (2.5 pts - 0.25 points/ correct answer)

Example: She decided to look for _____ job, although there were few opportunities in
her hometown.

A. another
B. the others
C. others
D. the other

The gap will be filled with “another”, so on the ANSWER SHEET write A

1. Many students think that _________ they graduate from university, _________
chance opportunities they have to find a good job.
A. the sooner / the better THE…THE COMPARATIVE
B. sooner / the better
26
 C. sooner / better
D. the soon/ the good
2. I still keep wondering if I was doing _________ right thing when I asked my father
for _________ permission to leave school.
A. a / Ø
B. the / Ø ARTICLE
C. the / a
D. Ø / a
3. My mathematics teacher is _________ person that all of us like his periods.
A. a such funny
B. a so funny
C. such funny
D. such a funny SUCH…THAT
4. On Saturday, my friend Paul went fishing and he caught _________. They are
salmon, skate and carp.
A. three fish
B. three fishes COUNTABLE NOUNS
C. three of fish
D. three of fishes
5. Citizens are permitted to operate automobiles if they _________ 18 or above years of
age and have obtained a driving license.
A. are ZERO CONDITIONAL
B. have been
C. were
D. will be
6. If I have free time, I _________ some shopping with you.
A. did
B. will do FIRST CONDITIONAL
C. would do
D. have done
27
7. That's an interesting job offer - I'd give it some serious consideration if I _________
you.
A. were SECOND CONDITIONAL
B. am
C. will be
D. was

8. If I _________ English at university, I _________ more job opportunities now.

A. had taken / would have had
B. took / would have
C. had taken / would have MIX CONDITIONAL
D. took / would have had
9. I wish that my neighbors _________ quiet. I can’t concentrate on my work.
A. would be WISH
B. are
C. had been
D. should be
10. I’d give anything to have a look at the _________ world.
A. modern intriguing wizard British
B. intriguing British modern wizard
C. modern British intriguing wizard
11. D. intriguing modern British wizard ADJECTIVE ORDER

Task 2: Question 11-15: Complete the sentences with the correct form of the BOLD
verb. The first has been done as an example. (2.5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer)

Example: Please remind me ____Uncle Alan this evening. (PHONE)

The gap will be filled with “to phone”, so on the ANSWER SHEET write to phone.

28
11. It _________ and the ground was still wet. (RAIN) ⇒ had been raining

PAST PERFECT CONTINUOUS

12. At 8 o’clock this evening my friends and I _________ a famous film at the cinema.
(WATCH) ⇒ will be watching FUTURE CONTINUOUS

13. I should _________ he would be late. He’s never on time! (KNOW) ⇒ should have
known PAST MODALS

14. Ms.Snow expects _________ about any changes to her manuscript before it is
published. (CONSULT) ⇒ to be consulted GERUND/INFINITIVE

15. _________ he _________ the message by the time your flight takes off?
(HE/RECEIVE) ⇒ Will he have received FUTURE PAST PERFECT

Task 3: Question 16-20: Sentence transformation: Complete each second sentence so

that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE
WORDS. The first has been done as an example.
(5 points - 1 point/ correct answer)

Example: I haven't watched television for ages.

⇒ It's _________ _________ _________ _________ since I watched television.

The gap will be filled with “been a long time”, so on the ANSWER SHEET write “been
a long time”.

16. There was a time when my dad worked on a farm but he’s retired now.

⇒ My dad used _________ _________ on a farm.

⇒ My dad used to work on a farm.

29
17. It is now believed that the Earth and the moon were formed at the same time.

⇒ The Earth and the moon are believed _________ _________ _________
_________ at the same time.

⇒ The Earth and the moon are believed to have been formed at the same time.

18. “I’ve been waiting here for an hour!”, said Melissa.

⇒ Melissa complained that _________ _________ _________ _________

_________ for an hour.

⇒ Melissa complained that she had been waiting there for an hour.

19. It’s a pity Jack didn’t tell us three weeks ago instead of today.

⇒ We would rather _________ _________ _________ us three weeks ago instead

of today.

⇒ We would rather Jack had told us three weeks ago instead of today.

20. My uncle had deleted all the viruses on my computer before I used it.

⇒ I had _________ _________ _________ _________ all the viruses before I used
it.

⇒ I had had my computer deleted all the viruses before I used it.

30
 SECTION 2: READING COMPREHENSION
TIME ALLOTTED: 60 MINUTES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 34

Task 1. Question 1-6. Read the article below and decide whether the following
statements are true or false. Write T for True and F for False on your answer sheet.
(3 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer)

Are you afraid of flying?

Many people are afraid of flying in airplanes, but they shouldn’t be. Flying is actually
one of the safest ways to travel. In fact, when measured per mile, flying is actually far
safer than driving, or travelling by train.

Not only is flying the safest mode of transport, but it is also the fastest. Just a hundred
years ago if you wanted to travel from China to the United States, you would have to
travel by boat for many weeks. Now, you can get there in less than 24 hours. Airplanes
are also quite comfortable, and often offer in-flight entertainment, such as movies. This
helps explain why travelling by plane is now the preferred choice for long distance
journeys.

Of course, that doesn’t stop some people from being afraid of flying. The idea of
hurtling through the atmosphere at hundreds of miles per hour can be intimidating for
many. One of the main reasons that people are afraid to fly is that passengers lack any
control over the airplane, and have to place their trust in the hands of the pilots. Many
people would prefer to remain in control!

“Really?”, you ask.

Comparing the number of deaths caused by cars, trains, and airplanes is very difficult.
Many more people drive than fly. The easiest way to compare deaths is per billion
kilometers. This means, how many people will die per billion kilometers travelled?
31
Motorcycles, for example, are very dangerous and 108.9 people will die per every billion
kilometers traveled. Cars are less dangerous, with 3.1 people dying per billion
kilometers.

Trains are quite safe, with only 0.6 people dying per billion kilometers traveled. Subway
and metro rails are even safer, with only 0.24 people dying per billion kilometers
traveled. Do you know what’s even safer? Air travel! Only 0.05 people were killed per
billion kilometers. This is far lower than most other forms of transportation.

Commercial flying is especially safe. When a commercial aircraft crashes, it gets a lot of
attention. Sometimes, hundreds of people can die in a single crash. Yet part of the reason
these crashes get so much attention is because they are so rare. In fact, aviation accidents
involving civilian aircraft carrying 19 or more people have actually declined over the
years. In 1972, there were more than 40 accidents. In 2014, there were fewer than ten.
This is especially reassuring given that there are far more people flying now than there
were in 1972. Most crashes that do occur actually involve smaller personal planes,
which lack the advanced features found in modern commercial aircraft.

Another reason people fear flying is “terrorist attacks”. Terrorist attacks are extremely
rare, however. You are far more likely to die of the common flu, than you are to die
from a terrorist attack. Furthermore, increased security at airports and on airplanes
makes it even less likely that a terrorist attack will bring down an airplane.

The safest place to be.

When it comes to traveling, flying is arguably the safest, fastest, and most comfortable
way to travel. While the concept may seem scary, the modern aviation industry takes
safety very seriously and modern aircraft are now extremely safe. You would be more
likely to die travelling by bicycle or even on foot.

So don’t worry!
As the pilot says, “sit back, relax and enjoy your flight!”

32
 Source: https://absolute-english.com/articles-in-english-flying/

1. Motorcycles are the most dangerous form of travel. _________ ⇒ T

2. Travelling by car is more dangerous than travelling by plane, but safer than
travelling by train. _________ ⇒ F
3. Subways and metro rails are the second safest mode of transportation after air travel.
_________ ⇒ T
4. There have been more commercial aircraft crashes in recent years than in the past.
_________ ⇒ F
5. You are less likely to die of a terrorist attack than you are to die of the common flu.
_________ ⇒ T

6. You are less likely to die on a bicycle or on foot than flying. _________ ⇒ F

Task 2: Question 7-14: Read the passage below and choose the correct letter A, B, C,
or D. Write the letter on the answer sheet. (8 points - 1 point/ correct answer)

The Muscles in Our Body

Our human body is made up of many muscles. All these muscles work together to help
you move. They form the muscle system. 650 muscles are wrapped around your bones.
They basically cover the bones like a blanket. Muscles are fastened to the bones by
tough bands. These bands are called tendons. When you move your finger, your tendons
will be visible. Moving your fingers back and forth makes your tendons move.

These muscles around the bone must be told when to move. They are controlled by your
thinking. A message is sent to the brain whenever you desire to walk, talk or smile..
Your brain picks up the message. It receives it and processes it. Then it sends out an
electrical signal through the nerves. The nerves make connections until the signal

33
reaches the proper muscle. This signal tells a muscle what it has to do. The muscle
simply does exactly what the brain tells it to do. Numerous muscles are engaged as you
jump to provide assistance to you.

Muscles work by contracting. They shorten and pull the bone to move the body. They
always pull and never push. Muscles work in pairs. One muscle pulls, while the other
relaxes. Then they switch around. For instance, when you move your forearm, you use
one pair of muscles. The muscles on the inside of your arm are the biceps. It contracts to
make you bend your arm. The muscle on the outside is the triceps. It relaxes when you
bend your arm. If you want to straighten your arm, the muscles switch roles. The biceps
relax, whereas the triceps contract. The biceps and triceps are long and thread-like. The
longest muscle, the sartorius, helps you cross your legs. The shortest muscle is in your
ear.

However, you cannot control all your muscles. Some muscles work without you thinking
about them. This is the case with your heart muscle. Heart muscles are stripped and oval
in shape. They are extremely powerful and pump your heart. Your body's blood starts to
circulate due to this pumping action. As well, the stomach muscle mixes food around in
your stomach. Then it pushes the food through your intestines and into the blood system.
Stomach muscles are short and have pointed ends.

Muscles work all the time. They even work when you are fast asleep. They keep your
body firm and strong. Therefore, it is important to be in good shape. Your muscles
remain powerful as long as you maintain your health. One thing that muscles need is
good food. Muscles develop when they have protein. Milk, eggs, red meat, fish and
beans are rich in protein. A healthy diet includes these food types. Muscles also need to
be exercised to remain firm and toned. Regular exercise increases muscle mass,
strengthens the heart and lungs, and increases flexibility.. Good ways to exercise are
walking, swimming, cycling, dancing or playing soccer. These activities improve your
stamina. Should you have good stamina, you can keep going for a long time without
getting fatigued.

34
 Source: https://mini-ielts.com/966/print/reading/the-muscles-in-our-body

7. What is the topic of paragraph 1?

A. Muscles
B. The muscle system
C. Bones
D. Tendons

8. In what order do the following happen?

A. Processed message, nerve connection, electric signal, execution
B. Execution, electric signal, nerve connection, processed message
C. Execution, nerve connection, electric signal, processed message
D. Processed message, electric signal, nerve connection, execution

9. Choose the right word below to fill in the blank. “Muscles work by _________."
A. Shorten
B. Squeezing
C. Pushing
D. Relaxing

10. What happens after the biceps contracts?

A. The triceps contracts.
B. The arm straightens.
C. The arm bends.
D. The muscles switch around.

11. What is true about the heart muscle?

A. It is the most powerful muscle in the whole body.
B. It helps you move food into the blood.
C. It looks different than other muscles.
D. It is controlled by your brain.
35
12. What does the author think about regular swimming?
A. It is better than walking or dancing.
B. It is not as good as playing soccer.
C. It makes you stronger and more flexible.
D. It helps you to keep going for a long time without getting tired.

13. All of the following sentences are true EXCEPT:

A. The muscles stop functioning while you are sleeping.
B. Pairs of muscles cooperate and swap roles respectively.
C. Tendons help to connect muscles and the bones.
D. Your ear contains the shortest muscle.

14. What are two things muscles need to stay strong?

A. Protein and a full sleep cycle .
B. Plenty of food and a full sleep cycle.
C. Regular exercise and protein
D. Plenty of food and regular exercise.

Task 3: Question 15-20: Read the text below and complete the sentences using exact
words in the passage. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Write your answers on
the answer sheet. (9 points - 1.25 points/ correct answer)

The Importance of Music in Schools

"Music helps the mind develop and grow," my dad often says, and I have found
this to be very true. It is a proven fact that participating in a music program in school
will help develop your brain to a higher level and faster than other students. Music
actually improves communication between the right and left sides of the brain, allowing
you to gain better comprehension and memorization skills.
36
 So, why do we need music in our schools? Well, because music is everything.
Music is science. It is exact and demands acoustics. The conductor's score is a
graph that contains volume changes, melody and harmony, all the while keeping the
group at a constant pace.
Music is math. It is based on the rhythmic subdivisions of time, done in a split
second.
Music is history. The music you hear or play is usually an indication of the time and
environment in which it was created.
Music is physical education. It requires an immense amount of coordination of
fingers, hands, arms, lips, cheeks and facial muscles. Not to mention control of your
diaphragm, back, stomach and chest muscles to make sure every note comes out clearly
and in pitch.
Music is a foreign language. Its terms are usually in Italian and the music is not in
any language known to man. It is its own language and uses symbols to represent ideas.
Music is the universal language that everyone understands and can relate to.
Music is what brings everything together.
Most of all, music is art. It is the greatest form of art that allows a human to take
boring notes on a page, and transform them into an emotion and feeling you cannot
measure.
Music is just as important as all the classes you are required to take, and it is
critical that music classes remain in schools. Not only to provide a place for students to
belong, but also something that will help their minds grow and develop like no other
class.

Source: http://www.befriends.es/media/download/15838

37
15. Music has elements that change or stay the same, comparing it to…
_______________________science__________________________________

16. Music is a reflection of when it was composed, it can be related to…

_______________________history__________________________________

17. Sport and music both need a lot of…

_____________________ coordination of body parts __________________

18. Because music communicates ideas it can be compared to a…

______________________universal language _________________________

19. Musicians create art by reading…

______________________boring notes on a page _____________________

20. For many reasons, music lessons should…

______________________remain in school __________________________

38
 SECTION 3: WRITING
TIME ALLOTTED: 30 minutes NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 1

Choose one of the following topics and write a short essay (120-180 words) to express
your opinion. Write the number of the topic you choose on your answer sheet. (20
points)
1. Attending a live performance (for example, a play, concert, or sporting event) is
more enjoyable than watching the same event on television. Do you agree or
disagree with the following statement?

2. It is often thought that the increase in crime among teenagers is due to violence in
video games. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?

39
 SECTION 4: LISTENING
TIME ALLOTTED: 35 MINUTES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 28

Task 1: Question 1-7: Listen to the interview with Pamela Green, a young fashion
designer and decide whether the following statements are True or False. Write T for
True and F for False on your answer sheet. (1,75 points - 0,25 points/ correct answer)

Source:https://virtuaule.com/index.php?
option=com_content&view=article&id=419&catid=109&Itemid=679

1. Pamela made the decision to become a fashion designer after conducting research
into fashion. _________ (T)
2. Pamela says that owning a degree in fashion guarantees a better income.
_________ (F)
3. Pamela advises that it’s crucial to contact retailers first when launching your own
fashion label. _________ (F)
4. Pamela usually finds inspiration from her friends’ clothes. _________ (T)
5. Pamela finds the pressure of deadlines most difficult to deal with. _________ ( T)
6. Pamela suggests successful designers need to recognize all previous fashion
trends. _________ (T)
7. Pamela recommends those who want a career in fashion should learn from their
errors. _________ (F)

Task 2: Question 8-16: Listen to the lecture about a science experiment and choose the
correct letter A, B, or C. Write the letters on your answer sheet. (4,5 points- 0.5 points/
correct answer)

Source:https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/skills/listening/b2-listening/a-lecture-
about-an-experiment

8. The pitch drop experiment is …

40
 A. the oldest experiment in history.
B. the oldest experiment that is still running today.
C. the longest experiment in 1927.

9. The creator of the experiment wanted to …

A. have an experiment that lasted a long time.
B. show the dangers of everyday materials.
C. show that common substances have extraordinary properties.

10. Pitch is a substance …

A. that looks solid but is actually liquid.
B. that looks liquid but is actually solid.
C. that doesn’t appear to be liquid or solid.

11. The first time a drop of pitch fell was …

A. eight years after the experiment began.
B. three years after the experiment began.
C. forty years after the experiment began.

12. Which of the following sentences is not true about Professor John Mainstone?
A. He never saw the pitch drop.
B. He was responsible for the experiment for over fifty years.
C. He took over the experiment in 1927.

13. In the year 2000, …

A. an electricity failure meant the pitch drop was not filmed.
B. scientists set up a live stream of the experiment.
C. the ninth drop of pitch fell.

41
14. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. In Dublin, an experiment resembling Queensland's pitch drop was
conducted.
B. There have been nine drops in total falling from the funnel until February 2014.
C. Only a few people are able to witness the precious moment of pitch drop falling.

15. The word “properties” in paragraph 2, line 4, is closest meaning to:

A. Possessions
B. Characteristics
C. Outcomes

16. The passage answers which of the following sentences?

A. What is the oldest scientific experiment in the world that is still ongoing?
B. Why is there such a growing interest in the experiment among viewers?
C. When could the pitch drop experiment possibly be finished?

Task 3: Question 17-21: Listen to 5 short extracts in which people are talking about
falling asleep in a public place. Choose from the list A-E and match the correct letter
with each reason that speaker gives for falling asleep in the place they did. Write the
letters on your answer sheet. (5 points - 1point/ correct answer)

Source: https://virtuaule.com/index.php?
option=com_sppagebuilder&view=page&id=251&Itemid=1729

A. as a result of physical exertion 17. Speaker 1 _________ ⇒ B

B. to save money
18. Speaker 2 _________ ⇒ D
C. as preparation for physical activity
19. Speaker 3 _________ ⇒ A
D. as a result of some treatment
E. to avoid a long walk home 20. Speaker 4 _________ ⇒ C

21. Speaker 5 _________ ⇒ E

42
Task 4: Question 22-28: Listen to an interview with Diana McLeod about happiness at
work. Complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN 2 WORDS on your answer
sheet. (8,75 points - 1,25 points/ correct answer)

Source:https://virtuaule.com/index.php?
option=com_content&view=article&id=583&Itemid=817

22. In the survey various _________ were ranked according to how interesting people
felt they were. ⇒ careers

23. Apparently, teachers said they enjoyed being able to employ their _________.
⇒ creative skills

24. If there is _________, it’s almost impossible to enjoy your work. ⇒ job insecurity

25. The _________ of bullying in smaller companies is not as high as in bigger ones.
⇒ incidence

26. When you work for yourself, it can be difficult to separate work and leisure
_________. ⇒ boundaries

27. Being responsible for one’s own _________ is likely to make people happy.
⇒ destiny

28. In the long run, _________ can be reduced by financial incentives. ⇒ motivation

43
 SECTION 5: SPEAKING
TIME ALLOTTED: 6-8 MINS / STUDENT NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 4

The examiner:

- Greets the test takers

- Ask for their names, student ID
- Choose one of the following question banks to ask each of the test takers

44
TASK 1: PICTURE - CUE DESCRIPTION (8 points)

In this part, a color photograph is given to each test taker. Then he / she is asked to describe it for up to 2 minutes. The test
takers will describe people and places, saying where people and things are and what activities they are doing.

Question banks:

TOPIC PICTURES BACK-UP PROMPTS

THE MEDIA
1. Where are they in the photo?

2. Can you guess what the job of

the man wearing white T-shirt is?

3. What is he holding in his

hands?

4. What is he trying to do?

5. Do you think the woman in the

photo looks comfortable?

6. Do you think the woman is a

45
celebrity or famous person?

1. Can you guess what the job of

those people standing on the left
side of the picture is?

2. What are they holding in their

hands?

3. What are they trying to do?

4. Do you think the man wearing

sunglasses in the photo looks
comfortable?

5. Who is he holding in his arms?

6. Do you think he is a celebrity or

famous person?

46
ENVIRONMENT
1. Where are they in this photo?
2. What is the age of the people in
this picture?
3. What are they doing?
4. What are they holding in their
hands?
5. What do you think how they
feel?
6. Do you think their actions are
good or bad for the
environment?

47
1. Where are they in this photo?
2. What is the age of the people in
this picture?
3. What are they doing?
4. What are they holding in their
hands?
5. What do you think how they
feel?
6. Do you think their action is
good or bad for the
environment?

48
ADVERTISING 1. Where is the crowd in the
picture?
2. What kinds of advertisements
can you see in the picture?
3. Can you name any advertising
in the picture?
4. Are these advertisements
attractive?
5. Are there a lot of people in the
picture?
6. Where are the advertisements
being placed?

49
1. Which time of the day is the
picture in?
2. What kinds of advertisements
can you see in the picture?
3. Can you name any advertising
in the picture?
4. Are these advertisements
attractive?
5. Are there a lot of people in the
picture?
6. Where are the advertisements
being placed?

50
ILLNESSES 1. How many people are there in
the picture?
2. Where are they now?
3. What’s the matter with her?
4. What is the man doing?
5. What is he holding in his hands?
6. What is the relationship
between the man and the little
girl?

51
1. How many people are there in
the picture?
2. Where are they now?
3. What’s the matter with her?
4. What is the woman doing?
5. What is she holding in her
hands?
6. What is the relationship
between the woman and the
little boy?

52
TASK 2: FOLLOW-UP QUESTIONS (12 points) (approximately 4 minutes/
students)

In this part, the examiner will ask the test-takers up to 3 further questions related to the
topics and based on the picture they were asked in task 1.

Question banks:

A. MEDIA
1. Do you believe everything you read in the newspapers?
2. What are the advantages and disadvantages of people getting the news from the
internet?
3. Is it right when the newspapers report on a celebrities’ private life?
4. Do you think printed newspapers might disappear and be replaced by the
Internet in the future?
5. Is it easier to share news today than it was in the past?
B. ENVIRONMENT
1. What kinds of pollution are serious in your country?
2. What has been done so far to solve the environmental issues?
3. Do the old people have as much awareness of environmental problems as the
younger generation?
4. Is it important to teach students environmental protection at school?
5. What technological innovations should the world develop to protect the
environment?
C. ADVERTISING
1. What makes an advertisement effective?
2. Do you think advertising influences what people buy?
3. Is advertising really necessary in modern society?
4. Do you think that advertising should be strictly regulated?
5. What kinds of products are most often, most easily promoted by false
advertising?

53
D. IllNESS AND INJURIES
1. How would you treat somebody with a flu or a cold?
2. How can people be encouraged to stay healthy?
3. Do you think people start worrying more about their health as they become
older?
4. Do you think it’s easier to keep a healthy lifestyle now than in the past?
5. Why do you think some people continue bad habits when they know that they
are damaging to their health?

_____THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST_____

54
RUBRIC FOR WRITING

There are two reasons why this rubric is chosen for assessing the speaking test.
First and foremost, this rubric is authentic. It is taken from Cambridge Assessment
English which is responsible for developing the world's leading intensive exams for
English learners and teachers all around the world.
Moreover, the assessment criteria are suitable for the achievement test in terms of level
and format.

55
Frame of reference for Writing:

56
 RUBRIC FOR SPEAKING

There are two reasons why this rubric is chosen for assessing the speaking test.
First and foremost, this rubric is authentic. It is taken from Cambridge Assessment
English which is responsible for developing the world's leading intensive exams for
English learners and teachers all around the world.
Moreover, the assessment criteria are suitable for the achievement test in terms of level
and format.
The original rubric has 4 criteria including Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse
Management, Pronunciation and Interactive Communication. However, after
considering the fact that the speaking section is conducted in the format of individual
response, which excludes interaction with partners, we omit the 4th criterion -
Interactive Communication in our rubric.

57
Frame of reference for Speaking

58
12. Appendices:

AUDIO FILES FOR LISTENING

https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/
1WEMuszR8VchejO_4rPWw_8HsW95WyXZq?usp=sharing

TRANSCRIPT FOR LISTENING

TASK 1: SCIENCE

In today’s lecture we’re going to be talking about experiments, and I thought it might
be interesting for you all to learn about the world’s oldest continuously running
laboratory experiment that is still going today. In fact, it holds the Guinness World
Record for being the longest-running experiment. This experiment began in 1927 and
has been going ever since. It’s called the ‘pitch drop’ experiment and it was created by
Professor Thomas Parnell at the University of Queensland, Australia. Parnell was the
university’s first physics professor, and he wanted to show in this experiment that
everyday materials, such as pitch, can have quite surprising properties. You see, when
pitch is at room temperature, it feels solid. You can easily break it with a hammer.
However, it isn’t in fact solid. At room temperature, pitch is many billions of times
more viscous than water, but it’s actually fluid. In 1927, Professor Parnell took a
sample of pitch. He heated it and poured it into a glass funnel. He allowed the pitch to
cool and settle – for three years. He then turned the funnel upside down and cut the top
off it. Since then, the pitch has slowly dropped out of the funnel. How slowly? Well, the
first drop took eight years to fall. It took another forty years for another five drops to
fall. Today it’s been almost 90 years since the experiment started. Only nine drops have
fallen from the funnel. The last drop fell in April 2014 and the next one is expected to
fall in the 2020s. The experiment has a tragic story associated with it. Professor Parnell
died without seeing a pitch drop. His replacement, Professor John Mainstone, became
responsible for the pitch drop experiment from 1961. He held the job for 52 years, and
missed seeing the drop fall three times – by a day in 1977, by just five minutes in 1988

59
and finally in 2000, when the webcam that was recording the experiment suffered a
power outage for 20 minutes, during which time the pitch dropped. The pitch drop
experiment is something we can all participate in now. There’s a live web stream that
allows anyone to watch the glass funnel and wait for the fateful moment. A similar
experiment to the Queensland pitch drop was set up in Dublin, and the video of the
moment the pitch actually dropped went viral on the internet. It’s interesting to see how
a very slow event can spread news so quickly.

TASK 2: FASHION

Interviewer: Hello, Pamela, welcome to the programme. So many young people want
to be fashion designers these days, but don't know how to get started.

Pamela Green: Hi. I felt exactly like that myself! You must first discover if this is
really what you want to do. I wasn't sure to begin with, so I started off by looking for a
store in my neighbourhood that sold its own clothes. The owner invited me into her
studio and told me what a typical day was like. She allowed me to ask as many
questions as I wanted. Having made up my mind, I then contacted a few colleges to see
what courses in fashion were on offer, and I was lucky to find one that seemed ideal.

Interviewer: So a degree in fashion is a must?

Pamela Green: Well, you often meet designers who go to college later in life, after
years of working in the industry. The truth is the best students aren't always the best
designers, but there's no denying that a degree will show that you've got certain basic

60
skills and get you your first job. Don't be surprised to find colleagues with fewer
qualifications on higher pay than yourself though. Making progress from that point will
depend entirely on your personal talent.

Interviewer: What basic skills do you need?

Pamela Green: When you ask a fashion student what they want to do, they often reply
'have my own line'. Not an easy task, I must say. You need work experience first,
ideally in a successful fashion shop, to understand that this industry is led by
commerce. Starting your own line requires capital and a clear overview of how it's
going to develop. Without it, clothes design can only be a hobby. Of course, if you've
got an eye for colour, style and shape and an ability to draw, you shouldn't let go of the
dream.

Interviewer: Where do you get the inspiration for your designs?

Pamela Green: To be a good designer, you have to be aware of the world you live in,
you need to go out and look at people's lives and attitudes, you really have to learn how
to observe what's happening around you. And I don't mean going abroad necessarily -
my social circle is invaluable for me, for example - a constant source of ideas. You
have to remember the clothes are not for you, you have to adapt to what other people
want. And don't be tempted to imitate the famous designers, however beautiful their
collections might look.

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Interviewer: Now you're a successful designer, are things easier?

Pamela Green: It took me a while to learn to cope with criticism, though. You think
your design drawings look brilliant, but you mustn't get upset if the garment doesn't
look as you'd imagined it. What I've never managed to get used to is the sheer amount
of work involved in finishing your collection well in advance of the season. Some
designers stop attending fashion shows, for example, which involve lots of time-
consuming travelling, but I'd be unhappy to give that up.

Interviewer: Do you have to do a lot of reading to keep up with trends?

Pamela Green: You have to read fashion magazines and other media that reflect
current trends and tastes. It doesn't matter whether you want to use them in your own
designs. Nobody knows what styles will be fashionable in, say, two years' time, but the
point is you have to know just about everything that's been done before, so that you can
spot it when it becomes popular again.

Interviewer: This is a very competitive industry. Realistically, what are the chances for
somebody starting?

Pamela Green: Don't make the mistake of aiming just for designing outfits, which is
just one part of a vast industry. You may be perfectly happy as an obscure but
competent designer of small pieces for collections - jewellery, hats, shoes - all of which

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need to be created. And then somebody has to market them, sell them, write about
them. Fame and glory is just for the top twenty world designers, and life isn't always
wonderful even for them.

Interviewer: Pamela, many thanks.

TASK 3: SLEEP

Speaker one

I'm not particularly keen on flying, so when I toured Australia with a friend, we ended
up taking a lot of long-distance trains. To keep within our tight budget, we'd catch night
trains at unearthly hours to avoid the expense of booking into hotels. So it was that we
found ourselves dropping off to sleep at a station in the outback waiting for the early-
morning train to Sydney. Obviously I'd never have done it if I'd been travelling alone,
'cos I'd have felt at risk, but it seemed a safe enough place – and very clean. Anyway,
there wasn't much going on there, so at least it made the night go quickly!

Speaker two

I was working on a global product launch for my company, with reps attending from all
over the world, so it had to run smoothly – quite stressful. Part of the event involved
arranging corporate hospitality, and one option was having a foot massage. After all my
hard work I decided to have one too, and then dozed off in the chair halfway through!
Luckily, they let me sleep while they finished the other guests! It should've been
refreshing, but having slept sitting up I woke up with a stiff neck, and the pain lasted
several days. I must've been exhausted, though.

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Speaker three

I was in a long-distance yacht race, a personal challenge for me. We'd sailed nine days
non-stop, all the time rushing around on deck, so as soon as we'd pulled into a harbour
and moored up, we were so desperately tired that we got our heads down right there on
deck for some sleep. Bliss! But we awoke later to the sight of a huge, smelly vessel
moored up beside us, and we quickly realised to our horror that our sleeping bags were
damp from exposure to salt spray. It said something about the state we were in that we
were mistaken for the crew of the ship next door!

Speaker four

I'd just finished university and had gone to visit some old friends. I remember one
evening we went to see one of our favourite bands performing. I knew it'd be a long
night of dancing and generally being on my feet, but for some reason I was already
flagging soon after we arrived, so I thought I'd better take a rest. And I actually
managed to fall asleep on top of one of the speakers; goodness knows how! Anyway, I
rather expected my friends would find it highly amusing but in fact they were quite
sniffy and a bit embarrassed; so I've decided they're just not my friends anymore.

Speaker five

My friends live out by quite a remote beach. Since we hadn't seen each other for ages,
we sat on the sands and talked until late. Then we lit a fire; and as the last bus had
already left and we were some distance from the nearest town, and no one could be
bothered to move anyway, we just all fell asleep right there. The next morning, they
told me people living there often did that at weekends, so I felt good that I'd had the

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chance to join in. It made me wish I could do the same where I live; not very likely in
my cold, wind-blown town, though.

TASK 4: FEELING

Interviewer: My guest today is Diana McLeod, careers advisor at the University of

Blackstable. She'll be talking to us about how our work can make us happy. Thank you
for joining us, Diana. Isn't the key to happiness in the workplace keeping ourselves
interested in what we do?

Diana: You would think so but it’s actually quite hard to say whether it leads to
happiness or not. A few months ago I saw some results of a survey in which graduates
were asked to rate different careers in terms of how interesting they were. I was amazed
to see that teaching was rated as the least boring. It came in way ahead of careers in the
media or in advertising. Teachers say their work is challenging, that no two days are the
same, that they get lots of opportunities to interact with other people and that there’s
some scope for using their creative skills – all things that keep them engaged. But
whether they were happy or not is another question.

Interviewer: So perhaps we should be asking, ‘What is it that makes us unhappy at

work?’

Diana: Yes, indeed. Common complaints are long hours, a long commute, unrealistic
deadlines and job insecurity. You just can't feel happy if you know they're going to fire
you any minute. That is definitely top of my list and it's on the increase. After that I'd
put having to move away from your friends and family to take a job and contact with
other people at work that is unsatisfactory in some way.

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Interviewer: Are these poor relationships at work prevalent in smaller companies, too?

Diana: Well, bullying, for example, happens in all sorts of organisations but it's true
that the bigger the company or institution is, the more likely it is to occur. Small
businesses do have a much lower incidence, which is one reason for the high levels of
job satisfaction that their employees experience. In a small company, everyone is
treated as if they count. There may be fewer opportunities for training and development
than in the big corporations but there's more chance of your skills being appreciated.
This is also because you've got fewer people above you telling you what to do. No one
likes that.

Interviewer: Becoming self-employed would solve the problem, of course.

Diana: That's true but people need to bear in mind that the boundaries between work
and leisure will begin to blur. As likely as not, you'll end up with your nose to the
grindstone at all hours of the day, though you'll probably mind that a lot less than if
someone else had coerced you into working on a long weekend. You're in control of
your own destiny and that tends to make us happier.

Interviewer: I suppose money is a great source of satisfaction, though.

Diana: In fact, it doesn't make much difference once you have enough to meet all your
basic needs. A bonus or pay rise might lift your spirits but not for long, especially if
you suspect you didn't deserve it. In fact, if you don't see them as being related to the
quality of your work or the intensity of your efforts, they'll ultimately reduce your
motivation. The carrot and stick approach won't always motivate us or keep us happy.

Interviewer: But one key to happiness must surely be success.

Diana: Happy people often are successful at work but they were probably happy in the
first place and that affected their behaviour in such a way that their employers noticed
them and promoted them. So how do we get happy? By feeling that we matter and that

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our work is making a positive difference to others. There's a saying that you do a job for
the money, a career for the status but a vocation because you care. So if you would do
what you do even without being paid for it, then it's pretty much guaranteed to make
you happy.

Interviewer: Well, I must say that's very encouraging and very good advice, especially
at a time when many people find themselves starting their working lives as volunteers.

We're opening the lines to callers now, so if you would like to talk to Diana about your
career plans, the number to dial is ... [fade]

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Student’s name:................................................ Student’s ID:.............................
Class:.............................

ANSWER SHEET

SECTION 1: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

PART 1: VOCABULARY

TASK 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8 9. 10.

TASK 2: SENTENCE COMPLETION

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

PART 2: GRAMMAR

TASK 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8 9. 10.

TASK 2: VERB FORM

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

TASK 3: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

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SECTION 2: READING COMPREHENSION

TASK 1: TRUE / FALSE

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

TASK 2: MULTIPLE CHOICE

7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

TASK 3: SHORT ANSWER

15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

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SECTION 3: WRITING

Topic’s number: ___

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_____________________________________________________________________
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SECTION 4: LISTENING

TASK 1: TRUE / FALSE

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

TASK 2: MULTIPLE CHOICE

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

TASK 3: MATCHING

17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

TASK 4: GAP-FILLING

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

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