STELLAR SCIENCE INSTITUTE

Exam: 11th nd 12th Date: 27/04/2024

Course: NEET - JEE Duration: 2.00 hours
Subject: Chemistry Total Marks: 180

Section A: Chemistry MCQ

Answer the following questions and each question carries 4 marks. [140]
1. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic
solution is...
(1) 4/5 (2) 2/5 (3) 1 (4) 3/5
2. Boron has two stable isotopes, 10B (19%) and 11 B (81%). Calculate average atomic weight of boron in the
periodic table.
(1) 10.8 (2) 10.2 (3) 11.2 (4) 10.0
3. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g of oxygen in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and
how much? (At. weight of Mg = 24, O = 16)
(1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) O2, 0.16 g (3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) O2, 0.28 g
4. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is....
(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 10 (4) 12

R
5. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is -328 kJ mol-1, hence the energy of fourth Bohr
orbit would be...
LA
(1) -41 kJ mol-1 (2) -1312 kJ mol-1 (3) -164 kJ mol-1 (4) -82 kJ mol-1
6. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is...
EL

(1) (2) (3) (4)

7. Which one of the following ions will be smallest in size?

(1) Na+ (2) Mg2+ (3) F- (4) O-2
ST

8. Which of the following sets has strongest tendency to form anions?

(1) hydribe ion (2) hydroium ion (3) proton (4) hydroxyl ion
9. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?
(1) Ar < K+ < Ca2+ (2) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ (3) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar (4) K+ < Ar < Ca2+
10. Unit of entropy is......
(1) JK-1 mol-1 (2) J mol-1 (3) J-1 K-1 mol-1 (4) JK mol-1
11. Equal volumes of molar hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid are neutralized by dilute NaOH solution and
x kcal and y cal of heat are librated respectively. Which of the following is true?
(1) x = y (2) x = 1/2 y (3) x = 2y (4) None of these
12. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any process
is....
(1) ΔSsystem + ΔSsurrounding > 0 (2) ΔSsystem - ΔSsurrounding > 0
(3) ΔSsystem > 0 (4) ΔSsurrounding > 0
13. Which of the following statements about pH and H+ ion concentration is incorrect?
(1) Addition of one drop of concentration HCl in NH4OH solution decreases pH of the solution
(2) A solution of the mixture of one equivalent of each of CH3COOH and NaOH has a pH of 7
(3) pH of pure neutral water is not zero
(4) A cold and concentrated H2SO4 has lower H+ ion concentration than a dilute solution of H2SO­4
14. Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?
(1) (CH3)3B (2) (CH3)2O (3) (CH3)3P (4) (CH3)3N
15. Which of the following is electron deficient?
NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 1
 (1) (CH3)2 (2) (SiH3)2 (3) (BH3)2 (4) PH3
16. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
(1) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
(2) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
(3) Both bond angle and bond length change
(4) Both bond angle and bond length remain same
17.

The chirality of the compound is ?

(1) R (2) S (3) Z (4) E
18. Which one of the following compounds will be most easily attacked by an electrophile?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

19.
R - C ≡ C - R. The reagent is....
(1) Na (2) HCl in H2O (3) KOH in C2H5OH (4) Zn in alcohol
20. The alkene R - CH = CH2 reacts readily with B2H6 and formed the product B which on oxidation with a
alkaline H2O2 produces

R
(1) R - CH2 - CHO (2) R - CH2 - CH2 - OH (3) (4)
LA
21. Given,
EL

The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as....

ST

(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > III > I (4) II > I > III
22. Blood cells retain their normal shape in solutions which are....
(1) hypotonic to blood (2) isotonic to blood
(3) hypertonic to blood (4) equinormal to blood
23. Which of the following colligative property can provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or colloids)
with greatest precision ?
(1) Osmotic pressure (2) Elevation in boiling point
(3) Depression in boiling point (4) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
24. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is....
(1) from solution having higher concentration only
(2) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates
(3) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates
(4) from solution having lower concentration only
25. In the electrochemical cell Zn || ZnSO4 (0.01 M) || CusO4 (1.0 M) Cu, the emf of this Deniel cell is E1.
When the concentration ZnSO4 is charged to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf
changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2 ?

(1) E1 = E2 (2) E1 < E2 (3) E1 > E2 (4) E2 = 0 ≠ E1

26. «r¢Þk{ktÚke {¤u÷e {krníkeLkk ykÄkhu

Lkku ΔG = - 827 kJ {kuÕk-1.

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 2

 Al2O3 Lkwt rðãwíkrð¼ksLk fhðk {kxu ÷½wík{ e.m.f. sYhe Au. (F = 96500 {kuÕk-1)
(1) 8.56 V (2) 2.14 V (3) 4.28 V (4) 6.42 V
27. Given, (i) Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu, E° = 0.337 V (ii) Cu2+ + e- → Cu+, E° = 0.153 V
Electrode potential E° for the reaction, Cu+ + e- → Cu, will be....
(1) 0.52 V (2) 0.90 (3) 0.30 (4) 0.38
28. The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs?
(1) ln K vs T (2) (3) (4)

29. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius

equation , . Activation energy (E*) of the reaction can be calculated by plotting

(1) (2) (3) k vs T (4)

30. In a zero order reaction for every 10°C rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is
increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become....
(1) 256 times (2) 512 times (3) 64 times (4) 128 times
31. For the following reactions,
(i) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH → CH3CH = CH2 + KB r + H2O

R
LA
EL

Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) (i) is elimination reaction, (ii) is substitution and (iii) is addition reaction
(2) (i) is elimination, (ii) and (iii) are substitution reactions
(3) (i) is substitution, (ii) and (iii) are addition reaction
ST

(4) (i) and (ii) are elimination reactions and (iii) is addition reaction
32. The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by.....
(1) addition (2) substitution
(3) dehydrohalogenation (4) elimination
33. When chlorine is passed through propone 400°C, which of the following is formed?
(1) PVC (2) Allyl chloride (3) Nickel chloride (4) 1, 2-dichloro ethane
34. The boiling point of p-nitrophenol is higher than that of o-nitrophenol because....
(1) NO2 group at p-position behaves in a different way from that the at o-position
(2) intramolecular hydrogen bonding exists in p-nitrophenol
(3) there is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in p-nitrogen
(4) p-nitrophenol has a molecular weight than o-nitrophenol
35. Increasing order of acidic strength among p-methoxy phenol (I), p-methyl phenol (II) and p-nitrophenol
(III) is.....
(1) III, I, II (2) II, I, III (3) III, II, I (4) I, II, III

Section B: Chemistry MCQ

Answer the following questions and each question carries 4 marks. [Any 10] [40]
36. One litre hard water contains 12.00 mg Mg2+. Milliequivalents of washing soda required to remove its
hardness is...
(1) 1 (2) 12.16 (3) 1 × 10-3 (4) 12.16 × 10-3
37. The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an atom will be.....
(1) 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 5s (2) 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d

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 (3) 5s, 4p, 3d, 4d, 5s (4) 3d, 4p, 4s, 4d, 5s
38. Ionic radii are.........
(1) inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge
(2) inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
(3) directly proportional to effective nuclear charge
(4) directly proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
39. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are - 382.64 kJ
mol-1 and - 145.6 JK-1 mol-1, respectively. Standard Gibbs energy change for the same reaction at 298 K
is......
(1) - 221.1 kJ mol-1 (2) - 339.3 kJ mol-1 (3) - 439.3 kJ mol-1 (4) - 523.2 kJ mol-1
40. The pH value of a 10 M solution of HCl is.....
(1) less than 0 (2) equal to 0 (3) equal to 1 (4) equal to 2
41. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C. 38.71% and
H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be......
(1) CH3O (2) CH2O (3) CHO (4) CH4O
42. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markownikoff’s rule to give a product 1
- chloro - 1- Methylcyclohexane . The possible alkane is....

(1) (2) (3) (a) and (b) (4)

R
43. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture
LA
of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C.
(Given, vapour pressure data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
(1) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
EL

(2) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene
(3) Not enough information is given to make a prediction
(4) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene
44. The equivalent conductances of Ba2+ and Cl- are 127 and 76 Ω-1 cm-1 eq-1 respectively at infinite
ST

dilution. The equivalent conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution will be....

(1) 139.52 (2) 203 (3) 279 (4) 101.5
45. The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction, A → B is Ea in forward direction. The activation
energy for reverse reaction....
(1) can be less than or more than Ea (2) is always double of Ea
(3) is negative of Ea (4) is always less than Ea
46.
3A → 2B. rate of reaction is equal to....

(1) (2) (3) (4)

47. An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on
monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative, them A is......
(1) t-butyl chloride (2) s-butyl chloride (3) iso-butyl chloride (4) n-butyl chloride
48. Industrial preparation of chloroform employs acetone and.....
(1) phosgene (2) calcium hypochlorite (3) chlorine gas (4) sodium chloride
49. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH, the product formed is.....
(1) benezaldehyde (2) salicylaldehyde (3) salicity acid (4) benzoic acid
50. n-propyl alcohol and iso-propyl alcohol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent?
(1) PCl­5 (2) reduction
(3) oxidation with potassium dichromate (4) ozonolysis

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 4

 STELLAR SCIENCE INSTITUTE
Exam: 11th nd 12th Date: 27/04/2024
Course: NEET - JEE Duration: 2.00 hours
Subject: Chemistry Total Marks: 180

Section A: Chemistry MCQ

Answer the following questions and each question carries 4 marks. [140]
1. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic
solution is...

N
(1) 4/5 (2) 2/5 (3) 1 (4) 3/5

O
Ans : (2)
Solution:

TI
LU
SO
5 moles of sulphite ions react with = 2 moles of MnO4-
So, 1 mole of sulphite ions react with = 2/5 moles of MnO4-
2. Boron has two stable isotopes, 10B (19%) and 11 B (81%). Calculate average atomic weight of boron in the
periodic table.
R
(1) 10.8 (2) 10.2 (3) 11.2 (4) 10.0
Ans : (1)
BE

Solution: Average of atomic weight

O
PR

3. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g of oxygen in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and
how much? (At. weight of Mg = 24, O = 16)
(1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) O2, 0.16 g (3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) O2, 0.28 g
Ans : (1)
Solution: The balanced chemical equation is

From the 0.56 above equation, is clear that, 24 g Mg reacts with 16 g of O2.
Thus, 1.0 g of Mg reacts with

But only 0.56 g of O2 is available which is less than 0.67 g. Thus, O2 is the limiting reagent.
Further, 16 g of O2 reacts with 24 g of Mg.

... Amount of Mg left unreacted = (1.0 - 0.84)g Mg = 0.16 g Mg

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4. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is....
(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 10 (4) 12
Ans : (1)
Solution: n represents the main energy level and l represents the subshell.
If n = 4 and l = 3, the subshell is 4f.
In f - subshell, there are 7 orbitals and each orbital can accommodate a maximum number of two
electrons, so maximum number of electrons in 4f subshell = 7 × 2 = 14.
5. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is -328 kJ mol-1, hence the energy of fourth Bohr
orbit would be...
(1) -41 kJ mol-1 (2) -1312 kJ mol-1 (3) -164 kJ mol-1 (4) -82 kJ mol-1

N
Ans : (4)
Solution: The energy of second Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom

O
(E­2) is - 328 kJ mol-1

TI
LU
If n = 4

SO
6. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is...

(1) (2) (3) (4)

R
Ans : (1)
Solution: According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
BE

Given, Δx = Δp (Δx = uncertainty in position )

O
PR

(Δv = uncertainty in velocity)

7. Which one of the following ions will be smallest in size?
(1) Na+ (2) Mg2+ (3) F- (4) O-2
Ans : (2)
Solution: Na+, Mg2+, O2- and F- all are isoelectronic but Mg2+ have 12 protons in his nucleus, so the
attraction force on last shell is maximum and hence, it have smallest size.
8. Which of the following sets has strongest tendency to form anions?
(1) hydribe ion (2) hydroium ion (3) proton (4) hydroxyl ion
Ans : (3)
Solution: Hydrogen have one proton and one electron, when it ionize, i.e. it lose one electron, then only
proton is left in the nucleus.

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 So H+ ion is formed during ionisation which is also called proton.

9. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?
(1) Ar < K+ < Ca2+ (2) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ (3) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar (4) K+ < Ar < Ca2+
Ans : (3)
Solution: Ca2+ < K+ < Ar
Ar, K+ and Ca+ are isoelectronic i.e with same number of electrons, 18.

N
For isoelectronic species (relative) positive charge.
Also Ar, K and Ca belong to the same period (3rd period).

O
10. Unit of entropy is......
(1) JK-1 mol-1 (2) J mol-1 (3) J-1 K-1 mol-1 (4) JK mol-1

TI
Ans : (1)
Solution: Entropy change equal to change in heat per degree.

LU
q = required heat per mol, T = constant absolute temperature
Thus, unit of entropy is JK-1mol-1 SO
11. Equal volumes of molar hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid are neutralized by dilute NaOH solution and
x kcal and y cal of heat are librated respectively. Which of the following is true?
(1) x = y (2) x = 1/2 y (3) x = 2y (4) None of these
Ans : (2)
R
Solution: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O + x kcal
=2H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O + y kcal
BE

1 molar HCl = 1g - equivalent of HCl

1 molar H2SO4 = 2 g - equivalent of H2SO4
So, y = 2 x ⇒ x = 1/2 y
O

12. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any process
is....
PR

(1) ΔSsystem + ΔSsurrounding > 0 (2) ΔSsystem - ΔSsurrounding > 0

(3) ΔSsystem > 0 (4) ΔSsurrounding > 0
Ans : (1)
Solution: For spontaneous process, ΔS must be positive.
In reversible process
ΔSsystem + ΔSsurrounding = 0
Hence, system is present in equilibrium.
(i.e. it is not spontaneous process)
While in irreversible process
ΔSsystem + ΔSsurrouding > 0
Hence, in the process ΔS is positive.
13. Which of the following statements about pH and H+ ion concentration is incorrect?
(1) Addition of one drop of concentration HCl in NH4OH solution decreases pH of the solution
(2) A solution of the mixture of one equivalent of each of CH3COOH and NaOH has a pH of 7
(3) pH of pure neutral water is not zero
(4) A cold and concentrated H2SO4 has lower H+ ion concentration than a dilute solution of H2SO­4
Ans : (2)
Solution: CH3COOH is weak acid while NaOH is strong base, so one equivalent of NaOH cannot be

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 3

 neutralized with one equivalent of CH3COOH.
Hence, one equivalent of each does not have pH value 7.
As the NaOH is a strong base, the solution will be basic having a pH more than 7.
14. Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?
(1) (CH3)3B (2) (CH3)2O (3) (CH3)3P (4) (CH3)3N
Ans : (1)
15. Which of the following is electron deficient?
(1) (CH3)2 (2) (SiH3)2 (3) (BH3)2 (4) PH3
Ans : (3)

N
Solution: Boron is an element of 13 group and contains three electrons in its valence shell.
When its compound BH3 dimerises, each boron atom carry only 6 electrons that is their octet is

O
incomplete.
Hence , (BH3)2 is an electron deficient compound.

TI
In all other given molecules octet of central atom is complete.
16. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

LU
(1) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
(2) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
(3) Both bond angle and bond length change
(4) Both bond angle and bond length remain same
Ans : (4) SO
Solution: Isomers which are possible by rotation about single bonds without cleavage of any bond are
called confirmers. In ethane, an infinite number of conformations are possible.
There are two extreme forms, the staggered conformation, which is the most stable and the eclipsed
conformation which is least of stable.
R
Among the conformers of ethane, bond angle and bond length remains same while their energy, stability
and dihedral angle are different.
BE

17.

The chirality of the compound is ?

O

(1) R (2) S (3) Z (4) E

Ans : (1)
PR

Solution:

18. Which one of the following compounds will be most easily attacked by an electrophile?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans : (4)
Solution: -Cl-atom shows +R-effect that o/p-directive influence but deactivate the benzene ring.
While -OH, -CH3 groups also shows o/p-influence but activate the benzene ring.
But in these- OH group activates more than -CH3.
Hence, order of electrophilic substitutions is

19.

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 R - C ≡ C - R. The reagent is....
(1) Na (2) HCl in H2O (3) KOH in C2H5OH (4) Zn in alcohol
Ans : (3)
Solution: Dehydrohalogenation reaction,

N
In presence of ethanolic KOH, substrate gives elimination reaction.
20. The alkene R - CH = CH2 reacts readily with B2H6 and formed the product B which on oxidation with a

O
alkaline H2O2 produces

TI
(1) R - CH2 - CHO (2) R - CH2 - CH2 - OH (3) (4)

LU
Ans : (2)
Solution: Here, 1/2 mole of B2H6 react with alkene by Markownikoff’s addition and form
trialkylborone
called Hydroboration, H­2O2/OH- gives oxidation.
SO
So, trialkyborone oxidise in alcohols and reaction is also called Hydroboration - oxidation.
R

21. Given,
BE
O

The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as....

PR

(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > III > I (4) II > I > III
Ans : (2)
Solution: The enthalpy of hydrogenation of given compounds is inversely proportional to stability of
alkene.

Hence, correct order is III > II > I

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22. Blood cells retain their normal shape in solutions which are....
(1) hypotonic to blood (2) isotonic to blood
(3) hypertonic to blood (4) equinormal to blood
Ans : (2)
Solution: When blood cells are placed in a solution of similar concentration as that of blood, then they
neither swell nor shrink it means the concentration of solution is same as that of inside the blood cells,
i.e. they are isotonic to each other.
23. Which of the following colligative property can provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or colloids)
with greatest precision ?
(1) Osmotic pressure (2) Elevation in boiling point

N
(3) Depression in boiling point (4) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
Ans : (1)

O
Solution: Osmotic pressure is a colligative property which is used to find the molecular weight of
polymer because other colligative properties give so low value of molecular weight that it cannot be

TI
measured accurately.
24. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is....

LU
(1) from solution having higher concentration only
(2) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates
(3) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates
(4) from solution having lower concentration only
Ans : (4) SO
Solution: During osmosis flow of water through a semi permeable membrane is from solution having
lower concentration only.
25. In the electrochemical cell Zn || ZnSO4 (0.01 M) || CusO4 (1.0 M) Cu, the emf of this Deniel cell is E1.
When the concentration ZnSO4 is charged to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf
R

changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2 ?
BE

(1) E1 = E2 (2) E1 < E2 (3) E1 > E2 (4) E2 = 0 ≠ E1

Ans : (3)
O

Solution: Thinking Process: Calculate the value of Ecell i.e. E1 and E2 by substituting the respective
PR

given values in the Nernst equation,

Compare the calculated values of E1 and E2 and find the correct relation.
For the electrochemical cells,
Zn | ZnSO4 (0.01M) || CuSO4 (1M) |Cu
Cell reaction:
Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu; n = 2

For cell
Zn | ZnSO4 (1M) || CuSO4 (0.01M) | Cu

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 6

 = (E° - 0.059) ⇒ E1 > E2
26. «r¢Þk{ktÚke {¤u÷e {krníkeLkk ykÄkhu

Lkku ΔG = - 827 kJ {kuÕk-1.

Al2O3 Lkwt rðãwíkrð¼ksLk fhðk {kxu ÷½wík{ e.m.f. sYhe Au. (F = 96500 {kuÕk-1)
(1) 8.56 V (2) 2.14 V (3) 4.28 V (4) 6.42 V
Ans : (2)

N
WfuÕk: ΔG = - nEF
Al Lkkt yuf {ku÷, n = 3

O
Al Lkkt 4/3 {ku÷ {kxu

TI
«&™ «{kýu,

LU
827 × 1000 = 4 × E × 96500

27. Given, (i) Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu, E° = 0.337 V (ii) Cu2+ + e- → Cu+, E° = 0.153 V

(2) 0.90
SO
Electrode potential E° for the reaction, Cu+ + e- → Cu, will be....
(1) 0.52 V (3) 0.30 (4) 0.38
Ans : (1)
Solution: ΔG° = - nFE°
R
For reaction, Cu2 + 2e- → Cu, ...(i)
ΔG° = -2 × F × 0.337
BE

For reaction, Cu+ → Cu2+ + e-, ...(ii)

= +0.153 F
Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Cu+ + e­- → Cu, ΔG° = - 0.521 F
O

ΔG° = nFE°
... -0.521 F = - nFE°
PR

... E° = 0.52 V
28. The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs?

(1) ln K vs T (2) (3) (4)

Ans : (3)
Solution: By Arrhenius equation
K = Ae-Ea/RT
Where, Ea = energy of activation
Applying log on both the side,

Compare the above equation w.r.t. straight line equation of y = mx + c.

Thus, if a plote of ln k vs 1/T is a strainght line, the validity of the equation is confirmed.

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 7

 Thus, measuring the slope of the line, the value of Ea can be calculated.

29. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius

equation , . Activation energy (E*) of the reaction can be calculated by plotting

(1) (2) (3) k vs T (4)

N
Ans : (1)

O
Solution: Arrhenius equation k = Ae-E*/RT

TI
LU
Compare this equation with the straight line equation,
i.e. y = mx +c
where’m’ slope and ’c’ is intercept
SO
Hence, E* can be calculated with the help of following slope
R
BE

30. In a zero order reaction for every 10°C rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is
increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become....
(1) 256 times (2) 512 times (3) 64 times (4) 128 times
O

Ans : (2)
Solution: For 10° rise in temperature, n = 1
PR

So rate = 2n = 21 = 2
When temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C, change in temperature
= 100 - 10 = 90°C
i.e. n = 9
So, rate = 29 = 512 times
31. For the following reactions,
(i) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH → CH3CH = CH2 + KB r + H2O

Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) (i) is elimination reaction, (ii) is substitution and (iii) is addition reaction
(2) (i) is elimination, (ii) and (iii) are substitution reactions
(3) (i) is substitution, (ii) and (iii) are addition reaction
(4) (i) and (ii) are elimination reactions and (iii) is addition reaction
Ans : (1)

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 8

 Solution: (i) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH → CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + H2O

32. The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by.....

N
(1) addition (2) substitution
(3) dehydrohalogenation (4) elimination

O
Ans : (2)
Solution: RCl + NaOH(aq) → ROH + NaCl

TI
It is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction.
33. When chlorine is passed through propone 400°C, which of the following is formed?
(1) PVC (2) Allyl chloride (3) Nickel chloride (4) 1, 2-dichloro ethane

LU
Ans : (2)
Solution: when chlorine gas is reacted with propene at high temperature (400°C), then substitution
occurs in place of addition reaction. Hence, allyl chloride is formed
SO
34. The boiling point of p-nitrophenol is higher than that of o-nitrophenol because....
(1) NO2 group at p-position behaves in a different way from that the at o-position
R
(2) intramolecular hydrogen bonding exists in p-nitrophenol
(3) there is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in p-nitrogen
BE

(4) p-nitrophenol has a molecular weight than o-nitrophenol

Ans : (3)
Solution:
O
PR

The boiling point of p-nitrophenol is higher than that of o-nitrophenol because p-nitrophenol have
intermolecular hydrogen bonding whereas o-nitrophenol have intramolecular H-bonding as given
below.
35. Increasing order of acidic strength among p-methoxy phenol (I), p-methyl phenol (II) and p-nitrophenol
(III) is.....
(1) III, I, II (2) II, I, III (3) III, II, I (4) I, II, III
Ans : (4)
Solution:

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 9

 Intro group is an electron withdrawing group, so increases the acidic character of phenol. Whereas -
CH3 and -OCH3 both are electron releasing groups, so it decreases the acidic character of phenol. But -
CH3 group is less electron donating or releasing, so p-methyl phenol is slightly more acidic as compare
to p-methoxy phenol and p-nitro phenol is most acidic. So, the order of acidic charcter is
p-methoxy phenol is most acidic. So, the order of acidic character is

N
< p-methyl phenol < p-nitro phenol.

O
Section B: Chemistry MCQ

TI
Answer the following questions and each question carries 4 marks. [Any 10] [40]
36. One litre hard water contains 12.00 mg Mg2+. Milliequivalents of washing soda required to remove its
hardness is...

LU
(1) 1 (2) 12.16 (3) 1 × 10-3 (4) 12.16 × 10-3
Ans : (1)
Solution:
SO
1 g-equivalent of Mg+ = 12 g of Mg2+ =12000 mg of Mg2+
Now, 12000 mg of Mg2+ = 1 milliequivalent of Na2CO3
R

... 12 mg of Mg2+ ≡ 1 milliequivalent of Na2CO­3

BE

37. The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an atom will be.....
(1) 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 5s (2) 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d
(3) 5s, 4p, 3d, 4d, 5s (4) 3d, 4p, 4s, 4d, 5s
Ans : (2)
O

Solution: The sequence of energy level can be remembered by the systematic diagram as shown below
PR

Hence, the correct order is

1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p, 4f, 5d, 6p, 7s......
38. Ionic radii are.........
(1) inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge
(2) inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
(3) directly proportional to effective nuclear charge
(4) directly proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
Ans : (4)

Solution:

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 10

 Zeff → effective nuclear charge
This Zeff is calculated as follows:
Zeff = Z - screening constant (σ)
This value of screening constant is based upon the number of electrons in valence shell as well as in
penultimate shells.
39. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are - 382.64 kJ
mol-1 and - 145.6 JK-1 mol-1, respectively. Standard Gibbs energy change for the same reaction at 298 K
is......
(1) - 221.1 kJ mol-1 (2) - 339.3 kJ mol-1 (3) - 439.3 kJ mol-1 (4) - 523.2 kJ mol-1
Ans : (2)

N
Solution: ΔG° = ΔH° - TΔS°...(i)
Given that, ΔH° = - 382.64 kJ mol-1

O
ΔS° = - 145.6 J K­-1 mol-1 = - 145.6 × 10-3 kJ K-1
T = 298 K

TI
On putting the given values in eq. (i) we get,
Or ΔG° = - 382.64 - [298 × (- 145.6 × 10-3)]

LU
= - 339.3 kJ mol-1
40. The pH value of a 10 M solution of HCl is.....
(1) less than 0 (2) equal to 0 (3) equal to 1 (4) equal to 2
Ans : (1)
SO
[HCl] = 10 M
⇒ [H+] = 10 mol/L
R
pH = - log [H+ ] = - log 10
= -1, so the pH is less than zero.
BE

41. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C. 38.71% and
H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be......
(1) CH3O (2) CH2O (3) CHO (4) CH4O
O

Ans : (1)
Solution:
PR

Thus, the empirical formula of the compound is CH3O.

42. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markownikoff’s rule to give a product 1
- chloro - 1- Methylcyclohexane . The possible alkane is....

(1) (2) (3) (a) and (b) (4)

Ans : (3)
Solution: For structure A,

For structure B,
NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 11
 The rearrangement of carbocation occur because 3°-carbocation is more stable than 2°-carbocation.

43. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture
of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C.
(Given, vapour pressure data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
(1) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
(2) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene

N
(3) Not enough information is given to make a prediction
(4) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene

O
Ans : (4)
Solution: Since, component having higher vapour pressure will have higher percentage in vapour

TI
pahse. Benzene has vapour pressure 1.8 kPa which is greater than toluene 3.85 kPa.
Therefore, the vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
44. The equivalent conductances of Ba2+ and Cl- are 127 and 76 Ω-1 cm-1 eq-1 respectively at infinite

LU
dilution. The equivalent conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution will be....
(1) 139.52 (2) 203 (3) 279 (4) 101.5
Ans : (1)
SO
Solution: The equivalent conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution,
R

45. The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction, A → B is Ea in forward direction. The activation
BE

energy for reverse reaction....

(1) can be less than or more than Ea (2) is always double of Ea
(3) is negative of Ea (4) is always less than Ea
O

Ans : (1)
Solution: The energy of activation of reverse reaction is less than or more than energy of activation (Ea)
PR

of forward reaction.
... ΔH = (Ea)F - (Ea)R
Because it depends upon the nature of reaction.
If (Ea)F > (Ea)R, reaction is endothermic
or (Ea)F < (Ea)R, reaction is exothermic
46.
3A → 2B. rate of reaction is equal to....

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans : (2)
Solution: For reaction,
3A → 2B

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 12

47. An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on
monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative, them A is......
(1) t-butyl chloride (2) s-butyl chloride (3) iso-butyl chloride (4) n-butyl chloride
Ans : (1)
Solution: Alkyl halides reacts with Na in presence of dry ether to form alkanes. This reaction is known
as Wurtz reaction

In the given question t-butyl chloride C4H9Cl is A. It reacts with Na metal in dry ether to form a
hydrocarbon that on chlorination gives only one monochloro derivative.

N
O
TI
48. Industrial preparation of chloroform employs acetone and.....

LU
(1) phosgene (2) calcium hypochlorite (3) chlorine gas (4) sodium chloride
Ans : (2)
Solution: the industrial preparation of chloroform involves the following steps.
(i) CaOCl2 + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Cl2
(ii) CH3COCH3 + 3Cl2 → CCl3COCH3 + 3HCl SO
(iii)
R
49. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH, the product formed is.....
(1) benezaldehyde (2) salicylaldehyde (3) salicity acid (4) benzoic acid
BE

Ans : (2)
Solution:
O
PR

Reimer-Tiemann reaction When phenol is treated chloroform and NaOH, salicylaldehyde is obtained.
50. n-propyl alcohol and iso-propyl alcohol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent?
(1) PCl­5 (2) reduction
(3) oxidation with potassium dichromate (4) ozonolysis
Ans : (3)
Solution: n-propyl alcohol and iso-propyl alcohol gives different products on oxidation with K2Cr2O7

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 13

 N
O
TI
LU
SO
R
BE
O
PR

NIKEN PATEL & PARTHIV PATEL Page No: 14