Organizational Behaviour MCQ (50 Questions)

1. A model is a(n) _____.

a. abstraction of reality
b. someone held in high esteem
c. independent variable
d. real-world scenario
e. dependent variable

2. At its root, productivity involves concern for both ____.

a. dependence and independence
b. diversity and homogeneity
c. motivation and distraction
d. absenteeism and motivation
e. effectiveness and efficiency

3. Which of the following is an example of being an efficient company?

a. operating at the lowest possible cost while yielding a higher output
b. creating the highest customer satisfaction ratings
c. meeting the production schedule
d. obtaining the highest market share
e. maximizing diversity at high cost

4. In general, _____ reinforcement schedules tend to lead to higher performance than _____
reinforcement schedules.
a. variable; fixed
b. fixed; intermittent
c. fixed; variable
d. variable; ratio
e. fixed; static

5. The application of reinforcement concepts to individuals in the work setting is referred toas
_____.
a. classical conditioning
b. self-management
c. reengineering
d. OB Mod
e. social modeling

6. Which of the following is one of the steps of the problem-solving model followed by the typical
OB Mod program?
a. identifying critical behaviors
b. reinforcing behavior
c. developing horizontally arrayed data
d. developing vertically arrayed data
e. identifying member barriers

7. Which of the following statements is not true about attitudes in the workplace?
a. Changing employee attitudes is necessary if you are to manage dissonance.
 b. High pay alone is not likely to create a satisfying workplace.
c. Generating positive job attitudes helps lower absenteeism and turnover.
d. Attitudes help determine how well employees perform on the job
e. Attitudes give warnings of potential problems

8. An important moderator of the satisfaction-turnover relationship is the _____.

a. employee’s level of performance
b. organization’s culture
c. management’s style
d. employee’s values and attitudes
e. employee’s level of workplace deviance

9. Why should managers be interested in their employees’ attitudes?

a. They result from behavior.
b. They cause problems.
c. They give warnings of potential problems.
d. They are generally low.
e. They result in cognitive dissonance.

10. Each of the six personality types developed in Holland’s personality-job fit theory has a
________.
a. supplemental personality style
b. congruent personality style
c. congruent occupational environment
d. supplemental occupational environment
e. supplemental skill set

11. The “realistic” personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations
would be well suited for which of the following jobs?
a. painter
b. accountant
c. mechanic
d. lawyer
e. biologist

12. What are consequences of a good fit between person and occupation?
a. a low level of stress
b. a high level of accomplishment
c. high satisfaction and low turnover
d. maximum performance and efficiency
e. a high rate of turnover

13 What is the segment of the three-component model of creativity that is the foundation for all
creative work?
a. expertise
b. creative thinking skills
c. intrinsic task motivation
d. intuition
e. realization
14. What segment of the three-component model of creativity encompasses personality
characteristics that are associated with imagination?
a. expertise
b. creative thinking skills
c. intrinsic task motivation
d. intuition
e. realization

15. What is the segment in the three-component model of creativity that turns creativepotential
into actual creative ideas?
a. expertise
b. creative thinking skills
c. intrinsic task motivation
d. intuition
e. realization

16. What is the term used for an individual’s personal evaluation of their ability to perform?
a. expectancy
b. autonomy
c. self-efficacy
d. task identity
e. auto-discrimination

17. Which of the following is one of the relationships proposed in expectancy theory?
a. reward-satisfaction relationship
b. satisfaction-performance relationship
c. rewards-personal goals relationship
d. effort-satisfaction relationship
e. performance-achievement relationship

18. According to expectancy theory, the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an
individual’s personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the
individual is known as what sort of relationship?
a. performance-reward
b. effort-performance
c. rewards-personal goals
d. effort-satisfaction
e. performance-achievement

19. Which of the following is not a typical option in a flexible benefit program?
a. additional life insurance
b. disability insurance
c. expanded health coverage.
d. tax free health care spending accounts
e. mortgage relief

20. What are modular benefit plans?

a. essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefits
 b. pre-designed packages of benefits
c. they employees to set aside funds up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for
services
d. a scheme designed for single employees with no dependents
e. a scheme designed for employees with families

21. Which of the following is a form of recognition?

a. personal congratulations
b. job enlargement
c. job sharing
d. flexible benefit packages
e. profit sharing

22. Whether a candidate has high emotional intelligence would not be a significant factor when
considering candidates for which of the following jobs?
a. An interviewer who assesses candidates in an employment agency.
b. An engineer heading up a team designing a complex software/hardware interface.
c. A meeting planner who must set up meetings for candidates around the world.
d. A copy-editor who seeks out spelling errors and grammatical mistakes in manuscripts.
e. A realtor arranging sales between homeowners and potential buyers.

23. Studies show that people who are depressed tend to make poorer decisions than thosewith
a more positive outlook. Why is this thought to be the case?
a. They tend to choose an outcome that will confirm their negative worldview.
b. They search for the perfect solution when rarely is any solution perfect.
c. They rarely weigh up all the options when making a decision.
d. They avoid stereotyping and other behaviors that allow them to come to a rapid decision.
e. They tend to put too great a value on their own ability to affect outcomes.

24. Francine is the head of a group at an ad agency working with copywriters, artists, and
designers to come up with effective branding of new products. Why is it particularly important for
her to keep her team happy?
a. People are more conscientious when they are in a good mood.
b. People are more efficient when they are in a good mood.
c. People are more productive when they are in a good mood.
d. People are more cooperative when they are in a good mood.
e. People are more creative when they are in a good mood

25. What term is used for the tendency for individuals to spend less effort when working
collectively?
a. groupthink
b. the rule of diminishing returns
c. social loafing
d. groupshift
e. clustering

26. Which of the following is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter the
group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views?
a. group conformity
 b. groupshift
c. groupthink
d. compromise
e. risk transfer

27. What is brainstorming?

a. a technique used to build group cohesiveness
b. a technique that tends to restrict independent thinking
c. a process for generating ideas
d. a process used mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution
e. the most effective means of generating answers

28. Coasting on the group effort is termed ____.

a. inconsistency
b. incompetence
c. social loafing
d. dysfunction
e. half-focus bias

29. If an employee is considered “untrainable” as a team member, he or she most likely_____.

a. will be willing to undergo training in order to learn team skills
b. can be successfully transferred from one team to another
c. lacks the technical skills necessary for a team position
d. will find it difficult to transition to working in teams
e. comes from a culture that upholds collectivist values

30. Exercises that help individuals become team players include workshops in _____.
a. negotiation
b. individualism
c. goal setting
d. event planning
e. recruiting

31. Receivers in communication see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience,
background, and other personal characteristics. This is called _____.
a. communication apprehension
b. filtering
c. selective perception
d. emotional block
e. projection

32. During the communication process, which of the following is most likely to result in lost
information?
a. information processing
b. information overload
c. information filtering
d. effective communication
e. the maximal effort effect
33. Communication _____ is the tension and anxiety about oral communication, written
communication, or both.
a. obstruction
b. apprehension
c. breakdown
d. block
e. frustration

34. According to LMX theory, which of the following is not true of those individuals who fall into
the out-group?
a. They receive a disproportionate amount of the leader’s attention.
b. They have leader-follower relations based on formal authority interaction.
c. They are less trusted.
d. They receive fewer of the preferred rewards that the leader controls.
e. All of the above statements are true.

35. According to LMX theory, a leader implicitly categorizes followers as “in” or “out” _____.
a. after careful analysis
b. on a temporary basis
c. early in the interaction
d. because of political pressure
e. based on job requirements

36. Vroom and Yetton’s leadership theory could also be described as a _____ theory.
a. contingency
b. decision
c. behavioral
d. trait
e. cognitive dissonance

37. Organizational characteristics that can be substitutes for leadership include all of the
following except _____.
a. explicit formalized goals
b. rigid rules and procedures
c. cohesive work groups
d. mentor relationships
e. All of the above can be substitutes for leadership.

38. According to the text, which of the following skills should be included in leadershiptraining?
a. vision creation
b. trust building
c. situational analysis
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

39. Reactive and protective behaviors designed to avoid action, blame, or change are termed
_____.
a. political behaviors
b. defensive behaviors
 c. protectionism
d. impression management
e. shielding bias

40. The process by which individuals attempt to control the perceptions that others form of them
is called _____.
a. impression management
b. information management
c. defensive behavior
d. perception management
e. reflection control

41. What factor would most likely increase the negative impact of an arbitration session?
a. limited options of the arbitrator
b. heavy-handedness of the arbitrator
c. compulsory nature of the arbitration
d. voluntary nature of the arbitration
e. establishment of an agreement that is non-binding

42. In third-party negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link
between the negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n) _____.
a. mediator
b. arbitrator
c. consultant
d. conciliator
e. executor

43. A company oriented around cost minimization is best served by which type of structure?
a. virtual
b. combination
c. mechanistic
d. organic
e. targeted

44. The _____ of an environment refers to the degree to which it can support growth.
a. capacity
b. qualifications
c. potential
d. capability
e. permeability

45. What does a positive organizational culture do?

a. uses positive reinforcement instead of punishment
b. rarely uses rewards
c. emphasizes individual growth
d. emphasizes building on the organization’s strengths
e. emphasizes organizational vitality
46. Organizations that promote a spiritual culture _____.
a. have organized religious practices
b. adopt a corporate religion
c. recognize that people have both a mind and a spirit
d. de-emphasize community in the work place
e. tend to downplay the importance of employee satisfaction

47. The centerpiece of most diversity programs is _____.

a. top management commitment
b. employee commitment
c. training
d. human resource personnel
e. employee satisfaction

48. Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for _____.
a. increasing awareness and examining stereotypes
b. focusing on individual differences
c. eliminating group learning
d. balancing work/life conflicts
e. socializing otherwise unmanageable employees

49. Family issues, economic problems, and personality characteristics are examples of the ____
factor of potential stress.
a. social
b. environmental
c. personnel
d. psychological
e. personal

50. _____ is an example of an individual approach to stress reduction.

a. Selection and placement
b. Redesigning jobs
c. Goal setting
d. Relaxation techniques
e. all of the above

Short Questions (20 Questions)

1. Discuss three different criteria for ethical decision making.
There are three different criteria in making ethical choices.
a) The first is the utilitarian criterion, in which decisions are made solely on the basis of
their outcomes or consequences. The goal of utilitarianism is to provide the greatest
good for the greatest number. This is the view that tends to dominate business
decision making.
b) Another criterion is to focus on rights. This calls on individuals to make decisions
consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in documents like the
Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making means respecting and
protecting the basic rights of individuals.
 c) A third criterion is to focus on justice. This requires individuals to impose and enforce
rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs.

2. What is self-efficacy?
Self-efficacy refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a
task. The higher your self-efficacy, the more confidence you have in your ability to
succeed in a task. Individuals high in self-efficacy seem to respond to negative feedback
with increased effort and motivation, while those low in self-efficacy are likely to lessen
their effort when given negative feedback.

3. Explain the three job redesign options.

a) Job rotation. This is the practice of periodically shifting an employee from one task to
another. When an activity is no longer challenging, the employee is rotated to
another job, usually at the same level, that has similar skill requirements.
b) Job enlargement. This is the expansion of jobs horizontally; increasing the number
and variety of tasks that an individual performs. Instead of only sorting the incoming
mail by department, for instance, a mail sorter’s job could be enlarged to include
physically delivering the mail to the various departments or running outgoing letters
through the postage meter.
c) Job enrichment. Job enrichment refers to the vertical expansion of jobs. It increases
the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of
his or her work. An enriched job organizes tasks so as to allow the worker to do a
complete activity, increases the employee’s freedom and independence, increases
responsibility, and provides feedback, so an individual will be able to assess and
correct his or her own performance.

4. Discuss whether there are gender differences regarding emotions.

The common belief is that women are more emotional than are men. Is there any truth to
this? The evidence does confirm that women are more emotionally expressive than are
men; they experience emotions more intensely; they tend to “hold onto” emotions longer
than men, and they display more frequent expressions of both positive and negative
emotions, except anger. Although there may be innate differences between the genders,
research suggests that emotional differences also are due to the different ways men and
women have been socialized. Men are taught to be tough and brave. Showing emotion
is inconsistent with this image. Women, in contrast, are socialized to be nurturing. For
instance, women are expected to express more positive emotions on the job (shown by
smiling) than men, and they do.

5. What is team efficacy?

Effective teams have confidence in themselves. They believe they can succeed. This is
called team efficacy. Teams that have been successful raise their beliefs about future
success, which in turn, motivates them to work harder.

6. What is communication apprehension?

Communication apprehension is a major barrier to effective communication. People who
suffer from communication apprehension experience undue tension and anxiety in oral
communication, written communication, or both.
7. What are the key dimensions that underlie the concept of trust?
The key dimensions that underlie the concept of trust are integrity, competence,
consistency, loyalty, and openness.
a) Integrity refers to honesty and truthfulness.
b) Competence encompasses an individual’s technical and interpersonal knowledge
and skills.
c) Consistency relates to an individual’s reliability, predictability, and good judgment in
handling situations.
d) Loyalty is the willingness to protect and save face for another person.
e) The final dimension of trust is openness, or the degree to which a person can be
counted on to provide the full truth.

8. What are defensive behaviors?

Defensive behaviors occur when people perceive politics as a threat rather than an
opportunity. They respond with reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action, blame,
or change. Defensive behaviors are often associated with negative feelings toward the
job and work environment. In the short run, employees may find that defensiveness
protects their self-interest. But in the long run, it is the only way they know how to
behave. At that point, they lose the trust and support of their peers, bosses, employees,
and clients.

9. Identify the five primary conflict-handling intentions, giving the title of each and thecooperative
and assertiveness dimensions of each.
a) Competing (assertive and uncooperative),
b) Collaborating (assertive and cooperative),
c) Avoiding (unassertive and uncooperative),
d) Accommodating (unassertive and cooperative), and
e) Compromising (midrange on both assertiveness and cooperativeness.

10. What is workforce spirituality?

Workplace spirituality is not about organized religious practices. It’s not about God or
theology. Workplace spirituality recognizes that people have an inner life that nourishes
and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of community.
Organizations that promote a spiritual culture recognize that people have both a mind
and a spirit, seek to find meaning and purpose in their work, and desire to connect with
other human beings and be part of a community.

11. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the selection interview.

Not only is the interview widely used, it also seems to carry a great deal of weight. That
is, the results tend to have a disproportionate amount of influence on the selection
decision. The candidate who performs poorly in the employment interview is likely to be
cut from the applicant pool, regardless of his or her experience, test scores, or letters of
recommendation. Conversely, all too often, the person most polished in job-seeking
techniques, particularly those used in the interview process, is the one hired, even
though he or she may not be the best candidate for the position.

12. Explain how Fred Luthans differentiates between successful and effective managers.
 Luthans defined successful managers in terms of the speed of their promotions.
Effective managers were defined in terms of the quantity and quality of
their performance and the satisfaction and commitment of their employees. Different
skills were associated with each group. Successful managers used more networking
skills, whereas effective managers used more communication skills.

13. How can managers shape employee behavior?

Managers can shape employee behavior by systematically reinforcing each successive
step that moves the individual closer to the desired response. Managers can mold
individuals by guiding their learning in graduated steps. Reinforcement increases as
responses more closely approximate the desired behavior. Managers may use positive
reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, and extinction to promote this
gradual shaping of employee behavior.

14. List and explain the four ways employees can express job dissatisfaction.
Employees can express dissatisfaction by using exit, voice, loyalty, and neglect. These
arise from whether a response is active or passive, and constructive or destructive.
1) Behavior directed toward leaving the organization is defined as exit behavior. It is
active and destructive.
2) Voice involves actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including
suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and some forms of
union activity.
3) Loyalty involves passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve, so it is
passive and constructive.
4) Neglect is passively allowing conditions to worsen, including chronic absenteeism or
lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate, so it is a passive and destructive
response.

15. Discuss the “Big Five” model of personality.

The five-factor model of personality is typically called the “Big Five.” An Impressive body
of research supports its thesis that five basic dimensions underlie all others and
encompass most of the significant variation in human personality. Research on the Big
Five has found relationships between these personality dimensions and job
performance.

16. Identify and briefly describe the five key traits in the Big Five personality model.
The five key traits in the Big Five personality model are extroversion, agreeableness,
conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience.
a) Extroversion captures one’s comfort level with relationships.
b) Agreeableness refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others.
c) Conscientiousness is a measure of reliability.
d) Emotional stability taps a person’s ability to withstand stress.
e) Openness to experience addresses one’s range of interests and fascination with
novelty.

17. Discuss the importance of values.

Values are important to the study of organizational behavior because they lay the
foundation for the understanding of attitudes and motivation and because they influence
 our perceptions. Individuals enter an organization with preconceived notions of what
“ought” and what “ought not” to be. These notions are not value-free. They contain
interpretations of right and wrong. Values cloud objectivity and rationality. Values
generally influence attitudes and behavior.

18. Discuss three different criteria for ethical decision making.

There are three different criteria in making ethical choices.
a) The first is the utilitarian criterion, in which decisions are made solely on the basis of
their outcomes or consequences. The goal of utilitarianism is to provide the greatest
good for the greatest number. This is the view that tends to dominate business
decision making.
b) Another criterion is to focus on rights. This calls on individuals to make decisions
consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in documents like the
Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making means respecting and
protecting the basic rights of individuals.
c) A third criterion is to focus on justice. This requires individuals to impose and enforce
rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs.

19. What is a quality circle?

A quality circle is a work group of eight to ten employees and supervisors who have a
shared area of responsibility. They meet regularly to discuss their quality problems,
investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective actions.

20. Identify and describe the different types of communication flows.

Communication can flow vertically or laterally. The vertical dimension can be further
divided into downward and upward directions.

Case Study

LONG HOURS, HUNDREDS OF EMAILS, AND NO SLEEP

DOES THIS SOUND LIKE A SATISFYING JOB?

Although the 40-hour workweek is now the exception rather than the norm, some individuals are
taking things to the extreme:
 John Bishop, 31, is an investment banker who works for Citigroup's global energy team in New York.
A recent workday for Bishop consisted of heading to the office for a conference call at 6:00 P.M. He
left the office at 1:30 A.M. and had to be on a plane that same morning for a 9:00 A.M. presentation
in Houston. Following the presentation, Bishop returned to New York the same day, and by 7:00
P.M., he was back in his office to work an additional 3 hours' Says Bishop, "I might be a little skewed
to the workaholic, but realistically, expecting 90 to 100 hours a week is not a tall unusual."
 David Clark, 35, is the vice president of global marketing for MTV. His job often consists of travelling
around the globe to promote the channel as well as to keep up with the global music scene. If he is
not travelling (Clark typically logs 200,000 miles a year), a typical day consists of waking at 6:30 A.M.
and immediately responding to numerous messages that have accumulated over the course of the
night. He then goes to his office, where throughout the day he responds to another 500, or so
messages from clients around the world. If he's lucky, he gets to spend an hour a day with his son,
 but then it's back to work until he finally goes to bed around midnight. Says Clark, "There are plenty
of people who would love to have this job. They're knocking on the door all the time. So that's
motivating."

Questions
Given that the two individuals we just read about tend to be satisfied with their jobs, how might this
satisfaction relate to their job performance, citizenship behaviour and turnover?