Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7

IBPS REGIONAL RURAL BANKS (RRBs)

Officer Scale-I XII-Mains -MODEL TEST - 7

REASONING

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Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
There are Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are working in a bank
with a hierarchy order Clerk, Probationary officer (PO), Manager (M), Assistant
General Manager (AGM), Deputy General Manager (DGM), General Manager (GM),
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Executive Director (ED) and Managing Director (MD) but not necessarily in the
same order. Clerk is the junior most position and MD is the senior most position
and they all like different flowers viz. Rose, Lilly, Lotus, Tulip, Daffodil, Marigold,
Orchid and Daisy, but not necessarily in the same order.

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C is senior than Manager. At least two persons are senior to C. Three person
designations are in between C and one who likes Lilly. H likes either Tulip or
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Marigold. The number of person junior to one who likes Lilly is the same as the
number of person senior to D. A is not the clerk. Two person designations are in
between D and one who likes Orchid. H is just junior to the one who likes Lotus
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and both are not senior to the one who likes Orchid. G is the either DGM or AGM.
Two person designations are in between G and one who likes Tulip. E is just
junior to one who likes Daisy. One person designation is in between one who
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likes Daisy and one who likes Rose. E likes neither Tulip nor Marigold. F is just
senior to B.
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1. How many persons are senior to A?

1) Seven 2) Six 3) Five 4) Four 5) Three
2. What is the designation of B?
1) ED 2) GM 3) MD 4) Clerk 5) DGM
3. Clerk likes which flower?
1) Lilly 2) Lotus 3) Marigold 4) Tulip 5) Orchid
4. Who likes Rose?
C
1) GM 2) C 3) H 4) DGM 5) AGM
5. Which among the following is the odd one?
1) ED-Daffodil 2) PO-Marigold 3) AGM-Lotus 4) Manager-H 5) MD-Tulip
Direction (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven persons – K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are lives on seven different floors of
a building such that the ground floor is numbered as 1, the one above that is
numbered as 2 and so on till the top most floor is numbered as 7. Each person has
a different number of family member’s viz. 12, 15, 17, 18, 21, 25, and 28 but not
necessarily in the same order.
Q lives on one of the odd numbered floors but above the third floor. P lives on
one of the floors below K and three persons live between P and L, who lives on an
even numbered floor. M has an odd number of family members. Three persons
live between N and O, who has the least number of family members. One person
lives between the one who has 25 members and K. Two persons live between Q
and the one who has 21 members. The number of family members difference
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
between L and K is 10 members. Q doesn’t have the highest number of family
members. The number of persons who live below the one who has 21 members is
the same as the number of persons who live above the one who has a square
number of members. The number of persons living above Q is the same as the
number of persons living below N.
6. M has which of the following number of family members?
1) 25 2) 15 3) 21 4) 17 5) 18
7. N lives on which of the following floor number?
1) 1st 2) 3rd 3) 7th 4) 5th 5) 2nd
8. How many persons live above the one who has 18 members?

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1) Two 2) Four 3) One 4) Three 5) More than four
9. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) N – 17 members 2) Q – 12 members
3) K – 25 members 4) L – 28 members 5) P – 15 members
10. Who amongst the following person lives on the topmost floor?
1) L 2) Q
ha 3) O 4) P 5) K
Direction (11-13): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
NUT HON KET NIL COT
11.

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If all the first letters of the three letter word are changed to the immediate
followed letter then how many words become meaningful words?
d
1) Three 2) Four 3) One 4) Five 5) Two
12. If the first letter and third letters of each word are interchanged and write the
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words in alphabetical order then write the all words as they appear in a dictionary
then which is the third word from right?
1) COT 2) HON 3) KET 4) NUT 5) NIL
13. All the words arranged according to alphabetical order within the word then how
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many words remain unchanged?
1) One 2) Two 3) No one 4) Three 5) Four
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14. How many such numerals are there in the number “8654632795” which will
remain in the same position when they are arranged in ascending order from left
to right?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Five
15. Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
“The government of country Z is likely to raise the minimum support price (MSP)
for wheat by $ 50 per quintal, to encourage more farmers to cultivate wheat crop
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in the ongoing winter-sown season” said officials.
Which of the following statements proves that the decision taken by the government
might not work?
1) For the newer generation of farmers in country Z. profit is more important
than growing the same crop, which was sown by their ancestors
2) Wheat growers mainly face the problem of wheat lodging i.e. high winds or
heavy rains knock ripening wheat down making it extremely difficult to harvest,
which leads to severe losses
3) As the farmers growing staple crops like wheat and maize in country Z is
declining, the country is under the threat of facing food inflation
4) Today, farmers are more willing to grow cash crops as they sell for a higher
price in the market making it easier for them to save some money after repaying
the loan taken from the bank
5) Rising the MSP of wheat crop may benefit the farmers and they might be
motivated to buy more land for the cultivation of wheat

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
16. This consists of a statement and two conclusions numbered I and II given below it
A conclusion is something which can be directly deduced from the given information
in light of all the given facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow/s from the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Statement: Maren beans can grow with very little nutrients in the soil These beans
can grow even in the wild. The only nutrient it mandatorily requires is Nitrogen in
Village B, maren beans do not grow at all unless ‘BTN’ is added to the soil
I. ‘BTN’ contains Nitrogen
II. Naturally found soil in Village B is Nitrogen deficient
1) Both l and II can be concluded from the given information

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2) Only I can be concluded from the given information
3) Either I or II can be concluded from the given information
4) Neither I nor II can be concluded from the given information
5) Only II can be concluded from the given information
Direction (17-20): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in

17.
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the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are buys different articles viz. basket, Bangle,
Chair, Pen, Mat and Cover, but not necessarily in the same order. All buy on the

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same day. No two persons buy at the same time. Who buys Mat?
Statement I: Only two persons buy before F. C buys immediately before one who
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buys Mat and he buys after F. Three persons buy between D and one who buys
Mat.
Statement II: B buys immediate after to the one who buys Pen. The one who buys
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the cove is buying immediate before to the one who buys Basket. A buys immediately
before E.
1) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
C
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.
Sr

3) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.
4) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) The data in both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer
the question.
18. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around the circular table facing
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the center, but not necessarily in the same order. Who is facing Q?
Statement I: S is second to the left of Q. Two persons are sitting between Q and
T. V is immediate right of T. S and W are not immediate neighbors.
Statement II: Three persons are sitting between U and T. W is second to the
right of U. V is immediate to neither W nor Q.
1) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.
2) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
3) The data in both statements I and statement II together are necessary to
answer the question.
4) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
19. Eight boxes J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q, are arranged one above another in a stack,
but not necessarily in the same order. Which is at the bottom most?
Statement I: Three boxes are above box P. Box M is immediate above box O and
both are below box P. Box J is two boxes above box O, Which is immediate to box L.
Statement II: Three boxes between box N and box O, which is just above box L.
Box J is immediate above box M. Box N is two boxes above box J. One box is
between box P and box Q.
1) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.

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3) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
4) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) The data in both statements I and statement II together are necessary to
answer the question.
20.
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Six persons R, S, T, U, V and W, are sitting in a straight line facing North. They
all like different fruits viz. Mango, Guava, Papaya, Apple, Kiwi and Banana, but
not necessarily in the same order. U likes which fruit?
Statement I: U is second to the right of one who likes Guava. Three persons are

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sitting between persons who like Guava and Papaya. The one who likes Mango is
third to the right of T, who doesn’t like Guava.
d
Statement II: Two persons are sitting between R and W. The one who likes kiwi
is second to the left of S. U is second to the left of one who likes Papaya. One who
likes Mango and one who likes Banana are immediate neighbors.
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1) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.
2) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
C
3) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
Sr

4) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) The data in both statements I and statement II together are necessary to
answer the question.
Direction (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
A certain number of persons are sitting in a straight line facing North. The
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information about some of them is given. Only three persons are sitting between
S and Y. H is second to the right of S. Two persons are sitting to the right of K.
The number of persons sitting between C and M is the same as between B and N.
N is second to the left of T. The number of persons sitting between S and Y is the
same as between Y and N. C is second to the right of L. Only one person is sitting
between Y and Q. The number of persons sitting between Y and T is one more
than the number of persons sitting between Y and M, which is not immediate to
T. The number of persons sitting between S and B is the same as between B and
T. V is immediate right of D. K is second to the right of T. No one is sitting
between K and D. L is second from one of the end.
21. How many persons are sitting in a straight line?
1) Twenty 2) Twenty-two 3) Nineteen 4) Eighteen 5) Twenty-three
22. What is the position of C from H?
1) Sixth to the left 2) Sixth to the right
3) Fifth to the left 4) Eighth to the left
5) Seventh to the right

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
23. How many persons are sitting between D and Y?
1) Seven 2) Six 3) Eight 4) Nine 5) Ten
24. Which among the following is the odd one?
1) BH 2) TD 3) MY 4) SQ 5) LM
25. Which among the following statement is TRUE?
1) More than five persons are sitting between B and T
2) V and T are immediate neighbors
3) Two persons are sitting between S and Y
4) M is to the left of C 5) B and Q are immediate neighbors
Direction (26-28): Study the following information carefully and answer the

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questions given below.
Kiran starts walking from point F in South direction after walking 15m he
reach point S. From point S he takes a left turn and walks 8m and reach point J.
He takes again same turn and walks 7m and reach point R. From point R he
takes a right turn and walks 5m to reach point B. He again takes a right turn and
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walks 17m to reach point V. From point V he takes right and left turns
simultaneously and walks 16m and 9m to reach point G and point D respectively.
He takes a left turn and walks 22m to reach point T. Again he takes a left turn
and walks 11m and reach point N.
26.

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What is the shortest distance between point N and point S?
d
1) 3 23 m 2) 5 17 m 3) 7 13 m 4) 19m 5) 21m
27. Point D is in which direction from point V?
1) West 2) South – West 3) North – East4) South 5) South – East
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28. Which among the following is the odd one?

1) JV 2) RG 3) BD 4) RS 5) NV
29. Read the following information and answer the question.
"Flybest airlines reduced its airfare after the launch of new airlines-Mefly in the
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market". - a statement.
Which of the following can be a reason for the reduction in airfare by Flybest
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airlines?
1) Mefly airlines has adopted a pricing policy as per industry norms.
2) Flybest airlines is worried about losing its customers to Mefly airlines.
3) A good number of Flybest’s crew members switched from Flybest to Mefly as
they found Mefly more lucrative.
4) Flybest airline's profit increased by 15% in previous financial year.
5) Maximum number of passengers are expected to avail the discount given by
Flybest airlines.
C
30. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
After a four month long survey conducted on 250 people to test whether ‘Gryolime’
can be used as a cure for baldness, it was concluded that ‘Gryolime cannot be
used to treat baldness’ because 2% of the participants reported a few negative
impacts.
Which of the following, if taken to be true, weakens the given conclusion?
1) 18% of the participants of the survey reported itching in their scalp and face
after using Gryolime
2) Gryolime has faster effect on people below the age of 35 years as compared to
people of older age groups.
3) Even after two months from the start of the survey, many of the participants of
the survey reported that there was no change in the rate of their hair fall.
4) In the first 3-4 weeks after using Gryolime. the hair growth was only 3% faster
as compared to that before.
5) The participants who reported negative impacts were on heavy dosage of ‘Inselia’
which when mixed with Gryolimecause heavy sweating and palpitation.

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
Direction (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Nine persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are buys different articles viz. Belt,
Shirt, Mobile, Pouch, Table, Stationary, Vase, Bag and Ring, in the same day, but
not necessarily in the same order. No two persons buy the same article and not
at the same time.
U, who doesn’t buy Table, buys three persons before the one who buys shirt.
V buys immediate before Q. The number of persons buying before U is more than
the number of persons who buy after one who buys shirt. X buys neither Belt nor
Table. The number of persons who buy after U is the same as number of persons
who buy before one who buys Table. Three persons buy between one who buy

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Table and one who buys Stationary. Only two persons buy before P. T buys
immediate before the one who buys Bag and both don’t buy first and last. One
person buys between T and one who buys Belt. Neither P nor U buys Belt. The one
who buys Vase is buying immediate before to the one who buys Belt. Only two
persons buy between one who buys Vase and S. W buys three persons before the

31. Who buys Belt?

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one who buys Pouch. The one who buys Mobile is not buying at first.

1) Q 2) T 3) V 4) R 5) S
32. P buys which article?

33.
1) Vase

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2) Mobile 3) Pouch
How many persons buying before T?
4) Ring 5) Stationary
d
1) Three 2) Seven 3) Five 4) Four 5) Six
34. The number of persons buying before V is the same as after one who buys ____?
1) Stationary 2) Ring 3) Belt 4) Mobile 5) Vase
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35. Which among the following is the odd one?

1) R – Shirt 2) P – Belt 3) V – Pouch 4) S – Mobile 5) U – Table
36. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘GRAPHOLECTS’ which has
as many letters between in the word as they have in the English alphabetical
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series on both forward and backward directions?
1)Four 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Five
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37. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
“Instead of launching H-9 varieties of laptops, as suggested by the technical head,
we are launching the basic L-3 and L-4 models of laptops as a majority of customers
prefer better performance over good looks. There is no other way of revival of the
company at present” CEO of the company.
Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the given statement?
1) L-3 and L-4 models of laptops lack in respect of looks when compared to the H-
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9 model
2) The performance of L-3 and L-4 models of laptops is better than H-9 variety of
laptops
3) The said company is struggling at present to perform at par with the
management’s expectations
4) Neither H-9 nor L-3 and L-4 have been floated in market as of yet by the said
company
5) The technical head and the CEO of the company disagree over the performance
of different models of laptops
Direction (38-39): In the following questions, the symbols #, &, @, *, $, % and !
are used with the following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following
information and answer the following questions.
A # B – A is the son of B
A @ B – B is the child of A
A! B – A is the parent of B
A $ B – A is elder than B

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
A * B – A is the husband of B
A & B – B is the daughter-in-law of A
A % B – A is the wife of B
38. D * P & Q @ A, X @ A # Q then how is A related to D?
1) Great grandson 2) Either Grandson or Granddaughter
3) Grandfather 4) Nephew or Niece 5) Grandson
39. If G * M ! C $ E # M, the age of E is 20 yrs and age of G is 40 years then what is the
probable age of C?
1) 16 years 2) 21 years 3) 45 years 4) 15 years 5) Cannot be determined
40. Read the given information carefully and answer the question.

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Pandu- A farmer by profession- has decided to grow crop Y in his farm this year
instead of growing crop A while most farmers in the State, are growing crop A.
Despite being advised otherwise. Pandu has stuck to his decision and many senior
farmers have been regularly stating that ‘Pandu will only make losses as a result
of this decision as there is no hope for profit’.
Which of the following, if considered true, weakens the statement of the senior
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farmers that ‘Pandu will only make losses as a result of this decision as there is
no hope for profit’ to some extent?
1) Crop A, as against crop Y, is less infested by pests as a result it requires less

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amount of pesticide and is easier to store and transport from one place to another.
2) There is a huge demand for crop Y in the international market, however, due
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to stringent import-export norms of most of the countries it becomes very expensive
and time consuming to engage in the export business.
3) Many farmers have grown crop Y in the past and made losses as a result of
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which not many farmers in the State are keen on growing crop Y.
4) The water requirement of crop A is way less than that of crop Y and as per the
report submitted by the meteorological department, the rainfall this year is likely
to be scanty.
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5) The demand for crop Y is a little less than that of crop A, however, one quintal
of crop Y fetches thrice the price as compared to one quintal of crop A.
Sr

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
41. In Excel,______contains one or more worksheets.
1) Template 2) Workbook 3) Active cell 4) Label 5) None of these
42. Which of the following is a popular programming language for developing multimedia
web pages, websites, and web-based applications?
1) COBOL 2) Java 3) BASIC 4) Assembler 5) None of these
43. Compiling creates a(n)
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1) program specification 2) algorithm
3) executable program 4) subroutine 5) None of these
44. Computers use the ______ number system to store data and perform calculations.
1) decimal 2) hexadecimal 3) octal 4) binary 5) None of these
45. The_key will launch the Start button.
1)esc 2) shift 3) Windows 4) Shortcut 5) None of these
46. A Web site address is a unique name that identifies a specific______on the Web.
1) Web browser 2) PDA 3) Web Site 4) link 5) None of these
47. A character of information is represented by a(n)
1)byte 2) bit 3) field 4) attribute 5) None of these
48. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called
1) mentor 2) instructor 3) compiler 4) program 5) None of these
49. To “maximize” a window means
1) fill it to capacity 2) expand it to fit the desktop
3) put only like files inside 4) drag it to the Recycle Bin 5) None of these

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
50. The “home page” of a web site is
1) the largest page 2) the last page
3) the first page 4) the most colourful page 5) None of these
51. What is ISL used for?
1) To allow an Ethernet interface to understand frame tags
2) To make two Ethernet interfaces appear as one
3) To connect an Ethernet switch with a high-speed core switch such as ATM
4) To allow simultaneous routing and switching 5) None of these
52. Which of the following is NOT associated with Computers ?
1) Bit 2) Binary 3) Pencil 4) Mouse 5) Screen

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53. ‘MICR’ technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to
1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
4) Magnetic insurance Cases Recognition 5) None of these
54. Modern Computers represent characters and numbers internally using one of
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the following number systems
1)Penta 2) Octal 3)Hexa 4) Septa 5) Binary
55. A______is approximately a million bytes.
1) gigabyte 2) kilobyte 3) megabyte 4) terabyte 5) None of these
56.

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If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade,
you would use a
d
1) repeater 2) router 3) gateway 4) switch 5) None of these
57. To move down a page in a document.
1)jump 2) fly 3) wriggle 4) scroll 5) None of these
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58. Date and Time are available on the desktop at

1) Taskbar 2) My Computer 3) Recycle Bin 4) Only (2) and (3)
5) None of these
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59. Which type of resource does have greater probability to become shared resource
in a computer network?
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1) Printers 2) Speakers 3) Floppy Disc Drivers

4) Keyboards 5) None of these
60. Which of the following terms is used to describe the movement of an item with
the help of mouse to a new position on screen?
1)clik 2) double clik 3) drag and drop 4) point 5) right clik
61. What does storage unit provide?
1) Place for typing data 2) Storage for information and instruction
3) Place for printing information
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4) All of the above 5) None of these
62. ______are distinct items that don’t have much meaning to you in a given context.
1) Fields 2) Data 3) Queries 4) Properties 5) None of these
63. In Oracle, which tablespace is least required when creating a new database?
1) Undo tablespace 2) Temporary tablespace
3) System tablespace 4) Users tablespace 5) None of these
64. An example of a telecommunications device is a
1) keyboard 2) mouse 3) printer 4) modem 5) None of these
65. Two or more computers connected to each other for sharing information form a
1) network 2) router 3) server 4) tunnel 5) pipeline
66. The benefit of using computers is that
1) Computers are very fast and can store huge amounts of data
2) Computers provide accurate output even when input is incorrect
3) Computers are designed to be inflexible
4) All of the above 5) None of these

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
67. The database administrator’s function in an organization is
1) To be responsible for the more technical aspects of managing the information
contained in organizational databases
2) To be responsible for the executive-level aspects of decisions regarding
information management
3) To show the relationship among entity classes in a data warehouse
4) To define which data mining tools must be used to extract data
5) None of these
68. The_becomes different shapes depending on the task you are performing.
1) active tab 2) insertion point 3) mouse pointer
4) Ribbon 5) None of these

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69. The capability of the operation system to enable two or more than two instructions
to execute simultaneously in a single computer system by using multiple CPUs is
1) Multitasking 2) Multiprogramming
3) Multiprocessing 4) Multiexecution5) None of these
70. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a
1)disk 2) data 3) file 4) floppy 5) None of these
71.
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An output device that lets you see what the computer is doing
1) a disk drive 2) monitor-screen 3) shift key 4) printer 5) None of these
72. Bit in short for —
1) binary system

E 2) digital byte
3) binary digit 4) binary unit 5) None of these
d
73. To access a mainframe or supercomputer, users often use a
1) terminal 2) node 3) desktop 4) handheld 5) None of these
74. By default, your documents print in______mode.
1) Landscape 2) Portrait 3) Page Setup 4) Print View 5) None of these
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75. Firewalls are used to protect against

1) Unauthorised Attacks 2) Virus Attacks
3) Data Driven Attacks 4) Fire Attacks 5) None of these
76. Which of the following could be a legitimate Media Access Control address?
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1)192.168.254.3 2) 3FA2.4756.F9A3
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3) A5514 4)C1.3A.77.5B 5) None of these

77. The term “hypertext” means
1) Non-sequential writing 2) Hypermedia
3) Blinking text 4) Text with heavy formatting 5) None of these
78. You receive an e-mail message that informs you that a terrible virus has been
unleashed on the Internet and that you should warn all the people in your Address
Book. Which of the following have you most likely encountered?
1) A virus hoax 2) A filter 3) spam 4) A virus 5) A worm
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79. We can enter and edit the text efficiently using —
1) Spreadsheet 2) Typewriter
3) Word Processing Program 4) Desktop Publishing Program 5) None of these
80. May be included in other folder while making heirarchical structure folder.
1) Minifolder 2) Tiered folder 3) Sub-folder 4) Object 5) None of these
GENERAL AWARENESS
81. Who has been conferred a BAFTA Fellowship, the highest accolade bestowed by
the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA)?
1) Dalai Lama 2) Raghu Ram Pillarisetti 3) Meera Syal
4) Neeli Bendapudi 5) Deepika Misra
82. The Government of India has recently launched New India Literacy Programme.
The programme is to be implemented by FY________.
1) 2034-24 2) 2026-27 3) 2029-30 4) 2034-35 5) 2040-41
83. Who has won the ICC Player of the Month award for March 2023 in the men’s
category?
1) Shakib Al Hasan 2) Virat Kohli 3) Babar Azam
4) Joe Root 5) Kane Williamson
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
84. Which among the following private sector entities is actively scaling up its climate-
smart agriculture initiative to support farmers facing weather-related challenges?
1) Adani Wilmar Limited 2) ITC Limited
3) Patanjali Ayurved Limited 4) Nestle India Limited 5) Marico Limited
85. The Union Cabinet has approved procurement of 70 HTT-40 Basic Trainer Aircraft
from Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF) at a cost
of __________.
1) 2828.933 2) 7526.34 3) 4586.63 4) 5623.24 5) 6828.36
86. Which of the following statements about the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme is
TRUE?
A) The government has allowed discount of fifty rupees per gram to investors who

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apply online and make payment through digital mode.
B) The minimum investment one can make in a gold bond is eight gram.
C) The maximum limit of subscription has been set at 20 kg for individuals
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (A) and (C) 3) Only (B) and (C)
4) Only (A) 5) Only (C)
87. Which of the following countries have won a united bid to host the 23rd FIFA
World Cup 2026?
ha
1) US, Mexico and Canada 2) Brazil, Mexico and Argentina
3) UK, Germany and France 4) Brazil, France and Spain
5) Spain, Portugal and Germany
88.

E
Who has been appointed as the first justice of a district court in the US state of
Massachusetts?
d
1) Ashwini Singh 2) Tejal Mehta 3) KV Kamath
4) Dinesh Sharma 5) Priya Mehta
89. ‘Malabo’ is the capital city of which of the following country?
1) Rwanda 2) Zambia 3) Equatorial Guinea 4) Panama 5) Morocco
ee

90. Which of the following is expected to occur when monetary policy becomes
ineffective due to very low interest rates combined with consumers who prefer to
save rather than invest?
1) Malthusian trap 2) Social vulnerability trap 3) Productivity trap
C
4) Poverty trap 5) Liquidity trap
91. Swachhotsav, 3-week women-led swachhata campaign, launched by__________.
Sr

1) NITI Aayog 2) Ministry of Jal Shakti

3) Ministry of Rural Development 4) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
5) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
92. How many public sector banks are there in India in 2023?
1) 10 2) 11 3) 13 4) 12 5) 14
93. Who launched a grievance appellate panel mechanism to look into appeals by
users against decisions of social media platforms?
1) S. Jaishankar 2) Ashwini Vaishnaw 3) Rajeev Chandrasekhar
C
4) Narendra Modi 5) Piyush Goyal
94. Which of the following Space Agencies will work with NASA to launch Multi-Angle
Imager for Aerosols (MAIA) mission to investigate the health impacts of air pollution
in the world’s most populated cities?
1) Canadian Space Agency 2) Agenzia Spaziale Italiana
3) Indian Space Research Organization
4) China National Space Administration
5) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
95. Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) celebrated its Diamond Jubilee on its 60th
Foundation Day on 3 May. Where is the headquarters of IIFT?
1) Bengaluru 2) Hyderabad 3) New Delhi 4) Ahmedabad 5) Mumbai
96. What is Repo Rate?
1) Rate at which commercial bank lend money to RBI
2) Rate at which commercial bank borrow money from other commercial banks
3) Rate at which commercial bank borrow money from RBI
4) Rate at which commercial bank lend money to common citizen
5) Rate at which commercial bank lend money to state Governments
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
97. Which of the following non-banking financial company has announced the launch
of ‘Loan Against Mutual Fund’ (LAMF)?
1) Cholamandalam 2) Blue Chip 3) Bajaj Capital
4) Muthoot Finance 5) Geojit Credits
98. With which company did the Ministry of Defence (MoD) has sign a contract for the
procurement of 41 indigenous modular bridges worth over Rs 2,585 crore for the
Indian Army’s Corps of Engineers?
1) Larsen & Toubro 2) Vedanta 3) HAL 4) NTPC 5) DRDO
99. “Maharashtra Day” is celebrated every year on 1 May. In which year the state of
Maharashtra was established?
1) 1956 2) 1960 3) 1959 4) 1965 5) 1951

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100. The promoter’s minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of small
finance bank shall at least be ________ per cent.
1) 30% 2) 20% 3) 50% 4) 60% 5) 40%
101. The Indian accelerator program and Infosys Finacle has partnered with which
bank to promote the startup ecosystem in India?

102.
1) State Bank of India
4) Axis Bank
ha 2) HSBC Bank 3) ICICI Bank
5) Federal Bank
What is the limit for the Rural Cooperative Banks (RCBs) for individual housing
loans with an assessed net worth less than 100 crores?

103.

E
1) Rs. 25 lakh 2) Rs. 30 lakh 3) Rs. 40 lakh 4) Rs. 20 lakh 5) 50 lakh
Salim Durani, who passed away at 88, was associated with which of the following
d
sports?
1) Table Tennis 2) Football 3) Weightlifting 4) Cricket 5) Boxing
104. Security Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has extended the nomination deadline
ee

for existing trading &demat account holders to provide a choice of nomination till
___________.
1) 31 December 2023 2) 30 September 2023 3) 01 August 2023
4) 30 November 2023 5) 01 January 2024
C
105. What is the stake of State Bank (SBI) of India in the Jio Payments Bank?
1) 20% 2) 25% 3) 30% 4) 35% 5) 40%
Sr

106. Theatre festival ‘Under the Sal Tree’ is a unique festival celebrated in which
state?
1) Arunachal Pradesh 2) Assam 3) Nagaland
4) Mizoram 5) Manipur
107. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM KIAN) is an initiative by the government
of India that give farmers________ per year as minimum income support.
1) Rs. 2000 2) Rs. 3000 3) Rs. 4000 4) Rs. 5000 5) Rs. 6000
108. In April 2023, which of the following countries invited Prime Minister Narendra
C
Modi as a guest at the annual Bastille Day parade, which will be held in July
2023?
1) France 2) Argentina 3) Finland 4) Angola 5) Fiji
109. North East India’s first compressed biogas plant project has been inaugurated in
which state?
1) Tripura 2) West Bengal3) Assam 4) Manipur 5) Meghalaya
110. Indian-American ________, professionally known as Mindy Kaling has awarded
the 2021 National Humanities Medal among others.
1) Amanda Setton 2) Giuseppe Buttazzo 3) Zoe Jarman
4) Vera Mindy Chokalingam 5) Paolo Marcellini
111. The 13th edition of Exercise Bold Kurukshetra, a bilateral armour exercise between
India and ________ was concluded on March 13, 2023, at Jodhpur Military Station.
1) USA 2) Singapore 3) Nepal 4) Sri Lanka 5) France
112. Which of the following film has won the 68th Hyundai Filmfare Awards 2023?
1) Jhund 2) Brahmastra 3) JugJugg Jeeyo
4) Badhaai Do 5) Gangubai Kathiawadi

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
113. Who among the following has been named as the head of Citi Commercial Bank
(CCB) business in India?
1) Ashu Khullar 2) Bhanu Vohra 3) Rajat Madhok
4) Tushar Vikram 5) Ajit Sharma
114. ‘Mansar Lake’ is located in which state/UT?
1) Ladakh 2) Sikkim 3) Jammu and Kashmir
4) Assam 5) Punjab
115. NTPC Renewable Energy has signed Term Sheet with Greenko ZeroC to Supply
1300 MW Round the Clock RE Power for powering Greenko’s upcoming Green
Ammonia Plant at_________.
1) Kakinada, Andhra Pradesh 2) Dahej, Gujarat

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3) Chennai, Tamil Nadu 4) Pune, Maharashtra 5) Hyderabad, Telangana
116. Which country and India have jointly developed air-launched unmanned aerial
vehicles (ALUAV) that will be used for surveillance missions?
1) Russia 2) Canada 3) Germany 4) United States 5) France
117. What is the full form of UPMS?
ha
1) Unified Performance Management Scheme
2) Unique Performance Management System
3) Unified Presentment Management System
4) Unique Presentment Monetary System

E
5) Unified Presentment Monetary Scheme
118. Who has topped the list of Time magazine’s 2023 TIME100 Reader Poll?
d
1) Harry-Meghan 2) Shah Rukh Khan 3) Lionel Messi
4) John Ibrahim 5) Virat Kohli
119. Which of the following company has inked a pact with Japan Bank for International
ee

Cooperation (JBIC) for a project loan of Japanese Yen (JPY) 2.65 billion or about
Rs 165 crores?
1) NTPC 2) IOCL 3) BHEL 4) BEML 5) PFC
120. ‘Shaili Singh’ has recently qualifies for Asian Games. She is associated with
C
which among the following sports?
Sr

1) Long jump 2) High jump 3) Weightlifting 4) Water polo 5) Squash

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (121-125): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given
in which some parts are given in bold which are grammatically correct. The
other three parts of the sentence may or may not be grammatically correct.
The sentence is then followed by three alternatives. Choose the alternative(s)
which will replace the incorrect part in the sentence to make it grammatically
and contextually correct as your answer.
C
121. Minister of State for External Affairs informed (A)/ that the returnees
including several members (B)/ of the Hakki Pikki tribe of Karnataka (C)
who had earlier hits the headline (D) of being stuck in the conflict (E).
(I) that the returnees included several members
(II) who had earlier hit the headlines
(III) for being stuck in the conflict
1) No correction required 2) Only (III) 3) Only (II)
4) Only (I) 5) All (I), (II) &(III)
122. Many smaller clans mentioned(A)/ within early literature seems(B)/ to has
been(C)/ present across the(D)/ rest of the subcontinent(E).
(I) within early literature seem
(II) to have been
(III) rest in the subcontinent
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III)
4) Both (I)&(II) 5) No replacement required

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
123. Monalisa is a half-length portrait painted by the Italian Renaissance (A)/ artist
Leonardo Da Vinci that has been described(B)/ as “the best known, the most
visited(C)/, the most written about, the most sang about, the most(D)/ parodied
work of art in the world (E).
(I) Monalisa is a half-length portrait painting by the Italian Renaissance
(II) the most written about, the most sung about, the most
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Both (I)&(II)
4) All of the above 5) No correction required
124. In addition, many states have(A)/ the authority to immediately(B)/ embargo
adulterated(C)/ food and to(D)/ impose civil fines(E).

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(I) the authority for immediately
(II) embargo adulteration
(III) imposing civil fines
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III)
4) Both (I)&(III) 5) No correction required
125. The president’s cavalcade(A)/ including several sports(B)/ utilising vehicles,
ha
six(C)/ police cars, and(D)/ police motorcycle unit(E).
(I) included several sports
(II) utility vehicles, six
(III) police cars, and a

4) Only (I)

E
1) No correction required 2) Only (III)
5) All (I), (II)&(III)
3) Only (II)
d
Direction (126-128): In the following questions a part of the sentence is given
in bold, it is then followed by three sentences which may or may not explain
the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in bold. Choose the alternative from
ee

the three sentences given below each question which explains the meaning of
the phrase correctly without altering the meaning of the sentence given as
question. If none of the sentences explains the meaning of the highlighted
C
phrase, choose option (5) as your answer choice.
126. The new visitors and relatives, packed cheek by jowl, parted as he entered,
Sr

and suddenly she knew the reason for the party.

(i)The new visitors and relatives, packed closed together, parted as he entered,
and suddenly she knew the reason for the party.
(ii)The new visitors and relatives, packed with all the presents with them,
parted as he entered, and suddenly she knew the reason for the party.
(iii) The new visitors and relatives, packed in the room, parted as he entered,
and suddenly she knew the reason for the party.
1) Only (i) 2) Both (ii) and (iii) 3) Only (iii)
C
4) Only (ii) 5) None of these
127. Mahima was still on tenterhooks waiting for his directors’ decision about the
job.
(i) Mahima was still anxiously waiting for his directors’ decision about the job.
(ii) Mahima was still suspiciously waiting for his directors’ decision about the
job.
(iii) Mahima was highly passionate for his directors’ decision about the job.
1) Only (i) 2) Both (i) and (ii) 3) Both (ii) and (iii)
4) All of (i), (ii) and (iii) 5) None of these
128. She was taken to task for not reporting the problem earlier.
(i) She was upbraided for not reporting the problem earlier.
(ii) She was given in remand for not reporting the problem earlier.
(iii) She was scolded for not reporting the problem earlier.
1) Only (i) 2) Both (i) and (ii) 3) Both (ii) and (iii)
4) Both (i) and (iii) 5) None of these

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
Direction (129-137): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
Nepal earthquake of 2015, also called Gorkha earthquake, severe
earthquake that struck near the city of Kathmandu in central Nepal on April
25, 2015. About 9,000 people were killed, many thousands more were injured,
and more than 600,000 structures in Kathmandu and other nearby towns
were either damaged or destroyed. The earthquake was felt throughout central
and eastern Nepal, much of the Ganges River plain in northern India, and
northwestern Bangladesh, as well as in the southern parts of the Plateau of
Tibet and western Bhutan. The recurrence of a major earthquake on May 12

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— this time measuring 7.3 on the Richter scale — with its epicentre near
Kodari in Nepal, barely a fortnight after the devastating temblor in the
landlocked country, has once again raised questions about preparedness for
such disasters in the subcontinent. India is divided into five seismic zones,
with Zone 5 being the most active and earthquake-prone. The Himalayan
regions, the Assam and Burma region, and the Bhuj region in the west fall in
ha
this category. While the time of occurrence of a big earthquake cannot be
predicted accurately with existing technology, the foreknowledge of potential
danger areas can help mitigate the impact of a disaster. The reason for

E
earthquakes occurring in Nepal is knvvown: the movement of the Indian tectonic
plate against the Eurasian plate. Along the Himalayas lie two fault-lines: the
d
Main Boundary Thrust and the Main Central Thrust. Running parallel to the
Himalayan ranges to a width of 100 km to 120 km, this region has a history of
earthquakes. In the last 120 years, there have been four major events: 1897
(Shillong), 1905 (Himachal Pradesh, Kangra), 1934 (Nepal-Bihar border), 1950
ee

(Arunachal Pradesh, then a part of the North East Frontier Agency or NEFA).
The movement of the Indian tectonic plate against the Eurasian plate
has created __________ stress. This stress is released in a manner that makes
C
predicting earthquakes impossible. When a major event happens, part of the
stress is released at that point but accumulates in a different part of the belt.
Sr

Thus there is no natural escape for the region from susceptibility to

earthquakes. The best-laid plans for disaster mitigation following quakes can
go awry, but some lessons can be learnt from the past. However, as the gap
between the occurrence of major earthquakes in a given region could stretch
over more than a lifespan, memories can fade and mitigation plans may not
be grounded in lived experience. The real advancement that has been made
recently in India is, for instance, the setting up of many seismological stations,
especially after the Bhuj earthquake of 2001. Measurements from these
C
stations and global positioning system data now tell us the Indian plate is
moving north at a speed of 5 metres a year. This would contribute to stress
accumulation and to seismic activity even in Zones 2, 3 and 4. We need to
accept earthquakes as a reality and do everything in our power to redefine
development plans, especially in terms of building quake-resistant buildings.
There should be systematic resort to “disaster drills” to educate the public on
what to do during an earthquake. Preparedness is the key to managing any
more such disasters.
129. Which of the following is the synonym of the word “susceptibility”?
1) unlikely 2) perceptivity 3) resistant 4) insensitivity 5) ascetic
130. What is the reason mentioned in the passage for zone 2, 3 and 4 to worry
about?
1) the volcanic eruption inside the Earth’s Crate.
2) the movement of plates in the Pacific Ocean.
3) the movement of Indian Plate into the Eurasian plate.
4) the movement of Earth out of its orbit. 5) None of the above

14
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
131. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A) The zone 5 region is the most active and earthquake prone area.
B) The Indian plate is moving southwards with the speed of 5 metres a year.
C) The movement of the plates results in stress accumulation.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and C 5) Both A and B
132. Which of the following is not true according to the passage?
A) There is no natural escape for the region from susceptibility to earthquakes
B) India has set up many seismological equipments after Bhuj quake 2001.
C) The prediction of earthquake is not possible but the foreknowledge of the
big disaster can help mitigate the after effect.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and C 5) All are true

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133. Which of the following is antonym of the word “awry”?
1) Pre-empt 2) Recant 3) Straight 4) Refract 5) None
134. Which of the following can replace the word “foreknowledge” in the passage
without changing the meaning?
1) Savour 2) Stint 3) Torpor 4) Precognition 5) Onerous
135. What does the author mean by the phrase “mitigation plans may not be
ha
grounded in lived experience”?
1) The plans are not to mitigate but to elevate the causality.
2) The plans are only for show off, but the ground reality is different.
3) The plans can only be made but whatever we do, it will happen.

E
4) The plans to mitigate the effect might not be handy while living.
5) None of the above
d
136. Choose an appropriate title for the passage.
1) Aftershocks 2) Preparedness As The Key
3) The Damage and The Quake
ee

4) The Gross Effect 5) None of The Above

137. Which of the following word can fill the given blank contextually?
1) Disturbed 2) Vibration 3) Traction 4) Accumulated 5) Quivering
Direction (138-142): In the following question, a sentence is divided into
C
three parts, given in column 1, 2 and 3. Match the statements from column 1
Sr

with those in column 2 and column 3 and find which of the following triplets
given in the options make contextually and grammatically correct sense)

COLUMN-I COLUMN-II COLUMN-III

A) Visiting a farmer D) the mainstream P) Party for the first

in the Burgundy left Socialist Party time in a runoff
C
region Marie Le Pen and the right presidential
Republican election.
B) French voters E) said prices of Q) women from
turned to parties food and vegetables wearing
outside have gone up 25% headscarves.
138.

C) The People in F) Le Pen's R) over 5 years

French clashed proposal for since Macron
over banning Muslim became president.

1) AEP 2) BDQ 3) CFR 4) AER & CFQ 5) AFR & CDQ

15
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7

COLUMN-I COLUMN-II COLUMN-III

A) President Trump D) considering P) to raise the oil

says he is tariffs in this price
situation
B) He is also E) Prince Salman Q) moderate the
talking to president in an effort to decline in oil
139. Putin and prices.
C) One way for the F) do this is to use R) and not to take

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U.S. to its own oil in any foreign oil.

1) BDQ 2)BEQ & CFR 3)CFP 4)ADP & BFR 5) AFR & CDQ

COLUMN-I
ha
COLUMN-II COLUMN-III

A) During the early

weeks of the

E
D) crisis the impact
on the world
P) budget for
ministries because
d
corona virus health economy and of low oil prices.
demand
B) Russia depends E) of its budget Q) was
ee

on oil exports for and the Saudis underestimated by

140. one third have to cut 30% of both Russia and
their the Saudis.
C) A Pew Research F) voters now R) agenda by large
C
poll shows favour a bold margins.
Sr

Democratic ambitious

1) CFR 2) ADQ , BEP & CFR 3)CER

4) CDQ 5)AFQ , BDR & CEQ

COLUMN-I COLUMN-II COLUMN-III

C
A) The efforts to D) left the option P) Obama against
promote open for a second the interests of the
referendum unions.
B) The Brexit E) Trans Pacific Q) on Brexit with
Secretary of the Trade Agreement the option
141. Labor Party by "remain."
C) serious F) the ruling R) the issue of
divisions have Conservative Party withdrawal from
emerged within in Britain on the European
Union.

1) CDR 2) AFP 3) BER 4) BFQ 5) BDQ & AEP

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7

COLUMN-I COL UMN-II COLUMN-III

A) The original D) hold the office P) the statutory

intent of making of Chancellor and role performed as
Governors vesting some a Chancellor
statutory
B) Even in the E) the use of Q) some university
1980s, as noted by discretion by some appointments had
the Justice RS. Governors in come in for
142. Sarkaria criticism.

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Commission,
C) It acknowledged F) the Governor’s R) powers on them
the distinction constitutional role was to insulate
between and universities from
political influence
1) AEP 2) BEP
ha 3) CDR 4) CDR & AEP 5) ADR
Direction(143-147): In this question, two statements are given, in statement
I three words (A), (B), (C) and in statement II three words (L), (M), (N) are

E
given in bold and swapped. Identify the pair which will make the statements
meaningful and grammatically correct.
d
143. I. Florence Bullard gave (A) her French star (B) with a bronze medal (C) to
the Sisters of Saint Marys,
ee

II. believing (L) that her teachings (M) deeds were a reflection of their heroic
(N)
1) ACB: LNM 2) BCA: MLN 3) BAC: MNL 4) CAB: LMN 5) CBA: NLM
C
144. I. Machine learning is a type (A) of artificial intelligence that enables (B)
computer systems to classify, cluster, identify and analyze (C)
Sr

II. vast and explicit (L) sets of data while eliminating (M) the need for complex
(N) instructions and programming.
1) CAB: LMN 2) BCA: MLN 3) ABC: NML 4) ACB: LNM 5) CBA: NLM
145. I. In addition to protests (A) for increased rights for women, the demands (B)
have demanded the overthrow (C) of the Republic,
II. setting them apart from previous (L) major protest woes (M), which have
C
focused on election results or economic movements (N).
1) CBA: NLM 2) BCA: MLN 3) BAC: LNM 4) ACB: LNM 5) CAB: LMN
146. I. novel (A) by Jonathan Cape in the summer (B) of 1968, Figures in a Landscape
was Barry England’s first published (C)
II. which was hailed (L) by critics as an literature (M) addition to the exemplary
(N) of escape.
1) ACB: LNM 2) BCA: MLN 3) BAC: MNL 4) CAB: LMN 5) CBA: LNM
147. I. Two professional soldiers unnamed (A) from a column of POWs in an escaped
(B) country in the tropics (C) and they made their way
II. through the terrain (L) territory, battling the climate and the enemy (M)
as well as the enemy’s soldiers (N) and helicopters.
1) BCA: MLN 2) ACB: LNM 3) CBA: NLM 4) CAB: LMN 5) BAC: MLN

17
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
Direction (148-152): In the following question, a bold sentence is followed by six
sentences (A, B, C, D, E, and F) which are not in a correct sequence. Consider
the bold sentence as the first one and rearrange the following sentences by
considering “D” as the 5th sentence.
Most minerals, metallic and non-metallic, occur in New Zealand, but few are
found in sufficient quantities for commercial exploitation.
A) In addition, construction materials, with which the country is well endowed,
are quarried.
B) The exceptions are gold, which in the early years of organized settlement (I)
was a major export; coal, which is still mined to a considerable extent.

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C) Furthermore, iron sands, both fossil fuels and renewable (II) and for domestic
use; and, more recently, natural gas.
D) New Zealand’s energy comes from which are exploited both for export (III)
resources such as hydroelectric, wind, and geothermal power.
E) However, as demand has increased, that proportion has dropped somewhat.
F) The country has exploited much of its great hydroelectric potential (IV), and

148.
ha
hydroelectricity long has supplied the bulk of the country’s power.
Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) F 3) C 4) D 5) E
149.
1) A 2) B

E
Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
3) C 4) F 5) E
d
150. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3)C 4) E 5) F
151. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement
ee

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) D
152. Which of the following has to be interchanged to make all the sentences
grammatically correct and meaningful?
1) Only I-IV 2) Only II-III 3) Only I-III 4) Both I-IV and I-III 5) Only I-II
C
Direction (153-157): Find out the most effective word from the given options to
fill the blank of the following question.
Sr

153. A) The government has refused to __________with the strikers

B) We’ve decided to ___________ with the employers about our wage claim.
C) I managed to ___________ successfully with the authorities.
1) disagree 2) negotiate 3) confuse 4) clear 5) facile
154. A) There was an air of _________ among the waiting crowd.
B) Scientists estimate that smoking reduces life ____by around 12 years on average.
C) The police often collaborate in producing an __________ effect.
C
1) expectancy 2) inference 3) postulate 4) surmise 5) supposable
155. A) The ___________evidence we produced bore down our opponents in the debate.
B) What is ______________ is that every effect must have a cause.
C) He consoled himself with the thought of the __________ benefits to the spread
of the Gospel.
1) vague 2) flawed 3) imperfect 4) indubitable 5) imprecise
156. A) The success of our campaign has ___________our wildest expectations.
B) The debts owing by each of the bankrupts ___________ the values of their
interests in the homes.
C) Three of the six have comfortably __________ their normal life expectancy.
1) maximized 2) surrendered3) loosed 4) exceeded 5) passed
157. A) Many of the spies had been involved in murder, blackmail, or other
____________activities.
B) Grabbing information from the mind doesn’t always have to be __________.
C) Godalhi and Koon pooled their resources in the capture of _________ criminals
1) admirable 2) nefarious 3) good 4) acceptable 5) managed
18
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
Direction (158-160): In the following questions, a word is given along with its
usage in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the
given word is contextually and grammatically correct.
158. Covenant
I. The restrictive covenanters of the building development prohibit the construction
of buildings over 30 feet tall.
II. In the mortgage deed the respondents further covenantal that they would
purchase all their requirements from the appellants exclusively.
III. The people covenanted strongly not to use British goods and to suspend trade
with Great Britain even they are friendly.

r’s
1) Only I 2) only II 3) Both II & III 4) only III 5) None of the above
159. Anecdote
I. Their grandmother had an anecdote for every one of her children and
grandchildren.
II. Although it was entertaining, the anecdote about Hazel that was floating around
ha
school was simply untrue.
III. The world has never been the same since the anecdote of the light bulb.
1) Only I 2) only II 3) Both II & III 4) only III 5) I, II & III
160. Colloquial

E
I. There are multiple colloquial terms for psilocybin mushrooms, the most common
being magic mushrooms.
d
II. The author makes use of colloquialled speech to highlight the differences in
upbringing between the novel’s hero and heroine.
ee

III. Since I am from a different country, I have a difficult time understanding the
colloquialling language in this country.
1) Only I 2) only II 3) Both II & III 4) only III 5) None of the above
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
C
Direction (161-166): Refer the bar graph and table, answer the given question.
The Banking Institute “Sreedhar’s CCE” started a program called Target Mains.
Sr

In which all the mains concepts will be covered in 4 different sections namely
English, Quantitative, Reasoning and General Awareness.
Given bar shows the total number of handouts for each section.

Handouts

70
C
60

50

40

30

20

10

0
English Quant Reasoning GA

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
The Table given below shows the number of students who attended for each
section per day and time taken to explain all the handouts
Students
Total time
Sections attended the
allotment
class per day
English 2500 60hrs

Quant 3000 138hrs

r’s
Reasoning 2000 58.5hrs

GA 1500 100hrs

161. Total number of students who attend for Quant section (per Handout) is 9000
students and the ratio between boys and girls is 1:1. Find out the number of days
ha
conducted for girls and the total number of hours taken for girls. If all the girl
students are attending the class?
(Note: Total number of students who attended the Quant class per day is same
as both boys and girls)

E
d
1) 3 days, 1hr 18mins 2) 3 days, 6hrs 54 mins
3) 3 days, 5hrs 48mins 4) 4 days, 6hrs 54 mins
5) 2 days, 4hrs 36mins
ee

162. Find out the total time taken for each section per handout?
1) 7 hrs 58 mins 2) 7 hrs 36 mins 3) 7 hrs 45 mins
4) 7 hrs 15 mins 5) 7 hrs 30 mins
C
163. If four slots of Quant sections are conducted in a week and one handout is
explained per slot. Find out the total number of students who attended all the
Sr

slots in four weeks and remaining handouts to be explained after four weeks?
1) 48000 students and 44 handouts
2) 45000 students and 40 handouts
3) 39000 students and 16 handouts
4) 36000 students and 35 handouts
5) 30000 students and 42 handouts
164. The number of students who attend the Quant class per day is what percent
C
more than the number of students who attend the English class per day?
1) 25% 2) 20% 3) 15% 4) 35% 5) 5%
165. What is average of total number of students per day in all the sections?
1) 2200 2) 2250 3) 2000 4) 1550 5) 2150
166. Find the ratio between the total number of English and GA handouts to the total
number of Quant and Reasoning handouts.
1) 21:16 2) 16:23 3) 16:21 4) 14:17 5) 17:14
Direction (167-171) : Answer the questions based on the information given below.
There are two bags A and B. Each of them contains only three types of articles.
Note: Bag A contains erasers, pencils and pens and Bag B contains red balls,
blue balls and white balls.
Bag A: There are 3x erasers, x pencils and (x + y) pens. The probability of drawing
1
an eraser is . Total number of articles in the bag is 30.
2
20
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
Bag B: There are (x + a) red balls, 2 blue balls and 2y white balls. The probability
2
of drawing 1 red ball at random from the bag is .
5
167. Find the probability of picking 2 pencils from bag ‘A’?

4 3 2 1 9
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
81 85 87 87 87
168. Find the value of (x-a).

r’s
1) 2 2) 1 3) 5 4) 3 5) 0
169. All the constituent of both the bags are mixed. Find the probability of picking a
pen and a blue ball from the bag with a replacement?

4 3 5 2 9
1)
125
2)
125
ha 3)
128
4)
125
5)
125
170. Find the probability of picking a blue ball from bag ‘B’?

1)
1
2)
1

E 3)
1
4)
7
5)
9
d
10 20 5 20 20
171. What is the difference between the total articles of Bag A and Bag B?
ee

1) 5 2) 10 3) 15 4) 20 5) 30
Direction (172-176): In each of these questions a number series is given. In
C
each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
Sr

172. 17, 18, 27, 55, 101, 182

1) 18 2) 101 3) 182 4) 55 5) 17
173. 28, 32, 44, 66, 92, 128, 172
1) 32 2)44 3) 66 4) 92 5) 28
174. 48, 75, 112.5, 168.75, 253.125
C
1) 48 2) 75 3) 112.5 4) 168.75 5) 253.125
175. 1000, 488, 537, 320, 346, 282
1) 488 2) 537 3) 320 4) 346 5) 282
176. (i) 70, 68, 62, 50, 30, 12, A
(ii) 135, 133, 127, 115, 95, 65, B
Find the wrong number in first series and then find the value of the following
question.
1. Wrong term
2. Find (A-B)
1) 30, 165 2) 68, 35 3) 12, -65 4) 70, -75 5) 30, -165

21
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
Direction (177 -182): Refer to the table and answer the given question.
The given table shows the percentage of marks obtained by various students
in different subjects.

Arithmetic Computer English General

Reasoning(125 Total
Students (150 (50 ( 150 awareness(75
marks) marks
marks) marks) marks) marks)

P 70 86 - - 60 393

r’s
Q 80 - 96 88 -

R - 88 80 70 -

S 88 74 64 92 84

T 70
ha 90 60 - 68

Note: Some values are missing; missing values need to calculate based on

177.
individual questions.

E
If the ratio between the marks obtained by P in reasoning and the marks obtained
d
in English is 2:3. Then the marks obtained by P in English is what percentage of
the marks obtained by Q in English? (approximately)
1) 50 2) 80 3) 120 4) 91 5) 75
ee

178. If the marks of P in Reasoning would have 25% more, then it would be 140
marks. Find the average marks of a student in Reasoning?
1) 85.5 2) 97.4 3) 92.5 4) 76.5 5) 83.5
179. If the total marks obtained by R in Arithmetic and General Awareness is 23
C
marks more than that of marks obtained by S in Computer and Reasoning. Then
what is the percentage of R?
Sr

1) 97% 2) 85% 3) 92.5% 4) 70.72% 5) 75.67%

180. Marks obtained by S & Q in English are approximately what percent more than
the marks obtained by Q & R in reasoning?
1) 23% 2) 28% 3) 25% 4) 21% 5) 20%
181. If the average marks of P, Q, R and S are 412.5 and marks obtained by R are 127
less than that of Q, then find the total marks of Q?
1) 450 2) 340 3) 467 4) 367 5) 400
182. If the average marks of all the students in an arithmetic subject are 117. Then
C
find the GA marks of R, if R got 80% of total marks?
1) 65 2) 60 3) 62 4) 68 5) 72
183. A, B and C invested in a scheme and their investment ratio is 25:29:28 respectively.
If another person D joined them, the average investment becomes Rs.5000. If the
amount invested by D was Rs.3600, what is the difference between the amount
invested by A and C?
1) 200 2) 500 3) 600 4) 1200 5) 400
184. Train A running at a speed of 90 km/hr passes a tunnel in 12 sec, while train B
running at a speed of 72 km/hr crosses a platform in 19 sec. The ratio of the
length of train A and train B is 3:2 and the ratio of the length of tunnel and
platform is 1:2. What is the length of the train B?
1) 180m 2) 240m 3) 55m 4) 110m 5)150m
185. A and C started a business and B joined after ‘X’ months from the start of the
business. The respective ratio between the investments of A, B and C was 3 : 6 :
2. If A’s share in annual profit was Rs.750 out of the total profit of Rs.2250, then
how many months does B stay in the business?
1) 10 2) 4 3) 8 4) 6 5) 3
22
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
186. Three gadgets are bought at a price of Rs.12750, their prices are in the ratio
48:34:45.5 respectively. If the first gadget was sold at a profit of 20% and the
second and the third at 10% each, then find the total profit earned in this
transaction?
1) Rs.1500 2) Rs.1800 3) Rs.1755 4) Rs.1650 5) Rs.1555
Direction (187-192): Following pie chart shows the percentage break up of students
who participated in an entrance test from different states.
Total number of students=26400

[(x/2)-5]%

r’s
(x+5)% (x/2)%

A
ha (x-4)% B
C
D
E
[(x/2)-4]%

E F
d
G
(x+9)%
x%
ee

187. If 50% of students passed from D state, then find the number of students who
passed from G state?
1) Cannot be determined 2) 15000 3) 13200 4) 20000 5) 11500
C
188. 50% of students passed the test from state C, 25% passed the test from state B
and 75% passed from state F. Students who clear the test were awarded Rs.
Sr

1500. What is the difference between the amount given to states B and C together
to state F?
1) 2332000 2) 1557500 3) 4356000 4) 2725000 5) 3750000
189. In state C, the ratio of students who passed the entrance test and who did not
pass the test is 1:3. Find the number of students who did not pass the test?
1) 924 2) 2772 3) 1848 4) 2552 5) 824
190. Find the ratio of students from B to students from C.
C
1) 1:8 2) 9:14 3) 10:14 4) 2:5 5) 1:9
191. If the number of students passed from A and B is same. If 50% of students passed
from state A, then what percentage of students did not pass the test from B?
1) 77.7% 2) 75% 3) 63% 4)58% 5) 59.75%
192. The total average students of states A, B, C and D are approximately what
percent less than the number of students in state G?
1) 63% 2) 72% 3) 65.2% 4) 60.5% 5) 67.2%
193. The height of the cylinder is ‘x+2’ cm and the radius of the cylinder is ‘x’ cm. The
curved surface area of the cylinder is 1408 cm2, what is the area of the circle, if
its radius is equal to the radius of the cylinder? (in cm2)
1)154 2) 121 3) 308 4) 616 5) 242
194. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 30 minutes and 35 minutes respectively and
a pipe R can empty that tank in 70 minutes. All three start their work and after
sometime pipe R has been closed. If the total time taken to fill the tank from the
beginning is 18 minutes, find after how many minutes R was closed?
1) 10 2) 18 3) 8 4) 11 5) 12

23
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB Officer Scale-I Mains –XII- MT- 7
195. A person has to travel from point A to point B at a certain time. The distance
between A and B is 10 kms. Travelling at a speed of ‘Z+2’ kmph he reaches 20
minutes early and while travelling at a speed of ‘Z’ kmph he reaches 30 minutes
late. In how much time did he cover the distance of 35 kms with a speed of ‘Z+3’
kmph ?(in hours)
1) 7 2) 9 3) 2 4) 5 5) 3
196. Three vehicles (B1, B2 & B3) leave starting point for the ending point. They reach
ending point with an equal time interval between B1 and B2 (B1 > B2) is same as
time interval between B2 and B3 (B2 > B3) then leave for other point y which is
300 km away from the ending point. The first vehicles arrive at Y an hour after

r’s
the second vehicles. The third vehicles, having reached Y, immediately turns
back and heads towards the ending point. The first and the third vehicles meet a
point that is 100 km away from Y. What is the difference between the speed of
the first and the third vehicles?
1) 25 2) 100 3) 75 4) 55 5) 50
ha
197. At present, the respective ratio between the ages of A and B is 2 : 9, the age of B
is Q years and the age of C is (Q+4) years. 4 years ago, the sum of the ages of A,
B and C was 72 years. If the present age of the D is (Q+10) years, find the age of
D after 4 years?
1) 36 years 2) 46 years

E 3) 40 years 4) 50 years 5) 45 years

198. Retailer bought an item. He sold the item to the customer for Rs.4200 and earned
d
a profit of 20% of his cost price. What is the initial marked price of the item if he
marked 25% more than the cost price?
ee

1) Rs.4375 2) Rs.4500 3) Rs.4600 4) Rs.4400 5) Rs.4300

199. The respective ratio between the speed of the boat in upstream and the speed of
the boat in downstream is 7:9 and the speed of the boat in still water is 16 kmph.
A boat travelled 42 km upstream and (42+E) km downstream in 6 hours. What is
C
the value of E ?
1) 14 2) 18 3) 12 4) 16 5) 15
Sr

200. A vessel contains 160 liters mixture of milk and water. The ratio of milk and
water is 17:8 respectively. 40 liters of the mixture are taken out from the vessel
and 2.6 liters of pure milk and water each is added to the mixture. Approximately
what percent quantity of water is less than the quantity of milk?
1) 63.5% 2) 49.30% 3) 55% 4) 58.32% 5) 51%

KEY
C
1.3 2.1 3.3 4.4 5.5 6.4 7.2 8.1 9.4 10.3 11.4 12.3 13.1
14.2 15.4 16.1 17.5 18.5 19.3 20.2 21.2 22.1 23.3 24.4 25.5 26.2
27.2 28.1 29.2 30.2 31.4 32.2 33.5 34.1 35.3 36.4 37.4 38.5 39.2
40.1 41.2 42.2 43.2 44.4 45.3 46.4 47.2 48.4 49.2 50.3 51.1 52.3
53.1 54.5 55.3 56.1 57.4 58.1 59.1 60.3 61.2 62.2 63.3 64.4 65.1
66.1 67.2 68.3 69.3 70.3 71.2 72.3 73.1 74.2 75.1 76.1 77.2 78.4
79.1 80.3 81.3 82.2 83.1 84.2 85.5 86.4 87.1 88.2 89.3 90.5 91.4
92.4 93.3 94.2 95.3 96.3 97.5 98.1 99.2 100.5 101.3 102.5 103.4 104.2
105.3 106.2 107.5 108.1 109.3 110.4 111.2 112.5 113.2 114.3 115.1 116.4 117.3
118.2 119.5 120.1 121.5 122.4 123.3 124.5 125.5 126.1 127.2 128.4 129.2 130.3
131.4 132.5 133.3 134.4 135.4 136.2 137.4 138.4 139.2 140.2 141.5 142.5 143.1
144.3 145.3 146.5 147.5 148.2 149.1 150.4 151.2 152.2 153.2 154.1 155.4 156.4
157.2 158.4 159.5 160.1 161.2 162.2 163.1 164.2 165.2 166.3 167.3 168.1 169.4
170.1 171.2 172.4 173.3 174.1 175.3 176.3 177.4 178.2 179.4 180.1 181.3 182.4
183.3 184.4 185.3 186.3 187.1 188.3 189.2 190.2 191.1 192.3 193.4 194.3 195.4
196.3 197.4 198.1 199.3 200.5

24