Test Booklet Test Booklet No.

Series
Ph.D. Entrance Examination
A MANAGEMENT
PART–II

Name of Applicant ............................................................ Answer Sheet No. ....................................

Applicant ID/Roll No. : ............................................... Signature of Applicant : .................................

Date of Examination: .......................................... Signature of the Invigilator(s)

1. ..................................................

Time of Examination : ....................................... 2. ..................................................

Duration : 1 Hour] [Maximum Marks : 50

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 50 (Fifty) questions. Each question
carries four answers marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct.
(ii) On receipt of the Test-Booklet (Question Paper), the candidate should immediately check it and
ensure that it contains all the pages, i.e., 50 questions (Part–II Q.No. 51-100). Discrepancy, if any,
should be reported by the candidate to the invigilator immediately after receiving the Test-Booklet.
(iii) A separate Answer-Sheet is provided with the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. On this sheet there are
50 rows containing four circles each. One row pertains to one question.
(iv) The candidate should write his/her Application ID/Roll Number at the places provided on the cover
page of the Test-Booklet/Question Paper and on the Answer-Sheet and NOWHERE ELSE.
(v) No second Test-Booklet/Question Paper and Answer-Sheet will be given to a candidate. The
candidates are advised to be careful in handling it and writing the answer on the Answer-Sheet.
(vi) For every correct answer of the question One (1) mark will be awarded. For every unattempted
question, Zero (0) mark shall be awarded. There is no Negative Marking.
(vii) Marking shall be done only on the basis of answers responded on the Answer-Sheet.
(viii) To mark the answer on the Answer-Sheet, candidate should darken the appropriate circle in the row
of each question with Blue or Black pen.
(ix) For each question only one circle should be darkened as a mark of the answer adopted by the
candidate. If more than one circle for the question are found darkened or with one black circle any
other circle carries any mark, the question will be treated as cancelled.
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remove any paper shall be liable to be punished for use of unfair means.
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(xii) Mobile phones (even in Switch-off mode) and such other communication/programmable devices
are not allowed inside the examination hall.
(xiii) No candidate shall be permitted to leave the examination hall before the expiry of the time.

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.

Management 1 [P.T.O.
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Management 2
 PART–II
MANAGEMENT
51. Which of the following is associated with Choose the correct answer from the options
the Scientific Management Theory of given below :
Management? (A) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
1. Functional Foremanship (B) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
2. Unity of Command
(D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
3. Time and Motion Study

4. Centralization 53. Which one of the following information

types is not included in a skill inventory?
Choose the correct answer from the options
(A) Employee's personal data
given below :
(B) Organization's training schedule
(A) 1, 3
(C) Employee's potential
(B) 1, 2 (D) Salary and job history
(C) 1, 4
54. Which of the following relates to drawing
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
statistically valid conclusion about the given
population on the basis of the sample?

52. Arrange the following steps of succession (A) Inductive logic

planning in the correct sequence. (B) Deductive logic
(C) Parametric mean
1. Define competencies required to
perform roles (D) Both (A) and (B)

2. With future orientation, assess people

against criteria 55. The performance of Indian equity markets
has enabled India to secure the _________
3. Identify key roles for succession or largest weightage in the MSCI emerging
replacement planning market index.
4. Develop employees to be ready for (A) First
future key roles (B) Second
5. Identify pool of talent that can (C) Third
potentially perform highly in key roles (D) Fourth

Management 3 [P.T.O.
13-II / 2
56. Arrange the following economic identities 58. A forecasting technique in which the group
in a sequential evolution to understand consists of persons who are physically
dispersed and are anonymous to one another
consumer demand.
is called __________.
1. Law of Demand (A) Delphi Technique

2. Utility analysis (B) Brain Storming Technique

(C) Heuristic Ideation Technique
3. Demand elasticity analysis
(D) Decision Tree Technique
4. Indifference curve analysis

5. Demand forecasting 59. Indicate the correct code for appropriate

combination of the following that constitutes
Choose the correct answer from the options
the form of price discriminating strategy.
given below :
1. Postage stamp pricing
(A) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 2. Basing point pricing

(B) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 3. Incremental pricing

4. Free on Board pricing
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
Choose the correct answer from the options
(D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 given below :
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 2, 3, 4
57. Which one of the following is not correct in
(C) 1, 2, 4
case of indifference curves?
(D) 3, 4
(A) Indifference curves slope downward
to right
60. In case there is a rise in general price level
(B) Indifference curves of imperfect along with a declining output in the
substitutes are convex to the origin economy, it is called __________.
(A) Inflation
(C) Indifference curves neither intersect
nor are tangent to one another (B) Supply push inflation
(C) Deflation
(D) Lower indifference curves indicate a
(D) Stagflation
higher level of satisfaction

Management 4
61. The demand for which of the following is 65. The procedure in which relevant information
likely to be the most price inelastic? relating to a job and its requirements is
systematically discovered and noted is
(A) Luxuries
called _________.
(B) Consumables
(A) Job analysis
(C) Necessities (B) Job specification
(D) Consumer durables (C) Job classification

(D) Job description

62. Organization Behaviour is _________.

(A) An interdisciplinary approach 66. When appraisals are made by supervisors,

peers, subordinates and clients then it is
(B) A humanistic approach called _________.
(C) Total system approach (A) 360-degree feedback
(B) Management appraisal
(D) All of these
(C) Self-appraisal
(D) None of these
63. Which of the following people are more
assertive and social?
67. _______ is a process of diagnosing and
(A) Introvert improving the effectiveness of a workgroup
with particular attention to work procedures.
(B) Extrovert
(A) Team building
(C) Intuitive (B) Process consultation
(D) Sensing (C) Group maintenance
(D) None of these

64. Hygiene factors are also considered as

the __________. 68. Green HRM helps the business organization
to reduce carbon footprints by the means
(A) Satisfiers of _________.
(B) Maintenance factors (A) Online Training
(B) Offline Training
(C) Defectors
(C) Sensitive Training
(D) All of these
(D) Group Training

Management 5 [P.T.O.
13-II / 3
69. Match the following : 72. If r < k, the dividend pay-out ratio must be
100% as per the _________.
(a) AS 26 1. Impairment of assets
(A) MM approach
(b) AS 10 2. Discontinuing operations
(B) Walter model
(c) AS 28 3. Intangible assets
(C) Gordon model
(d) AS 24 4. Accounting for fixed assets (D) Dupont analysis

Select the right answer from the options

given below : 73. According to CAPM, overpriced securities
have __________.
(A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
(A) Negative betas
(B) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(B) Zero alphas
(C) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1 (C) Negative alphas

(D) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 (D) Cannot determined

74. In a forward contract, the party who

70. Which type of budget is also known as the commits to sell an asset at a specified date
backbone of an enterprise? in the future takes a ________ position, and
the party who commits to buy an asset at a
(A) Static budget
specified date in the future takes a _______
(B) Sales budget position.
(A) Risk seeking; Risk averse
(C) Functional budget
(B) Open; Open
(D) Financial budget
(C) Closed; Open
(D) Short; Long

71. Systematic risk is measured by _______.

75. A failing student is passed by an examiner
(A) Alpha coefficient – this is an example of _____________.
(B) Beta coefficient (A) Type I error

(C) Power test coefficient (B) Type II error

(C) Unbiased decision
(D) None of these
(D) None of these

Management 6
76. Identify the correct statement : 79. Apple computers uses a differentiation
(A) Dominant suppliers make profit by competitive strategy that emphasizes
charging low prices or shifting their innovative product with creative design.
cost to the industry participants. This is an example of ___________.
(A) Functional strategy
(B) Dominant suppliers make profit by
charging high prices or shifting their (B) Business strategy
cost to the industry participants. (C) Operating strategy
(C) Dominant suppliers make profit by (D) Product strategy
charging high prices or shifting their
revenue to the industry participants.
80. Technological advances, shifts in consumer
(D) Dominant suppliers make profit by
tastes, and increased competition, all of
charging low prices or shifting their
which reduce demand for a product, are
revenue to the industry participants.
typical of which stage in PLC?
(A) Decline stage
77. In the context of industry analysis, which (B) Introduction stage
matrix allows strategists to summarize and
evaluate economic, social, cultural, (C) Growth stage
demographic, environmental, political, (D) Saturation stage
government, legal, technical and competitive
information?
81. Identify the correct sequence of Moslow's
(A) EFE matrix Need Hierarchy theory.
(B) CPM matrix (A) Physiological needs, social needs,
(C) BCG matrix security needs, esteem needs, self-
actualization needs.
(D) IFE matrix
(B) Physiological needs, esteem needs,
social needs, security needs, self-
78. In BCG matrix, a vertical matrix is labelled actualization needs.
as _________.
(C) Social needs, security needs,
(A) Market share physiological needs, esteem needs,
(B) Market growth self-actualization needs.

(C) Business strength (D) Physiological needs, security needs,

social needs, esteem needs, self-
(D) Product Life Cycle actualization needs.

Management 7 [P.T.O.
82. Expectancy Theory of Motivation was 85. Which of the following HR decisions can
propounded by _________. be influenced by HR analytics?

(A) Porter and Lawler 1. HR planning

(B) McGregor 2. Succession planning

(C) Vroom 3. Hiring

(D) J Stacy Adams 4. Performance

5. Compensation and rewards

83. Which one of the following is not a Choose the correct option :
component of Bass' theory of Trans- (A) 1, 3 and 4 only
formational Leadership?
(B) 3 and 5 only
(A) Idealised influence
(C) 3, 4 and 5 only
(B) Inspirational motivation
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) Intellectual stimulation

(D) Team consideration

86. 'Sons of the soil' policy is associated
with ___________.

84. Whistle blowing is normally unjustified in (A) Discharge or Dismissal

which of the following cases?
(B) Promotion
1. Ulterior motive
(C) Recruitment
2. To protect public interest
(D) Induction
3. Breach of trust

4. To inspire other employees

87. Demonstration type of training method is
Choose the correct option : used to train __________.

(A) 1 and 2 (A) Supervisors

(B) 1 and 3 (B) Workers

(C) 2 and 3 (C) Managers

(D) 2 and 4 (D) Senior Executives

Management 8
88. Information regarding 'personal job demands 91. Which of the following cause conflicting
(human expenditure involved in work, such ranking of an investment opportunity under
as energy expenditure)' obtained in the job the NPV and IRR criteria?
analysis falls in which one of the following? 1. Cash flow pattern disparity
(A) Work activities
2. Investment size disparity
(B) Worker-oriented activities
3. Investment life disparity
(C) Personal requirements
4. Product life cycle disparity
(D) Job context
Choose the correct option :

89. The balanced scorecard developed by (A) 1, 2 and 3 only

Kaplan and Norton contains four (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
dimensions. Which one of the following is
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
a dimension of the balanced scorecard?
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
(A) Competitor-analysis
(B) Customer service
(C) Human resources 92. Concept testing, test marketing and product
testing are parts of which of the following?
(D) Production management
(A) Innovation-Diffusion process

90. The combined leverage_____________. (B) Product Life Cycle

1. is the summation of the degree of (C) New Product development
operating leverage and the financial (D) Market development
leverage.
2. measures total risk of the firm.
93. Brand Extension Strategy refers to which
3. is the difference between the degree
of the following?
of operating leverage and the financial
leverage. (A) extending existing brand names to new
4. indicates the effect that changes in sales forms of an existing product category.
will have on earning per share. (B) extending an existing brand name to a
Choose the correct option : new or modified product in a new
(A) 1 and 2 category.

(B) 2 and 3 (C) coming out with different brands in a

given product category.
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 (D) All of the above

Management 9 [P.T.O.
94. In which one of the following probability 97. An MNC wants to invest in India. Out of
distributions, the mean value of the the following entry modes, select the right
distribution is the sole parameter of the
order in terms of increasing risk.
distribution?
1. Franchising
(A) Normal distribution
2. Establishing the assembly line only
(B) Binomial distribution
3. Exporting
(C) Exponential distribution
4. Wholly owned fully operational
(D) Poisson distribution
subsidiary

5. Joint venture
95. Suppose, it is calculated that 'a' is 4 and 'b'
Choose the correct answer from the options
is 2 for a particular estimating line with one
given below :
independent variable. If the independent
variable has a value of 5, what should be (A) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
expected for the dependent variable in a
linear regression? (B) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

(A) 6 (C) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4

(B) 11 (D) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

(C) 14

(D) 22 98. What is "Block Chain" in the field of

information technology?

(A) Motherboard protection device

96. Which of the following international
trade theories, the 'Leontief Paradox' relates (B) Protection of details of electronic
to ___________? transaction

(A) Comparative Advantage Theory (C) Taking random snaps of electronic

transactions
(B) Product Life Cycle Theory
(D) Blocking continuous electronic
(C) Heckscher-Ohlin theory
transactions
(D) Absolute Advantage Theory

Management 10
99. Disruptive innovations in business are those 100. Entrepreneurs are motivated to start business
that ________. enterprise because of ________________.
1. Ambitious factors
(A) create a new market by offering value
2. Compelling factors
products
3. Facilitating factors
(B) involve new technology or a new 4. Family factors
business model to offer value to the Choose the correct answer from the options
market given below :
(C) displace established market-leading (A) 1, 2, 3
firms, products, and alliances (B) 1, 3
(C) 1, 4
(D) All of the above (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Management 11 [P.T.O.
 ROUGH WORK

Management 12