Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test-12

GT
12
Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test-12

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DATE: 03-05-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 12 3
CHEMISTRY 4. Match List-I and List-II

Section-A List-I List-II
[Volume at S.T.P]
1. Which of the following is false regarding
(a) 14g of N2 i) 4.48 lit
Bohr’s model
(1) It introduces the idea of stationary (b) ii) 22.4 lit
1.2044 × 1023
states
molecules N2
(2) It explains the line spectrum of
hydrogen (c) 18 gm of H2O iii) 18 mL
(3) It explains zeeman effect (d) iv) 11.2 lit
9.033 × 1023
(4) It predicts that the angular momentum
atoms
nh of Helium
of electron in H-atom =
2π
v) 33.6 lit
2. Which of the following set of quantum (Given molar volume of a gas at STP =
numbers is not possible for an electron in 22.4lit)
Lithium (Li) atom Correct matching is
(1) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2
(1) a-iv,b-i, c- iii, d-v
(2) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = + 1/2
(2) a-iv,b-ii, c- v, d-iii
(3) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(3) a-ii ,b-i, c- iii, d-v
(4) n =1, l = 0, m = 0, s = -1/2
(4) a-v,b-i, c- ii, d-iv
3. If a hydrocarbon contains 90% carbon and
10% hydrogen by weight, the empirical 5. A reaction, A + BC + D + heat is found to
formula of hydrocarbon is have a positive entropy change. The reaction
will be
(1) C 3H 4
(1) spontaneous only at high temperature
(2) C 3H6
(2) spontaneous only at low temperature
(3) C 3H8 (3) not spontaneous at any temperature
(4) C 2H6 (4) spontaneous at any temperature
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

4 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 12 DATE: 03-05-2024
6. ∆H (vap) for water is 40.7 kJ mol-1. The 9. The pair having similar geometry is
entropy of vapourisation of water is
(a) PCl3 , NH 3 (b) BeCl2 , SnCl2
(1) 109K J mol–1K–1
(2) 109 J mol–1 K–1 (c) SiCl4 , CCl4 (d) XeF4 , SF4
(3) 40.7 J mol–1K–1 (1) a and c
(4) 40.7 kJ mol–1K–1 (2) a,b and c
7. Predict which of the following reaction will (3) b and d
have appreciable concentration of reactants (4) a and d
and products: 10. Which one of the following statement is
not true
(1) Cl 2 (g) 
 2Cl (g) K C = 5 × 10
-39
(1) The conjugate base of H 2 PO4− is HPO42−


(2) Cl 2 (g) + 2NO (g)   (2) P H + POH =14 for all aqueous solutions
2NOCl (g) K C = 3.7 × 108 at 25 C
o

(3) Cl 2 (g) + 2NO2 (g)  (3) The P H of 1 × 10−8 M HCl is 8
2NO2Cl (g), K C = 1.8 (4) Aq ammonium chloride is acidic due
to cationic hydrolysis

(4) H2 (g) + Cl 2 (g)  
11. Identify the correct set of curves from
2HCl (g), K C = 4 × 1031 the following representing the reaction
8. Assertion (A) : BF3 is non polar while PF3 A →B ?
is polar (1)
Reason (R) : BF3 is trigonal planar
whereas PF3 is pyramidal
in shape
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(2) If both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true but R is false
(4) If both A and R are false

(2) The correct curves are

(1) 1, 2 only (2) 2, 3 only
(3) 1, 4 only (4) 3, 4 only
12. N 2 + 3H 2 
→ 2NH 3 , rate of disappearance
of hydrogen is 9 × 10−3 mole litre-1 s-1. Rate
of appearance of ammonia will be
(1) 6 × 10−3 mole litre-1 min-1
(2) 9 × 10−3 mole litre-1 s-1
(3) (3) 6 × 10−3 mole litre-1 s-1
(4) 9 × 10−3 mole litre-1 min-1
13. A solution is obtained by dissolving 0.2
moles of urea in a litre of water. Another
solution is obtained by dissolving 0.4
moles of glucose in a litre of water at the
same temperature. The lowering of vapour
pressure in the first solution is.
(1) Same as that of the second solution
(4) (2) Half to that of the second solution
(3) Double to that of the second solution
(4) can’t be compared
14. Highest specific conductivity at 298K is
shown by
(1) Ag
(2) CuO
(3) 0.1M HCl
(4) 0.1M NaCl

15. The standard e.m.f. for the cell reaction, 18. Among the given elements Na, Mg, Al, Si,
2Cu+(aq)⇋Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq) is +0.59V Cl, which element has lowest atomic radius?
at 298 K. The equilibrium constant of the (1) Mg
reaction is
(2) Al
(1) 1 × 1010
(3) Si
(2) 1 × 1012
(4) Cl
(3) 2 × 1012
(4) 2 × 106 19. Negative electron gain enthalpy is highest
for
16. Statement-I : α − D(+) Glucose and β
- D(+) Glucose are pair of (1) Rb
diastereomers (2) Li
Statement-II : Rate of enzyme catalysed (3) Na
hydrolysis of sucrose is
faster than rate of acid (4) K
catalysed hydrolysis of 20. Which of the following ion/molecule can
sucrose
exist ?
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
true. (1) BF6 
3−
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is

2−
not true (2) CF6 
(3) Statement-I is not true but Statement-
(3) NCl 5
II is true
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (4) AlF63-
not true
21. T h e c omp ou n d
17. Nessler’s reagent is used to detect the exhibits
presence of
(1) CrO42−
(1) Geometrical isomerism
(2) NH 4+
(2) Optical isomerism
(3) SO42− (3) Geometrical and Optical isomerism
(4) NO3− (4) Metamerism

22.
24. The compound that reacts with CH3MgBr
to yield methane as one of the product is
(1) CH3CHO (2) H3CCOCH3
(3) CH3COOCH3 (4) CH3CH2OH
25. An alkene on treating with hot acidified
KMnO4 gives propanoic acid and acetic
‘A’ is obtained by the decarboxylation of acid. The alkene is
sodium benzoate (1) CH3CH = CH2
Then the order reactivity of A, B, C, D
(2) H3C − CH2 − CH = CH − CH3
towards electrophilic aromatic substitution
is (3) CH3CH = CHCH3
(1) A < B < C < D
(4) ( CH3 )2 C = CH2
(2) B < A < D < C
26. The number of structural isomers possible
(3) C < A < B < D
(4) D < B < A < C for C 7 H16 :
(1) 5 (2) 7
H2O, H+
23. CH3 − =
CH CH2 → X (major) (3) 9 (4) 3
1)B2 H6 27. The incorrect match regarding 16th group
CH3 − CH
= CH2  → Y (major)
2) H2O2 , OH − hydrides is
Select the correct statements
(1) Acidic nature –
A) X and Y are position isomers
B) X gives an aldehyde on oxidation with H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2 Te
(2) Boiling point –
anhydrous CrO3
C) Both X and Y give haloform reaction H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
(3) Thermal stability –
D) CH3OC 2H5 is the functional isomer
of both X and Y H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2 Te
(1) All are correct (2) A, B, C only (4) Volatility –
(3) A, D only (4) C only H2S > H2Se > H2 Te > H2O

28. Which of the given reactions are feasible?

A) F2 + 2C − → C 2 + 2F −
(3)
− −
B) Br2 + 2F → F2 + 2Br
C) C 2 + 2I− → I2 + 2C − (4)
D) I2 + 2Br − → Br2 + 2I− 31. Which of the following is strongest base?
The correct answer is
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) A and C (4) A, B and D
29. Which one of the following has s 0d10 (1) (2)
configuration
(1) Mo (2) Pd
(3) Cd (4) Ag
30. Correct reaction among the following is:
(3) (4)
32. Statement-I : Wilkinsons catalyst i.e.,
( Ph 3P )3 RhCl  i s u s e d
(1)  
for the hydrogenation of
alkenes
Statement-II : E D T A i s u s e d i n t h e
treatment of lead poisoning
true.
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is
(2) not true
(3) St ate m e nt - I i s n ot t r u e but
Statement-II is true
not true

SECTION – B
B2 H 6 PCC 2CH OH
33. CH3COOH  → A   → B  3
→ C.
dry HCl 36. Which of t he following is not a
Here ‘C’ is disproportionation reaction?
(1) Hemiacetal 2- +
→ 2MnO4 -
(1) 3MnO4 + 4H 
(2) Hydrazone
+ MnO2 + 2H2O
(3) Acetal
(2) 3C 2 + 6NaOH → 5NaC
(4) Oxime
+ NaClO3 + 3H 2O
34. In which of the following the acidic nature
∆
of the first compound is greater than that (3) P4 +3NaOH+3H2O  →
of the 2nd compound PH3 +3NaH2PO2
(1) HCOOH,C 6H5COOH (4) 2 F2 (g) + 2KOH(aq)  →

2 KF(aq) + OF2 (g) + H2O()
(2) CH3COOH, ClCH2COOH
37. The solubility product constant of AgBr
(3) HCOOH,CF3COOH
at 60oC is 2.5 × 10-11 . The molarity of its
(4) COOH , COOH saturated solution is
(1) 2.5 × 10-11 M
NO 2
35. Assertion (A) : In the industrial process, (2) 5 × 10-11 M
nitro benzene is reduced
(3) 5 × 10-6 M
to aniline using iron scrap
and HCl (4) 2.5 × 10-6 M
Reason (R) : FeCl 2 formed due to the
reaction of scrap iron and 38. Bond order is maximum in
HCl gets hydrolysed to
release hydrochloric acid (1) N2+
during the reaction.
(1) A and R are true, R explains A (2) O2+
(2) A and R are true, R does not explain A (3) O2−2
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A and R are false (4) O2+2

39. The volume of water that must be added to 42. Oxidation number of nitrogen is least in
a mixture of 250ml of 6M HCl and 650ml (1) N2O5
of 3M HCl to obtain 3M solution is (2) NH3
(1) 75ml (2) 150ml (3) N3H
(3) 300ml (4) 250ml (4) N2O
40. N 2O4 ( g )  2NO2 ( g ) , the observed vapour 43. Which of the following exhibits maximum
density at equilibrium is 30, then degree of conductivity (all are equimolar) ?
decomposition of N 2O4 is (vapour density (1) K 4 Fe ( CN )6 
N 2O4 = 46 )
(1) 27.9% (2) 83.3% (2) Co ( NH3 )6  Cl 3
(3) 53.3% (4) 45.5%
(3) Cu ( NH3 )4  Cl 2
41. The base present in Cytidine
(4)  Ni ( CO )4 
44. How many distinct non-terminal alkynes
(1) exist with a molecular formula of C 6H10
O (1) 1 (2) 2
NH (3) 3 (4) 5
N O
(2) H
45. .
A and B (major) are
(1)
(3)
O H
N
HN
(2)
N
H 2N N
(4)

48. Formaldehyde and formic acid can be

distinguished using
(3) (1) Tollens reagent
OH (2) Fehlings reagent

, (3) Lucas reagent
(4)
46. Pick out correct statement from the (4) Sodium bicarbonate
following?
49. Williamson’s synthesis is used for the
A. In dichromate ion all Cr-O bonds are preparation of
equivalent
B. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium (1) C 6H5OC 6H5
KMnO4 oxidizes iodide ion to iodate
(2) H2C = CH − O − CH = CH2
C. Samarium is steel hard
D. E0 value for Ce+4 /Ce3+ is +1.74V, which (3) H5C 6 − O − CH2 − C 6H5
suggests that Ce+4 can oxidize water
(1) Only A and B (2) Only A, B, C
(4) ( CH3 )3 C − O − C ( CH3 )3
(3) Only B, C, D (4) A, B, C and D 50. Benzene diazonium chloride + phenol
X
47. According to crystal field theory the  → orange dye. Incorrect statement is
−3
configuration of d-electrons in Fe(CN)6  (1) Orange dye is
is
(2) ‘X’ is H+ (acidic medium)
(1) t 32g e3g
4 1
(2) t 2g eg (3) Electrophile is
(3) t 52g e0g

(4) Colour of the product is due to extended
(4) t e 2 3
2g g
conjugation

BOTANY 53. Pick the pair of statements which are

correctly placed.
Section-A
A) Various chemical reactions occur in
51. Read the following statements and pick the cytoplasm of cell thus keeping the cell
correct pair in “living state”.
A) Two species belonging to same genus B) In addition to many genomic DNA’s
have more morphological similarities bacteria have one large circular DNA
than two species of different genera. called plasmid
B) Families are characterized based on C) Energy dependent uphill transport of
vegetative and reproductive features ions across membrane is called passive
of plant species. transport.
C) The term Systematics is derived from D) Mitochondria divide by fission.
Greek and is based on morphological (1) A and B
similarities but not evolutionary
(2) C and D
relation ships.
(3) A and D
D) Plant families Convolvulaceae and
S olanaceae are included under (4) B and C
Sapindales based on vegetative 54. “Synchrony in pollen release and stigma
characters. receptivity, anthers and stigma lie close to
(1) A and B each other, pollination agent is not needed”.
(2) C and D All the above characters are related to a type
(3) A and C of pollination namely
(4) B and D (1) Autogamy
52. Which surface structure in a bacterial cell (2) Geitonogamy
help in DNA transfer from one bacterium (3) Xenogamy
to other that exemplifies a primitive mode (4) Syngamy
of sexual reproduction in them ?
55. Read the following statements and pick the
(1) Pili correct pair.
(2) Fimbriae A) Main plant body in bryophytes is gamete
(3) Mesosomes producing hence called gametophyte.
(4) Flagella B) The members of the kingdoms Algae

and Protista largely grow in aquatic Statement–II : Two male gametes are
habitats. released into two synergids
C) Natural classification systems believe and fuses with their nuclei
to produce zygote
that organisms belonging to same taxa
have a common ancestor In light of the above statements, choose
D) Most common asexual spores in alga the correct answer from the options given
are conidiospores below.
(1) A and B (1) Both statement I and statement II are
correct.
(2) C and D
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) A and D
incorrect.
(4) B and D
(3) Statement I is correct, but statement II
56. Pick the correct pair of statements is incorrect.
A) Chromatin contain DNA, some basic (4) Statement I is incorrect, but statement
binding proteins called histones, some II is correct.
non-histone proteins and RNA
58. Which of the following product is associated
B) Cilia and flagella emerge from centriole with brown algae ?
like structure called inclusion bodies
(1) Algin
C) The ribosomes of chloroplasts are
(2) Carrageen
smaller than that of cytoplasmic
ribosomes (3) Agar
D) Hydrolases present in lysosomes are (4) Protein food supplement
optimally active at basic pH. 59. Pick the incorrect pair
(1) A and B (1) Collagen : intercellular ground substance
(2) B and D (2) Chitin : Homopolymer in cell wall of
(3) A and C fungi
(4) C and D (3) Haemoglobin : Two subunits of α -
57. Given below are two statements type and two sub units of β − type
Statement–I : Majority of flowering plants (quaternary structure of protein)
use a range of animals as (4) Back bone of DNA : Nitrogen bases in
pollination agents. DNA

60. What is NOT true regarding allelic pairs ? Statement–II : A c c o r d i n g t o l a w o f

(1) They are present on homologous pair segregation, alleles do not
of chromosomes show any blending and
both the characters are
(2) They are present at the same locus on recovered as such in F2
homologous pair generation though one of
(3) They control same character these is not seen at F1 stage
(4) They always control same trait In light of the above statements, choose
61. Catalytic activity of an enzyme is lost on the correct answer from the options given
removal of below.
a) Haem from peroxidase (1) Both statement I and statement II are
b) NAD from PGAL degydrogenase correct.
c) Zinc from carboxy peptidase (2) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) a and b only incorrect.
(2) b and c only (3) Statement I is correct but statement II
(3) a and c only is incorrect.
(4) a,b and c (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
II is correct.
62. Which group of plants possess all types of
chlorophyll pigments, external fertilization, 64. In which phase of cell cycle DNA replication
with isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy in begins in the nucleus and centriole
different members of it? duplication in the cytoplasm?
(1) Algae (1) Prophase
(2) Bryophytes (2) Metaphase
(3) Gymnosperms (3) “S” phase
(4) Angiosperms (4) Anaphase
63. Given below are two statements 65. A shows heterophily, strobilus, heterospory,
Statement-I : A c c o r d i n g t o l a w o f microphylls with precursor characters to
dominance, in a dissimilar seed habit whereas B shows homospory,
pair of factors one member macrophylls and rhizome. What are A and
of the pair dominates the B respectively?
other.

(1) Selaginella and Salvinia cell plate (which represents middle lamella)
(2) Selaginella and Equisetum during
(3) Selaginella and ferns (1) Telophase in animal cell
(4) Equisetum and Selaginella (2) Cytokinesis of plant cell
66. Which one among the following is NOT (3) Cytokinesis of animal cell
present in the plasma membrane of RBC (4) Anaphase of plant cell
of animal cells ? 70. What is a fungal symbiont associated
(1) Lecithin with plants that helps in absorption of
(2) Cholesterol phosphorus from soil and passes it to the
(3) Glycoproteins plant?
(4) Chromatin (1) Trichoderma
(2) Glomus
67. All the essential life processes evolved
around RNA in living organisms except (3) Saccharomyces
(1) Metabolism (4) Monascus
(2) Translation 71. Which nitrogenous base is commonly absent
(3) DNA replication in both initiating codon and termination
codons?
(4) Splicing
(1) Adenine
68. Nitrogen fixation occur in roots of a
(2) Guanine
gymnosperm namely A and angiosperm
namely B. (3) Cytosine
A B (4) Uracil
(1) Cycas Pisum 72. Oxygen evolved by a green plants during
(2) Cycas Pinus photosynthesis comes from water, not from
CO 2 was reported by
(3) Pinus Cycas
(1) C. van Neil
(4) Pisum Pinus
(2) Engelmann
69. Formation of new cell wall begins with the
(3) Ingenhousz
development of a simple precursor namely
(4) Priestly

73. Given below are two statements. (3) Acetaldehyde

Statement–I : Each restriction endonu- (4) Ethyl alcohol
clease inspect, recognize a 75. Read the following statements
specific palindromic nucle-
A) Beta gal gene: Active
otide sequence in a DNA
and later cleave the DNA B) Foreign gene insert: Absent
within the palindrome. C) Cell type: Transformed, non-recombi-
nants
Statement–II: A palindrome in a DNA is a
sequence of base pairs that What is the colour of such colonies in blue-
reads same on both strands white screening method ?
when orientation of reading (1) Blue
is kept the different (2) Orange
In light of the above statements, choose (3) White
the correct answer from the options given (4) Violet
below.
76. Corn borers are controlled by a protein
(1) Both statement I and statement II are coded from a Bt gene namely
correct. (1) Cry I Ab
(2) Both statement I and statement II are (2) Cry I Ac
incorrect. (3) Cry II Ab
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II (4) Ti plasmid
is incorrect.
77. Neither there is synthesis of ATP nor
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement sugars but results in release of CO 2 with
II is correct. the utilization of oxygen and ATP in C3
74. What is a substrate which gets transported plants. What is it ?
from cytoplasm to mitochondrial matrix (1) Calvin cycle
for continuation of aerobic respiration ? (2) Photorespiration
(1) Acetyl CoA (3) Aerobic (dark) respiration
(2) Pyruvic acid (4) Non cyclic electrons transpiration

78. A hormone A is a derivative of a purine 83. Given below are two statements
and hormone B is a derivative of a pigment Statement –I : Algae are classified into three
(carotenoid). What is A and B respectively ? classes based on pigments
and reserve food
(1) ABA and Cytokinin
Statement–II : Water holding hydrocol-
(2) Auxin and Cytokinin loids, are seen in brown and
(3) Cytokinin and ABA red alga
(4) GA and ABA In light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
79. A biocontrol agent of fungal origin acting below.
against root borne fungal pathogens is (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) Monascus (2) Glomus correct.
(3) Trichoderma (4) Aspergillus (2) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
80. Post biosynthetic stage at which the (3) Statement I is correct but statement II
gene product is subjected to separation, is incorrect.
purification and formulation is collectively (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
called as II is correct.
(1) Upstream processing 84. Given below are two statements
(2) Down stream processing Statement–I : Leaves in conifers are needle
like to reduce surface area
(3) PCR thus reducing transpiration
(4) Gene cloning Statement-II : S e e d s i n c o n i f e r s a r e
81. Which hormone enhances the respiration produced earlier as GA
hastens maturity.
rate during ripening of fruits ?
In light of the above statements, choose
(1) Auxin (2) GA the correct answer from the options given
(3) ABA (4) Ethylene below.
82. Release factor binds to stop codon and help (1) Both statement I and statement II are
correct.
in termination of
(1) Splicing incorrect.
(2) Transcription (3) Statement I is correct but statement II
(3) Translation is incorrect.
(4) DNA replication (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
II is correct.

85. Tree habit, xerophyte habitat, cones, NADP synthase

anemophily, pollen reaching ovules, (2) Membrane, proton pump, proton
siphonogamy, naked ovules, archegonia gradient, and ATP synthase
inside ovules, naked seeds, are unique (3) Membrane, proton pump, proton
characters observed in gradient, and NADP synthase
(1) Alga (4) Proton pump, electron gradient, and
(2) Bryophytes ATP synthase
(3) Pteridophytes 88. Given below are two statements.
(4) Gymnosperms Statement-I : Endarch and exarch are
the terms often used for
SECTION –B describing the position of
86. Given below are two statements. protoxylem in the primary
xylem of the plant body.
Statement-I : Pneumatophores are seen in
plants growing in swampy Statement-II : Exarch condition is the most
/ water logged areas common feature of the root
xylem and endarch condi-
Statement-II : Phylloclades and phyllodes tion is a common feature
are seen in plants growing of stem system.
in arid regions.
below.
below.
correct.
correct.
incorrect.
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II
is incorrect.
is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
II is correct.
II is correct.
89. Pick the incorrect match
87. Which of the following combinations is
required for chemiosmosis? (1) Underground stem: perennating organs
(1) Proton pump, electron gradient, and (2) Thorns : protection from browsing
animals

(3) Phylloclade : reduce water loss (2) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) Pneumatophores : aid in respiration incorrect.
90. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA (3) Statement I is correct but statement II
stained with ethidium bromide will show is incorrect.
(1) Bright orange colour (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
II is correct.
(2) Bright red colour
(3) Bright blue colour 93. Read the following statements and pick the
correct one
(4) Bright yellow colour
(1) Sporophyte in mosses is most elaborate
91. Read the following statements and well developed in entire plant
Modified root : Tuft of balancing roots kingdom
Modified stem : Short internodes, offset (2) Protonemal stage is observed in all
Leaves : Rosette of leaves bryophytes without exception
Pollination : Entamophylly / Anemophily (3) The leaves in all pteridophytes are
The above characters are observed in always large (macrophyllus) without
exception
(1) Chrysathemum
(4) Spores in pteridophytes (ferns)
(2) Eichhornia
germinate into inconspicuous, small
(3) Jasminum free living, photosynthetic thalloid
(4) Strawbery gametophyte called prothallus
92. Given below are two statements. 94. Which petal in vexillary aestivation is not
StatementI: Merosity represents overlapped ?
the number of floral (1) Largest standard petal
appendages in each whorl (2) Lateral wing petals
of a flower.
(3) Smallest fused keel petals
Statement II : Bract is a reduced leaf
present at the base of (4) Anterior petals
pedicel. 95. Pick the incorrect match
In light of the above statements, choose (1) Siliqua : Brassicaceae
the correct answer from the options given (2) Cypsela : Asteraceae
below. (3) Caryopsis : Poaceae
(1) Both statement I and statement II are (4) Legume : Solanaceae
correct.

96. Pick the wrong match (2) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) Tissue : Cells always have common incorrect.
origin usually performing a common (3) Statement I is correct but statement II
function is incorrect.
(2) Axillary bud : Left behind shoot apical (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
meristems II is correct.
(3) Intercalary meristem : Meristems in 99. Given below are two statements.
between two permanent tissue in the Statement-I : Living simple tissues with
stem of grasses primary wall and chloro-
(4) Lateral meristems : They are always plasts are parenchyma.
primary meristems producing primary Statement-II : Dead simple tissue with
permanent tissues by differentiation secondary wall and pits is
sclerenchyma.
97. Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic
bacteria by inhibiting the activity of the correct answer from the options given
(1) Dinitrogenase below.
(2) Succinic dehydrogenase (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) Amylase correct.
(4) Lipase (2) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
98. Given below are two statements.
Statement-I : Secondary meristems namely is incorrect.
cork cambium produce sec-
ondary permanent tissues
namely cork and secondary II is correct
cortex by redifferentiation. 100. The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to
Statement-II : Secondary meristems arise (1) More than two genes affecting a single
from permanent tissues by character
dedifferentiation. (2) Presence of several alleles of a single
In light of the above statements, choose gene controlling a single crossover
the correct answer from the options given (3) Presence of two alleles, each of the two
below. genes controlling a single trait
(1) Both statement I and statement II are (4) A single gene affecting multiple
correct. phenotypic expression

ZOOLOGY (3) Statement I is correct but statement II

is incorrect.
Section-A (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
101. Which of the following disorders is caused II is correct.
by the oversecretion of a hormone? 104. The insoluble masses of crystallised oxalates
(1) Diabetes insipidus are termed
(1) renal calculi
(2) Exophthalmic goitre
(2) osteoporosis
(3) Addison’s disease (3) angina pectoris
(4) Diabetes mellitus (4) emphysema
102.The myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped 105. Match the following.
with Blood group Donor’s group
(1) Schwann cells A) AB I) A, O
(2) Mast cells B) O II) O, B
(3) Flame cells C) B III) O
(4) JG cells D) A IV) A, B, AB, O
103. Given below are two statements. A B C D
(1) IV III I II
Statement-I : The axial skeleton of a
human comprises 80 bones (2) III IV I II
distributed along the main (3) IV III II I
axis of the body.
(4) III IV II I
Statement-II : The bones of the limbs, 106. Read the following and choose the correct
along with their girdles, statements.
constitute the appendicular
skeleton of humans. a) The larynx is a cartilaginous box.
b) The trachea divides at the level of the
In light of the above statements, choose 5th thoracic vertebra.
the correct answer from the options given c) The outer pleural membrane is in close
below. contact with the thoracic lining.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are d) The part starting with the terminal
correct. bronchioles up to the alveoli constitutes
the conducting part.
incorrect. e) The thoracic chamber is formed
ventrally by the sternum.

(1) All except b In light of the above statements, choose

(2) All except c the correct answer from the options given
(3) All except d below.
(4) All except e (1) Both statement I and statement II are
correct.
107. Match Column I with column II.
Column I Column II incorrect.
A) Nicotine I) Produces a sense of (3) Statement I is correct but statement II
euphoria is incorrect.
B) Cocaine II) Stimulates the ad- (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
renal gland II is correct.
C) Heroin III) Known for its ef- 109. Select the incorrect match regarding the
fects on the cardio- cockroach.
vascular system (1) Respiration – Spiracles
D) Charas IV) Slows down body (2) Circulation – Alary muscles
functions (3) Excretion – Nephrocytes
A B C D (4) Digestion – Phallomeres
(1) II I IV III 110. Read the following.
(2) I II III IV a) The circulatory system is of closed type
(3) IV III II I b) Sucking and circular mouth with jaws
(4) III IV I II c) Devoid of unpaired fins and scales
108. Given below are two statements. d) The cranium and vertebral column are
Statement I: Frogs are beneficial to cartilaginous
mankind because they eat e) Elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs of
insects and protect the gill slits.
crop. Choose the features of cyclostomes.
Statement II: Frogs maintain ecological (1) a, b and e only
balance because they serve
as an important link of food (2) c and d only
chain and food web in the (3) b, c and d only
ecosystem. (4) a, d and e only

111. Read the following statements regarding A B C D

human reproduction. (1) II I IV III
a) The secretions of bulbourethral glands (2) I II III IV
help in the lubrication of the penis. (3) III IV II I
b) The edges of the infundibulum possess (4) IV III I II
finger-like projections called fimbriae. 113. Which of the following disorders is due to
c) The acrosome is filled with enzymes the gain of an extra copy of a chromosome?
that help in fertilisation. (1) Thalassemia
d) The first menstruation begins at puberty (2) Turner’s syndrome
and is called menopause. (3) Haemophilia
e) The sex of the baby is determined during (4) Klinefelter’s syndrome
the implantation of the embryo. 114. Read the following statements regarding
Choose the correct statements from the the evolution of man.
above a) Australopithecines – hunted with stone
weapons but essentially ate fruit.
(1) a, b and c only
b) Homo habilis – the brain capacities were
(2) b, c and d only between 650 – 800 CC.
(3) c, d and e only c) Homo erectus – fossils discovered in
(4) d and e only Java in 1891.
112. Match Column I with column II. d) Ne and e r t ha l man – d e vel op e d
agricultural practices around 10,000
Column I Column II years ago.
A) Vasectomy I) Sterilisation e) Homo sapiens – Arose in Africa and
method moved across continents and developed
B) Coitus interruptus II) Natural into distinct races.
method Choose the correct statements.
C) Cervical cap III) Barrier (1) All except d
method (2) All except b
D) Lippes loop IV) Intrauterine (3) All except c
device (4) All except e

115. A single-stranded DNA or RNA tagged with (1) Both statement I and statement II are
a radioactive molecule is called correct.
(1) plasmid (2) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) probe incorrect.
(3) vector (3) Statement I is correct but statement II
(4) blot is incorrect.
116. The number of births during a given period (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
in the population that are added to the II is correct.
initial density is termed 118. Which of the following is the available
biomass for the consumption of herbivores?
(1) natality
(1) Net secondary productivity
(2) mortality
(2) Net primary productivity
(3) immigration (3) Net tertiary productivity
(4) emigration (4) Net quaternary productivity
117. Given below are two statements. 119. Match Column I with Column II.
Column I Column II
Statement I : Alexander von Humboldt
A) Epinephrine I) Promotes anti-
observed that within a
body produc-
region species richness
tion
increased with increasing
B) Thymosin II) Causes pupil-
explored area. lary dilation
Statement II : Tilman found that plots C) Progesterone III) Regulation of
with more species showed the basal meta-
less year-to-year variation bolic rate
in total biomass. D) Thyroxine IV) Stimulates the
formation
In light of the above statements, choose of alveoli in
the correct answer from the options given mammary
below. glands

A B C D 121. Which of the following retains its length

(1) II I III IV during the contraction of a skeletal muscle?
(2) I II IV III (1) ‘A’ band
(2) ‘H’ zone
(3) II I IV III
(3) ‘I’ band
(4) I II III IV
(4) Sarcomere
120. Given below are two statements. One is
122. Select the incorrect match.
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
(1) Green glands – Crustaceans
labelled Reason (R).
(2) Protonephridia – Cyclostomes
Assertion (A) : Impuls e transmission
across an electrical synapse (3) Kidneys – Amphibians
is always faster than that (4) Nephridia – Earthworms
across a chemical synapse. 123. Given below are two statements. One is
Reason (R) : At electrical synapses, the labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
membranes of pre- and labelled Reason (R).
post-synaptic neurons are Assertion (A) : T he heart of humans is
in very close proximity and called myogenic.
electrical current can flow Reason (R) : Normal activities of the
directly from one neuron heart are autoregulated by
to the other. a specialised cardiac nodal
musculature.
the correct answer from the options given In light of the above statements, choose
below. the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A). the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

124. The total volume of air a person can inspire Assertion (A) : L e y d i g c e l l s p r o v i d e
after a normal expiration is known as nourishment to the germ
cells.
(1) vital capacity
Reason (R) : Leydig cells form the lining
(2) inspiratory capacity of seminiferous tubules.
(3) functional residual capacity In light of the above statements, choose
(4) total lung capacity the correct answer from the options given
below.
125. Which of the following diseases are caused
by protozoans?
(1) Pneumonia, typhoid and dysentery (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(2) Ameobiasis, malaria and toxoplasmosis the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Chikungunya, dengue and hepatitis (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Ascariasis, filariasis and plague (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
126. The hindgut of cockroaches includes 129. Which of the following is a sexually
transmitted infection?
(1) ileum, colon and rectum
(1) Trichomoniasis
(2) crop, gizzard and mesenteron
(2) Tuberculosis
(3) pharynx, oesophagus and ileum
(3) Amoebiasis
(4) colon, rectum and crop (4) Filariasis
127. Which of the following phyla includes 130. Select the incorrect statement about the
bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, repetitive sequences in the human genome.
segmented and coelomate animals? (1) They are thought to have no direct
(1) Arthropoda coding functions.
(2) Mollusca (2) They shed light on chromosome
(3) Echinodermata structure, dynamics and evolution.
(3) They are stretches of DNA sequences
(4) Hemichordata
that are repeated many times, sometimes
128. Given below are two statements. One is hundred to thousand times.
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is (4) They make up a very small portion of
labelled Reason (R). the human genome.

131. Which of the following is not a result of (1) Expanding population

convergent evolution? (2) Vanishing population
(1) Flippers of penguins and of dolphins (3) Stable population
(2) Potato and sweet potato
(4) Declining population
(3) Forelimbs of whales and of bats
134. Which of the following is not a subspecies
(4) Eyes of the octopus and of mammals
of tiger?
132. Given below are two statements.
(1) Bali
Statement-I : PCR is now routinely used
to detect HIV in suspected (2) Dodo
AIDS patients. (3) Javan
Statement-II : Chain A and chain B of (4) Caspian
human insulin are linked
together by disulphide 135. HIV is spread through
bridges. (1) mosquito bite
In light of the above statements, choose (2) contaminated food and water
the correct answer from the options given (3) body fluids
below.
(4) inhalation of droplets
correct. SECTION – B
(2) Both statement I and statement II are 136. Select the pair of peptide hormones.
incorrect. (1) Insulin and adrenaline
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II (2) Thymosin and cortisol
is incorrect.
(3) Oxytocin and thyroxine
II is correct. (4) Somatostatin and prolactin
133. What type of human population is 137. Select the incorrect match.
represented by the following age pyramid? (1) Cerebellum – Balance and posture
(2) Hypothalamus – Thermoregulation
(3) Thalamus – Urge for eating and drinking
(4) Medulla oblongata – Cardiovascular
reflexes

138. Read the following statements about the 140. Given below are two statements.
function of the renal tubules. Statement-I : The total thickness of the
a) Nearly all the essential nutrients and diffusion (respiratory)
70-80% of electrolytes and water are membrane is much less
reabsorbed from DCT. than a millimetre.
b) Reabsorption is minimum in the Statement-II : The diffusion membrane is
ascending limb of the loop of Henle. made up of the squamous
c) Conditional reabsorption of Na + and epithelium of alveoli, the
water takes place in the descending endothelium of alveolar
limb of Henle’s loop. capillaries and the basement
substance.
d) PCT helps maintain the pH and ionic
balance of the body fluids. In light of the above statements, choose
e) The collecting duct allows passage the correct answer from the options given
of small amounts of urea into the below.
medullary interstitium to keep up the (1) Both statement I and statement II are
osmolarity. correct.
Choose the correct statements from the (2) Both statement I and statement II are
above incorrect.
(1) b and e only (3) Statement I is correct but statement II
(2) a, c and d only is incorrect.
(3) a and c only (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement
(4) b, d and e only II is correct.
139. Complete double circulation occurs in all 141. Which of the following is not used for the
of the following animals except detection of cancer?
(1) cobra (1) Biopsy
(2) cat (2) α interferon
(3) crow (3) MRI
(4) camel (4) CT

142. Match column I with column II. A B C D

Column I Column II (1) I II III IV
A) Compound I) Dry surface (2) II I IV III
epithelium of the skin (3) I III II IV
(4) II IV I II
B) Simple colum- II) Lining of fal-
144. Menstruation in humans is caused due to
nar epithelium lopian tubes a sharp decline in
C) Ciliated epi- III) Proximal (1) oxytocin
thelium convoluted (2) progesterone
tubule (3) prolactin
(4) cortisol
D) Simple cuboi- IV) Lining of
145. Which of the following is the technique of
dal epithelium stomach the introduction of semen into the uterus?
A B C D (1) ZIFT
(1) I IV III II (2) IUI
(2) IV I II III (3) ICSI
(3) I IV II III (4) IUT
(4) IV I III II 146. Given below are two statements.
143. Match Column I with column II. Statement-I : In the pedigree analysis, the
Column I Column II inheritance of a particular
trait is represented in
A) Absence of I) Carcharodon the family tree over
operculum generations.
B) Presence of epi- II) Branchiosto-
Statement-II : Mendelian disorders are
dermal scales ma mainly determined by
C) Absence of ver- III) Bangarus alteration or mutation in a
tebral column single gene.
D) Presence of IV) Columba In light of the above statements, choose
pneumatic the correct answer from the options given
bones below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are (3) d and e only

correct. (4) b and d only
149. Which of the following is the largest national
incorrect.
park in India?
(1) Hemis National Park – Ladakh
is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement (2) Raimona National Park – Assam
II is correct. (3) South Button Island National Park –
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
147. de Vries believed that evolution is caused
by mutations which are (4) Mandla plant fossils National Park –
(1) small and directional Madhya Pradesh
(2) large and directional 150. Given below are two statements. One is
(3) small and random labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
(4) large and random labelled Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : One must remember that
148. Read the following statements regarding
the trophic level represents
interspecific interactions. a functional level, not a
a) In general, herbivores and plants species as such.
appear to be more adversely affected Reason (R) : In an ecosystem, energy
by competition than carnivores. always flows from a higher
b) Many parasites have evolved to be host- trophic level to a lower
specific. trophic level.
c) Nearly 25 per cent of all insects are In light of the above statements, choose
known to be phytophagous. the correct answer from the options given
d) In amensalism, one species benefits below.
while the other is unaffected. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
e) Lichens are a classic example of the correct explanation of (A).
commensalism.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
Choose the correct statements the correct explanation of (A).
(1) c, d and e only (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) a, b and c only (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

PHYSICS (2) 2.5 m

(3) 3.75 m
Section-A
(4) 4.25 m
151. In an experiment to determine acceleration
due to gravity by simple pendulum, a 154. A man in a lift appears to weigh more when
student committed 1% positive error in (1) the lift begins to go up with an
the measurement of length and 3% negative acceleration
error in the measurement of time period. (2) the lift is going up steadily
The maximum possible percentage error (3) the lift is slowing down while ascending
in the measured value of ‘g’ will be
(4) the lift is falling freely
(1) 7 %
(2) 6 % 155. An object takes n times as much time to
(3) 5 % slide down a 450 rough inclined plane as it
(4) 4 % takes to slide down the same distance on a
∆V perfectly smooth 450 inclined plane when
152. A quantity x is equal to ε0 L where ε0 is both the bodies are freely released. The
∆t
permitivity of free space, L is length, ∆V is coefficient of kinetic friction between the
object and the rough inclined plane is
potential difference and ∆t is time interval.
The dimensions of x is same as that of
1 1
(1) Resistance (1) 1 − 2 (2) 1 −
n n
(2) Charge
(3) Voltage 1 1
(3) 1− 2 (4) 1-
(4) Current n n
ˆ ˆ
153. Water drops are falling at regular intervals 156. A= 3i + 4 j is perpendicular to which of the
of time from a tap on to the ground 5 m following the vector (s)
below. The first drop striking the floor at ˆ ˆ , iii)-5kˆ , iv)2kˆ
ˆ ˆ , ii)4i-3j
i)-4i+3j
the instant the fifth drop just begins to fall.
The height at which the third drop will be (1) Only i is correct
from the ground, at that instant will be (2) Only ii and iii are correct
(3) Only i,ii and iv are correct
( g = 10ms −2 )
(4) All the given are correct
(1) 1.25 m

157. The work done by a force (F) acting on 159. A circular plate of uniform thickness has a
a body along a straight line varies with radius of 28 cm. A circular portion of radius
distance (S) as shown in the graph. The 21 cm is removed from the plate as shown.
total work done in covering a distance of O is the centre of mass of complete plate.
15 m is The position of centre of mass of remaining
F (N) portion will shift towards left from ‘O’ by a
distance of
10
5
S (m)
5 10 15 O
(1) 137.5 J
(2) 150 J
(1) 5 cm
(3) 75 J
(2) 9 cm
(4) 122.5 J
(3) 4.5 cm
158. Consider the following statements A and (4) 5.5 cm
B . Identify the correct choice in the given
answers. 160. A body of mass ‘m’ is projected into vertical
plane with a speed ‘u’ at an angle ‘ θ ’ to
A : In perfectly elastic collision for bodies horizontal. The magnitude of torque of
undergoing collision, momentum of system the weight of particle about the point of
is conserved in any type of collision projection when the particle is at maximum
B : When two bodies of equal masses moving height will be
with equal speeds in opposite directions
suffer a perfectly inelastic collision with 1
(1) mu 2 sin2θ
each other, their final kinetic energy will 2
be zero (2) mu 2 sin2θ
(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false 1
(3) mu 2 cos 2θ
(3) A is true but B is false 2
(4) A is false but B is true (4) mu 2 cos 2θ

161. A particle is executing SHM. If the 164. Match the following

magnitudes of its maximum acceleration
List – I List –II
and maximum velocity are 4 m/sec2 a) Pascal’s Law e) Velocity of efflux
and 2m/sec then the time period of its b) Archime des f) Hydraulic lift
oscillations is Principle
(1) 2 s c) To r e c e l l i ’s g) Buoyancy
(2) (7/22) s theorem
d) Magnus effect h) Spinning ball
(3) (22/7) s
(4) (44/7) s (1) a-g; b-h; c-f;d-e
162. If mass and radius of a planet are doubled (2) a-f; b-g; c-e;d-h
escape velocity of a body projected from
surface of planet (3) a-e; b-g; c-f;d-h
(1) is doubled (4) a-g; b-e; c-h;d-f
(2) remains same 165. Steel rails are laid at a temperature of 50°F.
(3) is halved The gap that must be left between each
(4) is tripled standard 10 m rail section and the next if
the rails should just touch when temperature
163. A wire of length 1 m , radius 1mm is
subjected to a load such that the extension raises to 1220 F (α= 12 × 10-6 / ° C) is
observed is x. The wire is melted and drawn (1) 0.48 cm
as square cross section of side 2 mm. The (2) 0.24 cm
new extension under the same load is (3) 0.96 cm
2
πx (4) 0.12 cm
(1) 2
166. The amount of steam at 1000C that should
2π be passed into 600g of water at 100C to make
(2)
x
the final temperature as 400C will be
2
2π x (1) 40 g
(3)
3 (2) 30 g
2
πx (3) 20 g
(4)
16 (4) 45 g

167. When the temperature of a black body (1) 90 J (2) 60 J

increases, the wavelength corresponding (3) 45 J (4) 30 J
to maximum thermal radiation changes
from 0.36 µm to 0.12 µm . The ratio of 170. Four-1particles have velocities 1, 0, 2 and
emissive powers of the body at the respective 3 ms . The root mean square speed of the
temperatures is particles is
(1) 81:1 (1) 3.5ms-1
(2) 1:81
(3) 16:1 (2) 3.5 ms-1
(4) 1:16 (3) 1.5ms-1
168.Statement-A : When water boils under
constant pressure, the
14 -1
specific heat of water (4) ms
becomes infinity. 3
Statement–B : Change of state of water 171. The linear density of a vibrating string
into steam is an isothermal
process. is 1.5 × 10 −4 kg m −1 . The eqution of a
(1) Both A and B are true transverse wave along the string is given
(2) Both A and B are false = by y 0.02 ( 2 x + 60 t ) where x , y are in
(3) A is true but B is false m and t in s. The tension in the string is
(4) A is false but B is true (1) 0.135 N
169. The P – V graph for a thermodynamical (2) 0.123 N
process of an ideal gas is shown in the figure. (3) 0.150 N
The work done by the gas in the process A (4) 0.140 N
to B is
172. The potential difference between the plates
P ( Nm − 2 )
of a parallel plate capacitor is changing at the
20 A rate of 106 Vs-1. If the capacitance is 2 µFt,
the displacement current in the dielectric
10 C of capacitor will be
B
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
6 12 3
(3) 3 A (4) 4 A
V in m

176. A pendulum bob of mass 80 mg carrying

173. If µ o and ε o are magnetic permeability
a charge 10−8 C is at rest in a uniform
and electric permittivity of free space and
horizontal electric field of 60 kV/m intensity.
µ and ε are the corresponding values of a
medium, the refractive index of the medium The tension in the thread in newtons is
would be (g = 10m s2 )
µε (1) 1000
µoεo −3
(1) µoεo (2) (2) 10
µε
(3) 10
µoε µ εo (4) 10
−2
(3) (4)
µ εo µo ε 177. A charge of 1µC is divided into two point
174. A thin converging lens is made of glass of positive charges such that their charges are
refractive index 1.5. It acts like a diverging in the ratio of 2 : 3. These two charges are
lens of focal length 0.5 m, when immersed kept at a distance 1m apart in vacuum. The
15 electric force between them is ______mN.
in a liquid of refractive index . The focal
8 (1) 21.6
length of the converging lens in air is
(1) 0.20 m (2) 0.15 m (2) 0.216
(3) 0.40 m (4) 0.25 m (3) 0.0216
(4) 2.16
175. In the given circuit, which is a part of closed
circuit, find the currents i1 and i2 178. Three charges 2q, – q, – q are located at the
vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the
circumcentre of the triangle,
(1) the electric field intensity is zero but
potential is not zero.
(2) electric field intensity is non – zero but
potential is zero.
(1) 1 A, 0.4 A (3) both electric field intensity and potential
(2) 0.6 A, 0.4 A are zero.
(3) 0.4 A, 0.6 A (4) both electric field intensity and potential
(4) 1 A. 0.6 A
are non - zero.

179. The equivalent capacity across M and N in (1) a quarter of its first value
the following figure is (2) unaltered
(3) four times of its first value
(4) half of its first value
182. When a charged particle enters a uniform
magnetic field, its kinetic energy
(1) decreases
(2) increases
4 (3) remains constant
(1) C
5 (4) becomes zero
2 183. T h e m a g n e t i c s u s c e p t i b i l i t y o f a
(2) C
3 paramagnetic material at a temperature
10 of − 73°C is 0.0075, then its value at the
(3) C temperature − 173°C will be
3
3 (1) 0.0075
(4) C
2 (2) 0.0045
180. In an experiment with meter bridge by (3) 0.0030
interchanging the known and unknown
resistances, the error which is eliminated is (4) 0.015
(1) end correction error 184. In an ideal transformer, the number of turns
(2) random error in the primary coil is 140 and that in the
(3) parallax error secondary coil is 280. If the current in the
(4) All the above primary coil is 4 A, then the current in the
secondary coil is
181. A long straight wire carries a steady current.
It is bent first to form a circular plane coil of (1) 1 A
one turn. The same wire is now bent more (2) 2 A
sharply to give a double loop of smaller
(3) 3 A
radius. The magnetic field at the centre
caused by the same current is (4) 4 A

185. In a nuclear reactor, moderator is used I1ω1 + I 2ω2 (I1 + I 2 )(ω1 + ω2 )

(1) to absorb neutrons (1) 2(I1 + I 2 ) (2) 2
(2) to slow down fast-moving neutrons
(3) to cool the reactor (I1ω1 + I 2ω2 )2 I1ω1 - I 2 ω2
(4) all the above (3) (4)
2(I1 + I 2 ) 2(I1 + I 2 )
SECTION-B 189. A battery of emf 13 V and internal resistance
186. An inductor and a resistor are connected 2 Ω is connected in a circuit as shown. The
to an ac source of 200 V, 50 Hz. If current potential difference between the terminals
in the circuit is 2 A and average power of the battery is
consumed is 100 W, power factor in the 13V − 2 Ω
circuit is
1 1 1Ω
(1) (2)
8 4
10Ω
1
(3) (4) 3
2 2 (1) 12 V
187. The energy that will be radiated by a 100
kW transmitter in one hour is ____ (2) 11 V
(3) 8.5 V
(1) 36 × 104 J (4) 6.2 V
(2) 36 × 105 J 190. In the combination of following gates the
output Y can be written in terms of inputs
(3) 36 × 106 J
A and B as :
(4) 36 × 107 J
188. Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 and

angular speed ω1 and ω2 are rotating in the
same direction along collinear axes passing (1) A.B
through their c.m. and perpendicular to
their plane. If the two are made to rotate (2) A.B + A.B
combinedly along the same axis, the final (3) A.B + A.B
rotational KE of system when they rotate
together with same angular velocity is (4) A + B

191. A long capillary tube is immersed vertically vision. Then its magnifying power would
in water such that the height of liquid be
column is x. When this arrangement is taken (1) 20
into a mine where the gravity is 3 th of the (2) 30
4 (3) 50
gravity on the surface of earth, new capillary
height is (4) 60
194. Two wires are fixed on a sonometer. Their
4x tensions are in the ratio 8 : 1, the lengths are
(1)
3 in the ratio 26 : 25, the diameters are in the
ratio 4 : 1 and the densities are in the ratio
3x
(2) of 1 : 2. If the frequency of higher pitch is
4 260Hz, the number of beats produced per
3x second is
(3) (1) 15
2
2x (2) 10
(4) (3) 20
3
192. A syringe of diameter 1cm having a nozzle (3) 35
of diameter 1 mm is placed horizontally 195. In Youngs double slit experiment, the fringe
at a height of 5 m from ground. An width is found to be ‘ β ’. If distance between
incompressible non viscous liquid is filled in the two slits is halved and distance between
the syringe and the liquid is compressed by a the slits and the screen is tripled, new fringe
moving pistion with a speed of 0.5ms-1 . The width using same wavelength of light is
horizontal distance travelled by the liquid _______
jet in reaching the ground is (g =10ms-2 )
(1) 4β
(1) 12.5 m (2) 25 m
(3) 50 m (4) 75 m (2) 6β
193. The focal lengths of two lenses of a 4β

compound microscope are 1 cm and 5 cm (3)
3
respectively. When an object is placed at
1.1 cm from the objective, its final image 3β
(4)
is formed at the least distance of distinct 2

196. The magnetic flux linked with a coil of

resistance 2 Ω at any instant t is given (3) 1: 2 (4) 2 :1
by= ( )
φ 5t 2 − 10 t + 50 Wb . The induced 199. If wavelength of photon emitted due to
current in the coil at time t = 2 s is transition of an electron from third orbit
(1) 6 A (2) 5 A to first orbit in a hydrogen atom is λ , then
(3) 4 A (4) 2 A the wavelength of photon emitted due to
transition of electron from fourth orbit to
197. A conducting square loop of side L and second orbit will be
resistance R moves in its plane with a
uniform velocity v perpendicular to one of 128
its sides. A magnetic induction B constant (1) λ
27
in time and space, pointing perpendicular
and into the plane at the loop exists every 25
(2) λ
where with half the loop outside the field, 9
as shown in figure. The induced emf is 36
(3) λ
7
125
(4) λ
11
200. In the given circuit, diodes are ideal. The
equivalent resistance between points A and
B is (cell is an ideal cell)
(1) zero
10Ω 10Ω
(2) RvB A
(3) vBL/R
 B
(4) vBL 20Ω 20Ω
198. Two photons of energy 2.5 eV and 3.5 eV
strike a photo-metal of work function 1.5 40 V
eV. Considering the most energetic electrons
(1) 10 Ω (2) 20 Ω
ejected in the two cases, ratio between their
respective de – Broglie wavelengths is ____ (3) 40 Ω (4) Infinity
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1


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GT

Name of the Candidate (in CAPITALS): _______________________________________________________________________

Roll Number: In figures _________________________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals): _______________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature: _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature: _______________________________

Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent

CHEMISTRY 4. Match List-I and List-II

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(1) The conjugate base of H 2 PO4− is HPO42−

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2) The correct curves are

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

28. Which of the given reactions are feasible?

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(1) HCOOH,C 6H5COOH (4) 2 F2 (g) + 2KOH(aq)  →

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

48. Formaldehyde and formic acid can be

(3) (1) Tollens reagent

OH (2) Fehlings reagent

(3) t 52g e0g

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

BOTANY 53. Pick the pair of statements which are

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

60. What is NOT true regarding allelic pairs ? Statement–II : A c c o r d i n g t o l a w o f

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

73. Given below are two statements. (3) Acetaldehyde

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

85. Tree habit, xerophyte habitat, cones, NADP synthase

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

ZOOLOGY (3) Statement I is correct but statement II

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(1) All except b In light of the above statements, choose

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

111. Read the following statements regarding A B C D

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

A B C D 121. Which of the following retains its length

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

131. Which of the following is not a result of (1) Expanding population

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

142. Match column I with column II. A B C D

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(1) Both statement I and statement II are (3) d and e only

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHYSICS (2) 2.5 m

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Candidate’s Signature: _ Invigilator’s Signature: _