Lakshya NEET (2024)

PRACTICE TEST-02

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 28/05/2023 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Electric charges and field (Full Syllabus), Electrostatic potential and Capacitance: (Electric potential,
potential energy, Problems on electric potential, potential energy, equatorial and general points,
Dipole in external electric field.
Chemistry : Complete Electrochemistry
Biology : (Botany): Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants: Full syllabus, Principles of Inheritance and
Variation, Introduction to Genetics, Mendel's Law of Inheritance, Inheritance of One Gene
(Zoology): (Human Reproduction) Introduction, male reproductive system- Male reproductive
system-Testis Male accessory glands,external genitalia Spermatogenesis Hormonal control of
spermatogenesis Female reproductive system Oogenesis Oogenesis Mammary gland and lactation
Menstrual cycle Menstrual cycle Fertilisation Cleavage and implantation.
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each subject is
divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and Section B consisting 15
Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 6. The electric potential V at a point P(x, y, z) in
1. In the region of space the electric field is given by space is given by V = 4x2 volt. Electric field at a
E = 8iˆ + 4 ˆj + 3kˆ . The electric flux through a point (1m, 0, 2m) in V/m is
surface of area 100 units in the xz plane is (1) 8 along –ve x-axis
(1) 800 units (2) 300 units (2) 8 along +ve x-axis
(3) 400 units (4) 1500 units (3) 16 along –ve x-axis
(4) 16 along +ve x-axis
2. A positive test charge is released in the following
field. At which point the acceleration of the test 7. In figure two points A and B are located in a region
charge is minimum? of electric field. The potential difference
VB – VA is

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D (1) Positive (2) Negative
(3) Zero (4) None of these
3. Work done in carrying an electric charge Q1 once
round a circle of radius R with a charge Q2 at the 8. A proton is accelerated from rest through a
center of the circle is potential 500 volts. Its final kinetic energy is
Q1Q2
(1) (2)  (1) 50 eV (2) 500 eV
4 0 R (3) 1000 eV (4) 2000 eV
Q1Q2
(3) (4) Zero
5 0 R 9. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has
charge +4q with each of them having the same
4. The variation of electrostatic potential with radial mass m. When allowed to fall from rest through
distance r from the centre of a positively charged the same electric potential difference, the ratio of
metallic thin shell of radius R is given by the their speeds VA/VB will become
graph. (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
(1)
10. If an -particle and a proton are accelerated from
rest by a potential difference of 1 megavolt then
the ratio of their kinetic energy will be
(1) 1/2 (2) 1
(2)
(3) 2 (4) 4

11. An infinite conducting sheet has surface charge

density . The distance between two equipotential
(3)
surfaces is r. The potential difference between
these two surfaces is
r r
(1) (2)
2 0 0
(4)
 
(3) (4)
0 r 2 0 r
5. When a test charge is brought in from infinity
along the perpendicular bisector of an electric
dipole, the work done is 12. Two point charges of +1.0 µC are kept stationary 2
(1) Positive m apart. How much work is needed to be done to
(2) Zero bring them 1 m apart?
(3) Negative (1) 4.5 mJ (2) 9 mJ
(4) None of these (3) 45 mJ (4) 90 mJ
[2]
13. A hollow cylinder has a charge q within it. If  is 20. Nature of graph of electric field due to infinite
the electric flux in unit of volt meter associated charge sheet with distance from sheet is
with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the (1) Straight line parallel to distance axis
plane surface A in unit of volt meter will be (2) Parabola
(3) Circle
(4) Hyperbola

1 q  q 21. Which of the following graph is correct for electric

(1)  −  (2) potential due to point charge with distance
2  0  2 0
 q (1) (2)
(3) (4) −
3 0

14. The flux of electric field due to these charges (3) (4) None of these
through the surface S is

22. Charge Q is uniformly distributed on conducting

solid sphere of radius R then electric field at
distance R/2 from centre
kQ
(1) (2) zero
2q 3q R2
(1) (2) kQ kQ
0 0 (3) (4)
2
2R 4R2
−5q
(3) (4) q0
0 23. Electric field line at the surface of equipotential
surface is
15. Equipotential surface for a spherical charge (1) Along surface
distribution is (2) Perpendicular to the surface
(1) Sphere (2) Plane (3) At some angle from surface
(4) Can't say
(3) Cylinder (4) Ring
24. If electric field at any point is non-zero then
16. Potential and potential gradient is a: potential at that point will be
(1) Scalar and vector (2) Both are vector (1) Non-zero
(3) Both are scalar (4) Vector and scalar (2) Zero
(3) May be zero or non-zero
17. If we move opposite direction of electric field then (4) Constant
electric potential
(1) Increases 25. Find potential difference between A and B as
shown in figure
(2) Decreases
(3) Can't say
(4) May increase or decrease

18. Electric dipole is placed perpendicular to uniform (1) 4 E (2) 3 E

electric field then force and torque on dipole are (3) zero (4) E / 4
(1) F = 0;  = 0 (2) F  0;   0
(3) F = 0;   0 (4) F  0;  = 0 26. Electron and proton is moving away from each
other then potential energy of system
(1) Remains same (2) Increasing
19. Point charge 5q is placed inside a cube at centre,
(3) Decreasing (4) None of these
then electrostatic flux passing through one face
of cube is 27. Electric potential at the centre of a charged hollow
q q metal sphere is
(1) (2)
0 6 0 (1) Zero
(2) Twice as that on surface
5q 6q
(3) (4) (3) Half of that on the surface
6 0 5 0 (4) Same as that on the surface
[3]
28. The electric field due to a point charge at a 35. In a region, the intensity of an electric field is
given by E = 8iˆ + 8 ˆj + kˆ in NC–1. The electric flux
distance 6 m from it is 630 N/C. The magnitude of
the charge is
(1) 2.52 C (2) 1.24 C through a surface S = 10iˆ m2 in the region is
(3) 4.96 C (4) 0.62 C
(1) 10 Nm2C–1
29. A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube of (2) 80 Nm2C–1
edge length L. The electric flux linked to one of (3) 8 Nm2C–1
the faces not touching the charge Q is (4) None
Q Q
(1) (2)
240 6 0
SECTION – B
Q 36. A proton of mass ‘m’ charge ‘e’ is released from
(3) (4) Zero
8 0 rest in a uniform electric field of strength ‘E’. The
time taken by it to travel a distance ‘d’ in the field
30. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are
is
separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of 2de 2dm
(1) (2)
electrons missing from each ion will be (e being mE Ee
the charge on an electron)
2dE 2Ee
40 Fd 2 40 Fe2 (3) (4)
(1) (2) me dm
e2 d2
40 Fd 2 40 Fd 2 37. Charges on two spheres are +10 μC and –5 μC
(3) (4)
e2 q2 respectively. They experience a force F. If each of
them is given an additional charge +2 μC then new
31. If 50 joule of work must be done to move an force between them keeping the same distance is
electric charge of 2 C from a point, where potential (1) 18F (2) F/25
is –10 volt to another point, where potential is V (3) 18F/25 (4) (25/18) F
volt, the value of V is
(1) 5 V (2) –15 V
(3) +15 V (4) + 10 V 38. Two charge +q and –q are placed at a distance of
2r as shown in figure. Electric field at the centre of
32. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest the line joining two charges is:
in a uniform electric field E and then released. The
kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving
a distance y is
(1) qEy (2) qE2y Kq 4Kq
2
(3) qEy (4) q2Ey (1) 2
(2)
r r2
33. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line 2Kq Kq
(3) (4)
joining two exactly equal positive charges Q. The r2 2r 2
system of three charges will be in equilibrium, if q
is equal to
(1) –Q (2) Q/2 39. A proton and an  particle having equal kinetic
(3) –Q/4 (4) +Q energy are projected in a uniform transverse
electric field as shown in figure
34. Electric field at centre O of semicircle of radius a
having linear charge density  is given as

(1) Proton trajectory is more curved

2  (2)  particle trajectory is more curved
(1) (2) (3) Both trajectories are equally curved but in
0 a 0 a
opposite direction
 
(3) (4) (4) Both trajectories are equally curved and in
2 0 a 0 a
same direction
[4]
40. If E1 and E2 are electric field at axial point and 47. Assertion: The potential difference between any
two points in an electric field depends only on
equatorial point of an electric dipole, then
initial and final position.
(1) E1  E2  0 (2) E1  E2 = 0 Reason: Electric field is a conservative field so the
(3) E1  E2  0 (4) E1 + E2  0 work done per unit positive charge does not
depend on path followed.
41. The electric potential at a point in free space due to (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts. The electric reason is the correct explanation of the
field at that point is assertion.
(1) 4π0Q × 1020 volt/m (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
(2) 12π0Q × 1022 volt/m is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) 4π0Q × 1022 volt/m (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) 12π0Q × 1020 volt/m (4) Both assertion and reason are false.

42. How much kinetic energy will be gained by an α- 48. Assertion : Work done in moving a charge
particle in going from a point at 70 V to another between any two points in an electric field is
point at 50V? independent of the path followed by the charge,
(1) 40 eV (2) 40 keV between these points.
(3) 40 MeV (4) 0 Reason: Electrostatic force is a non conservative
force.
43. In a circuit, 5C of charge is passed through a (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
battery in a given time. The plates of the battery reason is the correct explanation of the
are maintained at a potential difference of 12V. assertion.
The work done by the battery is: (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
(1) 120 J (2) 60 J is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) 30J (4) 15 J
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
44. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed,
one at each corner of the square. The relation
49. Assertion : Two adjacent conductors of unequal
between Q and q for which the potential at the
centre of the square is zero, is dimensions, carrying the same positive charge
1 have a potential difference between them.
(1) Q = – q (2) Q = − Reason : The potential of a conductor depends
q
upon the charge given to it.
1
(3) Q = q (4) Q = (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
q
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
45. An electric dipole of moment p is lying along a (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
uniform electric field E . The work done in is not the correct explanation of the assertion
rotating the dipole by 90° is: (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
2E (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(1) 2 pE (2)
p
(3) 2pE (4) pE 50. Assertion : Electric potential and electric potential
energy are different quantities.
46. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces can cut Reason : For a system of positive test charge and
each other. point charge electric potential energy = electric
Reason: Two equipotential surfaces are always potential.
parallel to each other. (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
assertion. (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
is not the correct explanation of the assertion (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
[5]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A 60. A correct electrochemical series can be obtained
51. A dilute solution of sodium sulphate in water is from K, Ca, Na, Al, Mg, Zn. Fe, Pb, H, Cu, Hg,
electrolysed using Pt electrodes. The products at Ag, Au by interchanging :
cathode and anode respectively are (1) Al and Mg (2) Zn and Fe
(1) H2 and O2 (2) O2 and H2 (3) Zn and Pb (4) Pb and H
(3) O2 and Na (4) O2 and SO2

52. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+|Fe and 61. When Zn piece is kept in CuSO4 solution,
Sn2+|Sn electrodes are –0.44 V and –0.14 V copper gets precipitated because:
respectively. For the cell reaction, Fe2+ + Sn → (1) Standard reduction potential of zinc is more
Fe + Sn2+, the standard e.m.f. is than copper
(1) +0.30 V (2) 0.58 V (2) Standard reduction potential of zinc is less
(3) +0.58 V (4) –0.30 V than copper
(3) Atomic number of zinc is larger than
53. Prevention of corrosion of iron by Zn coating is
copper.
called
(1) Galvanization (2) Cathodic protection (4) Atomic number of zinc is lower than copper
(3) Electrolysis (4) None of these
62. Which of the following is the cell reaction that
54. Corrosion of Fe is favoured by presence of occurs when the following half – cells are
(1) H+ (2) Moisture combined?
(3) Impurities (4) All of these I2 + 2e– → 2I– (1 M); Eo = + 0.54 V
Br2 + 2e– → 2Br– (1 M); Eo = +1.09 V
55. E° for Fe2+ + 2e– → Fe is -0.44 V and E° for (1) 2Br– + I2 → Br2 + 2I–
Zn2+ + 2e– → Zn is –0.76 V thus (2) I2 + Br2 → 2I– + 2Br–
(1) Zn is more electropositive than Fe (3) 2I– + Br2 → I2 + 2Br–
(2) Zn is more electronegative than Fe
(4) 2I– + 2Br– → I2 + Br2
(3) Fe is more electropositive than Zn
(4) None of the above
63. If the current is passed into the solution of an
56. When Fe is rusted, the final product formed has electrolyte:
Fe in (1) Anions move towards anode, cations
(1) +2 state (2) +3 state towards cathode
(3) Elemental state (4) None of these (2) Anions and cations both move towards
anode
57. Iron can be prevented from rusting by (3) Anions move towards cathode, cations
(1) Connecting iron to more electropositive towards anode
metal, cathodic protection
(4) No movement of ions takes place
(2) Connecting iron to more electropositive
metal, anodic protection
(3) Connecting iron to less electropositive 64. Standard reduction potential for,
metal, cathodic protection + 2+ + +
Li Li, Zn Zn, H | H 2 and Ag | Ag is
(4) None of these
− 3.05, −0.762, 0.00 and + 0.80 V. Which has
58. In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at highest reducing capacity?
(1) Anode (1) Ag (2) H2
(2) Cathode
(3) Zn (4) Li
(3) The anode as well as cathode
(4) The surface of electrolyte solution
65. A solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed for 10 min
59. with a current of 1.5 A. What is the mass of
Electrolyte KCl KNO3 HCl NaOAC NaCl copper deposited at the cathode?
 149.9 145.0 426.2 91.0 126.5
(S cm2 mol–1)
(1) 2.096 g (2) 0.296 g
(3) 3.029 g (4) 2.906 g
Calculate Λ HOAc using appropriate molar
conductances of the electrolytes listed above at 66. Which metal is most readily corroded in moist
infinite dilution in H 2O at 25℃.
air?
(1) 217.5 (2) 390.7 (1) Copper (2) Iron
(3) 552.7 (4) 517.2
(3) Silver (4) Nickel
[6]
67. The oxidation potential of Mg and Al are + 2.37
and + 1.66 volt respectively. The Mg in chemical
74. The emf of the cell, E o ( Zn 2 + /Zn
= −0.76 V )
reactions : Zn / Zn 2+ (1 M ) | Cu 2+ (1 M ) Cu

(E )
(1) Will be replaced by Al o
= +0.34 V will be
(2) Will replace Al Cu 2+ /Cu
(3) Will not be able to replace Al (1) +1.10 V (2) –1.10 V
(4) None of the above (3) +0.42 V (4) –0.42 V

75. Which represents a concentration cell?

68. The weight of silver (eq. wt. = 108) displaced by
(1) Pt, H 2 | HCl || HCl | H 2 , Pt
that quantity of current which displaced 5600 mL C1 C2
of hydrogen at STP is : (2) Pt, H 2 | HCl || Cl | H 2 , Pt
(1) 54 g (2) 108 g C1
2+
(3) 5.4 g (4) None of these (3) Zn | Zn || Cu 2+ | Cu
(4) Fe | Fe2+ || Cu 2+ | Cu
69. The standard oxidation potentials of the
electrodes 76. In electrolysis of aqueous copper sulphate, the
+ 2+ 2+ 2+ gas at anode and cathode are
Ag Ag , Sn Sn , Ca Ca , Pb Pb are ⎯
(1) O2 and H2
0.8, 0.136, 2.866 and 0.126 V respectively. The
(2) H2 and O2
most powerful oxidising agent among these
(3) SO2 and H2
metal ions is :
(4) SO3 and O2
(1) Pb2+ (2) Ca2+
(3) Sn2+ (4) Ag+
77. The emf of the cell
70. The desired amount of charge for obtaining one Mg | Mg 2+ ( 0.01 M ) | Sn 2+ ( 0.1 M ) Sn

mole of Al from Al3+ is at 298 K is

(1) 96500 C (2) 2  96500 C (Given, E = −2.34 V, E = −0.14 V )
Mg 2 + , Mg Sn 2 + , Sn
96500 (1) 2.23 V (2) 1.86 V
(3) 3  96500 C (4) C
2 (3) 1.56 V (4) 3.26 V
71. Electrolytes when dissolved in water dissociates
into ions because 78. The specific conductivity of 0.1 N KCl solution
(1) They are unstable is 0.0129 Ω−1cm −1. The resistance of the
(2) The water dissolves it solution in the cell is 100Ω. The cell constant of
(3) The force of repulsion increases the cell will be
(4) The force of electrostatic attraction are (1) 1.10
(2) 1.29
broken down by water
(3) 0.56
(4) 2.80
72. Limiting molar ionic conductivities of a
univalent electrolyte are 57 and 73. The limiting 79. The passage of electricity in the Daniell cell
molar conductivity of the solution will be : when Zn and Cu electrodes are connected:
(1) From Cu to Zn inside the cell
(1) 130 Scm2 mol−1
(2) From Cu to Zn outside the cell
(2) 65 Scm2 mol−1 (3) From Zn to Cu outside the cell
(4) None of the above
(3) 260 Scm2 mol−1
80. The resistance of a decinormal solution of a salt
(4) 187 Scm2 mol−1
occupying a volume between two platinum
2
electrodes 1.80 cm apart and 5.4 cm in area was
73. Molten NaCl conducts electricity due to the
formed to be 32 ohm. The specific and equivalent
presence of : conductivity respectively in their proper units are :
(1) Free electrons (1) 104.1 and 0.0104
(2) Free molecules (2) 208.2 and 0.0208
(3) Free ions (3) 0.0104 and 104.0
(4) Atoms of Na and Cl (4) None of these

[7]
81. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and 89. The e. m. f. of the cell Zn | Zn2+ (1 M) || Cu2+ | Cu
CH3COONa at infinite dilution are (1 M) is 1.1 volt. If the standard reduction
2 –1
126.45,426.16 and 91.0 S cm mol respectively. potential of Zn2+ | Zn is –0.78 volt, what is the
The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite oxidation potential of Cu | Cu2+ ?
dilution is. Choose the right option for your (1) + 1.86 V (2) 0.32 V
answer.
(3) –0.32 V (4) –1.86 V
(1) 390.71 Scm2 mol−1
(2) 698.28 Scm2 mol−1 90. What will be the electrode potential of that
2 −1 hydrogen electrode is filled with HCl solution of
(3) 540.48 Scm mol
pH value 1.0?
(4) 201.28 Scm2 mol−1
(1) –59.15 V (2) +59.15
82. In a typical fuel cell, the reactants (R) and (3) +59.15 mV (4) –59.15 mV
product ( P ) are
91. The emf of the cell
(1) R = H2(g) ,O2(g) ;P = H2O(
Zn Zn 2+ ( 0.01 M ) Fe2+ ( 0.001 M ) Fe
)
(2) R = H2(g) ,O2(g) ,Cl2(g) ;P = HClO4(aq)
(3) R = H2(g) , N2(g) ;P = NH3(aq) at 298 K is 0.2905. The value of equilibrium
constant for the cell reaction is
(4) R = H2(g) ,O2(g) ;P = H2O2( ) 0.32
0.0298
(1) 10
83. In dry cell cathode is 0.32
(1) Zn (2) Carbon rod
(2) e 0.0295
(3) Zn + NH4Cl (4) C + MnO2
0.32

84. During the electrolysis of molten sodium (3) 10 0.0591

chloride, the time required to produce 0.10 mol 0.26

of chlorine gas using a current of 3 amperes is: (4) 10 0.0295

(1) 220 minutes (2) 330 minutes
(3) 55 minutes (4) 110 minutes
92. EMF of hydrogen electrode in term of pH is (at 1
85. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode atm pressure)
during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 RT
(1) E H 2 = pH
seconds is: F
(charge on electron = 1.60  10−19 C ) RT 1
(2) E H 2 = .
(1) 3.75  1020 (2) 7.48  1023 F pH
(3) 6  1023 (4) 6  1020 2.303RT
(3) E H2 = .pH
F
SECTION – B (4) EH2 = – 0.0591 pH
86. Which of the following does not evolve oxygen
at anode when electrolysis is carried out
(1) dil. H2SO4 with Pt electrode 93. What is the quantity of electricity (in Coulombs)
(2) Fused NaOH with Pt electrode required to deposit all the silver from 250mL of
(3) Acidic water with Pt electrode 1 M AgNO3 solution?
(4) dil. H2SO4 with Cu electrode (1) 2412.5 (2) 24125
(3) 4825.0 (4) 48250
87. E 0cell for the reaction, 2H2O → H3O+ + OH– at
25°C is –0.8277 V. The equilibrium constant for 94. If the E cell for a given reaction has a negative
the reaction is:
value, then which of the following gives the
(1) 10–14 (2) 10–23
(3) 10 –7
(4) 10–21 correct relationships for the value of G° and
Keq?
88. Electrolysis of dil. H2SO4 liberates gases at (1) G  0; Keq  1
cathode and anode respectively as
(2) G  0; Keq  1
(1) O2 and SO2
(2) SO2 and O2 (3) G  0 ; Keq  1
(3) O2 and H2
(4) G  0; Keq  1
(4) H2 and O2
[8]
95. Standard reduction potentials of the half 98. For the cell reaction
reactions are given below : 2Fe3+ ( aq ) + 2I − ( aq ) → 2Fe 2+ ( aq ) + I 2 ( aq )
F2 ( g ) + 2e − → 2F− ( aq ) ; E = + 2.85 V
Ecell = 0.24 V at 298 K . The standard Gibbs
Cl2 ( g ) + 2e − → 2Cl− ( aq ) ; E = + 1.36 V
energy (Δ r G ) of the cell reaction is:
Br2 ( l ) + 2e → 2Br
− −
( aq ) ; E = + 1.06 V [Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol−1 ]
I 2 ( s ) + 2e → 2I ( aq ) ;
− −
E = +0.53 V (1) −46.32 kJ mol−1
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents (2) −23.16 kJ mol−1
respectively are :
(3) 46.32 kJ mol−1
(1) F2 and I− (2) Br2 and Cl−
−
(4) 23.16 kJ mol−1
(3) Cl2 and Br (4) Cl2 and I2
99. In the electrochemical cell
96. In acidic medium MnO−4 is converted to Mn 2+ . Zn ZnSO 4 ( 0.01M ) CuSO 4 (1.0M ) Cu , the emf
The quantity of electricity in faraday required to of this Daniel cell is E1 . When the concentration
reduce 0.5 mole of MnO−4 to Mn 2+ would be of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0M and that of
(1) 2.5 (2) 5 CuSO4 changed to 0.01M , the emf changes to
(3) 1 (4) 0.5
E2 . From the following, which one is the
97. The rusting of iron takes place as follows relationship between E1 and E2 ?
1 RT
2H + + 2e− + O2 → H 2 O (l ); E = +1.23 V (Given, = 0.059 )
2 F
Fe + 2e → Fe ( s ) ;
2+ −
E = −0.44 V (1) E2 = 0  E (3) E1  E 2
Calculate ΔG for the net process. (2) E1 = E 2 (4) E1  E 2
(1) –322 kJ mol−1
100. The pressure of H2 required to make the potential
(2) –161 kJ mol−1 of H2 electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is:
(3) –152 kJ mol−1 (1) 10−4 atm (2) 10−14 atm
(4) –76 kJ mol−1 (3) 10−12 atm (4) 10−10 atm

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A 105. The layer in pollen grain which has germ pores is
101. Pollen grain of angiosperms represents (1) Epidermis (2) Epicarp
(1) Male gamete (3) Exine (4) Outer integument
(2) Microsporangium
(3) Male gametophyte 106. Which of the following condition is helpful for
(4) Megaspore wind pollination of flowers?
(1) Sticky pollens
102. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils due to (2) Flowers with nectar
the presence of (3) Well exposed stamens
(1) Sporopollenin in the intine of pollen (4) Attractive colored petals
(2) Pectocellulose in the intine of pollen
(3) Sporopollenin in the exine of pollen
107. Which of the following structure guides the entry
(4) Pectin in the exine of pollen
of pollen tube into the embryo sac?
(1) Nucellus
103. Which of the following has been used in the form
(2) Antipodal cells
of tablets as a food supplement?
(3) Filiform apparatus of synergid cells
(1) Pollens (2) Sepals
(3) Pistils (4) Petals (4) Egg cell

104. Viability of pollen grains of wheat is about 108. Cleistogamy refers to the condition in which
(1) 7 days (1) Pollinators are not required
(2) One month (2) Flowers are absent
(3) 30 minutes (3) Flowers always remain open
(4) One day (4) Flowers are gamopetalous
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109. Majority of insect pollinated flowers are 116. Persistent nucellus in the seeds of black pepper is
(1) Small, colorless, fragrant and producing dry called
pollens (1) Tegmen (2) Endosperm
(2) Large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar (3) Perisperm (4) Cotyledon
(3) Small and producing large number of dry
pollens 117. Parthenocarpic fruits
(4) Large, colourful, without nectar and producing (1) Develop from fertilised ovary
dry pollens (2) Are seedless
(3) Are apple and cashew nut
110. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (4) Develop from other parts of fertilised ovary
matched? except its wall
(1) Ovule – Megasporangium
(2) Filiform apparatus – Synergids
118. An aquatic plant which is pollinated by water is
(3) Apocarpus, multicarpellary gynoecium –
(1) Water hyacinth (2) Water lily
Papaver
(3) Zostera (4) Salvia
(4) Largest cell of the embryo sac – Central cell
119. If there is only one PMC in a pollen sac then the
111. Read the given features of a plant 'A'.
total number of male gametes produced by it is
a. Non-sticky pollen grains.
(1) 4 (2) 2
b. Well exposed stamens.
c. Nectar absent. (3) 8 (4) 6
d. Flowers are packed into inflorescence.
On the basis of above features, identify the type of 120. The event which is unique to angiosperms is
pollinating agent preferred by the plant 'A' for (1) Fusion of male and female gametes
pollination. (2) Fusion of male gamete with secondary nucleus
(1) Water (2) Insect (3) Formation of zygote
(3) Wind (4) Bat (4) Presence of female gametophyte

112. Choose the odd statement for pollen grains 121. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of
(1) Pollen grains of some species cause severe attachment of scutellum is called
allergies (1) Coleoptile (2) Epicotyl
(2) Can be used as food supplement (3) Hypocotyl (4) Epiblast
(3) Can be stored at – 196°C in liquid N2
(4) Have fascinating array of patterns and designs 122. The cells of anther wall layer which nourish the
of pectocellulose on outer wall. developing pollen grains is related to all of the
following features, except
113. Persistent nucellus present in some seeds is called (1) Dense cytoplasm
(1) Perisperm (2) Pericarp (2) Polyploid
(3) Periderm (4) Phelloderm (3) Multinucleate
(4) Low DNA content
114. Most common type of embryo sac present in
angiosperms is 123. Choose the odd one w.r.t. reward for insect in
(1) Bisporic, 8 nucleated and 7 celled entomophily.
(2) Monosporic, 8 nucleated and 8 celled
(1) Nectar
(3) Bisporic, 8 nucleated and 8 celled
(2) Safe place for egg laying
(4) Monosporic, 8 nucleated and 7 celled
(3) Pollen grains
(4) Fragrance
115. The innermost layer of anther wall is
(1) Endothecium and it provides nutrition to
124. If artificial hybridization is performed in maize,
pollens
then which of the given steps will not be required?
(2) Tapetum and it nourishes the developing
pollen grains (1) Selection of parents
(3) Nucellus and it forms microspores (2) Emasculation
(4) Endothecium and it helps in dehiscence of (3) Bagging
anther (4) Rebagging

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125. Endospermic dicotyledonous seeds are present in 134. I = Inflated, i = constricted. Given that the
(1) Pea (2) Castor phenotype of F1 progeny is inflated pods and that
(3) Beans (4) Groundnut the parents are true-breeding, which of the
following is not a possible genotype of parents?
126. Mendel proposed something was being stable (1) Parent 1 : II; Parent 2 : ii
passed down from parents to offspring called (2) Parent 1 : II; Parent 2 : II
(1) Genes (2) Genotype (3) Parent 1 : ii; Parent 2 : ii
(3) Factors (4) Alleles (4) Parent 1 : ii; Parent 2 : II

127. Segregation of Mendelian factors occurs during 135. According to Mendel’s principle of segregation,
(1) Anaphase I gametes always receive
(2) Anaphase II
(1) One pair factor
(3) Diplotene
(2) One quarter of the genes
(4) Metaphase I
(3) Both one factor of father and one factor of
mother
128. Tt is crossed with ……... to give both tall and
(4) Only one factor
dwarf
progeny in equal number
SECTION - B
(1) Tt (2) TT
(3) tt (4) Tr 136. What is the generation of plants produced by the
crossing of true-breeding plants called?
129. What should be the phenotype of the F1 progeny (1) F1
produced by a cross between tall and dwarf true- (2) F0
breeding garden pea plants? (3) F2
(1) Tall plants (4) F3
(2) Dwarf plants
(3) Intermediate plants 137. Law of dominance and law of segregation was
(4) Mixed population of tall and dwarf plants based on _____ .
(1) Dihybrid cross
130. Mendel’s principle of segregation is based on (2) Monohybrid cross
separation of alleles during (3) Test cross
(1) Gamete formation (4) Back cross
(2) Seed formation
(3) Pollinations 138. Mendel’s Law of dominance explains.
(4) Embryonic development (1) Expression of only one of the parental
characters in monohybrid cross in the Fl
131. Which one from those given below is the period for (2) Expression of both parental character in F2
Mendel’s hybridisation experiments? (3) Proportion of 3:1 obtained at the F2 generation
(1) 1856 – 1863 (2) 1840 – 1850 (4) All of the above
(3) 1857 – 1869 (4) 1870 – 1877
139. What does F in "F1 progeny" stand for?
132. In monohybrid test cross, ratio obtained is
(1) Filial
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:1:1
(2) Fillial
(3) 3:1 (4) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) Filum
(4) Filler
133. Which one of the following is not true for the
experiments of Mendel on pea?
(1) His observations were based on natural, 140. Which of the following traits expresses itself only
statical analysis & mathematical logics. in homozygous condition?
(2) He had chosen characters of two contrasting (1) Yellow seed colour
states. (2) Violet flower colour
(3) He used true-breeding lines. (3) Green pod colour
(4) His experiments had small sampling size (4) Terminal flower position

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141. Consider violet flower is dominant over white 146. If VV produces violet flowers and vv produces
flower colour. To determine the genotype of violet white flowers, what will be the phenotype and
flowered pea plant of F1 generation, it should be genotype of the F1 progeny?
crossed with (1) All violet
(1) White flowered pea plant (2) All white
(2) Homozygous dominant parent (3) 50% violet and 50% white
(3) Homozygous recessive parent (4) 75% violet and 25% white
(4) Both (1) & (3)
147. Two tall pea plants are crossed together. In its F1
142. A plant that exhibits two alleles for only one trait is generation, the probability of tallness will be
called _______ (1) 100% tall or 75% tall
(1) Monohybrid (2) Dihybrid (2) Always 100% tall
(3) Monogamous (4) Digamous (3) 100% tall or 50% tall
(4) Always 50% tall
143. The factor which expresses in homozygous and
148. The term used for the units of inheritance by
heterozygous states is called ________
Mendel was
(1) Dominant (2) Recessive
(1) Traits (2) Genes
(3) Gene (4) Allele
(3) Alleles (4) Factors
144. The presence of two different alleles at a particular
149. During meiosis, what happens to the parental
locus results in _____
alleles?
(1) Homozygosity
(1) They segregate
(2) Heterozygosity
(2) They undergo repair
(3) Hemizygosity
(3) They undergo breakage
(4) Nullizygosity
(4) They replicate
145. With green pods as a dominant trait over yellow,
150. What should be the phenotype of a cross between
which of the following crosses will result in all
violet and white-flowered true-breeding garden pea
progeny having yellow pods?
plants?
(1) Homozygous green and homozygous yellow
(1) Violet (2) White
(2) Heterozygous green and heterozygous green
(3) Pink (4) Red
(3) Homozygous yellow and homozygous yellow
(4) Homozygous green and homozygous green

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 153. Match the following columns and select the
151. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm correct option.
cells in male reproductive system. Column-I Column-II
(1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → (A) Placenta (i) Androgens
Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → (B) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
Gonadotropin (hCG)
Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral
(C) Bulbourethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
meatus
glands
(2) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia →
(D) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra penis
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa (A) (B) (C) (D)
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral (2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
meatus (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
154. In human female, the blastocyst
(1) Forms placenta even before implantation
152. In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the ovulation
(2) Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after
takes place typically on
ovulation
(1) Day 14 of the cycle (3) Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial
(2) Day 28 of the cycle secretion only after implantation
(3) Day 1 of the cycle (4) Gets implanted in endometrium by the
(4) Day 5 of the cycle. trophoblast cells.
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155. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of 161. Match the following and choose the correct
(1) Oxytocin (2) Vasopressin options.
(3) Progesterone (4) FSH. Column I Column II
A. Trophoblast I. Embedding of blastocyst
156. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
division, the male germ cells differentiate into in the endometrium
the B. Cleavage II. Group of cells that
(1) Spermatids would differentiate as
(2) Spermatogonia embryo
(3) Primary spermatocytes
C. Inner cells III. Outer layer of blastocyst
(4) Secondary spermatocytes.
mass attached to the
157. Read the statement carefully & choose the endometrium
correct option. D. Implantation IV. Mitotic division of
Statement I: The blastocyst continues to divide zygote
and transform into morula
Codes
Statement II: The embryo with 4-8 blastomeres is
called morula. A B C D
(1) Both statement are correct. (1) II I III IV
(2) Both statement are incorrect. (2) III IV II I
(3) Only statement I is correct (3) III I II IV
(4) Only statement II is correct
(4) II IV III I

158. Which one of the following is the correct

matching of the events occurring during 162. Match column I with column II and choose the
menstrual cycle? correct option
(1) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration Column I Column II
of myometrium and A. Relaxin I. Help in spermiogenesis
maturation of
B. Progesterone II. Ovary
Graafian follicle
(2) Secretory phase : Development of C. hCG III. Corpus luteum
corpus luteum and D. FSH IV. Placenta
increased secretion of (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
progesterone
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) Menstruation : Breakdown of
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
myometrium and
ovum not fertilised (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain
peak level and sharp 163. The mitotic division starts as the zygote moves
fall in the secretion of through the ___A__ of the ___B___ called
progesterone
cleavage.
159. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in Identify A & B
(1) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes (1) A-Ampulla, B-Ovary
(2) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no (2) A-Isthmus, B-Oviduct
calcium (3) A-Infundibulum, B-Fallopian tube
(3) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in (4) A-Infundibulum, B- Ovary
calcium
(4) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
164. The menstrual phase is followed by _______.
160. Morula is a developmental stage (1) Follicular phase
(1) between the zygote and blastocyst (2) Luteal phase
(2) between the blastocyst and gastrula (3) Menstruation
(3) after the implantation
(4) Fertilisation
(4) between implantation and parturition
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165. Match the column I with column II and choose 169. Identify correct statement regarding Prostate.
the correct option I. Male external genitalia
Column I Column II II. Male accessory gland
A. Gestation I. Formation of gametes III. Their secretion help in lubrication of penis.
(1) I, II, III (2) Only I
B. Implantation II. Fusion of male and
(3) Only II (4) Only III
females gametes
C. Fertilisation III. Blastocyst attachment to
170. How many of the following comes under female
uterine wall
external genitalia?
D. Gametogenesis IV. Embryonic development
Labia majora, cervix, hymen, clitoris, ampulla,
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I mons pubis
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (1) 5 (2) 4
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (3) 6 (4) 2
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
166. Identify A, B, C, D and E from the following 171. Choose the incorrect statement.
diagram. (1) Mammary ampulla connected to mammary
lobes.
(2) In the wall of uterus the external thin
membrane is perimetrium.
(3) Clitoris lies at the upper junction of 2 labia
minora.
(4) Secondary spermatocytes have only 23
chromosomes.

172. ___A____ forms a new membrane called zona

(1) A-Penis, B-Prostate, C-Rectum, D-Ureter,
pellucida. (Identify A).
E-Vas deferens
(1) Primary Oocyte (2) Secondary Oocyte
(2) A-Prostate, B-Penis, C-Rectum, D-Vas
(3) Tertiary Oocyte (4) Graafian follicle.
deferens, E-Ureter
(3) A-Glans Penis, B-Penis, C-Prostate, D- 173. The first menstruation begins at ___A__ and is
Ureter, E-Vas deferens called ___B___
(4) A-Penis, B-Glans penis C-Ureter, D- Identify A & B
Prostate, E-Vas deferens. (1) A-Puberty, B-Menopause
(2) A-30 years, B-Menarche
167. The regions outside the seminiferous tubules (3) A-30 years, B-Menopause
contains. (4) A-Puberty, B-Menarche
(1) Leydig cells
(2) Interstitial cells 174. The seminal plasma along with _______
constitute the semen.
(3) Blood vessels
(1) Sperms (2) Fructose
(4) All of the above
(3) Calcium (4) Some enzymes

168. Assertion: Ovaries produce the female gamete. 175. Read the statements carefully and choose the
Reason: Ovaries produce steroid hormones. correct option.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and Statement I: Primary oocyte within the tertiary
reason is the correct explanation for follicle complete its first meiotic division.
assertion. Statement II: First meiotic division in primary
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but oocyte is equal division produces a secondary
reason is not the correct explanation for oocyte and a polar body.
assertion. (1) Both statement are correct.
(3) Both assertion and reason are incorrect. (2) Both statement are incorrect.
(4) Only assertion is correct and reason is (3) Only statement I is correct
incorrect. (4) Only statement II is correct

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176. Choose the incorrect statement(s) 183. The figure shows a section of human ovary.
I. In the presence of fertilisation corpus luteum Select the option which gives the correct
degenerates. identification of either A or B with
II. During fertilisation sperm comes in contact function/characteristic.
with the zona pellucida.
III. Menstrual cycle starts with the proliferative
phase.
(1) Only I (2) I & II
(3) I & III (4) II & III

177. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged (1) B – Corpus luteum – Secretes progesterone
into an outer layer ___A___ and inner ___B___ (2) A – Tertiary follicle – Forms Graafian
Identify A & B follicle
(1) A-Inner cell mass, B-Trophoblast (3) B-Corpus luteum – Secretes estrogen
(2) A-Blastocyst, B-Trophoblast (4) A-Primary oocyte – It is in the prophase I of
(3) A-Inner & cell mass, B-Blastocyst the miotic division
(4) A-Trophoblast, B-Inner cell mass
184. The human male ejaculates about ________
178. Which of the following hormones level are
sperms.
increased during pregnancy?
(1) 150 millions
Estrogens, FSH, LH, Cortisol, thyroxine
(2) 450 millions
(1) 1
(3) 250 millions
(2) 2
(4) 100 millions
(3) 4
(4) 3
185. Transfer of sperms in female genital tract is
179. In adults, length of each testis is about called _________.
(1) 2-3 cm (2) 4-5 cm (1) Implantation (2) Fertilisation
(3) 1-2 cm (4) 8-10 cm (3) Insemination (4) Gestation

180. Choose the correct statement/(s). SECTION-B

I. Vasa efferentia is a male sex accessory duct. 186. Read the statement carefully and choose the
II. Vasa efferentia open into epididymis. correct option.
III. Ejaculatory duct store and transports the Statement I: fertilisation can only occur if the
sperms. ovum and sperm are transported simultaneously
(1) I & II (2) II & III to the infundibulum region.
(3) I & III (4) I, II & III Statement II: Secretion of prostate gland help the
sperm enter into the cytoplasm.
181. Which of the following is female accessory (1) Both statement are correct.
ducts?
(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(1) Oviducts
(3) Only statement I is correct
(2) Fallopian tubes.
(4) Only statement II is correct
(3) Vagina
(4) All of the above
187. The trophoblast layer gets attached to __A__ and
inner cell mass differentiated as the ___B___.
182. How many sperms are formed from 6 primary
spermatocytes? Identify A & B
(1) 12 (1) A-Perimetrium B-Zygote
(2) 4 (2) A-Myometrium B-embryo
(3) 32 (3) A-Endometrium B-embryo
(4) 24 (4) A-Endometrium B- Blastocyst
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188. Which of the following statements is correct 194. Which of the following hormones is not secreted
regarding male gamete? by human placenta?
(1) 80% of sperm carry Y-chromosome, 20% of (1) hCG
sperm carry X-chromosome. (2) Estrogens
(2) Sex of zygote depends on whether sperm (3) Progesterone
carry X-chromosome/Y-chromosome (4) LH
(3) Sex of zygote depends on whether ova carry
X-chromosome/Y-chromosome
195. Urethral meatus refers to the
(4) Sperm head eontain an elongated diploid
(1) urinogenital duct
nucleus.
(2) opening of vas deferens into urethra
189. The opening of the vagina is often partially (3) external opening of the urinogenital duct
covered by _________ (4) muscles surrounding the urinogenital duct
(1) Hymen (2) Clitoris
(3) Labia minora (4) Labia majora 196. Which among the following has 23
chromosomes?
190. Assertion: Not all copulations lead to fertilisation (1) Spermatogonia
and pregnancy. (2) Zygote
Reason: Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum (3) Secondary oocyte
and sperm are transported simultaneously to the
(4) Oogonia
ampullary region.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and
reason is the correct explanation for 197. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal
assertion. vesicle and opens into urethra as
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but (1) Epididymis
reason is not the correct explanation for (2) Ejaculatory duct
assertion. (3) Efferent ductule
(3) Both assertion and reason are incorrect. (4) Ureter
(4) only assertion is correct and reason is
incorrect. 198. Sperms are finally released from the
seminiferous tubules by the process _________.
191. Milk production starts _______.
(1) Spermiogenesis
(1) Towards the end of pregnancy
(2) Spermatogenesis
(2) During the 1st month of pregnancy.
(3) During 6th month of pregnancy. (3) Gametogenesis
(4) After fertilisation. (4) Spermiation

192. A female external genitalia which is a cushion of 199. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
fatty tissue covered by skin & pubic hair is called __________.
(1) Clitoris (1) 15-20 mammary lobes.
(2) Labia majora (2) 15-20 mammary ducts.
(3) Mons pubis (3) 15-20 lactiferous ducts
(4) Labia minora (4) 20-40 mammary ducts.

193. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is

200. Milk is secreted by _______.
controlled by circulating levels of
(1) Progesterone only (1) Mammary lobes
(2) Progesterone and inhibin (2) Cells of alveoli
(3) Estrogen and progesterone (3) Mammary ducts
(4) Estrogen and inhibin. (4) Lactiferous duct

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