GOVERNMENT POLYTECHNIC AMBAD

Name of subject: Emerging Trend in Mechanical Engg. Unit Test: I

Subject code: 22652
Course: ME6I
Semester: VI

Chapter 1: Recent Trend in Automobile Industry

2 marks questions
1.1 HYBRID CAR MANUFACTURERS
1. The fuel efficiency of Mild hybrids vehicle is more as compared to conventional hybrid systems
by ______ %? a) 10- 15%
b) 7-15%
c) 3-15%
d) 1-15%
2. Which voltage is likely to be available from the battery of an electric vehicle also known as Mild
hybrid?
a) 12V
b) 24V
c) 300V
d) 100V
3. The MHEV system consists of which volt?
a) 12V
b) 24V
c) 48V
d) none of the above.
4. world's first commercially mass-produced and marketed hybrid automobile was the Toyota Prius. It
became available on the Japanese market in what year?
A 1998
B. 1996
C. 1997
D 1999
5. Hybrid vehicles convert energy that is normally lost through braking into electrical energy. What is
the term that is used for this recycling of energy?
A Perpetual motion
B Regenerative breaking
C. Kinetic conversation
D. Hybrid archamy
6. First mass produced hybrid vehicle internationally is.....................
1) Tesla model X.
2) Mahindra e2o.
3) Toyota Prius.
4) Ford GT.
7. The first vehicle with hybrid technology was developed by........
1) Ferdinand Porsche.
2) Thomas Edison.
 3) Isaac Newton.
4) Alexander Graham Bell.
8. Which of the following is not an advantage of hybrid vehicles.
1) Environmentally friendly.
2) Initial cost is low.
3) Better mileage.
4) Higher energy conservation.
9. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of hybrid vehicles?
1) You will not get as many discounts or incentives as you will get with electric vehicles.
2) They aren't as powerful.
3) Lower mileage and higher emissions.
4) They are not exempted from tax.
10. Which of the following is not the type of hybrid vehicle?
a) Plug in hybrid
b) Parallel hybrid
c) Natural gas for vehicle
d) Series hybrid
11. Regenerative braking involves :
a) Nano fibers that repair the surface of brake pads
b) Reducing the amount of friction
c) Reclaiming heat from the brake and using it for power
d) All of the above
12. What purpose does a generator serve in a hybrid vehicle?

(a) It converts nuclear energy 6more nuclear energy.

(b) It converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
(c) It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
(d) It converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
13.______ technology helps to stop a combustion engine when the vehicle pulls to a stop and
restart it when driver accelerates.

• Start stop technology

• Passive braking technology
• Regenerative braking technology
• Internal cooling technology
14. _______ what does MHEV stands for
• Mild hybrid electric vehicle
• Micro hybrid electric vehicle
• Mild horsepower electric vehicle
• Micro horsepower electric vehicle
14. The electric motor in hybrid car can also act as_____
• A generator
• A Fuel pump
• Cooling fan
• Compressor
14. The full form of the BAHV'
. A) Battery assisted hybrid vehicle.
B) Battery proxy hybrid vehicle.
C) Battery assist hydro vehicle.
D) Nonn off the above.
17. The BAS mild hybrid system used………. To start the internal combustion engine.
a. Belt drive
b. Chain drive
c. Direct drive
d. None of the above.
18. The electric motor in a mild hybrid is acting as a
a. Power booster
b. Hydro boost
c. Buffalo power booster
d. Booster plug
19. In vehicle energy is stored in an auxiliary battery and then it is used to quickly
start a vehicle
a) Full hybrid b) Micro hybrid
c) Series hybrid d) Mild hybrid
20.In which vehicle system lowest size of a battery is used
a) Micro hybrid b) Mild hybrid
c) Series hybrid d) Parallel hybrid
7. In which vehicle system bigger size of a battery is used
a) Micro hybrid b) Mild hybrid
c) Series hybrid d) Full hybrid
21. Following is not type of hybrid electric vehicle.
A) Series
B) Parallel
C) Vertical
D) Complex
22. In parallel hybrid vehicle Internal Combustion Engine and electric motor are coupled by a
…………………..device.
a. Hydraulic
b. Pneumatic
c. Mechanical
d. Electric
23. The combustion engine can operate in ……….. RPM range, even as a car change a speed.
a. Moderate
b. Wide
c. Narrow
d. None of the above
24. In this configuration, efforts are made to operate the electric motor alone at....................... and
ICE alone at...................
a) medium speed and lower speed.
b) higher speed and lower speed
c) higher speed and medium speed
d) lower speed and higher speed
25. Full form of CVT
a) continuously variation transform
 b) continue various transmission
c) continuously various transformation
d) continuously variable transmission
26. Full form of ICE
a) Internal continuous engine
b) Internal combination engine
c) internal continue emission
d) none of the above
27. Full form of PEM in fuel cell
a) petrol-exchange membrane
b) proton-execute membrane
c) proton-exchange membrane
d) petrol-execute membrane
28. Which vehicles do not require the same level of battery power and do not achieve the same
levels of fuel economy
a) Mild Hybrid
b) Full Hybrid
c) Series Hybrid
d) Parallel Hybrid
29. What does PHEV stands for
a) Plug-in Hybrid Electronic Vehicles
b) Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicles
c) Plug-out Hybrid Electronic Vehicles
d) Plug-out Hybrid Electric Vehicles
30. Which of these is the purpose of power-split device
a) To split Electrical Energy into Mechanical Energy.
b) To allow both the engine and Electric motor to propel the vehicle
c) To recharge the battery while braking
d) To recharge the brakes while driving
31. A Hybrid Vehicle equipped with push button start will enter the power ON mode but will
not enter the ready to drive mode .No diagnostic trouble code are stored this could cause by a)
The high voltage safety plug is removed
b) A failed brake on/off switch
c) An empty fuel tank
d) A disconnect 12v battery
32. The MIL is illuminated and a battery module deterioration diagnostic trouble code is stored
the most like cause is a failed by
a) High voltage battery
b) High voltage inverter
c) Motor/ generator
d) DC/ DC converter
33. A conventional vehicle costs 10 to 15 percent per mile in fuel to operate. How much does an
electric vehicle cost per mile?
• 2 to 4 cents
• 5 to 6 cents
• 7 to 8 cents
• 9 to 10 cents
34. The strategic petroleum reserve was created to lower oil prices during supply disruptions .How
much did the US spend to build and fill the SPR?
• $980 billion
• $2 million
• $4.5 billion
• $22 billion
35. Current levels of off-peak electric capacity are sufficient to power how much of our nations car
and light-duty truck fleet?
• 19%
• 33%
• 55%
• 73%
36. Which of these is the purpose of the power-split device?
• To split electrical energy into mechanical energy
• To allow both the engine and electric motor to propel the vehicle
• To recharge the battery while braking 37. The electric cars available in india are:
A . Hyndai Kona Electic
B. Mahindra E20
C . Tata tigor EV 2019
D. All of the above
38. The following companies have launched electric motor cycles in india :
39. A . revolt
B . hero
C . Yamaha
D . all of the above
40. India’s first electric bus was launched in ............... in 2014.
A . Chennai
B . Mumbai
C . Gujarat
D . Banglore
41. Ashok Leyland launched its electric bus in..............
A . oct 2015
B . oct 2016
C . april 2016
D . april 2015
42. SMEV stands for .............................................................................
A . society of manufacturing of ergonic volts
B . society of manufacturing of electronic vehicles
C . society of manufacturing of environment vehicles
D D . society of manufacturing of electric vehicles
E 42. Society of Indian automobile manufactures:
A . SMEV
B . VMCV
C . SEMV D . SSEV
43.. There is main reason for which the automotive manufacturers are developing and selling HEVs.
A. Reduction of Co2 emission.
B. Direction of exhaust gas toxic emission.
C. Improvement of powertrain dynamics
D. All of the above

1.2 E- Vehical
44. Who is the largest manufacturer of lithium batteries?
A] Us giga factory
B] Samsung solco
C] Panasonic
D] Toshiba
45. How many km can an electric car go?
A] 500 Km
B] 700 km
C] 450 km
D] 100km
46. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
A] nickel-cadmium battery
B] zinc-carbon battery
C] lead-acid battery
D] None of the above
47. The output voltage of a charger is A]
less than the battery voltage
B] Higher than the battery voltage
C] The same as the battery voltage
D] None of the above
48. What is the challenge with electric vehicles?
A] Vehicle durability
B] Cell life
C] Cost
D] Both A and B
49. What is the life of battery in an electric car ?
A] 8 year
B] 10 year
C] 4 year
D] 20 year
50. What type of battery is used in an electric car?
A] Lithium ion
B] Nickel -metal hydride
C] Both A and B
D] None of the above
51. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
A ampere per hour
B current
C volt
D ampere
52. Life of a battery in the electric vehicle is about
A 8 years
B 5 years
C 10 years
D 20 years
53. Who was the inventor of electric batteries in electric cars
A Thomas Davenport
B newton
C Dr Abdul kalam
D Nikola tesla
54. How much time it takes for a electric car of 60kWh battery to charge
1. 5 hours
2. 8 hours
3. 6-7 hours
4. None of above
55. Advantages of lithium batteries
1. Light weight
2. Compact
3. Low maintenance
4. All of the above
56. How many volts it take to charge an electric car?
1. 140 2. 150
3. 120
4. 200
57. How many known modes of charging of EVs are available
1. 3 2. 2 3. 4
4. 1
58. Which from the listed are fuel cells
1. SOFC
2. MCFC
3. PAFC
4. ALL OF THE ABOVE
59. Modern lithium ion batteries provide average range of
• 120-280 kilometres
• 320-480 kilometres
• 520-680 kilometres
• 720-980 kilometres
60. The electrolyte used in sodium nickel chloride batteries is
• Sodium chloride
• Tetra chloraluminate
• Sodium bicarbonate
• Sodium glutamate
61. Average temperature of electrolyte in sodium nickel chloride batteries
• 100 to 200 degree Celsius
• 270 to 350 degree Celsius
• 380 to 410 degree Celsius
• None of the above
62. Average lifespan of sodium nickel chloride batteries
• 5 years
• 10 years
• 15 years
• 20 years
63. Sodium nickel chloride batteries are also called as
• Horse
• Zebra
• Cobra
• Turbo
64. What are the various types of batteries used in electric vehicles
• Lithium ion batteries
• Sodium nickel chloride batteries
• Sodium sulphor batteries
• All of the above
65. Sodium sulphur battery is a type of molten-salt battery constructed from _____ sodium and
sulphur.
• Solid
• Liquid
• Plasma
• Gases
66. The following is the operating temperatures of the sodium –sulphur battery.
• 400 to 600°C
• 1000 to 1500°C
• 300 to 350°C
• 100 to 200°C
67. The cell is usually ____ in shape.
• Triangular
• Circular
• Rectangular
• Cylindrical
68. Entire cell is enclosed by a steel casing that is protected usually by _____ and _____.
• Nickel, chromium
• Chromium, molybdenum
• Aluminium, molybdenum
• Nickel, aluminium
69. Full form of BASE is _____.
• Basic Analysis and Security Engine.
• Biefield Academic Search Engine.
• Basel Agency for Sustainable Energy.
• Beta-Aluminium Solid Electrolyte.
70. The sulphur in sulphur sodium battery is absorbed by___ sponge.
• Sodium
• Carbon
• Wire
• Cellulose
71. Which of the following is not the name of charging station?
• Electric vehicle charging station
• EVSE
• ECS
• ESSV
 72. The charging time depends on which of the following factor?
• Battery size
• Battery capacity  Size of vehicle
• Voltage of batery
73. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
A. Current rating
B. Voltage rating
C. Ampere hour rating
D. None of the above
74. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
A. Nickel-cadmium battery
B. Zinc carbon battery
C. Lead-acid battery
D. None of the above
75. Trickle charger of a storage battery helps to
A. Maintain proper electrolyte level
B. Increase its reverse capacity
C. Prevent sulphation
D. Keep it fresh and fully charged
76. On over charging a battery
A. It will bring about chemical change in active materials
B. It will increase the capacity of the battery
C. It will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
D. None of the above
77. Battery container should be acid resistance therefore it is made up of
A. Glass
B. Plastic
C. Wood
D. All of the above
78. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
A. Excessive gassing will occur
B. Temperature rise will occur
C. Bulging and buckling of plates we occur
D. All of the above
79. To prevent local action in battery, only …………is used in electrolytes
A. Pump water
B. Distilled water
C. Tap water
D. Both A and C
80. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on ……….hours discharge rate
A. 8
B. 12 C. 16
D. 24
81. Lithium cells operates ranging from
a. -25 ° C to 25 ° C
b. -50 ° C to 25 ° C
c. -50 ° C to 75 ° C
d. -75 ° C to 75 ° C
82. The positive plates of nickel iron cell is made up of
a. Nickel hydroxide
b. Lead peroxide
c. Ferrous hydroxide
d. Potassium hydroxide
83. In lead acid accumulators, the container is filled with distilled water and concentrated
sulphuric acid in the ratio of a. 1 : 2
b. 2 : 1
c. 3 : 1
d. 1 : 3
84. The emf of the dry cell is about
a. 0 V
b. 0.5 V
c. 1 V
d. 1.5 V
85. In cell, the current flows in outer circuit from
a. Positive terminal to negative terminal and electrons from negative terminal to positive terminal
b. Positive terminal to negative terminal and electrons from positive terminal to negative terminal
c. Negative terminal to positive terminal and electrons from negative terminal to positive terminal
d. Negative terminal to positive terminal and electrons from positive terminal to negative terminal
86. Which of the following battery is used for aircraft?
A. Lead acid battery
B. Nickel-iron battery
C. Dry cell battery
D. Silver oxide battery
87. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
A. They have same emf
B. They have same make
C. They have same ampere hour capacity
D. They have identical internal resistance
88. The electrode for a battery must be
A. A semi conductor
B. An insulator
C. A good conductor of electricity
D. A bad conductor of electricity
89. A dead storage battery can be revived by
A. Adding distilled water
B. Adding so-called battery restorer
C. A dose of H2SO4
D. None of the above
90. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon A. Its chemical
constituents
B. On the strength of its electrolyte
C. Its temperature
D. All of the above
91. Each cell has a vent cap
A. To allow gases out when the cell is on charge
B. To add water to the cell if needed
 C. To check the level of electrolyte
D. To do all above functions
92. What is one of the primary downsides of fuel cells?
A. Weight
B. Cost
C. Pollution
D. Maintenance
93. A fuel cells converts ………energy into electrical energy
A. Mechanical
B. Magnetic
C. Solar
D. Chemical
94. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
A. Manganese-alkaline
B. Carbon-zinc
C. Lithium
D. Mercury
95. Which of these is a problem electric car makers are trying to solve?
A. Electric cars aren't noisy enough.
B. They don't produce enough sulphur dioxides.
C. They don't cost enough.
96. Identify incorrect statement of Electric vehicle
A. Insufficient charging stations
B. Long charging period
C. Limited range
D. High operating cost
97. Which vehicle has the smallest number of principle components?
A. Traditional vehicle
B. Hybrid vehicle
C. Electric vehicle
D. Both A and B
98. Which of the following vehicles produces zero emissions?
A. Traditional
B. Hybrid
C. Electric
D. Both A and B
99. How long does an electric car battery lasts per charge?
A. 20 min.-10hr. B. 30min.-12hr.
C. 40min.-9hr. D. 60min.-8hr.
100. What is the life span of electric car batteries?
101. A. 8 Year B. 10 years. C. 9 years D.
11 years.
102. Which electric vehicle has 30 kwh and 160 km range?
A. Nissan leaf B. Ford focus
C. Mitsubishi MiE5 D. Smart ED
102. Which is the modified form of batteries in today’s electronic cars?
A. Lithium ion B. Nickel iron
C. Lead Acid D. Sodium Nitrate
 103. How to increase the range on electric vehicles?
a. By increasing the battery capacity.
b. By reducing battery capacity.
c. By installing a turbocharger.
d. By installing another DC motor.
104. Inverter cell anode and cathode of the…………. cell is used for vehicle
(a) Copper electrode zinc
(b) Zinc copper
(c) Aluminium zinc
(d) Nickel Cobalt
105.The positive plants of nickel iron cell is made up of
a. Nickel hydroxide
b. Lead peroxide
c. Ferrous hydroxide
d. Potassium hydroxide
106. A stable interface between solid _________ liquid ____________ and gaseous ___________
promotes high rate of electrode processes. a) Fuel, electrolyte, electrode
b) Electrode, fuel, electrolyte
c) Electrode, electrolyte, fuel
d) Fuel, electrode, electrolyte
107. Which of the following is not an example of a fuel cell?
a) Hydrogen-oxygen cell
b) Methyl-oxygen-alcohol cell
c) Propane-oxygen cell
d) Hexanone-oxygen cell
108. The electrolytic solution used in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is ____________
a) 75% KOH solution
b) 25% KOH solution
c) 75% NaOH solution
d) 25% NaOH solution
109. The residual product discharged by the hydrogen-oxygen cell is ____________
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Alcohol
c) Water
d) Potassium permanganate

1.3 Safety in Automobile

110. By what percentage do seatbelts reduce the risk of death for a person sitting in front seat?
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 70%
111. Where do typical car seat belts apply most of the stopping force?
a) To the shoulder and hips
b) To the chest and abdomen
c) To the rib cage and pelvis
d) To the head and legs
 112. What area of car is designed to deform in a collision?
a) The crumple zone
b) The interior
c) The doors
d) The rear end
113. What’s the primary advantage of a anti- lock braking system
a) They allow you to stop easier
b) They prevent locking
c) They allow you to steer while braking
114. Tempered safety glass is how many times stronger than regular glass
a) 1 to 3 times stronger
b) 5 to 10 times stronger
c) 3 to 5 times stronger
115. By what percentage can airbags reduce the risk of dying in a direct frontal crash?
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
116. What kind of gas inflates in an airbag
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Helium
d) Nitrogen
117. How far behind the steering wheel should you sit to avoid injury from an inflated airbag? a)
8 inches
b) 5 inches
c) 10 inches
d) 13 inches
118. What are the requirements for a child to sit in a forward facing child seat?
a) He or she should weigh 10 to 15 pounds
b) He or she should weigh 13 to 15 pounds
c) He or she should weigh 15 to 18 pounds
d) He or she should weigh 20 pounds or more 119. When is a child ready
to use an adult seat belt?
a) When they’re around 4 feet,9 inches tall
b) When they’re around 3 feet,5 inches tall
c) When they’re around 4 feet,5 inches tall
d) When they’re around 3 feet,9 inches tall
120. What does airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Sodium azide C. Sodium nitrite
D. Sodium peroxide
121. What year did the government mandate driver's side airbags?
A. 1989
B. 1996
C. 2001
D. The government has never mandated it.
122. Cruise control is used in which vehicles
 A. Road vehicles
B. water vehicles
C. aeroplane
D. bus
123. Adaptive cruise control is used to adjust _of vehicle
A. speed
B. direction
C. magnitude
D. light
124. Adaptive cruise control system uses _
A. all of the below
B. laser sensor
C. radar sensor
D. camera setup
125. Autonomous cruise control are considered a _ car
A. level 1
B. level 2
C. Level 3
D. level 4
126.____________Introduced laser 'preview distance control'
A Mitsubishi Diamante
B BMW
C Toyota
D Mercedes
127. Toyota offered a _____________ cruise control
A lazer
B radar
C camera
D all of the above
128. What was based system do not detect and dark vehicles in adverse weather
A laser
B camera
C phone
D laptop
128. If the impulse response in absolutely integrate then the system is
(a) Absolutely stable
(b) Unstable
(C) Linear
(d) Stable
129. Asymptotic stability is connected with:
(a) A system under influence of input.
(b) A system not under influence of input.
(c) A system under influence of input.
(d) A system not under influence out.
130. If root of the characteristics equation has positive real part system is
(a) Stable
(b) Unstable
(C) Marginally stable
 (d) Linear
131. ________ is a quantitative measure of how fair the transients die cut in the system. (a)
Absolutely stable
(b) Conditionally stable
(c) Unstable
(d) Relative stability
132. A controller essentially is a
A. Sensor
B. Clipper
C. Comparator
D. Amplifier
133. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle the kinetic energy is converted to
A. Mechanical energy
B. Heat energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Potential energy
134. The force required to stop a vehicle is dependent on A. The weight of vehicle
B. The declaration rate
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
135. Handbrake is applicable to A. Only front wheels
B. Only rear wheels
C. Both front and rear wheel. D. All of the above.
136. The power brake may be exerted by
137. A. Electrical energy
B. Engine vacuum
C. Air pressure
D. All of the above
138. What does air bags, used for safety of car driver contain?
1.sodium bicarbonate.
2.sodium azide
3.sodium nitrate
4.sodium peroxide
139. Which country first use in air bags for aerospace industry.
1.Iindia
2.U.S
3. China.
4.Pakistan
140. Which spacecraft landing first use in air bags.
1.luna 9 and Luna 13.
2.luna 10 and luna 12
3.luna 11 and luna 4
4.luna 16 and luna 18
141. First used in pedestrian air bags.
1. Volvo v50
2. Volvo v60
 3.volvo v40.
4. Volvo v70
142. Who invented air bags in Japan.
1.Yasuzaburou kanka.
2. Yasuzaburou kobori
3. Varun Khatri.
4. Saurabh zombie
143. The time between the collision of two aircraft on a collision course is called_______
a) Differential time b) Tau
c) Traffic Time d) Collision Time
143.What is the surveillance range of a general TCS system?
a) 30 sec b) 20min
c) 2 min d) 4 min
144. Anti-collision system is also known as ______
a) Collision Avoidance System b) Pre-crash System
c) Collision Mitigation system d) Forward collision warning system
e) All of the above
145. In India, Autonomous Emergency Braking system (AEB) could become mandatory on new cars
by________
a) 2020 b) 2024
c) 2022 d) 2026
146. A 2015 study based on European and Australasian data suggests the AEB can decrease rear end
collisions by_____%
a) 40%. b) 38%
c) 24%. d) 56%
147. What is adaptive cruise control?
1. Adaptive cruise control is a safety and comfort providing technology in
automobile
2. Adaptive cruise control is automatic car driving technology
3. Adaptive cruise control is fast car driving technology 4. Adaptive cruise
control is slow car driving technology 148. When was cruise control invented?
1. 1945 2.
1948 3.
1952 4.
1961
149. Purpose of inventing Adaptive cruise control?
1. To reduce accident
2. To increase efficiency of automobile
3. To increase driving comfort
4. To invent new driving technology
150. Demerits of Adaptive cruise control?
1. System may fail
2. This system do not work on wet surface well
3. Not effective in bad weather
4. All of the above
Chapter 2: Process Engineering

2.1 Process Boilers

1] A boiler is a device used to create steam by applying __________to water
a) Light energy b) heat energy
c) Wind energy d) mechanical energy
2] Process boiler is a type of boiler with a capacity of ____________Buts per hour
a) 200,000 b) 300,000
c) 400,000 d) 50,000
3]_________is the most widely used media in distribution of heat over distance in industries
a) Steam b) light
c) Springs c) water
4] The temperature and pressure in saturated stem has__________relationship
a) Direct b) indirect
c) Neither of above d) both a and b
5] What should be the temperature of feed water?
a) 120 c b) 80oc
c) 500c d) none of above
6] For caring the heat efficiently the steam must be__________
a) dry b) wet
c) saturated d) none of above
9] What happens when air dissolves in condensate?
a) non corrosive b) temperature of air increases
c) corrosive d) none of above
7]_____________is used to release condensate in pipe work
a) steam trap b) valves
c) power generators d) none of above

8. Water tube boilers are those in which

a) Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
b) Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
c) Work is done during adiabatic expansion
d) Change is enthalpy
9. Fire tube boilers are those in which
a) Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
b) Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
c) Work is done during adiabatic expansion
d) Change is enthalpy
10. Size of boiler tubes is specified by
a) Mean diameter and thickness
b) Inside diameter and thickness
c) Outside diameter and thickness
d) Outside diameter and inside diameter
11. Cochran boiler is a
a) Horizontal fire tube boiler
b) Horizontal water tube boiler
c) Vertical water tube type
 d) Vertical fire tube type
12. Locomotive boiler has
a) 137 fire tubes and 44 superheated tubes
b) 147 fire tubes and 34 superheated tubes
c) 157 fire tubes and 24 superheated tubes
d) 167 fire tubes and 14 superheated tubes
13. Water tube boilers produces steam at a________ pressure than that of fire tube boilers.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same
d) None of the above
14. The biggest loss in the boiler is
a) Moisture in fuel
b) Dry flue gases
c) Steam formation
d) Unburnt carbon
15. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a ___________
a) Chimney
b) Centrifugal fan
c) Steam jet
d) All of the above
16. The draught may be produced by a_________
a) Chimney
b) Mechanical fan
c) Steam jet
d) All of the above
17. The efficiency of the plant _____ with the mechanical draught
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain constant
d) None of the above
18. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam.......
A]Locomotive boiler.
B]Lancashire boiler
C]Cornish boiler
D]Babcock and wilcox boiler
19. Which of the following is a water tube boiler........
A]Locomotive boiler
B]Lancashire boiler
C]Cornish boiler
D]Babcock and wilcox boiler
20. The economiser is used in boilers to........
21. A]Increase thermal efficiency of boiler
B]Economise on fuel
C]Extract heat from the exhaust the gases
D]Increase flue gas temperature
22. An economiser in a boiler........
A]Increases steam pressure.
 B]Increases steam flow
C]Decreases fuel consumption
D]Decreases steam pressure
22.In a condensation process, _______ to _________
A] Gas, Solid
B] Gas, Liquid
C] Liquid, Gas
D] Liquid, Solid
23. When vapour is compressed isothermally the ____________ changes.
A] Volume. B]
Pressure
C] Temperature
D] None of the mentioned
24.Condensation starts ________ point.
A] Dew point
B] Bubble point
C] Triple point
D] None of the mentioned
25. When gas changes to liquid through the process of condensation, the temperature
A] Increases.
B] Decreases
C] Remains constant.
D] None of the mentioned
26.When vapour is cooled at constant total system volume, the _______ changes.
A] Volume.
B] Pressure C]
Temperature.
D] None of the mentioned
27. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam.......
A locomotive boiler. B Lancashire boiler
C Cornish boiler D Babcock and wilcox boiler
28. Boiler efficiency is a measure of how effectively _______ energy in fuel is converted into
heat energy in steam going to the turbines
A Chemical energy B Heat energy
C Thermal energy D All of the above
10. A _______ incorporates a firebox or furnace in order to burn the fuel and generate heat.
A Steam B
Boiler C Hydrogen D
None
29. The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are _______
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Inclined
d. All of the above
30. The diameter of fine tubes in Cochran boiler is of order of _______
a. 2cm
b. 6cm
c. 8cm
 d. 15cm
1.2 Introduction to ultra-supercritical boiler
130. A supercritical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and temperature of following
values
a) 100 kg/cm² and 540°C
b) 1 kg/cm² and 100°C
c) 218 kg/cm² abs and 373°C
d) 218 kg/cm² abs and 540°C
131. Steam is generated in a _____ boiler at a pressure above the critical point.
a) Simple
b) once through
c) Superficial
d) thrice through
132. Apart from feed heating, what should a plant have to obtain a gain in thermal efficiency? a)
Lubrication
b) Differential heating
c) Reheating cycles
d) Regenerative cycles
133. What is the critical point of steam generation in a “once through” boiler?
a) 221.5 bar
b) 221.4 bar
c) 221.3 bar
d) 221.2 bar
134. In a typical layout of a 215MW reheat power plant, the feed in the boiler is at?
a) 280 degree Centigrade
b) 230 degree Centigrade
c) 238 degree Centigrade
d) 250 degree Centigrade
135. The input to the low pressure feed water heater is from?
a) Drain heater
b) Drain cooler
c) Drain pipe
d) None of the mentioned
136. In which year was Benson boiler was invented?
a) 1918
b) 1920
c) 1921
d) 1922
137. What type of boiler is a Benson boiler?
a) Super critical boiler
b) Fire tube boiler
c) Natural circulation boiler
d) Over-through boiler
138. What is the capacity of Benson boiler?
a) 180 tonnes/hr & above
b) 150 tonnes/hr & above
c) 250 tonnes/hr & above
d) 300 tonnes/hr & above
 139. What is the major disadvantage of the Benson boilers?
a) Boiler is big in size
b) Has large storage capacity
c) Deposition of salts
d) Bubble formation
140.The increment in thermal efficiency compared to the corresponding Subcritical cycle is gained at the expanse
of? a) compactness of the plant
b) simplicity of the plant
c) complexity of the plant
d) expanse of the plant
141. The input to the low pressure feedwater heater is from?
a) Drain heater
b) Drain cooler
c) Drain pipe
d) None of the mentioned
142. Supercritical boiler generate___ to ___pressure.
a) 22Mpa to 25Mpa
b) 28Mpa to 20Mpa
c) 23Mpa to 27Mpa
d) 25Mpa to 28Mpa
143. supercritical boiler are use of…………..
A. Thermal power. B. Electric power
C. Solar power. D. Steam power
144. Which type of boiler is used critical pressure………..
A. Benson boiler. B. Water tube boiler.
C. Fire tube. D. Steam boiler
145. Who patent design for boiler.
A. Mark Benson. B. Mark Zuckerberg
C. Newton. D. C.N. Rao
145. Which of the following needs to be incorporated to prevent the low pressure turbine
exhaust wetness from being excessive? a) Double regeneration
b) Double carbonization
c) Double reheat
d) Double cooling
146. A ultra-super critical boiler operates at……
d) 720°
157. A ultra-super critical boiler generates less emission per……of power output.
a) Kilowatt
b) Watt
c) Megawatt
d) Metric horse power
158. A ultra-super critical boiler was developed in the US in …….
a) 1950s
b) 1970s
c) 1960s
d) 1940s
159. Philo unit 6 in ohio was built by …….
a) Thomas Savery
 b) Denis Papin
c) Thomas Edison
d) Babcock and Wilcox
160. If ……. has a future, then ultra-super critical boiler will be the key.
a) Coal
b) Fossil fuels
c) Natural gas
d) Oil
161. A ultra-super critical boiler technology is today the option of choice for most new…….
fired power stations.
a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Biogas
d) Oil
162. In ultra-super critical boiler technology the units run at about ……. efficiency.
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 55%
d) 45%
163. Yuhuan has ……. first 1000MW ultra-super critical pressure boiler.
a) America
b) China
c) India
d) Russia
164. Which type of generator is a type of boiler that at maximum critical pressure frequently
used in the production of electric power.
a. Supercritical boiler
b. High pressure boiler
c. Low pressure boiler
d. None
165. Ultra supercritical boilers are mostly used in ______.
a. Petrochemical industries
b. Coal industries
c. Textile industries
d. none
166. Supercritical is ___% efficient than subcritical boiler.
a. 42-47
b. 50-55
c. 32-38
d. More than 60
167. Find false statement
a. Tube of supercritical boilers are self-supporting
b. Corners are easy to form
c. Uniform heating of water takes place in supercritical boiler occurs d. All
168. State disadvantage of Supercritical boiler.
a. Corrosion problem
b. Setting of material in feed lines can produce explosions
c. Leakage problem
d. All
169. What type of boiler is supercritical boiler
a. Drum type
b. Once through type
c. Both
d. None
170. A ultra-supercritical steam generator operates at pressures above the critical pressure- a.
2400 psi
b. 1500 psi
c. 3200 psi
d. 4600 psi
171. The point of ultra-supercritical steam generator is to save on coal to heat the water and
reduce ________ emissions.
a. Oxygen (O2)
b. Water (H2O)
c. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
d. Both ‘a’ and ‘c’
172. Because less coal is consumed in this system, emissions of ______ and particulate and
solid waste by products are reduced.
a. Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
b. Nitrogen oxide (NOx)
c. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
d. All of the above.
173. Higher plant efficiency up to______ over the entire load range.
a. 30%-50%
b. 20%-40%
c. 60%-90%
d. 50%-80%
174. The world’s first boiler using supercritical technology was introduced by “B&W” in
______ a. 1948
b. 1936
c. 1928
d. 1957
175. The thermal efficiency of a Watt’s Beam Engine is about?
a) 50%
b) 100%
c) 5%
d) 2%
176. Among which locomotive steam engines have the highest efficiency?
a) 1 MW
b) 2 MW
c) 30 MW
d) 660 MW

2.3 Hyperbolic Cooling towers

177. Which of the following is the simplest method of cooling the condenser water?
A] Spray cooling pond
B] Cooling tower
C] Indirect air cooling
D] Hyperbolic cooling tower
178. Open cooling system is also called as ____________
A] parallel system
B] once through system C]air based system.

202. In which type of cooling pond system are nozzles arranged on same elevation?
a. Single deck system
b. Double deck system
c. Natural flow system
d. Direct flow system
203. What are used in the direct flow system to transfer the pond batch uniting at intake?
a. Separators
b. Filters
c. Baffle walls
d. Porous pipes
204. What type of cooling system is used in the large power plants?
a. Cooling ponds
b. Natural flow system
c. Cooling towers
d. Single deck system
205. How is water circulated throughout the dry cooling tower system?
a. Finned tubes
b. Metal pipes
c. Porous tubes
d. Swifting tubes
206. Which of the following gives out highest pollutants to the atmosphere
1 cooling tower
2 water tower
3 steam tower
4 fire tower
210. What come out from the the cooling tower of a nuclear power plant
1 smoke
2 cool air
3 hot air
4 none of theses
211. What are built to cool down the cooling water in a power plant
1 Towers
2 Cooling pond
3 Air filter
4 non of these
212. What are present depend on cooling tower building material as well
1 pollution
2 population
3 dust
4 none of these
213. Why is exhaust system coming out of the turbine is admitted to a steam header
 1 to increase the pressure
2 to increase the velocity
3 to decrease the pressure
4 to increase the velocity
214. Which of the following is a fissile fuel
1 carbon
2 potassium
3 thorium
4 graphite
215. How is air produced in mechanical cooling tower
1 air fan
2 propeller fans
3 air blowers
4 propeller blowers
216. _______ cooling towers use a process similar to the one found in small evaporative cooling
units.
a. Hyperboloid
b. Tower
c. Condensate loop
d. None
217. Hyperboloid cooling towers have become the design standard for all _______draft cooling
towers because of their structural strength and minimum usage of material.
a. Natural
b. Induce
c. Force
d. None
218. The hyperboloid shape also aids in accelerating the upward convective air flow, improving
__________ efficiency.
a. Heating
b. Warming
c. Cooling
d. Cold
219. The __________ that are present depend on cooling tower building material, as well.
Cooling towers are built of concrete, wood, plastic or metal.
a. Heat
b. Pollutants
c. Cold
d. All of Above
220. There are _______main types of cooling towers that are defined by how water or air passes
through them.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
221. A ______ is a specialized heat exchanger in which air and water are brought into direct
contact with each other in order to reduce the water's temperature.
a. Cooling tower
b. Heating tower
 c. Both
d. All are wrong
222. How can we increase the efficiency of a cooling tower?
a. Save energy.
b. Reduce the amount of water being consumed.
c. Decrease the amount of chemicals required for water treatment.
d. All of above
223. There are two huge cooling towers close to building site of reactor __ and __ of the
Chernobyl Power Plant.
a. 1&3
b. 4&5
c. 2&5
d. 1&4
224. Cooling towers vary in size from small roof-top units to very large hyperboloid structures
that can be up to ____ meters tall and _____ meters in diameter, or rectangular structures
that can be over 40 meters tall and 80 meters long.
a. 200&100
b. 100&50
c. 200&50
d. 200 &150
225. How do you service a cooling tower?
• Ensure Proper Airflow.
• Clean Your Tubes.
• Inspect the Water Pump.
• All of above
226. The hyperboloid shape also aids in accelerating the upward convective air flow, improving
________ efficiency.
• Performance
• Cooling
• Heating
• All of the above
226. __________ Cooling towers have become the design standard for all natural-draft cooling
towers because of their structural strength and minimum usage of material.
• HCT
• CCT
• Hyperboloid
• None
226. The pollutants that are present depend on __________ building material, as well.
• Cooling tower
• Water tower
• Steam tower
• Fire tower
226. The presence of these pollutants can cause a series of problems. The main problems that are
caused______
• are fouling,
• limestone formation,
• corrosion and biological
• All of the above
 226. Most cooling towers are capacity rated at a "standard" wet bulb temperature of ___of
• 72°F
• 52°F
• 78°F
• 75°F
231. When sizing a cooling tower the highest anticipate__________ should be used?
• Dry bulb
• Wet bulb
• Both dry and wet bulb
• None of the above
232. In ________ cooling tower there is no direct contact between the water and Air.
• Dry type
• Evaporative type
• Once through
• All of the above
233. In cooling tower ,higher temperature __________ corrosion potential
• Decrease
• Increase
• Temperature has no effect on corrosion
234. Which of the following faction affect the cooling tower performance?
• The range
• Heat load
• Wet bulb temperature
• All of the above
235. In which system is Cooling of hot water is done on tray as step by?
a) Mechanical draught cooling system
b) Hyperbolic cooling tower
c) Atmospheric cooling tower
d) Wet cooling tower
236. How does the flow of air occur in natural draught cooling towers?
a) Natural pressure head density between cold outside air and humid inside air
b) Variation in pressure of both cold outside air and humid inside air
c) Due to the given air vents and vacuum ports
d) Because of difference in the volume of both the of airs
237. The first hyperboloid shaped cooling tower was introduced by the Dutch engineers
Frederik van Iterson and Gerard Kuypers and built in ………..
a) 1918 c) 1919
b) 1870 d) 1920
238.Hyperbolic cooling towers are made up of high height reinforced ………structure.
a) plastic c) metal
b) alloy d) concrete
239. The hyperbolic cooling towers are associated with ……. and …….. power plants.
a) electrical, thermal c) thermal, nuclear
b) nuclear, electrical d) none of above
240. Wind is the prime lateral load and its combination with self-weight of the tower shell can cause
the buckling instability leading to …………….failure.
a) polytropic c) catastrophic
b) both a) & b) d) none of above
241. Cooling efficiency of a cooling tower is significantly affected under cross-wind condition and
might decrease to……… in the range of moderate to high wind velocity condition.
a) 50% c) 25%
b) 75% d) 90%
242. The ……….-induced response of cooling tower is the key factor to improve safety and to
reduce tower crack.
a) wind c) heat
b) water d) steam
243. Wind load analysis can be performed following methods.
a) experiments wind pressure coefficient
b) shape factors
c) wind-induced vibration coefficient
d) all of above
244. The ………..used to improve the stability of the total structure HCT.
a) concrete material c) wind properties
b) stiffening rings d) functional structure
245. For achieving maximum buckling stability use………….parameters.
a) location c) quantity
b) dimensions d) All of above
246. Natural draft cooling towers are mainly used in the _____.
• Steel industry
• Fertilizer industry
• Alumina industry
• Power stations

312. Capillary wick is a part of

a) heat pump
b) heat wheel
c) heat pipe
d) regenerator
313. Economizer is provided to utilize the flue gas heat for ___
a) preheating the boiler feed water
b) preheating the stock
c) preheating the combustion air
d) preheating fuel
314. Recovery of waste heat from hot fluid to fluid is called:
a) thermo compressor
b) waste heat recovery boiler
c) heat Pump
d) economizer
315. Thermo-compressor is commonly used for
a) compressing hot air
b) flash steam recovery
c) distillation
d) reverse compression of CO2
316. The exchanger typically used in the pressurizing section of a dairy plant is
a) Plate heat exchanger
b) Shell and tube exchanger
c) Run around coil exchanger
d) All of the above
317. Pick up the odd one out:
b) Regenerator
c) Recuperator
d) Metallic recuperator
e) Economiser
318. Energy recovery is typically via production of ____ a) Gas
b) Heat
c) Light
d) Steam
319.What is the maximum percent of energy recovered if the steam is condensed before
reintroduced to system? a) 25
b) 35
c) 45
d) 55
320. Which of the following industrial process uses waste as a fuel?
a) Cement kilns
b) Lead manufacturing
c) Acid manufacturing
d) Sulphur manufacturing
321. What is the combustion temperature range in cement kiln incineration?
a) 1300-1600
b) 1350-1650
c) 1250-1450
d) 1235-1600
322. Non-volatile heavy metals in kiln are fixed into ____
a) Clinker’s crystalline structure
b) Fumes
c) Solid lump
d) Slag
323. Which of the following waste types are not suitable for co-combustion in cement kilns?
a) Chlorine
b) Hydrogen
c) Calcium
d) Carbonate
324. A major advantage of waste heat recovery in industry is
a) Reduction in pollution
c) Increase efficiency
d) None of the above
325. Nellore to medium temperature waste heat recovery system the most suitable device is ------
a) Economizer
b) Heat wheels
c) Air preheater
d) Recuperate
d) Carbonate
326. Which of the following act regulates transportation of hazardous waste?
a) RCRA
b) CERCLA
c) NEPA
d) NPL
327. When was the first law regarding transportation of hazardous materials passed?
a) 1966
b) 1866
c) 1855
d) 1965
328. Which of the following statute made transportation of hazardous materials illegal?
a) 1869
b) 1870
c) 1871
d) 1872
329. Which of the following act improves regulatory and enforcement activities?
a) HMTA
b) DOT
c) ICC
d) NPL
330. A waste heat recovery system in industrial process has been key to reduce ……. Consumption.
a) Coal
b) Fuel
c) Biogas
d) Oil
331. Heat loss can be classified into …….
a) High temperature
b) Low temperature
c) Medium temperature
d) All of the above
332. Heat recovery provides valuable energy sources and ……. consumption.
a) Reduce energy
b) Increase energy
c) Increase fuel
d) Reduce fuel
333. Techniques of waste heat recovery …….
a) Direct contact condensation
b) Indirect contact condensation
c) Transport membrane condensation
d) All of the above
334. One of the key areas for ……. energy saving in existing systems is waste heat recovery. a)
Potential
b) Kinetic
c) Thermal
d) Electrical
335. The biggest point sources of waste heat originate from ……. production.
a) Steel or Brass
 b) Copper or Glass
c) Steel or Glass
d) Steel or Copper
336. The system is suitable to recover heat from …….. temperature exhaust gases .
a) Medium-low
b) Medium-high
c) High-low
d) High
337. The waste heat energy could be used to produce …….
a) Cool air
b) Hot air
c) Exhaust gas
d) All of the above
338. A waste heat recovery unit is an energy recovery heat exchanger that transfers heat from process
outputs at ……..
a) High temperature
b) Medium temperature
c) Low temperature
d) Both a & b
339. A waste heat recovery unit (WHRU) is an_________ that transfers heat from process outputs at
high temperature to another part of the process for some purpose, usually increased efficiency.
a) Energy recovery heat exchanger
b) Energy recovery heat diffuser
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) None of the above
340. The waste heat recovery unit (WHRU) is a tool involved in _______.
a) Regeneration
b) Cogeneration
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) None of the above
341. Using an organic fluid that boils at a low temperature means that energy could be regenerated
from waste fluids is known as ________.
a) Heat exchanger
b) Heat remover
c) Heat pumps
d) Heat absorber
342. Traditionally, waste heat of low temperature range ________ has not been used for electricity
generation despite efforts by ORC companies, mainly because the Carnot efficiency is rather
low. a. 0-250 °C
b. 0-150 °C
c. 0-200 °C
d. 0-120 °C
343. What are the benefits or the advantages of waste heat recovery units (WHRU)?
a) Reduced Pollution
b) Reduced equipment sizes
c) Reduced auxiliary energy consumption.
d) All of the above
344. A high temperature waste heat recovery unit consists of recovering waste heat at temperatures
greater than _______.
a) 200 °C
b) 500 °C
c) 300 °C
d) 400 °C
345. Types of waste heat exchanger are:
a) Regenerative and recuperative burners
b) Economizers
c) Waste heat boilers
d) All of the above
346. Calculate the recoverable waste heat (Q, in kCal/hour) from flue gases using the following
parameters: V (flow rate of the substance) 2000 m3/hr r (density of the flue gas): 0.9 kg/m3 Cp
(specific heat of the substance): 0.20 kCal/kg oC DT (temperature difference): 120 oC h
(recovery factor): 50% a. 21600
b. 43200
c. 25600
d. 34000
347. In industrial operations fluids with temperature less than __________ are set as the limit
for waste heat recovery because of the risk of condensation of corrosive liquids a. 80C
b. 100C
c. 120C
d. 200C