The contact activation pathway also known 9.

Platelets adhere to the exposed

as….. collagen fibers through Von Willie
brand Factor through
a) Common Pathway c) intrinsic pathway a) GP Ib
b) tissue factor pathway d) both b and c
b) GPIIb
1. The descriptive name of Factor V is
a) Tissue factor c) Fibrinogen c) GPIb-IX-V
b) Proconvertin d) Labile factor d) GPIIb-IIIa
2. Which of the following inhabit platelet 10. The blood vessels, platelets and
aggregation……. coagulation factors are involved to form
a) ADP c) Both a and b a permanent plug in
b) TxA2 d) Prostacyclin
a) Primary hemostasis
3. Thrombocytopenia doesn’t occur in
a) Malaria c) Splenectomy b) Secondary hemostasis
b) Aplastic anemia d) Hypersplenism c) Both a and b
4. Which of the following is the example d) None of the above
of Normocytic normochromic anaemia 11. The decrease in MCV below normal is
a) IDA termed as
b) Megaloblastic anemia a) Normocytic
c) G6PD deficiency anemia
b) Macrocytic
d) Aplastic anemia
5. Coagulation factors are proteins c) Microcytic
present in plasma in_____ form. d) Hypochromatic
a) Active 12. Schistocytes are
b) Conjugate a) Pencil like RBC
c) Inactive b) Target cells
d) Sensitized c) Fragmented RBC
6. The clotting factors of common d) Spherocyte
pathway include 13. Karytocytes are form due to the
a) FXII, FXI, FIX and FVIII removal of ______ by pitting action of
b) FX, FV, FII and FI spleen.
c) FX, FV, FXII and FIX a) Heinz bodies
d) FVII, FII and FI b) Nucleus
7. The descriptive name of FVIII is c) RNA
a) Contact factor d) Howell jolly bodies
b) Anti hemophilic factor 14. Which type of WBC increases above
c) Christmas factor normal in viral infections?
d) Tissue factor a) Neutrophil
8. Prevention of blood loss is known as b) Basophil
a) Clotting c) Eosinophil
b) Hemostasis d) Lymphocyte
c) Both a and b 15. Who was the first to describe the action
d) None of the above of platelets?
a) Gorge Gulliver
b) William addison
c) Richard hill noris b) Plasmin
d) Landsteiner c) Calcium
16. The variation in the shape of RBCs is d) Macrophages
termed as 23. Percent of a sample of whole blood
a) Poikilocytosis occupied by intact red blood cells is
b) Anisocytosis called as.
c) Macrocytosis a) MCV
d) Microcytosis b) MCH
17. The “sole gel zone” of platelets is also c) PCV
known as. d) MCHC
a) Metabolic zone 24. The plasma portion of whole blood is
b) Organelle zone composed of ____ % water.
c) Peripheral zone a) 95
d) Structure zone b) 85
18. Which of the following is not the part of c) 93
“organelle zone” of platelets? d) 91
a) Microfilaments 25. Bone marrow constitutes _____ % of
b) Mitochondria the total body mass of humans.
c) Dense tubular system a) 4
d) Glycogen b) 8
19. Platelet to platelet binding is done c) 10
through GPIIb-IIIa in the presence of d) 7
______. 26. Which of the following is not the part of
a) Plasminogen stroma of bone marrow?
b) Fibrinogen a) Macrophage
c) Tissue factor b) Osteoblast
d) Calcium c) Osteoclast
20. Which of the following is wrong d) Stem cell
regarding DIC? 27. Hematopoietic stem cell is capable of
a) Increased FDPs level producing.
b) Decreased D-Dimer level a) RBCs only
c) Decreased fibrinogen level b) WBCs only
d) Decreased Anti thrombin III level c) All types of blood cells
21. Which of the following don’t have d) Platelets only
cytoplasmic granules? 28. Which of the following is not the
a) Neutrophil property of progenitor cells?
b) Basophil a) Self renewal
c) Monocyte b) Irreversibly committed
d) Eosinophil c) Can proliferate
22. Fibrin is converted into FDPs and D- d) Can mature
Dimer by the action of…….. 29. Bilirubin is the end product of ____
a) Thrombin metabolism.
a) Fats 36. Eosinophilia is the increase count of
b) Iron blood Eosinophil above.
c) Haem a) 600/μL
d) globin b) 800/μL
30. Extra vascular hemolysis occurs in. c) 400/μL
a) Spleen and kidneys d) 300/μL
b) Spleen, liver and kidneys 37. Monocytosis occurs in ______.
c) Liver, spleen and bone marrow a) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Spleen, kidney and bone marrow b) Acute infection
31. The molecular weight of hemoglobin is. c) Stress
a) 60,000 d) Acute myloid leukemia
b) 68,000 38. Which of the following is the largest
c) 65,000 blood cell?
d) 61,000 a) RBC
32. There are ____ millions of molecules of b) Lymphocyte
haemoglobin in one RBC. c) Neutrophil
a) 660 d) Monocyte
b) 840 39. Globin chains are formed in.
c) 740 a) Mitochondria
d) 640 b) Golgi bodies
33. Two molecules of δ -aminolevulinic acid c) Ribosome
(ALA) combine together to form d) Lysosome
porphobilinogen in the presence 40. The diluting fluid for platelet count is.
of____. a) 10% ammonium oxalate solution.
a) ALA hydrolase b) 1% calcium oxalate solution
b) ALA decarboxylase c) 1% ammonium oxalate solution.
c) ALA dehydratase d) 1% sodium oxalate solution.
d) ALA synthetase 41. The diluting fluid for RBC count is.
34. In the final step of haem synthesis, a) Formal citrate
ferrous ion is inserted to complete the b) Sodium citrate
synthesis of haem in the presence c) Sodium floride
of_____. d) Potassium citrate
a) Ferrochelatase 42. EDTA stands for?
b) Ferrolactase a) Ethylene dextrose tetra aciticacid
c) Ferroreductase b) Ethylene diamine tetra aciticacid
d) Ferroxidase c) Ethylene dicalcium tetra aciticacid
35. The blood basophils count above d) Ethylene disulphide tetra aciticacid
100/µL is called as______. 43. Westergern tube is _____ cm in length.
a) Basopenia a) 20
b) Basophilia b) 10
c) Basocytopenia c) 25
d) Basocytophelia d) 30
44. Mean Cell Haemoglobin is the average
amount of haemoglobin
present in.
a) Whole blood
b) Total RBCs
c) Single RBC
d) 100 RBCs
45. The normal values of retic count in
adults are.
a) 0.2-5%
b) 2-5%
c) 0.2-2%
d) 2-6%
46. The time taken for the blood to stop
flowing from a cut is known as.
a) Bleeding time
b) Clotting time
c) Thrombin time
d) APTT
47. The normal value of mean cell
hemoglobin is equal to.
a) 27-32 g/dl
b) 32-36 g/dl
c) 32-36 pg
d) 27-32 pg
48. The time taken for fibrin
clot to appear is called as.
a) Fibrin time
b) Thrombin time
c) Prothrombin time
d) APTT
49. The factor number for stuart-prower
factor is.
a) IX
b) XI
c) X
d) XII
Answer key: 41. c) 1% ammonium oxalate solution.
42. a) formal citrate
1. c) intrinsic pathway 43. b) ethylene diamine tetra aciticacid
2. d) Labile factor 44. d) 30
3. d) Prostacyclin 45. c) single RBC
4. c) Splenectomy 46. c) 0.2-2%
5. d) Aplastic anemia 47. a) bleeding time
6. c) Inactive
48. d) 27-32pg
7. b) FX, FV, FII and FI
49. b) thrombin time
8. b) anti hemophilic factor
50. c) X
9. b) hemostasis
10. a) GPIb
11. b) secondary hemostasis
12. c) Microcytic
13. c) Fragmented RBC
14. a) Heinz bodies
15. d) Lymphocytes
16. c) Richard hill noris
17. a) poikilocytosis
18. d) structure zone
19. a) microfilaments
20. b) fibrinogen
21. b) Decreased D-Dimer level
22. c) Monocyte
23. b) Plasmin
24. c) PCV
25. d) 91
26. a) 4
27. d) stem cell
28. c) all types of blood cells
29. a) self renewal
30. c) Haem
31. c) liver, spleen and bone marrow
32. b) 68,000
33. d) 640
34. c) ALA dehydratase
35. a) Ferrochelatase
36. b) Basophilia
37. c)400/μL
38. a) rheumatoid arthritis
39. d) Monocyte
40. c) Ribosome