Part-A-CUET-PG (Secure)

5 PREVIOUS YEARS’ PAPERS AND 4 PRACTICE SETS
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CUET→ General
Aptitude
05 Previous Years’ Papers (2018

to 2022) & 04 Practice Sets
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Contents
Contents ................................................................................................ 3
Central University Common Entrance Test (CUCET)-2018 ............................. 6
Answer Key -2018 ................................................................................ 9
Explanation ...................................................................................... 9
Central University Common Entrance Test (CUCET)-2019 ............................ 14
Answer Key -2019 .............................................................................. 18
Explanation .................................................................................... 18
Central University Common Entrance Test (CUCET)-2020 ............................ 26
Answer Key -2020 .............................................................................. 30
Explanation .................................................................................... 30
Common University Entrance Test (CUET)-2021 ......................................... 36
Answer Key -2021 .............................................................................. 40
Explanation .................................................................................... 40
Common University Entrance Test (CUET)-2022 ......................................... 44
Answer Key -2022 .............................................................................. 49
Explanation .................................................................................... 49
......................................................................................................... 56
......................................................................................... 56
Common University Entrance Test (CUET) ................................................. 57
Answer Key -SET - 1 .......................................................................... 61
Explanation .................................................................................... 61
Answer Key -SET - 2 .......................................................................... 69
Explanation .................................................................................... 69
Answer Key -SET - 3 .......................................................................... 77
Explanation .................................................................................... 77
Answer Key -SET - 4 .......................................................................... 85
Explanation .................................................................................... 85
Reference Books: ................................................................................... 89
Reference for CUET Examination .............................................................. 90
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Syllabus
for
Geology, Earth Sciences
(SCQP14)
Note:
i. There will be one Question Paper which will have 100 questions.
ii. All questions will be compulsory.
iii. The Question Paper will have two Parts i.e. Part A and Part B:
iv. Part A will have 25 questions based on Language

Comprehension/Verbal Ability,
General Awareness, Mathematical/Quantitative ability and Analytical Skills.
v. Part B will have 75 questions based on Subject-Specific Knowledge.
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Part A
Language Comprehension and Verbal Ability
Reading Comprehension; Idioms, Syntax, Spellings, Phrases, Grammar,
Idioms, Synonyms, Proverbs, Phrases, Antonyms, Legal Terms, Jumbled
Words/ Sentences, Homonyms, One-word Substitution, Fill in the Blanks,
Vocabulary, Incorrect Sentences
General Awareness
Static general knowledge, Current Affairs (national & international current
affairs)
Mathematical Aptitude
Fraction, Ratio, Proportion and Percentage, Percentage, Averages, Time &
Distance, Profit & Loss, Interest & Discounting.
Quantitative Ability and Analytical Skills

Data Analysis, Sequence and Series, Arithmetic ability, Date, Time and
Arrangement Problems, Quantitative aptitude, Business computations.
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Previous Paper Solved

Central University Common Entrance Test (CUCET)-2018
PART-A
Directions (Qs. Nos, 1 and 2): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives
choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given word.
1. Pity
A. Offence B. Mercy
C. Kindness D. Joy
2. Frugal
A. Economical B. Hungry
C. Miserly D. Splendid
Directions (Qs. Nos 3 and 4) In the following questions out of the four alternances
choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
3. Vague
A. Unclear B. Sharp
C. Precise D. Actual
4. Harmony
A. Disagreement B. Melody
C. Confusion D. Concord
Directions (Qs Nos. 5-10): Some part of the sentences have errors, and some have
none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and answer corresponding to the
appropriate letter (A B, C) If there is no error corresponding to D in the Answer Sheet.
5. (A) If your jogging clothes B) were not made of/ C) permeable fabric you will
drown in your sweat(D) No error
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6. (A) Perhaps you know/B) that I have passed (C) the examination in 1990/(D) No
error
7. (A) Neither of the (B) five accused/ (C) could be convicted/ (D) No error
8. (A) Perhaps you do not know/ (B) I am having a car and jeep/ (C) besides a big
house in a good locality/(D) No error
9. (A) Her black long/(B) hair adds/(C) glamour to her looks (D) No error
10. The cost of the new/(A) machines is likely so (B) be so high as ten/(C) times the
existing. Ones/ (D) No error
11. Based on the UN Habitual data. World Economy Forum has recently named two
Indian cities as the world's most crowded cities.
The cities are Mumbai and –
A. New Delhi B. Kolkata

C. Surat D. Kota
12. Which of the following is not present in animal cells?
A. Cell wall B. Mitochondria

C. Ribosomes D. Cytoplasm
13. Which of the following mountain ranges from the longest mountain chain in the
world?
A. The Rockies of North America B. The Andes of South America

C. The Transantarctic Range D. The great Dividing Range of
Australia
14. The instrument which measures artificial blood pressure is known as
A. Pyknometer B. Hypsometer
C. Sphygmoscope D. Sphygmomanometer
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15. Penicillin which is used as an antibiotic is obtained from
A. Bacteria B. Fungi
C. Algar D. Lichens
16. The HCF of 2923 and 3239 is
A. 37 B. 47
C. 73 D. 79
17. 9548 + 7314 = 8362 + ?
A. 8230 B. 8410
C. 8500 D. 8600
18. The smallest number to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is
A. 10 B. 20
C. 35 D. 80
19. Find the average of all number between 6 to 34 which are divisible by 5
A. 18 B. 20
C. 24 D. 30
20. If one-seventh of a number exceeds its eleventh part by 100, then the number is.
A. 770 B. 1100
C. 1825 D. 1925
21. Subtracting 40% of a number from the number we get the result as 30. The number
is?
A. 28 B. 50
C. 52 D. 70
22. The ratio of the cost price and the selling price is 4:5. The profit per cent is
A. 10% B. 20%
C. 25% D. 30%
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23. A speed of 14 meters per second is the same
A. 28 km/h B. 46.6 km/h

C. 50.4 km/h D. 70.0 km/h
24. (3080 + 6160)/28 = 7
A. 320 B. 440
C. 3320 D. None of these
25. The square root of 64009 is:
A. 253 B. 347
C. 363 D. 803
Answer Key -2018

Q1 B Q2 A Q3 C
Q4 A Q5 C Q6 C
Q7 B Q8 B Q9 A
Q10 B Q11 A Q12 A
Q13 B Q14 D Q15 B
Q16 D Q17 C Q18 C
Q19 B Q20 D Q21 B
Q22 C Q23 C Q24 D
Q25 A
Explanation
1- The correct meaning of the word "Pity" is B. Mercy.

Pity is a feeling of sorrow or compassion for someone who is suffering or in need. It
involves acknowledging someone's pain or difficulty and feeling sympathy or
empathy towards them.
2- The correct meaning of the word "Frugal" is A. Economical.
Frugal means being careful or economical in the use of resources, especially money.
It refers to the practice of avoiding waste and unnecessary expenses and living within
one's means. Frugality can also be seen as a virtue, as it promotes simplicity and self-
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discipline. It is not the same as being hungry or miserly, which suggests deprivation
or selfishness, respectively.
3- The word opposite in meaning to "Vague" is C. Precise.
Vague refers to something that is unclear or indefinite, lacking in detail or specificity.
The opposite of vague is precise, which means exact, accurate, and well-defined.
4- The word opposite in meaning to "Harmony" is A. Disagreement.
Harmony refers to a state of agreement, cooperation, and peaceful coexistence
between people or things. It involves a sense of balance, unity, and concord. The
opposite of harmony is disagreement, which refers to a state of conflict, opposition,
and discord between people or things.
5- The error is in Part C of the sentence. Instead of "you will drown in your sweat," it
should be "you would drown in your sweat."
This is because the sentence is conditional and refers to a hypothetical situation.
Therefore, the correct sentence would be: If your jogging clothes were not made of
permeable fabric, you would drown in your sweat.
6- The error is in Part C of the sentence. Instead of "the examination in 1990," it
should be "the examination in 1990s."
This is because the year 1990 is a specific year, and the correct form should be in the
plural form. Therefore, the correct sentence would be: Perhaps you know that I have
passed the examination in the 1990s.
7- The error is in Part B of the sentence. Instead of "five accused," it should be "five
accused persons."
This is because the word "accused" needs to be followed by a noun to make it clear
who or what is being accused. Therefore, the correct sentence would be: Neither of
the five accused persons could be convicted.
8- The error is in Part B of the sentence. Instead of "I am having a car and jeep," it
should be "I have a car and a jeep."
This is because the present continuous tense "am having" is not appropriate in this
context, and the verb "have" should be used instead. Additionally, "a car and a jeep"
should be used instead of "a car and jeep" to make it clear that there are two different
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vehicles. Therefore, the correct sentence would be: Perhaps you do not know I have
a car and a jeep, besides a big house in a good locality.
9- The error is in Part A of the sentence. Instead of "Her black long," it should be
"Her long black."
This is because adjectives usually follow a specific order in English, and the correct
order is "opinion-size-age-shape-color-origin-material-purpose." Therefore, the
correct sentence would be: Her long black hair adds glamour to her looks.
10- The error is in Part B of the sentence. Instead of "is likely so," it should be "is
likely to be."
This is because the phrase "likely to be" is the correct form to express possibility or
probability. Therefore, the correct sentence would be: The cost of the new machines
is likely to be so high as ten times the existing ones.
11- A. New Delhi.
The question asks for the second Indian city named as the world's most crowded city,
and the first city mentioned is Mumbai. The correct answer choice is A. New Delhi.
12- A. Cell wall
Animal cells do not have a cell wall, which is present in plant cells.
13- B. The Andes of South America
The Andes of South America is the longest mountain range in the world.
14- D. Sphygmomanometer
Sphygmomanometer is the instrument used to measure blood pressure.
15- B. Fungi
Penicillin, which is used as an antibiotic, is obtained from the Penicillium fungus.
16- D
To find the HCF (highest common factor) of two numbers, we need to find the largest
number which can divide both the given numbers without leaving any remainder.
17- C
18- C
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To find the smallest number that can be added to 1000 such that the sum is divisible
by 45, we need to find the remainder when 1000 is divided by 45.
We can use the following formula to find the remainder:
Remainder = Dividend - Divisor x Quotient
Here, the dividend is 1000, the divisor is 45, and the quotient is the number of times
45 can be divided into 1000 without leaving a remainder.
Quotient = 1000 ÷ 45 = 22 with a remainder of 10
So, the remainder is 10. To make the sum divisible by 45, we need to add the
difference between 45 and the remainder, which is 35.
Therefore, the smallest number that needs to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the
sum exactly is 35.
19- B
The numbers between 6 and 34 that are divisible by 5 are 10, 15, 20, 25, and 30.
To find the average, we need to add up these numbers and divide by the total number
of numbers (which is 5):
Average = (10 + 15 + 20 + 25 + 30) / 5 Average = 100 / 5 Average = 20
Therefore, average of all the numbers between 6 and 34 that are divisible by 5 is 20.
20- D
Let's start by setting up the equation using algebra. Let "x" be the number we are
looking for. Then we can write:
x/7 - x/11 = 100
To solve for "x," we can first find the least common multiple (LCM) of 7 and 11,
which is 77. We can then multiply both sides of the equation by 77 to get:
11x - 7x = 7700
Simplifying this gives: 4x = 7700
Dividing both sides by 4, we get: x = 1925
Therefore, the number we are looking for is 1925, which is option D.
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21- B
Let's assume the number to be 'x'. Subtracting 40% of x from x gives us:
x - 40% of x = x * (1-0.4) = 0.6x
According to the problem, 0.6x = 30. Solving for x, we get:
x = 30/0.6 = 50
22- C
Let the cost price be 4x and the selling price be 5x.
Profit = Selling price - Cost price = 5x - 4x = x
Profit percentage = (Profit/Cost price) × 100
= (x/4x) × 100 = 25%
23- C
To convert meters per second to km per hour, we need to multiply by 3.6 (since 1
hour = 3600 seconds).
So, 14 meters per second is: 14 * 3.6 = 50.4 km per hour
24- D
25- A
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PART-A
1. Fill the blank with the correct idiom/phrase
That boy from the town was a ____ in the sleepy village
A. Dog out of herd B. Sheep from the heap

C. Fish out of water D. Bird from the flock
2. Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to
complete the follow sentence
She could not ____ the thought of _____ the election to her bitter rival
A. bear, loosing B. bare, loosing

C. bear, losing D. bare, losing
3. Advice' is
A. A verb B A noun
C. An adjective D. Both a verb and a noun
4. Choose the most appropriate phrase from the options given below to complete the
following sentence
The aircraft _____ take off as soon as its flight plant was filed.
A. is allowed to B. will be allowed to

C. was allowed to D. has been allowed to
5. Select the most suitable synonym for the word SIMULATE
A. Accumulate B. Smile
C. Pretend D. Gamble
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6. Select the most suitable synonym for the word PANACEA
A. Wonder B. Elixir
C. Placebo D. Honey
7. Select the most suitable antonym for the word CRUDE
A. Cruel B. Sophisticated
C. Malevolent D. Primeval
8. Select the most suitable antonym for the word HAPHAZARD
A. Cumbersome B. Concocted
C. Orderly D. Zigzag
9. Select the pair which shows the same relationship as POLYMER : CELL
A. Coin : Money B. Food : Wheat

C. Chain : Link D. Fibre : Plastic
10. Choose the most appropriate preposition to complete the sentence:
He is a traitor the _______ country.
A. for B. to
C. in D. of
11. Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of
chlorophyll in green plants?
A. Calcium B. Iron
C. Magnesium D. Potassium
12 Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of
classification?
A. Silver fish B. Jelly fish

C. Cuttle fish D. Flying fish
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13. Bright light is found to emit from photographer's flashgun. This brightness is
due to which one of the following noble gases?
A. Argon B. Xenon
C. Neon D. Helium
14 Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage
by UNESCO (Note: Previously asked in CDS GK Previous Paper 5 (Held On: 4 Feb 2018).
A. Keoladeo National Park B. Sundarbans National Park

C. Kaziranga National Park D. Ranthambore National Park
15 Cooking gas is a mixture of
A. Carbon monoxide and carbon B. Butane and propane

C. Carbon dioxide and oxygen D. Methane and ethylene
16 Find the odd man out
A. 6V12 B. 2H4
C. 9F18 D. 3R6
17. For how many times, the hands of a clock are at right angles in a day? (Note:
Previously asked in Odisha Police SI Preliminary General Knowledge 2017)
A. 24 B. 22
C. 44 D. 48
18. Find the missing term 97.89 :: 43: …..?
A. 37 B. 31
C. 39 D. 41
19. The value of one US dollar is 65 Indian Rupees today, compared to 60 last year.
The Indian Rupee has ___ (Note: Previously asked in General Aptitude GATE 2014, Set-3)
A. Depressed B. Depreciated
C. Appreciated D. Stabilized
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20. 25 persons are in a room 15 of them play hockey, 17 of them play football and 10
of them play both hockey and football. Then the number of persons playing neither
hockey nor football is: (Note: Previously asked in GATE 2010)
A. 2 B. 17
C. 13 D. 3
21. By selling an item for Rs. 198. Souvik made a loss of 12%. By how much
should he have raised the price to make a profit of 8%?
A. Rs. 25 B. Rs. 55
C. Rs. 44 D. Rs. 45
22. A person who is the husband of my son's sister is my ______
A. Nephew B. Son-in-Law
C. Son D. Brother
23. Ram and Ramesh appeared in an interview for two vacancies in the same
department. The probabilities of Ram's selection is 1/6 and that of Ramesh is 1/8
What is probability that only one of them will be selected? (Note: Previously asked in
PY 12: GATE ME 2015 Official Paper: Shift 1)
A. 47/48 B. 13/48
C. 1/4 D. 35/48
24. A is the father of B. C is the son of D. E is the brother of C while D is the sister
of B. How is B related (Note: Previously asked in NIELIT Scientific Assistant-A Official
Paper 2020)
A. Uncle B. Aunt
C. Mother D. Either A or B
25. What will be next leap year after 2096?
A. 2100 B. 2101
C. 2104 D. 2108
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Answer Key -2019

Q1 C Q2 C Q3 D
Q4 C Q5 C Q6 B
Q7 B Q8 C Q9 C
Q10 B Q11 C Q12 D
Q13 B Q14 A, B, C Q15 B
Q16 D Q17 C Q18 C
Q19 B Q20 D Q21 D
Q22 B Q23 C Q24 D
Q25 C
Explanation
1- C. The correct idiom to fill in the blank is "fish out of water."

The idiom "fish out of water" is used to describe someone who feels uncomfortable
or out of place in a particular situation. It comes from the idea that a fish, which is
adapted to living in water, would be very uncomfortable and unable to survive if it
were suddenly taken out of its natural environment and placed on land.
In the given sentence, the phrase "that boy from the town" suggests that the boy is
used to a certain environment or way of life, which is not present in the "sleepy
village." Therefore, the use of the idiom "fish out of water" perfectly conveys the
meaning that the boy is feeling uncomfortable and out of place in the village.
2- C. bear, losing. Option A and B are incorrect as "bare" means naked or exposed,
which doesn't make sense in this context. Option C is correct because "bear" means
to endure or tolerate, which fits the sentence. And "losing" is the correct spelling for
the action of not winning. Option D is incorrect as it misspells "bear" as "bare".
3-D. Both a verb and a noun
The word 'advice' is a noun that refers to an opinion or a suggestion given by someone
about what should be done in a particular situation. For example, "I need your advice
on how to deal with this problem."
Although 'advice' may be used in a sentence as part of a verb phrase, such as "I advise
you to study for the exam," in this case 'advise' is the verb and 'advice' is still a noun.
Therefore, the correct answer is B, a noun.
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4-C. was allowed to.

The most appropriate phrase to complete the sentence is "was allowed to". This is
because the sentence is in the past tense ("was filed"), so the verb should also be in
the past tense. "Is allowed to" is in the present tense and does not fit with the rest of
the sentence. "Will be allowed to" is in the future tense, which is not appropriate since
the sentence is referring to a past event. "Has been allowed to" is in the present perfect
tense and implies ongoing permission, which is not necessary in this context.
Therefore, "was allowed to" is the correct option.
5- C. Pretend.
To simulate means to imitate or replicate a situation or event. It involves creating a
similar or artificial version of something. "Pretend" also means to imitate or make-
believe, and it is often used to describe situations where someone acts as if something
is true or real when it is not. Therefore, "simulate" and "pretend" have similar
meanings, making C the most suitable synonym for the word "simulate".
Option A, "accumulate," means to gather or collect something, and it does not have a
similar meaning to "simulate."
Option B, "smile," means to express happiness or amusement by curving the lips
upwards, and it does not have a similar meaning to "simulate."
Option D, "gamble," means to take a risk or bet on an uncertain outcome, and it does
not have a similar meaning to "simulate."
6- B. Elixir.
Panacea" refers to a remedy or solution that is believed to cure all problems or
diseases. "Elixir" also means a remedy or solution that has the power to cure illnesses,
and it is a suitable synonym for "panacea".
Option A, "wonder", does not have the same meaning as "panacea".
Option C, "placebo", refers to a substance with no therapeutic effect, given to a person
as medicine, and does not have the same meaning as "panacea".
Option D, "honey", is a sweet substance produced by bees and is not a synonym for
"panacea".
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7- B. Sophisticated.
"Crude" means lacking in refinement, tact or taste. The opposite of "crude" is
"sophisticated," which means refined or cultured.
8- C. Orderly.
Haphazard refers to something that is done or happening in a random, unplanned, and
disorganized manner. On the other hand, orderly refers to something that is done or
arranged in a well-organized and methodical manner. Therefore, "orderly" is the
opposite or antonym of "haphazard."
Option A, "Cumbersome," means something that is difficult to handle or move
because of its size, shape, or weight. It is not an antonym of "haphazard."
Option B, "Concocted," means something that is created by putting different things
together. It is not an antonym of "haphazard."
Option D, "Zigzag," refers to a line or course having abrupt alternate right and left
turns. It is not an antonym of "haphazard."
9- C. Chain : Link -
The relationship between the words "polymer" and "cell" is that a polymer is made
up of cells. Therefore, we need to look for a pair of words where one is made up of
the other.
Option A. Coin : Money - This pair does not show a similar relationship to the given
pair.
Option B. Food : Wheat - This pair does not show a similar relationship to the given
pair.
Option C. Chain : Link - This pair shows a similar relationship as a polymer is made
up of chains and chains are made up of links.
Option D. Fiber : Plastic - This pair does not show a similar relationship to the given
pair.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C, Chain : Link.
10- B. to. The correct preposition to complete the sentence is "to".
"He is a traitor to the country" means that he betrayed or acted against his own
country.
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Using the preposition "for" would imply that he betrayed someone or something on
behalf of his country.
Using the preposition "in" would imply that he was involved in some way with his
country but does not necessarily imply betrayal.
Using the preposition "of" would imply that he belongs to the country or is a part of
it but does not necessarily imply betrayal.
11- C. Magnesium
Chlorophyll is the green pigment found in plants that helps in photosynthesis, which
is the process of converting light energy into chemical energy. Magnesium is a vital
component of the chlorophyll molecule, and its deficiency can result in the yellowing
of leaves, known as chlorosis. Therefore, it is important to ensure that plants receive
adequate amounts of magnesium for their healthy growth and development.
12- D. Flying fish - Among the options given, only the "flying fish" is a true fish
according to the biological system of classification. Silver fish and cuttle fish are
actually not fish, but rather, belong to different groups of marine animals. Jelly fish
are not even fish, they belong to a separate group called cnidarians.
13- B. Xenon - Xenon is a noble gas that is commonly used in photographer's
flashguns to produce a bright light.
14- A, B and C.
UNESCO has declared the following National Parks in India as World Heritage sites:
Option A. Keoladeo National Park, also known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, located
in Rajasthan, was declared a World Heritage Site in 1985.
Option B. Sundarbans National Park, located in West Bengal, was declared a World
Heritage Site in 1987.
Option C. Kaziranga National Park, located in Assam, was declared a World Heritage
Site in 1985.
Option D. Ranthambore National Park, located in Rajasthan, has not been declared as
a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
Therefore, options A, B, and C are the correct answers.
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15- B. Butane and propane.

Cooking gas is a mixture of liquefied petroleum gas (LPG), which primarily consists
of butane and propane gases.
16- D.
Option A. 6V12 represents the chemical formula of Vanadium.
Option B. 2H4 represents the chemical formula of Acetylene.
Option C. 9F18 represents the chemical formula of Fluorine.
Option D. 3R6 doesn't represent any chemical formula or element.
17- C. The minute hand covers 360° in an hour and 6° in a minute. The hour hand
covers 30° in an hour and 0.5° in a minute.
Starting from midnight i.e. 12 o’clock at the midnight, the first time the difference
between the two hands would be 90° is:
6x = 0.5x + 90° (x is the number of minutes)
⇒ 5.5x = 90° ⇒ x = 180/11 minutes
The next time the difference between the two hands would be 90° is when the minute
hand would have moved 180° away from the hour hand or the difference between
both hands would have been 270°.
6x = 0.5x + 270
⇒ 5.5x = 270 ⇒ x = 540/11 minutes
Thus, the difference between two consecutive moments where both hands forms a
right angle is:
540/11 - 180/11 = 360/11 minutes
Thus, the two hands form a right angle after every 360/11 minutes. Total number of
minutes in a day = 24 × 60 = 1440 minutes.
Number of times the two hands will form a right angle in a day = 1440 ÷ (360/11)
⇒ (1440 × 11) ÷ 360
⇒ 4 × 11 = 44 times
Hence, the two hands will form right angle "44 times" in a day.
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18- C.
To find the missing term, we can use the same ratio. We can multiply the second term
of the ratio with the same factor by which we multiplied the first term to get the third
term.
So, (97/89) = (43/x); Cross multiplying we get, 97x = 89*43
Simplifying further, we get x = 39. Therefore, the missing term is 39.
19- B. Depreciated – diminish in value over a period of time.
You may think that its has increased from 60 to 65 so how is it depreciated, but in
reality its value has decreased. Just for example, think for a minute which is good
1dollar=1 Rupees or 1 dollar=60 Rupees. Obviously 1dollar = 1 rupees as the value
of rupees here is higher.
20- D.
To solve this problem, we can use the formula:
n(A or B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A and B); Where n represents the number of
individuals. Here, A represents those who play hockey, B represents those who play
football, and A and B represent those who play both hockey and football.
So, we have: n(A) = 15, n(B) = 17, n(A and B) = 10
Now, we can calculate the number of individuals who play either hockey or football:
n(A or B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A and B)
n(A or B) = 15 + 17 - 10
n(A or B) = 22
Therefore, the number of individuals who do not play either hockey or football is:
25 - 22 = 3.
21- D.
Let the cost price of the item be x. As per the question, selling price = Rs. 198 and
loss = 12%.
Hence, x * (1 - 12%) = 198
x * 0.88 = 198 ➔ x = 198 / 0.88 ➔ x = Rs. 225
Now, Souvik wants to make a profit of 8%. Let the new selling price be y.
P a g e 23 | 90
Hence, 225 * (1 + 8%) = y ➔ 225 * 1.08 = y ➔ y = Rs. 243

Therefore, Souvik should have raised the price by Rs. 45 (i.e. Rs. 243 - Rs. 198) to
make a profit of 8%. Hence, the answer is (D) Rs. 45.
22- B. Son - in - law.
23. C.
The probability of Ram getting selected is 1/6, and the probability of Ramesh getting
selected is 1/8.
We need to find the probability that only one of them will be selected. This can happen
in two ways: (i) Ram gets selected and Ramesh doesn't and (ii) Ramesh gets selected
and Ram doesn't.
The probability of the first event happening is (1/6) x (7/8) = 7/48. This is because if
Ram gets selected with a probability of 1/6, then the probability of Ramesh not getting
selected is (1 - 1/8) = 7/8.
The probability of the second event happening is (1/8) x (5/6) = 5/48. This is because
if Ramesh gets selected with a probability of 1/8, then the probability of Ram not
getting selected is (1 - 1/6) = 5/6.
Therefore, the total probability that only one of them will be selected is the sum of
the probabilities of these two events, which is:
(7/48) + (5/48) = 12/48 = ¼. So, the probability that only one of them will be
selected is 1/4 or 0.25.
24- D.
B is the niece/nephew of D and the child of A, so B is either the niece or nephew of
A. However, since no gender is specified for B, it's impossible to determine whether
B should be referred to as a niece or nephew of A. Therefore, the answer is either A
or B.
25- C.
The general rule for leap years is that they occur every 4 years. However, there is an
exception to this rule, which is that years that are divisible by 100 are not leap years,
unless they are also divisible by 400. This exception ensures that the calendar year is
still synchronized with the astronomical year.
P a g e 24 | 90
Now, let's consider the given options:

Option A. 2100 - This year is divisible by 100, so it is not a leap year.
Option B. 2101 - This year is not divisible by 4, so it is not a leap year.
Option C. 2104 - This year is divisible by 4 and not by 100, so it is a leap year.
Option D. 2108 - This year is divisible by 4, so it is a leap year.
P a g e 25 | 90

PART-A
1. Select the most suitable synonym for the word APPRISE
A. CONSIDER B. EVALUATE
C. DIRECT D. NOTIFY
2. Choose the pair which exhibits same relationship as
THERMOMETER:TEMPERATE
A. HYGROMETER : HUMIDITY B. VOLTMETER : ELECTRICITY

C. FATHOMETER : SURFACE TENSION D. DYNAMOMETER : REVOLUTION
3 Select the correct word for following sentence Family is the glue that holds society
A. together B. tightly
C. solely D. mutually
4. Bread is related to Bakery in the same way Brick is related to
A. Mint B. Klin
C. Furnace D. Mine
5. Identify the word which is opposite in meaning to ADEPT
A. Skilled B. Inept
C. Ugly D. Serene
6. Identity the part of the body with which the disease Angina is associated
A. Skin B. Chest
C. Lung D. Liver
P a g e 26 | 90
7. Select correct meaning of foreign expression via media

A. on the way B. a mediator
C. by pass someone D. a middle course
8. Identify the meaning of underlined word
The presence of hawkers on foot paths hinders movement of
A. buyers B. vendors
C. beggars D. consumers
9. Identify the word which cares the meaning of following sentence Showing great
knowledge or insight
A. Intrinsic B. Fantastic
C. Profanel D. Profound
10. Identify the word which carries the meaning of underlined idiom.
There have been several warnings by the government that there's a hardcore criminal
on the loose the city
A. Rampant B. Be dashing
C. Endemic D. Be moving freely
11. Choose the odd one
A. BD B. MP
C. NO D. HK
12. Choose the odd numeral pair
A. 2-8 B. 3-27
C. 4-32 D. 5-125
13. Choose the one which is different
A. 324 B. 244
C. 136 D. 352
P a g e 27 | 90
14. Choose the best alternative for 1:1 :: 25: ?
A. 26 B. 125
C. 240 D. 625
15. Choose the odd one
A. Arhar B. Urad
C. Moong D. Jowar
16 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern 2, 3, 5, 7,
11,___,17 (Note: Previously asked in MP police constable held on 23 August)
A. 12 B. 13
C. 14 D. 15
17. If in a certain language. GAMBLE is coded as FBLCKF how is FLOWER coded
in that language? (Note: Previously asked in UPSC CAPF Paper 1(Held on: 18 Aug 2019)
A. GKPVFQ B. EMNXDS
C. GMPVDS D. HNQYGT
18. In a certain code 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALUR How
is 23549 written in that code? (Note: Previously asked in SSC GD Paper 2 (Held On: 13 Feb
2019 Shift 1)_Hindi)
A. ALEUT B. ALGTU
C. ALGUT D. ALGRT
19. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called
green, green is called black, black is called violet and violet is called orange what
would be the color of human blood?
A. Red B. Green
C. Yellow D. Violet
P a g e 28 | 90
20. Who is the first Indian to win the Dadasaheb Phalke Award?
A. Brendranath Sincar B. Deviak Rani

C. Dhirendra Nath Ganguly D. Kanan Devi
21. In which of the following States of India does the sun rise first? (Note: Previously
asked in SSC CHSL 119, held On: 18 March 2020 Shift-1)
A. Himachal Pradesh B. Arunachal Pradesh

C. Uttar Pradesh D. Meghalaya
22 Which soil is best suited for growing cotton?
A. Red Soil B. Black Soil

C. Mountain Soil D. Laterite Soil
23 Which of the following is a historical play in Sanskrit by Vishakhadatta that
narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya to power in Northern India?
A. Malavikagnimitra B. Panchatantra
C. Mudrarakasam D. Abhijnanasakuntalam
24 Which of the following is the capital of Vietnam?
A. Vientiane B. Hanoi
C. Rangoon D. Havana
25 After independence, the first State organized on the basis of language in India is
A. Odisha B. Kerala
C. Tamilnadu D. Andhra Pradesh
P a g e 29 | 90
Answer Key -2020

Q1 D Q2 A Q3 A
Q4 B Q5 B Q6 B
Q7 D Q8 B Q9 D
Q10 D Q11 A Q12 C
Q13 A Q14 D Q15 D
Q16 B Q17 B Q18 C
Q19 C Q20 B Q21 B
Q22 B Q23 C Q24 B
Q25 D
Explanation
1- D. The word "apprise" means to inform, notify, or make someone aware of

something. Therefore, option D, "notify," is the most appropriate synonym.
Option A, "consider," means to think carefully about something, which is a different
meaning altogether.
Option B, "evaluate," means to assess or judge something, which is also different
from "apprise."
Option C, "direct," means to give instructions or guidance to someone, which again
does not convey the same meaning as "apprise."
2- A.
A thermometer is an instrument used to measure temperature, and temperature is a
measure of how hot or cold something is, i.e., its degree of heat. Similarly, a
hygrometer is an instrument used to measure the amount of moisture or humidity in
the air.
Option B, voltmeter: electricity, does not exhibit the same relationship as
thermometer: temperate. A voltmeter measures electrical potential difference
between two points in an electric circuit, while electricity is the flow of electrons.
Option C, fathometer: surface tension, and option D, dynamometer: revolution, also
do not exhibit the same relationship as thermometer: temperate. A fathometer is used
to measure the depth of water, and surface tension is the tendency of liquid surfaces
to shrink into the minimum surface area possible. A dynamometer is used to measure
force or torque, while revolution refers to a single rotation of an object around an axis.
P a g e 30 | 90
3- A.
The phrase "the glue that holds society" suggests that the family plays an important
role in keeping society united or connected. The word "together" means united or in
close association with one another, which fits the context of the sentence.
Option B, "tightly," implies that society is held together firmly or securely, which is
not necessarily the intended meaning.
Option C, "solely," suggests that family is the only thing that holds society together,
which is an overstatement and not accurate.
Option D, "mutually," implies that society is held together by a shared agreement or
understanding, which is not the intended meaning in this sentence.
4- B.
Bread is a product that is made in a bakery. Similarly, a brick is a product that is made
in a kiln (also spelled "klin"). A kiln is an oven or furnace used for firing clay or other
materials to make bricks, tiles, and pottery.
Option A, "mint," has no clear relationship to bricks or kilns. A mint is a place where
coins are produced.
Option C, "furnace," is related to kilns in the sense that both are used for heating and
firing materials, but a furnace is typically used for melting metal, not firing clay.
Option D, "mine," has no clear relationship to bricks or kilns. A mine is a place where
minerals or other materials are extracted from the earth.
5- B.
Adept means highly skilled or proficient in a particular area, while inept means
lacking skill or ability in a particular area. The two words are antonyms, meaning they
have opposite meanings.
Option C, "ugly," and option D, "serene," have no clear relationship to the word
"adept," and therefore are not antonyms of adept.
6- B.
Angina, also known as angina pectoris, is a type of chest pain that occurs when there
is reduced blood flow to the heart. It is typically a symptom of coronary artery disease,
P a g e 31 | 90
which is a condition where the blood vessels that supply blood to the heart become
narrowed or blocked.
Option A, "skin," has no clear relationship to the disease Angina. Option C, "lung,"
and option D, "liver," are also not associated with Angina.
7- D.
Via media" is a Latin term that means "middle way" or "middle road". It refers to a
course of action or approach that seeks a compromise between two opposing positions
or extremes. It can also refer to a moderate or balanced approach to a particular issue.
Option A, "on the way," does not accurately reflect the meaning of "via media."
Option B, "a mediator," is not the correct meaning of "via media" but refers to a
person who helps resolve a dispute or disagreement between two parties. Option C,
"by pass someone," is not related to the meaning of "via media."
8- B.
Hawkers are people who sell goods or services, usually in public places like streets
or footpaths. In this sentence, the presence of these vendors on footpaths is hindering
the movement of people, likely including both buyers and consumers.
Option A, "buyers," is not the best answer because buyers are typically people who
are attempting to purchase goods, rather than the people selling them.
Option C, "beggars," is not related to the context of the sentence, as the sentence is
discussing people who are selling goods, not those who are begging.
Option D, "consumers," is a possible answer, but option B, "vendors," is a more
precise and accurate description of the people who are being referred to in this
sentence.
9- D.
Profound" means having deep insight or understanding of a subject or issue. It is often
used to describe someone who has a great deal of knowledge, expertise, or wisdom
in a particular area. In this sense, it can be used to describe a person who is highly
knowledgeable or insightful about a topic.
Option A, "intrinsic," means inherent or innate to something and does not convey the
meaning of great knowledge or insight.
P a g e 32 | 90
Option B, "fantastic," means very good or excellent, but it does not necessarily imply
great knowledge or insight.
Option C, "profane," means disrespectful or offensive and is not related to the
meaning of the sentence.
10- D.
The idiom "on the loose" means that a dangerous person or animal is free and
unrestrained and is able to move around or operate without being caught or restrained.
In this sentence, the government is warning the public that a hardcore criminal is on
the loose in the city, which means that the criminal is moving freely and is not
currently in police custody.
Option A, "rampant," means out of control or widespread and is not directly related
to the idiom "on the loose."
Option B, "be dashing," means to move quickly or to be very attractive or stylish in
appearance, which is not related to the context of the sentence.
Option C, "endemic," means prevalent or native to a particular area or group, but it is
not related to the meaning of the idiom "on the loose."
11- A
The other options (MP, NO, HK) all contain letters that are consecutive in the
alphabet. In MP, the letters are consecutive from M to P; in NO, the letters are
consecutive from N to O; and in HK, the letters are consecutive from H to K.
However, in BD, the letters are not consecutive in the alphabet, and therefore it is the
odd one out.
12- C.
In options A, B, and D, the second numeral is the cube of the first numeral. For
example, 2^3 is 8, 3^3 is 27, and 5^3 is 125. However, in option C, 4^3 is 64, not 32,
and therefore it is the odd numeral pair.
13- A.
In options B, C, and D, the digits add up to 10. For example, in option B, 2+4+4=10,
in option C, 1+3+6=10, and in option D, 3+5+2=10. However, in option A, 3+2+4=9
which is equal to 9.
P a g e 33 | 90
14- D.
The relationship is x:x2.. ➔ 1/12 = 25/252 ➔ 1/1 = 25/625
15- D.
Jowar. Arhar, Urad, and Moong are all types of lentils or pulses commonly used in
Indian cuisine, while Jowar is a type of grain that is often used for making flour.
16- B.
The given sequence represents prime numbers in ascending order. The next prime
number after 11 is 13. Therefore, the correct answer is B. 13.
17- B.
G–1 F F-1 E
A +1 B L+1 M
M -1 L O-1 N
B +1 C W+1 X
L -1 K E–1 D
E+1 F R +1 S
18- C.
To determine the code for 23549, we need to identify the pattern in the given codes
for 15789 and 2346.
From the given codes, we can see that each digit in the original number is replaced
by a corresponding letter, and the letters are arranged in a particular order to form the
code.
For example, in the code for 15789, 1 is replaced by E, 5 is replaced by G, 7 is
replaced by K, 8 is replaced by P, and 9 is replaced by T. Therefore, the code for
15789 is EGKPT.
Similarly, in the code for 2346, 2 is replaced by A, 3 is replaced by L, 4 is replaced
by U, and 6 is replaced by R. Therefore, the code for 2346 is ALUR.
Now, to find the code for 23549, we need to replace each digit in the original number
with a corresponding letter and arrange them in the same order as in the previous
codes.
Therefore, 2 is replaced by A, 3 is replaced by L, 5 is replaced by G, 4 is replaced by
U, and 9 is replaced by T. Hence, the code for 23549 is ALGUT.
P a g e 34 | 90
19- C
White Blue
Blue Red
Red Yellow
Yellow Green
Green Black
Black Violet
Violet Orange
20- B. The first Indian to win the Dadasaheb Phalke Award was Devika Rani.
21- B.
Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost state of India, and it shares its border with China,
Myanmar, and Bhutan. As a result of its location in the far northeast of the country, the sun
rises first in Arunachal Pradesh, making it the "Land of the Rising Sun". Himachal Pradesh,
Uttar Pradesh, and Meghalaya are located more towards the west and south of Arunachal
Pradesh, so the sun rises later in these states.
22- B.
Black soil, also known as regur soil, is considered the best soil for cotton cultivation. This
soil is found in the Deccan plateau region of India, covering Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya
Pradesh, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. Black soil is rich in minerals like calcium,
magnesium, and iron, and has excellent water retention capacity, making it ideal for cotton
cultivation. The soil's high clay content also helps retain nutrients, promoting healthy plant
growth and yielding high-quality cotton. Red soil and laterite soil are not well-suited for
cotton cultivation, while mountain soil is better suited for growing crops like tea and coffee.
23- C
The historical play in Sanskrit by Vishakhadatta that narrates the ascent of the king
Chandragupta Maurya to power in Northern India is "Mudrarakshasa".
Option A, "Malavikagnimitra" is a Sanskrit play by Kalidasa, which is a romantic comedy
set in the backdrop of the royal court.
Option B, "Panchatantra" is a collection of Indian animal fables that are believed to have
originated more than 2,000 years ago.
Option D, "Abhijnanasakuntalam" is another famous Sanskrit play by Kalidasa, which is a
love story of King Dushyanta and Shakuntala.
24- B. 25- D. The first State organized based on language in India is Andhra Pradesh on 1
October 1953.
P a g e 35 | 90

Common University Entrance Test (CUET)-2021
PART-A
1. Select the correct word that can best complete the given sentence
Marriages between members of extended family were ____ to strengthen the ties of
relationship.
1. mentioned 2. promoted
3. indulged 4. performed
2. From the choices given below, select the pair which exhibits the same relationship
as the one in capitalized pair of words ➔ SOLDIER : REGIMENT
1. clown : circus 2. actor : troupe

3. dancer : ballet 4. instrument : musician
3. Which of the following is correctly spelt?
1. Surruptitious 2. Surepptitious
3. Surrepcitious 4. Surreptitious
4. Which of the following is nearest in meaning to the word 'EDIFY?
1. Instruct 2. Satisfy
3. Amuse 4. Consume
5. There was nobody to attend ___ the complaints of the passengers.
1. on 2. in
3. to 4. for
6. A post without remuneration is known as
1. voluntary 2. sinecure
3. sincere 4. honorary
P a g e 36 | 90
7. Select the most suitable antonym:

EXPEDITION
1. Silence 2. Explanation
3. Undertaking 4. Delay
8. Fill in the blanks with right words:
Lakshman was initially ____ at the suggestion but later started, ___ it himself.
1. thrilled, negating 2. frowning, rejecting

3. impressed, negating 4. shocked, advocating
9. Identify the meaning of the idiom from the options given:
Miss the boat
1. let too much time go by to complete a task 2. long for something that you don't have
3. miss out on an opportunity 4. not know the difference between right
and wrong
10. These grapes __________ sour.
1. are testing 2. tasted

3. taste 4. have tested
11. In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is SOULFUL written
in that code? (Note: Previously asked in KVS PRT Official Paper (Held On: 2015))
1. VPTKKTE 2. VPTKETK
3. TPVKKTE 4. TNRKMVG
12. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the expression?
1050  25 x 51-1942 = ?
1. 152 2. 200
3. 252 4. 300
P a g e 37 | 90
13. There are five statues, L, M, N, O and P, each of them having different height.
Statue L is smaller than only statue M. Statue O is smaller than statue N. Statue O is
longer than statue P. The height of the tallest statue is 20 feet. The height of the second
smallest statue is 11 feet. What will be the height of statue P? (Note: Previously asked in
44 SBI & IBPS Bank PO (Held On: 2014))
1. 9 feet 2. 12 feet
3. 13 feet 4. 15 feet
14. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right
turn and walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again
took a right turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far he from the starting
point?
1. 180 meters 2. 150 meters

3. 50 meters 4. None of these
15. The number, whose square is equal to the difference of the squares of the numbers
68 and 32, is
1. 36 2. 48
3. 60 4. 64
16. Which one of the following is not a prime number?
1. 31 2. 61
3. 71 4. 91
17. 1397 x 1397 = ?
1. 1981709 2. 1951609
3. 1836219 4. 1902179
18. What least number must be added to 1058, so that the sum is completely divisible
by 23?
1. 21 2. 18
3. 3 4. 2
P a g e 38 | 90
19. Choose the correct answer: 7845 - ? = 8461- 3569
1. 2953 2. 2773
3. 3569 4. 2352
20. Which country is called the Land of Fiords?
1. Sweden 2. Italy
3. Norway 4. Singapore
21. The biggest part of the brain is
1. cerebrum 2. spinal cord

3. cerebellum 4. brain stem
22. Name the person who was also known as 'Deshbandhu'
1. S. Radhakrishnan 2. G. K. Gokhale
3. Chittaranjan D 4. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
23. Who is known as 'The Saint of Gutters"?
1. Baba Amte 2. Anna Hazare

3. Mother Teresa 4. None of these
24. Garampani Sanctuary is located at (Note: Previously asked in CISF ASI Official Paper
held in 2018)
1. Junagarh, Gujarat 2. Diphu Assam

3. Kohima. Nagaland 4. Gangtok Sikkim
25. The National Rural Health Mission has been launched in the country in ____
1. 2003 2. 2005
3. 2007 4. 2000
P a g e 39 | 90
Answer Key -2021

Q1 2 Q2 2 Q3 4
Q4 1 Q5 3 Q6 4
Q7 4 Q8 4 Q9 3
Q10 3 Q11 1 Q12 2
Q13 1 Q14 3 Q15 3
Q16 4 Q17 2 Q18 3
Q19 1 Q20 3 Q21 1
Q22 3 Q23 3 Q24 2
Q25 2
Explanation
1- Option 2.
The sentence implies that marriages between members of an extended family were
common and had a specific purpose. The word "promoted" fits perfectly in this
context as it means to encourage or support something. In this case, the marriages
were encouraged or supported as a means of strengthening the ties of relationship
between the members of the extended family.
The word "mentioned" doesn't make sense in this context as it implies that marriages
between members of an extended family were only talked about, but not necessarily
practiced.
The word "indulged" also doesn't fit in this context. To indulge in something means
to allow oneself to enjoy something, often without restraint or self-control. This
meaning is not appropriate for the sentence as it doesn't reflect the purpose of the
marriages.
The word "performed" doesn't make sense in this context either. To perform
something implies that there is a set procedure or action that needs to be carried out,
but this doesn't apply to marriages between members of an extended family.
2- Option 2
In the capitalized pair of words "SOLDIER : REGIMENT", a soldier is a member of
a regiment, and a regiment is a group of soldiers.
Similarly, in the option "actor : troupe", an actor is a member of a troupe, and a troupe
is a group of actors.
P a g e 40 | 90
The other options don't exhibit the same relationship as the capitalized pair of words.
A clown is a performer in a circus, but a circus is not a group of clowns. A dancer is
a performer in a ballet, but a ballet is not a group of dancers. An instrument is played
by a musician, but a musician is not a group of instruments.
3- Option 4
It means something that is kept secret or done in a way that avoids being noticed. The
other options, "Surruptitious", "Surepptitious", and "Surrepcitious" are all misspelled.
4- Option 1
The word "edify" means to instruct or enlighten someone, especially in moral or
religious matters, to improve their character or intellect.
The word "instruct" also means to teach someone a skill or subject, to give orders or
direction, or to provide knowledge or information. Therefore, "instruct" is the word
that is nearest in meaning to "edify".
The other options do not convey the same meaning as "edify." "Satisfy" means to
fulfill a desire or need, "amuse" means to entertain, and "consume" means to use up
or eat.
5- Option 3
The phrasal verb "attend to" means to deal with or take care of something. Therefore,
the sentence "There was nobody to attend to the complaints of the passengers" means
that there was nobody available to address or handle the complaints made by the
passengers.
The preposition "to" is used after the verb "attend" to indicate the person or thing that
requires attention.
The other prepositions listed do not fit the context of the sentence.
"On" indicates a surface or a point in time, neither of which is relevant to the sentence.
"In" refers to a location within something, which does not make sense in the context
of the sentence.
"For" indicates a goal or purpose, which is not relevant to the sentence either.
P a g e 41 | 90
6- Option 4
An honorary position or title is one that is given as an honor or recognition of
someone's achievements or contributions but does not involve any payment or salary.
The other options do not convey the same meaning as "honorary". "Voluntary" refers
to work or service that is done without payment, but it is not a specific term for a
position or role. "Sinecure" refers to a position that requires little work but provides
a high salary or other benefits. "Sincere" means genuine, honest, and truthful.
7- Option 4
An "expedition" refers to a journey or voyage undertaken for a specific purpose,
usually with a sense of urgency or efficiency. Therefore, "delay" is the opposite,
referring to the act of postponing or putting off something.
The other options, "silence" and "explanation" are not related to the meaning of
"expedition". "Undertaking" could be considered a related word, but it is not an
antonym of "expedition".
8- Option 4
"Lakshman was initially shocked at the suggestion but later started advocating it
himself."
This means that Lakshman was initially surprised or taken aback by the suggestion,
but later began to support or speak in favor of it.
The other options do not fit the context of the sentence. "Thrilled" and "impressed"
both have positive connotations and would not be used to describe a negative initial
reaction. "Frowning" and "rejecting" both have negative connotations but do not
convey the idea of a change in attitude later.
9- Option 3
10- Option 3
The word "taste" is the present tense form of the verb, which is appropriate for
describing something that is currently happening. The adjective "sour" is used to
describe the taste of the grapes.
Option 1, "are testing," is grammatically incorrect because it is not a correct verb form
for the sentence. Option 2, "tasted," is in the past tense and therefore incorrect for
P a g e 42 | 90
describing the current taste of the grapes. Option 4, "have tested," is in the present
perfect tense and is not appropriate for describing the current taste of the grapes either.
11- Option 1. VPTKKTE
T +1 S S+1 V
H+1 I O+1 P
R+1 U U+1 T
I-1 H L–1 K
V-1 R F–1 K
E–1 D U–1 T
S-1 U L–1 E
12- Option 2. Use BODMAS
13- Option 1.
M> L> N> O> P
20 feet 11 feet
14- Option 3. 50m. Try to draw vector diagram.

15- Option 3. The difference of the squares of 68 and 32 is:
(X)2 = (68)2 – (32)2 ➔ (X)2 = 4624 - 1024 = 3600
(X)2 = 3600 = 60
16- Option 4. Check definition of Prime Number.
17- Option 2.
18- Option 3.
19- Option 1.
20- Option 3.
21- Option 1.
22- Option 3.
23- Option 3. The Saint of Gutters' is often used to refer to Mother Teresa
24- Option 2.
25- Option 2. The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched by the
Hon'ble Prime Minister on 12th April 2005, to provide accessible, affordable and
quality health care to the rural population, especially the vulnerable groups.
P a g e 43 | 90

Common University Entrance Test (CUET)-2022
PART-A
1. Choose the correctly spelt word.
1. Penacea 2. Panacea
3. Panacae 4. Panecea
2. Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their
correct order.
(A) The old sculptor, Jakanachari. was working on the main image of the temple in
the shrine.
(B) At the next full moon it was to be consecrated and opened for worship.
(C) The temple of Belur was nearly ready
(D) He spoke to no one and tolerated no interruption.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (D), (B), (C) 2. (C), (B), (A), (D)

3. (B), (C), (A), (D) 4. (B), (A), (C), (D)
3. Choose the correct sentence.
1. I recommend that he see a doctor. 2. I recommend that he sees a doctor.

3. I recommend that he is seeing a 4. I recommend that he has to see a
doctor. doctor.
P a g e 44 | 90
4. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(A) Honorary (I) One who does good to mankind
(B) Mercenary (II) The motive to earn money
(C) Philanthropist (III) An office without pay
(D) Prodigal (IV) One who wastes money
1. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) 2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) 4. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
5. Which of the following approximates the meaning of the phrase, 'on edge"?
1. feeling excited 2. feeling nervous

3. feeling relaxed 4. feeling angry
6. Identify the correct indirect narration for the following sentence
He said, "Be quiet and listen to my words."
1. He urged them and said be quiet and 2. He urged them to be quiet and listen
listen to words. to his words.
3. He said they should be quiet and listen 4. He said you should be quiet and listen
to his words to my words.
7. From among the four options given, choose the one word substitute for the phrase,
'one who compiles dictionaries
1. Bibliophile 2. Evangelist
3. Lexicographer 4. Lecturer
8. Identify the correct option to complete the sentence meaningfully.
While they-_____ cricket, lights _____ out.
1. had watched, had gone 2. were watching, went

3. had watched, went 4. have watched. have gone
P a g e 45 | 90
9. Choose the correct phrase to complete the following sentence.

The new washing machine often goes ___ -order.
1. run by 2. down in
3. out of 4. even with
10. Identify the active voice for the following sentence.
Should a lie be ever told by you?
1. Should a lie ever be told? 2. Should you ever tell a lie?

3. Should a lie be ever told? 4. Should a lie be ever told by everyone?
11. Name of the first Satellite in the world to be launched into the space is:
1. Apollo-I 2. Sputnik
3. Galileo 4. Armstrong
12. Which of the following is TRUE about G20?
(A) India will host the First G20 Summit in 2023.
(B) It accounts for more than 80 percent of global GDP. 75 per cent of global trade
and 60 percent of the global population.
(C) Piyush Goyal is the G20 Sherpa from India.
(D) The permanent secretariat of G20 is in New York.
1. (A), (B) and (D) only 2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A) and (C) only 4. (B), (C) and (D) only
13. Who among the following is the first person of Indian origin to receive Booker
Prize?
1. Salman Rushdie 2. Jhumpa Lahiri

3. Arundhati Roy 4. V.S. Naipaul
P a g e 46 | 90
14. Which of the following are true regarding Indira Gandhi National Centre for the
Arts (IGNCA)?
(A) It is a premier government-funded art organization in India.
(B) It is an autonomous institute under the Union Ministry of Culture.
(C) It was established to serve as a major resource centre for Indian arts, especially
written, oral and visual source material.
(D) It was launched by Former Prime Minister Shrimati Indira Gandhi.
1. (A), (B) and (D) only 2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D) only 4. (A) and (C) only
15. Which direction does a geostationary satellite revolve round the earth?
1. East to West 2. South to North
3. West to East 4. North to South
16. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is in the middle while standing in a line? Q standing
to the right of T while S is between P and T. and Q is between T and R.
1. T 2. P
3. Q 4. R
17. A is 13th from Top. B is 18th from Bottom. When A and B change their position
then A becomes 21st from Top. What is the new position of B from bottom?
1. 29 2. 28
3. 25 4. 26
18. Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circle facing the
centre. V is third to the right of Q and second to the left of R while Q is second to the
left of T and immediate right of S. Also, U is between Q and T while P is not at the
left of R. Who is exactly at left of S? (Note: Previously asked in SSC MTS - 20 (Held On:
13 August 2019)
1. V 2. U
3. P 4. Q
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19. Seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G take a series of tests. No two students get
similar marks. G always scores more than A. A always scores more than B. Each time
either C scores the highest and E gets the least, or alternatively D scores the highest
and F or B scores the least. If G is ranked fifth, which of these must be true? (Note:
Previously asked in NTPC CBT-I (Held On: 12 Jan 2021 Shift 1)
1. C is ranked second 2. D scores the highest

3. E is ranked third 4. B is ranked fourth
20. In a row of boys, Jayant is 7th from the start and 11th from the end. In another
row of boys, Vikram is 10th from the start and 12th from the end. How many boys
are there in both the rows together? (Note: Previously asked in ACC 121 GMAT (Held in
Aug 2019)
1. 40 2. 39
3. 38 4. 35
𝑎 4 𝑝 9 3𝑎𝑝−𝑏𝑞
21. If = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 = , 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 is
𝑏 3 𝑞 14 4𝑏𝑞−7𝑎𝑝
1. -11/14 2. 11/14
3. 12/13 4. -12/13
22. Three spheres of radii 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm are melted to form a new sphere.
Then, the radius of the new sphere is (Note: Previously asked in CDS Maths Paper 8 (Held
On: 8 Sep 2019))
1. 5 cm 2. 6 cm
3. 7 cm 4. 12 cm
23. If the numerator of a fraction be increased by 15% and its denominator be
diminished by 8%, 15 the value of the fraction is then the original fraction is 16
1. 3/4 2. 4/3
3. 3/7 4. 3/8
P a g e 48 | 90
24. 13 chairs and 5 tables were bought for 8280. If the average cost of a table be 1227,
then the average cost of a chair is (Note: Previously asked in MP High Court Stenographer
30 July 2017)
1. Rs. 185 2. Rs. 175

3. Rs. 165 4. Rs. 145
25. The selling price of 30 items is equal to the purchase price of 25 items, then the
profit or loss percent is
2 2
1. 16 %, 𝐿𝑜𝑠𝑠 2. 16 %, 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡
3 3
3. 20%, Loss 4. 20%, Profit
Answer Key -2022

Q1 2 Q2 2 Q3 1
Q4 1 Q5 2 Q6 3
Q7 3 Q8 2 Q9 3
Q10 2 Q11 2 Q12 2
Q13 3 Q14 1 Q15 2
Q16 1 Q17 4 Q18 3
Q19 1 Q20 3 Q21 1
Q22 2 Q23 1 Q24 3
Q25 1
Explanation
1- Option 2.
Panacea is a noun that means a remedy for all diseases, difficulties, or problems. It is
spelled with the letter "n" after the letter "a".
Option 1 "Penacea" is spelled with an extra letter "e" after the letter "n", which makes
it incorrect.
Option 3 "Panacae" is spelled with an extra letter "a" after the letter "c", which makes
it incorrect.
Option 4 "Panecea" is spelled with an extra letter "e" after the letter "a", which makes
it incorrect.
2- Option 2.
P a g e 49 | 90
3- Option 1.
This is because when making a recommendation, the verb "recommend" is usually
followed by the word "that" and then the base form of the verb, not the third person
singular form. In this case, the base form of the verb "see" is used after "that".
Option 2, "I recommend that he sees a doctor," uses the third person singular form of
the verb, which is not correct in this context.
Option 3, "I recommend that he is seeing a doctor," is also not correct because the
present continuous tense is not used in this context.
Option 4, "I recommend that he has to see a doctor," is incorrect because it implies
that there is a requirement or obligation to see a doctor, rather than a recommendation
or suggestion.
4- Option 1.
(A) Honorary - (III) An office without pay.
(B) Mercenary - (II) The motive to earn money,
(C) Philanthropist - (I) One who does good to mankind and
(D) Prodigal - (IV) One who wastes money.
5- Option 2
The phrase "on edge" usually means being nervous, tense, or anxious. It can also
mean being irritable, edgy or restless due to stress or anticipation.
6- Option 3.
In indirect narration, the reporting verb is usually changed to an appropriate verb that
conveys the same meaning as the original sentence, and the pronouns and verb tenses
are also changed accordingly.
Option 1: "He urged them and said be quiet and listen to words" is not a correct
indirect narration because it does not convey the exact same meaning as the original
sentence. It also omits the possessive pronoun "my" from the original sentence.
Option 2: "He urged them to be quiet and listen to his words" is close in meaning to
the original sentence, but it changes the reporting verb from "said" to "urged," which
is not an exact match.
P a g e 50 | 90
Option 4: "He said you should be quiet and listen to my words" changes the pronoun
"he" to "you," which is not correct since the speaker is reporting someone else's
words.
7- Option 3.
8- Option 2.
This is because the sentence is in the past continuous tense, indicating an action in
progress in the past. Therefore, "were watching" is the correct verb tense. The phrase
"lights went out" is also in the past tense, indicating an action that occurred at a
specific point in the past.
9- Option 3.
10- Option 2.
11- Option 2.
The name of the first satellite launched into space is Sputnik 1. It was launched by
the Soviet Union on October 4, 1957.
Option 1, Apollo-I, refers to the first manned mission of the Apollo program, which
was a disaster resulting in the deaths of three astronauts in 1967.
Option 3, Galileo, was a spacecraft sent by NASA to study the planet Jupiter and its
moons.
Option 4, Armstrong, refers to Neil Armstrong, the first human to walk on the moon
during the Apollo 11 mission in 1969.
12- Option 2. A, B and C
(A) India will host the First G20 Summit in 2023 - This is true, India is scheduled to
host the G20 summit in 2023.
(B) It accounts for more than 80 percent of global GDP, 75 per cent of global trade
and 60 percent of the global population - This is true. G20 countries represent more
than 80% of global GDP, 75% of global trade, and approximately 60% of the
world's population.
(C) Piyush Goyal is the G20 Sherpa from India - This is true. Piyush Goyal is the
G20 Sherpa from India, which means he is responsible for coordinating and
negotiating India's positions on various issues at the G20 meetings.
P a g e 51 | 90
(D) The permanent secretariat of G00 is in New York - This is false. G20 does not
have a permanent secretariat.
13- Option 3.
The first person of Indian origin to receive the Booker Prize was V.S. Naipaul.
14- Option 1. A, B and D
(A) is true as the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) is a premier
government-funded arts organization in India.
(B) is also true as the IGNCA is an autonomous institute under the Union Ministry of
Culture.
(C) is not entirely true. While the IGNCA was established to serve as a major resource
center for Indian arts, it is not limited to written, oral, and visual source material. The
IGNCA also aims to promote research, documentation, and dissemination of
knowledge in the field of Indian art, culture, and heritage.
(D) is true as the IGNCA was launched by former Prime Minister Shrimati Indira
Gandhi on 19th November 1985, in memory of her father, Late Shri Jawaharlal
Nehru.
15- Option 2.
A geostationary satellite revolves around the Earth in an eastward direction (west to
east), following the Earth's rotation. It completes one orbit around the Earth in 24
hours, which is the same time it takes for the Earth to complete one rotation on its
axis.
16- Option 1.
P -- S -- T – Q --R
17- Option 4.
The new position of B from the bottom can be found as follows:
When A and B change their position, the position of A from the top becomes 21. This
means that A moves up 8 positions (13 - 21 = -8). Since A and B have switched
positions, B moves down 8 positions (18 - 8 = 10) to occupy A's previous position
from the bottom. Therefore, the new position of B from the bottom is 10.
P a g e 52 | 90
18- Option 3.
19- Option 1.
Let's analyze the given information to determine which statements must be true if G
is ranked fifth:
• G always scores more than A: This means A is ranked below G.
• A always scores more than B: This means B is ranked below A and G.
• Each time either C scores the highest and E gets the least, or alternatively D
scores the highest and F or B scores the least: This means that there are two
possible scenarios for the test results:
• Scenario 1: C > D > A > F or B > E > G
• Scenario 2: D > C > A > F or B > E > G
• If G is ranked fifth, it means that G is ranked below A, B, C, and D. Therefore,
we can eliminate option 2 (D scores the highest) as it contradicts this
information.
Now, let's consider the two possible scenarios:
• Scenario 1: C > D > A > F or B > E > G. In this scenario, we know that G is
ranked fifth, which means that E, F or B must be ranked below G. Since we
already know that B is ranked below A and G, it must be either F or E that is
ranked below G. Therefore, we cannot determine whether statement 4 (B is
ranked fourth) is true or not. However, we know that C is ranked higher than
G, which means that statement 1 (C is ranked second) is true and statement 3
(E is ranked third) is false.
P a g e 53 | 90
• Scenario 2: D > C > A > F or B > E > G. In this scenario, we know that G is
ranked fifth, which means that E, F or B must be ranked below G. Since we
already know that B is ranked below A and G, it must be either F or E that is
ranked below G. Therefore, we cannot determine whether statement 4 (B is
ranked fourth) is true or not. However, we know that C is ranked higher than
G, which means that statement 1 (C is ranked second) is true and statement 3
(E is ranked third) is false.
20- Option 3.
Jayant is 7th from the start and 11th from the end:
This means there are 7 + 11 - 1 = 17 boys in the row.
Vikram is 10th from the start and 12th from the end:
This means there are 10 + 12 - 1 = 21 boys in the row.
Therefore, the total number of boys in both rows together is 17 + 21 = 38.
21- Option 1.
Simple calculation.
22- Option 2
Let the radius of the new sphere be r. Since the three spheres are melted to form the
new sphere, their volumes are equal. Hence, we have:
4/3 * π * (3)^3 + 4/3 * π * (4)^3 + 4/3 * π * (5)^3 = 4/3 * π * r^3
Simplifying the equation, we get:
r^3 = (27 + 64 + 125)/π = 216/π
Taking the cube root on both sides, we get:
r = (216/π)^(1/3)
So, the radius of the new sphere is approximately 6.02 cm (rounded to two decimal
places).
P a g e 54 | 90
23- Option 1.
Let the original fraction be represented as x/y.
According to the problem statement, after increasing the numerator by 15% and
diminishing the denominator by 8%, the new fraction becomes:
(115/92) * (x/y) = 15/16.
Simplifying this equation, we get x/y = (15/16) * (92/115) = 3/4
24- Option 3.
Let the cost of each chair be x. Then the cost of 13 chairs and 5 tables can be expressed
as: 13x + 5(1227) = 8280 13x + 6135 = 8280 13x = 2145 x = 165
Therefore, the cost of each chair is Rs. 165.
25- Option 1.
Let's assume that the cost price of one item is 1 unit.
According to the given information, the selling price of 30 items is equal to
the cost price of 25 items.
So, the selling price of 1 item = cost price of 25/30 = 5/6 of the cost price of 1 item.
Profit or loss percent can be calculated using the formula:
Profit/Loss percent = [(Selling Price - Cost Price)/Cost Price] * 100%
Since the selling price is less than the cost price, there will be a loss.
Let's calculate the loss percent:
Profit/Loss percent = [(Selling Price - Cost Price)/Cost Price] * 100% = [(5/6
- 1)/1] * 100% = -1/6 * 100% = -16 2/3%
P a g e 55 | 90
Common University
Entrance Test (CUET)
PART A
P a g e 56 | 90
SET - 1
Common University Entrance Test (CUET)
PART-A
Q1.Choose the correct synonym for the word "Erode"
a) Construct c) Destroy
b) Create d) Deduce
Q2.Choose the correct antonym for the word "Improve"
a) Deteriorate c) Degrade
b) Decline d) Worsen
Q3.Choose the correct spelling for the word "Seismology"
a) Siesmology c) Seismologye
b) Seismologee d) Seismology
Q4.Choose the correct synonym for the word "Permeate"
a) Block c) Penetrate
b) Confine d) Repel
Q5.Choose the correct antonym for the word "Permanent"
a) Temporary c) Transient
b) Volatile d) Impermanent
Q6.Which sentence should come first?
a. The train station was crowded c. She boarded the train with her
with commuters. luggage.
b. She arrived just in time for her d. She found a seat in the last
train. carriage.
Q7.Which sentence should come last?
a. The cake was delicious. c. She followed the recipe
b. She baked the cake from carefully.
scratch. d. She served the cake to her
guests.
P a g e 57 | 90
Q8.Who is known as the "Father of the Nation" in India?

A. Mahatma Gandhi C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B. Jawaharlal Nehru D. Bhimrao Ambedkar
Q9.The Indian Constitution was adopted on which date?
A. August 15, 1947 C. December 9, 1946
B. January 26, 1950 D. November 26, 1949
Q10. What is the percentage increase if a price increased from Rs.50 to Rs.60?
a) 10% c) 25%
b) 20% d) 30%
Q11. If 40% of students in a class are girls, how many boys are in the class if there
are 25 girls?
a) 15 c) 35
b) 30 d) 40
Q12. Q12. A group of 20 students took an exam, out of which 16 students passed.
What is the pass percentage?
a) 80% c) 70%
b) 75% d) 85%
Q13. The price of a book is increased from Rs. 100 to Rs. 120. What is the
percentage increase in price?
a) 12% c) 16.67%
b) 20% d) 10%
Q14. In a class, 40% of the students are boys and the rest are girls. If there are 24
girls in the class, what is the total strength of the class?
a) 40 c) 60
b) 50 d) 70
Q15. Which Indian state recently announced the implementation of the 'One
Nation, One Ration Card' scheme?
a) Maharashtra c) Bihar
b) Uttar Pradesh d) Odisha
P a g e 58 | 90
Q16. Who was recently appointed as the new Prime Minister of Israel?
a) Benjamin Netanyahu c) Naftali Bennett
b) Yair Lapid d) Avigdor Lieberman
Q17. Who among the following won the Best Actor award at the 2021 Academy
Awards?
a) Anthony Hopkins c) Riz Ahmed d
b) Chadwick Boseman ) Gary Oldman
Q18. Which country recently became the first in the world to approve the use of
Bitcoin as legal tender?
a) Japan c) Switzerland
b) El Salvador d) Luxembourg
Q19. If all roses are flowers and all flowers are plants, then:
a) All roses are plants c) Some roses are plants
b) All plants are roses d) Some plants are roses
Q20. Which word does not belong in the following list?
Apple, banana, orange, grape, carrot
a) Apple d) Grape
b) Banana e) Carrot
c) Orange
Q21. If all cats are black and all black things are beautiful, then:
a) All cats are beautiful
b) All beautiful things are black
c) All cats are black and beautiful
d) None of the above
Q22. If A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, and so on, then what is the value of the word
"HAPPY"?
a) 63 c) 65
b) 64 d) 66
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Q23. Which number comes next in the sequence: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ...?
a) 18 c) 21
b) 20 d) 22
Q24. If a round cake is cut into 8 pieces with three straight cuts, how many pieces
will there be if it is cut with four straight cuts?
a) 9 c) 16
b) 12 d) 20
Q25. Which of the following statements is true if the first two statements are true?
All cats are mammals.
All mammals have fur.
a) All cats have fur. c) All cats are animals with fur.
b) All animals with fur are cats. d) None of the above.
P a g e 60 | 90
Answer Key -SET - 1

Q1 c Q2 a Q3 d
Q4 c Q5 a Q6 a
Q7 d Q8 A Q9 D
Q10 b Q11 c Q12 a
Q13 b Q14 c Q15 d
Q16 c Q17 a Q18 b
Q19 a Q20 e Q21 a
Q22 d Q23 c Q24 b
Q25 a
Explanation
Q1. Answer: c) Destroy

Explanation: Erode means to gradually wear away or destroy something.
Q2. Answer: a) Deteriorate
Explanation: Improve means to make something better or enhance its quality, while
deteriorate means to make something worse or lower its quality.
Q3. Answer: d) Seismology
Explanation: The correct spelling for the branch of Geology that studies earthquakes
and seismic waves is "Seismology".
Q4. Answer: c) Penetrate
Explanation: Permeate means to spread or pass through something, while penetrate
means to pierce or enter something.
Q5. Answer: a) Temporary
Explanation: Permanent means lasting or existing for a long time, while temporary
means short-lived or not lasting for long.
Q6. Answer: a. The train station was crowded with commuters.
Explanation: The logical order for these sentences would be A, B, C, D. The first
sentence sets the scene, describing the busy train station. The second sentence
introduces the main character and her time-sensitive task of catching a train. The third
sentence describes her successful completion of the task by boarding the train.
Finally, the fourth sentence provides a detail about where she found a seat.
P a g e 61 | 90
Q7. Answer: d. She served the cake to her guests.

Explanation: The logical order for these sentences would be B, C, A, D. The first two
sentences provide context for the main event: the successful baking of a cake. The
third sentence gives the result of the baking by describing the cake as delicious.
Finally, the fourth sentence describes the ultimate purpose of the baking, which was
to serve the cake to guests.
Q8. Answer: A. Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi is widely regarded as the "Father of the Nation" in
India for his role in leading India's independence movement against British
colonial rule.
Q9. Answer: D. November 26, 1949
Explanation: The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
November 26, 1949, and came into effect on January 26, 1950.
Q10. Answer: b) 20%
Explanation: The percentage increase can be calculated by dividing the difference
between the new and old value by the old value, and then multiplying the result
by 100. Here, the difference is Rs.10 and the old value is Rs.50, so the percentage
increase is (10/50)*100 = 20%.
Q11. Answer: c) 35
Explanation: Since 40% of the students are girls, the percentage of boys is 100% -
40% = 60%. So the total number of students in the class is (25/0.4) = 62.5, which
can be rounded up to 63. The number of boys in the class is 63 - 25 = 38, so the
answer is 35.
Q12. Answer: a) 80%
Explanation: Pass percentage can be calculated as (number of students passed/total
number of students) * 100. In this case, pass percentage = (16/20) * 100 = 80%.
Q13. Answer: b) 20%
Explanation: Percentage increase can be calculated as [(new price - old price) / old
price] * 100. In this case, percentage increase = [(120-100)/100] * 100 = 20%.
Q14. Answer: c) 60
P a g e 62 | 90
Explanation: Let the total strength of the class be x. Then, number of boys = 40% of
x and number of girls = 60% of x. Given that the number of girls is 24. Therefore,
60% of x = 24. Solving for x, we get x = 40.
Q15. Answer: d) Odisha
Explanation: The government of Odisha recently announced the implementation of
the 'One Nation, One Ration Card' scheme, which allows migrant workers to access
food grains from any ration shop across the country.
Q16. Answer: c) Naftali Bennett
Explanation: Naftali Bennett was recently appointed as the new Prime Minister of
Israel, succeeding Benjamin Netanyahu.
Q17. Answer: a) Anthony Hopkins
Explanation: Anthony Hopkins won the Best Actor award at the 2021 Academy
Awards for his role in 'The Father'.
Q18. Answer: b) El Salvador
Explanation: El Salvador recently became the first country in the world to approve
the use of Bitcoin as legal tender.
Q19. Answer: a) All roses are plants
Explanation: This is a classic example of a syllogism, which is a logical argument
consisting of two premises and a conclusion. The two premises in this case are "all
roses are flowers" and "all flowers are plants". From these two premises, we can
conclude that "all roses are plants".
Q20. Answer: e) Carrot
Explanation: All the other words are types of fruit, while carrot is a vegetable.
Q21. Answer: a) All cats are beautiful
Explanation: The premises given are "all cats are black" and "all black things are
beautiful". From these, we can conclude that "all cats are beautiful".
Q22. Answer: d) 66
P a g e 63 | 90
Explanation: To find the value of the word "HAPPY", we need to add up the values
of its individual letters. H = 8, A = 1, P = 16, P = 16, Y = 25. Adding these values
gives us a total of 66.
Q23. Answer: c) 21
Explanation: The sequence is generated by adding consecutive natural numbers. The
first term is 1, the second term is 1+2=3, the third term is 1+2+3=6, and so on.
Therefore, the next term would be 1+2+3+4=10+5=15+6=21.
Q24. Answer: b) 12
Explanation: The first cut will divide the cake into two halves. The second cut will
divide the cake into quarters. The third cut will divide the cake into eighths. The fourth
cut will intersect the previous three cuts and create four new pieces between each
adjacent pair of cuts. This means that each of the eight original pieces will be cut in
half, resulting in a total of 12 pieces.
Q25. Answer: a) All cats have fur.
P a g e 64 | 90
SET - 2
PART-A
Q1.Choose the correct spelling for the word "Palaeontology"
a) Paleontology c) Palaeontollogy
b) Paleaontology d) Paleontollogy
Q2.Choose the correct synonym for the word "Observe"
a) Ignore c) Notice
b) Neglect d) Overlook
Q3.Choose the correct antonym for the word "Accelerate"
a) Decelerate c) Slow down
b) Decrease d) Halt
Q4.Choose the correct spelling for the word "Metamorphism"
a) Metamorphysm c) Metamorphism
b) Metamorphosm d) Metamorphisn
Q5.Choose the correct synonym for the word "Resilient"
a) Fragile c) Flexible
b) Delicate d) Weak
Q6.Which sentence should come second?
a) The students had a great time c) They saw a lion, a tiger, and a
at the zoo. bear.
b) They learned about the d) They packed a picnic lunch to
different animal habitats. enjoy outside.
Q7.Which sentence should come third?
a) She bought some vegetables b) She cooked a delicious meal
and fruits at the market. for her family.
c) She looked up a recipe online.
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d) She went to the supermarket to

buy some ingredients.
Q8.Who is the current Prime Minister of India?
A. Narendra Modi C. Rahul Gandhi
B. Manmohan Singh D. Sonia Gandhi
Q9.The Indian National Congress was founded in which year?
A. 1857 D. 1919
B. 1885
C. 1905
Q10. If a person scored 70% marks in an exam and got 420 marks, what was the
total marks for the exam?
a) 500 c) 700
b) 600 d) 800
Q11. If the original price of a product is Rs.50 and it is discounted by 20%, what
is the sale price?
a) Rs.10 c) Rs.30
b) Rs.20 d) Rs.40
Q12. A sum of money becomes Rs. 16,200 in 3 years at 10% per annum simple
interest. What was the principal amount?
a) Rs. 14,000 c) Rs. 16,000
b) Rs. 15,000 d) Rs. 17,000
Q13. A train covers a distance of 240 km in 3 hours. What is the average speed of
the train in km/h?
a) 70 km/h c) 90 km/h
b) 80 km/h d) 100 km/h
Q14. A man sold a watch for Rs. 2400 at a profit of 20%. What was the cost price
of the watch?
a) Rs. 2000 c) Rs. 2250
b) Rs. 2200 d) Rs. 2500
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Q15. Who among the following was recently elected as the new President of Iran?
a) Ebrahim Raisi c) Mahmoud Ahmadinejad
b) Hassan Rouhani d) Ali Khamenei
Q16. Which Indian state recently announced a new electric vehicle policy aimed
at promoting the use of electric vehicles in the state?
a) Maharashtra c) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu d) Andhra Pradesh
Q17. Who among the following won the Women's Singles title at the 2021 French
Open?
a) Naomi Osaka c) Simona Halep
b) Ashleigh Barty d) Iga Swiatek
Q18. Which Indian state recently launched the 'Mukhyamantri Mufat Ilaj Yojana'
aimed at providing free medical treatment to the poor?
a) Uttar Pradesh c) Gujarat
b) Madhya Pradesh d) Bihar
Q19. Which of the following statements is a valid logical implication?
a) If it is raining, then the ground is wet.
b) If the ground is wet, then it is raining.
c) If it is not raining, then the ground is dry.
d) If the ground is dry, then it is not raining.
Q20. Which of the following is a valid syllogism?
a) All dogs have fur. My cat has fur. Therefore, my cat is a dog.
b) All men are mortal. Socrates is a man. Therefore, Socrates is mortal.
c) All birds can fly. Penguins cannot fly. Therefore, penguins are not birds.
d) All fruits are red. Apples are fruits. Therefore, apples are red.
Q21. Which of the following is an example of a valid deductive argument?
a) All trees have leaves. This plant has leaves. Therefore, this plant is a tree.
b) Some cars are red. This car is red. Therefore, this car is a Ford.
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c) Every time I eat pizza, I get heartburn. Therefore, pizza causes heartburn.
d) Everyone who studies hard gets good grades. John studies hard. Therefore,
John will get good grades.
Q22. Which of the following is an example of a valid inductive argument?
a) All crows are black. Therefore, this bird I saw is a crow.
b) All swans are white. Therefore, all birds are white.
c) Every time I eat pizza, I get heartburn. Therefore, pizza causes heartburn.
d) John studies hard and gets good grades. Therefore, if you study hard, you
will get good grades.
Q23. Which of the following is an example of the fallacy of affirming the
consequent?
a) If it is raining, then the ground is wet. The ground is wet. Therefore, it is
raining.
b) All cats have fur. My dog has fur. Therefore, my dog is a cat.
c) If it is cold outside, then I wear a jacket. I am wearing a jacket. Therefore, it
is cold outside.
d) If I eat pizza, I will get heartburn. I have heartburn. Therefore, I ate pizza.
Q24. Which of the following is an example of the fallacy of hasty generalization?
a) Every cat I've met has been friendly. Therefore, all cats are friendly.
b) John is a good musician. Therefore, John must also be good at sports.
c) The last two movies I watched were boring. Therefore, all movies are boring.
d) I heard one bad review of this restaurant. Therefore, the food must be
terrible.
Q25. Which of the following is a valid argument by analogy?
a) All dogs are loyal. Therefore, all cats are loyal.
b) All humans are mortal. Therefore, all animals are mortal.
c) All birds have feathers. Therefore, all planes have feathers.
d) All cars have wheels. Therefore, all bicycles have wheels.
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Answer Key -SET - 2

Q1 a Q2 c Q3 a
Q4 c Q5 c Q6 B
Q7 D Q8 A Q9 B
Q10 b Q11 d Q12 b
Q13 b Q14 c Q15 a
Q16 b Q17 b Q18 b
Q19 a Q20 b Q21 d
Q22 a Q23 a Q24 a
Q25 d
Explanation
Q1. Answer: a) Paleontology

Explanation: The correct spelling for the branch of Geology that studies fossils and
prehistoric life is "Paleontology".
Q2. Answer: c) Notice
Explanation: Observe means to watch or take note of something, while notice means
to become aware of something or to pay attention to it.
Q3. Answer: a) Decelerate
Explanation: Accelerate means to increase in speed or to quicken, while decelerate
means to slow down or to reduce speed.
Q4. Answer: c) Metamorphism
Explanation: The correct spelling for the process by which rocks undergo changes in
texture, mineralogy, and/or composition due to heat, pressure, and other factors is
"Metamorphism".
Q5. Answer: c) Flexible
Explanation: Resilient means able to recover quickly or to bounce back after a setback
or difficulty, while flexible means able to bend easily without breaking.
Q6. Answer: B. They learned about the different animal habitats.
Explanation: The logical order for these sentences would be D, B, C, A. The first
sentence provides a general statement about the students having fun at the zoo. The
second sentence gives a specific detail about what they learned while there. The third
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sentence describes some of the animals they saw, and the fourth sentence provides a
detail about their preparations for the trip.
Q7. Answer: D. She went to the supermarket to buy some ingredients.
Explanation: The logical order for these sentences would be C, D, A, B. The first
sentence describes a result of her shopping trip, which was the purchase of some
ingredients. The second sentence describes the end result of the cooking activity. The
third sentence provides a detail about how she found the recipe, and the fourth
sentence provides a detail about where she went to buy the ingredients.
Q8. Answer: A. Narendra Modi
Explanation: Narendra Modi is the current Prime Minister of India, serving in this
role since May 2014.
Q9. Answer: B. 1885
Explanation: The Indian National Congress, which played a key role in India's
independence movement, was founded in 1885.
Q10. Answer: b) 600
Explanation: If the person scored 70% marks, then the percentage of the marks he
didn't get is 30%. Let the total marks for the exam be x. Then, (70/100)x = 420, which
can be simplified to x = (420100)/70 = 600.
Q11. Answer: d) Rs.40
Explanation: The sale price can be calculated by subtracting the percentage discount
from 100%, multiplying the result by the original price, and then dividing by 100%.
Here, the percentage discount is 20%, so the sale price is (100% - 20%)*Rs.50/100%
= Rs.40.
Q12. Answer: b) Rs. 15,000
Explanation: Simple interest can be calculated as (principal * rate * time) / 100. In
this case, we know the time (3 years), rate (10%) and final amount (Rs. 16,200).
Solving for the principal, we get principal = (100 * 16,200) / (10 * 3) = Rs. 15,000.
Q13. Answer: b) 80 km/h
Explanation: Average speed can be calculated as distance/time. In this case, average
speed = 240/3 = 80 km/h.
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Q14. Answer: c) Rs. 2250

Explanation: Cost price can be calculated as (selling price * 100) / (100 + profit
percentage). In this case, cost price = (2400 * 100) / (100 + 20) = Rs. 2000.
Q15. Answer: a) Ebrahim Raisi
Explanation: Ebrahim Raisi was recently elected as the new President of Iran,
succeeding Hassan Rouhani.
Q16. Answer: b) Tamil Nadu
Explanation: The government of Tamil Nadu recently announced a new electric
vehicle policy aimed at promoting the use of electric vehicles in the state.
Q17. Answer: b) Ashleigh Barty
Explanation: Ashleigh Barty won the Women's Singles title at the 2021 French Open.
Q18. Answer: b) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: The government of Madhya Pradesh recently launched the
'Mukhyamantri Mufat Ilaj Yojana' aimed at providing free medical treatment to the
poor.
Q19. Answer: a) If it is raining, then the ground is wet. This is a valid logical
implication, as the presence of rain would logically result in a wet ground.
Q20. Answer: b) All men are mortal. Socrates is a man. Therefore, Socrates is mortal.
This is a valid syllogism that follows the logical structure of "All A are B. C is A.
Therefore, C is B."
Q21. Answer: d) Everyone who studies hard gets good grades. John studies hard.
Therefore, John will get good grades. This argument follows the logical structure of
"All A are B. C is A. Therefore, C is B."
Q22. Answer: a) All crows are black. Therefore, this bird I saw is a crow. This is a
valid inductive argument, as the observation of the black color of crows suggests that
other crows will also be black.
Q23. Answer: a) If it is raining, then the ground is wet. The ground is wet. Therefore,
it is raining. This is the fallacy of affirming the consequent, as there are many other
reasons why the ground could be wet besides rain.
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Q24. Answer: a) Every cat I've met has been friendly. Therefore, all cats are friendly.
This is an example of the fallacy of hasty generalization, as the sample size is too
small to draw a general conclusion about all cats.
Q25. Answer: d) All cars have wheels. Therefore, all bicycles have wheels. This is a
valid argument by analogy, as bicycles and cars share a similar characteristic of
having wheels.
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SET - 3
Q1.Choose the correct sentence that uses the apostrophe correctly:
a) The dog chased it's tail. c) The dog's chased its tail.
b) The dog chased its tail. d) The dogs chased its tail.
Q2.Which of the following is the correct form of the verb "to be" in the present
tense for the pronoun "she"?
a) is c) are
b) am d) be
Q3.Choose the word that is spelled correctly:
a) Esential c) Essensial
b) Essential d) Essentail
Q4.Choose the sentence that uses the verb tense correctly:
a) He will went to the store. c) He had gone to the store.
b) He has went to the store. d) He is going to went to the store.
Q5.Choose the correct form of the adjective "bad" to use in a comparative sentence:
a) badder c) worse
b) more bad d) baddest
a. They enjoyed the scenic view c. They brought plenty of water
from the top of the mountain. and snacks for the hike.
b. They had to climb over boulders d. They started the hike early in
and steep inclines. the morning.
Q7.Which sentence should come second?
a. She called her friends to cancel c. She took some medicine and
the plans. rested in bed.
b. She woke up feeling sick and d. She missed the concert she had
dizzy. been looking forward to.
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Q8.Which Indian state is known as the "Land of the Rising Sun"?

A. Arunachal Pradesh C. Mizoram
B. Manipur D. Tripura
Q9.Who is the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal?
A. Saina Nehwal C. Sakshi Malik
B. Mary Kom D. Karnam Malleswari
Q10. What is the proportion of boys to girls in a class of 30 students if there are
20 boys?
a) 2:3 c) 3:1
b) 3:2 d) 1:3
Q11. A recipe calls for 2 cups of flour for every 3 cups of sugar. How many cups
of sugar are needed if 4 cups of flour are used?
a) 2.67 cups c) 4 cups
b) 3.33 cups d) 4.67 cups
Q12. The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 3:5. If there are 24 boys in the class,
how many girls are there?
a) 12 c) 40
b) 36 d) 72
Q13. If a car travels 120 miles in 2 hours, what is its speed in miles per hour?
a) 40 mph c) 80 mph
b) 60 mph d) 100 mph
Q14. A company produced 3000 units of a product in 6 hours. If the production
rate remains constant, how many units will be produced in 9 hours?
a) 4500 units c) 6000 units
b) 5000 units d) 7500 units
Q15. Which country recently won the Euro 2020 football championship?
a) Italy c) France
b) England d) Germany
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Q16. Who among the following was recently appointed as the new Governor of
the Reserve Bank of India?
a) Raghuram Rajan c) Shaktikanta Das
b) Urjit Patel d) R. Gandhi
Q17. Which country became the first to issue a digital currency?
a) China c) USA
b) India d) Russia
Q18. Which country won the most medals in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics?
a) USA c) Japan
b) China d) Russia
Q19. Which of the following statements correctly describes the transitive property
of relationships?
a) If A is related to B, and B is related to C, then A is not related to C.
b) If A is related to B, and B is related to C, then A is related to C.
c) If A is related to B, and C is related to D, then A is related to D.
d) If A is not related to B, and B is related to C, then A is not related to C.
Q20. Which of the following statements is an example of a symmetric relationship?
a) A is taller than B. c) E is the parent of F.
b) C is married to D. d) G is friends with H.
Q21. Which of the following statements is an example of a transitive relationship?
a) I is the mother of J, and J is the brother of K. Therefore, I is the aunt of K.
b) L is taller than M, and M is taller than N. Therefore, L is taller than N.
c) O is the boss of P, and P is the boss of Q. Therefore, O is the boss of Q.
d) R is married to S, and S is the sister of T. Therefore, R is the brother-in-law of
T.
Q22. Which of the following statements is an example of a reflexive relationship?
a) T is the father of U. c) X is equal to X.
b) V is the daughter of W. d) Y is the boss of Z.
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Q23. Which of the following statements is an example of a reflexive and transitive

relationship?
a) P is a sibling of Q if they have the same parents.
b) R is a friend of S if they like each other and spend time together.
c) T is a student of U if U teaches a class that T is enrolled in.
d) V is a citizen of W if V was born in W and holds W's nationality.
Q24. Which of the following statements is an example of a non-symmetric
relationship?
a) X is the employer of Y. c) A is the child of B.
b) Z is married to W. d) C is taller than D.
Q25. Which of the following statements is an example of a bijective relationship?
a) M is the mother of N. c) Q is the spouse of R.
b) O is the manager of P. d) S is the owner of T.
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Answer Key -SET - 3

Q1 b Q2 a Q3 b
Q4 c Q5 c Q6 a
Q7 b Q8 A Q9 D
Q10 b Q11 d Q12 c
Q13 b Q14 a Q15 a
Q16 c Q17 a Q18 a
Q19 b Q20 d Q21 c
Q22 c Q23 a Q24 a
Q25 c
Explanation
Q1. Answer: b) The dog chased its tail.

Explanation: The correct use of the apostrophe for this sentence is "its," which is a
possessive pronoun, not a contraction of "it is."
Q2. Answer: a) is
Explanation: The correct form of the verb "to be" in the present tense for the pronoun
"she" is "is."
Q3. Answer: b) Essential
Explanation: "Essential" is the correct spelling of the word.
Q4. Answer: c) He had gone to the store.
Explanation: The correct verb tense for this sentence is past perfect, which is formed
with the auxiliary verb "had" and the past participle "gone."
Q5. Answer: c) worse
Explanation: The comparative form of "bad" is "worse."
Q6. Answer: a. They enjoyed the scenic view from the top of the mountain.
Explanation: The logical order for these sentences would be D, C, B, A. The first
sentence provides a detail about the end result of the hiking activity. The second
sentence provides a detail about the difficulties they faced during the hike. The third
sentence provides a detail about their preparations for the hike, and the fourth sentence
provides a detail about when they started the hike.
Q7. Answer: b. She woke up feeling sick and dizzy.
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Explanation: The logical order for these sentences would be B, C, A, D. The first
sentence provides the reason for the following events. The second sentence describes
how she felt when she woke up. The third sentence describes what she did to try and
feel better, and the fourth sentence describes the result of her illness, which was
missing a concert.
Q8. Answer: A. Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh, located in northeast India, is known as the "Land of
the Rising Sun" due to its location in the easternmost part of the country.
Q9. Answer: D. Karnam Malleswari
Explanation: Karnam Malleswari won a bronze medal in weightlifting at the 2000
Sydney Olympics, becoming the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal.
Q10. Answer: b) 3:2
Explanation: The proportion of boys to girls can be calculated by dividing the number
of boys by the number of girls. Let the number of girls be x. Then, 20/x = (3/2)/(1/2)
= 3/2, which can be simplified to x = 40/3. Since x must be an integer, we can round
up to x = 14. So the proportion of boys to girls is 20:14 or 3:2.
Q11. Answer: d) 4.67 cups
Explanation: The proportion of flour to sugar is 2:3. Let the amount of sugar needed
be x cups. Then, we can set up a proportion:
2 cups of flour : 3 cups of sugar = 4 cups of flour : x cups of sugar
Cross-multiplying, we get: 2x = 12, Dividing both sides by 2, we get: x = 6
Therefore, 6 cups of sugar are needed if 4 cups of flour are used. Hence, the correct
answer is (d) 4.67 cups.
Q12. Answer: c) 40
Explanation: Let the number of girls be x. Then, the ratio of boys to girls can be
written as 3/5 = 24/x. Solving for x, we get x = 40. So there are 40 girls in the class.
Q13. Answer: b) 60 mph
Explanation: Speed is defined as distance traveled divided by time taken. In this case,
the distance traveled is 120 miles and the time taken is 2 hours. Therefore, the speed
of the car is 120/2 = 60 miles per hour.
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Q14. Answer: a) 4500 units

Explanation: The production rate can be calculated as 3000 units/6 hours = 500
units/hour. Therefore, in 9 hours, the number of units produced will be 500 units/hour
x 9 hours = 4500 units.
Q15. Answer: a) Italy
Explanation: Italy recently won the Euro 2020 football championship, defeating
England in the final.
Q16. Answer: c) Shaktikanta Das
Explanation: Shaktikanta Das was recently reappointed.
Q17. Answer: a) China
Explanation: In 2020, China became the first country to issue a digital currency called
the Digital Currency Electronic Payment (DCEP) as a pilot program in selected cities.
The aim of DCEP is to reduce the country's reliance on the US dollar and to increase
control over its financial system. This move by China has sparked interest from other
countries to explore the possibility of issuing their own digital currencies.
Q18. Answer: a) USA
Explanation: The United States won the most medals in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics
with a total of 113 medals, including 39 gold, 41 silver, and 33 bronze.
Q19. Answer: b) If A is related to B, and B is related to C, then A is related to C. This
is the correct definition of the transitive property, which applies to relationships of all
kinds.
Explanation: The transitive property states that if A has a certain relationship with B,
and B has the same relationship with C, then A must have the same relationship with
C. This is because the relationship between A and B can be "transferred" to B and C.
Q20. Answer: d) G is friends with H. This is an example of a symmetric relationship,
as if G is friends with H, then H must also be friends with G.
Explanation: A symmetric relationship is one in which if A has the relationship with
B, then B must also have the same relationship with A. In the case of friendship, if G
is friends with H, then H must also be friends with G.
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Q21. Answer: c) O is the boss of P, and P is the boss of Q. Therefore, O is the boss
of Q. This is an example of a transitive relationship.
Explanation: The transitive property applies to relationships of all kinds, including
those in the workplace. If O is the boss of P, and P is the boss of Q, then it follows
that O must also be the boss of Q.
Q22. Answer: c) X is equal to X. This is an example of a reflexive relationship.
Explanation: A reflexive relationship is one in which every element of a set is related
to itself. In the case of equality, any value X must always be equal to itself.
Q23. Answer: a) P is a sibling of Q if they have the same parents. This is an example
of a reflexive and transitive relationship.
Explanation: A reflexive relationship is one in which every element of a set is related
to itself, and a transitive relationship is one in which if A has a certain relationship
with B, and B has the same relationship with C, then A must have the same
relationship with C. In the case of siblingship, every person is related to themselves
as their own sibling, and the relationship is transitive because if A is a sibling of B,
and B is a sibling of C, then A is also a sibling of C.
Q24. Answer: a) X is the employer of Y. This is an example of a non-symmetric
relationship.
Explanation: A non-symmetric relationship is one in which if A has a certain
relationship with B, it does not necessarily mean that B has the same relationship with
A. In the case of employment, X is the employer of Y, but Y is not the employer of
X. This relationship is not symmetric. On the other hand, marriage, parent-child, and
height are all symmetric relationships.
Q25. Answer: c) Q is the spouse of R. This is an example of a bijective relationship.
Explanation: A bijective relationship is one in which each element in one set is related
to exactly one element in another set, and vice versa. In the case of marriage, Q is the
spouse of R, and R is the spouse of Q. Each person is related to exactly one person of
the opposite gender, and the relationship is bijective. However, in the other
relationships, such as mother-child, manager-employee, and owner-asset, one person
can have multiple children, employees, or assets, respectively. Therefore, these
relationships are not bijective.
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SET - 4
PART-A
Q1.Choose the correct form of the verb "to be" in the present tense for the pronoun
"we":
a) am c) is
b) are d) be
Q2.Choose the sentence that uses the correct subject-verb agreement:
a) The dogs barks loudly. c) The dogs bark loudly.
b) The dog barks loudly. d) The dog bark loudly.
Q3.Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: "I saw _____ car parked
outside."
a) they're c) there
b) their d) they
Q4.Choose the sentence that uses the correct punctuation:
a) She said "I will be there c) She said "I will be there
tomorrow". tomorrow."
b) She said, "I will be there d) She said, I will be there
tomorrow." tomorrow.
Q5.Choose the word that is spelled correctly:
a) Accommadate c) Accomodate
b) Accommodate d) Acommodate
Q6.Which sentence should come third?
a) She found the book she had c) She searched the shelves for
been looking for. over an hour.
b) She asked the librarian for help. d) She checked out the book and
left the library.
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a) He researched the company and c) He arrived early and greeted the
prepared for the interview. receptionist.
b) He received an email inviting d) He was offered the job on the
him to an interview. spot.
Q8.Who is known as the "Iron Man of India"?
A. Mahatma Gandhi C. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel D. Bhimrao Ambedkar
Q9.Who was the first President of India?
A. Rajendra Prasad C. Zakir Hussain
B. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan D. V.V. Giri
Q10. A car dealership sells a car for Rs.18,000, which is 20% less than the
original price. What was the original price?
a) Rs.14,400 c) Rs.22,500
b) Rs.18,000 d) Rs.23,000
Q11. A company had 500 employees in January, but hired 100 more employees in
February. What was the percentage increase in the number of employees from
January to February?
a) 20% c) 50%
b) 25% d) 100%
Q12. If 5 men can paint a house in 8 days, how many men are needed to paint the
same house in 4 days?
a) 10 men c) 15 men
b) 12 men d) 20 men
Q13. A motorboat can travel 80 km upstream in 8 hours and 160 km downstream
in 16 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
a) 5 km/h c) 15 km/h
b) 10 km/h d) 20 km/h
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Q14. A contractor has to complete a project in 12 days with 10 workers. How

many workers would he need to complete the same project in 8 days?
a) 13 c) 18
b) 15 d) 20
Q15. A shopkeeper sells a shirt at a profit of 20%. If the cost of the shirt is Rs.
600, what is the selling price of the shirt?
a) Rs. 720 c) Rs. 720.60
b) Rs. 720.20 d) Rs. 721.20
Q16. Which Indian state was the first to launch a gender budget?
a) Kerala c) Maharashtra
b) Tamil Nadu d) Uttar Pradesh
Q17. Who is the current Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu?
a) K. Chandrashekar Rao c) M.K. Stalin
b) Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy d) Pinarayi Vijayan
Q18. Which Indian state became the first to implement a One Nation One Ration
Card scheme?
a) Tamil Nadu c) Uttar Pradesh
b) Maharashtra d) Andhra Pradesh
Q19. In a classroom, 6 students from the Science section and 8 students from the
Commerce section are seated in two rows, facing each other. If each row has
the same number of students, how many students are there in each row?
a) 4 c) 8
b) 6 d) 10
Q20. A group of 15 people is seated at a circular table. If there are 5 people from
the Science section and 10 people from the Commerce section, what is the
probability that two Science students will be seated next to each other?
a) 1/3 c) 3/7
b) 2/3 d) 4/7
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Q21. In a row of 12 chairs, there are 4 chairs between two empty chairs. If the chairs
are numbered 1 to 12, which of the following chairs are empty?
a) 1, 6, 11 c) 3, 8
b) 2, 7, 12 d) 4, 9
Q22. Six people from the Science section and four people from the Commerce
section are seated around a circular table. If no two people from the same section
are seated next to each other, what is the probability that a Science student is
seated in a particular seat?
a) 1/2 c) 3/7
b) 2/5 d) 4/9
Q23. Five people, A, B, C, D, and E, are seated in a row. A is to the left of B and E
is to the right of D. If C is not adjacent to D, who is in the middle?
a) A d) D
b) B e) E
c) C
Q24. Four people, P, Q, R, and S, are seated in a row. Q is to the left of P and R is
to the right of S. If Q is not adjacent to R, who is in the middle?
a) P c) R
b) Q d) S
Q25. Six people, A, B, C, D, E, and F, are seated around a circular table. A is next
to B and C is next to D. If E is not adjacent to F, who is sitting directly opposite
to E?
a) A d) D
b) B e) F
c) C
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Answer Key -SET - 4

Q1 b Q2 c Q3 b
Q4 b Q5 b Q6 b
Q7 d Q8 B Q9 A
Q10 c Q11 b Q12 b
Q13 c Q14 b Q15 c
Q16 a Q17 c Q18 d
Q19 b Q20 b Q21 c
Q22 d Q23 b Q24 c
Q25 a
Explanation
Q1. Answer: b) are

Explanation: The correct form of the verb "to be" in the present tense for the pronoun
"we" is "are."
Q2. Answer: c) The dogs bark loudly.
Explanation: The subject "dogs" is plural, so the verb "bark" should be plural as well.
Q3. Answer: b) their
Explanation: "Their" is a possessive pronoun that indicates possession by more than
one person, and in this sentence, it indicates that the car belongs to someone.
Q4. Answer: b) She said, "I will be there tomorrow."
Explanation: The correct punctuation for a direct quote is to use a comma before the
quotation and to enclose the quotation in quotation marks.
Q5. Answer: b) Accommodate
Q6. Answer: b. She asked the librarian for help.
Explanation: The logical order for these sentences would be C, B, A, D. The first
sentence describes the successful completion of the task, which was finding the book.
The second sentence describes the action she took to try and find the book. The third
sentence describes how long it took her to find the book, and the fourth sentence
describes what she did after finding the book.
Q7. Answer: d. He was offered the job on the spot.
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Explanation: The logical order for these sentences would be B, A, C, D. The first
sentence describes what he did after receiving the email invitation. The second
sentence describes how he prepared for the interview. The third sentence describes
what he did when he arrived at the interview. The fourth sentence describes the result
of the interview, which was receiving a job offer on the spot.
Q8. Answer: B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Explanation: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, one of the leaders of India's independence
movement, is known as the "Iron Man of India" for his efforts in unifying the country
after independence.
Q9. Answer: A. Rajendra Prasad
Explanation: Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India, serving in this role from
1950 to 1962.
Q10. Answer: c) Rs.22,500
Explanation: Let the original price be x. Then, 80% of x is equal to Rs.18,000. We
can set up the equation 0.8x = Rs.18,000 and solve for x to get x = Rs.22,500.
Q11. Answer: b) 25%
Explanation: The percentage increase can be calculated by dividing the difference
between the new and old value by the old value, and then multiplying the result by
100. Here, the difference is 100 employees and the old value is 500 employees, so the
percentage increase is (100/500)*100 = 20%.
Q12. Answer: b) 12 men
Explanation: The number of men required to paint the house is inversely proportional
to the number of days taken to complete the job. Therefore, the product of the number
of men and the number of days taken remains constant. Using this, we can write: 5 x
8 = x * 4, where x is the number of men required to paint the house in 4 days. Solving
for x, we get x = 10. So, 10 men are required to paint the same house in 4 days.
Q13. Answer: c) 15 km/h
Q14. Answer: b) 15
Explanation: Let 'w' be the number of workers needed to complete the project in 8
days. Then we can use the formula, W1D1 = W2D2, where W1 = 10, D1 = 12, D2 =
8, to solve for 'w' as follows: ➔ 10 x 12 = w x 8 ➔ w = (10 x 12)/8 and w = 15.
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Q15. Answer: c) Rs. 720.60

Explanation: The selling price of the shirt can be calculated as follows:
Cost price of the shirt = Rs. 600
Profit percentage = 20%
Profit = (20/100) x 600 = Rs. 120
Selling price = Cost price + Profit = Rs. 600 + Rs. 120 = Rs. 720
However, since the profit percentage is not a whole number, the selling price will
have a decimal value. Rounding this to two decimal places, we get the selling price
as Rs. 720.60, which is the correct answer.
Q16. Answer: a) Kerala
Explanation: Kerala was the first Indian state to introduce a gender budget in 1997.
The gender budget aims to analyze the budget from a gender perspective and ensures
that adequate resources are allocated for programs and schemes that benefit women.
Q17. Answer: c) M.K. Stalin
Explanation: M.K. Stalin is the current Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu. He took oath
as the Chief Minister on May 7, 2021.
Q18. Answer: d) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh became the first Indian state to implement the One
Nation One Ration Card scheme in 2020. This scheme allows beneficiaries to access
ration from any fair price shop in the country using their ration card.
Q19. Answer: b) 6
Explanation: Since there are 6 students from Science and 8 from Commerce, there are
a total of 14 students. If they are seated in two rows with the same number of students,
there must be 7 students in each row.
Q20. Answer: b) 2/3
Explanation: There are 15 seats at the table, so there are 15 possible positions for the
first Science student. Once that person is seated, there are 4 remaining Science
students and 10 Commerce students who can fill the next seat. Therefore, the
probability of a Science student being seated next to another Science student is 4/14.
P a g e 87 | 90
There are 14 possible pairs of adjacent seats, so the probability of two Science
students being seated next to each other is (4/14) * 14/15 = 2/3.
Q21. Answer: c) 3, 8
Explanation: Since there are 4 chairs between two empty chairs, there must be a gap
of 5 chairs between the occupied chairs. Therefore, the chairs must be arranged in the
following pattern: OCC OCC OCC OCC EMP EMP. There are two possible locations
for this pattern: chairs 1 to 6 or chairs 2 to 7. However, since the question specifies
that the chairs are numbered 1 to 12, the only possible location is chairs 3 to 8, which
means chairs 3 and 8 are empty.
Q22. Answer: d) 4/9
Explanation: There are 6 Science students and 4 Commerce students, so the
probability that a Science student is seated in a particular seat is 6/10 = 3/5. However,
since no two people from the same section can be seated next to each other, the first
seat can be occupied by anyone, but the second seat can only be occupied by a student
from the opposite section. Therefore, the probability that a Science student is seated
in the second seat is 4/9.
Q23. Answer: b) B
Explanation: We know that A is to the left of B and E is to the right of D. Therefore,
the seating arrangement must look like this: A _ _ _ B _ _ _ _ D _ _ _ E. Since C is
not adjacent to D, C must be seated either to the left of A or to the right of E. In either
case, B will be in the middle.
Q24. Answer: c) R
Explanation: We know that Q is to the left of P and R is to the right of S. Therefore,
the seating arrangement must look like this: Q _ _ _ P _ _ _ _ S _ _ _ R. Since Q is
not adjacent to R, P and S must be seated next to each other. Therefore, R must be in
the middle.
Q25. Answer: a) A
Explanation: Since A is next to B and C is next to D, the seating arrangement must
look like this: B A _ _ _ _ D C. If E is not adjacent to F, F must be seated either to the
left of B or to the right of C. In either case, A will be sitting directly opposite to E.
P a g e 88 | 90
Reference Books:
Language Comprehension and Verbal Ability:
1. Word Power Made Easy by Norman Lewis
2. High School English Grammar and Composition by Wren and Martin
3. The Elements of Style by William Strunk Jr. and E.B. White
4. Barron's 1100 Words You Need to Know by Murray Bromberg and
Melvin Gordon
General Awareness:
5. Lucent's General Knowledge by Dr. Binay Karna, R. P. Suman, and
Manwendra Mukul
6. Manorama Yearbook 2022 by Mammen Mathew
7. Pratiyogita Darpan by Upkar Prakashan
Mathematical Aptitude:
8. Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive Examinations by R.S. Aggarwal
9. Fast Track Objective Arithmetic by Rajesh Verma
10. Magical Book on Quicker Maths by M. Tyra
Quantitative Ability and Analytical Skills:
11. How to Prepare for Quantitative Aptitude for CAT by Arun Sharma
12. Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency by Ananta Ashisha
13. Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive Examinations by Abhijit Guha
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Reference for CUET Examination

14. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Common_University_Entrance_Test
15. https://www.shiksha.com/science/cuet-exam
16. https://nta.ac.in/
17. https://cuet.nta.nic.in/archive/
18. https://nta.ac.in/Downloads
P a g e 90 | 90

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5 PREVIOUS YEARS’ PAPERS AND 4 PRACTICE SETS

YouTube Link: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCFdw5r0uIdNjR6t0HAIQAUg

05 Previous Years’ Papers (2018

ii. All questions will be compulsory.

iv. Part A will have 25 questions based on Language

v. Part B will have 75 questions based on Subject-Specific Knowledge.

Quantitative Ability and Analytical Skills

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15. Penicillin which is used as an antibiotic is obtained from

23. A speed of 14 meters per second is the same

A. 28 km/h B. 46.6 km/h

Answer Key -2018

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A. Dog out of herd B. Sheep from the heap

A. bear, loosing B. bare, loosing

A. is allowed to B. will be allowed to

6. Select the most suitable synonym for the word PANACEA

A. Coin : Money B. Food : Wheat

A. Silver fish B. Jelly fish

A. Keoladeo National Park B. Sundarbans National Park

A. Carbon monoxide and carbon B. Butane and propane

Answer Key -2019

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4-C. was allowed to.

15- B. Butane and propane.

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Now, let's consider the given options:

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A. HYGROMETER : HUMIDITY B. VOLTMETER : ELECTRICITY

7. Select correct meaning of foreign expression via media

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A. Himachal Pradesh B. Arunachal Pradesh

A. Red Soil B. Black Soil

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1. clown : circus 2. actor : troupe

7. Select the most suitable antonym:

1. thrilled, negating 2. frowning, rejecting

10. These grapes __________ sour.

1. are testing 2. tasted

1. 180 meters 2. 150 meters

19. Choose the correct answer: 7845 - ? = 8461- 3569

1. cerebrum 2. spinal cord

1. Baba Amte 2. Anna Hazare

1. Junagarh, Gujarat 2. Diphu Assam

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1. (A), (D), (B), (C) 2. (C), (B), (A), (D)

1. I recommend that he see a doctor. 2. I recommend that he sees a doctor.

4. Match List I with List II

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1. feeling excited 2. feeling nervous

1. had watched, had gone 2. were watching, went