Pradyumn Ugc Net Political Science Book

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Table of Contents

Preface
Acknowledgement
About the Author
UGC NET Political Science December 2023 Question
Paper
UGC NET Political Science June 2023 Question Paper—
Shift 1
UGC NET Political Science June 2023 Question Paper—
Shift 2
UGC NET Political Science 2022 Question Paper—Shift
1
UGC NET Political Science 2022 Question Paper—Shift
2

UNIT I: POLITICAL THEORY

Chapter 1: Liberalism
Introduction
Origin of Liberalism
Individualism
Types of Liberalism
Classical Liberalism
Modern Liberalism
Libertarianism
Neo-Liberalism
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 2: Conservatism
Introduction
Origin of Conservatism
Tradition
Human Imperfection
Organic Society: Doing One’s Duty
Hierarchy and Authority
Types of Conservatism
Authoritarian Conservatism
Traditional Conservatism
Paternalistic Conservatism
Liberal Conservative and New Right Theory
Neo-Conservatism
Important Thinkers
Joseph de Maistre (1753-1821)
Edmund Burke (1729-1797)
Michael Oakeshott (1901-1990)
Friedrich von Hayek (1899-1992)
Irving Kristol (1920-2009)
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 3: Socialism
Introduction
Central argument of Socialist ideology
Early socialists
Robert Owen
Charles Fourier
Saint Simon
Proudhon
Revolutionary Socialism vs Evolutionary Socialism
Types of Evolutionary Socialism
Fabianism
German Social Democracy
Syndicalism
Revisionism
Guild Socialism
Important Authors and Books
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 4: Marxism
Introduction
Central Arguments of Marxism
Key Components of Marxism
1. Class Struggle and Stages of History
2. Base and Superstructure
3. Dialectical Materialism
4. Proletariat Revolution
5. Communism: Classless and Stateless Society
Branches of Marxism and Key Thinkers
1. Classical Marxism
2. Orthodox Marxism
3. Western Marxism
4. Structural Marxism
5. Neo-Marxism
Contribution of Engels and His Books
Contribution of Lenin and His Books
List of Important Books and Authors
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 5: Feminism
Introduction
Central Idea
Origin and Development
Key Components of Feminist Theory
Patriarchy
Personal is Political
Sex and Gender
Equality Feminism vs Difference Feminism
Types of Feminism
Liberal Feminism
Socialist Feminism
Radical Feminism
Black feminism
Transfeminism
Post-feminism
List of Important Books & Thinkers
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 6: Ecologism
Introduction
Key components of Ecologism
Types of Ecologism
Shallow Ecology vs Deep Ecology
Gaia Hypothesis
Books and Authors Related to Ecologism
Rachel Carson
Ernst Friedrich Schumacher
Arne Naess
Murray Bookchin
Caroline Merchant
Rudolf Bahro
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 7: Multiculturalism
Introduction
Central Arguments of Multiculturalism
Key Components of Multiculturalism
Identity Politics and Politics of Differences
Politics of Recognition
‘Melting Pot’ vs ‘Salad Bowl’ (Cultural Mosaic)
‘Unencumbered Self’ vs ‘Encumbered Self’
Differentiated Citizenship and Differentiated Rights
Pioneers of Multiculturalism and Key Concepts
Will Kymlicka
Charles Taylor
Tariq Modood
Bhikhu Parekh
Stuart Hall
Isaiah Berlin
James Tully
Criticism of Multicultural Theory
Thinkers and Key Concepts
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 8: Post-Modernism
Introduction
Central Argument of Post-Modernism
Deconstruction
Productive Difference
Important Thinkers and Books
Thinkers and Key Concepts
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 9: Concept of Liberty
Introduction
Definitions of Liberty
Ancient and Modern Liberty: Benjamin Constant
Two Concepts of Liberty: Isaiah Berlin
J. S. Mill’s Views on Liberty
Harold J. Laski’s Views on Liberty
Macpherson’s Views on Liberty
Atlantic Charter and Four Freedoms
Important Books and Authors
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 10: Concept of Equality
Introduction
Rousseau’s Views on Types of Inequality
Basis Conception of Equality
Important Definitions of Equality
Different Dimensions of Equality
Formal Equality
Legal Equality
Political Equality
Substantive Equality
Difference Between Equality and Equity
Equality of Opportunity vs Equality of Outcomes
Important Thinkers and Works
R. H. Tawney
Bentham
Michael Walzer
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 11: Justice
Introduction
Important Definitions of Justice
Procedural Justice vs Substantive Justice
Important Theories of Justice
Utilitarian Theory of Justice
Distributive Theory of Justice
Entitlement Theory of Justice
Communitarian Theory of Justice
Feminist Perspective of Justice
Concept of Global Justice
Amartya Sen’s Theory of Justice
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 12: Concept of Rights
Introduction
Important Definitions
Group Rights Theory
Human Rights and Three Generations of Rights
Three Generations of Rights — Karel Vasak
Emerging Fourth Generation of Human Rights
Rights As ‘Trumps’
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 13: Democracy
Introduction
Some Important Definitions Of Democracy
Six Models of Democracy by David Held
Types of Democracy
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 14: Power
Introduction
Relation Between Power and Authority
Conventional View of Power
Non-Conventional View of Power
Elite Theory vs Pluralistic Theory of Power
Postmodern Theory of Power
Important Definitions
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 15: Citizenship
Introduction
Important Definitions
Who is a citizen?
Theories of Citizenship
Liberal Theory of Citizenship
Libertarian Theory of Citizenship
Marxist Theory of Citizenship
Communitarian View of Citizenship
Feminist View of Citizenship
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Previous Years’ Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions

UNIT II: POLITICAL THOUGHT

Chapter 1: Confucius
Introduction
Components of Confucian Political Theory
The Idea of the Commonwealth
Benevolent Government
Rule of Virtue
Meritocracy in Government
Transfer of Political Power
Importance of Education
The Five Relationships
Literary Sources of Confucius’s Thought
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 2: Plato
Introduction
Theory of Ideas and Forms
Theory of Soul to Theory of Justice
Key Principles of Ideal State
Theory of Education
Communism Of Wives And Property
Types of Government
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter3: Aristotle
Introduction
Differences in Political Perspectives
Theory of State
Theory of Constitution
Theory of Citizenship
Theory of Slavery
Concept of Justice and Equality
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 4: Niccolò Machiavelli
Introduction
Impact of Renaissance
Idea of Human Nature
Advice to the Prince
Concept of Dual Morality
Concept of Secularism
Republicanism and the Idea of Liberty
Famous Quotes by Machiavelli
Commentaries on Machiavelli
Books of Machiavelli
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 5: Thomas Hobbes
Introduction
Impact of the English Civil War
Social Contract Theory
Humans in the State of Nature
Laws of Nature
Social Contract and Creation of Absolute Sovereign
Individualism in Thomas Hobbes’s Philosophy
Views on Liberty and Self-Preservation Rights
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 6: John Locke
Introduction
Idea of Human Nature and State of Nature
Need of Contract and State
Social Contract
Idea of Fiduciary Trust
Theory of Property
Three Types of Power
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 7: Rousseau
Introduction
Views on Enlightenment
State of Nature
Noble Savage
‘Amour De Soi’ vs ‘Amour Propre’
Rise of Inequality and Private Property
On Property
Social Contract
(i) General Will
(ii) Popular Sovereignty
(iii) Principle of Direct Democracy
Women as Sexual Being
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 8: Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
Introduction
Dialectical Idealism
Philosophy of History
Theory of State
Idea of Universal Class
Book List with Important Information
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 9: Mary Wollstonecraft
Introduction
Thoughts on Education
Support for Liberalism and Egalitarian View
A Vindication of the Rights of Women
List of Books with the Central Idea
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 10: John Stuart Mill
Introduction
Concept of Liberty and Harm Principle
Revision of Utilitarianism
John Stuart Mill as a Feminist
Representative Government
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 11: Karl Marx
Introduction
Capitalism and Freedom
Communist Manifesto and Revolution
Ideology and Religion
Marx on State
Asiatic Mode of Production
Young Karl Marx vs. Mature Karl Marx
Commentaries on Karl Marx
Famous Quotes of Karl Marx for Exam
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 12: Antonio Gramsci
Introduction
Difference Between Karl Marx’s & Antonio Gramsci’s
Thoughts
Concept of Hegemony
Civil Society vs Political Society
War of Position vs War of Movement
Organic Intellectuals vs Traditional Intellectuals
Historical Relativism vs Historical Materialism
Workers Council
Important Writings And Works
Gramsci’s Essays
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 13: Hannah Ardent
Introduction
Existentialism and Criticism of Western Political
Thought
Theory of Totalitarianism
Theory of Action
Theory of Power
Views on Revolution
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 14: Frantz Fanon
Introduction
Post-Colonial Dilemma
Colour Hegemony
Violence in Colonial Rule
Manichaeism
Dehumanization Thesis
Dimensions of Decolonization
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 15: Mao Zedong
Introduction
Major Contributions to Marxist Theory
Permanent Revolution
Antagonistic and Non-Antagonistic Contradictions
People’s War
New Democracy
Other Important Concepts
Important Works of Mao Zedong
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 16: John Rawls
Introduction
Theory Of Justice
Original Position
Veil of Ignorance
Maximin Principle
Reflexive Equilibrium
Principles Of Justice
Lexical Order
List of Important Writings and Books in Chronology
Important Terms And Key Concepts
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Previous Years’ Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions

UNIT III: INDIAN POLITICAL THOUGHT


Chapter 1: Dharmashastra
Introduction
History and Origin
Four Important Dharmasutras
Śhrutis and Sm itis in Hindu Philosophy
Manu Sm itis
Principle of Purushartha
Varnas
Theory of State
Nature of State
Duties of King
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 2: Kautilya
Introduction
Arthashastra
Theory of State
The Saptang Theory (Seven Elements of State)
Mandal Siddhant (Theory of Circle)
Theory of Diplomacy
Shada Gunya Siddhanta/Six forms of Diplomacy
Kautilya on Corruption
Commentaries on Kautilya
List of books and Authors on Kautilya
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 3: Aggannasutta
Introduction
Origin of Life on Earth
Origin of Social Order (Social Contract Theory)
The Creation of Caste Order
Theories of Kingship
Key Quotes of buddha in Agganasutta
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 4: Ziauddin Barani
Introduction
Advice for his Ideal Sultan
Personal Characteristics of Sultan
Statecraft Advice
Zawabit/State Laws
Structure of Bureaucracy
Judiciary
Controlled Market for Social Justice
Army
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 5: Kabir
Introduction
Works of Kabir
Influences on Kabir
Socio-Religious Thought of Kabir
Political Thoughts of Kabir
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 6: Pandita Ramabai
Introduction
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 7: Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Introduction
Important Events and Contributions
Idea of Swaraj
Nationalism
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 8: Swami Vivekananda
Introduction
Key Events and Contributions
Neo-Vedanta Philosophy
Cultural Nationalism
Famous Quotes of Swami Vivekananda
Important Works
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 9: Rabindranath Tagore
Introduction
Important Events and Achievements
Critique of Nationalism and Indian National Leaders
Synthetic Universalism
Important Books and Themes
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 10: M. K. Gandhi
Introduction
Non-Violence and Truth
Important Influences on M. K. Gandhi
Idea of Swaraj
Satyagraha
Trusteeship and Class Cooperation
The Oceanic Circle and Views on Democracy
Views on Science
Unity of Means And Ends
Key Debates
M. K. Gandhi vs. Dr B. R. Ambedkar
M. K. Gandhi vs Karl Marx
Important Organizations and Ashrams Established by
M. K. Gandhi
Famous Satyagraha By M. K. Gandhi
Works of M. K. Gandhi
Books
Magazines
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 11: Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
Introduction
Key Events and Contributions
Phase I: Concept of Nationalism
Phase II: Spiritual Activism (1910–50): Idea of Integral Yoga:
Important Works
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 12: Periyar E. V. Ramasamy Naicker
Introduction
Key Events and Contributions
Critique of Caste System
Ideas of Women’s Liberation
Critique of Congress and M. K. Gandhi
List of Books and Newspaper
Newspapers and Journals
Important Books
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 13: Muhammad Iqbal
Introduction
Key Events and Contribution
Critique of Nationalism
Idea of Pan-Islamism
Important Works
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 14: Manabendra Nath Roy
Introduction
Key Events and Contributions
Communist Phase Thoughts
Critique of Communism
Important Books and Writings
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 15: Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
Introduction
Key Events and Contributions
Concept of Hindutva and Hindu Rashtra
Political Career and Association with Hindu
Mahasabha
Important Books and Key Ideas
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 16: Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar
Introduction
Key Events and Contribution
Critique of Caste System
Idea of Social Justice
Important Dalit Movements
List of Books and Works
Periodicals
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 17: Jawahar Lal Nehru
Introduction
Key Events and Contributions
Democratic Socialism
Scientific Humanism
List of Books and Writing
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 18: Ram Manohar Lohia
Introduction
Key Events and Contributions
Four Pillar State
Seven Types of Revolution (Sapta Kranti)
New Socialism
Important Works & Books
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 19: Jayaprakash Narayan
Introduction
Key Events and Contributions
Democratic Socialism
Idea of Total Revolution (Sampoorana Kranti)
Important Books and Writings
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 20: Deen Dayal Upadhyay
Introduction
Key Events and Contributions
Integral Humanism
Nationalist View
Antyodaya
His Major Works
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Previous Years’ Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions

UNIT IV: COMPARATIVE POLITICAL THOUGHT

Chapter 1: Approaches to Comparative Politics


Introduction
Evolution of Approaches of Comparative Political
Analysis
Phase 1
Phase 2
Phase 3
Institutional Approach
Institutional Approach: Thinkers and Books
Political Culture Approach
Political Culture Approach: Thinkers and Books
Political Economy Approach
Political Economy: Thinkers and Books
New-Institutional Approach
Thinkers and Books
Behaviouralism vs Post-Behaviouralism
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 2: Colonialism and Decolonization
Introduction
Forms of Colonialism
Stages of Colonialism
First Stage: Monopoly Trade and Plunder
Second Stage: Era of Free Trade
Third Stage: Era of Finance Capital
Idea of Neo-Colonialism
Beginning of Decolonization
Factors behind Decolonization
List of Important Books and Authors
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 3: Nationalism
Introduction
Ernest Gellner’s Theory of Nationalism
Benedict Anderson’s Concept of Nationalism
Types of Nationalism
European v/s Non-European Nationalism
List of Important Books and Authors
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 4: State Theory
Introduction
Capitalist State vs Socialist State
Post–Colonial State
Thinkers and Thoughts
Welfare State
Thinkers and Thoughts
Globalization And Nations-State
Important Books and Authors
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 5: Political Regimes
Introduction
Democratic Regimes
Electoral Democracy
Liberal Democracy
Majoritarian Democracy
Participatory Democracy
Non-Democratic Regimes
Totalitarianism
Fascism
Patrimonialism
Authoritarian Regimes
Bureaucratic Authoritarianism
Military Dictatorship
Related Books
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 6: Constitution and Constitutionalism
Introduction
Difference Between Written & Unwritten Constitution
Concept of Rule of Law
Albert Venn Dicey
System of Judicial Independence
Important Terms
Procedure Established by Law vs Due Process of Law
Feature of Liberal Constitutionalism
Unitary Government vs Federal Government
Emergency Power & Challenge to Constitutionalism
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 7: Democratization
Introduction
History of Democratic Ideas
Samuel P. Huntington Waves of Democratization
First Wave (1828–1926)
Second Wave (Second World War—the mid-1960s)
Third Wave (the 1970s Onwards)
Democratic Consolidation
List of Important Books
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 8: Theories of Development
Introduction
Modernization Theory
Main Postulates of Modernization Theory
Talcott Parson’s Views on Modernization
Walt Rostow’s 5 Stages of Economic Growth
Samuel P. Huntington’s Idea on Modernization
Lucian Pye’s Ideas of Political Development
Dependency Theory and Theory of Underdevelopment
Central Themes and Characteristics of Dependency
A. G. Frank’s Theory of Development of
Underdevelopment
Immanuel Wallerstein’s World System Theory
Comparison Between the Theories of Development
Important Books & Writings
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 9: Structure of Power
Elite Theory of Power
Vilfredo Pareto’s Circulation of Elite Theory
Gaetano Mosca’s idea of Ruling Class
Robert Michel’s Iron Law of Oligarchy
Joseph Schumpeter’s Elitist Democracy
Contemporary Theory of Elitism
C. Wright Mills’s Concept of Power Elite
Robert Putnam
James Burnham
G. William Domhoff
Thomas Dye
List of Books, Thinkers and Key Concepts
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 10: Actor and Processes
Electoral System
Types of Majoritarian Electoral Systems
Proportional Representation
Single Transferable Vote System
Party List System
Mixed-Member Proportional Representation (MMP)
Political Party System
Duverger’s Theory of Party System
Sartori’s Political System Theory
Lipset and Rokkan’s Classification
Types of Cleavages
Interest Group Theory
Social Movement
NGO’s & Civil Society Campaigns
Revolution
Important Scholars and Their Works
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Previous Year Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions

UNIT V: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

Chapter 1: Approaches of International Relations


Introduction
Idealism
Key Concepts and Thinkers
Realism
Key Concepts and Thinkers
Structural Marxism
Key Concepts and Thinkers
Neo-Liberalism
Key Concepts and Thinkers
Neo-Realism
Key Concepts and Thinkers
Neo-Liberalism vs Neo-Realism
Social Constructivism
Key Concepts and Thinkers
Critical International Theory
Key Concepts and Thinkers
Feminism
Key Concepts and Thinkers
Post-Modernism/Post-Structuralism
Key Concepts and Thinkers
List of Important Books & Thinkers
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 2: Concepts of International Relations
Introduction
State and Nation-State System
Non-State Actors
Theories of Power in International Relations
Hard, Soft, and Smart Power
Theories of Sovereignty
Concept of Security (Traditional and Non-Traditional)
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 3: Conflict and Peace
Introduction
Concept of Peace
Concept of Conflict
Changing Nature of Warfare
Weapon of Mass Destruction
Deterrence
Concept of Dual Deterrence
Conflict Resolution
Various Dimensions of Conflict Resolution are
Conflict Transformation
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 4: United Nations
Introduction
Aims and Objectives of United Nations
Structure and Organs of the United Nations
United Nations General Assembly
United Nations Security Council
Demand for Reforms in United Nations Security
Council
United Nation Economic and Social Council
Secretariat
Trusteeship Council
International Court of Justice
Specialized Agency of the United Nations
Important Peace Initiatives of the United Nations
Important Humanitarian Interventions
International Criminal Court
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 5: Political Economy of International
Relations
Introduction
Bretton Woods System
The Bretton Woods System Established
Main Objectives
World Trade Organization
Structure of World Trade Organization
North–South Dialogue
G-
BRICS
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 6: Regional Organization
Introduction
European Union
African Union
Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
Development of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN)
Structure of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Led Forum
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 7: Contemporary Challenges in International
Relations
Introduction
International Terrorism
Types of Terrorism
Impacts of Terrorism
World Initiatives to Fight Terrorism
Climate Change and Environmental Concerns
Important Environmental Treaties and Conventions
Human Rights
Three Generations of Human Rights
Migration and Refugees
New York Declaration of Refugees and Migrants
International Organization for Migration (IOM)
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Previous Years’ Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions

UNIT VI: INDIA’S FOREIGN POLICY

Chapter 1: Perspectives on Indian Foreign Policy


Introduction
India as Post-Colonial Country
India as a Rising Power in World
India as an Emerging Economic Power
Major Events that Shaped Indian Foreign Policy
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 2: Indian Foreign Policy
Introduction
Principles of Indian Foreign Policy
Determinants of Indian Foreign Policy
Non-Aligned Movement
Relevance of Non-Aligned Movement
India’s Nuclear Policy
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 3: India’s Relations with Major Powers
Introduction
India–US Relations
Relations During the Cold War Era
Relations in Post-Cold War Era
Important Agreements and Objectives
India–Russia Relations
Relations with USSR
Relations Post-Cold War Era
India–China Relations
China’s Palm and Five Finger
Major Border Issues
List of Important Agreements
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 4: India’s Engagement with Multi-Polar World
Introduction
India’s Relations with European Union
Important Summits & Agreements
India and BRICS
BRICS Summits & Agreements
India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN)
India and Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
Important Summits
India and the African Union
India–Africa Forum Summit (IAFS)
India and South African Development Community
(SADC)
India and Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
India–Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) Political Dialogue
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 5: India’s Relations with Neighbourhoods
Introduction
India and South Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation (SAARC)
India’s Contribution to South Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation (SAARC)
List of SAARC Summit held in India
Gujaral Doctrine
Look East Policy
Act East Policy
Initiatives to Enhance Connectivity
Look West Policy
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 6: India’s Negotiation Strategies in
International Regimes
Introduction
India and United Nations
Key Events and Contributions
India and World Trade Organization
India’s Role in World Trade Organization Summit
Major Problems and Concerns of India and World Trade
Organization
India’s Coordination with International Monetary Fund
India’s Negotiation Strategies in International
Regimes
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 7: Contemporary Challenges to Indian Foreign
Policy
Introduction
Maritime Security
Key Indian Initiatives for Maritime Security in the Indian Ocean
Energy Security
Important Deals for Energy Security
Environmental Security
India’s Contribution Towards Climate Change Mitigation
Migrants and Refugee Issues for India
Existing Legislative Framework in India to Handle Refugees
Refugee Groups in India
Water Resources: Major Water Disputes with
Neighbours
India–China Water Dispute
India–Bangladesh
India–Nepal
India–Pakistan
Terrorism Concern of India
Major Terrorist Attacks in India
Terrorist Threats for India
Cyber Security
Challenges to Cyber Security in India
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Previous Years’ Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions

Unit VII: Political Institutions in India

Chapter 1: Making of the Indian Constitution


Introduction
Regulating Act of 1773
Pitts India Act 1784
Charter Acts
Government of India Act, 1858
Indian Councils Act, 1861
Indian Councils Act, 1909
Government of India Act, 1919
Communal Award
Government of India Act, 1935
Independence of India Act, 1947
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 2: Constituent Assembly
Introduction
Composition of the Constituent Assembly
Assembly’s Important Characteristics
Changed Composition of the Constituent Assembly
after Independence
Major Constitutional Debates
1. Between Gandhians and Modernists
2. Debates about the Nature of Federalism
3. Presidential System vs the Parliamentary System
4. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
5. The System of Judicial Appointment
6. Debate on the Preamble
Important Dates and Decisions of Constituent
Assembly
Major Committees
Drafting Committee
Enactment of the Constitution
Criticism of the Constituent Assembly
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 3: Philosophy of the Constitution
Introduction
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution
Preamble
Preamble Related Judicial Cases
Quotes on Preamble
Fundamental Rights
Fundamental Rights Available for Foreigners
Abolition and Evolution of Fundamental Rights After
1950
Directive Principles of States Policy
Gandhian Principles
Socialist Principles
Liberal-Intellectual Principles
New Directive Principles of State Policy by Amendments
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 4: Constitutionalism in India
Introduction
Principles of Democracy in India
Laws & Acts for Social Change & National Unity
Provisions of Checks and Balances in the Constitution
Legislature Control
Executive Control
Judicial Control
Idea of Basic Structure
Origin & Debates
List of Basic Structures
Constitutional Amendment
Provisions of Constitutional Amendments
List of Major Constitutional Amendments
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 5: Union Executive
Introduction
President
Important Articles and Functions of the President
Election of President
Impeachment of President
Veto Power of President
Prime Minister
Appointment & Removal
Other Key Functions of the Prime Minister
Role Descriptions
Council of Ministers
Structure of the Council of Ministers
Role Description
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 6: Union Parliament
Introduction
Structure of the Indian Parliament
Qualifications for Member of Parliament
Constitutional
Representation of People Act (1951): (Parliament)
Disqualifications for Members of Parliament
Constitutional: If He/She
Representation of People Act 1951 (Act of the Parliament of
India)
Disqualification on the Ground of Defection
Important Articles Related to Lok Sabha & Rajya
Sabha
Lok Sabha Powers in comparison to Rajya Sabha
Special Powers of Rajya Sabha
Parliamentary Procedures & Instruments
Devices of Parliamentary Proceedings
Joint Sitting of Parliament
Parliamentary Committees
Important Standing Committees of Parliament
Committees Relating to the Day-to-Day Business of
the House
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 7: Judiciary
Introduction
Supreme Court of India
Functions and Powers of the Supreme Court
Important Articles Related to the Supreme Court
Appointment of Judges
Impeachment of Supreme Court Judges
High Courts in India
Power and Function of the High Court
Important Articles Related to the High Court
Appointment of Judges in the High Court
Removal of High Court Judges
Judicial Review in India
Important Cases Related to Judicial Review
Judicial Activism
Important Cases Related to Judicial Activism
Important Judicial Reforms Needed in India
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 8: Executive and Legislature in the States
Introduction
Governor
Executive Powers
Judicial Power
List of Articles and Related Functions
Important Cases and Committee Recommendations
Chief Minister
List of Articles and Related Functions
Council of the Ministers
State Legislature
List of Articles and Related Functions
Structure of State Legislature
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 9: Federalism in India
Introduction
Federal Structure of India
Provisions Indicating a Strong Centre in India
Asymmetrical Federal Provisions in India
Political and Constitutional Asymmetry
The Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Constitution
Union Territory: Established in Sync with the Federal Asymmetry
Fiscal Asymmetry
Intergovernmental Coordination Mechanisms
Inter-State Water Disputes
Zonal Councils
North-Eastern Council
NITI Aayog
GST Council
Inter-State Council
Commentaries on Indian Federalism
Important Books
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 10: Electoral Process and Election
Commission of India
Introduction
Election Commission of India
Structure of the Election Commission
Powers and Functions of the Election Commission
Appointment and Removal of Election Commissioner
Election in India, Conduct and Rules
Basic Rules and Important Provisions
Model Code of Conduct
Representation of Peoples Act of 1951
Electoral Reforms in India
Lists of Electoral Reforms Introduced
Lists of Electoral Reforms Suggested
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 11: Local Government Institutions in India
Introduction
Timeline of Evolution
Committees for Panchayati Raj Institutions and
Recommendations
Seventy-Third Amendment Act
Articles and Provisions
Compulsory vs Voluntary Provision of Panchayati Raj
Institutions Act
Compulsory Provisions
Voluntary Provisions
Functions in Eleventh Schedule
Panchayats Extention to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act of 1996
Urban Local Self Government: Municipalities
Seventy-Fourth Amendment Act
Articles and Provisions
Types of Urban Local Self-Government
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 12: Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Introduction
Difference Between Constitutional and Statutory Body
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Appointment & Tenure
Independence
Important Duties & Functions
Important Constitutional and Statutory Bodies
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Previous Years’ Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions

UNIT VIII: POLITICAL PROCESSES IN INDIA

Chapter 1: State, Economy and Development


Nature of the Indian State
Planning in India
History and Evolution of Planning in India
Five Year Plans in India
Merits and Demerits of Planning in India
New Economic Policy
Economic Crisis of 1990s
Factors leading to Crisis
Impact of the Crisis
Foreign Aid from IMF and World Bank
Stabilising Measures
Structural Reforms (Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalization)
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 2: Process of Globalization
Introduction
Globalization in India
Dimensions and Implications of Globalization
Major Challenges Caused by Globalization in India
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 3: Identity Politics in India
Introduction
Religion and Politics in India
Causes of Communalism
Tribal Politics in India
Theories of Important Thinkers
Caste Politics in India
Theories of Important Thinkers
Regional Politics in India
Language Politics in India
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 4: Social Movements in India
Introduction
Dalit Movements
Pre Independence Dalit Movements
Post-Independence Dalit Movement
Tribal Movements
Tribal Movement in Pre Independence
Tribal Movement in Post-Independence
Women Movements
Pre-independence
Post Independence
Peasant Movements
Pre Independence
Post Independence
Labour Movements
Pre Independence
Pre-1918: The Genesis of the Labour Movement in India
1918 – 1924: The Early Trade Union Phase
1925 – 1934: Period of Left-wing Trade Unionism
1935 – 1938: The Congress Interregnum
1939 – 1946: Period of Labour Activism
Post Independence
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 5: Civil Society Groups in India
Introduction
Importance of Civil Society Organizations
Non-Party Social Formation in India
Pre Independence Phase
Post Independence phase
Top NGOs of India
Important Social Action Groups in India
Few Important Social Action groups in India
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 6: Regionalization of Indian Politics
Introduction
Regional Movements can be of Different Types
Major Causes of Regionalism in India
Major theories related to regionalism
Reorganization of States in India
Indian State Structure Before 1956
Commission for Linguistic Reorganization
Linguistic Reorganization in 1956
Timeline of Reorganization After 1956
New Statehood Demands in India
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 7: Gender and Politics in India
Introduction
Gender and Politics In India
Women and Political Representation
Gender Discrimination in India
Issues of Equality and Representation
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 8: Ideology and Social Basis of Political
Parties
Introduction
National Political Parties
Conditions for Declaring a Party ‘National’
State Party in India
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 9: Electoral Politics in India
Introduction
Participation
Measure to enhance voter participation
Types of Electoral Systems in India
Contestation
Representation
Emerging Trends
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Previous Years’ Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions

UNIT IX: PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

Chapter 1: Public Administration: Evolution and


Theories
Introduction
Evolution of Public Administration
The Era of Politics- Administration Dichotomy (1887–1926)
Phase 2 – Principles of Administration (1927–1937)
Phase 3 – Behavioral Challenges (1938–1947)
Phase 4 – Crisis of Identity (1948 –1970)
Phase 5 – New Public Administration (1971 onwards)
Public and Private Administration
Approaches to Public Administration
Systems Theory
Main proponent
Decision-Making Theory
Herbert Simon’s Decision-Making Approach
Public-Choice Theory
Bargaining Approach
Postulates of Decision-Making
Ecological Approach
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 2: Theories of Public Administration and
Concepts
Scientific Management Theory
Comparative Public Administration
F W Riggs Contribution in Comparative Public Administration
Comparative Administrative Group
Development Administration
Main Objectives of Development Administration
Key characteristics of Development Administration
New Public Administration (NPA)
Context of Origin
Goals of NPA
New Public Management
Context of Origin
Main features of NPM
Factors responsible for the rise of NPM:
Public Administration in the Era of Liberalization and
Globalization
Minnowbrook Conference III (2008)
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 3: Theories and Principles of Organization
Introduction
Scientific Management Theory
Principles of Scientific Management
Criticism
Bureaucratic Theory
Criticism
Human Relations Theory
Conclusions of Hawthorne Studies
Criticism
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 4: Managing the Organization
Introduction
Important Theories of Motivation
Traditional theories of motivation
Modern Theories of Motivation
Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory
Motivation-Hygiene Theory or Two Factor Theory
Important Theories of Leadership
Rensis Likert I-IV Model
Thought Concerning Management System
Douglas McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y
Theory X
Theory Y
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 5: Organizational Communication
Introduction
Meaning of Communication
Important Theories and Principles of Communication
Chester Barnard’s Principles of Communication
Formal and Informal Organization
Steps in Communication
Principles of Communication
Acceptance Theory of Authority
Zone of Indifference
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 6: Management of Conflicts and Objectives
Mary Parker Follett-Conflict management
Conflict and Integration
Steps to achieve integration
Obstacles in the Integration
Management by Objectives: Peter Drucker
Five Steps of MBO
Advantages of MBO
Disadvantages of MBO
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Previous Years’ Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions

Unit X: Governance and Public Policy in India

Chapter 1: Governance and Good Governance


Introduction
Good Governance
Good Governance in India
Role of State in Good Governance
Role of Civil Society in Good Governance
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 2: Accountability and Control in India
Introduction
Vertical vs Horizontal Accountability
Role of Check and Balance for Good Governance
Checks and Balances – Constitutional Provisions
Legislative Control Over Executive in India
Administrative and Budgetary Control
Executive Control Over Administration:
Budgetary Control
Control Through Parliamentary Committees
Judicial control Over Legislature
Judicial Control over Executive
Administrative Reforms in India
1st ARC
Major Recommendations of 1st ARC
2nd ARC
Major recommendations of 2nd ARC
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 3: Institutional Mechanisms for Good
Governance
Introduction
Right to Information
Evolution of RTI in India
Important Information About RTI Act
Act of 2019 to Amend the Right to Information
Central Information Commission
Consumer Protection Act
2019 Consumer Protection Act
Citizen’s Charter
Citizen’s Charter in India
Principles of Citizen’s Charter
2nd ARC recommendation for Citizen’s Charter
Sevottam Model
Grievance redress system in India
Evolution of the Lokpal System in India
Structure of Lokpal
Power of Lokpal
Lokayukta in State
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 4: Grassroots Governance in India
Introduction
Advantages of Grassroot Governance:
Panchayati Raj Institutions in India
Structure of the Panchayati Raj system
Powers and Functions
Governance Initiatives and Development
e-Panchayat Mission Mode Project:
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 5: Planning and Development in India
Introduction
Decentralized Planning Structure in India
Sustainable Development Policies in India
Participatory Development Policies in India
Development and e-governance Policies
NITI AAYOG
Composition of Niti Aayog
Major Initiatives taken by NITI Aayog
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Chapter 6: Public Policy as an Instrument of Socio–
Economic Development
Introduction
Stages of Policy Making
Public Policy in India
Important Public Policy of Housing in India
Important Public Policy of Health in India
National Health Policy, 2017
Key Targets
Ayushman Bharat
Main features of PM –JAY
Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission
(ABHIM)
National Health Mission
Key Targets
Major Initiative Under NHM
Important Public Policy of Drinking Water in India
Jal Jeevan Mission
Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban)
Important Public Policy of Food Security in India
National Food Security Act
Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY)
Latest Development
One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) Scheme
MGNREGA
Features of MGNREGA
Right to Education
RTE Amendment Act 2019
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Chapter 7: Monitoring and Evaluation of Public Policy
in India
Introduction
Accountable Governance in India
Jansunwai
The importance of public hearings
Social Audit
Performing social audits
Most Expected Practice Questions
Answer Key
Previous Years’ Questions
Answer Key
Explanation for Selected Questions
Preface

If you are preparing for a Competitive examination like UGC NET,


cracking it, is not about how much knowledge you have about the
subject, but it’s about how much you can score. A good source is
only possible when an aspirant knows ‘what to study and what not to
study?’ and one who can maintain a balanced approach towards
each section of the syllabus. Considering the problem that is faced
by the aspirants preparing for UGC NET Political Science Exam in
covering the vast syllabus, this UGC NET Political Science Exam
Comprehensive is designed in an exam-oriented manner. Second
Edition is designed with the goal of maximum score with minimum
effort.
The content in this book is exam tested by the author and already
helped thousands of aspirants in Cracking the UGC NET /JRF
Exam. All 10 units and respective chapters in the book include the
most crucial information which usually get converted into a question
in the examination.
UGC NET Political science examination is a good combination of
conceptual as well as factual questions, considering that every topic
is explained with precision and relevant factual information is also
added in tabular and pictorial format to ensure that an aspirant
doesn’t need to browse multiple sources. This book is a one stop
solution for the students preparing for UGC NET and other Political
Science related Competitive examination.
Another important point that an aspirant need to understand is
that knowledge is useless if it’s not ready for application. Here
comes the role of Practice Questions. Chapter-wise practice
question will be a quick evaluation parameter for aspirant to verify
their conceptual understanding. The availability of Previous year
questions after every unit will put aspirants on the right path of
preparation and it will light up the torch of motivation and confidence.
I genuinely hope that the efforts that were taken by us in creation
of this book will be contribute immensely is making your preparation
journey smooth and interesting. Any comments or suggestions for
enhancing the content would be much appreciated. Your comments
will significantly contribute to making this book an outstanding
resource. You can connect with me through
ignoranceisunhuman@gmail.com
Telegram id - @Pradyumn_Sir
Pradyumn Tripathi
Acknowledgement

First and foremost, I would like to thank my mother, Mrs. Purnima


Tripathi, and father, Mr. K. N. Tripathi, for always being by my side
throughout my journey. Mrs. Richa Tiwari, my beloved sister, for
always encouraging me to strive for higher goals in my life.
Dr. R K Sarin, my undergrad professor, has had the most impact
on my life. His dedication to his work inspires me to improve my
teaching skills every day. I’d like to thank all of my teachers
throughout my life for their contributions to making me a better
person.
This book is the result of the efforts of a group of UGC NET and
JRF qualified aspirants; without them, this project would not be
possible. I’d like to thank Aamir Khan (JRF 2022), Sachin Kumar
(JRF 2022), Dayangzi Sherpa (JRF 2022), Prashant Singh Chauhan
(JRF 2022), Pingakschya Patnaik (JRF 2022), Ayushi Rana (NET
2021), Sahil Sheikh (NET 2021), and Priyanka (NET 2021) for their
contributions to this book.
I also wish to acknowledge the support of my lovely flat mates
and friends Anil Patel, Shubham Kumar Gupta, Prem Divakar and
Himanshu Shekhar. They all are my family in Delhi and they
provided me the appropriate atmosphere so that I can dedicatedly
work on this book. Last but not the least special thanks to my
ladylove Jyoti Rohilla for always being supportive and understanding
my situation when I was consumed in preparing this book.
Mr. Bhupesh Sharma and the entire Pearson Publication team
deserve special thanks for providing me with this opportunity and
smoothly guiding me through my first authorship.
About the Author

Pradyumn Tripathi is a well-known mentor for students preparing for


the UGC NET Political Science Exam, as well as State SET Exams,
Ph.D. entrance Exams, PGT and Assistant Professor Exams. Author
is an alma mater of University of Delhi Department of Political
Science and JRF (Junior Research Fellowship) qualified. He is
currently a research scholar and pursuing PH.D. in subject of
Political Science.
He has over 5 years of teaching experience and has mentored
over 50000+ students and assisted 1000+ aspirants in achieving
their goals. He is a YouTube sensation among Political Science
students, widely praised and followed by students for his exceptional
teaching ability and exam-oriented content delivery. Author
previously worked as a Political Science Faculty with Ed-tech
platform Byju’s Exam Prep and is now guiding aspirants on Testbook
Platform.
UGC NET Political Science
December 2023 Question Paper

1. The process in which the dictatorial ruling elite introduces liberalizing


reforms that ultimately lead to a democratic transition is known as-
(a) Bottom-up democratic transition
(b) Top-down democratic transition
(c) First reverse wave
(d) Second reverse wave

2. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and


the other is labeled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): It is plausible to think that autonomy involves a
kind of skills that individuals must develop, exercise and maintain.
This ongoing process of planning and managing is not automatic
but requires efforts and resources that are secured by social and
material conditions provided by the state.
Reason (R): However, the commitment to individual autonomy
cannot force the liberal state to provide the social and material
conditions by which citizens could come to be autonomous. It must
depend on the individuals to strive independently for achieving their
autonomy.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from
the options given below.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation o
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.

3. Choose the correct statements from the following:


(A) Weapons of Mass Destruction, inter alia, include atomic explo
Weapons.
(B) Biological weapons are not included under the category
Weapons of Mass Destruction.
(C) Chemical Weapons Convention outlaws the Weapons of M
Destruction.
(D) Chemical Weapons Convention entered into force in 1998.
(a) A and B only
(b) C and D only
(c) A and C only
(d) B and C only

4. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(A)Liberation (I)Shared
understanding and
common meaning,
based on shared
history, culture or
worldview
(B)Communitansim (II) No need for
members to sha
common culture
history, worldvie
language or valu
system
(C)Liberal Nationalism (III) Moral concern fo
one another as f
and equal citizen
(D)Multiculturalism/Difference (IV) Shared national
theory based on a
common history
language and
culture

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)


(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

5. Which of the following is not a principle of Nozick’s entitlemen


theory?
(a) A principal of transfer- whatever is justly acquired can be fr
transferred.
(b) A principal of just initial acquisition- an account of how pe
come to initially own the things which can be transferre
accordance with (1).
(c) A principal of final acquisition- an account of how people com
finally own the thing which has been transferred in accorda
with (1).
(d) A principal of rectification of injustice- how to deal with holdin
they were unjustified acquired or transferred.

6. Find out the correct definition of different scholars on party systems.


(A) Modern democracy is a party democracy (Katz).
(B) Democracy is unthinkable save in terms of parties (Schumpete
(C) Parties are the core institutions of democratic politics (Lipset).
(D) The existence of political parties is often as a necessary cond
for the existence of modern democracy (Robert Dahl).
(a) A, B, C, D only
(b) B only
(c) D only
(d) A and C only

7. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and


the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): India has historically been deemed a safe haven
for refugees.
Reason (R): India has no refugee law and has not signed the
1951 Refugee Convention.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation o
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.

8. Choose the correct statements given below:


(A) Conflict in society and politics is inevitable
(B) The usage of violence in conflicts cannot be eliminated by prot
against such violence.
(C) Non-violence action can be categorized into three meth
protests and persuasion, non-cooperation and non-vio
intervention.
(D) Use of non-violent methods is a guarantee of success.
(a) B, C and D
(b) A, C and D
(c) A, B, C and D
(d) A, B and C

9. What is true about the following statement related to Ram Manoha


Lohia?
(A) He discusses seven types of revolution.
(B) He talks about ‘Partyless Democracy’.
(C) He is an author of the ‘Aspects of socialist policy’.
(D) He did not give the Concept of ‘Four-Pillar State’.
(E) He said that ‘the history of the growth of freedom is the histo
the perfection of human relationship’.
(a) A, B, E only
(b) A, C, E only
(c) B, D, E Only
(d) B, C, D only

10. Which of the following aspects of Gandhi’s theory of Satyagraha


can help in the process of dialogue in plural societies threatened by
mutual distrust?
(A) Attention to the preconditions of dialogue helps to establish
moral standing of the participants.
(B) Knowledge that our grasp over truth is partial inculcates
restraint.
(C) The satyagrahi is not responsible for creating and recrea
dialogical space.
(D) Commitment to non-violence dissipates feelings of alienation
otherness.
(E) A readiness to compromise may negate the moral standin
participants.
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) A, B, C and D only
(c) B, C, D and E only
(d) A, C, D and E only

11. The theory that argues, ‘countries are more likely both to become
democratic and to stay democratic as they develop economically’,
is known as
(a) Dependency theory
(b) World systems theory
(c) Classic Modernization theory
(d) Theory of underdevelopment

12. Match List I and II

List I Books List II Writers


(A)A plea for the reconstruction of (I)V.D.
Indian Polity Savarkar
(B)India of my dreams (II) Ram Manohar
Lohia
(C)The Indian War of Independence of (III) M.K. Gandhi
1857
(D)Marx, Gandhi and Socialism (IV) Jayaprakash
Narayan

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)


(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(c) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

13. Who said that statement ‘think and act in terms of interest defined
as power’?
(a) Morgenthau
(b) George F. Kennan
(c) Harold Nicholson
(d) Henry A. Kissinger

14. The paper entitled ‘The Study of Administration’ published in


Political Science Quarterly in 1887, was written by:
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Mary Parker Follett
(d) Max Weber
15. Match List I with List II

List I Books List II Authors


(A)The success of India’s (I)C.P.
democracy Bhambri
(B)Caste in Indian Politics (II) Atul Kohli
(C)Political Process in India, 1947- (III) Rajni Kothari
1991
(D)The Oxford Companion to (IV) Nirja Jayal and Prat
Politics in India B Mehta

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)


(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

16. Who among the following thinkers are associated with participatory
democracy?
(A) Carole Pateman
(B) Ian Shapiro
(C) Benjamin Barber
(D) Jurgen Habermas
(E) C.B. Macpherson
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) A, C and E only
(d) A, C and D only

17. Aristotle criticized popular rule on the grounds that the masses
would resent the wealth of the few, and too easily, fail under the
sway of the following:
(a) The king
(b) The leading citizens
(c) The demagogue
(d) None of the given options

18. Find out the correct one with regard to Atul Kohli’s distinction
between pro-market and pro-business State intervention in India in
the 1980s.
(A) Pro-business strategy mainly supports established producers
(B) Pro-business supports new entrants and consumers
(C) Pro-market strategy supports established producers
(D) Pro-market strategy supports new entrants and consumers
(a) B only
(b) C only
(c) A and C only
(d) A and D only

19. Arrange the following in their theoretical sequence, in keeping with


the Marxist conception or the materialist conception of history.
(A) the proletariat seizes political power and turns the mean
production into state property.
(B) finally, the proletariat abolishes itself, abolishes all c
distinctions and class antagonism and also abolishes the stat
a state.
(C) while the capitalist mode of production more and more transfo
the great majority of the population into proletarians, it creat
power that is forced to accomplish a revolution against capitalis
(D) The present structure of society is the creation of the current ru
class, the bourgeoisie.
(E) Steam, machinery and the making of machines by machi
transformed the older manufacture, and carried out u
feudalism, into modern industry.
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) E, D, C, A, B
(c) D, A, B, C, E
(d) C, A, B, E, D

20. Name the country that does not fall within the ‘Asian Tiger’
economies:
(a) South Korea
(b) Singapore
(c) Hong Kong
(d) Burma

21. Who among the following thinkers is not associated with Feminist
Theory?
(a) Susan Sontag
(b) Carole Pateman
(c) Martha Nussbaum
(d) Judith Butler

22. Match List I with List II

List I List II Meaning


Electoral
Systems
Terminologie
s
(A)Universal (I)An electoral system in
suffrage which individuals cast a
single vote for a candidate
in a single-member district.
(B)Majoritarian (II) A form of majoritaria
electoral electoral system tha
systems involves preferentia
voting
(C)Single- (III) The right to vote wh
member is not restricted by r
district gender, belief or soc
plurality status.
system
(D)Alternative (IV) An electoral system
vote which the candidate
parties that receive
most votes win

(a) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)


(b) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(d) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

23. Which of the subjects is not part of the concurrent list?


(a) Bankruptcy and insolvency
(b) Prevention of cruelty to animals
(c) Markets and fairs
(d) Economic and social planning

24. Which of the following concepts are not related to John Rawls?
(a) Justice as fairness
(b) Distributive Justice
(c) Class in itself
(d) Veil of ignorance

25. Which of the following is not, according to Bhikhu Parekh, a


question usually ignored by Indian political thought?
(a) Modern Individual thinkers
(b) The nature of the Indian state
(c) Social Justice
(d) Political Economy

26. Find out the correct one with regard to ‘Failed State.’
(A) Sierra Leone is a failed state.
(B) A failed state is unable to provide the functions that define them
states.
(C) A failed state is able to coerce the inhabitants.
(D) A failed state is able to successfully control the inhabitants.
(a) C only
(b) D only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and B only

27. Who of the following described Kabir as ‘Muktidoot’?


(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Madan Mohan Malviya
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

28. Which of the following statements is not associated with Mahatma


Gandhi?
(A) ‘Non-violence is the law of our species as violence is the law o
brute’
(B) A nation that is capable of limitless sacrifices is capable of risin
limitless height’
(C) The injunction ‘love your enemies’ is not only the noblest idea
it is also the most practical politics.
(D) ‘To be same in a world of mad men it itself a form of madness’
(E) ‘My nationalism is intense internationalism’
(a) A, C, D, E only
(b) A, D, E only
(c) A, B, C, E only
(d) A, B, C, D, E only

29. Arrange the following committees with regards to corruption and


administrative reforms in India chronologically
(A) Gorwala committee
(B) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(C) Vohra committee
(D) Santhanam Committee
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, A, C, D
(c) A, D, B, C
(d) B, A, D, C

30. Which one of the following is not the key element of direct
democracy?
(a) Referendum
(b) Recall
(c) Filibustering
(d) Plebiscite

31. In which year was the UN climate change conference commonly


known as the Copenhagen Summit held?
(a) 2009
(b) 2006
(c) 2010
(d) 2012

32. Arrange the following in a sequence that conceptually presents the


concepts of civil society.
(A) It can be understood as a collective entity that springs from soc
and exists for specific and limited purposes.
(B) The concepts were part of the economic and political libera
that arose with John Locke and was celebrated by the Sco
Enlightenment.
(C) Civil Society is one among many spheres of the larger soc
along with the family economy, politics, etc.
(D) The concept found a significant place in the writings of Hegel
Marx in the 19th century.
(E) The first articulation of the concept took place in the 17th and
centuries in Europe.
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, D, C, E, A
(c) C, A, E, B, D
(d) E, B, A, C, D

33. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) pioneered which


movement in India
(a) Namantar Andolan
(b) Nirbhaya Movement
(c) Jan Sunwai
(d) None of the above

34. Under which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution, the
state legislature have the power to make provisions with respect to
elections to such legislature?
(a) Article 324
(b) Article 326
(c) Article 328
(d) Article 352

35. Find out the agreements/accords signed between the Indian


government and its provincial regional organizations given below in
ascending order.
(A) Assam Accord
(B) Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(C) Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord
(D) Shillong Agreement
(E) Mizo Peace Accord
(a) B, D, C, A, E
(b) E, A, C, B, D
(c) A, B, C, D, E
(d) E, D, C, B, A

36. According to Manu, which of the following is not the foundation of


diplomacy and statecraft?
(a) Hostility
(b) Neutrality
(c) Subordinate alliance
(d) Contract

37. Find out the books written by Mahatma Gandhi given below:
(A) Modern India
(B) Constructive Programme
(C) India’s Struggle for Independence
(D) Why socialism
(E) Hind Swaraj
(a) A only
(b) D only
(c) C only
(d) B and E only

38. Match the past interventions with the year in which they took place

List I Country List II Year


(A)Iraq (I)1991
(B)Darfur, Sudan (II) 2000
(C)Somalia (III) 2004
(D)Sierra Leone (IV) 1992

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)


(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

39. Find out the correct one with regard to the 108th Amendment Bill,
2008:
(A) Reservation of seats reserved for scheduled caste shall be
women shall cease to exit 15 years after the commencemen
this bill.
(B) It seeks to reserve one-third of all seats for women in the
Sabha only.
(C) One-third of the total number of seats reserved for sched
castes shall be reserved for women of this group in legisla
assemblies only.
(D) Reserved seats may be allotted by rotation to different constitu
in the state or UTs.
(a) A and B only
(b) B only
(c) A and D only
(d) C only

40. Which event led George W. Bush to transform his foreign policy
into one of global power projection and interventionism?
(a) 26th November
(b) 11th September
(c) 5th December
(d) 11th October

41. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(A)Scientific (I)Decision making
management process involves three
theory phases- Intelligence
activity, design activity
and choice activity
(B)New public (II) The development of a tru
management science of work, which in
effect will benefit both the
workers and manager alik
(C)Human (III) Government should be
relations continuously engaged in
theory improving the quality of it
services and thereby
adjusting with demands.
(D)Rational (IV) Organization is to be view
decision- as a social system and
making internal elements play an
theory important role in the over
organizational output

(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)


(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(d) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

42. Who has stated that religion is the real criterion of Manu’s state
policy?
(a) Nalini Sinha
(b) Satyamitra Dubey
(c) Mahendra Prasad Singh
(d) Himanshu Roy

43. Citizen’s character was first articulated and implemented in the UK


as a national programme in which year?
(a) 1989
(b) 1991
(c) 1993
(d) 1998

44. Which of the following thinkers is associated with ‘syncretism’?


(a) Abdul Fazl
(b) Kabir
(c) Zia-ud-din Barani
(d) Tulsidas

45. Find out the correct statements:


(A) On 1st April 1950, India was the first non-socialist bloc count
establish diplomatic relations with China.
(B) Prime Minister Nehru never visited China during his premiersh
(C) A phase of improving in bilateral relations began in 1988.
(D) Rajiv Gandhi as the Prime Minister of India visited China in 199
(a) A and B
(b) A and C
(c) C and D
(d) B and C

46. The Linguistic Provinces Commission that was formed to advise


the Constituents Assembly was popularly known as
(a) Dar Commission
(b) Menon Commission
(c) Mukherjee Commission
(d) Bose Commission

47. What is the main argument of philosophical anarchism?


(a) That no state should exist.
(b) That no state in fact has authority.
(c) That argument for philosophical anarchism is opposed to lib
principles.
(d) That all states should exist in mutual cooperation and harmony

48. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: The transformation of India’s economy has not
been as dramatic as that of post-communist countries in Eastern
Europe.
Statement II: India has produced growth rates as high as those
of China in the 2010s.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

49. What is correct about the qualification and appointment of the


Governor?
(A) He is a citizen of India.
(B) He has completed the age of 25 years.
(C) He is appointed by the Prime Minister.
(D) He holds the office of Governor for a team of 6 years.
(E) He resigned from his office, by writing under his hand addres
to the Prime Minister.
(a) A only
(b) A and B only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) A, B, C, D, E only

50. Find out the different waves of democratic transition given below in
ascending order:
(A) First reverse wave
(B) First waves of democratization
(C) Second wave of democratization
(D) Second reverse wave
(E) Third wave of democratization
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, A, C, D, E
(C) E, D, C, A, B
(d) C, B, E, B, A

51. Which of the following statements are correct in the arena of


administrative theories:
(A) Ideal type bureaucracy was formulated by Max Weber
(B) Frederick Taylor is considered to be the father of Scie
Management Theory.
(C) Henry Fayol is considered to be the father of Human Relat
Theory.
(D) The Hawthrone experiment is associated with Bureaucratic the
(a) A, C and D only
(b) C and D only
(c) A and B only
(d) B, C, and D only

52. Choose the correct statement from the following:


(A) Under Chapter-VII of the UN Charter, the Security Council
take action to maintain or restore international peace and secu
(B) Under Article 41 sanction measures do not involve the us
Armed Forces.
(C) Sanctions can be withdrawn by the UN General Assembly.
(D) Sanctions have been applied by the security council to sup
peaceful transition, to deter non-constitutional charges, etc.
(a) A, B and D only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) C, D, and A only
(d) A, C and D only

53. Which one of the following is not a function of the estimates


committee?
(a) To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficie
and economy in administrative.
(b) To examine whether the money is well laid out within the p
implied in the estimates.
(c) To examine the report of the CAG with a view to find out tha
money voted by the Parliament has been utilized by the auth
concerned.
(d) To suggest the form in which estimates can be presente
parliament.

54. Who found eight distinct meanings for the term ‘Balance of
Power’?
(a) Iris L. Claude, JR
(b) Ernist B. Haas
(c) Richard Coleden
(d) Alfred Vagdt

55. Which of the following the right characteristic of the Public


Accounts Committee?
(a) Public Accounts Committee is composed of only Lok Sa
members.
(b) Public Accounts Committee is an annually elected body
accordance with the principle of proportional representa
followed by a single transferable vote system.
(c) Public Accounts Committee is composed of 30 (Thirty) membe
(d) No member can be re-elected to the Public Accounts Committe

56. Which of the following arguments can we associate with ‘right’ wing
political forces?
(A) To what extent are people poor because of their own choice
opposed to unequal opportunities?
(B) Are we helping the victims of unequal circumstances if
redistribute money to the poor?
(C) Has the welfare state helped the poor overcome
disadvantage and participate in society?
(D) Are the sources of social ills like poverty, homelessness,
school drop-out rates, and so on so complex that state attemp
solve them will generally fail and often worsen the problem?
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, D and E only
(c) A, C and E only
(d) A, B and D only

57. The present political regime in the Central Asia republic of


Tajikistan falls under which of the following category?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Military dictatorship
(c) Democracy
(d) Civilian dictatorship

58. The concept of accountability has got the following characteristics:


(A) Accountability exists in a relationship where for the performanc
an individual or a body is subject to another oversight, directio
request that the individual or the body provide justification for
actions
(B) There are various types of accountability like legal accountab
social accountability, political accountability and so on
(C) Accountability can be found only in the institutions and proces
of the developed countries.
(D) The effectiveness of public officials cannot be evaluated thro
the process of accountability
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, C and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and B only

59. Which of the following statements explains Bhikhu Parekh’s


Conception of human nature?
(A) All reference to human nature should be subjected to the stric
scrutiny and viewed with a healthy dose of skepticism.
(B) Human beings are culturally embedded, in the sense that they
born into, raised in and deeply shaped by their cul
communities.
(C) Regardless of their different cultural contexts, human be
behave more or less in a uniform manner when it comes to cr
matters.
(D) Although skin colour, gender, height and other physical feat
are universally shared, they are all differently conceptualized
acquire different meanings and significance in different societie
(E) Skin colour is given a deep metaphysical meaning and made
basis of a differential distribution of power and status in
societies.
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) D, E and B only
60. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(A)Antiono (I)On human
Gramsci conduct
(B)Robert (II) Prison notebook
Puthnam
(C)Michael (III) The protestant ethics and the spirit of
Oakeshott capitalism
(D)Max Weber (IV) Bowling Alone: the collapse and reviv
of American community

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)


(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(C) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

61. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and
the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): contracting out and public-private partnerships
are now part of the really of public services and decision-making in
many continues.
Reason (R): There is a divorce between the complex reality of
decision-making associated with governance and the normative
codes used to explain and justify government.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
62. Who among the following has started the self-respect movement
as part of social reform?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay
(c) E.V. Ramaswami Naicker
(d) Swami Vivekananda

63. The true beginning of the modern state system marked the end of:
(a) Fifty Years War
(b) Thirty Years War
(c) One Hundred Years War
(d) Ten Years War

64. Find out the correct one with regards to constructive argument on
democracy.
(A) Constructivist argument treats culture as something tha
objective and inherited.
(B) Constructive argument states that culture exists prior to,
remains unchanged by political interaction.
(C) Constructive argument treats culture as something tha
constructed or invented rather than inherited.
(D) Constructive argument claims that culture has a casual effect.
(a) A, B, C only
(b) D, C, B only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and B only

65. Who among the following came out with an innovative idea of
‘constructive conflicts?
(a) Mary Parker Follett
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Max Weber
(d) Henry Fayol

66. Who introduced to the organization the concepts of the 40-hour


week, time and motion studies and piece-ratio compensation
systems as well as a ‘fair day’s work for a fair day’s pay’?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Frederick Taylor
(c) Max Weber
(d) Elton Mayo

67. Which two countries navies are jointly patrolling the Malacca
straits?
(a) India-Japan
(b) India-United States
(c) India-Australia
(d) India-Singapore

68. Arrange the organizations in chronology according to the year of


their establishment
(A) Tolstoy Farm
(B) Abhinav Bharat Society
(C) Ramakrishna Mission
(D) Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha
(a) C, D, E, B, A
(b) D, A, C, B, E
(c) D, C, B, A, E
(d) C, D, A, B, E

69. Arrange chronologically India’s association with the following


international organizations.
(A) United Nations
(B) G77
(C) NAM
(D) G20
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) A, C, B. D
(c) B, A, C, D
(d) D, B, A, C

70. With which country India sign the declaration to promote the
building of a harmonious world of durable peace and common
prosperity through developing the strategic and cooperative
partnership for peace and cooperative partnership for peace and
prosperity?
(a) United States
(b) China
(c) United Kingdom
(d) Japan

71. Which of the following observations are correct about deliberative


democracy?
(A) Deliberative democracy describes a normative ideal in which
and equal citizens publicly exchange reasons with one another
(B) They do with a view to reaching a consensus about an issu
policy or about the principles underlying the systems as a whol
(C) The central claim is that a political decision or system is legitim
even if it cannot command free and reasoned agreement am
equals.
(D) Clearly this is a practical conception, which contemporary pol
life-with partisan rivalries and messy compromise often confo
to.
(E) Underlying the deliberative ideal is a powerful moral institu
about the nature of truly democratic association.
(a) A, B and E only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) B, C, and D only
(d) B, D and E only

72. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(A)Administration in developing countries: The theory (I)Herbert
of prismatic society Simon
(B)Administrative behaviour (II) Ger
E.
Cai
(C)The dynamics of public administration: Guidelines (III) Fre
to current transformation in theory and practice W.
Rig
(D)The human problem of an industrial civilization (IV) Elto
May

(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)


(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

73. B.R. Ambedkar demanded separate electorate classes in which of


the following events?
(a) First round table conference
(b) Second round table conference
(c) Third round table conference
(d) Fourth round table conference

74. Which year did Prime Minister Manmohan Singh visit China?
(a) 2006
(b) 2007
(c) 2008
(d) 2009

75. Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by


(a) Ayyankali
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Periyar

76. In his Administration Developing Countries: The Theory of


Prismatic Society, Riggs mentioned the following points:
(A) The structures of a modern society are typically functio
specific.
(B) A structure is defined as any pattern of behaviour, which
become a standard feature of a social system.
(C) Industries will move towards agrarian through the proces
transition in society.
(D) Although the ‘image’ of Agraira resembles the ‘model’ of a fu
society, the two constructions are by no means identical.
(a) A, B and D only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) A, C, and D only

77. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and
the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion (A): ‘Ahimsa’ was complementary to Gandhi’s model
of conflict resolution that was certainly the most original and
creative model of social change and political action.
Reason (R): This was a theory of politics that gradually became
the dominant ideology of a national political movement in which
Gandhi reigned Supreme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation o
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is Not correct but R is correct

78. Arrange these life events of ‘Aurobindo” in a chronological order


(A) Attended the Banaras session of the Congress
(B) Became the vice-principal of Baroda College
(C) Moved to England
(D) Arrested for the Alipore bomb case
(E) Cleared the ICS exam
(a) C, A, D, B, E
(b) E, C, A, B, D
(c) A, B, E, C, D
(d) C, E, B, A, D

79. Match the following organization with the year it was established in

List I List II
(A)SCO (I)1967
(B)BRIC (II) 2006
(C)ASEAN (III) 1957
(D)EEC (IV) 2001

(a) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)


(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(c) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
80. Arrange the following Director Generals of WTO who held office in
ascending order:
(A) Mike Moore
(B) Pascal Lamz
(C) Supachai Panitchpakdi
(D) Robert Azvedo
(a) A, C, B, D
(b) A, B, D, C
(c) C, B, A, D
(d) D, A, B, C

81. Arrange the following administrative thinkers/theorists


chronologically
(A) F.W. Willoughby
(B) Max Weber
(C) David Easton
(D) Elton Mayo
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) D, C, B, A
(c) B, A, D, C
(d) C, B, A, D

82. Who wrote the book-Management: Tasks, Responsibi lities,


Practices?
(a) John Dorr
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Gillian Tett
(d) Brene Brown

83. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the
ICT-based e-Governance?
(A) E-governance reduces the cost of government
(B) E-governance reduces the transparency of government
(C) E-governance increases citizen’s input into government
(D) E-governance increases bureaucratic red-tapism
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B and D only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) A and C only

84. Which of the following did not as a matter of debate Mahatma


Gandhi and Rabindra Nath Tagore?
(a) English Language
(b) Nationalism
(c) The spinning wheel
(d) Freedom from colonial rule

85. Who among the following Vice-Presidents of India later became the
President of the country?
(A) Dr. Sarvapali Radhakrishnan
(B) V .V . Giri
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) B. D. Jatti
(E) R. Venkataraman
(a) A, B and E only
(b) C and D only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) A, B, C, and E only

86. The book ‘Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy’ is authored by


(a) Joseph Schumpeter
(b) Samuel Huntington
(c) Andre Gunder Frank
(d) Joseph Lapalombara

87. Which amendment overrode the Golaknath case decided in 1967?


(a) Twenty-third amendment
(b) Twenty-fourth amendment
(c) Twenty-fifth amendment
(d) Twenty-sixth amendment

88. Match List I with List II

List I Idea List II Thinker


(A)Extremely Federal (I)Morris Jones
(B)Quasi Federal (II) Granville Austin
(C)Bargaining Federal (III) K. C. Wheare
(D)Cooperative Federal (IV) Paul Appleby

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)


(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

89. 73RD Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 has stipulated the


following major provision regarding Panchayat
(A) A Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and perform s
functions at the village level at the village level as the legislatu
a state may, by law provide.
(B) A finance commission is to be constituted every fifth year by
Governor of a state to review the financial position of
panchayat and to make recommendations to the Governor.
(C) The legislature of a state cannot endow the panchayat with
more powers and authority for their functioning as institution
self-government.
(D) An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed be
the expiration of a period of six months from the date o
dissolution.
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) C, B and D only

90. Choose the correct statements given below:


(A) India is among the first countries to establish diplomatic relat
with EEC.
(B) The bilateral relationship was upgraded to a strategic partnersh
(C) The EU is also one of the largest sources of FDI for India.
(D) The EU is a member of the UN General Assembly.
(a) A, B and C
(b) B, C and D
(c) A, C and D
(d) A, B and D
Directions for Question 91–95: Read the following passage and
answer the questions
What are the seedbeds of civic virtue? There are a variety of aspects of
liberal society that can be seen as inculcating civic virtues, including the
market, civic associations, and the family. Let me briefly look at each of
these theorists of the ‘New Right’ often praise the market as a school of
civic virtue Many Thatcher/Reagon reforms of the 1980s aimed to extend
the scope of markets in people’s lives through free trade, deregulation,
tax cuts, the weakening of trade unions, and reducing welfare benefits in
part in order to teach people the virtues of initiative and self-reliance.
Much of the recent right-wing attack on the welfare state has been
formulated precisely in terms of citizenship. The welfare state was said to
promote passivity amongst the poor, creating a culture of dependency
reducing citizens to passive dependents under bureaucratic tutelage. The
market, by contrast, encourages people to be self-supporting. The new
right believes that being self-supporting is not only an important civic.
Virtue in itself, but also a precondition for being accepted as a full
member of society by failing to meet the obligation to support
themselves, the long-term unemployed are a source of shame for society
as well as themselves.

. How does the welfare state promote passivity in the poor?


91.
(a) Offering employment to the unworthy
(b) Creating a culture of dependency
(c) Giving free subsidies to the entire population
(d) Incentivizing the habit of laziness

92. Which of the aspects given below is not a direction favoured by


Thatcher/Reagan reforms?
(a) Deregulation
(b) Tax cuts
(c) Strong Trade unions
(d) Reduced welfare benefits

93. What is it that the ‘New Right’ does not associate with ‘self-
supporting’ as a civic virtue?
(a) Citizenship
(b) Full member of a society
(c) Being a career-oriented selfish person
(d) Full filing the obligation to support oneself

94. How does the market inculcate civic virtue according to ‘New Right’
theorists?
(a) By acceleration trade and commerce
(b) By offering gainful employment
(c) By encouraging to be self-supporting
(d) By punishing those who are unemployed

95. Which is not a source of civic virtue among the following?


(a) Army
(b) Family
(c) Civic associations
(d) The market

Directions for Question 96–100: Read the following passage


and answer the questions
Read the following passage and answer the questions
The group of twenty or G20 has of late emerged as a very premier forum
for international cooperation. The significance of it arises from the fact
that its members are the world’s advanced and emerging economies.
These G20 members altogether represents about 85% of the global GDP,
80% of global trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. The G20
originated to overcome the financial crisis that occurred in 1990s in the
emerging economies of Asia. This organization is broadly representative
and inclusive as the G20 chair has been made rotational annually and a
member from different regional grouping of countries is elected to its
presidency. Since its beginning, India has actively participated in the G20
process. India is a major stakeholder and also interested in the stability of
the world economy. Due to India’s support during the Seoul summit
development was included as an agenda item and the Seoul
Development consensus also emerged. India’s interest in G20 has
imparted dimension and credibility to G20 deliberation. India’s successful
organization of G20 summit in New Delhi recently has again ignited
hopes for the establishment of a framework for strong, sustainable and
balanced growth and an alternative world order.

96. Which of the following is the reason for the formation of G20?
(a) World financial crisis
(b) Asian financial crisis
(c) African financial crisis
(d) European financial crisis
97. What is the significance of the recently concluded G20 summit?
(a) Consumers on a framework for sustainable balanced growth
(b) Women led development process
(c) Emergence of Global South as one voice
(d) All of the above options

98. Why has India an active interest in G20?


(a) To not achieve its own economic stability
(b) To reduce world economic stability
(c) To negotiate successfully its debt crisis
(d) To not establish itself as a major economic power

99. Why G20 is considered a representative forum?


(a) Chair is not rotational
(b) Chair is rotational and from a different strategic grouping aga
China
(c) Chair is rotational annually and from a different region
(d) Chair’s term is limited to three years

100. Which of the following is the objective of the G20?


(a) International cooperation
(b) Regional cooperation
(c) Sectoral cooperation
(d) Cooperation with the powers on political matters

Answer Key

1. 16. 31. 46. 61. 76. 91.


(b) (c) (a) (a) (b) (a) (b)
2. 17. 32. 47. 62. 77. 92.
(c) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (c)
3. 18. 33. 48. 63. 78. 93.
(c) (d) (c) (c) (b) (d) (c)
4. 19. 34. 49. 64. 79. 94.
(d) (b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (c)
5. 20. 35. 50. 65. 80. 95.
(c) (d) (a) (b) (a) (a) (a)
6. 21. 36. 51. 66. 81. 96.
(d) (a) (d) (c) (b) (c) (b)
7. 22. 37. 52. 67. 82. 97.
(b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (b) (d)
8. 23. 38. 53. 68. 83. 98.
(d) (c) (*) (c) (c) (b) (b)
9. 24. 39. 54. 69. 84. 99.
(b) (c) (c) (b) (b) (d) (c)
10. 25. 40. 55. 70. 85. 100.
(b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (d) (a)
11. 26. 41. 56. 71. 86.
(c) (d) (a) (b) (a) (a)
12. 27. 42. 57. 72. 87.
(b) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b)
13. 28. 43. 58. 73. 88.
(a) (*) (b) (d) (b) (d)
14. 29. 44. 59. 74. 89.
(b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c)
15. 30. 45. 60. 75. 90.
(c) (c) (b) (c) (b) (a)
UGC NET Political Science
June 2023 Question Paper—Shift
1

1. ‘A democracy is more than a form of a government, it is a mode o


associated living’, who said this?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) John Locke
(c) John Dewey
(d) Gandhi

2. Sophie and Sophia is a character in which of the following books?


(a) Republic
(b) A Vindication of the Rights of Women
(c) The Archaeology of Knowledge
(d) The Human Condition

3. Who among the following has used the terms internal restriction and
external restriction in the discourse of multiculturalism?
(a) Bhikhu Parekh
(b) Will Kymlicka
(c) Okin
(d) B. Berry

4. For whom among the following M.B. Foster has stated that his
political thought represents more of a Pagan revival than a
Protestant religion?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Hobbes
(c) Bentham
(d) J.S mill

5. ‘Our souls have been corrupted in proportion to the advancement o


our sciences and our arts towards perfection’. It is mentioned in:
(a) Discourse on the Science and Arts
(b) Revolt against Reason
(c) The Wealth of Nation
(d) The Theory of Moral Sentiments

6. Which one of the following is not Aristotle’s work?


(a) Politics
(b) Nicomachean
(c) Eudemian Ethics
(d) Apology

7. Which one of the following is perfect, eternal and fixed according to


Plato?
(a) Matter
(b) Ideas
(c) Raw Material
(d) Darkness

8. The ‘Analects’ is related to:


(a) Nicomachus
(b) Plato
(c) Confucius
(d) Chou dynasty

9. When and at which place in South Africa the Indians assembled


demonstrated and took the oath of passive resistance?
(a) September 1906, Johannesburg
(b) October 1906, Natal
(c) September 1905, Pretoria
(d) October 1905, Pietermaritzburg

10. Who among the following launched the ‘Self-Respect Movement’ in


1925?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Phule
(c) E.V. Ramaswami Naicker
(d) J.P. Narayan

11. Who among the following categorized laws into two types: the
Shariat and the Zawabit?
(a) Dara Shukoh
(b) Basava
(c) Abul Fazl
(d) Zia Barani

12. When did M.N. Roy dismantle his Radical Democratic Party?
(a) 1940
(b) 1945
(c) 1948
(d) 1950

13. Why Robert Nozick agrees with anarchist assertions regarding the
position of State?
Pick the incorrect argument.
(a) It is intrinsically immoral.
(b) It maintains monopoly on the use of force.
(c) It violates individual rights.
(d) It’s motive is welfare of citizens.

14. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Union


Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
(a) The President of India can remove the Chairman of UPSC.
(b) In case of removal of Chairman, the President has to refer
matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
(c) An Individual Ministry or Department has no power to reject
advice of the UPSC.
(d) The State Goverments can ask the UPSC to conduct
examinations for concerned state.

15. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the vote


value of a number of parliament in presidential election?
(a) Vote Value of MP =

(b) Vote Value of MP =

(c) Vote Value of MP =

(d) Vote Value of MP =

16. Which one of the following fundamental duty is inserted by 86th


Constitutional Amendment in Article 51-A?
(a) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual
collective activity.
(b) To provide opportunities for education by the parents to their ch
(c) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inq
and reform.
(d) Respect to the National Flag and Symbols.

17. Which are the six minority religious communities Notified by the
National Commission for Minorities (NCM) setup by the Union
Government Under the National Commission for Minorities Act
1992?
(a) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zorastrians, Sindhis
(b) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Sindhis
(c) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Sindhis, Bahais, Jews
(d) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zorastrians and Jains

18. Who among the following conducts the elections at polling station?
(a) Polling Agent
(b) Presiding Officer
(c) Returning Officer
(d) Revenue Officer

19. Who among the following is pioneer of Public Interest Litigation?


(a) Justice S.N. Benarji
(b) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(c) Justice Hingorani
(d) Justice Ranjan Gogoi

20. Who among the following contributed to the framing of National


Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
(a) Jean Drieze
(b) Aruna Roy
(c) Medha Patkar
(d) Baba Amte

21. Which one of the following is not a principle among the originally
framed six principles of ‘Citizen’s Charter Movement’?
(a) Choice
(b) Value
(c) Accountability
(d) Quantity

22. Which of the following amendment to related to ‘anti-defection’?


(a) 51th Amendment
(b) 52nd Amendment
(c) 53rd Amendment
(d) 59th Amendment

23. The four Ps in the 4 Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated


by Luther Gullick are _________.
(a) Purpose, Persons, Place, Process
(b) Persons, Place, Process and Programmes
(c) Process, People, Policies and Perception
(d) People, Public, Problems and Perception

24. According to Follett, the difference between ‘power’ and ‘authority’


is ___________.
(a) Power exists when orders are obeyed irrespective of resista
authority exists when orders obeyed voluntarily.
(b) Power can never be delegated, authority can be delegated.
(c) Authority exists when orders are obeyed irrespective of resista
power exists when orders obeyed by force.
(d) Authority can never be delegated power can always be delega

25. The literature on New Public Administration lays emphasis on


__________.
(a) Relevance, Relatedness, Moral Values and Equity
(b) Relevance, Values, Ethics and change
(c) Values, Ethics, Relatedness and Self Reliance
(d) Relevance, Values, Equity and change.

26. Which is the fifth stage of Policy Cycle according to Harold


Lasswell?
(a) Promotion
(b) Invocation
(c) Application
(d) Intelligence

27. Which of the following Ministry is associated with Swachh


Survekshan?
(a) Ministry of Water and Sanitation
(b) Ministry of Housing and Urvan Affairs
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Finance.

28. Which of the following is the first state to bring Social Audit Law?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Tripura
(d) Chhattisgarh

29. Which of the following Ministry/Aayog is associated with Good


Governance Index?
(a) Ministry of Personnel Public Grievances and Pensions
(b) Ministry of Rural Development
(c) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(d) NITI Aayog
30. Which of the following Act is also known as ‘Hyde Act’?
(a) U.S. – India Economic Co-operation Act
(b) U.S. – India Peaceful Atomic Energy Co-operation Act
(c) U.S. – India Trade Co-operation Act
(d) U.S. – India Arms Trade Act

31. Which of the following are Principles of Panchsheel?


(A) Mutual respect of each other’s territorial intergrity and sovereig
(B) Mutual Non-aggression
(C) Interference in each other’s affairs
(D) Equality and co-operation for mutual benefits
(E) Equal Existence
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C only
(b) A, B, D only
(c) B, C, D only
(d) C, D, E only

32. When did a Female Police Personnel from India took part in ‘first-
ever peace keeping operations’?
(a) January 2007
(b) February 2008
(c) January 2006
(d) February 2009

33. The ‘extended neighbourhood’ has become conceptual umbrella


for Indian foreign policy. Which of the option given below does not
come under purview of India’s ‘extended neighbourhood’?
(a) Suez Canal
(b) South China Sea
(c) Eastern Africa
(d) The Asia Pacific

34. The Foreign Minister of India, S. Jaishankar has summarized


India’s approach to multilateral action as anchored in five ‘S’ s.
Choose the wrong option.
(a) Samman (Respect)
(b) Samanjasya (Harmony)
(c) Samvad (Dialogue)
(d) Samriddi (Prosperity)

35. In which conference the decision to set up World Bank was taken?
(a) New York
(b) Bretton Woods
(c) Massachusetts
(d) Paris

36. In which year was the United Nations set up?


(a) 1944
(b) 1945
(c) 1946
(d) 1950

37. Who coined the term ‘containment’?


(a) George Kennan
(b) Alfred Sauvy
(c) George Marshal
(d) John Marshal

38. Who categorized India as ‘a responsible state with advanced


nuclear technology’?
(a) President George W. Bush
(b) President Bill Clinton
(c) President Jimmy Carter
(d) President Barrack Obama

39. Which of the following statements are true in Ecological Approach?


(A) The team ‘ecology’ has Greek roots.
(B) Ernst Haeckel coined the term ‘ecology’.
(C) Andrew Dobson makes a distinction between environmenta
and ecologism
(D) Green ideology debate is a 16th century debate.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C only
(b) B, C only
(c) C, D only
(d) A, D only

40. Who among the following believes that the superstructure is


relatively autonomous?
(A) Louis Althusser
(B) Gramsci
(C) Poulantazs
(D) Mao Zedang
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) C and A only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) B only

41. Which of the following statements are correct in terms of


Machiavelli’s ‘The Prince’?
(A) The book has been written democratic spirit.
(B) Dual morality has been established in this book.
(C) The book is famous for anti secular approach
(D) The book has supported a citizens army.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) B and D only
(b) A and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) B and C only

42. Which of the following sentences are correct in regards to John


Locke?
(A) He subscribes empiricism.
(B) He has written ‘Essay Concerning Human Understanding’.
(C) He believes in limited state.
(D) He is the propounder of popular sovereignty.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C only
(b) C, D only
(c) A, D only
(d) B, C only

43. Which of the following are correct in reference to Tagore’s


Philosophy?
(A) Tagore was an exponent of ‘true freedom’.
(B) Tagore appeared to be a seeker of eternal truth.
(C) Tagore supported creative unity amongst diversity
(D) Tagore supported aggressive nationalism.
Choose the most appropriate answer the options given below:
(a) A, B, C only
(b) A, B, D only
(c) B, C, D only
(d) A, C, B, D
44. What is the purpose of Danda Niti according to Kautilya?
(A) Acquisition of unacquired
(B) Preservation of the acquired
(C) Maintenance of law and order with in the state
(D) Augmentation of the preserved
(E) Fair distribution of the augmented
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D Only
(b) B, C, D, E Only
(c) A, C, D, E Only
(d) A, B, D, E Only

45. Which of the following are functions of a political system?


(A) Political Socialization
(B) Political Decay
(C) Political Recruitment
(D) Political Revolutions
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and C only
(d) B and D only

46. Which of the below mentioned factors lead to revolution in a


political system?
(A) Severe class divisions
(B) Role of intellectuals in mass mobilization
(C) Social disequilibrium
(D) Strong desire for peace
(E) Incremental changes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and E Only
(b) B, C and D Only
(c) A, B and C Only
(d) A, B, C, D, E

47. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the


powers of Lok Sabha?
(A) The Anti Defection Law is applicable on the Speaker in case
decides to quit his own party.
(B) The Speaker cannot preside while a resolution for his rem
from office is under consideration.
(C) Speaker can vote in the house on any matters of his removal
the office.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) B, C Only
(c) A, C Only
(d) A, B Only

48. Which of the following statements are correct regarding preamble


of Indian Constitution?
(A) In the Berubari Case, Supreme Court said that the preamble is
part of the constitution.
(B) In the Keshavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court said
preamble is the part of the Constitution
(C) In L.I.C. of India Case, Supreme Court said that preamble is
part of the Constitution.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C
(b) B and C only
(c) A and B only
(d) A and C only

49. Which of the following are strengths of Globalization?


(A) Promotes free trade of goods and services among the nations.
(B) Strengthens the market economies of the developing world.
(C) Promotes socio-economic Interactions between the countries.
(D) Increases economic disparities between rich and poor.
(E) It does not promote human and cultural interaction between
nations.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A., D and E only

50. According to the article 26 of the constitution of India, every


religious denomination shall have the right:
(A) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charit
purpose.
(B) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
(C) to won and acquire movable property.
(D) to manage social affairs.
(E) to own and acquire immovable property.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D only
(b) B, C, D, E only
(c) A, B, C, E only
(d) A, C, D, E only

51. Which of the following is correct regarding the classical theory of


administration?
(A) It played a notable role in rationalizing and even stimula
production.
(B) It formulated a set of concepts in administration.
(C) It was the first to propound the idea that administration
separate activity.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and C only
(d) A, B and C

52. According to Ferral Heady, the comparative public administration


addresses which of the following concerns?
(A) The search of theory
(B) The urge of practical application
(C) Contribution to the border field of comparative politics
(D) The comparative analysis of ongoing problems of P
Administration
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D only
(b) A, B, C only
(c) B, C, D only
(d) A, C, D only

53. Which is/not true about Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?


(A) Only registered Civil Society Organization can file a PIL.
(B) PIL can be filed in Supreme Court, under Article 32.
(C) PIL can be filed in High Courts under Article 226.
(D) There is no court fees for filing PIL.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) B and C only
(b) A only
(c) D only
(d) A and D only

54. Which of the following is/are true about amendment of RTI Act in
2019?
(A) From a fixed term of five years, now the commissioner holds o
at the pleasure of Government
(B) Now, there can be more than 10 central Informa
Commissioners.
(C) Now, the salaries and allowances of Commissioner are
decided by the government.
(D) Now, the age of retirement of chief Information Commissione
be 62 years.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C only
(b) A and B only
(c) A and C only
(d) A and D only

55. What are the core values of Indian Foreign Policy?


(A) Blend of idealism and realism
(B) Value of Tolerance
(C) Anti-Imperialism and anti-colonialism
(D) Territorial Expansion
(E) Neighbourhood First Diplomacy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C only
(b) A, B, D only
(c) B, C, D only
(d) A, B, D, E only

56. Which of the following are not the features of Cold War?
(A) There was nuclear arms race.
(B) There was a propaganda war.
(C) There was economic blockade against the non-aligned countrie
(D) The third world countries were directly involved in it.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) C and D Only
(d) B and D Only

57. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ever since the end of World War II, International
environment has been dominated by the American relations with
the Soviet Union Characterized as Cold War.
Reasons (R): The Cold War coloured not only American and
American aligned nations’ relations with the Soviet Union and the
latter’s allies but relation of the U.S and its allies with other non-
aligned nations, as well.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

58. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): In our time, history is that which transforms
documents in to monuments.
Reasons (R): The archaeology of knowledge discovers the
intrinsic description of the monuments.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

59. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): Inner contradictions of capitalism will destroy
capitalism.
Reasons (R): Exploitation of surplus value is the biggest
contradiction of capitalism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

60. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): Economically, the framework of the ‘Sarvodaya’
order would seek to establish a balanced and equitable economic
setup in the country.
Reasons (R): J.P. (Jai Prakash) was sure to afford the first place
to agricultural activities in the economic life of the people
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

61. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): Political culture is a set of beliefs and sentiments
about politics as embodied in the verbal and non-verbal behaviour
of the people.
Reasons (R): The typological and morphological models of
political culture denote that there can be as many political cultures
as the dynamics of political development in political systems.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

62. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): Robert Dahl has suggested for cross cultural
studies in Public Administration.
Reasons (R): He believed that the Public Administration can
escape the effects of political, cultural and environmental system in
which it develops.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

63. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Rights essentially belong to the sphere of
conflicting claims between individual and the state.
Statement II: Any political theory which holds that an individual
cannot have certain rights ‘against the state’ is no theory of rights.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

64. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Problems of global environmental change could not
have existed without modern technologies and population densities.
Statement II: Problems of Climate change are difficult to
address, because they involve both intra and inter-generational
collective action problems.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

65. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Nehru favoured a socialistic pattern of society.
Statement II: Nehru’s commitment to civil liberties prevented him
from accepting the idea of ‘dictatorship of the proletariat’.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

66. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Party system provides normal means of fighting
political battles.
Statement II: One of the aims of the party system is to replace
the traditional elites with new elites.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

67. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Exit poll is a post-election poll which is conducted
when an elector walks out after casting his/her vote.
Statement II: Opinion poll, is a kind of research survey which is
conducted to find out the public opinion after elections.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
68. Given below are two statements: Consider the following statements
regarding the Vice President of India.
Statement I: He serves for a five year term. But can continue to
be in office, irrespective of the expiry of the term, until the
successor assumes office.
Statement II: The Constitution is silent on who performs the
duties of the Vice-President, when a vacancy occurs in the office
before expiry of his term.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

69. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: The policy agenda is the sum of all political
demands that a number of individuals or groups have tried to get
onto policy agenda.
Statement II: The policy agenda is composed of the demands
that policy makers have agreed to consider.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

70. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Both IMF and IBRD have headquarters in
Washington.
Statement II: India’s vote share in IMF is 10%.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

71. Match List I with List II.

List I Books List II Authors


(A)Between Past and Future (I)Isaiah
Berlin
(B)Vico and Herder: Two studies in the (II) Hannah
history of ideas Arendt
(C)The voice of liberal learning (III) Michael J.
Sandel
(D)The Tyranny of Merit (IV) Michael
Oakeshott

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

72. Match List I with List II.

List I Concept List II Thinker


(A)Virtue is knowledge (I)Machiavelli
(B)Success is virtue (II) Plato
(C)Knowledge is power (III) Fouca
(D)Power is production of intended effects (IV) Russe

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(b) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(c) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(d) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

73. Match List I with List II.

List I Events List II Years


(A)Surat Split (I)1927
(B)Quit India Movement (II) 1919-21
(C)Non-Cooperation Movement (III) 1942
(D)Mahad Satyagraha (IV) 1907

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(c) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

74. Match List I with List II.

List I Books List II Autho


(A)Political change in underdeveloped countries: (I)David E.
Nationalism and Communism Apter
(B)Political Development (II) S.N.
Eisens
(C)The Politics of Modernization (III) C.H. D
(D)Tradition, Change and Modernity (IV) John H
Kautsk

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(c) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
(d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

75. Match List I with List II.

List I List II Descriptions


Schedule
(A)Fourth (I)Allocation of seats in
Schedule Rajya Sabha
(B)Tenth (II) Provisions relating to defec
Schedule
(C)Seventh (III) Division of powers between
Schedule Centre and States
(D)Sixth (IV) Administration of tribal area
Schedule some States

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(b) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(c) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(d) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

76. Match List I with List II.

List I Regional Political List II Founder leaders


Parties
(A)DMK (I)M.G.
Ramachandran
(B)AIDMK (II) N.T. Ramarao
(C)TDP (III) C. N. Annadurai
(D)PDP (IV) Mufti Mohammad
Sayeed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
(c) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(d) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

77. Match List I with List II.

List I Concept List II Think


(A)Distinction between obedience and acceptance (I)H.
Simon
(B)Distinction between economic man and (II) Cheste
administrative man Barnard
(C)Distinction between charishmatic leader and (III) F. W.
legal-rational authority Teylor
(D)Distinction between principles and mechanics of (IV) Max W
management

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(c) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(d) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

78. Match List I with List II.


List I Scheme List II Ministry
(A)UJJAWALA (I)Ministry of
Power
(B)Saubhagyam Yojana (II) Ministry of Finance
(C)Atal Pension Yojana (III) Ministry of Women and
Child Development
(D)National Social (IV) Ministry of Rural
Assistance Programme Development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(c) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

79. Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(A)Indian Peace Keeping Force in Sri (I)Indira
Lanka Gandhi
(B)Shimla Agreement (II) Rajiv Gand
(C)Lahore Declaration (III) Atal B.
Vajpayee
(D)Act East Policy (IV) Narendra M

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
80. Match List I with List II.

List I Year List II Summit


(A)1955 (I)Bandung Summit
(B)1961 (II) Belgrade Summit
(C)1983 (III) New Delhi Summit
(D)1998 (IV) Durban Summit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(c) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

81. Arrange the concepts in chronological order according to evolution.


(A) Legal Sovereignty
(B) Popular Sovereignty
(C) Political Sovereignty
(D) Theory of Plural Sovereignty
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, D, C, B
(b) A, B, D, C
(c) A, C, B, D
(d) D, B, A, C

82. Arrange the following books according to their publication year in


chronological order.
(A) The Archaeology of Knowledge
(B) The Human Condition
(C) Spheres of Justice
(D) After Virtue
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, A, D, C
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) D, A, B, C
(d) C, D, A, B

83. Arrange the following concept in chronological order according to


their evolution.
(A) Sampurna Kranti
(B) The Saptang Theory of State
(C) Radical Humanism
(D) Satyagraha
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, D, A
(b) A, D, C, B
(c) D, A, B, C
(d) A, C, D, B

84. Chronologically arrange the features of constitutionalism as they


developed over period of time.
(A) Cheeks and Balance
(B) Codification of law
(C) Political Separatism
(D) Constitutional Monarchy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, B, A, D
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) B, C, A, D
(d) C, B, D, A
85. Arrange the following directive principles of state policy in a
sequential order as mentioned in the Constitution of India.
(A) Equal pay for equal work for men and women
(B) To secure an uniform civil code throughout the country fo
citizen
(C) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the po
(D) Separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, C, B and D
(c) C, A, B and D
(d) D, B, C and A

86. Arrange the following movements in chronological order.


(A) Chipko Movement
(B) Jal Satyagraha
(C) Appiko Movement
(D) Jan Lokpal Movement
(E) Narmada Bachao Andolan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, D, E, A
(b) A, C, E, D, B
(c) D, C, A, E, B
(d) C, A, D, B, E

87. Arrange the following experiments of Elton Mayo in chronological


order.
(A) Relay Assembly Test Room Experiment
(B) Illumination Experiment
(C) Mass Interview Programme
(D) Bank Wiring Experiment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, A, B and D
(b) B, A, C and D
(c) C, B, A and D
(d) D, A, C and B

88. Arrange the following Anti-Corruption measures taken by


Government of India in Chronological order
(A) Ratification of the United Nations Convention Against Corrup
(UNCAC)
(B) Black Money (Undisclosed foreign income and assets)
Imposition of Tax Act
(C) The Prevention of Money Laundering Act
(D) The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, A, B, C
(b) D, C, A, B
(c) D, C, B, A
(d) D, B, C, A

89. List chronologically the joint exercises conducted by Indian Air


Force:
(A) Indradhanush-IV
(B) Desert Eagle-II
(C) Table Top
(D) Samvedna
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) B, C, D and A
(c) C, D, A and B
(d) D, A, B and C
90. Arrange the following BRICS summit in a chronological order:
(A) Ufa, Russia
(B) Johannesburg, South Africa
(C) Durban, South Africa
(D) Beijing Virtual Summit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, A, B and D
(b) B, C, A and D
(c) A, B, C and D
(d) D, B, A and C

Directions for Question 91–95: Read the passage and answer


the questions:
Authoritarianism is characterized by highly concentrated and centralized
power maintained through political repression and exclusion of political
challenges. It uses political parties and mass organization to mobilize
people for the attainment of the goals of the regime. Authoritarianism
demands unquestioning obedience to authority believing it is important
for maintaining social order and preventing disruption. Several typologies
have been developed to describe their morphological variations.
Authoritarian regimes can be autocratic or oligarchic in nature, based on
party, leader or military rule. Authoritarian governments often lack free
and competitive, direct or indirect election of leaders’ or both. They also
check civil liberties such as freedom of speech and expression.
Authoritarian state may include nominally democratic institutions such as
political parties, parliaments and elections designed to legitimize
dictatorship through deceptive and uncompetitive elections.

91. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an authoritarian


regime?
(a) Nominally democratic institutions.
(b) Uncompetitive election of leadership.
(c) Mobilization of people for attainment of regime’s goals
(d) Use of mass organization to strengthen democracy.
92. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Authoritarianism demands unquestioning
obedience to authority.
Statement II: Authoritarian governments often lack free and
competitive election of leaders.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

93. Why authoritarian regimes command unreasoned acceptance of


their political authority?
(a) To strengthen democratic ideals
(b) For enhancing civil liberties
(c) For constitutional governance
(d) For preventing political disruption

94. Authoritarian regimes legitimize their dictatorship through which of


the below methods?
(A) Through periodic fair elections.
(B) Through competitive election of leaders.
(C) Through deceptive and indirect elections.
(D) Through blocking opportunities to potential challenges
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

95. What remains the status of civil liberties in authoritarian regimes?


(a) Remain as freely available as in democratic regimes.
(b) Their status remains unchanged.
(c) They are respected more.
(d) All the above are false.

Directions for Question 96–100: Read the passage and answer


the questions:
Public administration is a discipline in transition. In fact, it has always
been in continuous movement, but not always in the same direction.
Contrary to the heavy, formal, and inflexible image of bureaucracies,
public sector bodies in America, Europe, and elsewhere have been in a
rapidly intensifying transition since the early 1990s. During the last
century, public administration underwent significant changes resulting
from crisis, as well as breakthroughs in an ultra dynamic environment.
Some 30 years ago, Waldo (1968) noted that these ongoing
transformations reflected an identity crisis of a science in formation. They
also signaled a struggle for the recognition and legitimacy of public
administration as an art, a body of knowledge and a profession (Lynn,
1996). It seems that today, at the beginning of the 21st century, the
formation of public administration is still unfinished business. It is a
subject for debate among academics and practitioners across the world
who seek higher and more extensive scientific recognition, more accurate
self-definition, and better applicability of the field to rapid changes in
modern life. This process presents new challenges for public
administration. Perhaps, the most important is to integrate more widely
existing knowledge of the social science with efficient public action and
with quality governmental cooperation. In the coming years public
administration will be evaluated by higher stands of theory cohesiveness
and by more comprehensive performance indicators rooted in a variety of
scientific fields.
To talk of the ‘Public’ of ‘Administration’, and of the integration of the
two constructs into a useful terrain for study involves promises as well as
difficulties. But consensus does exist on at least one issue: the public
needs a better bureaucracy. The public also expects good and skillful
administrators, familiar with the mysteries of quality services and effective
management. Only they can produce better ‘public goods’ and deliver
them to all sectors of society with minimum time and cost. This is a
revised version of the ideal type of public administration system
applicable to modern times.
The role of the state and its relationship to bureaucracy and to
citizens are undergoing substantial transformation, not only in the minds
of the people but also in scientific thinking. In a rapidly changing
environment, public administration has a major function and new aims
that must be clearly recognized.

96. What is the main reason for a major role of Public Administration in
future?
(a) Scientific thinking among people
(b) Citizens are static
(c) Citizens are more active due to political complexity
(d) Fall of relation between state and citizen

97. Who among the following has identified the transition of Public
Administration to a profession?
(a) Dwight Waldo
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Lynn
(d) F. M. Marx

98. Which among the following statements are not related to the
transition of the discipline of Public Administration?
(a) Accurate self-definition
(b) Changes in the modern life
(c) Extensive scientific recognition
(d) Economic and Financial Crisis of the Markets

99. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In future, Public Administration will be assessed
with scientific tools viz. performance indicators and high standards
of theory.
Reasons (R): The impact of public choice and NPM is more on
the present day Administration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

100. Identify the correct option among the following statements related
to the discipline of Public Administration.
(A) Public expects good and skillful administrator
(B) Public expects quality of services
(C) Public expects effective management of institution
(D) Public wants to continue with the present model of bureaucracy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) B, C and D only

Answer Key

1. 16. 31. 46. 61. 76. 91.


(c) (b) (b) (c) (b) (c) (d)
2. 17. 32. 47. 62. 77. 92.
(b) (d) (a) (b) (c) (c) (a)
3. 18. 33. 48. 63. 78. 93.
(b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (d) (d)
4. 19. 34. 49. 64. 79. 94.
(a) (b) (b) (a) (a) (a) (c)
5. 20. 35. 50. 65. 80. 95.
(a) (a) (b) (c) (a) (c) (d)
6. 21. 36. 51. 66. 81. 96.
(d) (d) (b) (d) (a) (c) (a)
7. 22. 37. 52. 67. 82. 97.
(b) (b) (a) (a) (c) (a) (c)
8. 23. 38. 53. 68. 83. 98.
(c) (a) (a) (d) (a) (a) (d)
9. 24. 39. 54. 69. 84. 99.
(a) (*) (a) (c) (d) (d) (a)
10. 25. 40. 55. 70. 85. 100.
(c) (d) (c) (a) (c) (b) (a)
11. 26. 41. 56. 71. 86.
(d) (c) (a) (c) (b) (b)
12. 27. 42. 57. 72. 87.
(c) (b) (a) (a) (b) (b)
13. 28. 43. 58. 73. 88.
(d) (b) (a) (a) (b) (b)
14. 29. 44. 59. 74. 89.
(d) (a) (d) (a) (d) (a)
15. 30. 45. 60. 75. 90.
(b) (b) (c) (b) (b) (a)

______________
* This question is dropped and marks are provided to all aspirants
Hints and Explanations
2. ’A Vindication of the Rights of Women’ is a feminist text published in
1792 that argues for women’s education and equal rights. Sophie i
used as an example of how women are often raised to be decorative
objects rather than educated individuals. Wollstonecraft argues tha
women should be given the same opportunities as men to develop
their minds and contribute to society.

3. Kymlicka is a Canadian political philosopher who has extensively


written on multiculturalism. He has used the terms internal restriction
and external restriction to describe the challenges faced by minorit
cultures in a multicultural society. Internal restrictions refer to the
limitations imposed by the minority culture on its own members
while external restrictions refer to the limitations imposed by the
dominant culture on the minority culture.

4. M.B. Foster, a political theorist, has argued that Machiavelli’


political thought represents more of a Pagan revival than a
Protestant religion. Foster believes that Machiavelli’s emphasis on
the importance of power and the state’s ability to use force to
maintain order is more in line with ancient pagan beliefs than with
Protestant ideas of morality and individual rights.

17. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zorastrians and Jains.


These six religious communities have been notified by the National
Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission
for Minorities Act 1992.The NCM was set up by the Union
Government to safeguard the constitutional and legal rights of
minority communities in India.

26. Lasswell (1956) divided the process into seven different stages,
each with a specific policy-making function: intelligence,
recommendation, prescription, invocation, application, appraisal,
and termination.

30. U.S. - India Peaceful Atomic Energy Co-operation Actis also known
as the Hyde Act, named after its sponsor, Congressman Henry
Hyde. The act outlines the terms and conditions for the United
States to provide nuclear technology and fuel to India for peaceful
purposes, while also ensuring that India adheres to non-
proliferation standards.

32. In January 2007, a team of 105 Indian police personnel, including


six women, were deployed to Liberia as part of the United Nations
Mission in Liberia (UNMIL).

40. Gramsci, Poulantazs, and Mao Zedang all believe that the
superstructure is relatively autonomous. Louis Althusser, on the
other hand, believed that the superstructure is determined by the
economic base and is not autonomous. Gramsci believed that the
superstructure has a degree of autonomy and can influence the
economic base. Poulantazs believed that the state and ideology
have relative autonomy from the economic base. Mao Zedang
believed that the superstructure can play a leading role in social
change.

52. Ferral Heady’s approach to comparative public administration


emphasizes the need for both theoretical and practical
considerations, as well as the contribution to the broader field of
comparative politics. Additionally, Heady’s approach involves the
comparative analysis of ongoing problems in public administration
across different countries and contexts.

68. Statement (I) correctly states that the President serves for a five
year term but can continue to be in office until the successor
assumes office. This is in accordance with Article 56 of the Indian
Constitution. Statement (II) correctly states that the Constitution is
silent on who performs the duties of the Vice-President when a
vacancy occurs in the office before expiry of his term. This means
that there is no clear provision in the Constitution for such a
situation and it is left to the interpretation of the government and
judiciary.

82. The Human Condition by Hannah Arendt was published in 1958,


making it the oldest book on the list. The Archaeology of
Knowledge by Michel Foucault was published in 1969, followed by
After Virtue by Alasdair MacIntyre in 1981, and finally Spheres of
Justice by Michael Walzer in 1983.
84. This is because political separatism, or the idea of separating
powers between different branches of government, was the first
feature to develop. This was followed by the codification of law,
which involved creating written constitutions and laws that were
binding on all citizens. The third feature to develop was
constitutional monarchy, which limited the power of the monarch
and gave more power to the people. Finally, checks and balances
were added to ensure that no one branch of government had too
much power.

88. The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act was passed in 1988,


followed by the Prevention of Money Laundering Act in 2002. India
ratified the United Nations Convention Against Corruption
(UNCAC) in 2011, and the Black Money (Undisclosed foreign
income and assets) and Imposition of Tax Act was passed in 2015.
UGC NET Political Science
June 2023 Question Paper—Shift
2

1. Rights are what we may expect from others, and others from us
who said it?
(a) Hobhouse
(b) Laski
(c) Green
(d) Plato

2. Who has written the preface to the ‘Wretched of the Earth’?


(a) Herbert Marcuse
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Jean–Paul Sartre
(d) Sabine

3. Who said, ‘Justice is the first virtue of social institutions’?


(a) Aristotle
(b) John Rawls
(c) Andrea Dworkin
(d) Mackinnon

4. ‘Politics is war without bloodshed and war is politics with bloodshed


who said it?
(a) Mao Tse–Tung
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Frantz Fanon
(d) Hegel

5. In which university Kautilya taught?


(a) Takshila
(b) Nalanda
(c) Vikramshila
(d) Audantpuri

6. Which of the following is the content of Fatwa–i–Jahandari?


(a) Nasihat for the Muslim kings
(b) Nasihat for women only
(c) Nasihat for old people only
(d) Nasihat for liberal thinkers only

7. Which of the following is associated with concept of ‘Begumpura


the Kingdom of God?
(a) Ramabai
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Kabir
(d) Meerabai

8. Who founded the Arya Mahila Sabha?


(a) Ambedkar
(b) Lohia
(c) Ramabai
(d) Savitri Bai Phule

9. Who said that England is democratic only during the elections?


(a) Voltaire
(b) Carlyle
(c) Rousseau
(d) Churchill

10. Who is the author of the ’Authoritarian Personality’?


(a) Hannah Arendt
(b) Theodore Adorno
(c) Timothy Snyder
(d) Friedrich Hayek

11. Who opined that an ideal constitution keeps the political elite in
good moral shape and provides lasting political excellence?
(a) Alexis de Tocqueville
(b) Aristotle
(c) Dicey
(d) Bryce

12. Who gave the ideal of a world economic system comprising three
concentric rings of the core, a semi–periphery and a periphery?
(a) Arghiri Emmanuel
(b) Immanuel Wallerstein
(c) Andre Gunther Frank
(d) Samir Amin

13. Which of the following acts abolished the Diarchy System in the
Provinces and introduced the provincial autonomy?
(a) Government of India Act 1909
(b) Government of India Act 1919
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Government of Indian Independence Act 1947
14. Which of the following is not correct regarding original jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court?
(a) A dispute between the Government of India and one or m
states.
(b) A dispute between two or more states.
(c) Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives us extensive orig
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to the enforceme
Fundamental Rights.
(d) ‘The Supreme Court has also a wide original jurisdiction ove
Court and Tribunals.

15. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Ashok


Mehta Committee recommendations on Panchayat Raj System?
(a) This committee recommended for two–tier Panchayat System
is Zilla Panchayat at District, and Panchayat at Village level.
(b) The Nyaya Panchayat should be kept as separate bodies from
development of Panchayat.
(c) Seats for SCs and STs should be reserved on rotation basis.
(d) All District level official must be members of Zilla Panchayat.

16. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India has


provision for the forming of Council of Ministers to aid and advise
the President of India?
(a) Article 71
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 55
(d) Article 56

17. Who has conceptualized India’s constitutional edifice in terms of ‘a


seamless web’?
(a) D.D. Basu
(b) Granville Austin
(c) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
(d) K.M. Munshi

18. Which of the following movement is associated with Chandi Prasad


Bhatt?
(a) Jal Satyagraha
(b) Namantar Andolan
(c) Chipko Movement
(d) Narmada Bacho Andolan

19. Who among the following is associated with the Supreme Court’s
judgement on live streaming of SC case proceedings?
(a) Indira Jai Singh
(b) Mukul Rohatgi
(c) Ram Jethmalani
(d) Kapil Sibal

20. Which of the first political party recognised as a national political


party from the North–Eastern region of India?
(a) Asom Gana Parishad
(b) Mizo National Front
(c) National People’s Party
(d) Bodoland People’s Front

21. Behavioral approach in the study of organization means


__________
(a) Study of system in organizational context.
(b) Study of the behaviour of individual public servants.
(c) Use of behavioural science in the study of organizati
behaviour.
(d) Study of the organizational structure on the basis of
behavioural leadership.

22. Which of the following are the trends noticed by the Fred Riggs in
Comparative Public Administration?
(a) Shift from Empirical to Normative
(b) Shift from Ideographic to Normative
(c) Shift from Ecological to Non–Ecological
(d) Shift from Ethical to Rule–based Studies

23. Taylor’s concept of ‘Mental Revolution’ stands for ___________.


(a) Restricted output and cooperation.
(b) Co–operation harmony and restricted output
(c) Harmony and cooperation
(d) Economy, cooperation and restricted output

24. Which one of the following is the drawback of the Bureaucratic


Model?
(a) Lack of legal–rational principles
(b) Lack of rule of law upon the training of bureaucratic organizatio
(c) Lack of normative factors of guiding action
(d) Lack of theoretically integrated total system of actions

25. Who among the following was the first President of National
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission?
(a) Justice V. Balakrishna Eradi
(b) Justice K.S. Paripoornan
(c) Justice Suhas C. Sen
(d) Justice D.P. Wadhwa

26. How was the NITI Aayog formed?


(a) It was formed by an Act of Parliament.
(b) It was formed by a resolution of the Union Cabinet.
(c) It was formed by an executive order of Government of India.
(d) It was formed by an order of Planning Commission.
27. Which of the following was not a salient feature of the National
Food Security Act 2013?
(a) Pregnant women will be entitled to meals.
(b) Eldest woman of the household to be the head of household
the purpose of issuing ration card.
(c) Pregnant women will be entitled for receiving maternity benefi
not less than ₹6000/–.
(d) Pregnant women will be entitled for free checkup at Anganwad

28. The philosophy of the constitutions is inspired and shaped through


the _____________
(a) Constituent Assembly’s first meeting on the 9th December 194
(b) Constituent Assembly’s resolution on 22nd January 1947.
(c) Constituent Assembly’s Meeting of 31st October 1947.
(d) Constituent Assembly’s Second reading on 14th November 194

29. As of now, which one of the following statements concerning the


three lists–Union, State and Concurrent is incorrect?
(a) State list comprises of 61 subjects
(b) Union list contains 97 subjects
(c) Concurrent list consists of 52 subjects
(d) Original concurrent list consists of 47 subjects

30. The negative methods of exercising executive control through


Personnel Management, which is least used in India is
__________
(a) Imposition of cash fines
(b) Issuing written warnings
(c) Reducing the employee in rank and salary after a full inquiry
(d) Administrative reprimand for minor deviation from the des
behaviour pattern

31. Henri Fayol’s General Theory of administration is applicable at


_________ .
(a) Policy Management level
(b) Top Management level
(c) Middle Management level
(d) Workshop level

32. Who among the following said, ‘Problem solving theory takes the
world as it finds it, with the prevailing social and power
relationships and the institutions into which they are organized, as
the given framework for action’?
(a) Robert W. Cox
(b) Andrew Linklater
(c) John Maclean
(d) Mark Hoffman

33. Who originally coined the term ‘Security Dilemma’?


(a) John Herz
(b) Robert Jervis
(c) Herbert Battlefields
(d) Charles Glaser

34. Who has argued that the state seeks to maximize power instead of
security?
(a) Kenneth Waltz
(b) Jack Snyder
(c) Stephen Van Evera
(d) John Mearsheimer

35. With which writer do you associate the phrase ‘Anarchy is what
states make of it’?
(a) Alexander Wendt
(b) John Ruggie
(c) John Mearsheimer
(d) Thomas Risse

36. When did the 26/11 terrorist attacks in Mumbai take place?
(a) 2007
(b) 2008
(c) 2009
(d) 2010

37. What was the objective of Vande Bharat Mission?


(a) To repatriate distressed Indian nationals from outside India.
(b) To repatriate distressed Indian nationals from Eastern India.
(c) To repatriate distressed Indian nationals from Western India.
(d) To repatriate distressed Indian nationals from Southern India.

38. When did India participate in NAM summit for the first time?
(a) 1961
(b) 1981
(c) 1963
(d) 1971

39. In which of the following year the Act East Policy was announced?
(a) 1991
(b) 1982
(c) 1992
(d) 2014

40. Which of the following books are written by Lenin?


(A) What is to be done
(B) State and Revolution
(C) What is History
(D) Marxism Today
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and B only

41. Which of the following concepts J.F. Lyotard is associated with


(A) Language Game
(B) A Report on Knowledge
(C) Communicative Rationality
(D) Communicational Transparency
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) C and D only
(d) B and C only

42. Which of the following are related to Hobbes’s philosophy?


(A) Human will, did not imply anything spiritual or transcendental
(B) Perpetual tranquility of mind
(C) Life itself is a motion
(D) There is existence of greatest good
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) B and D only
(c) A and D only
(d) B and C only

43. Which of the following concepts has not been used by C.B.
Macpherson?
(A) Developmental Democracy
(B) Associational Capacity
(C) Extractive Capacity
(D) Cultural Democracy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, D and B only
(b) D, C and A only
(c) D, B and A only
(d) A, B and C only

44. Which of the following is the correct about Vivekananda?


(A) In 1897, Vivekananda started the Ramakrishna Mission.
(B) Vivekananda set up the Advaita Ashram in the Himalayas.
(C) Vivekananda accepted the Sedition Committee Report of 1918
(D) Vivekananda also claimed that a nation’s true worth could
always be measured in terms of its military might or mat
development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and D only
(b) A, C, D and B
(c) B, C and A only
(d) D, A and C only

45. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to


Tilak?
(A) Tilak felt that the roots of Indian Nationalism must be in
sentiments and emotions of the Indian masses.
(B) Tilak had also proposed a congress resolution for the release o
brothers.
(C) According to Tilak, Swaraj was a moral necessity.
(D) Tilak opposed the establishment of Poona New English Schoo
(E) Tilak wrote, that Swarajya is the foundation and not the heig
our future prosperity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and E only
(b) E, D, C and A only
(c) A, D, C and B only
(d) A, C and D only

46. In which of the following categories Gabriel Almond classify party


systems?
(A) Authoritarian Party System
(B) Dominant Non–authoritarian Party system
(C) Competitive Two Party System
(D) Non–competitive Two party system
(E) Competitive Multi–Party System
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) B, C, D and E only
(c) A, C, D and E only
(d) A, B, C and E only

47. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding


composition of the Constituent Assembly?
(A) Each princely state was to be allotted seats in proportion to
population.
(B) Seats allotted to each British province were divided betw
Muslims, and Sikhs and other general population.
(C) The seats allotted to other community were to be elected by
member of that community in provincial legislative assembly.
(D) In the above process, proportional representation by mean
single transferable vote system was followed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A, B, C and D

48. Which of the following information is/are exempted from RTI act
without any exception?
(A) Information that would enhance financial accessibility
government department.
(B) Information pertaining to deliberation at cabinet meetings.
(C) Information which would impede the process of investigation.
(D) Judicial records pertaining to appointment of judges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C and D only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) A, B, C and D

49. Which of the following state/states are formed on the basis of


language?
(A) Haryana
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(E) Nagaland
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) D, E and A only
(d) A, C and D only
50. Who among the following is included in GST Council?
(A) The Union Finance Minister
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Union Minister of State in–charge of Revenue or Finance
(D) The Minister in–charge of Finance or Taxation or any o
Minister nominated by each state Government
(E) The Finance secretary of the Government of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A, B, C and D only

51. Which of the following are the Anti Goals of New Public
Administration?
(A) Anti Positivism
(B) Anti Technical
(C) Anti Hierarchical
(D) Anti Values
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and D only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) A, B, C and D

52. Which of the following is/are not an e–governance project/projects


of Government of India?
(A) DARPAN
(B) PRAGATI
(C) SAGAR
(D) Jeevan Pramaan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) D only
(c) C only
(d) B only

53. Which of the following UN offices are involved in the promotion and
maintenance of international peace?
(A) Security Council
(B) Secretary General
(C) General Assembly
(D) ECOSOC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) A, C and D only

54. Which are the important conclusions of L. Richardson in ‘Statistics


of Deadly Quarrels’ (1960)?
(A) The problem of war does not arise from the diabolism of one
few states.
(B) Desire for revenge was not the case of war during the pe
(1820–1945).
(C) Contiguity has been an important factor in war.
(D) Nationalism has both induced and prevented wars.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C and D only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A, B and C only
55. Which are the institutions that are part of Washington Consensus?
(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) World Bank
(C) World Trade Organization
(D) U.S. Treasury Department
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C and A only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) C, D and A only
(d) D, B and C only

56. Which of the following principles are related to India’s Nuclear


Doctrine?
(A) India’s Nuclear Doctrine is aimed at building and maintainin
credible minimum deterrent.
(B) The Nuclear Command Authority is the sole body which
authorize the use of nuclear weapons.
(C) India’s Nuclear Doctrine does not persist use of nuclear weap
against non–nuclear weapon states.
(D) The Prime Minister of India can on his/her own issue order for
of nuclear weapons.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, A and D only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) C, D and A only
(d) A, B, C and D

57. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Ethics of care is a moral approach that is
contrasted with justice.
Reason (R): Men in general seem to employ their reasons to
justify prejudices.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

58. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Justice for all is compatible with equality.
Reason (R): Justice requires positive liberty.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

59. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In Satyagraha, there was not even the remotest
idea of injuring the opponent.
Reason (R): In Passive resistance, there was always an idea of
harassment against the other party.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

60. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Authority demands unconditional, unquestioning
obedience and can therefore engender a climate of deference,
abdication of responsibility and an uncritical trust in the judgement
of others.
Reason (R): Authority is a threat to reason and critical intellectual
understanding.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

61. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Health issues are central to MDGs.
Reason (R): Three out of 08 goals in MDGs are health related
issues.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)


62. and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): After the end of the Cold War, there was a rapid
transition from a bipolar system to a unipolar system.
Reason (R): The collapse of Soviet Power in Eastern and Central
Europe and later the end of the USSR itself were the reasons for
the change into a unipolar system.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

63. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The United States of America become a more
dominant power after Second World War.
Reason (R): After the Second World War, most of the imperial
powers declined.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

64. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Karl Marx wrote his masters’ dissertation on Hegel.
Statement II: In a Communist society, nobody has one exclusive
sphere of activity.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

65. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Periyar’s prime goal was the elimination of the
caste system which he found against the principles of human
civilization and self–respect.
Statement II: Periyar firmly believed that revolution without
violence ensures real and permanent welfare to the people.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

66. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: The new right is concerned to advance the cause of
‘liberalism’ and ‘democracy’ by limiting the possible uses of state
power.
Statement II: The free market does not always operate perfectly
and its benefit radically outweighs its disadvantages.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
67. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Equality before the law is not applicable to the
President of India.
Statement II: The President of India enjoys special privileges
under the Constitution of India.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

68. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Mandal Commission report was a scheme for
affirmative action for socially underprivileged sections of society.
Statement II: The Mandal Commission report was submitted to
Government of India in 1979.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

69. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: India’s form of federalism is best seen as an
original rather than a derivative or diminished form.
Statement II: India has defined its own constitutional practice of
federalism rather than following earlier blueprint.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

70. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Alexander Wendt has identified three types of
anarchies in the international system.
Statement II: Alexander Wendt is an idealist thinker.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

71. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: The core assumption of globalists is that
globalization theoretically increase choice of consumer goods for
all.
Statement II: The globalists also maintain that globalization
favours the rich.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

72. Match List I with List II.

List I Concept List II Thinker


(A)History is a graveyard of (I)Robert
aristocracies Michaels
(B)Iron law of oligarchy (II) Joseph
Schumpeter
(C)Bureaucratic Rationality (III) Max Weber
(D)Democratic Elitism (IV) Vilfred Pareto

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I). (D) – (II)
(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

73. Match List I with List II.

List I Books and Concepts List II Author/Thinker


(A)Silent Spring (I)Garrett Hardin
(B)Deep Ecology (II) R. Carson
(C)Tragedy of Commons (III) B. Anderso
(D)Imagined Communities (IV) Arne Naes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II). (D) – (I)
(b) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

74. Match List I with List II.

List I Concepts List II Thinker


(A)State as a class (I)Rousseau, Hegel,
Green
(B)State as ethical (II) Machiavelli and
life Hobbes
(C)State as Power (III) Marx and Lenin
(D)Minimal State (IV) Hayek and Nozick

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III). (D) – (I)
(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

75. Match List I with List II.

List I Book List II Author


(A)Hind Swaraj (I)Babasahab
Ambedkar
(B)Discovery of India (II) Bal Gangadhar
Tilak
(C)Gita Rahasya (III) J.L. Nehru
(D)Who were the (IV) M.K. Gandhi
Shudras?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III). (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

76. Match List I with List II.


List I Thinkers List II Concepts
(A)Sartori (I)Falsification
(B)Morris (II) Catallaxy
(C)Hayek (III) Physical Quality of life index
(D)Popper (IV) Demo–Protect and Demo–Powe

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II). (D) – (III)
(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
(d) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

77. Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(A)Appropriation (I)Consists three
Bill types of
expenditure
(B)Vote of (II) Financial Grants given to the
Credit executive to meet urgent financi
requirements
(C)Charged (III) Non–Votable Expenditure from
Expenditure Consolidated Fund
(D)Vote on (IV) A grant in–advance to the Centr
Account Government

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II). (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
78. Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(A)Concept of Vote Bank (I)Narayan
Guru
(B)Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana (II) Mangoo Ram
Yogam Mugowalia
(C)Ad Dharm (III) M.N. Srinivas
(D)The Self Respect Movement (IV) Ramaswamy
Naicker

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II). (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
(d) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

79. Match List I with List II.

List I List II Related Concepts


Thinkers
(A)H. Simon (I)Generic and Unique
Decision
(B)Peter (II) Programmed and Non–
Drucker Programmed Decision
(C)C.I. (III) Organizational and Personal
Barnard Decision
(D)M.P. (IV) Constructive Conflict
Follett

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III). (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

80. Match List I with List II.

List I Index List II Ministry/Aayog


(A)Good Governance Index (I)NITI
Aayog
(B)Swachh Survekshan (II) Ministry of Personnel Public
(cleanliness Index) Grievances and Pensions
(C)National (III) Ministry of Consumer Affairs F
Multidimensional and Public Distribution
Poverty Index
(D)State Ranking Index for (IV) Ministry of Housing and Urban
NFSA Affairs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I). (D) – (III)
(b) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(c) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)
(d) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

81. Match List I with List II.

List I Regional Organization List II Number of Membe


States
(A)Shanghai Cooperation (I)27
Organization
(B)ASEAN (II) 8
(C)African Union (III) 10
(D)European Union (IV) 55

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I). (D) – (II)
(b) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

82. Match List I with List II.

List I List II Books


Author
(A)Walter (I)Theories of
Rodney Underdevelopment and
Development
(B)Geoffrey (II) How Europe
Key Underdeveloped Africa
(C)Ronald H. (III) Development and
Chilcote Underdevelopment: A
Marxist Analysis
(D)Joseph (IV) Imperialism and Social
Schumpeter Classes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II). (D) – (I)
(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(d) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)

83. Arrange chronologically in accordance with the year of publication.


(A) Holy Family
(B) Critique of Political Economy
(C) The Poverty of Philosophy
(D) Value, Price and Profit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, A, B, C
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) B, D, A, C
(d) A, C, B, D

84. In which order, according to Hegel the absolute Consciousness


(God) reveals itself
(A) Reason
(B) Self Consciousness
(C) Spirit
(D) Simple Consciousness
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, B, A, C
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) C, D, B, A
(d) B, A, C, D

85. Chronologically arrange books in order of their year of publication


(A) The State and Revolution
(B) The Political System
(C) The German Ideology
(D) The Structure of Scientific Revolutions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D, C
(b) B, C, D, A
(c) B, A, C, D
(d) C, A, B, D

86. What is the correct order in which the following terms are
enshrined in the preamble of the Constitution?
(A) Equality
(B) Liberty
(C) Justice
(D) Fraternity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) C, B, A, D
(c) B, A, C, D
(d) D, A, B, C

87. Arrange the following organizations in chronological order by their


year of establishment.
(A) Hind Mazdoor Sabha
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions
(C) All India Trade Union Congress
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh
(E) Indian National Trade Union Congress
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, D, A, E, B
(b) C, E, A, D, B
(c) C, B, A, D, E
(d) E, B, C, D, A

88. Arrange the following, 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission


reports in sequential order.
(A) Ethics in Governance
(B) Public Order
(C) Local Governance
(D) Crisis Management
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, C, D, A
(c) D, C, A, B
(d) D, A, B, C

89. Arrange the following acts that promote transparency in


governance, in chronological order.
(A) The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act
(B) The Whistle Blowers Protection Act
(C) The Prevention of Corruption Act
(D) The Right to Information Act
(E) The Central Vigilance Commission Act
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) E, A, D, C, B
(b) C, E, D, A, B
(c) C, D, E, A, B
(d) E, D, A, C, B

90. Arrange the following former UN Secretary Generals in order of


their having hold the office.
(A) Dag Hammarskjold
(B) U Thant
(C) Boutros Boutros–Ghali
(D) Javier Perez de Cuellar
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, A, D
(b) C, B, D, A
(c) A, B, D, C
(d) D, A, C, B

Directions for Question 91–95: Read the passage and answer


the questions:
The idea of liberalist model of development is based on the free market
economy and policy of laissez–faire. In this arrangement, the person is
handed over to the market and it is claimed that the person is
independent and can participate in the development itself. It is obvious
that this model involves globalization and privatization under which it is
assumed that the whole world is a village and every person can openly
trade with each other. In such a system, the license system is loosen and
state control is minimized and, the minimum intervention of the state is
desired in the economic, political, and social sectors. Under this model,
the development is synonymous with maximum production which gives
greater emphasis to industrialization and urbanization. In this system,
because the doors of business are open to the whole world; multinational
corporations start spreading their net and the entire market of developing
countries is filled with foreign products. Consequently, the domestic
production of that country lags. If the scale of development is to be talked
about, then the level of development is measured based on gross
national production and national income. While measuring them, those
persons are not considered whose income and employment are at the
lowest levels in the society. Actually. this model works to create a gap in
the state, in which there is a rich class on one side and on the other, a
section whose own minimum requirements are not met. Definitely, this
model talks about the development of the person at the economic,
political, and social levels, but it keeps the ‘survival of the fittest’ in the
center. In such a way, the holistic development of a person is impossible.

91. Which of the following is an obstacle to freedom of individual


according to the liberalist model of development?
(a) Poverty
(b) Irrationality of human being
(c) Government
(d) Religion

92. Which of the following includes characteristics of liberalist model of


development?
(A) Free–Market Economy
(B) Individual freedom
(C) Belief in rationality of human being
(D) State–controlled Economy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C and D only.
(b) A, B and C only.
(c) B, C and D only.
(d) A, B, C and D

93. Which of the following will be result of Industrialization?


(A) It will create disparity between rich and poor
(B) Concentration of wealth in the hands of few
(C) It will create social discrimination
(D) It will strengthen civil society organizations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only.
(b) B and C only.
(c) A and B only.
(d) C and D only.

94. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Maximum intervention of state is needed for
economic development.
Statement II: Maximum production is essential for development.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

95. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Liberalist model regards economic development as
the precondition for individual development.
Statement II: The liberalist model does not suit to developing
countries, as they feel it will be a source of neo–colonial control of
developed countries.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Directions for Question 96–100: Read the passage and answer
the questions:
Public policy in India is in a state of flux. The nature of the policy process
has changed dramatically with an increasing role of different actors, both
locally and globally. A case is made to listen to the multiple voices that
are emerging in governance processes, it is argued that it is necessary to
create a space for dialogue among civil society and citizens. The demand
for stronger links between research and policy has grown, as much as
efforts to mainstreaming public policy education to professionalize the
bureaucracy.
New discourses have emerged that shape policy choices. Several
discourses have been nevertheless reduced to status of rhetoric and
cliche. Emerging demographic trends at the national level–such as
urbanization and environmental trends at the global level, such as climate
change have redefined the contours of public policy and governance,
posing new challenges for policy formulation as well as engendering
debates on appropriate forms of governance. Governance refers to all
manners of exercising control and authority in the allocation of resources.
Governance issues are thus closely tied to the processes and
mechanisms through which people access resources. However, the
extent to which they have improved the control of resource users,
remains a moot question. Often, this has been a question of efforts at
changing control relation between the state and civil society, while
policies have succeeded in creating management capacity at lower
levels.
The gap between ‘governance’ and ‘government’ is understood to
have widened in the Indian context, as well as globally. Actors other than
the state have come to acquire a greater role in the exercise of control
and authority in the allocation of resources. The locus of policy making
has moved from the state to other actors; markets and civil society have
created greater space for themselves. State authority has been diluted by
a greater influence of other actors, both at local and global levels. New
discourses such as those of neo–liberalism and good governance have
altered the relationships between state, markets and civil society. While
the discourse of neo–liberalism was founded on the narrative of the
inefficient state, the neo–liberal paradigm evoked criticisms on account of
the exclusion of the poor from the provision of service delivery.

96. The Gap between Governance and Government has widened due
to __________.
(a) Control Mechanism
(b) Policy making techniques
(c) Involvement of more actors in the allocation of resources
(d) Lack of space for markets and civil society

97. Which one of the following is not correct regarding governance?


(a) Exercise of control and authority
(b) Absence of relations between the state and civil society
(c) Allocation of resources
(d) Issues of access to resources by people

98. Which of the following is/are correct that redefine public policy and
governance?
(A) Issues of urbanization and environmental debates
(B) Debates on forms of governance
(C) Status of rhetoric and cliche
(D) Strengthening of state autonomy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D.
(b) B, C and D only.
(c) A and B only.
(d) C and D only.

99. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Public policy education is necessary to
professionalize the bureaucracy.
Reason (R): Public policy education needs strong links between
research and policy making process.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

100. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Neo–Liberal paradigm was founded on the
narrative of the inefficient state.
Reason (R): Neo–Liberal paradigm is inclusive in nature.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer Key

1. 16. 31. 46. 61. 76. 91.


(a) (b) (b) (d) (a) (b) (c)
2. 17. 32. 47. 62. 77. 92.
(c) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (b)
3. 18. 33. 48. 63. 78. 93.
(b) (c) (a) (d) (a) (a) (c)
4. 19. 34. 49. 64. 79. 94.
(a) (a) (d) (a) (d) (c) (d)
5. 20. 35. 50. 65. 80. 95.
(a) (c) (a) (c) (a) (a) (a)
6. 21. 36. 51. 66. 81. 96.
(a) (c) (b) (c) (b) (b) (c)
7. 22. 37. 52. 67. 82. 97.
(c) (*) (a) (c) (d) (c) (b)
8. 23. 38. 53. 68. 83. 98.
(c) (c) (a) (a) (c) (d) (c)
9. 24. 39. 54. 69. 84. 99.
(c) (c) (d) (c) (a) (a) (a)
10. 25. 40. 55. 70. 85. 100.
(b) (a) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c)
11. 26. 41. 56. 71. 86.
(b) (b) (b) (b) (c) (b)
12. 27. 42. 57. 72. 87.
(b) (d) (a) (a) (b) (b)
13. 28. 43. 58. 73. 88.
(c) (b) (*) (b) (c) (d)
14. 29. 44. 59. 74. 89.
(d) (b) (a) (b) (b) (b)
15. 30. 45. 60. 75. 90.
(b) (a) (a) (a) (d) (c)

______________
* This question is dropped and marks are provided to all aspirants

Hints and Explanations


2. The preface to ’The Wretched of the Earth’ was written by Jean–
Paul Sartre, a prominent French philosopher and existentialis
thinker. In the preface, Sartre offers his perspective on the book and
its significance, highlighting the importance of Frantz Fanon’s wor
in understanding the psychological and political dimensions o
colonization and decolonization.

11. In his book, Politics, Aristotle argued that the ideal constitution is
one that keeps the political elite in good moral shape and provides
lasting political excellence. He believed that this could be achieved
by a system of checks and balances, in which no one group or
individual has too much power.

17. Granville Austin was an American political scientist who wrote the
book, ’The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation,’ which is
considered a seminal work on the Indian Constitution. In the book,
he described India’s constitutional edifice as a “seamless web”
because of the interdependence and interconnectedness of its
various provisions and institutions.

18. Chandi Prasad Bhatt is an Indian Gandhian environmentalist and


social activist, who founded Dasholi Gram Swarajya Sangh
(DGSS) in Gopeshwar in 1964, which later became a mother–
organization to the Chipko Movement.

19. Indira Jai Singh is an Indian lawyer and politician who has been a
vocal advocate for the live streaming of Supreme Court case
proceedings. In 2018, she filed a petition in the Supreme Court
seeking a direction to the court to live stream its proceedings. The
Supreme Court, in its judgment in Indira Jai Singh vs Supreme
Court of India, held that live streaming of court proceedings is a
step in the direction of transparency and greater access to the
justice system.

31. Henri Fayol’s General Theory of Administration is primarily


applicable at the top management level. Fayol’s theory focuses on
the principles of management that are relevant to high–level
managers who are responsible for the overall coordination and
direction of an organization. These principles provide a framework
for effective management and decision–making at the strategic
level. Fayol’s theory encompasses various aspects of
management, including planning, organizing, commanding,
coordinating, and controlling.

41. J.F. Lyotard is associated with the concepts of ‘Language Game,’


‘A Report on Knowledge,’ and ‘Communicational Transparency.’
The concept of “Language Game” is associated with the
philosopher Ludwig Wittgenstein, who explored how language is
used within specific social contexts or games. However, J.F.
Lyotard also engaged with this concept in his work, particularly in
relation to postmodernism and the fragmented nature of language
and meaning. J.F. Lyotard is well–known for his work titled ’The
Post Modern Condition: A Report on Knowledge.’ J.F. Lyotard’s
concept of “Communicational Transparency” relates to the idea
that communication is not always transparent.

67. In a democratic society like India, the principle of equality before


the law applies to all individuals, including the President of India.
The President is not immune from the law and is subject to the
same legal obligations and rights as any other citizen. While the
President enjoys certain immunities and privileges in the
performance of their official duties, equality before the law remains
a fundamental principle.

70. Alexander Wendt is a constructivist thinker, not an idealist. Wendt’s


three types of anarchies are based on the level of cooperation and
conflict among states in the international system – Hobbesian,
Lockean, and Kantian.

76. Sartori is associated with the concept of Demo–Protect and Demo–


Power. The concepts of ‘demo–protect’ and ‘demo–power’ highlight
the role of democratic systems in protecting individual rights and
empowering citizens.

Morris is linked to the concept of the Physical Quality of Life Index.


Hayek is associated with the concept of Catallaxy. He introduced
the concept of catallaxy to describe the spontaneous order that
emerges from voluntary market exchanges. It emphasizes the
decentralized coordination of economic activities through the price
system.
Popper is associated with the concept of Falsification. He
developed the concept of falsification as a criterion to demarcate
scientific theories from non–scientific ones. According to Popper, a
scientific theory should be capable of being refuted or falsified
through empirical testing.

84. According to Hegel, the absolute Consciousness (God) reveals


itself in the following order:

Simple Consciousness is the consciousness of an object as


something external to the self.
Self Consciousness is the consciousness of the self as an object.
Reason is the consciousness of the unity of the self and the object.
Spirit is the consciousness of the absolute unity of the self and the
object.

90. Dag Hammarskjöld served as the UN Secretary General from 1953


until his death in a plane crash in 1961. U Thant, from Burma,
served as UN Secretary General from 1961 to 1971. Javier Perez
de Cuellar from Peru served as the UN Secretary General from
1982 to 1991. Boutros Boutros–Ghali from Egypt served as the UN
Secretary General from 1992 to 1996.
UGC NET Political Science
2022 Question Paper—Shift 1

1. Which of the following is correctly matched?


(A) Sexual Politics – Kate Millett
(B) Second sex – Shulamith Firestone
(C) The Feminine Mystique – Betty Friedan
(D) The Dialectic of Sex – Nicholson
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) A and C Only
(d) A, B, C, D Only

2. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and


the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): “Until Philosophers are kings and princes of the
world have the spirit and powers of Philosophy, cities will never
have rest from their evils.
Reasons (R): The republic aimed at the representation of human
life in a state perfected by justice and governed according to the
idea of good.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

3. Match List I with List II.

List I Place List II Jansunwai


(A)Kot Kirana (I)IVth Jan Sunwai
(B)Bhim (II) Ist Jan Sunwai
(C)Vijapura (III) IInd Jan Sunwai
(D)Jawaja (IV) IIIrd Jan Sunwai

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I). (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(c) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

4. Match List I with List II.

List I Books List II Writers


(A)Tragedy of Great Power Politics (I)Zakaria
(B)Politics among Nations (II) Waltz
(C)Theory of International Politics (III) Morgenthau
(D)From Wealth to Power (IV) Mearsheime

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(c) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(d) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

5. Given below are two statements:


Statement (I): John Stuart Mill divided all actions of the
individuals into two categories viz., self-regarding actions and other
regarding actions.
Statement (II): John Stuart Mill says “Liberty consists in not
doing what one desires”
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

6. Who among the following authored ‘Black Skin, White Mask’?


(a) Hannah. Arendt
(b) Frantz Fanon
(c) Mary Wollston Craft
(d) Marcus Graveg

7. Which of the following have caused the growth of Co-operative


federalism in India?
(A) Union – State collaboration in economic matters
(B) Union – State legislative relations
(C) Compulsion of developmental finance
(D) Dynamics of electoral politics
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C Only
(b) A, D Only
(c) B, C Only
(d) B, D Only

8. Which among the following is not included in classification of Interes


groups given by Gabriel Almond.
(a) Non Institutional Interest groups
(b) Non Associational Interest groups
(c) Anomic Interest groups
(d) Associational Interest groups

9. Which of the following statements are incorrect with regard to


Jayaprakash Narayan:
(A) He believed in guarantee of full individual and civil liberty
(B) He believed in cooperative farms run by village panchayats
(C) A true nationalist desires to build on old foundation
(D) He regarded that Swarajya was not only a right but a ‘Dharma’
(E) J. P. was a Sarvodayi leader.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B Only
(b) C, D Only
(c) B, D Only
(d) D, E Only

10. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s paper ‘Small Holdings in India and their
Remedies’ is related to:
(a) Indian Agrarian system
(b) Indian Political system
(c) Indian Education system
(d) Indian Culture only

11. The first Lokpal bill was introduced in parliament.


(a) 1971
(b) 1967
(c) 1968
(d) 1969

12. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Advisory
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

13. What is not included in ‘Five E’ approach in Policy analysis?


(a) Effectiveness
(b) Efficiency
(c) Ethical Consideration
(d) Evidences

14. Which of the following book is not written by Michael Oakeshott?


(a) Experience and its modes
(b) Rationalism in Politics
(c) The History of England
(d) Introduction to Leviathan

15. Match List I with List II.

List I Thinker List II Idea


(A)Hobbes (I)Proportional Representation
(B)Locke (II) Popular Sovereig
(C)Rousseau (III) Constitutional rul
(D)John Stuart Mill (IV) Absolutism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(c) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

16. When was the Hegal’s book ‘Philosophy of Right’ published?


(a) 1820
(b) 1821
(c) 1827
(d) 1837

17. No money bill can be introduced in the legislative Assembly without


the recommendation of the __________.
(a) Speaker
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Finance Minister

18. Which among the following ideas are part of Cultural Revolution?
(A) Children are the masters of new society.
(B) Only the poor peasants can and must be the basic force to
relied upon the land reforms.
(C) Under feudal domination marriage is barbaric and inhu
institution.
(D) The women are reserve for home making.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) A, C, D Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) A, B, C, D Only
19. Who among the following looks at revolution as a ‘Sweeping
fundamental change in the predominant myth of Social order’?
(a) Newmann
(b) S. P. Huntington
(c) T. S. Kuhn
(d) G. S. Pete

20. Kautilya’s theory of Rajamandala belongs to:


(a) Social structure
(b) The economy
(c) Foreign policy and inter-state relation
(d) Structure of Dharma.

21. Who among the following coined the term ‘ecology’ in 1866?
(a) Ernst Heackel
(b) F. Riggs
(c) R. A. Dahl
(d) Houghton Miffin

22. Who wrote the book “The Rise of the Plebians”?


(a) Amartya Sen
(b) Partha Chatterjee
(c) Christophe Jafferlot and Sanjay Kumar
(d) Suhas Palshikar

23. Who among the following identified two types of inequality: natural
inequality and conventional inequality?
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) John Locke
(c) J. J. Rousseau
(d) Montesquieu
24. Arab Spring began in which country
(a) Libya
(b) Syria
(c) Egypt
(d) Tunisia

25. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): India has a hybrid system of government.
Reasons (R): The hybrid system combines two classical models;
the British tradition and American principles.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

26. Who among the following proposed the concept of Constitutional


Ombudsman in Parliament in India?
(a) Dr. L. M. Singhvi
(b) Ashok Kumar Sen
(c) Shanti Bhushan
(d) Aruna Roy

27. Which among the following instruments of Direct Democracy are


functional in Switzerland?
(A) Landszemeinde
(B) Referendum
(C) Initiative
(D) Recall
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) A, C, D Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) A, B, C, D

28. In which case the Supreme Court of India ruled that the provision
of Judicial review comes under an essential feature of the Indian
Constitution?
(a) S. R. Bommai case
(b) Golaknath case
(c) Minerva Mills case
(d) Indira Sahani case

29. Which of the following is correctly matched?


(A) Civil liability of Nuclear Damages Act – 2010
(B) India-US ten year frame work Agreement for Defence
operation – 2015
(C) Defence Technology and Trade Initiative – 2020
(D) Basic Exchange Co-operations Agreement – 2019
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) B and D Only
(d) A and D Only

30. Article 169 of the constitution makes the provision for the abolition
or creation of:
(a) Legislative Councils in state
(b) Specifies the number of seats for the Rajya Sabha
(c) All India Services
(d) None of the above

31. Who talked about ‘Synthetic Universalism’?


(a) M. N. Roy
(b) Vinoba Bhave
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

32. Para Diplomacy is/was part of India’s Foreign Policy under


(a) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Dr. Man Mohan Singh
(d) Narendra Modi

33. Arrange the following thinkers in chronologic order of their birth


year.
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) M.P. Follet
(C) Henri Fayol
(D) Dwight Waldo
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(b) (C), (B), (A), (D)
(c) (C), (D), (B), (A)
(d) (A), (B), (C), (D)

34. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): Pressure groups are involved in politics and policy
making process in India through direct and indirect means.
Reasons (R): They aspire to come to power to achieve their
goals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is time but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

35. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: U.N. has defined 12 Pillars of good governance.
Statement II: SDG 14 is directly linked to improvement in
governance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

36. Types of policies proposed by Theodore J. Lowi.


(A) Distributive, Redistributive.
(B) Regulatory, Constituent.
(C) Substantive, Procedural
(D) Distributive, Substantive
(E) Constituent, Procedural
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) C and D Only
(d) D and E Only

37. What is common in the election symbols of the Samajwadi Party.


Telugu Desam Party and Manipur People’s Party?
(a) Leaf
(b) Cycle
(c) Lantern
(d) Flower

38. Which of the following is/are not a characteristic of the


modernization process according to Huntington
(A) It’s a revolutionary process
(B) It’s a reversible process
(C) It’s a homogenising process
(D) It’s a complex process
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C Only
(b) B Only
(c) A, B Only
(d) A Only

39. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): A student of Comparative politics should study the
behaviours of voters.
Reasons (R): A student of comparative polities has to deal with
the entire political systems.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

40. Which among the following is incorrect about Vice-President of


India: While he discharges the functions of the President?
(a) He will perform the duties of the office of Chairman of the Co
of States.
(b) He will not perform the duties of the office of Chairman of
Council of States.
(c) He will not be entitled to any salary or allowances payable to
Chairman of the Council of States.
(d) He will not hold any office of profit.

41. Arrange the following regional political parties in chronological


order, as per their date of establishment.
(A) DMK
(B) Shiromani Akali Dal
(C) TDP
(D) Biju Janata Dal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, A, C, D
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) A, B, D, C
(d) D, A, B, C

42. Match. List I with List II:

List I Theory/concepts List II Thinkers


(A)Integral Humanism (I)M. N. Roy
(B)Total Revolution (II) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
(C)Radical Humanism (III) Periyar
(D)Self Respect Movement (IV) Jaya Prakash Narayan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below


(a) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(c) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

43. Match List I with List II

List I List II Books


Author
(A)D. D. (I)Elements of Social
Raphael Justice
(B)Ernest (II) Problems of Political Philoso
Barker
(C)L. T. (III) Principles of Social and Polit
Hobhouse Theory
(D)F. A. Hayek (IV) Constitution of Liberty

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(c) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

44. Which of the following is/are correct?


(A) Structural approach focuses on economy and efficiency.
(B) Human Relation approach deals with the relationship among
people working in organisation.
(C) Behavioural approach emphasises on the study of
development aspect of the administration.
(D) Political economy approach emphasises on the applicatio
economic methods and models of political problem
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D Only
(b) B, C, D Only
(c) A, B Only
(d) C, D Only

45. Who among the following defined socialism as a chameleon, which


changes its colour according to the environment?
(a) C. E. M. Joad
(b) Emile
(c) Ramsay Muir
(d) Hugham

46. Which of the following is correctly matched.


(A) SAARC – Kathmandu
(B) Act East Policy – Narasimha Rao
(C) Neighbourhood first policy – Narendra Modi
(D) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank – Kualalampur
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) C and D Only
(b) A and C Only
(c) B and C Only
(d) A and D Only

47. While justifying the slavery Aristotle says:


(A) “From the hour of birth some men are marked out for subjec
and other’s for rule”
(B) That man of “Capacity, foresight, self-reliance and the life of v
are intended by nature to work with their mind
(C) That they have capacity to discharge intelligently their own du
only.
(D) That they are machine without having any capacity to em
reason.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, D Only
(b) D, C, A Only
(c) A, B, C Only
(d) D, B, A Only

48. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Introduction to
the study of Law of the constitution?
(a) A V. Dicey
(b) Jermy Waldron
(c) Stephen M. Griffin
(d) Gordon Scoll

49. ‘It is getting harder to run a constitution than to frame one’? Who
made this statement?
(a) L. D. White
(b) Ronald Reagan
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Margret Thatcher

50. When and who launched ‘Self-Respect movement’?


(a) 1940, M. K Gandhi
(b) 1932, J. L. Nehru
(c) 1925, Periyar
(d) 1920, Tilak

51. Who wrote the paper entitled. “A Discourse on the Moral Effects of
the Arts and Science”?
(a) Dante Alighieri
(b) St. Thomas Acquinas
(c) John Locke
(d) Jean Jacques Rousseau

52. Match List I with List II

List I Books List II Authors


(A)Political Parties (I)C. Wright Mills
(B)Ruling Class (II) Robert Michels
(C)The Power Elite (III) Gaetano Mosca
(D)The Mind and Society (IV) Vilfredo Pareto

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C)-(III), (D) - (I)
(c) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(d) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

53. Peaceful Nuclear Explosion (PNE) was a policy of the Government


under?
(a) A. B. Vajpayee
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Narasimha Rao
(d) Narendra Modi

54. UNO proclaimed International Yoga Day through the Resolutions


69/131 in the year
(a) 2015
(b) 2014
(c) 2016
(d) 2017

55. In the event of the dissolution of a Panchayat before the


completion of its time period, the Panchayat constituted thereafter
shall perform:
(a) For the remaining period
(b) For the entire five year
(c) As decided by Gram Sabha
(d) As decided by Gram Pradhan

56. Which of the following is correctly matched?


(A) Cold War – Bipolar
(B) Berlin Crisis – 1955
(C) Cuban Missile Crisis – 1962
(D) Marshal Plan – Japan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D Only
(b) B and D Only
(c) A and C Only
(d) C and D Only

57. Match List I with List II.

List I Trade Union List II Party/Organisation


Affiliations
(A)All India Central Council (I)Dravida Munnetra
of Trade Union Kazhagam
(B)Bharatiya Majdoor Sangh (II) Communist Party
India (ML)
(C)Indian National Trade (III) Indian National
union Congress Congress
(D)Labour Progressive (IV) Rashtriya
Federation Swayamsevak
Sangh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(b) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(c) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(d) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

58. In which of the following books of ‘Politics’ Aristotle justifies


slavery?
(a) Book - 1
(b) Book - 4
(c) Book - 6
(d) Book - 7

59. The Saptang Theory of State Comprises:


(A) Swamy, Amatya
(B) Janpada/Rashtra, Mitra
(C) Durga, Kosa, Danda
(D) Adhyakshas. Ayamukham
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) C, D, A Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) A, B, C Only

60. Arrange the following conventings on rights in Chronological order.


(A) The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.
(B) The Convention on the Elimination of All forms of Discrimina
against Women.
(C) The American Convention on Human Rights.
(D) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) D, A, C, B
(c) C, D, B, A
(d) B, A, D, C

61. What is the correct sequencing of these movements in India?


(A) Quit India Movement
(B) Non Co-operation Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Total Revolution Movement
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, A, D
(b) D, C, A, B
(c) B, C, D, A
(d) D, B, C, A

62. Which of the following is not true about Peter Drucker?


(a) He authored the book titled “The Effective Executive”
(b) He coined the term ‘Knowledge workers’
(c) He coined the term ‘MBO’
(d) He coined the term S. M. A. R. T.

63. Who has coined the Word ‘Soft Powers’


(a) Hans J. Morgenthau
(b) Joseph S. Nye
(c) Robert Jervis
(d) Ann Tickner
64. A Civil Society eco system usually includes within its ambit
(A) Non-Profit Organisation
(B) Online groups
(C) Religious Leaders
(D) Legislature
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D Only
(b) A, B Only
(c) A, B, C Only
(d) A Only

65. Who has written the book ‘Gender in International Relations’?


(a) Ann Tickner
(b) Cynthia Enloe
(c) Arundhati Roy
(d) Hillary Clinton

66. Arrange the following Schemes by order of the launching year.


(A) Demonetization
(B) Goods and Services tax Act
(C) Pradhan Mantri Jandhan Yojna
(D) Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(c) (D), (A), (B), (C)
(d) (C), (D), (A), (B)

67. Which of the following is correctly matched?


(A) War on Terrorism – USA
(B) Maritime Silk Road – India
(C) Viktor Yanukovych – Ukraine
(D) Line of Control – China
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D Only
(b) A and C Only
(c) B and C Only
(d) C and D Only

68. Which of the following report is published by NITI AAYOG?


(a) National Multidimensional Poverty Index
(b) Economic Survey
(c) Unemployment Rate
(d) National Sample Survey

69. The United Kingdom (UK) voted for Brexit in


(a) 2017
(b) 2019
(c) 2016
(d) 2020

70. Arrange the following according to chronological order.


(A) Kyoto Protocol
(B) International Covenant on Economic. Social and Cultural Right
(C) UN Conference on Environment in Rio de Janeiro.
(D) UN Declarations of Human Rights.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, B, D
(b) D, B, C, A
(c) D, C, A, B
(d) B, C, A, D

71. Who describes process of Modernisation as a ‘Multi-faceted


process involving change in all areas of human thought and
activity’?
(a) Huntington
(b) S. M. Lipset
(c) Rustow and Wand
(d) David Easton

72. Which of the following Schemes is/are launched by the current


Central Government?
(A) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna.
(B) Kisan Nyay Yojna.
(C) Pradhan Mantri Gareeb Kalyan Yojna
(D) Meri Policy Mere Haath
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D Only
(b) A, B, C Only
(c) A, C, D Only
(d) A, C Only

73. Which of the following is correctly matched?


(A) Doklam – Trijunction
(B) Easter day Terror Attack – Sri Lanka
(C) Ukraine – NATO
(D) Iraq – GCC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D Only
(b) A and B Only
(c) B and C Only
(d) A and D Only

74. What is the effect of globalization on food security?


(A) Wealthy countries subsidies and trade barrier make it difficul
developing countries to take advantage of the potentia
globalization for advancing food security.
(B) World Trade Organization rules do not cover agriculture
globalization really has no bearing on food Security.
(C) Supermarket are so far the only way in which food and agricu
have experienced globalization.
(D) Developing countries need to create publicly owned food rese
in order to realize the potential benefit.

75. Arrange the following according to the chronological orders.


(A) Lahore Declaration
(B) Tashkent Agreement
(C) Indo-US Civil Nuclear Co-operation Agreement
(D) Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, C, B, A
(b) B, D, A, C
(c) A, C, B, D
(d) D, A, B, C

76. Which of the following is not an essential condition of democracy?


(a) Liberty
(b) Equality
(c) Independence of Judiciary
(d) Committed Judiciary

77. ‘Open Door’ Policy was associated with


(a) Mikhail Gorbachev
(b) Ho Chi Minh
(c) Schwarzes
(d) Deng Xiaoping

78. Consider the following statements regarding John Rawls’s theory


of justice?
(A) Justice is the first virtue of Social Institutions.
(B) Justice is the first virtue of State institutions
(C) In a just society the rights Secured by justice are not subjec
political bargaining.
(D) In a just society the rights secured by justice are not subjec
social obligation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B Only
(b) B, C Only
(c) A, C Only
(d) A, B, C, D

79. Who amongst the following is the editor of the book “The Indian
Paradox”?
(a) Rajeev Bhargava
(b) Myron Weiner
(c) Subhash Kashyap
(d) Granville Austin

80. Which of the following book is/are authored by Max Weber?


(A) The theory of Social and Economic Organization
(B) The theory of Administration of the State
(C) Economy and Society
(D) The Elements of Administration
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A Only
(b) A and B Only
(c) A and D Only
(d) A and C Only

81. Consider the following regarding citizenship:


(A) A citizen is known by the rights, he is allowed to exercise.
(B) A person living in the state territory is a citizen of state.
(C) Citizenship can be granted through process of naturalization.
(D) If one is born in the territory of a state, he will be recognized
citizen.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) B, C, D Only
(c) A, C, D Only
(d) A, B, D Only

82. Project Mausam is a policy linked with


(a) Environment protection
(b) Climate change
(c) Indian Ocean region
(d) Bay of Bengal

83. Which of the following characterises rational choice


Institutionalism, as a new institution approach in comparative
politics?
(A) It explains interest based motivations of political actors
(B) It explains resolution of collective action dilemma
(C) It explains cultural construction of interest and institutions
(D) It follows a deductive approach
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) A, B and D Only
(c) A and B Only
(d) B and C Only

84. Which of the following is correctly matched.


(A) Hydropower Diplomacy – India - Nepal
(B) Basic Group – China
(C) Group of 77 – USA
(D) BIMSTEC – Pakistan
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D
(b) A and B
(c) C and D
(d) B and D

85. Match List I with List II.

List I Theory/Concept List II Thinker


(A)Constructive Conflict (I)Frederic
Herzberg
(B)Acceptance Theory of authority and (II) Abraham
‘Zonal Indifference’ Maslow
(C)Hierarchy of Needs (III) Chester I
Barnard
(D)Hygiene - Motivation theory (IV) Mary Par
Follett

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(b) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D)-(III)

86. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Karl Marx agreed with Hegel that history unfolded
itself according to a dialectical plan. But according to Marx the
ideas were the result of material conditions.
Statement II: Dialectical materialism believes in the
inseparability of matter and motion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

87. What is Government 2.0?


(a) Its ND A in its II term.
(b) It refers to Government policies that aim to harness interac
Internet tools to create an open source computing platform.
(c) It refers to Metaverse Virtual Reality world.
(d) It refers to the Government of Nations emerged after II World W

88. Arrange in order.


The Right to Freedom of Religion as enshrined in the Constitution
of India.
(A) Freedom to manage religious affairs
(B) Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any partic
religion.
(C) Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice
propagation of religion.
(D) Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or relig
worship in certain educational institutions.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, A, B, D
(b) B, A, D, C
(c) A, B, C, D
(d) B, A, C, D

89. Match List I with List II.

List I Women Group List II Place


(A)Forum Against oppression of Women (I)Delhi
(B)Saheli (II) Mumbai
(C)Stree Shakti Sangthan (III) Bangalore
(D)Vimochana (IV) Hyderaba

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(b) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(d) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D)-(III)

90. Which of the following are related to electoral reform in India?


(A) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(B) Indrajit Gupta Committee
(C) Tarkunde Committee
(D) Santhanam Committee
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B Only
(b) B, C Only
(c) A, B, C Only
(d) A, B, C, D
Directions for Question 91–95: Read the passage and answer
the questions:
The theme of the World Economic Forum’s Annual Meeting 2019, held in
Davos was Globalization 4.0. Globalization 1.0 started in 1S20 and
ended at the starting of World War - I. Globalization 2.0 began after
World War-H and ended around 1990. These two are called old
globalization. Old globalization was especially beneficial to today’s rich
nations. The G7 saw rapid growth of them exports, income, and industry
compared to today’s poor nations during old globalization. This led to
what Kenneth Pomeranz, a historian, calls the Great Divergence.
Globalization 3.0 was termed as new globalization.
This ‘new globalization’, or Globalization 3.0, had dramatically
different effects on world income (GDP) shares. In just 20 years, the G7
share of world GDP plummeted to 50%, and its share of trade to 32%.
This trend, which might be called the ‘Great Convergence’, is surely the
dominant economic fact of the last 20 or 30 years.
What happened to the landscape of global manufacturing? The G7
nations lost share gradually between 1970 and 1990, followed by an
accelerated decline from 1990. To where did manufacturing go? Just six
developing nations - which we might call the ‘Rapidly Industrializing 6’ or
1-6 for short-accounted for almost all of it. The 1-6 are China, Korea,
India, Poland, Indonesia and Thailand. It gained almost 16 percentage
points of world manufacturing in just 20 years.
Globalization 4.0 is driven by cutting edge new technology like Al.
Cloud Computing etc. These technologies shrink distances, open up
borders and minds and bring people all across the globe closer together.
These technologies are changing the nature of work where no physical
presence of workers will be required. Such workers are termed as
telemigrant - persons who live in another developing country while
working for a company located in a developed country.

91. The term Great Divergence is related to


(A) Globalization 1.0
(B) Globalization 2.0
(C) Globalization 3.0
(D) Globalization 4.0
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C Only
(b) A, B Only
(c) D Only
(d) B, C Only

92. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Globalization 2.0 began after World War-I and
ended around 1990
Statement II: Globalization 2.0 saw the establishment of UN-
LMF and World bank
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

93. The term ‘Telemigrants’ is related to globalization


(a) 1.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 3.0
(d) 4.0

94. The annual meeting 2019 of World Economic Forum was held in
which of the following countries.
(a) USA
(b) Britain
(c) Switzerland
(d) Australia

95. Match List I with List II:


List I List II
(A)I6 (I)Italy
(B)Globalization 3.0 (II) Globalization 4.0
(C)G7 (III) China
(D)Emergence of Remote working (IV) New globalization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(b) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
(c) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(d) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D)-(III)

Directions for Question 96–100: Read the passage and answer


the questions:
Good governance has 8 major characteristics. It is participatory,
consensus oriented, accountable, transparent, responsive, effective and
efficient, equitable and inclusive and follows the rule of law. It assures
that corruption is minimized, the views of minorities are taken into
account and that the voices of the most vulnerable in society are heard in
decision - making. It is also responsive to the present and future needs of
society.
Participation by both men and women is a key cornerstone of good
governance. Participation could be either direct or through legitimate
intermediate institutions or representatives. It is important to point out that
representative democracy does not necessarily mean that the concerns
of the most vulnerable in society would be taken into consideration in
decision making. Participation needs to be informed and organized. This
means freedom of association and expression on the one hand and an
organized civil society on the other hand.
Good governance requires fair legal frameworks that are enforced
impartially. It also requires full protection of human rights, particularly
those of minorties. Impartial enforcement of laws requires an
independent judiciary and an impartial and incorruptible police force.
Transparency means that decisions taken and their enforcement are
done in a manner that follows rules and regulations. It also means that
information is freely available and directly accessible to those who will be
affected by such decisions and their enforcement. It also means that
enough information is provided and that it is provided in easily
understandable forms and media.
Good governance requires that institutions and processes try to serve
all stakeholders within a reasonable time-frame. There are several actors
and as many viewpoints in a given society. Good governance requires
mediation of the different interests in society to reach a broad consenses
in society on what is in the best interest of the whole community and how
this can be achieved. It also requires a broad and long-term perspective
on what is needed for sustainable human development and how to
achieve the goals of such development. This can only result from and
understanding of the historical, cultural and social contexts of a given
society or community.
A society’s wellbeing depends on ensuring that all its members feel
that they have a stake in it and do not feel excluded from the mainstream
of society. This requires all groups, particularly the most vulnerable, have
opportunities to improve or maintain their wellbeing.
Good governance means that processes and institutions produce
results that meet the needs of society while making the best use of
resources at their disposal. The concept of efficiency in the context of
good governance also covers the sustainable use of natural resources
and the protection of the environment.

96. Identify the major characteristes of Good Governance.


(A) Inclusiveness
(B) Transparent and responsive
(C) Elite - Centric
(D) Concentrates on present needs of the society only
Choose the correct answer from the options given below-:
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) B, C Only
(c) A, B, D, Only
(d) A, B Only

97. Transparency can’t be explained as-


(a) Restricted access to information
(b) Decision as per rules and regulations
(c) Incorruptable police force
(d) Mediation of different interest in society

98. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): Participation needs to be informed and organized.
Reasoning (R): Representative democracy does not mean that
the most vulnerable in the society will be part of decision making.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

99. Which among the following is not related to the concept of


efficiency in the context of good governance?
(a) Protection of environment
(b) Sustainable use of natural resources
(c) Exclusions from the mainstream of the society
(d) Understanding the contexts of society.

100. Which, among the following characteristics is/are related to Good


Governance
(A) Fair - legal frameworks
(B) Impartiality
(C) Protection of Minorities
(D) Centralised judiciary system.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, D Only
(b) B, C, D Only
(c) A, B, C Only
(d) A, B, C, D

Answer Key

1. 16. 31. 46. 61. 76. 91.


(c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (d) (b)
2. 17. 32. 47. 62. 77. 92.
(b) (b) (d) (c) (d) (d) (d)
3. 18. 33. 48. 63. 78. 93.
(c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d)
4. 19. 34. 49. 64. 79. 94.
(a) (a) (c) (c) (c) (**) (c)
5. 20. 35. 50. 65. 80. 95.
(c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (d) (c)
6. 21. 36. 51. 66. 81. 96.
(b) (a) (a) (d) (d) (c) (d)
7. 22. 37. 52. 67. 82. 97.
(a) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a)
8. 23. 38. 53. 68. 83. 98.
(a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b)
9. 24. 39. 54. 69. 84. 99.
(b) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c)
10. 25. 40. 55. 70. 85. 100.
(a) (a) (a) (a) (b) (b) (c)
11. 26. 41. 56. 71. 86.
(c) (b) (a) (c) (a) (a)
12. 27. 42. 57. 72. 87.
(c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (b)
13. 28. 43. 58. 73. 88.
(d) (c) (a) (a) (b) (a)
14. 29. 44. 59. 74. 89.
(c) (a) (a) (d) (a) (d)
15. 30. 45. 60. 75. 90.
(b) (a) (c) (b) (b) (c)

______________
**For this question, marks will be awarded to all the candidates who appeared for the
examination.
UGC NET Political Science
2022 Question Paper—Shift 2

1. Which among the following are elements of Liberalism?


(A) Individual should have the right to develop his own personality.
(B) Man is a rational creature.
(C) Society should not be plural.
(D) It believes in constitutionalism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A, B and D only

2. In which year did Pandita Ramabai open her Sharda Sadan (Home
for Learning)?
(a) 1889
(b) 1798
(c) 1898
(d) 1857

3. Given below are two statements.


Statement I: Tagore and Gandhi met for the first time at
Shantiniketan
Statement II: Tagore and Gandhi met for first time at Gurukul
Kangri
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

4. Local Bodies’ Ombudsman may be established to hear complaint


of corruption against local bodies. This was the view of the
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee
(b) Balvantrai Mehta Committee
(c) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

5. Who among the following envisaged that liberal democracy as a


political apparatus would ensure the accountability of the governor
to the governed?
(a) John Stuart Mill
(b) John Locke
(c) Jeremy Bentham
(d) Jean-Jacques Rousseau

6. Which theory of Rights claims that Rights are inalienable and canno
be separated or taken away from the individual as they are inheren
and prior to society and state?
(a) Theory of Natural Rights
(b) Theory of Legal Rights
(c) Theory of Contractual Rights
(d) Theory of Social-Welfare Rights

7. Who among the following coined the term Ecofeminism?


(a) Francoise d’Eaubonne
(b) Okin
(c) Kate Millett
(d) Germaine Greer

8. Which of the following are correctly matched?


(A) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights 1966
(B) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities 2000
(C) Convention on the Rights of Child 1989
(D) Optional Protocol on Economic Social Rights 2006
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C and D only
(b) A and C only
(c) A and B only
(d) A and D only

9. Which of the following book is NOT written by Machiavelli?


(a) Art of War
(b) The Discourses on Livy
(c) Discourses on Inequality
(d) The Prince

10. Which of the following is NOT written by Mary Wollstonecraft?


(a) A Vindication of the Rights of Men
(b) A Vindication of the Rights of Women
(c) Thoughts of the Education of Daughters
(d) Discourses on Education

11. Lohia opined:


(A) Freedom and bread are inseparable.
(B) The removal of inequality from human society was one of
seven revolutions.
(C) If socialism is to be defined in two words then they are equ
and prosperity.
(D) The desire for equality in the modern world has become the de
for being similar and not equal.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C and D only
(b) A and D only
(c) B and D only
(d) A, B, C and D

12. Who wrote Neo-Colonialism: The Last Stage of Capitalism?


(a) Lenin
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) K. Nkrumah

13. ‘Leadership is the activity of influencing people to strive willingly for


mutual objectives’. This was said by
(a) James Rost
(b) Keith Davis
(c) M.P. Follett
(d) G.R. Terry

14. How many new languages were added by the 92nd Constitutional
Amendment, 2003?
(A) 1.3
(B) 2.4
(C) 3.2
(D) 4.5
15. Consider the following movements. Arrange them in chronological
order
(A) Naxalbari Movement
(B) Kheda Movement
(C) Champaran Movement
(D) Khilafat Movement
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) C, B, D, A
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) D, C, B, A
(d) B, C, A, D

16. The rise and growth of the concept of New Public Administration
can be traced to:
(A) Honey Report on Higher Education for Public Services – 1967
(B) Minnowbrook Conference II – 1988
(C) Philadelphia Conference on the Theory and Practice of P
Administration – 1967
(D) Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence – 1971
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C and D only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) A, C and D only

17. Which of the following functions have been laid down in the 12th
Schedule of the Constitution of India for municipalities?
(A) Urban poverty alleviation
(B) Planning for economic and social development
(C) Roads and Bridges
(D) Public safety services
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B and C only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A and B only

18. Which of the following principles are correct with regard to liberal
democracy?
(A) Government by consent
(B) Public Accountability
(C) Suitable for Socialism
(D) Constitutional Government
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and D Only
(b) A, C and D Only
(c) B, C and D Only
(d) A, B and C Only

19. The book Six Glorious Epochs of Indian History was written by:
(a) M. K. Gandhi
(b) J. L Nehru
(c) V. D. Savarkar
(d) M. N. Roy

20. Match List I with List II.

List I Stages in the Evolution List II Duration

1. Principles of Administration I.1938–1947

II.1948–1970
2. Era of Challenges

C. Politics Administration dichotomy III. 1887–192


D. Crisis of Identity IV.1927–1937

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(b) A - IV, B - I. C - III. D - II
(c) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
(d) A - IV, B - I. C - II, D - III

21. Which of the following are correctly matched?


(A) Operation Raahat Yemen
(B) Vande Bharat Mission Sri Lanka
(C) Operation Maitri Nepal
(D) Operation Sukoon Iraq
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) B and D only
(d) A and B only

22. In which Indian state’s assembly election, Voter Verifiable Paper


Audit Trail (VVPAT) was used for the first time?
(a) Manipur
(b) Nagaland
(c) Kerala
(d) Sikkim

23. Who among the following has provided ‘Revisionist Theory of


Modernity’?
(a) Steven Wilkinson
(b) Sudipta Kaviraj
(c) Atul Kohli
(d) Francine R. Frankel

24. In which one of following years, the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
Yojana (BBBP) was launched?
(a) 2012
(b) 2013
(c) 2014
(d) 2015

25. Which among the following are included in Nine Pillars of Digital
India?
(A) Information for all
(B) Early harvest programme
(C) Electronic manufacturing
(D) Connect only metro cities of the country
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C and D only
(b) A, C and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) A, B, C and D

26. According to Hegel:


(A) War is not to be regarded as an evil but a virtue.
(B) War effectively displays the “irony of the divine idea’.
(C) War destroys the selfish egoism of the individual.
(D) ‘The State of War’, shows the omnipotence of the state in
individuality’.
(E) Humanity never needed war and the gun is a chance of inventi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, C, B and A only
(b) E, C, B and A only
(c) C, E, A and D only
(d) C, A, E and B only

27. Match List I with List II.

List I Provisions List II Schedu

1. Administration and control of Scheduled I.5th


Schedule
Areas and Scheduled Tribes

II.3rd
2. List of Official Languages Schedule

C. Provision of Lists (Union, State, Concurrent) III. 7th


Sche
D. Oath needs to be made by the Union and State IV.8th
Ministers Schedule

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(b) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
(c) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(d) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

28. Arrange the establishment of the following Commissions in


chronological order
(A) National Commission for Women
(B) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(C) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(D) National Human Rights Commission
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D, C
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) D, C, B, A
(d) A, D, B, C

29. Which ones are true about the Passive Resistance and
Satyagraha?
(A) Passive Resistance is equivalent to Satyagraha.
(B) Passive Resistance is not afraid of the physical strength w
Satyagraha is afraid of physical strength.
(C) Passive Resistance is negative in practice whereas Satyagrah
positive morality.
(D) Passive Resistance is weapon of the weaker sections, Satyag
never desires to terrorise the opponent.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D only
(b) A and B only
(c) C and D only
(d) B and C only

30. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Swami
Vivekanand?
(A) He was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramhans
(B) In 1893, he proceeded to participate in the Chicago Parliame
Religions
(C) He never visited U.S.A.
(D) He said that Man is not higher than all animals
(E) He was the founder member of the Arya Samaj
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C and D only
(b) D and E only
(c) A and B only
(d) A and E only

31. Apology is a dialogue written by Plato. Which among the following


are the characters of this dialogue?
(a) Socrates and Crito
(b) Socrates and Polymarcus
(c) Socrates and his accusers
(d) Socrates and Plato

32. Which of the following are correctly matched?


(A) Fast-Track Diplomacy – Narendra Modi
(B) Project Mausam – Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Look East Policy – Narasimha Rao
(D) Act East Policy – Manmohan Singh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and D only
(c) A and C only
(d) C and D only

33. Which among the following inter-state water disputes is correctly


matched?
(A) Cauvery water dispute – Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
(B) Narmada water dispute – Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Guj
and Maharashtra
(C) Krishna water dispute – Maharashtra, Karnataka and An
Pradesh
(D) Tungabhadra water dispute – Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D only
(b) A and B only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) A, B, C and D

34. Which among the following languages are conferred with classical
language status?
(A) Sanskrit
(B) Tamil
(C) Kannada
(D) Hindi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B and C only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) A and B only

35. Which of the following is NOT correct about the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India?
(a) The salary and other conditions of service of the CAG sha
determined by the Parliament by law.
(b) The CAG shall not be eligible for further office either under
Government of India or under any state government,
retirement.
(c) The administrative expenses of the CAG office shall be cha
upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The reports of the CAG relating to the accounts of the Union s
be submitted to the Parliament.

36. India is a signatory of


(a) CTBT
(b) SALT
(c) CEPA
(d) NPT

37. Which of the following are correctly matched?


(A) International Court of Justice – The Hague
(B) W.H.O – London
(C) International Criminal Court – Rome
(D) IAEA – New York
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) B and D only

38. Which one of the following is NOT hallmark of Development


Administration?
(a) Change Oriented
(b) Goal Oriented
(c) Status-quo Oriented
(d) Result Oriented

39. Consider the following about Post-Modernism?


(A) Post-Modernism is a reaction against traditionalism
(B) Post-Modernism recognises pluralism
(C) Post-Modernism criticises Meta-Narratives
(D) Post-Modernism criticises Local-Narratives
(a) A and B Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) C and D Only
(d) A, B, C and D

40. Which among the following is NOT a type of orientation in a


political culture in Robert Dahl’s view?
(a) Orientation to problem solving
(b) Orientation of public management
(c) Orientation of political system
(d) Orientation to collective action

41. Given below are two statements


Statement I: The word ‘ecology’ is derived from the Greek word
oikos.
Statement II: Norwegian philosopher Arne Naess divided
ecologism into shallow and deep ecologism.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

42. Match List I with List II.

List I List II

1. Millenium I.European Recovery


Development Goals

II.New International
2. Marshall Plan Economic Order

C. Group of 77 III. World Trade


Organisation
D. GATT IV.Poverty and Hunger

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(b) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(c) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(d) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

43. What is the correct sequencing of these Political Thinkers on the


basis of their year of birth
(A) Rousseau
(B) Machiavelli
(C) Locke
(D) Aristotle
(E) Hobbes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, B, E, C, A
(b) A, B, C, D, E
(c) B, C, D, A, E
(d) E, A, C, B, D

44. Match List I with List II.

List I List II

I.Man, the State and


1. Henry
War
Kissinger

2. Kanneth II.Multiplex Order


Waltz

C. Amitav III. Traditional Approach to Fore


Acharya Policy
D. Joseph S. IV.The Future of
Nye Power
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(b) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(c) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(d) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

45. The concept of political culture involves three components of


individual orientations:
(I) cognitive orientations
(II) affective orientations and
(III) evaluative orientation.
Whose statement is this?
(a) Alan R. Ball
(b) Lucian Pye and Sydney Verba
(c) Almond and Powell
(d) Rose and Dogan

46. Eco feminism was a special feature of


(a) Silent Valley
(b) Plachimada struggle
(c) Chipko movement
(d) None of these

47. Who among the following brought logical positivism in the study of
policy making and the relation of means and ends?
(a) P. H. Appleby
(b) Yehezkel Dror
(c) Herbert Simon
(d) Dwight Waldo

48. Which of the following are correct?


(A) Hannah Arendt – The Post-Modern Conditions
(B) Jacques Derrida – The Post Card
(C) Frantz Fanon – The Wretched of the Earth
(D) Antonio Gramsci – The Human Condition
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A, B, C and D

49. Arrange the following books written by B.R. Ambedkar in an


ascending order:
(A) Castes in India: Their Mechanism, Genesis and Development
(B) The Annihilation of Caste
(C) The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and Its Solution
(D) Thoughts on Pakistan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, C, B, D
(b) C, A, B, D
(c) D, A, B, C
(d) B, D, A, C

50. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The pilosophy of Integral Humanism belongs to
Deendayal Upadhyay.
Reason R: Deendayal Upadhyay rejected Communism in which
Individualism was crushed as part of a large heartless machine.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanatio
A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

51. Chronologically arrange the correct sequence of Committiees


constituted for Panchayati Raj in India.
(A) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(D) L. M. Singhavi Committee
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, A, D, C
(b) D, A, B, C
(c) C. B, A, D
(d) A, C, B, D

52. Given below are two statements.


Statement I: Power is an instrument of coercion and has a
physical effect.
Statement II: Power could as well be based on consent and yet
be more effective.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

53. The permanent secretariat of BIMSTEC is in


(a) Kathmandu
(b) New Delhi
(c) Colombo
(d) Dhaka

54. What does the idea of “positive liberty” mean?


(a) The state has the right to intervene in the hope of making peop
life more fulfilling.
(b) People should just get out there and do whatever they want.
(c) Only self-confident people can be free.
(d) Freedom means absence of constraints deliberately imposed
other people.

55. First Lokpal Bill was introduced in Parliament in the year


(a) 1971
(b) 1967
(c) 1969
(d) 1968

56. Which of the following is/are true?


(A) The Election Commission of India conducts elections to s
assemblies.
(B) The State Election Commission conducts Panchayats’
Municipal Bodies’ elections.
(C) If there is any dispute regarding election of the President, dec
of the Election Commission would be final.
(D) The Election Commission is responsible for Polling, Counting
Declaration of results of the Election.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and D only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B, C and D
(d) A and B only
57. Match List I with List II.

List I Name of the List II Citizens’ Charter


Countries Implementation Years

1. Canada I.1993

2. India II.1995

C.Malaysia III. 1997


D.France IV.1992

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(b) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(c) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
(d) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

58. “Bureaucrats resist change.” Who propounded this theory?


(a) Anthony Downs (1967)
(b) Judith Gruber (1987)
(c) D. Thompson (1967)
(d) Robert K. Merton (1957)

59. Match List I with List II.

List I Books/Works List II Thinkers

1. Representative Government I.Friedrich Hegel

II.John Stuart Mill


2. Outlines of the Philosophy of Right

C.The German Ideology III. John Lo


D.Letter on Toleration IV.Karl Marx

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(b) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(c) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
(d) A - IV, B-III, C - I, D - II

60. Who said, “Whether you call it a federal constitution or a unitary


constitution or by any other name, it makes no difference as long
as the Constitution serves our purpose.”?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) P. Sitaramayya

61. Which of the following are correctly matched


(A) Clash of Civilizations – Huntington. S
(B) Classical Theory – Gaddis. J
(C) The End of History – Fukuyama. F
(D) Green Political Theory – Giddens. A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C and D only
(b) A and D only
(c) A and C only
(d) A and B only

62. Who among the following is the author of the book, The Ideal of
Nationalism?
(a) R. Muir
(b) G.P. Gooch
(c) Hans Kohn
(d) C.J.H. Hayes

63. Arrange the following stages of human history given by Karl Marx
(A) Slave Society
(B) Primitive Society
(C) Communist Society
(D) Feudal Society
(E) Capitalist Society
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, C, D, E, A
(c) B, A, D, E, C
(d) D, C, B, A, E

64. Arrange the following in the chronological order.


(A) Lahore Declaration
(B) Agra Summit
(C) Shimla Accord
(D) Indus Water Treaty
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, A, B, C
(b) D, C, A, B
(c) A, C, B, D
(d) B, C, A, D

65. Consider the following:


(A) Socialism stands for equality.
(B) Socialism stands for the collection of private property.
(C) Socialism stands for the elimination of competition.
(D) Socialism aims at the elimination of capitalism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) A, C and D only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) A, B, C and D

66. Which of the following are the common compulsory provisions of


the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Act?
(A) Five-yearly elections
(B) Reservation for Backward Classes
(C) Reservation for women
(D) Nagar Panchayats
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B and C only
(b) A and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) A and C only

67. Central Vigilance Commission (1964) was set up on the


recommendation of the
(a) Gorwala Committee
(b) Santhanam Committee
(c) Kripalani Committee
(d) Administrative Reforms Commission

68. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to


Aurobindo?
(A) He explains Nation State’ theory
(B) He explains Spiritual Nationalism
(C) He sees Nationalism as a religious aspiration and moral attitud
(D) Nation as geographical entity only
(E) He never discussed Nationalism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B and C only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and D only
(d) D and E only

69. Which of the following idea(s)/concept(s) is/are given by Chester


Barnard?
(A) Acceptance theory of authority and Zone of Indifference’
(B) Contribution satisfaction equilibrium
(C) Functions of the executive
(D) Bounded rationality
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) A only
(d) A, B and D only

70. Verrier Elwin is associated with


(a) Gender Studies
(b) Gandhian Studies
(c) Tribal Studies
(d) Ecological Studies

71. Kenneth Waltz was a:


(a) Realist
(b) Neo-realist
(c) Idealist
(d) Anarchist

72. Who is the author of The Study of Public Administration?


(a) E. N. Gladden
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Dwight Waldo
(d) R. A. Warner

73. ‘Orange Revolution’ was associated with


(a) Poland
(b) Ukraine
(c) Russia
(d) Moldova

74. 3C formula was associated with India’s foreign policy under


(a) Dr. Man Mohan Singh
(b) K. Gujaral
(c) Narendra Modi
(d) Rajiv Gandhi

75. Which of the following functions should the state perform in the
view of Individualist writers?
(A) Maintenance of internal law and order
(B) To make rules regarding property
(C) Protection from foreign aggression
(D) To implement such mutual agreements which are legally valid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C and D only
(b) A, C and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) A, B and D only

76. Which of the following are correctly matched?


(A) ONGC Videsh – South China Sea
(B) War on Terror – GCC
(C) Military strength – Element of national power
(D) The Silent Spring – Kenneth Boulding
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

77. Match List I with List II.

List I Author List II Book

1. Francine R. I.The Modernity of


Frankel and Traditions
M.S.A. Rao

2. Rudolph and II.Battles Half-Won


Rudolph

C. Ashutosh Varshney III. The Trajectories


the Indian State
D. Sudipta Kaviraj IV.Dominance and State
Power in modern India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - IV, B - I. C - II, D - III
(b) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(c) A - II. B - IV. C - III, D - I
(d) A - IV, B - I, C - III. D - II

78. Which work is NOT related to Barni?


(a) Fatwa-i-Jahandari
(b) Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi
(c) Zawabi
(d) Akbarnama

79. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Hegemony is a system regulated by a dominant
power
Reason R: In realist theory, it refers to the influence, a great
power is able to establish over other states in the system, ranging
from leadership to dominance.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanatio
A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

80. Identify the first Ashram of Gandhi in India.


(a) Sabarmati Ashram
(b) Wardha Ashram
(c) Kochrab Ashram
(d) Phoenix Ashram
81. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A
and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Thomas Jefferson was determined not to remove
public officials for political reasons alone.
Reason R: Malconduct is a just ground for removal of public
officials.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanatio
A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

82. Which of the following are correct about Comparative Public


Administration (CPA)?
(A) CPA focuses on the structure, process, behaviour, roles
impact of public administrative system at the international level
(B) Comparative Administrative Group (CAG) was set up in 1963.
(C) CAG was funded by American Political Science Association.
(D) F. W. Riggs was the chairman of CAG from its inception till the
of 1970.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C and D only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) B, C and D only

83. Mekong Gangs Cooperation (MGC) was initiated by


(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Narasimha Rao
(c) I.K. Gujaral
(d) A.B. Vajpayee

84. Match List I with List II.

List I Book List II Author


I.Jay Prakash
1. Hindutva Narayan

2. A Plea for the Reconstruction of Indian II.Sarvarkar


Polity

C. Marx, Gandhi and Socialism III. B. R.


Ambed
D. Caste in India, Their Mechanism Genesis IV.Lohiya
and Development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
(b) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(c) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
(d) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

85. Arrange the following according to the chronological order


(A) Russian – Ukrainian War
(B) Russian – Georgian War
(C) Euromaidan Revolution
(D) Orange Revolution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, B, C, A
(b) B, C, A, D
(c) D, C, B, A
(d) A, C, B, D

86. Match List I with List II.

List I List II Books


Authors

1. Kedourie I.Nationalism Myth and


Elie Reality

2. Hans Kohn II.Nationalism

C. R. Muir III. Nationalism and


Internationalism
D. Boyd. C. IV.Nationalism and Liberty
Shafer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
(b) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
(c) A - IV, B - III, C - I. D - II
(d) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

87. Who among the following authored the book ‘The Rights of Man’?
(a) J. S. Mill
(b) Thomas Paine
(c) Thomas Hill Green
(d) John Locke

88. India announced the Act East Policy in


(a) BIMSTEC Summit, 2004
(b) ASEAN Summit, 2014
(c) IORA Meet, 1997
(d) SAARC Summit, 2014

89. Match List I with List II.

List I Concept/ideas List II Thinker

1. Egalitarian I.J. J. Rousseau

2. Libertarian II.John Rawls

C.Popular Sovereignty III. Robert Noz


D.Pluralist Theory of Democracy IV.Karl Mannheim

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(b) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(c) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(d) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

90. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Locke’s political


philosophy?
(a) The state of nature was one of peace and mutual assistance.
(b) The right to property is prior to the society.
(c) The first essay of the Two Treatises of Government was devote
the refutation of Filmer.
(d) The final source of state is the right to self defence of hu
beings.

Directions for Question 91–95: Read the passage and answer


the questions:
As per Census 2011, literacy rate of India is 74.04% wherein rate of male
literacy is 82.14% and female literacy rate is 65.46%. Government
approved a new scheme known as New India Literacy Programme of
Adult Education for the period of Financial Years 2022–2027. As a
progressive step, the present government has decided that the term
Adult Education” be replaced with “Education For All”. The objectives of
the scheme are to impart foundational literacy and numeracy along with
the other components which are necessary for a citizen of the 21st
century. The scheme will be implemented through online mode and with
volunteerism. As per Census 2011, the absolute number of non-literates
of the country at the age of 15 years and above age group is 25.76 crore
wherein females are 16.68 crore. This scheme will cover non-literates of
the age of 15 years and above in all State/UTs in the country. The target
for Foundational Literacy and Numeracy for Financial Years 2022-27 is
@ 1.00 crore per year by using “Online Teaching, Learning and
Assessment System” in collaboration with NIC, NCERT and NIOS
through registration with Adhar and mobile number. In this scheme,
priority will be given to the girls and women, SC/ST/OBC/Minorities,
Persons with Special Needs (Divyangjans), Marginalized/Nomadic/
Construction workers/ laborers etc., those who can substantially and
immediately benefit from adult education. Area wise focus shall be on all
aspirational districts of NITI Aayog, districts with literacy rate less than
the National /State average, districts with female literacy rates less than
60%, as per the 2011 Census. School will be Unit for implementation of
the scheme and for conducting survey of beneficiaries and Voluntary
Teachers. The estimated total outlay of “New India Literacy Programme is
₹1037.90 crore which includes Central share of ₹700 crore and rest of
the amount will be shared by the states for the financial years 2022–27.

91. Which will be the unit for conducting survey for beneficiaries and
voluntary teachers?
(a) School
(b) Family
(c) Village
(d) District

92. What age group is included under this scheme?


(a) Non-literates of the age of 05 years and above
(b) Non-literates of the age of 15 years and above
(c) Non-literates of the age of 25 years and above
(d) Non-literates of the age of 35 years and above

93. As per the 2011 census, the absolute number of male non-literates
of the country at the age of 15 year and above is
(a) 9.80 crore
(b) 8.90 crore
(c) 8.09 crore
(d) 9.08 crore

94. In how many years the target for Foundational literacy and
Numeracy’ of 5 crore be completed?
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 6 years

95. What amount will be shared by the states in this scheme?


(a) ₹327.90 crore
(b) ₹700.00 crore
(c) ₹1037.90 crore
(d) ₹337.90 crore

Directions for Question 96–100: Read the passage and answer


the questions:
Political theory is the study of Political ideas and values like Justice,
Power and Democracy that we use to describe, understand and assess
political practices and institutions. Political Theory occupies a place of
preeminence in the domain of political science. Its development is closely
intertwined with man’s quest for good life. Political theory deals with the
conditions of collective life. It provides a system of rule to guide social
relationship on one hand and studies the evolution, nature, necessity and
purpose of government, on the other hand. It tries to relate them with
human perception and nature; as such it tries to evolve a framework for
analyzing man’s political concerns and evolving a mechanism to solve
these problems. It must be noted that most of the theories came out in
the midst of crisis, wherein they attempted to solve the problems.
However, in their quest to address immediate problems, they engage with
perennial issues as well.
They are not limited or context bound. Instead their focus is often
wide enough to cover world at large. Political theory outlines a conceptual
framework by which knowledge is synthesized. Different theories have
different sort of connection with the concepts. As such, differences arise
in the kind of problem they think to be of more serious nature and
consequently differences arise also in prescribing the remedies. Hence,
they enjoin both empirical and ethical statements. This has been best
illustrated by A. Hacker; it is “dispassionate and disinterested as science,
it describes political reality without trying to pass judgement on what is
being depicted either implicitly or explicitly. As philosophy, it prescribes
rules of conduct which will secure the good life for all of society and not
simply for certain’ individual or classes.
The study of political theory is important because it allows us to
examine the complex nature of political power. By studying political
theory we can examine the benefits and disadvantages of different
political systems.

96. Which one of the following is incorrect?


(a) Political Theory not only involves explanation, description
prescription regarding the state and political institutions but
evaluation of the moral philosophical purpose.
(b) Theory is a systematic knowledge. It is an intelligent and m
creation of man.
(c) It describes political reality and prescribes rules of conduct w
will secure the good life for all.
(d) Political Theory develops in isolation.

97. Political Theory deals with:


(a) Only Ethical Terms
(b) Only Scientific Terms
(c) Cultural Terms
(d) Philosophical and Empirical Terms

98. Which one of the following is correct about Political Theory?


(a) Political Theory works only within the boundaries of a partic
country.
(b) Political Theory is a generalized statement about Political life.
(c) Political Theory never depends on concepts.
(d) Political Theory is a pure science only.

99. Which of the following is NOT related to political theory?


(a) It studies values of society
(b) It studies political reality
(c) It examines advantages of political system
(d) It does not study relationship of concepts and Political Theory

100. Which of the following is true statement?


(a) Political Theory is largely an attempt to seek truth as ce
individual and classes see it
(b) Political Theory aims at not only to understand and explain
also to devise ways and means to change society.
(c) Political Theory has no role to remove imperfection from societ
(d) Political Theory has no concern with what state ought to be.

Answer Key

1. 16. 31. 46. 61. 76. 91.


(d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (a)
2. 17. 32. 47. 62. 77. 92.
(a) (b) (c) (c) (**) (a) (b)
3. 18. 33. 48. 63. 78. 93.
(c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (d)
4. 19. 34. 49. 64. 79. 94.
(d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (a) (c)
5. 20. 35. 50. 65. 80. 95.
(c) (b) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d)
6. 21. 36. 51. 66. 81. 96.
(a) (a) (c) (c) (d) (b) (d)
7. 22. 37. 52. 67. 82. 97.
(a) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d)
8. 23. 38. 53. 68. 83. 98.
(b) (b) (c) (d) (a) (d) (b)
9. 24. 39. 54. 69. 84. 99.
(c) (d) (b) (a) (b) (d) (d)
10. 25. 40. 55. 70. 85. 100.
(d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b)
11. 26. 41. 56. 71. 86.
(d) (a) (a) (a) (b) (b)
12. 27. 42. 57. 72. 87.
(**) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b)
13. 28. 43. 58. 73. 88.
(d) (d) (a) (d) (b) (b)
14. 29. 44. 59. 74. 89.
(b) (c) (c) (a) (c) (b)
15. 30. 45. 60. 75. 90.
(a) (c) (c) (c) (b) (d)

______________
**For this question, marks will be awarded to all the candidates who appeared for the
examination.
UNIT I
Political Theory

Chapter 1: Liberalism
Chapter 2: Conservatism
Chapter 3: Socialism
Chapter 4: Marxism
Chapter 5: Feminism
Chapter 6: Ecologism
Chapter 7: Multiculturalism
Chapter 8: Post-Modernism
Chapter 9: Concept of Liberty
Chapter 10: Concept of Equality
Chapter 11: Justice
Chapter 12: Concept of Rights
Chapter 13: Democracy
Chapter 14: Power
Chapter 15: Citizenship
CHAPTER 1
Liberalism

INTRODUCTION
Liberalism is a school of thought, which stands for a society where the
state will be means for the ends of an individual. Individual liberty and the
idea of human rationality is the core value of liberal thought. It stands on
the political principle of a constitutional government and consent-based
governance. The beauty of liberal political thought is the changes and
variations it has gone through with the advent of time while keeping intact
the idea of individual liberty. It started with the classical liberal idea of a
minimal government and moved towards the idea of modern liberalism or
welfarism.

Origin of Liberalism
Liberal thoughts originated during the seventeenth-century against
the idea of absolute authority (Monarchy) based political system
and against feudal economic and cultural setup in Europe.
Thinkers like John Locke, Montesquieu, Voltaire and many
more contributed to the development of an early liberal idea.
As a proper political ideology, it became famous in the eighteenth
and nineteenth centuries.

Individualism
Individual liberty became the core of liberal philosophy because, in the
monarchy and feudal society, people does not have opportunities for their
individual development, the merit of a person was not respected,
distribution of property is birth based acquired by aristocrats and noble
classes. The liberal philosopher had the vision to create a society in
which people will be free to achieve any end in life according to their
capability and merit. According to them, people own nothing to society
and the state, as was said by J. S. Mill—‘Over himself, over his own
body and mind, the individual is Sovereign.’

Figure 1.1 Key Components of Liberalism

C. B. Macpherson: criticized these individualistic tendencies by using


the word ‘Possessive Individualism’ which means a person is an owner of
his capabilities and talent and has no social responsibility.

Contract Philosophy
John Locke presented a social contract theory to identify the reason
and objective behind the formation of the state. He said in the absence of
a state (state of nature) people had the natural right to life, liberty, and
property, but the protection of these rights was not ensured in a natural
society. He said people created a civil society and formed a state for the
protection of their natural rights. Hence, the role of the state needs to be
limited and the state will work according to the consent of the citizens.
Liberal philosophers challenge the medieval thought of the Divine
Theory of State and imagined a political society that trusts in the rational
capabilities of individuals and with this contract philosophy establish rule
of law (Constitutional). Rule of law prevents the misuse of power by the
government and ensures a limited government.

TYPES OF LIBERALISM

Classical Liberalism
Classical liberalism is based on the idea of the Natural Right
Theory. It originated during the seventeenth and eighteenth
centuries and reached its climax in the nineteenth century.
According to early liberal thought, human is naturally born with
rational capabilities and hence they have the natural right to life,
liberty, and property.
According to them, the state is created for the protection of the
natural rights of people and hence, the role and scope of the
state’s power need to be limited.
The classical view of liberalism originated against the system of
theocracy, monarchy, and feudalism. So, it wants the state to
remain away from the economic sphere and supports the idea of
Laissez-faire (Free-market economy) which is propagated by
Adam Smith.
It promotes the idea of the state as a necessary evil and
represents a notion of negative liberty.
The main proponents of classical liberalism are—John Locke,
Montesquieu, Voltaire, Adam Smith, Thomas Paine,
Thomas Jefferson, David Ricardo, and Tocqueville.

Modern Liberalism
Modern Liberalism denotes a shift of liberal philosophy from a
negative to a positive view of the state. It originated during the
twentieth-century.
Modern Liberal thinkers suggested that social welfare is also
important along with the restrictive role of the state for achieving
individual liberty.
Modern Liberalism includes the classical view of individual liberty
with the modern aspect of social welfarism. It recommended a
positive role of the state in arranging socio-economic conditions for
the realization of liberty.
Modern Liberalism stands for the idea of positive liberty, it is also
known as social liberalism or positive liberalism.
Instead of non-interference in the market (Laissez-faire), it
supports the idea of economic management which is inspired by
Maynard Keynes.
The main proponents of modern liberalism are—T. H. Green,
Hobhouse, J. A. Hobson, John Rawls, and Ronald
Dworkin etc.

Libertarianism
In the twentieth-century, we have seen the tendency of welfarism
and overarching power to state in the name of the welfare of
citizens, libertarianism thought developed as a critique of these
tendencies.
Libertarian thinkers revived the classical liberal idea of a minimal
state and the conception of negative liberty.
According to them, the state should leave people alone, personal
responsibility will automatically lead people towards success.
The difference between classical liberalism and libertarianism is
that classical liberalism was developed against the old system like
theocracy, monarchy, and feudalism. On the other hand,
libertarianism was developed as a critique of the idea of modern
liberalism, the positive role of the state and welfarism.
Some libertarian thinkers like David Friedman also reached the
extreme idea of liberty and supported the anarchist perspective
(anarcho-capitalism).
The main proponents of libertarianism are—Ludwig Von
Mises, Murray Rothbard, Friedrich Hayek, David
Friedman, Milton Friedman, and Robert Nozick etc.

Neo-Liberalism
Neo-Liberalism is an updated version of liberal philosophy, which
was developed during the late twentieth century and is a
hegemonic view of global order in the twenty-first century.
It has the ingredients of classical liberalism, as well as
libertarianism and supports the idea of a minimal state and free
market economy, but it also trusts state in leading the free market
reforms in a country.
In 1991 India adopted the new economic policy of liberalization,
privatization and globalization which is a living example of a neo-
liberal perspective.
Neo-liberalism does not completely reject welfarism in state policy,
it trusts the state with the responsibility of progressive taxation for
ensuring basic living standards and human dignity.
Neo-liberalism is not totally different from libertarianism, it is an
extended branch of libertarian philosophy with minor progressive
tendencies.
In the government of Margaret Thatcher in the UK and the
presidency of Ronald Regan in the USA introduced the neo-
liberal theory of the state.

Table 1.1 Important Thinkers, Key Concepts and Famous Books

Thinkers Key Famous Books


Concepts/Specialty
John Locke # Government as # Two Treaties of
Fiduciary Trust Government (1689)
# Social Contract theory
# Father of Liberalism
Thinkers Key Famous Books
Concepts/Specialty
Montesquie # Separation of Power #The Spirit of the Laws
u (1748)
Voltaire # Freedom of Religion and #Treaties on Tolerance
Speech (1763)
Adam Smith # Laissez-faire (Free # An Inquiry into the
market economy) Nature and Causes of the
# Invisible hand Wealth of Nations (1776)
Thomas # ‘State is a necessary # Rights of Man (1791)
Paine evil’
David # Theory of Wage # Principles of Political
Ricardo #Theory of Capital Economy and Taxation
accumulation (1817)
Benjamin # Widely known as Father # The Liberty of Ancients
Constant of Modern Liberalism Compared with that of
Moderns (1819)
J. S. Mill # Harm Principle # On Liberty (1859)
T. H. Green # Idea of Social Liberalism # Prolegomena to Ethics
(1883)
John Rawls # Equality & Difference # Theory of Justice (1971)
Principle # Political Liberalism
# Overlapping Consensus (1993)
Ludwig Von # Belong to Austrian # Liberalism: The
Mises School Classical Tradition (1927)
# Criticized the idea of a # Human Action (1949)
centrally planned economy
Murray #Coined the term # Man, Economy, and
Rothbard ‘anarcho-capitalism’ State (1962)
Friedrich # Free Market Capitalism # The Road to Serfdom
Von Hayek (1944)
# The Constitution of
Liberty (1960)
Thinkers Key Famous Books
Concepts/Specialty
Milton # Belong to Chicago # Capitalism and Freedom
Friedman School (1962)

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following is not an idea of Individualism?
(a) Laissez-Faire
(b) Hindrance function of the state
(c) Enhancement of the contract lawfully made
(d) Taking care of individual life from cradle to grave

2. Consider the following statement regarding liberalism:


i. liberalism as a developed ideology was a product of
breakdown of feudalism in Europe.
ii. It is based on the doctrine of the ‘divine rights’ of the king.
iii. put the interests or goals of an individual before the interest
society as a whole or state.
Choose the correct code:
(a) i, ii, and iii
(b) Only i, iii
(c) Only ii, iii
(d) Only ii

3. Which one of the following is not true about liberalism?


(a) It stands for individual liberty
(b) It has no faith in human reasoning
(c) It supports human freedom
(d) It stands for constitutional government

4. Who said: ‘Over himself, over his own body and mind, the individua
is sovereign.’?
(a) Bentham
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) T. H. Green
(d) Harold J. Laski

5. Negative aspects of liberalism developed during:


(a) Sixteenth-century
(b) Seventeenth-century
(c) Eighteenth-century
(d) Nineteenth-century

6. Match the following:

Types of Liberalism Ideas

1. Classical Liberalism 1. Individuals should be left alone

2. Libertarianism 2. Enabling state

c.Neo-Liberalism 3. Strict Meritocracy

d.Modern Liberalism 4. Favour progressive taxation

Codes:
(a) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(b) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

7. Who of the following has said, ‘I detest what you say but will defend
to the death your right to say it.’?
(a) Tocqueville
(b) Montesquieu
(c) Thomas Paine
(d) Voltaire

8. Which of the following is associated with Neo-liberal Politics?


i. Free markets
ii. Rational Individuals
iii. The emphasis on home ownership
iv. State dirigisme
Choose the correct code :
(a) Only i
(b) i and ii
(c) i, ii, and iii
(d) i, ii, iii, and iv

9. What does the phrase ‘rule of law’ mean?


(a) Everyone is equal in the eyes of the law
(b) The law should be effective enough to keep society in order
(c) Law should reflect the will of the majority
(d) Lawyers should never be prosecuted

10. Who used the term ‘Possessive Individualism’ to criticise the early
Liberal thoughts?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) B. Macpherson
(c) Thomas Paine
(d) T. H. Green

11. The present-day liberals, who are known as Positivist Liberals are
in favour of:
(a) Pushing the state out of the economic field
(b) Doing away with the state’s interference in the economic spher
(c) State regulation of the economic conditions in the interest
workers
(d) State regulation to protect the interests of the capitalists

12. What are the central beliefs of Liberalism?


(a) Contract Philosophy
(b) Overarching State
(c) Individualism
(d) Equality of Outcomes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) A and D only
(d) B and C only

13. Arrange the phases of the evolution of liberalism in ascending


order.
(a) Modern Liberalism
(b) Neo-Liberalism
(c) Classical Liberalism
(d) Libertarianism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Options:
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) C, A, D, B
(c) C, B, A, D
(d) D, C, A, B

14. Which among the following is not a Modern Liberal Thinker?


(a) David Friedman
(b) Hobhouse
(c) Hobson
(d) Robert Nozick
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) A and D only
(d) B and C only

15. Match the following:

Thinkers Books

1. Voltaire 1. Prolegomena to Ethics

2. T. H. Green 2. Liberalism: The Classical Tradition

c.Friedrich Von Hayek 3. Treaties on Tolérance

d.Ludwig Von Mises 4. The Road to Serfdom


Codes:
(a) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(b) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

16. Match the following:

Thinkers Concept

1. John Rawls 1. Theory of Capital accumulation

2. Montesquieu 2. Separation of Power

c.David Ricardo 3. Invisible hand

d.Adam Smith 4. Overlapping Consensus

Codes:
(a) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(b) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

17. Two statements are given below. One is an Assertion (A) and the
other is a Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Libertarian thinkers revived the classical liberal
idea of a minimal state and conception of Negative liberty.
Reason (R): Modern Liberalism recommended a positive role of
the state in arranging socio-economic conditions for the realization
of liberty.
Choose the correct answer below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

18. Two statements are given below. One is an Assertion (A) and the
other is a Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Classical view of liberalism originated against the
system of theocracy, monarchy, and feudalism.
Reason (R): Neo-Liberalism support the view of positive liberty.
Choose the correct answer below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

19. Match the following:

Thinkers Books

1. Milton Friedman 1. Man, Economy, and State

2. Thomas Paine 2. Capitalism and Freedom

c.Murray Rothbard 3. Rights of Man

d.John Rawls 4. Political Liberalism


Codes:
(a) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(b) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

20. Which among the following is associated with social liberalism?


(a) David Friedman
(b) Voltaire
(c) Thomas Paine
(d) T. H. Green

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.


(d) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (d)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(b) (b) (d) (c) (c) (b) (d)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15. 18.
(b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Cradle to grave idea is a part of modern liberalism, is that the state


is responsible for the welfare of humans from birth till death.

7. Voltaire in his book ‘Treaties on Tolerance’ supported the idea o


tolerance among the people in civil society. According to him people
have different views and sometimes we even don’t like the views o
others, but still, it’s our responsibility to protect their freedom o
speech and freedom of religion. This becomes one of the basis o
the Liberal philosophy of the state.
CHAPTER 2
Conservatism

INTRODUCTION
Francois-Rene de Chateaubriand used this term for the first time in 1818,
during the Bourbon Restoration, to counter the momentum of French
Revolution. As a political ideology, conservatism represents a thought
which desire to conserve the establish institution and political system and
always is very skeptical about the changes. According to Michael
Oakeshott, “To be conservative…is to prefer the familiar to the unknown, to
prefer the tried to untried, fact to mystery, the actual to the possible, the
limited to the unbounded and, the near to the distant”. Conservatism takes
its inspiration from Hobbesian human state of nature. Historically, it is
associated with right wing politics. It supports for tradition, a belief in human
imperfection, and an attempt to uphold the organic structure of the society.

ORIGIN OF CONSERVATISM
During the 19th century, conservative philosophy was developed in Europe
as counter to changes and reforms brought by modern political ideologies,
like liberalism and socialism. Conservatism challenged the French
revolutionary principle of liberty, equality and fraternity and stood in defense
of an authoritative and traditional socio-political order. A modern
conservatism perspective was born from the idea of Edmund Burke, who
advocated not having a blind resistance to change, but rather a prudent
willingness to ‘change in order to conserve’. Although conservatism is not a
progressive ideology, but still it became a major trend in political parties
around the world.
Figure 2.1 Key Components of Conservatism

Tradition
A central theme of conservatism is its defense of tradition. This emphasis
on tradition reflects their religious faith. If the world is thought to have been
fashioned by a creator, traditional customs and practices in society will be
regarded as “God given”. Tradition in this sense, reflect accumulated
wisdom of the past. The institutions and practices of the past have been
‘tested by the time’ and should therefore be preserved for the benefit of the
living and generations to come. Burke, for example, described society as a
partnership between ‘those who are living, those who are dead and those
who are to be born’. For conservative tradition it provide a sense of identity.

Human Imperfection
O’Sullivan narrates conservatism as a ‘philosophy of human imperfection’.
Hobbesian notion of imperfection in human nature became the foundation
for conservative theory to counter the reform and revolution. Conservative
thinkers have little trust in the rational capability of human and hence want
to maintain the institution and society which are already time tested and old.
Organic Society: Doing One’s Duty
Conservatives believe that human beings are dependent and security-
seeking creatures, thus cannot exist outside society. Individualism is part of
social group that nurture him/her such as family, friends or peer group,
workmates or colleagues, local community and even the nation.
Conservatives believe that a society in which individual know only their
rights, do not acknowledge their duties, would be rootless and atomistic.
Hence, it is the bond of duty and obligation that hold society together and
ensure the liberty.

Hierarchy and Authority


Conservatives have traditionally believed that society is naturally
hierarchical. Social equality is therefore rejected as undesirable and
unachievable; power, status and property are always unequally distributed.
Inequality is an inevitable feature of an organic society. Burke said, “liberty
connected with order: that not only exists along with order and virtue, but
which cannot exist at all without them”. The belief in hierarchy is
strengthened by the emphasis conservative place on authority.
Conservatives believe that authority like society develops naturally and
conservatism represents a strong paternalistic.

TYPES OF CONSERVATISM

Authoritarian Conservatism
Authoritarianism believes in the practice of government ‘from above’, in
which authority is exercised over a population with or without its consent.
Authoritarian conservatism wished to restore absolute power to hereditary
monarchy. Tsar Nicholas of Russia propagated the thought of “orthodoxy,
autocracy and nationality’ as a challenge to the French Revolution’s liberty,
equality and fraternity”. The idea of Joseph De Maistre, António de Oliveira
Salazar and Engelbert Dollfuss represents authoritarian conservatism.

Traditional Conservatism
Traditional conservatism is also known as classical conservatism. It
emphasizes the importance of transcendent moral principles, customs,
conventions and traditions. Traditionalist defends classical western
civilization. They are committed to hierarchic and paternalistic values.
Oakeshott is one of the most important proponents of traditionalism.

Paternalistic Conservatism
Paternalism literally means to act in a fatherly fashion. As a political
principle, it refers to power or authority being exercised over others with the
intention of conferring benefit or preventing harm. Social welfare and laws
such as the compulsory wearing of seat belts in cars are examples of
paternalism.

Liberal Conservative and New Right Theory


Libertarian conservatives believe in economic individualism and getting
government off the back of business, but they are less prepared to extend
this principle of individual liberty to other aspect of social life. They have a
more pessimistic view of human nature. A strong state is required to
maintain public order and ensure that authority is respected. Libertarian
conservatives are attracted to free market theories precisely because they
promise to secure social order.
Just as conservatives had come to accept political democracy during
the 19thcentury, after 1945 they came to accept a qualified form of social
democracy. The new right is a marriage between two apparently contrasting
ideological traditions: first classical liberal economics, particularly the free
market theories of Adam Smith as a critique of ‘big’ government and
economic and social intervention and the second traditional conservative
especially its defence of order, authority and discipline.

Neo-Conservatism
Originated as an ideology during 1970s in USA. It represents the
combination of political individualism with traditional conservatism. They
believe that current crisis in society is due to declining influence of culture
and religion. It was originated as a counter to communism and stalinism.
Irving Kristol, Francis Fukuyama and Nathan Glazer are few neo-
conservatives.

IMPORTANT THINKERS

Joseph de Maistre (1753-1821)


He developed an extreme version of Conservatism, known as latin
conservatism.
He wanted to restore the monarchy and authority or church over the
state.
Against the French Revolutionary slogan “Liberty, equality, fraternity,”
Maistre proclaimed the value of “Throne and altar.”
His famous work – “Considerations on France.” (1796)

Edmund Burke (1729-1797)


Burke is associated with a pragmatic willingness to ‘change in order
to conserve’.
He is known as father of the Anglo-American conservative as well as
modern conservatism.
Burke deeply opposed the French revolutionary idea of ‘the universal
rights of man’, arguing that wisdom resides largely in experience,
tradition, and history.
Some important books :
A Vindication of Natural Society (1756)
Reflections on the Revolution in France (1790)

Michael Oakeshott (1901-1990)


He rejected the idea of rationalism and argued in favor of traditional
values and established customs on the grounds that conservative
disposition is “to prefer the familiar to the unknown….”.
Some important books by him:
Rationalism in Politics (1962)
On Human Conduct (1975)

Friedrich von Hayek (1899-1992)


Hayek was a firm believer in individualism and market order, and an
implacable critic of socialism.
Hayekian liberalism is a social and institutional system that supports
and protects the great society.
Hayek said – “Since the development during the last decades has
been generally in a socialist direction, it may seem that both
conservatives and liberals have been mainly intent on retarding that
movement”.
Some important book by him:
The Road to Serfdom (1944)
The Constitution of Liberty (1960)
Law, Legislation and Liberty (1979)

Irving Kristol (1920-2009)


Kristol abandoned liberalism in the 1970s and became increasingly critical
of the spread of welfarism and the ‘counterculture’. He is known as
Godfather of Neo-Conservatism. Some of the important books by him are:

Two Cheers for Capitalism (1978)


Reflections of a Neo-Conservative (1983)

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who said, “To be conservative…is to prefer the familiar to th
unknown, to prefer the tried to untried, fact to mystery, the actual to th
possible, the limited to the unbounded, the near to the distant”?
(a) Edmund Burke
(b) Russell Kirk
(c) Michael Oakeshott
(d) Ambrose Bierce

2. Two statements are given below. One is the Assertion (A) and other i
Reason (R):
Assertion: Traditional conservatism is based on the political
philosophy of Aristotle and Edmund Burke.
Reason: Traditionalists emphasize the bonds of social order and the
defence of ancestral institutions over what it considers excessive
individualism.
Choose the correct answer below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the following:

Thinkers Books

1. Joseph de 1. A Vindication of Natural Society


Maistre

2. Edmund Burke 2. On Human Conduct

c.Michael Oakeshott 3. Neoconservatism: The Autobiography of an


Idea

d.Irving Kristol 4. Considerations on France

Codes:
(a) a-4, b-1, c-2 , d-3
(b) a-2, b-1, c-4 , d-3
(c) a-3, b-1, c-4 , d-2
(d) a-2, b-3, c-1 , d-4

4. “There is danger in reckless change, but greater danger in blin


conservatism”. Said by?
(a) Henry George
(b) Benjamin Disraeli
(c) Abraham Kuyper
(d) Russell Kirk
5. Which among the following are conservative thinkers?
A. Graham Wallas

B. Irving Kristol

C. Joseph de Maistre
D. Louis blanc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only

6. Which of the following statement is incorrect in context o


Conservatism?
(a) Conservatism developed in critique of liberalism.
(b) Joseph de Maistre provided critique of French revolution.
(c) Edmund Burke is considered as pioneer of conservatism.
(d) None of the above.

7. Who described Conservatism as ‘Dogmatism’?


(a) J. S Mill
(b) T. Paine
(c) Oakeshott
(d) Scruton

8. Consider the following statement related to conservatism:


A. For them, freedom involves ‘doing one’s duty’.

B. They emphasized on leadership and discipline to maintain authorit

C. Revolution often led to lesser suffering rather than greater.


D. They have optimistic view of human nature.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and B only
(d) C and D only

9. Who is related to the phrase “change in order to conserve”?


(a) Irving Kristol
(b) Oakeshott
(c) Joseph de Maistre
(d) Edmund Burke

10. Match the following:

Thinkers Ideas

1. Joseph De Maistre 1. Paternalistic Conservatism

2. Edmund Burke 2. Orthodoxy, Autocracy, and Nationality

c.Michael Oakeshott 3. Restore the monarchy

d.Tsar Nicholas 4. Prefer the familiar to the unknown

Codes:
(a) a-1, b-2, c-3 , d-4
(b) a-2, b-1, c-4 , d-3
(c) a-3, b-1, c-4 , d-2
(d) a-2, b-3, c-1 , d-4

11. Match the following:

Thinkers Types of Conservatism


1. Joseph De Maistre 1. Traditional Conservatism

2. Edmund Burke 2. Authoritarian Conservatism

c.Michael Oakeshott 3. Modern Conservatism

d.Irving Kristol 4. Neo-Conservatism

Codes:
(a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(b) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(c) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
(d) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

12. Who is the author of the book “On Human Conduct”?


(a) Edmund Burke
(b) Friedrich von Hayek
(c) Irving Kristol
(d) Michael Oakeshott

13. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The institutions and practices of the past have been
tested by time.
Reason (R): According to conservative thinker’s tradition values
practices and institutions does not generate a sense of identity.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

14. Who proclaimed the value of “Throne and Altar.”?


(a) Irving Kristol
(b) Oakeshott
(c) Joseph de Maistre
(d) Edmund Burke

15. Who criticized the development of welfarism and the


‘counterculture’?
(a) Irving Kristol
(b) Oakeshott
(c) Joseph de Maistre
(d) Edmund Burke

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(c) (a) (d) (c) (d) (c) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11. 13.
(b) (c) (c) (d) (c)
3. 6. 9.
(a) (d) (d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

7. In his book “The Meaning of Conservatism”, Roger Scruton explaine


Conservatism as a Dogma.

8. Option C is incorrect, because according to conservative approach


revolution creates greater suffering and problem for human society
hence conservatism thinkers are not supportive of revolution. Option D
is also incorrect, because Conservative thinkers follows a Hobbesia
understanding of human nature which is pessimistic.

9. Reason statement is incorrect, because according to conservativ


view, traditional values and practices creates a sense of identit
among the people, and hence protection of old traditions and culture i
important.
CHAPTER 3
Socialism

INTRODUCTION
Socialism evolved in response to the social and economic conditions created
in Europe by the expansion of industrial capitalism in the 19th century.
Socialism has traditionally been characterised as ideological opposition to
capitalism and an endeavour to provide a more humanitarian and socially
worthwhile alternative. The basic, and defining value of socialism is equality,
particularly social equality. Robert Owen was the first to adopt the term
Socialist in his Cooperative Magazine in 1827.
It is said that socialism is like a hat that has lost its shape because
everyone wears it. There are numerous socialist models, and these models
differ from country to country.

CENTRAL ARGUMENT OF SOCIALIST IDEOLOGY


1. According to them, man is social by nature. According to socialists “no
man is an island, each man is a part of a continent”.
2. Socialists reject the aggregative view of society, and they believe that
society is a natural organic society.
3. Private ownership of resources creates class-based inequality and
give birth to social exploitation by Haves (Bourgeoisie) and Have Nots
(Proletariat).
4. Socialist thinker supports a society which is based on social ownership
of resource.
5. According to socialism, society is where equality in the absolute sense
exists, where there is no inequality in income and status.
Early socialists
Early socialism developed as a popular movement in the beginning of 19th
century. Robert Owen (1771-1858), Saint-Simon (1760-1825), Charles Fourier
(1772-1837), and Proudhon (1809-1865) were among the first to evolve the
ideas of socialism. Early socialist thinkers are not happy with the capitalist
pattern of society, and they wanted to save the world from the plight of
industrial capitalism. Early socialist thinkers were named Utopian Socialist by
Marx & Engels, because according to them early socialist thought lack in
scientific reasoning and idea for bringing social change.

Robert Owen
He believed that Industries andFactories could liberate mankind from
poverty and ignorance. He suggested manufacturing be organized on
cooperative rather than competitive principles.
He also urged public agencies to establish “villages of collaboration” to
employ the unemployed.
Owen was also a vocal supporter of the right to work.

Charles Fourier
He disliked the division of labour because it divided work into minute
repetitive activities.
Unlike Owen, he was a critic of big industries. Community and small-
scale industries are the way forwards for a socialist society.

Saint Simon
In contrast to Fourier, Saint-Simon was a man of science, industry, and
vast administration.
His opinion that there is room only for one class in society, that is the
workers. Non-workers are layouts and should be weeded out, made
him a socialist. Wages should be determined by one’s ability to labour.

Proudhon
He was the one who expressly referred to the property as theft and
engaged in a heated debate with Marx. He wrote “Philosophy of
Poverty”, to which Marx responded in “Poverty of Philosophy”.
He is also famously known as social anarchist because he rejected the
centralised structure of state and called for a nationwide network of
decentralised worker cooperatives that can bargain for reciprocal
exchange of products and services.

Revolutionary Socialism vs Evolutionary Socialism


After early socialist, in the middle of 19th century, came a revolutionary
thought of socialist like Marx & Engels, who recommended a violent path for
achieving a socialist pattern of society. During 1880s as a counter to
revolutionary ideas of Marx & Engels, emerged a new stream of socialism,
which we call “Evolutionary Socialism”.

Revolutionary Socialism Evolutionary Socialism

Evolved in middle of 19th Evolved around 1880’s in


century Europe.
Support complete social Support gradual reform and
transformation in a single step by step changes to
stroke. achieve socialism.
Focused on the emancipation Reconcile the interest of
of only working class working classes with other
Also known as Marxism or classes like middle class.
scientific socialism Also known as democratic
socialism.

TYPES OF EVOLUTIONARY SOCIALISM

Fabianism
Fabian socialism or Fabianism was first developed in England by the
Fabian Society (founded in 1884) from which it derived its name.
According to them, socialism will emerge spontaneously in a gradual
manner from liberal capitalism.
The unique aspect of Fabianism is socialism through the middle class.
The educated section of the middle class will take up the responsibility
of developing awareness.
They based their economics on the Ricardian law of rent rather than on
the labour theory of value.
Main Proponents: G.B Shaw, Graham Wallas, Sydney Webb, Beatrice
Webb, G.D.H Cole etc.

German Social Democracy


Socialist movement in Germany, recommended a constitutional and
democratic path for achieving socialism.
Developed by Ferdinand Lassalle (1825-1864), Lassalle accepted the
Marxian doctrine of the economic interpretation of history but rejected
the idea of bloody revolution.
Lassalle wanted that the workers should organise themselves into
political party and secure a majority in parliament.
Lassalle proposed a constitutional and peaceful transition from a
capitalist state to a worker’s state.

Syndicalism
Syndicate is a French word for workers union. It is framed by the ideas
of Auguste Blanqui, and Fernand Pelloutier.
Syndicalism stood for ‘socialization without the state’.
They are also influenced by Georges Sorel, the author of Reflections
on Violence.
They accepted the class struggle theory of Marx. According to them,
there is no need for a political state, only an economic state is enough.
It demands that labour unions be completely independent of political
parties.
According to them a strong labour union, can protect the interest of
working class form the capitalist exploitation.

Revisionism
It was popular in Germany. The revisionist school was led by Eduard
Bernstein (1850-1932).
Bernstein suggested that revolution is neither possible nor needed. He
also rejected Marx’s materialist interpretation of history.
Working class should adopt the “parliamentary road to socialism”.
Since they are in majority, they can get their interest fulfilled even
through institutional methods.
Bernstein counter the futuristic claims of Karl Marx by saying that
“Peasants do not sink; middle class does not disappear; crises do not
grow even larger; misery and serfdom do not increase” (Evolutionary
Socialism; 1898)
Bernstein insisted on viewing socialism as a movement rather than an
end goal.

Guild Socialism

It also originated in England in the first quarter of the 20th century.


According to G.D.H Cole, the real interest is economic interest. Hence,
there is a need for adequate representation of various economic
interests in policy making.
Guild socialists also share some basic principles with Marxism
including class struggle but they do not consider revolution a necessity.
It aimed to modify syndicalism by emphasizing the significance of the
customer along with the worker.
It advocated for the eradication of the wage system and demanded
worker representation in industrial management.
G.D.H Cole proposed: (a) Functional Parliament, (b) Functional
Representation (c)Industrial Democracy.

IMPORTANT AUTHORS AND BOOKS


Robert Owen: A New View of Society (1813)
Eduard Bernstein: Evolutionary Socialism (1899)
Leon Trotsky: The Revolution Betrayed (1936)
Charles Fourier: The New Industrial World (1829-30)
Beatrice Webb & Sidney Webb: The History of Trade Unionism new edition in
1920
Industrial Democracy (1897)
Soviet Communism: A New Civilisation? (1935)
J.K Galbraith: The Affluent Society (1958)
American Capitalism (1952)
R.H Tawney: The Acquisitive Society (1920)
Equality (1931)
Ralph Miliband: Socialism for a Sceptical Age (1994)
G.D.H Cole: The World of Labour (1913)
Guild Socialism (1922
What Marx Really Meant (1934)
Socialism in Evolution (1938)
Anthony Crosland: Future of Socialism (1956)
Fabian Essays in Socialism (1889)

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which one of the following is not a correct match?
(a) Fabianism: Peaceful Change
(b) Guild Socialism: Professional Representation
(c) Syndicalism: Trade Unionism
(d) Democratic Socialism: Radical Change

2. Who Wrote the book “Evolutionary Socialism”?


(a) Karl Marx
(b) Beatrice Webb & Sidney Webb
(c) Eduard Bernstein
(d) Ferdinand Lassalle

3. Who coined the term “socialist”?


(a) Robert Owen
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Saint-Simon

4. Which is not a characteristic of Fabianism?


(a) It originated in England.
(b) Socialism will not come overnight.
(c) Developed by Ferdinand Lassalle.
(d) Major Proponents are G.B Shaw, Beatrice Webb and Sydney Web

5. The first successful socialist revolution was held in?


(a) Russia 1917
(b) Russia 1991
(c) Russia 1919
(d) Russia 1945

6. Choose the correct match:


(a) Robert Owen: A New Industrial World (1829-30)
(b) Joseph Schumpeter: Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy (1942)
(c) Charles Fourier: A New View of Society (1816)
(d) Eduard Bernstein: Socialism for a Sceptical Age (1995)

7. Which socialism stood for “socialism without the state”?


(a) Fabianism
(b) Revisionism
(c) Syndicalism
(d) German Social Democracy

8. In which type of equality socialism believes in?


1. Social

2. Legal

3. Economic

4. Political

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3

9. Which statement is correct about socialism?


(a) Man is social by nature.
(b) Man is a political animal.
(c) Man is born free and yet everywhere is in chain.
(d) Man lives in a Utopia.

10. In whose opinion there is room for only one class in society i.e., for
workers?
(a) Charles Fourier
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Saint- Simon
(d) G.D.H Cole

11. Which among the following type of socialism, supports the idea of
labour association and union to achieve socialism society in England?
(a) Fabianism
(b) Guild socialism
(c) Revisionism
(d) German Social Democracy

12. Who criticized Marxist theory by saying that “Peasants do not sink;
middle class does not disappear; cries do not grow even larger,;misery
and serfdom do not increase” ?
(a) Ferdinand Lassalle
(b) Eduard Bernstein
(c) G.D.H Cole
(d) Sydney Webb

13. “Utopia” book is considered as the first socialist work. It was authored
by:
(a) Robert Owen
(b) Thomas More
(c) Louis Blanc
(d) P J Proudhon

14. Consider the following statement regarding the Evolutionary Socialism:


i. Aims to secure the world and human civilization from the plig
capitalism.
ii. It seeks to secure the rights of only working classes.
iii. Complete transformation of society for achieving the goal of sociali
iv. Similar to the views of modern liberalism
Choose the correct code:
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) Only i, iv
(c) Only i, iii, iv
(d) Only ii

15. Match the following:

Types of Socialism Ideas

1. Fabian Socialism 1. Socialization without state

2. Syndicalism 2. Support of middle class

c.Guild Socialism 3. Constitutional transition of state

d.German Social democracy


4. Developed in 20th century England

Choose correct Codes:


(a) a-1, b-2, c-3 , d-4
(b) a-2, b-1, c-4 , d-3
(c) a-3, b-1, c-4 , d-2
(d) a-2, b-3, c-1 , d-4

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11. 13.
(c) (a) (b) (b) (b)
3. 6. 9.
(a) (b) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Democratic socialism support constitutional and gradual changes an


reforms, not radical change. Radical change is a feature of revolutionar
socialism.

8. Socialism want to eradicate the social and economic differences create


by private ownership of property. They support the idea of socia
ownership to end the class differences and economic inequality.

13. “Utopia” is a book published in 1516 by Thomas More. It is considered


as one of the earliest texts where impression of Socialist ideas about
society are available.

14. Option (ii) is incorrect because evolutionary socialist views like


Fabianism are not only concerned about working class, but also talk
about the middle class. Option (iii) is incorrect because evolutionary
socialism does not look for complete transformation, it supports the
idea of gradual reform to achieve a societies version of society.
CHAPTER 4
Marxism

INTRODUCTION
As the name suggests, marxism draws its roots and shoots from German
philosopher Karl Marx (1818-1883). It emerged as a reactionary thought
against the social and economic inequalities created by the rise of industrial
capitalism in Europe. It attracted the focus of people towards the problem of
haves and have nots and the division of Western society into two classes
called Capitalists (bourgeoisie) and Workers (proletariats). With the
publication of Communist Manifesto (1848) Marx and his lifelong co-author
Friedrich Engels brought a new challenge to well established ideas of
liberalism in the form of a proletariat revolution for change in the basic
structure of society. As a counter to the early socialist (Utopian socialism)
views, a scientific perspective of socialism was developed by Marx & Engels
in the middle of 19th century, which later became the bedrocks of marxism as
an ideology.
Marxism got practical shape only after the death of Marx when in 1917
Russian revolution got success under leadership of Vladimir Ilyich Lenin.
Throughout history it kept flourishing and evolving from classical marxism to
structural marxism to neo-marxism to new left but the basic idea of a
‘stateless and classless society’ (communism) and ‘outcome model’ of
equality remain the central themes of marxism.

CENTRAL ARGUMENTS OF MARXISM


1. Society has two components, the real and superficial; real component
is called basic structure while its reflection was termed as
superstructure by Marx.
2. Base represents the ownership over means of production and property
rights and those who monopolize basic structure keep hold of politics,
society, and its institutions.
3. The liberal capitalism is an idea of “each according to his worth” while
marxism calls for “each according to his work” (socialism) and
ultimately “Each according to his needs” (Communism).
4. Only a worker’s revolution could bring “perfect freedom” which means
“freedom from necessities” under a stateless society and a model of
common ownership over means of production.
5. Marxism calls out ‘ideology’ as ‘false consciousness’ and ‘religion’ as
‘an opium’ because they misguide workers’ consciousness.
6. Though early marxism criticized political parties, it was Lenin who
termed them as ‘vanguard of revolution’ and harbinger of ‘democratic
centralization’.

KEY COMPONENTS OF MARXISM

1. Class Struggle and Stages of History


Through the idea of “historical materialism”, Marx tried to give, what he calls,
a scientific explanation of inevitability of class struggle and conflicting interests
of two classes. He gave an economical interpretation of history and claimed
“The history of all hitherto society is the history of class struggle”. According to
him, history can be divided in six stages based on the class struggle from
early man to modern man.

Table 4.1 Stages of History and Class Conflict at each Stage

Stage Oppressing Class Oppressed Class


Primitive Communism No Classes = No
Conflict
Slavery Slave Owners Slaves
Feudalism Landowners Serfs
Capitalism Bourgeoisie Proletariat
State Socialism State managers Workers
Communism No Classes = No Conflict (Classless and
Stateless Society)
According to Karl Marx 5th stage of state socialism is a temporary stage,
which is required to end the private property and end the class antagonism.
This socialist state will wither away, human will achieve the classless and
stateless society which will be called as “Communism”.

2. Base and Superstructure


Base and Superstructure, these are two interlinked concepts forming bedrock
of marxist thought. As reflected first in Marx’s book An Contribution to the”
Critique of Political Economy” (1859) and later on in his magnum opus “Das
Kapital” (1867), Base structure represents the economic and technological
fundamentals of a society.

These economic and production relations of base “conditions” the type of


socio-political and ideological “superstructure” it would follow. Marx argued
that superstructure works in the favors of those social class, who controls the
base.

3. Dialectical Materialism
The concept of “Dialectical Materialism” by Marx in his book “Das Kapital” is a
criticism of Hegel’s “Dialectical Idealism”. He borrowed Dialectics from Hegel,
but unlike Hegel’s claim of idealism as the moving force of history, he
considered matter as the essence of universe. Dialectical materialism
provides the philosophical base to the “theory of marxism”. Marx used it to
explain the contradiction that are available in capitalist society which indicates
the path for social change and it would lead human society to a perfect social
order (communism), where the material distribution will be in harmony and
won’t create class division. Engels in “Anti-Duhring” (1878) presented three
laws of Dialectical Materialism:

(i) Qualitative and Quantitative Transformation – changes are


quantitative till a certain point, after which the form is changed, result
into qualitative transformation (Capitalism to Socialism).
(ii) Unity of opposition – everything within itself contains contradictory
but interdependent elements (Bourgeoisie and Proletariats).
(iii) Negation of Negation - Thesis, antithesis and synthesis are
connected in a chain which develops by negating each other.

4. Proletariat Revolution
Revolution by the working class is the central theme of marxism. As Marx
believed there can be no birth without blood, social revolution led by the
proletariat is the only way out from capitalist exploitation. Through
“Communist Manifesto” (1848) Marx appealed, “workers of the word, unite!
You have nothing to lose except your chains and a world to win.” Later on
idea of proletariat revolution got modified by different scholars according to
their needs, like Lenin in “Bolshevik Revolution” (1917) called parties as
“Vanguard of Revolution” whereas in case of colonies of Asia, Africa, and
Latin America he suggested “Two-Step Revolution”, Leon Trotsky theorized
“Permanent Revolution” and Mao Zedong marched for “Continuous
Revolution”.

5. Communism: Classless and Stateless Society


As the ultimate goal of Marxist theory, was classless and stateless society, it
marks the end of historical contradictions and class struggles. In Communist
Manifesto (1848) Marx proclaimed state as an executive committee to
manage affairs of bourgeoisie and it represents interests of the propertied
class only. This led to marxist understanding that state is a symbol of
exploitation and only a stateless society will provide ‘perfect equality’. To chart
out the path for stateless communism, socialist state was considered as the
first step. Socialism state represents a model of classless society with
common ownership and associated lives and livelihoods under the
‘dictatorship of proletariat’. However, it is just an intermediate step, will
ultimately make the path clear for creation of stateless society and classless
society i.e., Communism.
BRANCHES OF MARXISM AND KEY THINKERS

1. Classical Marxism
Classical Marxism represents the time and space during the lifetime of Marx
and Engels. Mostly emphasizing on economic critique to the early capitalist
scholars like Adam Smith and David Ricardo and providing social and political
arguments like proletariat revolution, classless and stateless society and class
struggle.

2. Orthodox Marxism
Based on one of the ideas of second international (1889), orthodox marxism
was a period of early practical application of marxist ideas in the sphere of
socialist and labour movements. The word “orthodox” represents emphasis
upon crude concepts like historical materialism and dialectical materialism.
Key thinkers related to orthodox marxism are- Karl Kautsky , Georgi
Plekhanov, Lenin, Rosa Luxemburg, Hal Draper and Rudolph Hilferding. Later
on different sub-branches like Luxemburgism (Spontaneous Revolution),
Stalinism (Communism in one backward state), Trotskyism (Communism for
Everywhere) etc.

3. Western Marxism
Western marxism originated around 1923 with the work of György Lukács and
Karl Korsch. They presented marxism as a self-conscious transformation of
society. The “Prison Notebook” by Gramsci was also considered as a
important contribution to the idea of western marxism. The western marxists
focuses on the problems of superstructures, because their attention centers
on culture, philosophy, and art. It tried to save marxism from the idea of crude
economic determinism.

4. Structural Marxism
Developed against the instrumentalist ideas of early marxism, structural
marxism uses theory of structuralism to show that marxist understanding of
state is based on the different structures of society. Where instrumentalists
like Ralph Miliband understood state as a direct instrument of bourgeoisie,
Nicos Poulantzas took the structural view of the state. This difference of
opinions led to the famous miliband-poulantzas debate in Marxism. Most
prominent structural marxists include Louis Althusser and Maurice Godelier.

5. Neo-Marxism
Neo-Marxism emerged during the mid-20th and late 20th century. Inspired
from the ideas of Marx, Gramsci, Hegel and Sigmund Freud, some thinkers in
Frankfurt University starting a critical stream of studies to revamp the principle
of marxism according to the realities of new world order. They dropped the
crude scientific orientation, the prominence of working class and economic
determinism from marxist philosophy and focused on the part of human
emancipation. They tried to understand the new form of exploitation that
human society is experiencing in the post-capitalist era or welfare states.
Important thinkers related to neo-marxism are – Jurgen Habermas, Herbert
Marcus, Theodor Adorno, Max Horkheimer, Erich Fromm, Walter Benjamin,
and Frederick Pollock.

CONTRIBUTION OF ENGELS AND HIS BOOKS


Friedrich Engels has co-authored many works with Marx and is often
known as ‘first marxist’. Starting from The Conditions of the Working Class in
England (1848), Communist Manifesto (1848), and Das Kapital, they
collaborated on many projects. However, the most significant contribution of
Engels is his in depth analysis of patriarchy and condition of women under
capitalist system through his work The Origin of Family, Private Property and
the State (1884), Anti-Duhring (1877), and Dialectics of Nature (1925) are
other important works of Engels.
CONTRIBUTION OF LENIN AND HIS BOOKS
Lenin has contributed to marxism in both ways theoretically as well as
practically, he was the leader of the Russian Revolution (1917). His analytical
study of colonialism and imperialism enriched the theory. His major works
includes:

1. The Development of Capitalism in Russia (1899)


2. What is to be done? (1902)
3. One Step Forward, Two Steps Back (1904)
4. Two Tactics of Social Democracy in the Democratic Revolution (1905)
5. The Right of Nations to Self-Determination (1914)
6. Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism (1916)
7. The State and Revolution (1917)

List of Important Books and Authors


1. The Class Struggle (Erfurt Program) (1892)- Karl Kautsky
2. The Accumulation of Capital (1913) – Rosa Luxemburg
3. History and Class Consciousness (1923) - György Lukács
4. The Permanent Revolution (1930) – Leon Trotsky
5. Dialectic of Enlightenment (1944) - Max Horkheimer and Theodor W.
Adorno
6. Critique of Dialectical Reason (1960) - Jean-Paul Sartre
7. One-Dimensional Man (1964) - Herbert Marcuse

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following ideas is/are the key component of marxism?
a. Revolution in permanence

b. Historical materialism
c. End of ideology
d. The nanny states
e. The dictatorship of proletariat

(a) a and b
(b) b and c
(c) a, b and e
(d) a, c and e

2. Which of the following is associated with Neo-Marxist theory?


i. Revolution in welfare state
ii. Determined for the proletariat class
iii. Emancipation of masses
iv. Evolved in Germany
(a) Only iv
(b) i & ii
(c) iii, & iv
(d) i, ii, iii,& iv

3. Who among the following has held that, “What is good for the ruling
class, is alleged to be good for the whole of society with which the ruling
class identifies itself.”?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) V.I. Lenin
(c) Friedrich Engels
(d) Mao Zedong

4. Karl Marx famous work “Das Kapital” was modelled to challenge th


foundation of which book?
(a) Principles of Political Economy and Taxation
(b) Two Treaties on Civil Government
(c) The Wealth of Nations
(d) None
5. Arrange the following books by marxist Authors in chronological order:
a. Communist Manifesto

b. The Prison Notebooks

c. State and Revolution


d. What is to be done?
e. The Protracted War

(a) a, d, c, e, b
(b) a, c, e, d, b
(c) a, c, d, b, e
(d) e, a, b, c, d

6. Match the followings:

Idea Thinker
a. Hegemony 1. Eric Fromm
b. Fear of freedom 2. Lenin
c. Vanguard of revolution 3. Gramsci
d. Communism in one 4. Stalin
country

(a) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4


(b) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
(c) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
(d) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

7. The idea of “dictatorship of the proletariat” is found in which of th


following writings of Karl Marx?
(a) Das Kapital
(b) Theses on Feuerbach
(c) Critique of the Gotha Programme
(d) The Holy Family
8. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and th
other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Relations of production are determined by patterns of
ownership of means of ownership.
Reason (R): Inevitable evolution of class struggle would end with
communism.
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct, and R is the not the correct explanation o
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.

9. Prison Notebook is book written by:


(a) Lenin
(b) Stalin
(c) Gramsci
(d) Rosa Luxemburg

10. According to marxian theory, revolutions come in the society because:


(a) The capitalists so desire.
(b) The religious people manipulate that.
(c) Continuous class struggle is going on.
(d) Educated masses get dissatisfied.

11. Consider the following statements regarding Marx’s theory of


materialism:
i. Materialism explained structure of society through examinatio
means of production.
ii. Society divided into base and superstructure.
iii. Base consists economic conditions of life- means of production
relation of production.
iv. Superstructure consists of legal, political, religious, and aesthetic
of life
Code:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

12. Match the following:

List I (society) List II (type of conflict)

1. Primitive i. Between landowners and serfs


communism

2. Ancient ii.Principle source of conflict was


societies material scarcity
(slavery)

c.Feudalism iii. Between bourgeois


and proletariat
d.Capitalism iv.Between master and slave

Codes:
(a) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(b) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(c) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(d) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

13. The chief exponents of Classical Marxism & Orthodox Marxism are:
(a) Marx, Lenin, Herbert Marcuse
(b) Mao Zedong, Habermas, Engels
(c) Marx, Rosa Luxemburg, Mao Zedong
(d) Marx, Herbert Marcuse, Rosa Luxemburg

14. Which among the following books is not co-authored by Marx &
Engels?
(a) The Communist Manifesto
(b) The Holy Family
(c) A Contribution to the Critique of Political Economy
(d) The German Ideology

15. Which among the following neo-marxist thinker analysed the role of
capitalism on music?
(a) Max Horkheimer
(b) Herbert Marcuse
(c) Theodor W. Adorno
(d) Erich Fromm

17. In which book Karl Marx popularized the slogan “from each according
to his ability, to each according to his needs”?
(a) A Contribution to the Critique of Political Economy
(b) Wage Labour and Capital
(c) Value, Price and Profit
(d) Critique of the Gotha Program

18. Who among the following are neo-marxist thinkers?


A. Eleanor Marx

B. August Bebel

C. Walter Benjamin
D. Frederick Pollock
Choose correct option from code:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only

19. Match the following:

Thinkers Works
Thinkers Works
a. G.V Plekhanov 1. Man for himself
b. Erich Fromm 2. Dialectic of
enlightenment
c. George Lukacs 3. History and class
consciousness
d. Theodor W. Adorno 4. Fundamental probl
of Marxism

Codes:
(a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(b) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(c) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
(d) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

20. Marxism believes that:


(a) The real is the rational and the rational is the real.
(b) Social relations are rooted in the material conditions.
(c) Economic relations can be understood in the light of the progres
human mind.
(d) It is human consciousness that determines the social life of man.

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.


(c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (d) (b)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.
18. (d)
(c) (b) (c) (d) (c)
Explanation for Selected Questions

3. Friedrich Engels in his famous book “The Origin of the Family, Privat
Property and the State” stated this statement to express the dominanc
of the ideology of Capitalist class in a capitalist state.

4. Marx ambitious work “Das Kapital”, the first volume of which wa


published in 1867 with two more edition and published after his death b
Friedrich Engels (1820 - 1895), is modelled to some extent on Adam
Smith’s “Wealth of Nations”. It is one of the foundations of capitalis
theory. In this ideology, he transforms Smith’s labour theory of value int
his own characteristic “law of value”.

7. The idea of “Dictatorship of the Proletariat” was initially introduced b


Marx in “Communist Manifesto” (1848) and then later it was revived i
the book “Critique of the Gotha Programme’.

15. Theodor W. Adorno has analyzed the role of capitalism on music.


According to him, capitalism has destroyed original music. Music has
been reduced to seismo- graphically controlled chromatic shocks. The
purpose is to make the person insensitive and mindless.
CHAPTER 5
Feminism

INTRODUCTION
Feminist thoughts are available in the political domain since the eighteenth-
century, but as a political ideology, it received acceptance during the
twentieth-century and is hence considered a part of contemporary political
thought. The term ‘feminist’ was first used as a medical term to describe either
the feminization of men or the masculinization of women. In the modern
sense, the term feminism is invariably linked to the women’s movement and
its attempt to advance the social role of women in human society.

CENTRAL IDEA
Feminists are of opinion that women are pushed into a
disadvantageous situation by society, just because they are women
and not due to a lack of capabilities or anything else.
This sex-based discrimination created a gendered society, where
males are the oppressor and women are oppressed, this disadvantage
can and should be overthrown.
They are against the supremacy of men and the subjection of women.

ORIGIN AND DEVELOPMENT


The first text of modern feminism was developed by Mary
Wollstonecraft’s Vindication of the Rights of Women (1792) written
against the backdrop of the french revolution. By the mid-nineteenth-century,
the women’s movement was initiated in the USA. Seneca Falls Convention
(1848) marked the birth of the moment. It adopted a Declaration of
Sentiments written by Elizabeth Cady Stanton. The National Women’s
Suffrage Association, led by Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Susan B.
Anthony, was set up in 1869. The development of feminism can be
understood with the help of waves of feminism:

Point of First Wave Second Wave Third Wave


Differenc
e
Time 1850s–1920s 1960s–80s 1990s–Present
Period
Central # Women Suffrage #Slogan of Personal # A Broader
Theme Movement. is Political. vision of
# Demand for # Goal of Liberation Feminist theory.
Economic and of women from # Race and
Political Rights. patriarchal society ethnicity-based
and state. discrimination
against women
were raised.
Speciality 1893—New # Betty Friedan’s # Focus on
Zealand becomes The Feminine Sexual
the first country to Mystique (1963) set Harassment in
provide the Right to up the tone for the the workplace.
Vote. second wave. # Women as
1920—USA # Fight for equal domestic help
provided voting pay rights for workers.
rights to women. women. # Black Women
or Dalit Women
etc.
Related Elizabeth Kate Millett, Rebecca
Thinkers Stanton and Germania Greer, Walker,
Susan B. and Betty Kimberle
Anthony, etc. Friedan. Crenshaw,
and Judith
Butler

KEY COMPONENTS OF FEMINIST THEORY


Patriarchy
Feminists use the concept of ‘patriarchy’ to describe the power relationship
between men and women. The term literally means ‘rule by the father.’
Feminists describe the dominance of the husband-father within it. It
reproduces male dominance in all other walks of life, in education, at work,
and in politics. A patriarchy is therefore a hierarchic society, characterized by
both sexual and generational oppression, according to Kate Millet.

Personal is Political
Politics has usually been understood as an activity that takes place within a
‘public sphere’ of government institutions, political parties, and pressure
groups, etc. Family life and personal relationships have normally been thought
to be part of a ‘private sphere’ and therefore to be non-political. Women,
restricted to the private role of housewife and mother, are in effect excluded
from politics. Feminists, therefore, challenge the divide between ‘public man’
and ‘private women’ and proclaim that ‘the personal is political.’ Women’s
oppression is also a type of political relation and hence political theory need to
redefine the scope of the word ‘political.’

Sex and Gender


The most common of all anti-feminist arguments asserts a woman’s physical
and anatomical make-up thus suits her to a subordinate and domestic role in
society, in short, ‘biology is destiny.’ Feminists have traditionally challenged
the idea that ‘biology is destiny’ by drawing a sharp distinction between sex
and gender. Sex refers to biological differences between females and males
as natural and therefore unalterable. Gender thus is a cultural term that refers
to different roles that society ascribes to men and women. As Simon de
Beauvoir pointed out, ‘Women are made, they are not born.’

Equality Feminism vs Difference Feminism


The feminist thinker who considers that patriarchy creates the difference
between the value of man and women, and hence the state should provide
equal rights to male and female to ensure equality, these kinds of views are
called ‘Equality Feminism.’ Some Feminism thinkers believe that just
providing rights equivalent to males is not enough for women’s development.
They recommend the needs of women are different from that of males, hence
‘Difference Feminists’ argue that the State should recognize the differences
and make gender-sensitive rules and regulations which can ensure the
realization of rights and ensure representation for women.

TYPES OF FEMINISM

Liberal Feminism
Early feminism, particularly the ‘first wave’ of the women’s movement,
was deeply influenced by the ideas and values of liberalism.
Mary Wollstonecraft argued that women should be entitled to the
same rights and privileges as men on the ground that they are human
beings.
The philosophical basis of liberal feminism lies in the principle of
individualism, a belief that the human individual is all important and
therefore that all individuals are of equal worth. Hence, the demand for
legal and political equality and equal rights was the chief concern.
Key proponents—Mary Wollstonecraft, J. S. Mill, Betty
Friedan, and Carole Pateman, etc.

Socialist Feminism
The central theme of socialist feminism is that patriarchy can only be
understood in light of social and economic factors.
For socialist feminists, sexual oppression is every bit as important as
class exploitation.
The ‘bourgeois family’ is patriarchal and oppressive because men wish
to ensure that their property will be passed on only to their sons.
The core goal of socialist feminism was to restructure economic life to
achieve gender equality.
Key Proponent—Charles Fourier, Friedrich Engels, August
Bebel, Juliet Mitchells, and Sheila Row Botham.

Radical Feminism
The central feature of radical feminism is the belief that sexual
oppression is the most fundamental feature of society and other forms
of injustice—class exploitation, racial hatred, and so on are merely
secondary.
Radical feminism wanted to reshape society entirely, they refer to
patriarchy as a systematic, institutionalized, and pervasive process of
gender oppression.
Female liberation thus requires a sexual revolution in which these
structures are overthrown and replaced.
Radical feminism seeks radical transformation of all spheres of life.
Key Proponent—Virginia Woolf, Simon de Beauvoir,
Shulamith Firestone, Kate Millett, Germaine Greer, and
Eva Figes, etc.

Black Feminism
Black feminism centres on the experiences of black women,
understanding their position in relation to racism, sexism, and classism
as well as other social and political identities.
The core goal of black feminism is to counter interconnected racial,
gender, and class structures.
According to Bell Hooks race, gender, and class discrimination are
all aspects of the same system of hierarchy, which she named
‘imperialist white supremacist capitalist patriarchy.’
Key Proponent—Sojourner Truth, Anna Julia Cooper, and Bell
Hooks, etc.

Trans Feminism
Transfeminism mainly advocates the rights of transgender, especially
transwomen, to identify as their preferred gender rather than the one
they were assigned at birth based on their biological sex.
Its central theme is the rejection of the binary conception of gender.
Key Thinkers—Emi Koyama and Sandy Stone, etc.

Post-feminism
Post-feminism started during the 1980s.
Post-feminism counter the classical feminist idea of considering
women as a victim of patriarchy. It recommends that women need to
plan a greater role to create their place in society.
Key Thinkers—Camille Paglia and Naomi Wolf, etc.

Postcolonial Feminism
Postcolonial feminism, also known as Third World feminism, draws on
postcolonialism, which deliberates experiences undergone during
colonialism, including “migration, slavery, overpowering, resistance,
representation, difference, race, gender, place and responses to the
influential discourses of imperial Europe.” Postcolonial feminism
focusses on racism, ethnic issues, and the long-lasting economic,
political, and cultural effects of colonialism, inextricably bound up with
the unique gendered realities of non-White non-Western women.
Key Thinkers—Gayatri Spivak, Chandra Mohanty etc.

LIST OF IMPORTANT BOOKS & THINKERS


A Vindication of the Rights of Women (1792)—Mary
Wollstonecraft
Subjection of Women (1869)—J. S. Mill
The origins of the family, private, and the state (1884)—Friedrich
Engels
The Second Sex (1949)—Simon de Beauvoir
The Feminine Mystique (1963)—Betty Friedan
The Second Stage (1981)—Betty Friedan
The Dialectic of Sex (1970)—Shulamith Firestone
Sexual Politics (1970)—Kate Millett
The Female Eunuch (1970)—Germaine Greer
Patriarchal attitudes (1970)—Eva Figes
Sex and Destiny (1984)—Germaine Greer
Feminist Theory of the State (1989)—Catherine A. Mackinnon
Sexual Contract (1988)—Carole Patman
Public Man, Private Woman (1981)—Jean Bethke Elshtain
Women, Resistance, and Revolution (1973)—Sheila Rowbotham
Feminine Sexuality (1985)—Juliet Mitchell
Ain’t I a Woman—Sojourner Truth Famous Speech published
as book
Ain’t I a Woman? Black Women and Feminism (1981)—Bell Hook

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who is known as the first modern feminist?
(a) Mary Wollstonecraft
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) Plato
(d) Kate Millett

2. The famous work ‘Second Sex’ was written by:


(a) Mary Daly
(b) Simone de Beauvoir
(c) Germaine Greer
(d) Virginia Woolf

3. Who said, ‘within the family, he is the bourgeois, and the wife represent
the proletariat.’?
(a) Elshtain
(b) Friedrich Engels
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Friedan

4. Match the following:

Thinkers Relation
a. Kate Millett 1. The Personal is
Political
b. Second Wave 2. Power-structured
relationship
c. Betty Friedan 3. Socialist Feminist
d. Juliet Mitchell 4. National Organizat
of Women

Codes:
(a) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

5. Match the following:

Books Author
s
A. The Feminine i) Betty Friedan
Mystique
B. Sex and Destiny ii) Germaine Greer
C. Women and War iii) J. B. Elshtain
D. The Second Sex iv) Simon de Beauvoi

(a) A–i), B–iii), C–iv), D–ii)


(b) A–ii), B–iv), C–iii), D–i)
(c) A–i), B–iii), C–ii), D–iv)
(d) A–i), B–ii), C–iii), D–iv)

6. Find correct statements:


(a) The second wave of the Feminist movement started with Seneca
Convention
(b) Seneca Falls Convention held in the USA
(c) Seneca Falls Convention was organized in 1868
(d) All of the Above

7. The first text of modern feminism ‘A Vindication of Rights of Women


published in the Year?
(a) 1792
(b) 1789
(c) 1848
(d) 1868

8. The First time the right to vote to women was given in which year?
(a) 1894
(b) 1893
(c) 1920
(d) 1918

9. Choose the correct one:


(a) The first wave of feminism was inspired by the liberal movement
(b) The second wave of Feminism had of Goal of the Liberation of wom
(c) The third wave of Feminism focused on race and ethnicity-b
discrimination
(d) All of the above

10. Who wrote the book ‘Sexual Politics’?


(a) Simon de Beauvoir
(b) Kate Millett
(c) Betty Friedan
(d) J. B. Elshtain

11. Who is the author of the book ‘Patriarchal Attitudes’?


(a) Eva Figes
(b) Germain Greer
(c) Kate Millett
(d) Virginia Woolf

12. Match the following:

Thinkers Works
a. Carole Pateman 1. Women, Resistanc
and Revolution
b. Shulanith Firestone 2. The Dialectic of Se
c. Germaine Greer 3. The Female Eunuc
d. Sheila Rowbotham 4. Sexual Contract

Codes:
(a) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(d) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1

13. Match the following:

Types of feminism Ideas


a. Eco-Feminist 1. Sexual oppression
as important as cla
exploitation
b. Social Feminist 2. Consider patriarchy
a ‘social constant’
Types of feminism Ideas
c. Radical Feminist 3. The principle of
‘reason’ for women
equality
d. Liberal Feminist 4. Women are creatur
of nature

(a) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4


(b) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1
(c) a–4, b–1, c–2, d–3
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

14. What are the central beliefs of Feminism?


A. Women are disadvantaged because of their sex

B. Male shall dominate female elder male shall dominate younger

C. Sexual division of labour is ‘natural’ rather than ‘political’


D. Historically political thinkers have kept the role of women off
political agenda
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) A and D only
(d) B and C only

15. Match the following:

Thinkers Books
a. Sojourner Truth 1. Woman Hating
b. Germaine Greer 2. Public Man, Private
Woman
c. Jean Bethke Elshtain 3. Ain’t I a Woman
Thinkers Books
d. Andrea Dworkin 4. Sex and Destiny

Codes:
(a) a–4, b–1, c–2, d–3
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–3, b–4, c–2, d–1
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(a) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c) (c).
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (c)
(b) (d) (b) (a)
3. 6.
9. (d)
(b) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

3. Friedrich Engels is considered a Socialist feminist thinker. In his boo


‘The origins of the family, private, and the state (1884)’ he tried to explai
the position of the female in a capitalist society.

14. Option B is incorrect because it represents the principle of patriarchy.


Option C is also incorrect because it is opposite to the ‘Sex and
Gender’ phenomenon of feminist theory.
CHAPTER 6
Ecologism

INTRODUCTION
Ecologism or Green Political Theory has been regarded as a distinctive
ideological tradition since the 1970s. Ecologism was viewed as an ideology
due to three main theoretical developments. First is the ecocentric ‘worldview,’
second is anthropocentrism or human-centred biasness and third is the
emergence of ‘deep’ ecology.
The term ‘ecology’ was coined by the german zoologist Ernst Haeckel
in 1866, in his work ‘German Morphology (1866).’ Ecologism as a political
term has been increasingly in use especially in the year the 1960s, by the
growing green movement. As a new political ideology, it is based on the
position that the non-human world is worthy of moral consideration and that
this should be considered in social, economic, and political systems.
Rachel Carson’s ‘Silent Spring’ is often considered the first book to
draw attention to a developing ecological crisis. Other important early works
included Ehrlich and Harriman’s ‘How to be a Survivor (1971),’
Goldsmith et al.’s ‘Blueprint for Survival (1972),’ the unofficial UN report
‘Only One Earth (1972),’ and the Club of Rome’s ‘The Limits to Growth
(1972).’

KEY COMPONENTS OF ECOLOGISM


Ecology is the study of the relationship between living organisms and
the environment and stresses the network of relationships that sustains
all forms of life. Ecologism put forward political thought while
considering humans as a part of this network.
Holism was coined by Jan Smuts in 1926. It is a belief system that
the whole is more important than its parts and it implies that
understanding is gained by studying the relationship among the parts.
Individual interest is parts and the Environment is whole, hence
according to ecologists’ political view environment is prior to man.

Sustainability: the capacity of a system to maintain its health and


continue in existence over a period. Herman Daly says that growth
mania (the promise of unlimited prosperity and material affluence),
causes immense environmental disaster. In ‘Small is Beautiful’ 1973,
E. F. Schumacher states that ‘human beings have made the
mistake of regarding energy as an income.’ He advocated Buddhist
economics, or economics as if people mattered, based upon the
principle of ‘right livelihood.’
Environmental ethics: The current trend of human development is
unethical according to ecologists, according to them in the name of
development current human generation is doing excessive exploitation
of resources and environmental degradation and we are compromising
the development of future generations. Along with that, we are also
compromising with the needs of other living species like plants and
animals, they are also born on this earth and hence they also have the
right to life.
From having to being: As a critique of materialism and
consumerism. It provides the cultural bias for environmental
degradation. Hence ecologism can be seen to be associated with the
ideas of post-materialism and anti-consumerism.

TYPES OF ECOLOGISM
I. Eco-Socialism: the core theme of eco-socialism is the idea that
capitalism is the enemy of the environment, whilst while socialism is its
friend. This variant of ecologism is usually associated with Marxism.
Rudolph Bahro (1982) argued that ‘the root cause of the
environmental crisis is capitalism.’ This type of ecological thought
could be seen amongst the German Greens.
II. Eco-Anarchism: Anarchists believe in a stateless society, in which
harmony develops out of mutual respect and social solidarity amongst
human beings. They have also advocated the construction of
decentralized societies, organized as a collection of communes or
villages, a social vision to which many deep ecologies are also
attracted, and recognized by the high degree of self-sufficiency.
Murray Bookchin’s ‘Our Synthetic Environment(1975),’ can be
seen as a prominent publication in this regard.
III. Eco-Feminism; The basic theme of this type of ecologism is that
ecological destruction has its origin in patriarchy. Mary Daly in
‘Gyn/Ecology (1979)’ argued that women would liberate themselves
from patriarchal culture if they aligned themselves with ‘female nature.’
It is argued that women are creatures of nature, and men are
creatures of culture: their world is synthetic or literally man-made, a
product of human ingenuity rather than natural creativity.

SHALLOW ECOLOGY VS DEEP ECOLOGY

Shallow Ecology Deep Ecology


Shallow Ecology Deep Ecology

1. Support environment
Environment conservation is in the
conservation only for human
interest of all living species.
interest and needs.

2. Shallow ecology rejects


Favours ecocentrism or biocentrism.
ecocentrism and biocentrism.

3. It supports an anthropocentric Deep ecology rejects


worldview. anthropocentrism.

4. If harming the environment will


The interests of other living beings
also harm humans, the
must be treated as seriously as the
environment should be
interests of humans.
protected.

Focuses on: ecologism, radical


5. Focuses on environmentalism,
holism, value-in-nature, biocentric
limited holism, animal welfare,
equality, animal rights, and anti-
and sustainable growth.
growth.
Key supporter—Arne Naess
6. Key supporter—Anthony Weston

GAIA HYPOTHESIS
A UK atmospheric chemist, inventor, and environmental thinker, James
Lovelock is best known as the inventor of the ‘Gaia Hypothesis’ in the
1970s. According to Gaia Hypothesis, the ‘Earth’s biosphere, atmosphere,
oceans, and soil exhibit precisely the kind of self-regulating behaviour that
characterises other forms of life.’ James Lovelock developed that the
planet itself is alive with stones, rivers, and mountains, often conceived of as
‘Mother Earth’ and gave it the name ‘Gaia’, after the ‘Greek goddess of the
Earth.’ Gaia also contains a revolutionary vision of the relationship between
the animate and inanimate world. This theory suggests that the health of the
planet matter more than that of any individual species presently living on it.

BOOKS AND AUTHORS RELATED TO


ECOLOGISM

Rachel Carson
Rachel Carson became increasingly interested in the effects of a wide
variety of pesticides and wrote ‘Silent Spring (1962).’ In it, she marshalled
evidence showing that long-lasting pesticides, such as DDT, had been
destructive for different kinds of living beings, including humans.
Important books by her are:

Under the Sea-Wind (1941),


The Sea Around Us (1951),
The Edge of the Sea (1955),
Silent Spring (1962), and
The Sense of Wonder (1965).

Ernst Friedrich Schumacher


Championed for the advocacy of ‘Buddhist Economics.’ In his seminal work
‘Small is Beautiful (1973),’ he attacked conventional economic thinking for its
obsession with growth for growth’s sake and condemned the value system on
which it is based, particularly the fact that it is divorced from nature in contrast
he stressed the importance of morality and right livelihood.
Important books by him are:

Small is Beautiful: A Study of Economics As if People Mattered (1973),


A Guide for the Perplexed (1977), and
Good Work (1980).

Arne Naess
Known for his philosophy, Ecosophy T (a philosophy of ecological harmony or
equilibrium, the ‘T’ is for the Tvergastein hut in which he lived in solitude high
on a Norwegian mountain), which was influenced by the ideas of Sponzia,
M. K. Gandhi’s ethic of non-violence and Taoist thought, was based on the
assertion that ‘the Earth does not belong to human beings.’
Important books by him are:

Ecology, Community, and Lifestyle (1974),


Thinking like a Mountain: Towards a Council of All Beings (1988), and
Ecology of Wisdom (2008).

Murray Bookchin
He was a leading proponent of the idea of ‘social ecology.’ He linked the
environmental crisis to the breakdown of the organic fabric of both society and
nature.
His major works in this field include:

The Ecology of Freedom (1982),


Re-enchanting Humanity (1995),
Our Synthetic Environment (1962),
Post-Scarcity Anarchism (1971), and
The Politics of Social Ecology (1998).

Caroline Merchant
Most prominent among the eco-feminist. Her work has highlighted links
between gender oppression and the ‘death of nature.’ She developed a
feminist critique of a scientific revolution that explained environmental
degradation ultimately in terms of the application by men of a mechanistic
view of nature.
Her major works are:

The Death of Nature (1983) and


Radical Ecology (1992).

Rudolf Bahro
He is best known for his attempts to reconcile socialism with ecological
theories. His major works in this field such as ‘Socialism and Survival (1982),’
in which he presented capitalism as the root cause of the environmental crisis,
and socialism as its solution. In ‘From Red to Green (1984),’ he argued that
the ecological crisis had become so pressing that it must take precedence
over the class struggle.
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. The club of Rome’s report ‘The Limits to Growth’ book was published i
the year?
(a) 1962
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1972

2. ‘Human beings have made the mistake of regarding energy as a


income,’ who made this statement?
(a) Arne Naess (Taoist Economics)
(b) Murray Bookchin (Hindu Economics)
(c) Ernest F.Schumacher (Buddhist Economics)
(d) Rudolf Bahro (Christian Economics)

3. Which among the following thinkers suggested that ‘Growth Mania’ is


fundamental cause of environmental disaster?
(a) Kenneth Boulding
(b) E. F. Schumacher
(c) Herman Daly
(d) Tom Regan

4. Who among the following are ecological thinkers?


(A) Rudolf Bahro
(B) Jerry Falwell
(C) Ian Paisley
(D) Caroline Merchant
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and A only
(d) A and D only
5. Which variant of Ecologism advocated the construction of decentralize
societies, organized as a collection of communes or villages?
(a) Eco-Socialism
(b) Eco-Anarchism
(c) Eco-Feminism
(d) Eco-Liberalism

6. Which of the following is the key argument that differentiates shallow


ecology from deep ecology?
(a) Environmentalism and Ecologism
(b) Science and Humankind
(c) Value-free nature and ecological consciousness
(d) Animal welfare and sustainable growth

7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and th
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Gaia Hypothesis, the Earth’s biosphere,
atmosphere, and oceans exhibit self-regulating behaviour.
Reason (R): Gaia contains a revolutionary vision of the relationship
between the animate and inanimate world.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

8. Match the following:

Thinkers Books
a. Rachel Carson 1. Ecology of Wisdom
b. Arne Naess 2. From Red to Green
c. Murray Bookchin 3. Silent Spring
d. Rudolf Bahro 4. Ecology of Freedom
Codes:
(a) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
(b) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(d) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1

9. Which of the following book is not written by Murray Bookchin?


(a) Our Synthetic Environment
(b) The Politics of Social Ecology
(c) Radical Ecology
(d) Post-Scarcity Anarchism

10. Who among the following was influenced by the ideas of Sponzia, M. K.
Gandhi’s ethic of Non-violence, and Taoist thought?
(a) David Ehernfeld
(b) William Morris
(c) Niels Bohr
(d) Arne Naess

11. Who suggests that, if wealth is owned in common it will be used in the
interests of all, which means in the long-term interests of humanity:
(a) Eco-Anarchism
(b) Eco-Socialism
(c) Eco-Feminism
(d) All of the above

12. Which among the following statement is incorrect about Deep Ecology?
(a) Deep Ecology term was coined by Arne Naess
(b) Deep ecology rejects anthropocentrism
(c) It favours ecocentrism or biocentrism
(d) The value of human life is way more important than the life of o
species

13. According to whom ‘Earth is alive and a self-regulating complex


system’?
(a) Rudolph Bahro
(b) Arne Naess
(c) Anthony Weston
(d) James Lovelock

14. Consider the following statement related to Environmental Ethics:


A. environmental disaster precisely because of passionate pursuit o
wealth

B. that resources should be valued precisely because they result fro


processes

C. Animals and organisms are equally important as human beings


D. construction of decentralized societies, organized as a collectio
commoners
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and B only
(d) C and D only

15. What are the central beliefs of Ecologism?


A. Holism

B. From Having to being

C. No Limits to growth
D. Resource Exploitation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) A and D only
(d) B and C only
Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(d) (d) (b) (d) (d) (b) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (d)
(c) (b) (c) (b)
3. 6.
9. (c)
(c) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

7. Reason statement is correct, but it is not explaining why the Gai


hypothesis claims that earth has a self-regulative behaviour. Hence, th
answer would be option B.

12. According to Deep ecology, humans are part of the ecosystem and not
above it, hence the value of human life is equal to the value of the life
of other species. Hence Option D is the incorrect one here.

14. Options A and D represent ecological views but not from the point of
view of environmental ethics. Hence, Answer would be Option B.
CHAPTER 7
Multiculturalism

INTRODUCTION
Multiculturalism was started as a movement for the protection of rights and
liberties of marginalized sections of society in western liberal countries. It is a
contemporary political ideology, and it became popular during the 1970s and
80s. In 1971 Canada was the first to officially adopt the principle of
Multiculturalism as part of Public Policy. Canada’s multicultural policy helped
in protecting the minority french-speaking community of Quebec province.
Multiculturalism as a political ideology originated as a challenge to the idea of
individualism in liberal ideology.

CENTRAL ARGUMENTS OF MULTICULTURALISM


1. The idea of the Nation-State System (One-nation One-Culture On
Identity), usually result in the dominance of majority cultural communitie
and compromises the cultural liberties of minority and marginalize
section.
2. Cultural distinctiveness of migrated people is not protected in liberal
democratic societies.
3. The idea of individualism and the universal theory of rights in the
liberal democratic system creates a challenge to cultural diversity in
society.
4. Every culture has different values and due to these differences, their
idea of justice, right, and equality are also different.
5. Multicultural thinkers argue that the rights and liberties as well as the
public policy of a state should respect and recognize the cultural
differences of the people living within the country.
KEY COMPONENTS OF MULTICULTURALISM

Identity Politics and Politics of Differences


Multicultural thinkers believe that cultural identity like religion, ethnicity,
language, gender, and caste should form the basis of political representation,
communication, and mobilization in a political system. People should
participate in political activities like elections and the law-making process as a
member of a cultural group to save and protect their cultural values and
diversities. According to them, the democratic concept of power sharing would
work better when people of different identities will get a chance to represent
themselves in the governance.

Politics of Recognition
Communitarian thinkers’ critique of liberal individualism help multiculturalist to
raise the aspect of ‘Politics of Recognition.’ The politics of recognition is a
concept developed by Charles Taylor. Charles Taylor says that we do
not become full human agents and define our identity in isolation from others,
rather, ‘we define our identity always in dialogue with, sometimes in struggle
against the things our significant others want to see in us.’ He was trying to
say that culture is an intrinsic part of people living in a political society, hence,
it’s the responsibility of the state to recognize cultural variation. Recognition of
cultural differences give the assurance that the law of the land will not be
universally implemented, rather government will make exception according to
cultural differences. For example, in India Schedule 8 of the Indian
Constitution recognize the 22 languages as an important part of Indian culture
and ensure their protection.

‘Melting Pot’ vs ‘Salad Bowl’ (Cultural Mosaic)


Multicultural thinkers are against the principle of a ‘Melting Pot’ and support
the idea of a ‘Salad Bowl’ for society. In the ‘Melting Pot’ system, the cultural
identity of people gets melted down and people of that society assume a
single national identity. For example, in America during the nineteenth-century
government used to consider citizens only as Americans and not as African
Americans or Indian Americans. In the ‘Salad Bowl’ system, the cultural
identity of people remains intact and along with that, people also assume a
national identity, this kind of society can also be called a ‘Cultural Mosaic.’ A
bowl full of vegetables is called Salad, but all the ingredients like Onion,
Tomato, or Cucumber can be identified separately as well within that mixed
salad. The ‘Salad Bowl’ concept stands for the idea of ‘Unity in Diversity.’ For
Example, in India, we all are known as Indians, but along with that, we are
also Hindu, Muslim, Christian, Tamil, or Telegu, etc.

‘Unencumbered Self’ vs ‘Encumbered Self’


Inspired by the Communitarian Critique of Liberalism given by thinkers like
Michael Sandel and Michael Walzer, multiculturalism also rejected
liberal individualism. The ‘Unencumbered Self’ is the idea of seeing an
individual as isolated from society and community. Liberal thinkers support the
idea of individual rights and consider society and the state as enemies of
individual liberty. On the other hand, multicultural thinker supports the idea of
the ‘Encumbered Self,’ where individual identity is culturally embedded, in the
sense that people largely derive their understanding of the world and their
framework of moral beliefs from the culture in which they live and develop.
The ‘Encumbered Self’ is an idea of the ‘Community Self.’

Differentiated Citizenship and Differentiated Rights


Differentiated Citizenship stands for granting special group-based legal or
constitutional rights to national minorities and ethnic groups. The term
‘Differentiated Citizenship’ was first used by Iris Marion Young in 1989.
Will Kymlicka later used this concept in his book ‘Multicultural Citizenship
(1995)’ to support the argument of assigning group differentiated rights and
liberties in a political system according to the cultural differences of the
people. According to Will Kymlicka, there is a deep and general
connection between a person’s self-respect and the respect according to
his/her cultural group. Will Kymlicka suggested 3 types of rights for this
purpose:

i. Cultural Right/Polyethnic Right—Right to practice and profess th


culture.
ii. Self-Government Rights—Autonomy of governance according to
cultural features in a region for example—the Tribal Autonomous
council in India.
iii. Special Representation Rights—Reserved seats in the legislature for
cultural minorities.

PIONEERS OF MULTICULTURALISM AND KEY


CONCEPTS

Will Kymlicka
He tries to fit in the ideas of cultural diversity and group-differentiated rights,
within the theory of liberalism. Will Kymlicka believes that ‘liberalism also
contains a broader account of the relationship between the individual and
society—and, in particular, of the individual’s membership in a community and
a culture.’ He mentions five key ethnic cultural groups viz:

(i) National Minorities—complete and functioning societies in histori


national homelands.
(ii) Immigrants—who want integration and accommodation (food,
customs, and holidays).
(iii) Isolationist Ethno-Religious Groups—want autonomy for their
communities.
(iv) Racial Caste Groups—not integrated due to racial differences, for
example, African American.
(v) Metics—those who entered the country illegally and are not eligible for
citizenship.
Important books by him are:
Liberalism, Community, and Culture (1989),
Multicultural Citizenship: A Liberal Theory of Minority Rights (1995),
States, Nations, and Cultures (1997),
Politics in the Vernacular (2001), and
Multicultural Odysseys (2007).

Charles Taylor
Charles Taylor is famous for his concept of ‘Politics of Recognition.’
According to him the integrity of cultures is important for a good life. He used
the word ‘Irreducibly Social’ to determine the importance of a culture in a
society. Charles Taylor argues we should adopt the presumption of equal
worth for all cultures. Important books by him are:
Sources of the Self (1989) and
Multiculturalism and the politics of recognition (1992).

Tariq Modood
He is critical for the secularization of society. He said, ‘radical secularism’ can
only be achieved by using illiberal means. According to him, cultural diversity
is important, and he supported the idea of multicultural theory against the
growing opposition due to radical Islamism and the immigration crisis.
Important books by him:
Multicultural Politics: Racism, Ethnicity, and Muslims in Britain (2005)
and
Multiculturalism: A Civic Idea (2007).

Bhikhu Parekh
He rejected universalist liberalism and supported the idea of pluralism in
society. He supported the idea of positive discrimination (reservation) for
creating opportunities for cultural minority groups. Important books by him are:
Colour, Culture and Consciousness (1974) and
Rethinking Multiculturalism: Cultural Diversity and Political Theory
(2002).
Stuart Hall
He is one of the most important scholars responsible for the foundation of the
field of cultural studies. He defined cultural identity as ‘a sort of collective “one
true self”…which many people with a shared history and ancestry hold in
common.’ He is also famously known as the ‘Godfather of Multiculturalism.’
An important book by him is:
Questions of Cultural Identity (1996)

Isaiah Berlin
Isaiah Berlin is famous for his idea of ‘Value Pluralism.’ He stands for the
view that different cultures have different social values and this might lead to
conflicts in a society. According to him conflicting ideas, cultures, and values
were core to human life.

James Tully
In his book ‘Strange Multiplicity (1995)’ he countered the idea of modern
constitutionalism which is universalist in nature and rejects the cultural
diversity and self-governance right of the people.

CRITICISM OF MULTICULTURAL THEORY


According to Amy Gutmann, the Multicultural Theory of rights
usually creates a hurdle in achieving ‘Social Justice.’ Cultural practices
are not always perfect, cultural values also sometimes became the
cause of injustice and exploitation. For Example, in the caste system or
untouchability is part of Hindu culture and cultural autonomy is given in
the name of a multicultural society, the social evil of caste-based
discrimination can never be removed.
Feminist thinkers like Martha Nussbaum and Susan Moller
Okin have criticized multicultural theory for promoting the idea of
group rights. According to feminist thinkers most of the culture support
a patriarchal mindset, hence cultural autonomy would be a problem for
women’s liberation.
Chandran Kukathas says the States should not pursue ‘cultural
integration’ but rather a ‘politics of indifference’ toward minority groups.
Robert Putnam believes that an increase in cultural diversity
created the problem of social capital (social trust) and the decline of
democratic mobilization.
Brian Barry says that the special accommodation based on cultural
differences is not the appropriate basis of state welfare policy. Brian
Barry argues that egalitarian justice is only concerned with ensuring a
reasonable range of equal opportunities, not with ensuring equal
access to any particular choices or outcomes.

THINKERS AND KEY CONCEPTS

Thinker Key Concept


Will Kymlicka Group Differentiated Rights,
Polyethnic Rights, and Metics.
Charles Taylor Politics of Recognition and
Irreducibly Social.
Isaiah Berlin Value Pluralism
Stuart Hall Cultural Identity
Tariq Modood Radical Secularism

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which among the following ideology described as a ‘salad bowl’ and as
‘cultural mosaic’ in contrast to a ‘melting pot’?
(a) Post-Modernism
(b) Multiculturalism
(c) Anarchism
(d) Communitarianism

2. Consider the below statements about multiculturalism.


a. Diversity within unity is the core theme of multiculturalism.
b. Multiculturalism is associated with the politics of recognition in whi
marginalized, minority, and disadvantaged groups are given due s
entitlements.

c. Multiculturalism is identified with the politics of culture of self-asser


Choose the correct answer from the code:
(a) Only (a)
(b) Only (b)
(c) (a) and (c)
(d) All of the above

3. According to whom multiculturalism creates a different ethical standar


that yields conflicting judgments, concerning social justice in a
multicultural society?
(a) Martha Nussbaum
(b) Bhikhu Parekh
(c) Amy Gutmann
(d) Jeremy Waldron

4. Who among the following are multicultural thinkers?


A. Charles Taylor

B. Isaiah Berlin

C. Friedrich Nietzsche
D. Martin Heidegger
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only

5. Match the following:

Thinkers Books
Thinkers Books
a. Charles Taylor 1. Strange Multiplicity
b. Tariq Modood 2. Multicultural Odyss
c. James Tully 3. Multicultural Politic
d. Will Kymlika 4. Sources of the self

Codes:
(a) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

6. In which year Canada officially adopted multiculturalism as part of publi


policy?
(a) 1965
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1980

7. Consider the below statements about multiculturalism.


a. It supports the dominance of majority cultural communities.

b. Cultural protection for migrated people is an important ele


multiculturalism.

c. The principle of rights, liberty, and justice should be universal in na


Choose the incorrect answer from the code:
(a) Only (a)
(b) Only (b)
(c) (a) and (c)
(d) All of the above

8. Which among the following is not a key component of multiculturalism?


A. Cultural Mosaic

B. Unencumbered Self

C. Politics of Recognition
D. Individualism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) B and D only

9. Who said that ‘we define our identity always in dialogue with, sometime
in struggle against, the things our significant others want to see in us’?
(a) Will kymlicka
(b) Charles Taylor
(c) Stuart Hall
(d) Tariq Modood

10. Unencumbered self represents:


(a) A communitarian view of individual
(b) A socialist view of individual
(c) A multicultural view of individual
(d) A liberal view of individual

11. Will kymlicka talked about which of the following rights to achieve
multicultural citizenship?
a. Self-Government Rights

b. Polyethnic Rights

c. Special Representation Rights


Choose the answer from the code:
(a) Only (a) and (b)
(b) Only (b) and (c)
(c) Only (a) and (c)
(d) All of the above

12. Which among the following book is not related to Will Kymlicka?
(a) Multicultural Citizenship: A Liberal Theory of Minority Rights
(b) Multicultural Odysseys
(c) Rethinking Multiculturalism
(d) Liberalism, Community, and Culture

13. Which among the following statement represent the Metics group?
(a) illegal immigrants and not eligible for citizenship
(b) legal immigrants and eligible for citizenship
(c) immigrants looking for integration
(d) All of the above

14. Who is considered the ‘Godfather of Multiculturalism’?


(a) Will kymlicka
(b) Charles Taylor
(c) Stuart Hall
(d) Tariq Modood

15. Who is the author of the book ‘Strange Multiplicity’?


(a) Will kymlicka
(b) Bhikhu Parekh
(c) Stuart Hall
(d) James Tully

16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Multiculturalism begins with the understanding that
liberal democracies have been able to ensure equal citizenship for all its
members.
Reason (R): Multiculturalism recommends policies that enhance
cultural diversity in society.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

17. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Robert Putnam believes that an increase in cultural
diversity created the problem of social capital.
Reason (R): Barry argues that egalitarian justice is only concerned
with ensuring a reasonable range of equal opportunities.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

18. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?


(a) Multicultural Citizenship—Bhikhu Parekh
(b) Rethinking Multiculturalism—Will Kymlicka
(c) Multiculturalism without culture—Tariq Modood
(d) Multiculturalism and the politics of recognition—Charles Taylor

19. Match the following:

Thinkers Concept
a. Charles Taylor 1. Group Differentiate
Rights
b. Tariq Modood 2. Value Pluralism
c. Isaiah Berlin 3. Radical Secularism
d. Will Kymlicka 4. Politics of Recognit

Codes:
(a) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

20. Match the following:

Thinkers Books
a. Bhikhu Parekh 1. Multiculturalism: A
Civic Idea
b. Tariq Modood 2. Rethinking
Multiculturalism
c. Stuart Hall 3. Politics in the
Vernacular
d. Will Kymlika 4. Questions of Cultur
Identity

Codes:
(a) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.


(b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (d) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (b).
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.
18. (d)
(c) (c) (b) (c) (d)
Explanation for Selected Questions

3. According to Amy Gutmann, the multicultural theory of rights usuall


creates a hurdle in achieving ‘Social Justice.’

7. Question is asking about selecting an incorrect statement. Option ‘a’ i


incorrect because it is talking about the dominance of majority culture
but multiculturalism is especially concerned with the protection o
minority cultural identities. Option ‘c’ is also incorrect because accordin
to multicultural theory due to cultural differences, the requirement an
value of rights, liberty, and justice are different for different groups, henc
they should not be universal in nature.
CHAPTER 8
Post-Modernism

INTRODUCTION
Post-modernism emerges in the late twentieth-century as a sharp reaction
against the negative consequences of modernity. Post-modernism challenges
some basic assumptions of modernity. Post-modernism first emerges in the
field of art and literature, and later on in other disciplines. It rejects the idea
that there is a single meaning of truth.
It subscribes to the idea that there are multiple truths and multiple realities.
There is no objective reality and rejects the idea of meta-narrative. The term
post-modernism was first used by Jean Francois Lyotard in his book
‘The Post-Modern Condition (1979).’ In Jean Francois Lyotard’s words, it
is ‘incredulity towards meta-narratives.’ It simply means disbelief in ‘any grand
theory.’ Fredrick Nietzsche is known as the father of post-modernism.

CENTRAL ARGUMENT OF POST-MODERNISM


1. It advocated the belief that there is no universal truth.
2. There is no objective reality, only a plurality of perspectives.
3. There is no genuine distinction between right and wrong, only
expressions of power relations.
4. It rejects the idea of meta-narratives i.e. incredulity towards meta-
narratives.
5. It also does not have faith in science and technology as instruments of
human progress as they have brought destruction to human life, e.g.
Two World Wars.
Reason and logic are not universally valid and have meaning and
6. validity in an established intellectual tradition.

Modernism Post-Modernism

Started from the time of Evolved in the late twentieth-


enlightenment in the century.
seventeenth-century. Knowledge is subjective.
Knowledge as objective reality. Supports local narratives or
Modernity has constructed multiple narratives.
meta-narratives. Believes in the authority of any
Believes in the authority of mode of knowledge.
science. Post-modernism believes in
Modernity stands for diversity.
universalism. Post-modernism stands for
Modernity stands for freedom. freedom.
Believes in transcendental Believes that everyone has
truth. their own truth.
Modernity is foundationalist. Post-modernism is anti-
foundationalist.

DECONSTRUCTION
Jacques Derrida has given the concept of deconstruction in his book ‘Of
Grammatology (1967).’ It is a literary theory which challenges the
interpretation of the text and meaning that was developed in western or we
can say in modern philosophy. According to Jacques Derrida, a particular
text may have multiple meanings. It rejects the binary interpretation of the
world developed by western philosophy like—white/black, masculine/feminine,
cause/effect, right/wrong, and good/bad, etc. It is not always possible that the
other person receives exactly what is being communicated. Hence, it
challenges a definitive interpretation of the text. He suggests double reading.

PRODUCTIVE DIFFERENCE
Gilles Deleuze used the principle of productive difference against the
model of thought given by Immanuel Kant and G. W. F. Hegel.
Immanuel Kant and G. W. F. Hegel both used the concept of ‘reason’ in
their philosophy to achieve the final objectives of their political philosophy. By
dialectics, G. W. F. Hegel tried to phase out the difference and
contradictions available in an idea to achieve the absolute idea. According to
post-modernism, differences and contractions in thoughts are productive.
Gilles Deleuze declares that difference is thinkable only as repetition
repeating itself, where difference affirms itself in eternally differing from itself.
Its movement is productive, but without logical opposition, negation, or
necessity.

IMPORTANT THINKERS AND BOOKS


Jean Francois Lyotard—French Political Philosopher.
He is the first person to explicitly mention the term post-modernism in his
book ‘The Postmodern Condition: A Report on Knowledge.’ He described
post-modernism as ‘incredulity towards meta-narratives.’ Jean Francois
Lyotard supports local narratives.

Jacques Derrida—French Philosopher


He developed a form of semiotic analysis known as deconstruction, which
he discussed in numerous texts, and developed in the context of
phenomenology.
Important Books: Writing and Difference (1967),
Margins of Philosophy (1972),
Spectres of Marx (1993), and
Deconstruction in a Nutshell (1997).

Fredrick Nietzsche—German Philosopher


He is known as the father of post-modernism. He held that ‘God is Dead’
which means morality is dead. There is no ultimate truth. He also propounded
the concept of ‘Will to Power.’ ‘Will to Power’ in man is stronger than any other
will including the ‘Will to Live.’ ‘Will to Power’ is a reason behind any action.
He also gave the concept of ‘Superman’ which means the power to challenge
conventional morality and to lead life according to own choice. He was a
nihilist and hence rejected traditional religious and philosophical thought.
Important Books: Beyond Good and Evil (1886),
On the Genealogy and Morals (1887),
Thus Spoke Zarathustra (1892), and
The Antichrist (1888).
Jean Baudrillard—French Social Scientist
For him, the postmodern world is ‘hyper-reality.’ Jean Baudrillard put
forward the notion of ‘symbolic exchange’ as an alternative to ‘economic
exchange.’ According to him, post-modern society becomes self-referential
and characterized by ‘simulation’ and ‘simulacra’ which are the representation
of any aspect of consumption. He held that the media led our society to
undergo a ‘catastrophic’ revolution that has led to the death of a ‘social’
society.
Important Books: In the Shadow of the Silent Majorities (1983),
Simulacra and Simulation (1981),
Symbolic Exchange and Death (1976), and
The Illusion of the End (1992).

Michael Foucault—French Philosopher


He was influenced by Fredrick Nietzsche. He was concerned with
forms of knowledge and analysis of different branches of knowledge.
Michael Foucault rejected the enlightenment project of humanism (the
human self as an independent entity) and he was against structuralism and
liberal humanism. Michael Foucault called his methodology: (a)
Archaeology and (b) Genealogy.
His famous concept is ‘discourse.’ Discourse is the way of telling reality
rather than telling reality. Every age has its own discourse. The discourse
which is accepted by the majority becomes the dominant discourse. He held
that we do not discover the truth, we construct the truth. His conception of
power is enmeshed in knowledge. For him, ‘knowledge is power.’ He has
given concepts like ‘disciplinary power,’ ‘governmentality,’ and ‘bio-power.’
Important Books: The Birth of the Clinic (1963),
Madness and Civilization (1969),
Discipline and Punish (1975), and
The History of Sexuality (1976).

Martin Heidegger—German Philosopher


He is considered to be the ‘Father of Existentialism.’ He is known for
creating the concept of existentialist phenomenology. In contrast to ideologies
that promote one universal reality, existentialist phenomenology suggests that
we generate our own truths from within. He held that humans could escape
from the dominance of technology by developing a more open relationship
with living beings.
Important Book: Being and Time (1927).

Richard Rorty—US Philosopher


Richard Rorty contends that contemporary analytic philosophy incorrectly
imitates scientific methodology. He concluded that philosophy should be seen
as nothing more than discourse, rejecting the assumption that there is an
objective.
Important Book: Philosophy and the Mirror of Nature (1979),
Consequences of Pragmatism (1982), and
Contingency, Irony, and Solidarity (1989).

Gilles Deleuze—French Philosopher


He is interested in pluralism and openness to others aware and
interactively, where he considered philosophy as the philosophy of pluralism.
Thus, he criticized the identity and one philosophy and congruence in favour
of philosophy and congruence. He was interested in the finding philosophy in
his book: ‘Difference and Repetition (1968)’ and talked about pluralism in the
context of difference, and pluralism as is well known—the opposite of the
philosophy of identity.
Important Books: Difference and Repetition (1968) and
Nietzsche and Philosophy (1962).

THINKERS AND KEY CONCEPTS

Thinker Key Concept


Michael Foucault Discourse
Jacques Derrida Deconstruction
Fredrick Nietzsche Will to Power, Superman
Martin Heidegger Existential Phenomenology
Jean Baudrillard Hyperreality, Symbolic Exchange,
and
Simulation and Simulacra.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which one of the following is incorrect with regard to post-modernism?
(a) Primacy of consumption instead of knowledge
(b) Deconstruction of totality
(c) Commonality to greatness
(d) Historical tendency

2. Who considers ‘Knowledge is Power’?


(a) Jacques Derrida
(b) Michael Foucault
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Jean Francois Lyotard

3. Which of the following is a post-modernist thinker?


(a) Jacques Derrida
(b) Immanuel Kant
(c) Harold J. Laski
(d) Karl Marx

4. The term post-modernism was first used in which book?


(a) Nietzsche and Philosophy
(b) Madness and Civilization
(c) The Post-modern Condition
(d) On the Genealogy and Morals

5. Who among the following are Post Modern thinkers?


A. Edward Said

B. Isaiah Berlin

C. Fredrick Nietzsche
D. Martin Heidegger
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only
6. Who defined post-modernism as ‘incredulity towards meta-narratives’?
(a) Michael Foucault
(b) Jean Francois Lyotard
(c) Jacques Derrida
(d) Jean Baudrillard

7. Who among the following held the view that ‘God is dead’?
(a) Jean Francois Lyotard
(b) Michael Foucault
(c) Martin Heidegger
(d) Fredrick Nietzsche

8. Choose the correct match:


(a) Michael Foucault: Madness and Civilization (1969)
(b) Jacques Derrida: The Birth of the Clinic (1963)
(c) Martin Heidegger: Discipline and Punish (1975)
(d) Fredrick Nietzsche: The History of Sexuality (1976)

9. Match the following:

Thinkers Works
a. Fredrick Nietzsche 1. Madness and
Civilization
b. Michel Foucault 2. Being and Time
c. Martin Heidegger 3. On the Genealogy
Morals
d. Jean Francois Lyotard 4. Post-Modern
Condition: A Repor
Knowledge

Codes:
(a) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–4
(d) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1

10. According to post-modernist thinkers which attribute of knowledge does


not exist?
(a) Normative
(b) Cognitive
(c) Political
(d) Objectivity

11. Consider the following statements regarding post-modernism and


identify the correct statements:
i. Science and technology are destructive and oppressive in nature.
ii. Reason and logic are making human civilization better.
iii. They claim that collective ownership would most fairly administr
goods and services.
iv. They are anti-foundationalists as they say it is possible to esta
objective truth.
Code:
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

12. Which one is not correct?


(a) Michael Foucault: The Birth of the Clinic
(b) Jacques Derrida: Difference and Repetition
(c) Martin Heidegger: Being and Time
(d) Fredrick Nietzsche: On the Genealogy and Morals

13. Which among the following ideology rejected the principle of universal
theories of history?
(a) Ecologism
(b) Multiculturalism
(c) Post-modernism
(d) Feminism

14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): According to Jacques Derrida, a particular text may
have multiple meanings.
Reason (R): Gilles Deleuze declares that difference is thinkable only
as repetition repeating itself, where difference affirms itself in eternally
differing from itself.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

15. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Michael Foucault held that we do not discover the
truth, we construct the truth.
Reason (R): Michael Foucault supported the idea of enlightenment
and structuralism.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(d) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (c)
(b) (d) (a) (a)
3. 6.
9. (c)
(a) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

11. Option (ii) is incorrect because according to post-modernism logic and


reason make human civilization better. Option (iv) is also incorrect
because post-modernists are anti-foundationalists and they don’t
believe in objective reality or truth.
CHAPTER 9
Concept of Liberty

INTRODUCTION
Liberty is so essential to human life, that hundreds of arguments against it
won’t be well enough to convince humans to compromise it. Caudwell says,
‘Liberty is a concept about whose nature men have quarrelled perhaps more
than about any other.’ Individual liberty is one of the central pillars of Liberal
Political Thought. Greek Political Thought refused to accept the notion of
individual liberty against society and state, but in modern times principle of
liberty is the central idea to put the interest of the individual ahead of society
and state. The term ‘Liberty’ and ‘Freedom’ have almost similar meanings, but
still, they were used separately to express the ideological differences between
Liberal and Socialist Thought. ‘Freedom’ is the state of being free from any
oppression, while ‘Liberty’ is the freedom to act in one’s own way.

DEFINITIONS OF LIBERTY
Thomas Hobbes—‘By liberty is understood…absence of external
impediments, which impediments may often part of man’s power to do
what he would do.’
John Locke—‘Where there is no Law, there is no Freedom.’
Rousseau—‘Liberty consists in obedience to General Will.’
Pericles—‘freedom meat advancement and political activity for full
citizen.’
T. H. Green—‘Liberty is the positive power of doing and enjoying
those things which are worthy of doing and enjoying.’
L. T. Hobhouse—‘The unchartered freedom of one would be the
conditional servitude of all but one, and conversely, a freedom to be
enjoyed by all must impose some restraint upon all.’
Harold J. Laski—‘Liberty is the absence of restraints upon the
existence of those social conditions which in modern civilization are a
necessary guarantee of individual happiness.’
Karl Marx—‘Freedom is the “Recognition of necessity.’
G. W. F. Hegel—‘Liberty is obedience to the law.’

ANCIENT AND MODERN LIBERTY: BENJAMIN


CONSTANT
In his famous work ‘The Liberty of Ancients Compared with that of
Moderns,’ He distinguished the ‘Liberty of the Ancients’ and the ‘Liberty
of the Moderns.’
The ‘Liberty of the Ancients’ was participatory republican liberty, which
gave the citizens the right to directly influence politics through debates
and votes in the public assembly.
The Liberty of the Moderns, in contrast, was based on the possession
of civil liberties, the rule of law, and freedom from excessive state
interference.

TWO CONCEPTS OF LIBERTY: ISAIAH BERLIN


In his famous lecture ‘Two Concepts of Liberty’ which was also later published
as a book in 1958, Isaiah Berlin tried to classify the different ideas of liberty
into two categories i.e. Positive and Negative Liberty. He repeated this same
idea in his work ‘Four Essays on Liberty (1969).’

Negative Liberty Positive Liberty


Negative Liberty Positive Liberty

Liberty as the absence of Liberty as a positive condition


restraint from the state and for the free and full
society. development of the individual
Considers the state as a in society.
necessary evil and allows Considers the state as a
limited power to the state. facilitator and allows positive
Individuals are rational beings, action by the state for human
hence should be free to make welfare.
their own choices. Presence of Social and
According to them, ‘that economic conditions and
government is the best opportunities for the realization
which governs the least.’ of liberty.
Key Proponents—Thomas Liberty as an opportunity for
Hobbes, John Locke, you to do something which is
Benjamin Constant, worth doing.
Tocqueville, Thomas Key Proponents—
Jefferson, Edmund Rousseau, Immanuel
Burke, Adam Smith, Kant, T. H. Green,
Ricardo, Thomas Paine, Bosanquet, Barker,
Bentham, J. S. Mill, Harold J. Laski, C. B.
Milton Friedman, Robert Macpherson, Maynard
Nozick, Fredrick Hayek, Keynes, Hobson, L. T.
David Friedman, and Hobhouse, John Rawls,
Ludwig Von Mises. Ronald Dworkin, and
Amartya Sen.

According to him, ‘Positive Liberty’ may be understood as ‘self-mastery.’


Isaiah Berlin granted that both concepts of liberty represent valid human
ideals and that both forms of liberty are necessary for any free and civilized
society. For Isaiah Berlin, ‘Negative Liberty’ is the absence of any
restraints or interference in the personal affairs of an individual.

J. S. MILL’S VIEWS ON LIBERTY


In his book ‘On Liberty (1859)’ he provided a defence for the concept of
Liberty. J. S. Mill aims to defend what he refers to as ‘one very simple
principle—That principle is, that the sole end for which mankind is warranted,
individually or collectively, in interfering with the liberty of action of any of their
number, is self-protection.’ This principle is now commonly known as the
‘Harm Principle.’ This is the idea that people should only be stopped or
restrained from acting when their conduct may harm another individual. J. S.
Mill states that ‘the only purpose for which power can be rightfully exercised
over any member of a civilized community, against his will, is to prevent harm
to others.’ On the one hand, J. S. Mill’s Political Thought represents
‘Negative Liberty,’ but on the other hand his thoughts regarding the
responsibility of the state for the skill and quality development of citizens and
a state-sponsored education signals signs of ‘Positive Liberty.’ He belongs to
the age of transition from ‘Negative Liberal Thought’ to ‘Positive Liberal
Thought.’

HAROLD J. LASKI’S VIEWS ON LIBERTY


Harold J. Laski says, ‘By Liberty, I mean the eager maintenance of that
atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves.’
According to him, ‘Private Liberty’ is mainly a negative thing, whereas Political
and Economic Liberties need socio-economic conditions for their fulfilment
and are positive in nature. Harold J. Laski mentions three positive
conditions for the realization of liberty:

1. The absence of Special Privileges,


2. The Presence of Rights, and
3. Responsible Government.

MACPHERSON’S VIEWS ON LIBERTY


He said, ‘Positive Liberty is the liberty to act as a full human being.’ According
to him, ‘Positive Liberty’ has the potential for human development and he
hence called it ‘Developmental Liberty.’ He believed that liberty means the
availability of means of life and labour to each member of society. He
suggested that the capitalist mode of production needs to be replaced and a
social model of state would be better suited for ‘Developmental Liberty’ or
‘Positive Liberty.’
ATLANTIC CHARTER AND FOUR FREEDOMS
US President Roosevelt (1941) in his state speech in the state of the union,
provided the principles of four freedoms. These same principles were later
adopted as the Atlantic Charter (1941) which provide the objective of Allied
Power behind World War II. These four freedoms are:
Freedom of Speech,
Freedom of Worship,
Freedom from Fear, and
Freedom from Want.

IMPORTANT BOOKS AND AUTHORS


1. The concept of freedom (1977)—Christopher Caudwell
2. For a New Liberty: The Libertarian Manifesto (1973)—Murray
Rothbard
3. Capitalism and Freedom (1962)—Milton Friedman
4. The Constitution of Liberty (1960)—Friedrich Hayek
5. Development as Freedom (1999)—Amartya Sen
6. The Fear of Freedom (1941)—Erich Fromm
7. Two Concept of Liberty (1958)—Isaiah Berlin
8. Four Essays on Liberty (1969)—Isaiah Berlin
9. On Liberty (1859)—J. S. Mill
10. The Philosophy of Freedom (1894)—Rudolf Steiner

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who said, ‘The uncharted freedom of one would be the conditiona
servitude of all but one…’?
(a) L. T. Hobhouse
(b) D. D. Raphael
(c) Jacob Bronowski
(d) R. H. Tawney

2. Which among the following thinker believes in the duty-based concept o


liberty?
(a) Macpherson
(b) G. W. F. Hegel
(c) T. H. Green
(d) G. D. H. Cole

3. Which political thought elaborates the idea of liberty as a stage where


person is free from any coercive social apparatus and can achieve
world according to the needs of humanity?
(a) Liberalism
(b) Multiculturalism
(c) Marxism
(d) Communitarianism

4. Who believes that liberty is the product of rights?


(a) C. B. Macpherson
(b) Harold J. Laski
(c) John R. Seeley
(d) T. H. Green

5. Who said, ‘The need for liberty for each is necessarily qualified an
conditioned by the need for liberty for all’?
(a) Thomas Paine
(b) Herbert Spencer
(c) Harold J. Laski
(d) Ernest Barker

6. Which among the following statements is related to Negative Liberty?


a. Political liberty is simply the area within which a man can act unobst
others.
b. A free man is not hindered to do what he has the will to do.

c. The freedom as self-mastery.


Code:
(a) Only (a) and (c)
(b) Only (b) and (c)
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) All of the above.

7. Who among the following are not supporters of Positive Liberty?


A. Ernest Barker

B. L. T. Hobhouse

C. Thomas Paine
D. Herbert Spencer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and D only
(d) C and D only

8. Who among the following are not supporters of Negative Liberty?


A. Maynard Keynes

B. David Friedman

C. Amartya Sen
D. Milton Friedman
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and D only
(d) C and D only

9. Who among the following statement represents Positive liberty?


A. that government is the best which governs the least

B. State as a positive actor

C. A man’s power in the developmental sense


D. Zone of non-intervention
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only

10. Match List I with List II

List – I List - II (Book)


A. Milton Friedman I. Development as
Freedom
B. Christopher Caudwell II. Capitalism and
Freedom
C. Amartya Sen III. The Fear of Freedo
D. Erich Fromm IV. The Concept of
Freedom

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Options:
(a) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(b) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
(c) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(d) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–II
11. Who said, ‘the sole end for which mankind are warranted, individually
or collectively, in interfering with the liberty of action of any of their
number, is self-protection’?
(a) Thomas Paine
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) Harold J. Laski
(d) Ernest Barker

12. Which among the following is important for the realization of liberty
according to Harold J. Laski?
The absence of special privileges.
The presence of rights
Responsible Government
Code:
(a) Only (1) and (3)
(b) Only (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (2)
(d) All of the above

13. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Negative Liberty of the individual consists in not being
prevented from attaining his goal by other human beings.
Reason (R): Freedom is the absence of restraints. In the context of
the two statements, which one of the following is the correct answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

14. Isaiah Berlin’s distinction between Positive Liberty and Negative Liberty
is given in?
(a) Essay on Liberty
(b) Two Essays on Liberty
(c) Three Essays on Liberty
(d) Four Essays on Liberty

15. Consider the below statements about a declaration of ‘4 Freedoms’ by


Roosevelt.

1. Freedom of Speech 2. Freedom of Worship

c.Freedom from Fear d.Freedom from Want

5. Freedom of Choice 6. Freedom of Will

Which of the above freedoms are not parts of a declaration of ‘4


Freedoms’ by Roosevelt?
(a) (a) and (b)
(b) (c) and (d)
(c) (d) and (e)
(d) (e) and (f)

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(a) (b) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (a)
(b) (d) (b) (b)
3. 6.
9. (c)
(c) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions


According to the Marxist Tradition, Liberty lies in liberation from th
3. coercive social apparatus and institutions and to establish a
atmosphere in which man could build a world according to the needs o
humanity.

6. Liberty as self-mastery is Isaiah Berlin’s definition of Positive Liberty


hence option (c) doesn’t relate to negative liberty.

9. Zone of non-intervention means the absence of restraints which is


principle of Negative Liberty.

13. Reason statement claiming freedom as the absence of restraints, which


provides a proper explanation to the assertion statement that the
Negative Liberty of the individual consists in not being prevented from
attaining his goal by other human beings.
CHAPTER 10
Concept of Equality

INTRODUCTION
Equality is a contested concept of political theory and it is widely used in
modern political thought but with diverging understandings. In classical
and medieval political philosophy, the principle of equality is not very
well accepted, they had a profound belief in the idea of natural
inequality, for example, Plato’s view that people with higher rational
skill can be part of the Ruling Class, similarly, Aristotle rejected
citizenship to women and slaves. Hence, they didn’t advocate the
principle of equal treatment of people by the State.
Equality got its wing in modern political philosophy. The idea of
Individualism first led to the establishment of Foundational
Equality/Formal Equality. With the advent of time, the concept of
equality has tracked down multiple dimensions and became the dividing
line between the different Schools of Thought.

ROUSSEAU’S VIEWS ON TYPES OF


INEQUALITY

Natural
Qualities and differences among the
Inequalitie
people like, beauty, intelligence, and
s health, etc. can’t be controlled.
But their discriminating effects can be
minimized.
Inequalities created by society on the basis
Conventio of economic status, sex, colour, caste,
nal race, ethinicity, and religion etc.
Inequalitie The Concept of equality in political theory
s is mainly associated with these kind of
Inequalities.

BASIS CONCEPTION OF EQUALITY


1. Equality is not an absolute term, it is rather a relative term.
2. Equality does not mean similar treatment for all. It accepts the
presence of natural inequalities/dissimilarities.
3. Equality means the absence of all man-made inequalities and
privileged classes in societies.
4. Equality supports the system of equal opportunities for all people.
5. Equality wants a system where equal rights and freedom are
given to the people.

IMPORTANT DEFINITIONS OF EQUALITY


D. D. Raphael—‘The right to equality proper is a right of equal
satisfaction of basic human needs, including the need to develop and
use capacities which are specifically human.’
Harold J. Laski—‘There must be sufficiency for all before there can
be superfluity for a few.’
Ernest Barker—‘Equality means equal rights for all the people and
abolition of all special rights and privileges.’
Rousseau—‘The Policy of government should be such which allow
neither rich men nor beggars to increase.’
G. Sartori—‘Equality has so many facets and so many implications
that after we have examined it from all angles, we are left with a feeling
of not having really mastered it.’
Dick Feagler—‘Equality of opportunity is freedom, but equality of
outcome is repression.’
Erich Fromm—‘Men are born equal, but they are born different as
well.’

DIFFERENT DIMENSIONS OF EQUALITY

Formal Equality
It is also known as ‘Foundational Equality.’
This idea was developed in the seventeenth and eighteenth
centuries from natural rights theory.
It says all humans are equal by virtue of their shared human
essence and equal rights.
It can be further divided into ‘Legal Equality’ and ‘Political
Equality.’
For example—
the American Declaration of Independence (1776) declares ‘All
men are created equal.’
French Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen (1789)
states ‘Men are born and remain free and equal in right.’

Legal Equality
It is part of formal equality. This concept of legal equality says that all
the citizens in the state are equal in the eyes of the law. Law and
judiciary will not discriminate based on wealth, colour, caste, religion,
and creed. Thinkers—Ernest Barker, J. R. Lucas, A. V. Dicey,
Ivor Jennings, John Locke, Bentham, and John Austin, etc.

Political Equality
It implies equal political rights for citizens. The doctrine of political
equality is based on the conception of individuals as rational beings,
capable of political judgment irrespective of any disparities. Political
rights are given in democratic states, common people can’t participate in
a dictatorial state. Political Equality ensures things like universal
suffrage, the Right to Contest Election, etc.

Substantive Equality
The idea of Substantive Equality is different from the formal perspective
of equality. It tries to reduce those inequalities which are popularly
present in society, despite the availability of foundational equality by the
law of the state. It can be divided into two types i.e. Social Equality and
Economic Equality.

Social Equality
The concept of social equality came as a revolt against social
inequalities. Discrimination within a society is based on class, caste,
religion, colour, and creed, etc. It stands on the idea that there are
differences in society, but they should not be attached to the idea of
inferiority and superiority among the people. Some of the important
characteristics of social equality are:

(a) Absence of special privileges,


(b) free access to public places,
(c) no discrimination based on religion, gender, caste, and creed,
and
(d) provision of protective discrimination.

Economic Equality
Economic equality is the basis of all equality because where there are
poor and rich within a society legal, political, and social equality is not
possible. Rousseau said ‘the poor and rich are simultaneously
dangerous for equality and the whole society.’ It mainly stands for the
view that no individual in the society should feel that because of
economic causes he/she is unable to have social, moral, mental, and
physical development. Economic equality means every person should
have equal chances to earn his livelihood. The key characteristics of
economic equality are:

(a) Absence of human exploitation,


(b) just ownership of means of production,
(c) provision of economic security, and
(d) just distribution of wealth.

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN EQUALITY AND


EQUITY
Equality in a literal sense stands for equal social, political, and
economic status for all. Here the distribution of rights, liberties, and
resources is done equally to all without noticing the differences among
the people.
Equity stands for the idea of recognition of differences among the
people and then the distribution of rights, liberties, and resources
according to the requirements of each and every one of them. It stands
for the idea of differential (unequal) treatment of people by the state to
ensure equivalent results in society.

EQUALITY OF OPPORTUNITY VS EQUALITY


OF OUTCOMES
‘All of us do not have equal talent but all of us should have an
equal opportunity to develop our talent.’—John F. Kennedy.
‘Equal opportunity means everyone will have a fair chance of
being incompetent.’ —Laurence J. Peter.

IMPORTANT THINKERS AND WORKS

R. H. Tawney
In his book ‘Equality (1931),’ he counters the capitalist order of
society and recommended that equality can be achieved by
spreading wealth evenly among social classes.
R. H. Tawney suggested that government bring laws that
would impose income limits on all individuals.

Bentham
He was the first thinker to give the concept of political equality
(one person, one vote).
He used the concept of his utilitarian theory also his principle of
utility presupposes that ‘one man is worth just the same as
another man’ and so there is a guarantee that in calculating the
greatest happiness ‘each person is to count for one and no one
for more than one.’

Michael Walzer
In his famous book ‘Sphere of Justice,’ he tried to explain that
equality can’t be achieved by simply equal distribution of goods to
all. People from different cultural communities have different
values for the same good, and hence ensuring equality while
recognizing cultural differences is a complex phenomenon.
Michael Walzer said social goods (rights, health, wealth, and
education, etc.) have different meanings to different societies. So,
each social group will have its own principle to distribute goods.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who among the following has used the concept of equality of lega
personality to explain the legal dimension of equality?
(a) R. H. Tawney
(b) Harold J. Laski
(c) J. F. Stephen
(d) Ernest Barker

2. The doctrine of proportionate equality was propounded by?


(a) Aristotle
(b) Rousseau
(c) Karl Marx
(d) John Rawls

3. Who expressed the view that ‘equality is unnatural and


undesirable’?
(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) G. W. F. Hegel
(d) Thomas Hobbes

4. Karl Marx believe that equality in a society could be established


only when?
(a) all individuals were given political freedom
(b) the class contradiction was removed
(c) rule of law was established
(d) separation of power was practised

5. Which of the following type of equality is not compatible with the


liberal notion of equality?
(a) Legal Equality
(b) Political Equality
(c) Social Equality
(d) Economic Equality

6. ‘All runners finish the race in line together, regardless of the


starting point and the speed at which they run’—this statemen
refers to the concept of?
(a) Equality of Resources
(b) Equality of Outcomes
(c) Equality of Opportunity
(d) All of the Above

7. Match List - I with List - II and give the correct answer from the
codes:
List-I (Equality) List-II (Related Ideas)
(a) Equal (i) Eradicating specia
privileges
(b) Uniformity (ii) Most vital form of
equality
(c) Formal equality (iii) Regimentation an
social engineering
(d) Equality of outcomes (iv) Identical physical
characteristics

Codes :
(a) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)
(b) (a) → (iii), (b) → (i), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iv)
(c) (a) → (iv), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (i)
(d) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)

8. Who said that ‘The Policy of government should be such which


allow neither rich men nor beggars to increase’?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Ernest Barker
(c) Rousseau
(d) Harold J. Laski

9. According to Michael Walzer, ‘Complex Equality’ refers to:


(a) Reducing monopolies
(b) Reducing the dominance of one good across spheres
(c) Reducing competition
(d) Shared understanding of equality

10. Equality of outcome is the type of equality supported by?


(a) Marxists
(b) Conservatives
(c) Postmodernists
(d) Anarchists

11. According to whom, the extension of legal equality to all citizens


was the primary characteristic of civil society?
(a) J. S. Mill
(b) Harold J. Laski
(c) Rousseau
(d) John Locke

12. Consider the following statements and choose the correct one
regarding Equality:
i. Equality of outcome implies that all runners finish the race in
together
ii. Equality of opportunity does not legitimise unequal outcomes
iii. Equality of outcome wishes to ensure economic equity in soci
iv. Equality of opportunity wishes to ensure economic equalit
society.
Code:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

13. Who said, ‘Equality of opportunity is freedom, but equality of


outcome is repression’?
(a) Ronald Dworkin
(b) Dick Feagler
(c) Erich Fromm
(d) Robert Dahl

14. Who said, ‘There must be sufficiency for all before there can be
superfluity for a few’?
(a) John Rawls
(b) Harold J. Laski
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Ernest Barker

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 13.
(d) (b) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b)
2. 4. 6. 8. 10. 12. 14.
(a) (b) (b) (c) (a) (a) (b).
CHAPTER 11
Justice

INTRODUCTION
The concept of justice is an integral part of political philosophy. Since
ancient times scholars argued about the conception of justice. Plato’s
‘Republic’ is one of the classical texts where we have seen diverse
conceptions of justice. Aristotle also presented his vision of
‘Proportional Justice’ in his work ‘Nicomachean Ethics’ and in ‘Politics’
book. The idea of justice initially started as a philosophical view based
on morals and ethics. In modern political thought, it moved towards the
idea of liberty and equality of citizens in the eyes of the state. In
contemporary political thought, justice is concerned with the allocation of
goods, services, opportunities, benefits, power, and honours in society.

IMPORTANT DEFINITIONS OF JUSTICE


1. Cephalus said that ‘justice means telling the truth and repaying
one’s debt.’
2. Polemarchus defines justice as ‘giving each man his due’ and
further said ‘doing the right thing, good to friends and harm to
enemies.’
3. Plato said, ‘Justice in the life and conduct of the State is
possible only as first it resides in the hearts and souls of the
citizens.’
4. Aristotle said justice is where ‘equals should be treated equally
and unequal unequally.’
5. According to Karl Marx, ‘the idea of justice and its content
varies with the economic interest of the ruling class.’
6. M. T. Cicero advocated that ‘justice is a natural law which does
not depend upon the consent of man.’
7. St. Augustine stated that ‘justice is the foundation of the state.’
According to him, ‘justice is not created by the civil authority but
by the church.’
8. John Salmond says ‘justice means providing everyone his
share.’
9. D. D. Raphael said ‘justice protects the rights of the individuals
as well as the order of the society.’

PROCEDURAL JUSTICE VS SUBSTANTIVE


JUSTICE
Procedural Justice concerns itself at the level of application. The
procedures followed must be just and the legal codes should not be
violated. Substantive Justice, on the other hand, is concerned about the
outcome of the process. While the former is concerned about the ‘letter
of the law,’ the latter is more about the ‘spirit of the law.’ The idea of
Procedural Justice inspires minimal state (no use of discretion by the
state—just follow the procedure) and is largely inspired by the Classical
Liberal School. Substantive Justice encourages state intervention to
ensure ‘justice.’ It allows the state to use its discretion in favour of
weaker sections, or to ensure justice in the fullest sense of the word.

IMPORTANT THEORIES OF JUSTICE

Utilitarian Theory of Justice


A school of thought founded by Jeremy Bentham (1748–1832),
which treats pleasure and pain as the chief, motive force behind all
human actions. The balance of pleasure over pain derived from a thing
or a course of action is termed ‘utility’ which is the source of ‘happiness.’
According to this view, the guiding principle of public policy should be
‘the greatest happiness of the greatest number.’ Justice is about
balancing between the quantities of pleasure and pain, for this Jeremy
Bentham introduced an algorithm ‘felicific calculus’ for the quantitative
calculation of pleasure and pain. Within the utilitarian perspective, J. S.
Mill introduced qualitative morals and ethics to the Utilitarian Theory of
Justice.

Distributive Theory of Justice


Aristotle was the first thinker to present the idea of Distributive
Justice. According to him Distributive Justice in a state is ensured by the
legislature when they make law. Aristotle believed that rights,
liberties, powers, and rewards should be distributed by the state
according to the contribution and worth of an individual in society. He
supported the principle of proportionality for ensuring justice in society.
John Rawls is one of the most important proponents of the
Distributive Theory of Justice. In his important books, ‘A Theory
of Justice (1971)’ and ‘Political Liberalism (1993),’ he defends his
theory entitled ‘justice as fairness.’
John Rawls in his theory of justice tries to bring together both
Procedural and Substantive Justice in the liberal tradition.
Justice as fairness seeks to create an egalitarian society with free
and equal citizens.
John Rawls propose to develop a theory of justice by revising
the social contract tradition of theorizing about justice associated
with John Locke, Rousseau, and Immanuel Kant.
John Rawls believed that, if the fair procedure is followed while
determining the principle of distribution of rights, liberty, income,
wealth, and dignity in we can achieve an ideal well-ordered
society.
In his Distributive Justice, he included the idea of Desert (Talent),
Merit, and Need.

Entitlement Theory of Justice


Robert Nozick (1938–2002), an American philosopher, in his
‘Anarchy, State and Utopia (1974)’ sought, to advance an alternative to
John Rawls’s theory of justice. Robert Nozick may be described
as a ‘right liberal’ or libertarian committed to a laissez-faire ‘night
watchman’ state.
He doesn’t want the state to take part in the welfare of people.
He suggested the idea of distributive justice and welfarism
represents injustice because the government is taking away the
property and opportunities of talented and rich people for the
sake of the welfare of the poor.
He considered the ‘Progressive Taxation Policy’ as bonded
labour.
According to him, justice is when government protect the property
rightfully entitled to a person.
Redistribution of property can only be done by the state if doesn’t
verify the ‘Principles of Entitlement.’
Three Principles of Entitlements are—Just Acquisition, Just
Transfer, and Rectification.

Communitarian Theory of Justice


The communitarian perspective on justice is best understood by
contrasting it with liberal perspective. Liberalism views justice as a
system where an individual should be left free to pursue his self-interest
solely on the condition that his freedom does not come in the way of the
similar freedom of others. On the contrary, communitarians hold that an
individual finds self-fulfilment by accepting the prevalent social roles,
practices, and situations within the community and not in isolation from
his fellow beings.
Michael Sandel in ‘Liberalism and the Limits of Justice
(1982),’ particularly attacked the form of liberalism exemplified by
John Rawls’s ‘A Theory of Justice (1971).’
Liberal perspective implies that ‘the self is prior to its ends.’ On
the contrary, Michael Sandel asserted ‘that the self is not prior
to its ends,’ it is rather constituted by its ends, which are not
chosen but discovered by the self by virtue of its being embedded
in some shared social context.
Michael Walzer in his celebrated work ‘Spheres of Justice
(1983)’ enunciated a communitarian theory of justice. He claimed
that every community has different cultures and values, hence
there is a diverse understanding or sphere of justice. Distribution
of similar goods to all won’t ensure justice. The state should
distribute the social primary goods like rights, liberty, and income,
etc., according to the value and requirements of different
communities. He claimed, ‘the shared understandings in our
society require us to apply the principle of “complex equality” in
the distribution of goods.’ According to him, justice is not an
abstract concept; it is what people subscribe to.

Feminist Perspective of Justice


The feminist perspective on justice seeks the restoration of justice for
women who remained deprived of equal status and opportunities as
compared to men since the earliest times.
Susan Moller Okin in her book ‘Gender, Justice, and Family’
argues that the Gendered family, is the root cause of gender
inequality. While criticizing John Rawls’s theory of justice, she
insisted on ensuring justice at the family level.
Carole Pateman in her book ‘Sexual Contract,’ she challenged
the prominence of the male-oriented social contract tradition of
state theory which gives birth to a patriarchal and unjust state for
women.
Carole Gilligan in her book ‘In a Different Voice,’ talks about
care-based morality.

Concept of Global Justice


The concept of global justice originated in the last decade of the
twentieth century.
It means widening the scope of justice to the global level, beyond
the boundary of the state.
John Rawls also presented a wider perspective of justice in his
book ‘Law of People’ to counter cosmopolitan thinkers like
Charles Biatz and Thomas Pogge.
Thomas Pogge originated the idea of global justice in his book
‘World Poverty and Human Rights: Cosmopolitan Responsibilities
and Reforms’ where he argued that the responsibility of achieving
global justice, falls in the hands of the advantaged citizens of
affluent countries.
According to Thomas Pogge, inequality in the global resource
divide is the key factor behind poverty, hence the world
population need to join hand for a combined fight against poverty.

Amartya Sen’s Theory of Justice


Amartya Sen, in his book ‘Idea of Justice,’ has criticized John
Rawls’s Theory of Justice on the following grounds:
It is fruitless to make efforts for any ultimate idea of justice which
is acceptable to all.
He does not believe that justice is a product of procedures.
3 Main Components of his theory are:
First, he uses the elements of social choice theory and practices
public reasoning to arrive at agreed-upon issues to realize
justice at a global level. We have no need to search ideal order.
Second, instead of just rules and institutional fairness, focuses
on how justice can be realized for people across the globe.
Third, instead of building ideal global institutions, try to realize
justice by drawing strength from multiple sources—Media,
NGOs, global movements, regional associations, international
treaties/conventions, global leaders, and United Nations, etc.

List of Books and Authors:


1. Plato—The Republic, Laws
2. Aristotle—Politics
3. H. E. Marshall—Natural Justice (1959)
4. Jeremy Bentham—Theory of Legislation (1802)
5. J. S. Mill—Utilitarianism (1861)
6. Tom Bottomore—Classes in Modern Society (1955)
7. Herbert Spencer—The Man Versus The State (1884)
8. Friedrich Hayek—The Road to Serfdom (1944), The
Constitution of Liberty (1960), and Law Legislation and Liberty
(1973).
9. Milton Friedman—Capitalism and Freedom
10. Robert Nozick—Anarchy, State, and Utopia (1974)
11. John Rawls—A Theory of Justice (1971), The Laws of
People(1993), Political Liberalism (1993), and Justice as
Fairness: A Restatement (2001).
12. Michael Sandel—Liberalism and the Limits of Justice (1982)
13. Michael Walzer—Spheres of Justice: A Defense of Pluralism
and Equality (1983)
14. MacIntyre—After Virtue (1981), Whose Justice? Which
Rationality? (1988)
15. Amartya Sen—Development as Freedom (1999), The Idea of
Justice (2009)
16. Susan Moller Okin—Gender, Justice, and the Family (1989)
17. Carole Pateman—Sexual Contract (1988)
18. Carole Gilligan—In a Different Voice (1982)
19. Thomas Pogge—Global Justice (2001)

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. In his philosophy Plato has associated justice with:
(a) Duty
(b) Religion
(c) Morality
(d) Education

2. ‘Enquiry concerning Political Justice’ book is written by whom?


(a) Edmund Burke
(b) William Godwin
(c) Harold J. Laski
(d) J. S. Mill

3. ‘Justice, therefore, demands that no one should do more ruling


than being ruled, but that all should have their turn.’ Is said by?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Jay Prakash Narayan
(c) Plato
(d) Confucius

4. Who is being criticized for the revival of normative theory in politica


science in the twentieth-century?
(a) Ronald Dworkin
(b) John Rawls
(c) E. H. Carr
(d) Robert Nozick

5. Assertion (A): John Rawls criticized utilitarian justice theory


through his justice as fairness theory.
Reason (R): John Rawls was a liberal thinker.
(a) Both are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both are correct, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
6. Which of the following thinker provided a communitarian critique o
John Rawls’s Theory of Justice?
(a) Michael Sandel
(b) Robert Nozick
(c) Ronald Dworkin
(d) All of the Above

7. Which of the following thinker is associated with:

Communitarian thought
Distributive justice
Complex equality

(a) John Rawls


(b) Robert Nozick
(c) Michael Walzer
(d) MacIntyre

8. Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List-1 List-2
a. justice as one 1. Plato
person, one duty, one
class, one work
b. justice as fairness 2. Aristotle
c. justice as 3. John Rawls
proportionate equality
d. justice as interest of 4. Thrasymachus
the strong

Codes:
A b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(a) 2 1 3 4
(a) 2 1 4 3
(a) 1 3 2 4

9. Which one of the following statements is true?


(a) Social justice violates the principle of equality
(b) Social justice is derived from moral reasonableness
(c) Social justice is the negation of justice
(d) Social justice is an instrument of political manipulation

10. Assertion (A): Platonic justice represents a disposition to do


the right thing.
Reason (R): It is good to be unjust but bad to suffer injustice.
(a) Both are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both are correct, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false

11. Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List-1 (Authors) List-2 (Book)


a. Friedrich Hayek 1. The Politics
b. John Rawls 2. Idea of Justice
c. Amartya Sen 3. The Road to Serfd
d. Aristotle 4. Political Liberalism

Codes:
a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1

12. Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List-1 (Authors) List-2 (Book)


a. R. J. Bernstein 1. Spheres of Justic
b. Michael Sandel 2. The Restructuring
Social and Politica
Theory
c. Michael Walzer 3. Contemporary
Political Philosoph
d. Will Kymlicka 4. Liberalism and Lim
of Justice

Codes:
a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1

13. Which of the following is not an attribute of justice?


(a) It deals with the human being
(b) It means impartiality
(c) It means rule of law
(d) It means maintaining a discrimination

14. Social justice is the balance between.


(a) Individual rights and social control
(b) Society and individual
(c) Fundamental rights and the judicial system
(d) Individual and family

15. Who is regarded as the ‘Champion of Social Justice’ in India?


(a) M. K. Gandhi
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) J. L. Nehru

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(a) (b) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (d)
(b) (a) (d) (d)
3. 6.
9. (b)
(a) (a)
CHAPTER 12
Concept of Rights

INTRODUCTION
A state is known by the rights it maintains, proclaimed Harold J. Laski. The
philosophy of rights is the best contribution of liberal theory to political
science. The bedrock of rights lies with the US Declaration of Independence
(1776) and the French Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen
(1789). Rights are termed as guarantees provided to individuals ‘against the
arbitrary action of their state and government’. However, this individualistic
notion of rights which emerged from the writings of Thomas Hobbes and
John Locke soon got new iterations and today we are having multiple
theories and understandings of rights.

IMPORTANT DEFINITIONS
Harold J. Laski - ‘Rights are those conditions of life, without which no man,
in general, can seek to be at his best.’
T. H. Green - ‘Rights are powers necessary for the fulfilment of man’s
vocation as a moral being.’
J. S. Mill - ‘If all mankind minus one were of one opinion, mankind would
be no more justified in silencing that one person than he, if he had the power,
would be in silencing mankind.’
There are two broad categories of rights: negative rights and positive
rights. Negative rights reflect the influence of the concept of negative liberty
on the framework of rights. They are also known as ‘exclusionary’ rights
because they treat individuals as completely sovereign whereas positive
rights emphasize the need for state action to ensure the proper enjoyment of
rights. Hence, examples of negative rights include the right to free speech and
expression and the right to carry guns in America, and examples of positive
rights may consist of the right to free education and the right to equal pay for
equal work etc.

Table 12.1 Different Types of Rights

Feature Natural Right Legal Right Moral Right


s Theory Theory Theory
Sources Intuition or Laws of the State Moral and Ethical
of Rights Reason which is determine the standards of
naturally Rights. Society.
available in
humans.
Justificati # Rights are not # Right can’t be # Morality in human
on granted by the claimed and nature gives the
State but come protected without sense of right and
from the very the establishment of wrong.
nature of the the State. # Morality should be
Man. # State has the the basis of human
# Humans power to protect the action and rights.
enjoyed liberty rights. #T.H. Green —
in the state of ‘Rights emanate
nature, hence it from the moral
should be character of the
ensured by the man.’
State.
Thinkers Thomas John Salmond, Immanuel Kant
Hobbes, John John Austin, and
Locke, and Holland, Herbert T.H. Green
Thomas L. A. Hart,
Paine Pollack, and
Jeremy
Bentham

GROUP RIGHTS THEORY


Group Rights or Collective Rights are rights held by a group qua a group
rather than individually by each member. The basic idea behind Group Rights
is to consider a homogeneous group as one unit and accord rights of common
interests to that group as a whole. For example, the right of Self-
Determination to a group (Nation), the right to protection of culture to a
cultural group or the right to practice, propagate and profess their faith to a
religious group.
However, Group Rights should not be confused with the ‘group
differentiated rights’ of Will Kymlicka because ‘group differentiated rights’
are often limited to a particular group (mostly minorities) and hence, don’t
extend to the length and breadth of the broader concept of group rights. The
‘group differentiated rights’ may include the right of self-government given to
tribal communities under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

HUMAN RIGHTS AND THREE GENERATIONS OF


RIGHTS
In light of Hitler’s atrocities against Jews during World War II, the concept of
Human Rights took the central stage in global discussions. The United
Nations Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) codified this discussion
into an international pledge. Article 1 of the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights (1948) held, ‘All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and
rights…’, which clears that these rights are essentially based on the concept
of modern and secular natural rights. Human Rights represent the features of
Equality, Universality, Inalienability, Permanence, and Individuality.

International Bill of Rights = Universal Declaration of Human Rights


(1948) + International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (1966) +
International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (1966)

Three Generations of Rights — Karel Vasak


1. Civil and Political Rights (Blue Rights)
e.g. Property rights, Voting rights etc.
2. Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (Red Rights)
e.g. Right to Food, Right to Health, and Right to Social Security etc.
3. Environment and Developmental Solidarity Rights (Green Rights) –
also known as Soft Law
e.g. Right to Healthy Environment, Right to Intergenerational Equity,
and Group and Collective Rights etc.

Emerging Fourth Generation of Human Rights


For example, the Right to Digital Self-Determination, the Right to Net
Neutrality, the Right to be forgotten, and the Right to Privacy etc.

RIGHTS AS ‘TRUMPS’
Liberal egalitarian thinker Ronald Dworkin provided rights as the supreme
ideals, and they are irreplaceable and cannot be superseded by any other
rational argument. According to Ronald Dworkin, no social norm or goal
could precede rights. Rights are an inalienable and non-separable part of
humanity and stand above all other non-right objectives e.g. social prestige or
traditions.

Table 12.2 Important Books and Authors

S.No. Book Author


1 Leviathan (1651) Thomas Hobbes
2 Two Treatises on John Locke
Government (1690)
3 A Grammar of Politics Harold J. Laski
(1925)
4 Taking Rights Seriously Ronald Dworkin
(1977)
5 The International Karel Vasek
Dimensions of Human
Rights (1982)
6 Rights of Man(1791) Thomas Paine
7 Jurisprudence Or the John Salmond
Theory of the Law (1902)
8 The Province of John Austin
Jurisprudence Determined
(1832)
9 The Metaphysics of Morals Immanuel Kant
(1797)
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Who among the following is an advocate of natural rights?
(a) Edmund Burke
(b) Bentham
(c) David Hume
(d) John Locke

2. Choose the correct statement:


Assertion (A): Communitarians give more importance to group rights
than individual rights.
Reason (R): Communitarianism believes in the ‘situated self’ and
‘community dependence’ of an individual.
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) R is correct but A is not correct.

3. Who among the following discredited rights as a ‘bourgeoisie concept’ i


his work ‘On the Jewish Question’?
(a) Lenin
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Bentham
(d) J. S. Mill

4. Which of the following rights could be called a ‘Soft Law’?


(a) Right to privacy
(b) Right to vote
(c) Right to clean air
(d) Right to culture

5. Match the followings:


S.No. Concept/Book S.No. Scholar
1 Sovereign Virtue a. Karel Vasak
2 Group Differentiated b. Will Kymlicka
Rights
3 Three Generations of c. Ronald Dworkin
Rights
4 Minority Rights d. Bhikhu Parekh

(a) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d


(b) 1–b, 2–c, 3–a, 4–d
(c) 1–c, 2–b, 3–a, 4–d
(d) 1–d, 2–a, 3–b, 4–c

6. ‘To deny people their human rights are to challenge their very humanity
Who said this?
(a) M. K. Gandhi
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Martin Luther King Jr.
(d) Abraham Lincoln

7. Choose the correct statement:


1. Negative rights entail a responsibility upon the State to ensure the w
of citizens.

2. Positive rights seek absolutely no interference from the State or soc


personal sphere of an individual.

3. Group rights means the specific right of a group which are not availa
other group.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
8. According to Natural Rights Theory, rights are provided against:
1. State

2. Society

3. Fellow individuals

Choose the correct answer:


(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3

9. Choose the correct statement:


STATEMENT I: Ronald Dworkin gives the concept of ‘rights as
trumps’ because according to him rights are absolute and devoid of any
responsibility or duty.
STATEMENT II: As trumps, rights precede any social goal or
obligation.
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct.
(b) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct.
(c) Both statements are not correct.
(d) Both statements are correct.

10. United Nations Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1949

11. Match the following:

Theory Thinkers
a. Legal Rights Theory 1. Thomas Hobbes
Theory Thinkers
b. Natural Right Theory 2. Holland
c. Functional Right 3. Joseph Raz
Theory
d. Multicultural Theory of 4. Harold J. Laski
Right

Codes:
(a) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–4
(d) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1

12. Match the following:

Theories of Rights Ideas


a. Natural Rights Theory 1. Group Differentiate
Rights
b. Utilitarian Theory 2. Politics of Common
Rights Good
c. Multicultural Theory 3. Intuition or Reason
the Source of Righ
d. Communitarian Theory 4. Man has no Right
against the State

Codes:
(a) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–4
(d) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1

13. The statement ‘Rights emanate from the moral character of man’?
(a) Functional Theory of Rights
(b) Legal Theory of Rights
(c) Utilitarian Theory of Rights
(d) Moral Theory of Rights

14. Who among the following are supporters of the ‘Legal Rights Theory’?
A. T. H. Green

B. John Austin

C. John Salmond
D. Immanuel Kant
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only

15. Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect ones
regarding Rights:
i. They are recognized by society.
ii. Rights are conditional upon the performance of duties and obligatio
iii. They are only essential for the individual.
iv. Restrictions cannot be placed on the exercise of the rights.
Code:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii), and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.
(d) (c) (d) (c) (a) (c) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (d)
(a) (c) (d) (b)
3. 6.
9. (b)
(b) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

7. Option 1 is representing the perspective of positive rights and Option 2 i


representing the perspective of Negative rights hence both are incorrect
Option 3 is also incorrect because group right stand for the idea o
group-specific cultural rights to all cultural communities. All th
statements are incorrect, So the answer is D.

11. Functional Theory is related to Harold J. Laski, according to him rights


are essentially derived from a man’s duty towards society. Joseph Raz
is related to Multicultural Theory and supports the idea of Group Rights.

12. Utilitarian Theory of Rights is related to Bentham, according to him


utility of a right is decided by the State and hence, man has no rights
against the state.

15. Option (iii) is incorrect because rights are also useful for social
development and not just for an individual. Option (iv) is also incorrect
because restrictions can be placed on the rights of people for the
greater interest of society. The question is asking to select the incorrect
option. So, the answer will be B.
CHAPTER 13
Democracy

INTRODUCTION
The term democracy and the classical conception of democratic rule are
firmly rooted in Ancient Greece. The core element of democracy is self-
rule. The Greek historian Herodotus used the term ‘democracy’ in the
fifth-century BCE to mean ‘rule by the people.’ This term is derived from a
combination of two Greek words: ‘demos’, meaning ‘the people’ and
‘kratien’, meaning ‘to rule.’ However, the modern understanding of
democracy, on the other hand, is dominated by the sort of electoral
democracy that has emerged in the industrialized West, generally
referred to as liberal democracy. Democracy is not just a form of
government, it’s a way of associated living in which we respect and
tolerate diversity and share power with each other in the process of
decision-making.
Components of Democratic Culture:

1. Respect for human dignity,


2. Respecting individuality, and
3. Culture of rights, toleration, and rationalism.
‘The principle of democracy requires that different minorities (racial,
religious, linguistic, or cultural) enjoy full freedom to preserve their
cultural traits and feel fully safe.’
SOME IMPORTANT DEFINITIONS OF
DEMOCRACY
Lowell - ‘Democracy is only an experiment in government.’
Seeley - ‘Democracy as a government in which everyone has a share.’
Abraham Lincoln - ‘Democracy is a government of the people, by the
people, and for the people.’
Henry Emerson Fosdick - ‘Democracy is based upon the conviction
that there are extraordinary possibilities in ordinary people.’
Dicey - ‘Democracy is a form of government under which majority
opinion determines legislation.’
James Bryce - ‘Democracy is a rule of the people expressing their
sovereign will through votes.’
MacIver - ‘Democracy is a form of state that is merely a mode of
appointing, controlling, and dismissing a government.’
Gettel - ‘Democracy is that form of government in which the masses of
the population possesses the right to share in the exercise of sovereign
power.’

Procedural Democracy Substantive Democracy

It emphasizes only the It stands for the experience


procedures and institutions of democratic power to the
of democracy. citizen in there day to day
Limited to the procedure of life.
election. Not just limited to Political
Empowerment of the equality, but assumes a role
masses is rare. in achieving Social
Found in Western Liberal- democracy and Economic
Democratic Political System. Democracy

SIX MODELS OF DEMOCRACY BY DAVID HELD


David Held gave six models in his book ‘Models of Democracy’
published in 1987.

1. Classical Democracy—Classical democracy was direct democracy


and Athens was its epicentre.
2. Protective Democracy—Democracy is required for the protection
of rights and liberty.
Exponents: John Locke, and Bentham
3. Developmental Democracy—Democracy is necessary for the
development of a person or personality.
Exponent: J. S. Mill
4. Participatory Democracy—It means increasing the participation of
people in governance. Participatory Democracy also democratic
decentralization.
Exponent: Rousseau, Macpherson, and Carole Pateman
5. Cosmopolitan Democracy—Cosmopolitan model thinks of
democracy at the global level.
6. Marxist Model of Democracy—Dictatorship of the Proletariat,
proletarian democracy, or socialist democracy denotes a state
characterized by the dominion of the proletariat. This system is
described as a ‘pyramidal structure of direct democracy.’

TYPES OF DEMOCRACY
Direct Democracy: Direct democracy is a system of government in
which all public decisions are made at regular meetings by the whole
body of citizens. It is also referred to as Participatory Democracy.
Aristotle defined direct democracy as ‘all commanding each and each,
in turn, commanding all.’ Rousseau propounded the idea of direct
democracy as a popular sovereign in a modern sense. According to him
‘only with the participation of people that general will can be filtered.’ In a
direct democracy, the State and society become one. The major
supporters of Direct Democracy were: Rousseau, Benjamin Barber,
Nancy Fraser, and M. K. Gandhi etc.
In a direct democracy, the following principles apply:
1. People are sovereign,
2. Sovereignty is inalienable and cannot be represented,
3. People must express their general will and make decisions directly
through referendums, and
4. Decisions will be made by majority vote.

Examples of Direct Democracy: In ancient times it was achieved


in Athens and the Indian Republics. Its modern manifestation is the
referendum system followed in Switzerland in the Process of
Constitutional Amendments. ‘Gram Sabha’, as envisaged in the Seventy-
Third Constitutional Amendment (Panchayati Raj System) is an instance
of direct democracy in rural India.

Indirect Democracy: The original form of Democracy is ‘Direct


Democracy.’ With the growth of population and the rise of modern
complex societies, representative democracy becomes inevitable.
Indirect democracy or ‘representative democracy’ is where the
government is conducted by the representatives of the people, who are
elected at regular intervals. In modern times, the term ‘democracy’ is
used as a synonym of ‘representative democracy’, unless otherwise
indicated. J. S. Mill has considered representative democracy as one of
the best practicable forms of government. However, he was concerned
about representative democracy becoming a tyranny of the majority.
Hence, he proposed various reforms. One of the challenges of
representative democracy is how to ensure representativeness. Hence,
scholars have suggested models of representation and improvements in
electoral systems.

Deliberative Democracy: It is an attempt to reconcile two different


models of democratic thought: ‘Democracy as a popular rule’ and
‘Democracy as the bulwark of personal freedom.’
Democratic decision-making should include a component of
popular rule.
At the same time, it pays due regard to the personal freedom of
every individual.
It should be used to promote public debate on subjects that are
best understood through open, deliberative processes. As Pericles
said, ‘Discussion is not a stumbling block, but an indispensable
preliminary of any wise action.’
People in a deliberative democracy try to persuade each other
using a common form of reasoned reasoning, that is, by appealing
to the dominant value system.
Deliberative democracy rejects the political model in which each
individual fights for his or her own ‘self-interest’. It instead
proposes a political model in which each individual attempts to
persuade others to find a decent solution to public challenges and
the best way to secure the ‘public good.’
The major exponents of deliberative democracy are Pericles,
Joshua Cohen, Habermas, David Held, Michael Walzer,
Hannah Arendt, Bernard Manin, and J. S. Fishkin etc.

Deliberative democracy’s important concepts:

Thinker Key Concept


Amartya Sen Public Reasoning
John Rawls Overlapping Consensus
Habermas Public Sphere, Communicative Action, and Ideal
Speech Situation

Important Authors and Books:


Carole Pateman—Participation and Democratic Theory
Samuel P. Huntington—Third Wave: Democratisation in the
Twentieth Century
Jean Jack Rousseau—The Social Contract
James Bryce—Modern Democracies
C. B. Macpherson—The real world of democracy,
The life and times of liberal democracy, and
Democratic Theory–Essay in Retrieval.
J. S. Mill—Consideration on Representative Government
Alexis de Tocqueville—Democracy in America
Sartori—Democratic Theory
David Held—Models of Democracy,
Democracy and The Global Order.
Robert Dahl—A Preface to Democratic Theory,
Democracy and Its Critics, and
On Democracy.
John Plamenatz—Democracy and Illusion
Joshua Cohen—On Democracy: Towards a Transformation of
American Society

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who said, ‘A democracy is more than a form of government; it i
primarily a mode of associated living, of conjoint communicated
experience.’?
(a) Robert Dahl
(b) John Dewey
(c) Alexis de Tocqueville
(d) Friedrich Hayek

2. Which among the following is not a model of democracy suggested


by David Held?
(a) Protective Democracy
(b) Participative Democracy
(c) Liberal Democracy
(d) Cosmopolitan Democracy

3. Which of the following are the features of democracy?


(a) Democracy requires political equality.
(b) All citizens must be entitled to stand for election regardles
race, sex, colour, or religion.
(c) All citizens must possess a vote (universal adult franchise).
(d) Political equality means ‘one person one vote, one vote one va
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) (a) and (c)
(b) (a), (c), and (d)
(c) (a), (b), and (c)
(d) (a), (b), (c), and (d)

4. Which one of the following thinkers defended representative


democracy against direct democracy?
(a) John Locke
(b) Karl Marx
(c) M. A. Bakunin
(d) James Madison

5. Choose the incorrect match


(a) Samuel P. Huntington — Third Wave: Democratisation in
Twentieth Century
(b) J. S. Mill — Representative Government
(c) James Bryce — Modern Democracies
(d) A. V. Dicey — The Social Contract

6. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
Assertion (A): The system of democracy recognises the equality
of all people and stands for the government of the common people.
Reason (R): It is commonly believed that government is largely
controlled and managed by the ‘power elite.’
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

7. Deliberative Democracy is:


(a) A theory that champions exclusive human rights.
(b) A theory that puts forward the environment as the most impo
agenda.
(c) A theory that concentrates on refining the familiar framewor
liberal democracy.
(d) A theory that wants to usher in socialism by democratic means

8. Who said ‘Democracy is only an experiment in government.


(a) Lowell
(b) Abraham Lincoln
(c) J. S. Mill
(d) Dicey

9. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List – I (Authors) List – II (Books)

1. David Held 1. Participation and Democratic theory

2. Sartori 2. Models of Democracy

c.James Mill 3. Representative Democracy

d.C. Pateman 4. Democratic theory


Codes:

a b c d
( 4 3 2 1
a , , ,
)
( 2 1 3 1
b , , ,
)
( 2 4 1 3
c , , ,
)
( 4 2 3 1
d , , ,
)

10. Procedural democracy is suitable for?


(a) Anarchism
(b) Socialism
(c) Capitalism
(d) Fascism

11. Who said, ‘Man’s capacity for justice makes democracy possible,
but man’s inclination to injustice makes democracy necessary.’?
(a) Rawls
(b) Reinhold Niebuhr
(c) Friedrich Nietzsche
(d) Isaiah Berlin

12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The idea of democratic citizenship comes very
close to the concept of participatory democracy.
Reason (R): Democracy citizenship is intended to introduce an
element of full-fledged political participation.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

13. The term Democracy was first used by?


(a) Herodotus
(b) Plato
(c) Aristotle
(d) Socrates

14. Match the following:

Types of Democracy Ideas


a. Deliberative 1 Electoral Competi
.
b. Representative 2 Communicative
. Action Theory
c. Consociationalism 3 Referendum
.
d. Participatory 4 Social Cooperatio
.

(a) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4


(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–4, b–1, c–2, d–3
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4
15. Match List – I with List – II

List – I List – II (Book)

1. Macpherson I.Participation and Democratic Theory

II. The Real World of Democra


2. Arend Lijphart

C. David Held III. Democracy in plural societie


D. Carole Pateman IV. The Models of Democracy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Options:
(a) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(b) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(d) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – II

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(b) (d) (c) (c) (a) (b) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (a)
(c) (d) (a) (b)
3. 6.
9. (c)
(d) (b)
Explanation for Selected Questions

4. James Madison is an American statesman and he supported the


idea of a liberal political system and suggested a representative
model of democracy in comparison to a direct model of democracy.
CHAPTER 14
Power

INTRODUCTION
Politics is considered as the study of ‘shaping and sharing of power.’ Power is
one of the most fundamental concepts in political science. It holds the same
status in political science as money has in economics. In a general sense
concept of power links, to the ability to achieve the desired outcome
sometimes referred to as power. At an individual level, it is the individual’s
ability to impose one’s will on others. At a global level, it is the ability of a
nation or country to conduct its affairs without interference from other
countries in global politics.
Power has three important ingredients:
(a) Force,
(b) Influence, and
(c) Authority.

RELATION BETWEEN POWER AND AUTHORITY

If power is the ability to influence others’ behaviour, then authority is right to


do so.
Authority and power are intrinsically interlinked. Authority is rarely
exercised in absence of power, and power always implies some amount of
authority.
Max Weber considered authority as a form of power, a legitimate power.
Power Authority

1. It is the ability to influence. 1. It is a form of


constitutional power.
2. It is often identified with persuasion, pressure, 2. It is rightful power.
threat, coercion, or violence.
3. Constitutional overtone is absent. 3. It has both a legal and
moral overtone.

Conventional View of Power


In a conventional sense, power is considered domination. According to
Robert Dahl, power is a relational concept, power is the ability to get things
done by others even against their wish. Power is considered coercive by
nature. It includes Liberal Theory, Marxist Theory, Elitist Theory, and Pluralist
Theory of power.

Non-Conventional View of Power


Power is not considered domination but empowerment. It includes Gramsci’s
concept of Hegemony and Hannah Arendt’s concept of Acting in Concert.
Steven Luke gave a 3-dimensional view of power:
1. Power in the formal sense (Maxweber’s view),
2. Power as agenda setting (Marxist view), and
3. Power as a thought control process (Gramscian view).

ELITE THEORY VS PLURALISTIC THEORY OF


POWER

Pluralist Elitist

1. According to this theory, power in society is not 1. According to this theory,


concentrated in a single group, power is power lies within a small
distributed among various organizations or section known as elites.
associations.
2. Stress on immaterial power. 2. Stress on the material
representation of power.
3. If an individual cannot keep up with politics, 3. Only successful
their interests will be protected by interest individuals who have
groups. proven power may enter
the political system.
4. Compromise and bargaining define the 4. The superiority of the
Pluralist Theory. property-owning, upper
class define Elitist
Theory.
5. Government has a check and balance system 5. The government is
that evens out the power. comprised of a single
mind type that creates
policies.
6. Can easily be frozen in decisions by different 6. Need to elevate some
interest groups. non-elites to power
circles to appease the
masses.
7. People in decision-making positions are 7. Power is decided at the
constantly moving in and out of power. top and the masses are
uninformed.
8. It presents the Polyarchy view of Robert Dahl. 8. Pareto, Robert
Michel, Mosca, and
C. W. Mill are
important exponents.

POSTMODERN THEORY OF POWER


The foremost explanation of power from a postmodern point of view is
advanced by Michael Foucault in his book ‘Discipline and Punish’ where
he gave the social theory of power. His famous quote about power is
‘Knowledge is Power.’ His theory of power is unconventional in nature.
According to Michael Foucault, ‘Power is everywhere’ and ‘Power flows
throughout the society in the form of a network of capillaries’.
Power operates through disciplinary norms rather than through a
command-and-obedience relationship. Power is now exercised through
several institutions that organize and manage people in a complex division of
labour. These institutions include not only schools, offices, police
departments, and prisons, but also hospitals, clinics, and many welfare
organizations. Michael Foucault’s analysis of power is considered a post-
structural view of power. Instead of a macro-view of power, Michael
Foucault gives a micro-view of power. According to him, each of us is
powerful and powerless at the same time. We are under the power of
someone, and we are exercising the power on someone.

Important Definitions
H. Lasswell and A. Kaplan—‘Political science is ‘the study of the shaping
and sharing of power’
Hobbes—‘There is a general inclination of all mankind, a perpetual and
restless desire for power after power that ceased only in death.’
Bertrand Russell—‘Power denotes the ability of a person to fulfil his
desires or to achieve his objectives.’
H.V. Wiseman—‘Power is the ability to get one’s wishes carried out despite
opposition.’
Hannah Arendt—‘Only power but never violence can create legitimate
authority.’
Robert M MacIver—‘Power is the capacity to command services or
compliance of others.’
Nietzsche—‘Power is a capacity to define reality.’
Lord Acton—‘Power tends to corrupt; absolute power corrupts absolutely.’
Pareto—‘History of mankind is nothing but a graveyard of the aristocracy.’

Important Authors and Books:


Bertrand Russell—Power: A New Social Analysis
Robert MacIver—The Web of Government
Vilfredo Pareto—The Mind and Society
Gaetano Mosca—The Ruling Class
Robert Michaels—Political Parties
C. Wright Mills—The Power Elite
Robert Dahl—Who Governs?
and Dilemmas of Pluralist Democracy
Steven Lukes—Power: A Radical View
Hannah Arendt—On Violence
Michael Foucault—The Birth of the Clinic (1963),
Madness and Civilization (1969),
Discipline and Punish (1975), and
The History of Sexuality (1976)
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. In which book Michael Foucault gave his theory of power?
(a) The Birth of the Clinic
(b) Madness and Civilization
(c) Discipline and Punish
(d) The History of Sexuality

2. Who gave the concept of ‘Polyarchy’?


(a) Pareto
(b) Mosca
(c) Robert Michaels
(d) Robert Dahl

3. Choose the incorrect option.


(a) C. Wright Mills – The Power Elite
(b) Vilfredo Pareto – The Mind and Society
(c) Robert Dahl – On Violence
(d) Steven Lukes – Power: A Radical View

4. Who said ‘Power is everywhere’?


(a) Michael Foucault
(b) Steven Lukes
(c) Robert Michaels
(d) Robert Dahl

5. Which is a non-conventional theory of power?


(a) Liberal Theory
(b) Marxist Theory
(c) Pluralist Theory
(d) Post-Modern Theory
6. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code
given below:

List – I (Authors) List – II (Books)


a. Pareto 1. The Power Elite
b. Robert Michael 2. Political Parties
c. Robert Dahl 3. The Mind and Soci
d. C. Wright Mill 4. Who Governs?

Codes:

a b c d
(a) 2 3 1 4
, , ,
(b) 3 2 4 1
, , ,
(c) 1 3 4 2
, , ,
(d) 4 2 1 3
, , ,

7. Who gave the concept of ‘Power Elite’?


(a) Pareto
(b) C. Wright Mills
(c) Robert Michael
(d) Robert Dahl

8. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code
given below:

List – I (Authors) List – II (Concept)


a. Pareto 1. Circulation of Elite
List – I (Authors) List – II (Concept)
b. Robert Michael 2. Polyarchy
c. Robert Dahl 3. Power Elite
d. C. Wright Mill 4. Iron Law of Oligarc

Codes:

a b c d
(a) 1 2 4 3
, , ,
(b) 1 4 2 3
, , ,
(c) 4 2 1 3
, , ,
(d) 1 2 3 4
, , ,

9. Which view of power considers power as empowerment?


(a) Conventional View
(b) Non-conventional View
(c) Both A and B
(d) None

10. Choose the incorrect option about Michael Foucault’s conception of


power:
(a) Power is considered a post-structural view of power.
(b) Michael Foucault gives a macro-view of power.
(c) Michael Foucault conception of power is multi-directional.
(d) Power is everywhere.

11. Which among the following statements are related to the Non-
Conventional View of Power?
(a) Power tends to corrupt; absolute power corrupts absolutely.
(b) Power is the ability to get things done by others even against
wish.
(c) each of us is powerful and powerless at the same time.
Code:
(a) Only (a) and (c)
(b) Only (b)
(c) Only (c)
(d) All of the above

12. Who among the following are not supporters of the Elite Theory of
Power?
A. C. Wright Mills

B. Robert Dahl

C. Robert Michel
D. Gramsci
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and D only
(d) C and D only

13. Match the following:

Theory Thinkers
a. Pluralist Theory of 1. Hannah Arendt
Power
b. Sociological view of 2. Robert Dahl
power
c. Participative view of 3. Mosca
power
d. Elite Theory of Power 4. Michel Foucault
Codes:
(a) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–4
(d) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3

14. The statement ordinary people do not enjoy power as an individual, but
as a member of a particular association or interest group is related to:
(a) Sociological Theory of Power
(b) Marxist Theory of Power
(c) Elite Theory of Power
(d) Pluralist Theory of Power

15. Which among the following statement represents the Participative


Theory of Power?
(a) Political power is the outcome of Economic power.
(b) There is no trickle-down effect of power.
(c) Power is ‘acting in concert with each other.’
(d) Where there is power, there is resistance.

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(c) (a) (b) (b) (c) (c) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (d)
(d) (d) (b) (c)
3. 6.
9. (b)
(c) (b)
CHAPTER 15
Citizenship

INTRODUCTION
Citizenship denotes the status of an individual as a full and
responsible member of a political community. It is the status of a
person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal
member of a sovereign state or a nation.
Citizenship is the relationship between an individual and the
state. Thus citizens must fulfil their duties and obligations toward
the state as the state grants them civil, political, and social rights.
Hence citizenship implies a two-way relationship between an
individual and the state.

IMPORTANT DEFINITIONS
Aristotle—‘who has the power to take part in the deliberative or
judicial administration of any state is said by us to be a citizen of
that state.’
Gettel—‘Citizenship is the status of an individual due to which
he enjoys civil and political rights in the state and is ready to fulfil
his obligations.’
Harold J. Laski—‘citizenship is the contribution of one’s
instructed judgment to the public good.’
William Boyd said that ‘citizenship consists in the right ordering
of loyalties.’
T. H. Marshall defines Citizenship as, ‘full and equal
membership in a political community.’

WHO IS A CITIZEN?
There are two types of citizenship.
1. Citizenship by birth (Jus Sanguinis)—if one or both of a
person’s parents are citizens of a given state, then the person
may have the right to be a citizen of that state.
2. Born within a country (Jus Soli)—those people which are born in
the given state will automatically become citizens of that state.
This form originated in England.

THEORIES OF CITIZENSHIP

Liberal Theory of Citizenship


T. H. Marshall is regarded as the chief exponent of this theory.
In his Citizenship and Social Class (1950), T. H. Marshall
observed that citizenship prescribes equal rights and duties,
liberties and constraints, and power and responsibilities for
different individuals.
According to this theory, civil rights constitute the foundation of
citizenship.
T. H. Marshall includes 3 components in the structure of
citizenship
John Rawls too contributed to this theory by arguing for the
redistribution of goods and services to benefit the least
advantaged sections of society.

Libertarian Theory of Citizenship


Robert Nozick is the chief exponent of this theory.
Libertarians say that citizenship is the product of free choice and
contract among individuals.
It consists of market society as its basis and a suitable model of
civic life.
Libertarian citizenship can be traced to the government of
Margaret Thatcher in 1979 Britain, who gave more
importance to market rights than social rights.
In his book Anarchy, State and Utopia (1974) Robert Nozick
observed that individuals resort to private activity, market
exchange and voluntary association to realize their values,
beliefs, and preferences.
In a libertarian sense, citizen means a rational consumer of public
goods.

Marxist Theory of Citizenship


Anthony Giddens is the chief exponent of this theory.
In his two important works, A Contemporary Critique of Historical
Materialism (1981) and Profiles and Critiques of Social Theory
(1982) Anthony Giddens contradicted T. H. Marshall’s view
to bring forth his viewpoint.
According to this theory, those rights which are connected to
citizenship are the by-product of the class conflict.
In The Nation State and Violence (1985) Anthony Giddens
argues that contemporary capitalism is different from nineteenth-
century capitalism because it has been shaped by labour
movements.
So Anthony Giddens has brought welfare capitalism into
focus which takes care of the civil rights of the workers.
Anthony Giddens revised the Marxist perspective and
concluded that citizenship rights can be maintained in a liberal
framework.

Communitarian View of Citizenship


The exponents of this theory include:
Hannah Arendt (The Human Condition, 1958)
Michael Walzer (Spheres of Justice, 1983)
Benjamin Barber (Strong Democracy,1984)
The main theme of this theory is that a citizen should identify
himself with the community of which he is a member and take an
active part in his political life. Then only he can contribute
substantially to the realization of the common interest.
The main feature of communitarian citizenship is ‘citizen
participation’ in the welfare of society. The individual does not
exist prior to society.
Hence unlike the liberals, who focus on the individual,
communitarian citizenship gives more importance to group rights.

Feminist View of Citizenship


Feminist critics of citizenship argue that even after getting full
citizenship in law, women continue to suffer from subjection in
their social life.
Feminists argue that women are second-class citizens’ the world
over due to the dominance of men in civil, political, cultural, and
social spheres of life.
J. S. Mill said that ‘an egalitarian family is a much more fertile
ground for equal citizens than one organized like a school for
despotism.’
Feminist scholars like Iris Marion Young suggest that the
state should go for differentiation between Men and Women to
understand the disadvantages that women face and should try to
compensate for disadvantages.
Feminists, therefore, argue that unless the conditions of equal
participation of women in public life are not fulfilled, the concept
of citizenship cannot be brought to its logical conclusion.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who is the author of the book ‘Citizenship and Social Class.’?
(a) Anthony Giddens
(b) T. H. Marshall
(c) Robert Dahl
(d) Hannah Arendt

2. Which theory of citizenship is also called as Republican Theory o


Citizenship?
(a) Liberal Theory
(b) Libertarian Theory
(c) Marxist Theory
(d) Communitarian Theory

3. ‘Capitalism inevitably involves inequalities between social classes


while citizenship involves some redistribution of resources
because of rights which are shared equally by all’ who said this?
(a) T. H. Marshall
(b) Aristotle
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Robert Owen

4. Assertion (A) - T. H. Marshall argues that civil rights constitute


the foundation of citizenship.
Reason(R) - T. H. Marshall was the chief exponent of the
Libertarian Theory of Citizenship.
(a) Both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) R is true but A is false

5. Which theory of citizenship treats the rights associated with


citizenship as the product of class conflict?
(a) Marxist Theory
(b) Liberal Theory
(c) Feminist Theory
(d) Communitarian Theory

6. Match List – 1 with List – 2 and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List – 1 (Authors) List – 2 (Book)

1. T. H. Marshall 1. the nation-state and violence

2. John Rawls 2. citizenship and social class

c.Anthony Giddens 3. the human condition


d.Hannah Arendt
4. Political Liberalism

Codes.

a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
, , ,
(b) 2 1 3 4
, , ,
(c) 2 4 1 3
, , ,
(d) 3 4 2 1
, , ,

7. The book ‘Strong Democracy’ is written by whom?


(a) Michael Walzer
(b) Harold Laski
(c) Robert Dahl
(d) Benjamin Barber

8. Which of the given statements is not true?


(a) Robert Nozick belongs to the libertarian school of thought.
(b) Marshall includes 3 components (civil, political, and social) in
structure of citizenship.
(c) Communitarian thinkers give more importance to an indivi
rather than a community.
(d) The Feminist Theory of Citizenship asks for differentiated r
for men and women.

9. ‘Education, the bread of the soul, is the first condition of healthy


citizenship.’ This statement is given by:
(a) Aristotle
(b) Plato
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) Harold J. Laski

10. Assertion (A): Marxist theory argues that rights which are
connected to citizenship are the by-product of class conflict.
Reason(R): Marxist thinkers believe that a state is a tool for the
exploitation of the lower class.
(a) Both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) R is true but A is false

11. Which theory talks about the gender-sensitive dimension of


citizenship?
(a) Marxist Theory
(b) Feminist Theory
(c) Liberal Theory
(d) Communitarian Theory

12. Who defines a citizen as sharing ‘in the civic life of ruling and
being ruled in turn.’?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Cicero
(c) Plato
(d) Socrates

13. Who suggests that the state should go for differentiation between
Men and Women to understand the disadvantages that women
face and should try to compensate for disadvantages?
(a) M. P. Follett
(b) Iris Marion Young
(c) J. S. Mill
(d) Mary Wollstonecraft

14. Match List – 1 with List – 2 and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List-1 List-2

1. T. H. Marshall 1. Pluralistic Theory of Citizenship

2. David Held 2. Liberal Theory of Citizenship

c.Anthony Giddens 3. Communitarian Theory

d.Hannah Arendt 4. Marxist Theory of Citizenship

Codes:

a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
, , ,
(b) 2 1 4 3
, , ,
(c) 2 4 1 3
, , ,
(d) 3 4 2 1
, , ,

15. Which among the following theory rejected the concept of formal
equality as a basis of citizenship?
(a) Marxist Theory of Citizenship
(b) Liberal Theory of Citizenship
(c) Feminist Theory of Citizenship
(d) Pluralist Theory of Citizenship

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(b) (c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (b)
(d) (a) (c) (b)
3. 6.
9. (c)
(a) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Communitarian Theory of Citizenship is also known as the


Republican Theory of Citizenship because it argues that when
citizens actively participate in the affairs of the state, it ensures the
power structure is based on the wishes of people and hence
citizenship represents a phenomenon of community participation
and not just individual enjoyment of liberty.

4. Reason statement is incorrect because T. H. Marshall is related to


liberal theory and not libertarian theory. Robert Nozick is one of the
key proponents of this Libertarian Theory of Citizenship.

8. Communitarian thought gives importance to Community based


rights and counters the Liberal Theory of Individualism.

15. According to feminist thinkers, a gender-blind or formal sense of


equal citizenship rights won’t be enough for achieving an equal
society for women. Iris Marion Young introduced the idea of
Differentiated Citizenship.
Previous Years’ Questions

1. Who among the following held the view that political theory was
political science in the full sense and there could be no science
without theory. … so political theory may legitimately and accurately be
used as synonymous with political science? (2015)
(a) Germino
(b) Wolin
(c) Crick
(d) Hacker

2. Which of the following is not a reason for the decline of political


theory? (2015)
(a) Positivism
(b) Moral relativism
(c) Historicism
(d) Normativism

3. Who among the following described the welfare state as a kind of


enslavement? (2015)
(a) Rawls
(b) T.H. Green
(c) Michael Walzer
(d) R. Nozick

4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2015)
Assertion (A): Rule of law implies equality of all in the eyes of law.
Reason (R): Class and caste distinctions dilute the efficacy of
equality.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.

5. Which one of the following contradictions is not true in case of


Lenin? (2016)
(a) Contradictions between labour and capital.
(b) Contradictions between imperialists competing for world markets
raw materials.
(c) Contradictions between illusion and perceptions.
(d) Contradictions between colonial peoples and imperialists.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (a) and (b)
(b) (b) and (d)
(c) (c) only
(d) (a) and (d)

6. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2016)
Assertion (A): Karl Marx was not the first socialist writer of the 19th
century.
Reason (R): The idea of the class war was spread by St. Simon and
Guizot.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

7. Which one of the following political ideologies has longer history?


(2016)
(a) Marxism
(b) Socialism
(c) Liberalism
(d) Feminism

8. Marxism is considered as a Utopia (2016)


(a) Generous and a humane one
(b) Anti-capitalist and prodemocracy
(c) Restrictive and class oriented
(d) Anti-imperialist and pro authoritarian

9. Rawls arranges the principles of justice in ‘lexical priority’ in this


order: (2016)
(a) Fair Equality of Opportunity, the Difference Principle and Li
Principle
(b) Liberty Principle, Fair Equality of Opportunity and the Differ
Principle
(c) Difference Principle, Fair Equality of Opportunity and Liberty Princi
(d) None of the above

10. Which of the following statement/s is/are not true? (2017)


(a) Post-Marxism denounced the inadequacy of a linear philosoph
history.
(b) Post-Marxism incorporates the theory of market socialism.
(c) There is no difference between classical Marxism and Post-Marxis
(d) Post-Marxism revolves around a number of direct and indirect criti
of Marxist intellectual thought.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (a) and (b)
(b) (b) and (d)
(c) (c) only
(d) (d) only

11. Which of the following statements of John Rawl’s theory of Justice


is not true? (2017)
(a) It is primarily concerned with the issue of distributive justice.
(b) Justice as fairness is a theory designed to apply the ‘basic structu
the political, social and economic institutions of society.
(c) The first principle of justice is equal basic liberty principle.
(d) The one of the conditions of the second principle is indiffer
principle.

12. ‘Hegemony’ refers to (2017)


(a) economic exploitation
(b) structural inequality
(c) the capacity of bourgeoisie to displace rival views and becom
effect. the common sense of the age
(d) military domination

13. Who among the following is NOT a key figure of ‘Conservatism?


(2017)
(a) T.H. Green
(b) Edmund Burke
(c) Michael Oakshott
(d) Fredrich Von Hayek

14. Karl Marx, the founder of Marxism, formally was the citizen of
which one of the following countries? (2018)
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) UK
(d) None of the above

15. Which of the following statement/s is/are not true? (2018)


(a) The term “Liberalism has been in use since the 14th century.
(b) Liberal ideas resulted from the breakdown of the feudalism in Euro
(c) Liberals criticised the political and economic privileges of the lan
aristocracy.
(d) Liberals are committed to the importance of individual freedom an
the principles of individualism.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (a) and (b)
(b) (b) and (c)
(c) (a) only
(d) (c) and (d)

16. Who among the following holds the view that democratic parties
are really oligarchical structures ? (2018)
(a) Robert Michels
(b) Robert Dahl
(c) Harold Lasswell
(d) C Wright Mills

17. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
Author Books
(A)Robert A. Dahi i.Democracy and Disagreement
(B)Iris Marion Young ii.Discursive Democracy: Politics,
Policy and Political Science
(C)John Dryzek iii. Inclusion a
Democrac
(D)Amy Gutmann & iv. Democracy and its Critics
Dennis Thomson

Codes:
(a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(b) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

18. Who has defined political theory as a cure science ? (2018)


(a) KrickPattrik
(b) Alfred Cobban
(c) Harold Lasswell
(d) Robert Dahl

19. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? (2018)


1. Dependency theory — Samir Amin

2. Liberal theory of development — Lucian Pye

3. Theory of alienation — Karl Marx

4. Theory of negative liberty — John Rawls

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. The philosophy of natural rights had depended on: (2018)


(a) Ethical theory
(b) Political self-consciousness
(c) Authority rationalism
(d) Revolutionary era

21. Who among the following said, “Political behavior stands for both
an intellectual tendency and a concrete academic movement”?
(2019)
(a) Dahl
(b) G.A. Almond
(c) Arthur Bentley
(d) David Easton

22. Among the following who is associated with the revival of Political
Theory ? (2019)
(a) David Easton
(b) Lucian Pai
(c) Sydney Verba
(d) Voegelin

23. Which of the following is not a characteristics of Marxist


constitutional system ? (2019)
(a) Open Market System
(b) Public Ownership over means of production
(c) Supermacy of the interests of the working class
(d) Classless society

24. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer
from the codes given below. (2020)
Assertion (A): Behavioural political theory sought to eliminate the
role of values and make Political Science a pure science and
quantitative.
Reason (R): Political Science, being a social science, can never be
value-free as it deals with human beings who are value - bound.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

25. Classical liberalism grew out of the struggle between: (2020)


(a) labour and bourgeoisie
(b) capitalists and feudalists
(c) middle class and the down trodden
(d) aristocracy and commoners

26. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (2020)


(a) Classical political theory — Value oriented
(b) Empirical political theory — Value oriented
(c) Empirical political theory — Anti-positivism
(d) Classical political theory — Anti-historicism
27. Which among the following is NOT a salient feature of ‘individualist
anarchism’? (2020)
(a) Private property
(b) Ultra liberalism
(c) Civil disobedience
(d) Organicism

28. Arrange the works of Karl Marx in ascending order: (2020)


(a) The capital (Das Capital)
(b) The Communist Manifesto
(c) The Critique of the Gotha Programme
(d) The Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(b) (c), (a), (b), (d)
(c) (b), (a), (c), (d)
(d) (d), (b), (c), (a)

Directions: Read the passage and answer the 5 questions below: (2020)
From this perspective of democracy, representation can help or hurt
democracy, even if representation cannot be democratic since it cannot
replicate the demos. But the phenomenon of representation reflects an
emotional roller — coaster — great hopes during an election campaign; great
disappointment from the work of governments in office. This problem stems in
part from the fact that representative government and the demos potentially
operate at cross — purposes. The office of a representative results from
elections, which elevate a set of political rulers above the ruled in order to
make the laws. In office, they make compromises to get legislative business
done. Representatives may feel proud of what they accomplished, because
they made the decisions that led to the compromise. But citizens can’t take
pride in legislative work. and they mostly suffer the consequences required by
the compromise. That doesn’t mean representatives always will be scorned;
as mentioned above, their office enables them to undertake political initiatives
not viable during an election campaign or to protect minorities whose needs
may have been neglected.
That said, the necessary activity of legislative compromise takes place
above the heads and behind the backs of the people. As such, it contradicts
the ‘Athenian and Aristotelian understanding of democracies as political
orders that depend on the deliberative and decisive power of citizens (i.e., the
demos) acting with authoritative power. Citizens of the Athenian democracy
were said to rule and be ruled in turn. but in every case their power required
the political presence and deliberative action of citizens.

29. Which of the following is reflected in the phenomenon of


representation?
(a) Great hopes during an election campaign
(b) Great appreciation for the work of government in office
(c) Great promises from the representative democracy
(d) Great challenges from Hebraization, privatisation and globalisation

30. What is the obvious outcome of an election?


(a) Career of a leader
(b) Ministerial birth of a politician
(c) Office of a representative
(d) Future prospects of a budding activist

31. Athenian and Aristotelian understanding of democracies means


(a) Political orders depending on the deliberative powers of citizens
(b) Political system rooted in grassroot politics
(c) System of government prevalent in Greek city states
(d) Western conceptualization of democracy

32. What takes place above the heads and behind the backs of the
people?
(a) Executive arrogance
(b) Judicial activism
(c) Parliamentary sovereignty
(d) Legislative compromise

33. Why could have representatives felt proud of what they accomplished?
(a) They made the decisions for their followers
(b) They made the decisions that led to the compromise
(c) They made a level jump in their career progression
(d) They made their adversaries compromise with their core values

Directions: Read the passage and answer the 5 questions: (2020)


Ronald Dworkin’s thesis is that some of the rights people have are
fundamental. but many are not. They are fundamental because they are ‘the
rights against the state’. Dworkin says that the notion of rights as trumps
“marks the distinctive concept of an individual right against the state which is
the heart… of constitutional theory in the United States.” In the special
supplement. Dworkin argued that the concept of right against the government
becomes most useful particularly when the society is divided on racial lines
into majority and minority. The right to freedom of speech and religious
freedom belong to this category.
Therefore, they are strong rights. He asserts that these rights should be
permitted and they should not be interfered or banned. These freedoms are to
be allowed even if the welfare of the collectivity is infringed.
On the contrary, he also presupposes a large area of rights where the
state can make legislations curtailing those rights to achieve common welfare.
They can be called weak rights. Right to liberty for example becomes a weak
right against right to equality. a strong right. This at the outset may look
contradictory. but it is not. For example. restraining the movement on the
roads for safety and smooth traffic movement does not mean restraining the
rights. on the other hand, putting a restriction on publication or restraining the
freedom of speech will infringe the rights even if it enhances general welfare.
Thus. even though in both cases rights are involved, curtailment of one is
justified, whereas the other is not.

34. The rights claimed against the state are considered as


(a) Fundamental rights
(b) Human rights
(c) Natural rights
(d) Legal rights

35. The idea of right against the government becomes very useful when
the society is divided into majority and minority on the basis of
(a) Caste
(b) Class
(c) Race
(d) Religion

36. The strong rights need to be


(a) inferred
(b) permitted
(c) borrowed
(d) ordained

37. Which of the following is a weak right?


(a) Right to property
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to liberty
(d) Right to religious freedom

38. The rights that can be curtailed to achieve common welfare may be
called as:
(a) Strong rights
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Human rights
(d) Weak rights

39. The immigrating ethnic cultural groups which never get opportunity
to become citizens under multiculturalism are called: (2020)
(a) Metics
(b) National minorities
(c) Immigrant groups
(d) Isolationist ethno-religious groups

40. ‘Imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism’. Whose statement is


this? (2020)
(a) V I Lenin
(b) Joseph Stalin
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Georg Lukacs
41. Communitarian theory lays emphasis on: (2020)
(a) Community as an inescapable ideal
(b) Unlimited freedom of the individual
(c) Limited role of the state
(d) Partial regulation of market economy

42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from codes
given below (2020)

List I List II
(Concept) (Thinkers)

1. Multi-culturalism 1. Friedrik A. Hayek

2. Post-modernism 2. Bhikhu Parekh

c.Libertariansim 3. Amitai Etzioni

d.Communitarianism 4. Michel Foucault

Codes:
(a) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(b) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(c) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
(d) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

43. Match the items of List-I with items of List-II by selecting the correct
answer from the codes: (2020)

List I List II
(Thinker) (Theories)
(A)Mao Tse (i)Proletarian
Tung Dictatorship
(B)Lenin (ii) Cultural Revolution
(C)Marx (iii) One Country Socialism
(D)Stalin (iv) Communist Part as the Vanguard of
proletariat

Codes:
(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

44. Ideology which does not accept the three rights of individual - Life,
Liberty and property, is (2020)
(a) Classical Liberalism
(b) Utilitarianism
(c) Neoliberalism
(d) Marxism

45. Materialistic interpretation of history was analyzed by: (2020)


(a) Hegal
(b) T.H. Green
(c) Kant
(d) Marx

46. Which of the following are the schools of “New Right Ideology”?
(2021)
(A) Austrian school
(B) Chicago school
(C) Frankfurt school
(D) New York school
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and C only

47. Match List I with List II (2021)

List I List II
(A)Catherine I.Feminism is for
MacKinnon Everybody
(B)Susan Moller II.The Dialectic of Sex
Okin
(C)S. Firestone III. Toward a Feminist Theo
of State
(D)Bell Hook IV.Justice, Gender and the
Family

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(b) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(c) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(d) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

48. Arrange ideological focus of the Feminist movement under different


stages in chronological order (2021)
(A) Focus on right to vote for women
(B) Focus on social and economic equality
(C) Focus on culture and context
(D) Focus on Ecofeminism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) D, C, B, A
(c) B, C, D, A
(d) C, B, A, D
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the 5 questions given
below (2021)
Like in many other areas, even with regard to the question of
women, Marx made Hegel the starting point. Hegel regarded women as
inferior, with less reasoning abilities, seeing the natural differences between
men and women as immutable. Marx did not say much on the role and
position of women. He took it for granted that Socialism would bring about
their emancipation. In the German Ideology and the Capital, he spoke of the
natural and spontaneous division of labour within the family. The natural
relationship paved the way for social one, and the first property relationship
was the one when the man regarded his wife and children as his slaves. The
man had power over them, and could do with their labour as he chose, though
Marx did not explain how this came about. Marx did not focus his attention on
the position and role of women.
Engels, in the Origins, provided a materialist account of the origins of
patriarchy, and linked women’s subordination with the rise of private property.
In the Holy Family, Marx and Engels observed that the degree of
emancipation of women could be used as a standard by which one could
measure general emancipation. Marx reiterated this view in a letter to Dr. L.
Kugelmann in 1868 that social progress could be assessed exactly by the
social position of women. In 1845, Marx warned against treating the family
regardless of its specific historic setting. In his criticism of Max Stirner (1805-
1856), he observed that it was a misconception to speak of the family without
qualification. Historically, the bourgeoisie endowed the family with the
characteristics of the bourgeois family, whose ties were boredom and money.

49. According to Karl Marx, women emancipation can be judged from


which of the following?
(a) Division of Labour
(b) Means of Production
(c) Class Character
(d) General Emancipation

50. Prior to Marx, which political thinker had a gender bias in his/her
writings?
(a) Hegel
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) Plato
(d) Mary Wollstonecraft
51. Write the full name of Engels’ book “Origins”?
(a) The origins of Family and the State
(b) The origins of Family and Private Property
(c) The origins of the Family, Private Property and the State
(d) The origins of Family and State Property

52. Social position of women vis-a-vis family can be judged by which


nature of the family?
(a) Educational background
(b) Historical setting
(c) Number of family members
(d) Income of the family

53. What has been the general understanding about women’s


emancipation under Marxian philosophy?
(a) Marx understood the women’s position very correctly
(b) Marx did not analyse women’s condition beyond socialism
(c) Due to class division, women got inferior status
(d) Men and women had equal status

54. Who among the following are postmodernist thinkers? (2021)


(A) Michel Foucault
(B) Levi Strauss
(C) Jean Francois Lyotard
(D) John Rawls
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and C only
(d) C and D only

55. Shallow Ecologists believed in: (2021)


(A) Health and prosperity of people
(B) Antigrowth
(C) Sustainable growth
(D) Ecocentrism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) B and D only

56. Who among the following has dubbed Marxism as a totalitarian


doctrine? (2021)
(A) Karl Popper
(B) Isaiah Berlin
(C) Hannah Arendt
(D) Antonio Gramsci
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and C only

57. Which of the following books are NOT written by Confucius?


(2021)
(A) Books of Changes
(B) Books of Animals
(C) Books of Songs
(D) Books of Summers and Winters
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) B and D only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only
58. Match List I with List I (2021)

List I List II
Author Books
(A)E. F. I.The Silent Spring
Schumacher
(B)James II.The Turning Point
Lovelock
(C)F. Capra III. Gaia: A New Lo
at Life on Earth
(D)Rachel IV.Small is Beautiful: A Study of
Carson Economics as if People Mattered

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(b) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(c) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(d) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

59. Arrange the phases of evolution of Liberalism in ascending order:


(2021)
(A) Positive Liberalism
(B) Egalitarianism
(C) Negative Liberalism
(D) Libertarianism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) D, C, A, B
(c) C, A, B, D
(d) C, B, A, D

60. Which one of the following statements is true? (2021)


(a) No rights can be given to a man against the social interest
(b) Grant of Rights has no concern with social interest
(c) Rights can have anti-social character
(d) Rights are a selfish claim

61. In which aspect does Modern Liberalism NOT believe? (2021)


(a) Social liberalism
(b) Positive freedom
(c) Cradle to grave welfare
(d) Minimal state

62. How was early liberalism characterised by C . B . Macpherson?


(2021)
(a) Possessive liberalism
(b) Welfarist
(c) Altruistic
(d) Developmental

63. Which one of the following theories is NOT related to Marx? (2021)
(a) Theory of Alienalism
(b) Theory of Surplus Value
(c) Dictatorship of Proletariat
(d) Origin of the Family, Private Property and the State

64. Who among the following are not supporters of positive liberty?
(2021)
(A) T. H. Green
(B) John Locke
(C) Harold Laski
(D) Jeremy Bentham
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and D only
(c) A and C only
(d) C and D only

What are the central beliefs of conservatism?


65. (2021)
(A) Tradition
(B) Hierarchy and Authority
(C) Social Darwinism
(D) Social Liberalism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) A and B only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and D only

66. Will Kymlica is the pioneer of which rights? (2021)


(a) Political Rights
(b) Legal Rights
(c) Natural Rights
(d) Cultural Rights

67. Who amongst the following is a positive liberalist? (2021)


(a) H. J. Laski
(b) Milton Friedman
(c) Robert Nozick
(d) Herbert Spencer

68. Who considered democracy as a type of society in which political


elites are recruited from different social strata on the basis of
individual merit? (2021)
(a) C . W. Mills
(b) S. R. Maheshwari
(c) T. B . Bottomore
(d) Robert Michels

69. “Political power grows out of the barrel of a gun”, whose statement
is this? (2021)
(a) Stalin
(b) Mao Zedong
(c) Machiavelli
(d) Hobbes

70. Which one of the following is NOT the basic feature of Post-
Modernism? (2021)
(a) It believes in deconstruction
(b) It is concerned with the concept of feminity
(c) It challenges the accepted theory of International Relations
(d) It is incredulity towards metanarrative

Answer Key

1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61.


(a) (d) (d) (a) (a) (c) (d)
2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62.
(d) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (a)
3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63.
(d) (a) (a) (b) (a) (b) (d)
4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64.
(b) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c) (b)
5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65.
(b) (c) (c) (c) (d) (a) (b)
6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66.
(a) (a) (a) (b) (a) (d) (d)
7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67.
(c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (b) (a)
8. 18. 28. 38. 48. 58. 68.
(a) (c) (d) (d) (a) (c) (c)
9. 19. 29. 39. 49. 59. 69.
(b) (d) (a) (a) (d) (c) (b)
10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70.
(c) (a) (c) (a) (a) (a) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. In his 1963 article “The Revival of Political Theory” Dante Germino hel
the view that political theory was political science in the full sense an
there could be no science without theory. … so political theory ma
legitimately and accurately be used as synonymous with politica
science.
Hence, the answer will be A.

2. As discussed by Alfred Cobban in his article “The Decline of Politica


Theory” published in 1953, historicism, positivism and moral relativism
are three important factors which led to decline of normative politica
theory. Same views have been advocated by David Easton and Ka
Popper.
Hence, the answer will be D.

5. Contradictions between imperialists competing for world markets an


raw materials and contradictions between colonial peoples an
imperialists are not true according to Vladimir Illych Lenin.
Hence, the answer will be B.

7. Liberalism has a longer history than most political ideologies. Liberalism


usually divided in to two phases- Classical Liberalism and Moder
Liberalism. Liberty for ancients consisted in an active and constan
participation in collective power whereas for moderns it consisted i
peaceful enjoyment and private independence. Ancients and classica
liberalism emphasize happiness come from an active engagement i
collective life within the political community.

8. Sabine critic Marxism as a ‘Utopia but a generous and humane one


Marx’s vision for a new social order where there is no alienation, n
exploitation, no classes, no class antagonism, a stateless society. I
communist society everything would run under the banner ‘From eac
according to his ability, to each according to his needs.
10. Post-Marxism is a modified version of Marxist theory and ideology. It
was developed mostly during the early and mid 20th century. Important
scholars of post-Marxism or neo-marxism include Gramsci, Althusser,
Poulantzas, Rosa Luxemburg etc. Post Marxists tried to take Marxism
further away from economic determinism of Karl Marx. They criticised
Marx’s obsession with linear historical understanding and economic
reductionism. They also supported the theory of market socialism in the
initial phase of Marxist revolution. So, there is a significant difference in
thinking of post-marxists viz-a-viz classical Marxists.
Hence, the answer will be C.

20. Philosophy of Natural rights is not dependent on the laws or customs of


any particular culture or government. Natural rights are universal and
inalienable. Natural rights cannot be repealed by human laws. Ethical
theory of political philosophy enforces philosophy of natural rights.

21. David Easton has said that, “Political Behaviour stands for both an
intellectual tendency and a concrete academic movement”. David
Easton started the concept of behaviouralism in the study of political
systems. Thus, option D is the correct answer.

24. Behaviouralism emerged in 1950’s and 1960’s to move away from


conventional way of analysing political science. Behaviouralism
promoted factual analysis and studies the observable and measurable
behaviour of society and humans beings. However, political science
discipline still acknowledge the value-laden approach.

25. Liberalism as a transforming force erupted in West with feudal system


abolished, challenge to divine rights of kings. Emergence of middle
class which employing every measure to expand means of production.
Liberalism usually divided in to two phases- Classical Liberalism and
Modern Liberalism. Liberty for ancients consisted in an active and
constant participation in collective power whereas for moderns it
consisted in peaceful enjoyment and private independence.

27.

Individualist anarchism is the branch of anarchism that


emphasizes the individual and their will over exterior determinants
such as groups, society, traditions, and ideological systems.
Although usually distinguished to social anarchism, both individualist
and social anarchism have influenced each other.
Organicism is the philosophical situation which states that the
universe and its diverse parts—including human societies—should
to be considered alive and naturally ordered, much like a living
organism.

39. Will Kymlicka in his book ‘Multicultural Citizenship: A Liberal Theory of


Minority’ had mention four key ethnic cultural group viz. national
minorities, indigenous peoples, immigrants, and metics. Immigrating
ethnic cultural groups which never get opportunity to become citizens
are called metics. So, option A is the correct answer.

46. The New Right refers to the movement of American conservatives in


the 1970s and 1980s that rose up in opposition to liberal policies on
taxes, abortion, affirmative action, as well as foreign policy stances on
the Soviet Union. This movement lent substantial support to the
Republican Party, leading to Republicans winning control of the U.S.
Senate in 1980 and the election of Ronald Reagan as 40th president of
the United States the same year. Austrian and Chicago Schools are
important strands in New Right Ideology.
Hence, the correct answer will be A.

68. In his classic text “Elites and Society”, Tom Bottomore poses
fundamental questions about the theory and ideology of elites. While a
number of theorists have studied the “power elite,” the Marxist notion of
a ruling class, many more have followed the theories of Pareto and
Mosca, who use the term “elite” to critique Marxism, the very
philosophy from which this concept first originated. Their theories thus
exemplify the complexities and slipperiness particular to this
sociological term.
Hence, the correct answer will be C.
UNIT II
Political Thought

Chapter 1: Confucius (551–479 BCE)


Chapter 2: Plato
Chapter 3: Aristotle
Chapter 4: Niccolò Machiavelli
Chapter 5: Thomas Hobbes
Chapter 6: John Locke
Chapter 7: Rousseau
Chapter 8: Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
Chapter 9: Mary Wollstonecraft (1759–97)
Chapter 10: John Stuart Mill
Chapter 11: Karl Marx
Chapter 12: Antonio Gramsci
Chapter 13: Hannah Ardent (1906–75)
Chapter 14: Frantz Fanon (1925–61)
Chapter 15: Mao Zedong (1893–1976)
Chapter 16: John Rawls (1921–2002)
CHAPTER 1
Confucius (551–479 BCE)

INTRODUCTION
Confucius is considered China’s first philosopher. In Ancient China during
the times of the Zhou Dynasty (1046 BC - 256 BC), the political and social
order was going through a phase of decay. Confucius during this phase
tried to restore the Chinese social as well as political system by proposing
the ideas of moral leadership. He is also known as Kung Fu-Tzu (Kong
Fu-Zi) meaning ‘Master Kung.’ He was born in China in 551 BCE. His
thought marks the beginning of the philosophy of Confucianism.
Confucianism is a tradition of ethical and political thought which presents a
close connection between politics and ethics.
Although he was like a teacher to traditional Chinese society, but his
moral philosophy remains the dominant pillar of the political system in
China for almost 2000 years. In the twentieth-century we have seen the
demise of Confucianism from mainland China after the advent of
Communism. Currently, the value of Confucianism is preserved by political
thinkers in Taiwan and Hongkong.

COMPONENTS OF CONFUCIAN POLITICAL


THEORY

The Idea of the Commonwealth


According to Confucius, the world is common for everyone, the resource
that we have got on this earth are for everyone, the human society is
destined to live peacefully together. The world is not the property of any
king or monarch. Kings are selected by divine will and trusted by the people
to govern the commonwealth. In the ‘Book of Rites,’ Confucius presented
the idea of a commonwealth which is ruled by a benevolent king.
Confucius talked about the three stages of human development:

1. Turbulent Stage—Instability and disorder in society,


2. Prosperous Stage—Economic security and Political Stability, and
3. Peaceful Stage—Stage of Commonwealth.

In Confucius’s philosophy, we can experience a sense of Idealism. He


believed that China during his period is going through a turbulent stage, but
soon with the adoption of virtues and values, we will reach the next stage
i.e. the Prosperous Stage where people will be able to enjoy their property
and the transfer of power from one king to another will be peaceful. For
Confucius, this much is not enough, because he had some special
idealistic goals for human society. The third stage is the Peaceful Stage
where in an actual sense a Commonwealth will be established.
Commonwealth is a stage where everyone will treat each other as their
own, everyone will have a love for everyone. Not just family members,
people will consider even outsiders as their own. According to Confucius,
this stage will create a situation where the king will be selected based on
his virtue and competence rather than a hereditary monarchy.

BENEVOLENT GOVERNMENT
According to Confucius, benevolence means ‘to return to the observance
of the rites through overcoming the self.’ In his book, ‘Analects’ Confucius
explained the significance of benevolence in a human as well as in an
institution. Confucius contends that benevolence is not only a matter of
overcoming oneself but also an attitude ‘to love your fellow men.’ He said a
benevolent person is one who follows the Golden Rule i.e. ‘would not do to
others what he himself does not wish others do to him,’ and he would ‘help
others to establish themselves in the same way he wishes to establish
himself.’
A benevolent government will minimize punishment and taxation,
ensure food security, education and employment, a well-field system, and
land demarcating. It will ensure the openness of markets and protect the
people from invasion and unjust war. Confucius’s idea of government is
based on the ‘service conception of authority.’ He determined the legitimacy
of a government based on the commitment to serve the people. If a king is
benevolent and won, the trust of the people by best service then it doesn’t
matter whether he is elected as the selected king. According to
Confucius, a benevolent government can be established by a benevolent
monarch. One who has actualized the sovereign virtue of benevolence in
his every behaviour, he will be recognized as a true gentleman, i.e. ‘Junzi
the Noble Leader.’

Rule of Virtue
In Confucius’s Political Philosophy Rule of Law, constitutionalism, or the
citizen’s participation in the process of governance is not an important
aspect of a political system, for him the goodness of the ruler is everything.
According to him, the virtue that is possessed by the king determines the
destiny of the State. He presented five virtues in general that need to
possess by everyone to ensure a harmonious society:
Benevolence/Humanity (Ren)—Compassion
Propriety (Li)—Social and Moral Behavior
Righteousness/Justice (Yi)—Justice, and morally right.
Wisdom/Knowledge (Zhi)—Familiarity with truth, facts, etc.
Trustworthiness/Integrity (Xin)—Adhering to moral character.

Confucius presented the idea of Rule by a ‘Gentleman Junzi’ to ensure


the rule of virtues in society. According to him, ‘Gentleman Junzi’ is a noble
leader and an exemplary person, people will follow him and his order due to
his virtues. Confucius said, ‘By nature, the gentleman is like wind and the
small man like grass. Let the wind sweep over the grass and it is sure to
bend,’ Confucius believed that rule by ‘Gentleman Junzi’ will bring back
the Sage Rule in China. According to Confucius the power of political
leadership should derive from the morality and greatness of the leader and
not from the legal aspect of political position. The qualities of ‘Gentleman
Junzi’ or ‘Noble Leader’ are as follows:
Primary virtues for the gentleman include (virtue of exhibiting the
proper love and respect) piety, fraternal duties, loyalty, kindness,
righteousness, sincerity, trustworthiness, humility, diligence,
gentleness, perseverance, and respectfulness.
Political virtues like trustworthiness, reverence, generosity, frugality,
honesty, decisiveness, magnanimity, resoluteness, thoughtfulness,
forgiveness, and so on.

Meritocracy in Government
To ensure that the people responsible for governance are meritorious, in
ancient China various steps are followed in the selection of government
officials. The people with the virtue of filial and incorruptible are
recommended for government positions and first, they serve as junior
officials and after the performance evaluation, they were assigned the
higher positions in government. A system of examination was also
developed in imperial China to determine the meritocracy of officials. Good
command of the Four Books: (the Doctrine of the Mean, the Great
Learning, Mencius, and the Analects) is considered as the most important
qualification to become a government official.

Transfer of Political Power


Confucius talked about two methods of power transfer in a political
system:
1. Abdication System—Here a king leaves his position and transfers th
power to someone with better virtues. This is the ideal form accordin
to Confucius.
2. Hereditary Ascension—Here a king transfers the power to his eldest
son. This is a practical form according to Confucius as its good for
political stability.

Although hereditary ascension secures political stability and the reverence


for the senior which according to Confucianism is important in a political
system, but the disadvantages are mediocrity of rule for most of the time
and injustice when the kings happen to be tyrannical.

Importance of Education
The pillars on which Confucius built a lofted structure of an ideal society
is ‘Education.’ According to him ‘Education breeds confidence. Confidence
breeds hope. Hope breeds peace.’ He viewed education as central to
achieving proper conduct both within society and in Government. His belief
in education for all, despite of the difference in the status of people.
According to him, a person educated with the moral principles of classical
ideas will be incorruptible. He said if kings are educated then they will have
a just society and their actions will be the guiding principles for the rest of
the people in society. According to him, learning is not enough, if your way
of life is not reflecting your knowledge. In ‘Analects,’ he said that ‘He who
learns but does not think is lost. He who thinks but does not learn is in great
danger.’ He talked about the ‘Six Arts’ that must be taught to people i.e.
ritual, music, archery, chariot-riding, calligraphy, and computation, but he
considered morality as the most important subject.

THE FIVE RELATIONSHIPS


Central to Confucius’s teaching are relationships and social order.
There are five great relationships of Confucianism are:

Relationship Virtues
Father – Son Filial piety
Ruler – Subject Loyalty
Relationship Virtues
Elder Brother – Younger Brotherliness
Brother
Husband – Wife Love and Obedience
Friend – Friend Faithfulness (One of Equality)

These relations are based on the idea that there are inferior and superior
roles. Each person must fulfil their role without question. This helps society
free itself from chaos. According to Confucius, ‘A country would be well-
governed when all the parties performed their parts aright in these
relationships.’ For Confucius, the father and the son relation is the most
important, because in it the order of society and government is rooted.

LITERARY SOURCES OF CONFUCIUS’S


THOUGHT
The wisdom of Confucius is found in ‘The Five Classics (Wu Jing)’
the ideas in these books create the foundation of Confucianism.
Their names are:
The I Ching (Book of Changes),
The Shu Jing (Book of History),
The Shi Ching (Book of Odes [poetry]),
The Li Ching (Book of Rites), and
The Ch’un-Ching (Spring and Autumn Annals).
The Four Books (Ssu-chu)—a collection of Confucius’s and his
disciple’s teachings:
Analects—Confucius’s own prescriptions for an ideal society,
The Doctrine of the Mean,
The Great Learning, and
Mencius (The Book of Meng-Tzu).

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Confucius was contemporary of which among the following dynasty o
China?
(a) Zhou Dynasty (1046 BC - 256 BC)
(b) Qin Dynasty. (221–206 BCE)
(c) Han Dynasty. (206 BCE–220 CE)
(d) Tang Dynasty. (618–906 CE)

2. Which among the following are the prominent thinkers of th


Confucianism tradition?
(a) Confucius
(b) Mencius
(c) Xunzi
(d) All of the Above

3. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the othe
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Confucius contends that the ‘all under the heaven’
should be common to everyone.
Reason (R): Kings are not the owner of the country, they are
selected by the divine will and trusted by the people to govern the
commonwealth.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

4. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the othe
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Confucius, benevolence means ‘to
return to the observance of the rites through overcoming the self.’
Reason (R): Confucius’s idea of government is based on the
‘Service conception of Authority.’
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

5. Arrange the stages of Human development in sequence as suggested


by Confucius:
1. Prosperous Stage

2. Peaceful Stage

3. Turbulent Stage

(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 1
(c) 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 1, 2

6. ‘A country would be well-governed when all the parties performed the


parts aright in these relationships.’ Whose statement is this?
(a) Plato
(b) Confucius
(c) Hobbes
(d) Aristotle

7. Who Said, ‘Education breeds confidence, confidence breeds hope


and hope breeds peace.’
(a) Aristotle
(b) Plato
(c) Socrates
(d) Confucius

8. Consider the following statements and choose the correct one


regarding Confucius:
i. Do not do to others what you do not want to be done to yourself.
ii. ‘Gentleman Junzi’ Should promote a well-ordered society thro
personal example and service in the government.
iii. ‘Gentleman Junzi’ is not a commander, he is a moral person.
iv. He believed that reform would come through educating leade
the classics and his philosophy.
Code:
(a) i, ii, and iii
(b) i and iv
(c) i, ii, iii, and iv
(d) Only ii and iv

9. According to Confucius, which among the following is not a buildin


block of a harmonious society?
(a) Righteousness
(b) Confidence
(c) Benevolence
(d) Trustworthiness

10. Match the following:

LIST - I LIST - II

1. Father – Son 1. Faithfulness (One of Equality)

2. Husband – Wife 2. Filial piety

C. Ruler – Subject 3. Love and Obedience

D. Friend – Friend 4. Loyalty

(a) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1


(b) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
(c) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(d) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(a) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(d) (b)
CHAPTER 2
Plato

INTRODUCTION
Plato is famously known as the father of political philosophy and his firm
support for ‘idea’ as the source of true knowledge makes him the founder of
philosophical idealism. He was a disciple of Socrates, a staunch critic of
democracy, a great humanist, and a firm believer in man’s rationality. Plato is
known for his elaborate discussions on the Socratic method of dialectics and
for establishing the concept of justice as a cornerstone of political philosophy
in his book ‘Republic.’ The root principle of all his ideas is, he did not merely
interpret the world ‘how it is?,’ rather he dwells deep to find out ‘how it ought
to be?.’ Plato was critical of the then Sophists for their crude ‘rhetoric’ of
realism and advocated the utility of reason. The relevance of Plato could be
understood through these lines of his famous critic Karl Popper: ‘One can
either be Platonic or anti-Platonic but can’t be non-Platonic.’

Table 1.1 Philosophers and Ideas that Plato borrowed

Philosophe Idea Reflection


r
Parmenide Idea of Being Theory of Ideas and Forms
s
Heraclitus Notion of Flux Plato’s worldview towards
ordinary material objects.
Pythagora Geometry, Transmigration of Theory of Forms, Theory of
s Soul Soul
Philosophe Idea Reflection
r
Socrates The dialectical method of Theory of Justice
logic, theory of knowledge.

Theory of Ideas and Forms


As Socrates said, ‘Virtue is knowledge, vice is ignorance,’ Plato elaborated
on the true source of knowledge as ‘Ideas.’ For Plato, ideas are the ultimate
reality, he provided that ‘reality is the shadow of ideas.’ Applying the ‘Theory
of Knowledge’ of Socrates, Plato established that the final goal of all
human actions is to find happiness through excellence in every activity, the
only way to find excellence is through ‘knowledge.’ And, as Socrates argued
knowledge means ‘true knowledge’ and not merely knowledge of the material
world, Plato further extended this through his ‘Theory of Ideas’ taking the
help of the ‘Allegory of Cave’ and ‘Theory of Forms.’ According to Plato, true
knowledge resides in our soul and could be gained only through the process
of dialectics.

Allegory of Cave
Plato talked about a hypothetical situation where a few men are kept in a
cave, they are chained and facing towards the wall of cave, and they can’t
look back. In this situation, shadow on the cave’s wall is the only source of
knowledge for them, and they start considering that shadow as the reality.
Plato explained that the knowledge of material world which we consider
as reality is just a shadow of ideas. Through this Plato tried to justify that
the reality we see is just a false and imperfect version of ideas.

Similarly, through the ‘Theory of Forms,’ he emphasized that just like


triangles, circles, and rectangles we draw are not as perfect as their absolute
geometric drawings in our mind, our drawing is reality and the perfect
geometric shape is an idea.

Theory of Soul to Theory of Justice


Plato has divided the human soul into three virtues: knowledge, courage,
and appetite. According to him, each man’s soul is defined by the dominance
of one among any three virtues. Accordingly, he said that the dominance of
virtue determines the division of three classes in Human Society—Ruling,
auxiliary(military) and producing class. He propounded that each class is
made of different metals (Myth of Metals).

Table 2.2 Plato’s Theory of Soul and Myth of Metals

Dominant Cardinal Class Metal Function


Trait Virtue Representin
g the class
Wisdom Knowledge Ruling Class Gold To rule
(Philosopher
s King)
Emotion Courage Soldier Silver To protect
Class
Appetite Temperance Producing Iron/Copper To produce
Class and trade

As for Plato, ‘the state is individual writ large,’ and the same case also
applies to the broader conception of justice on the level of a city-state. Hence,
essential components of Plato’s justice theory are functional specialization,
non-interference, and following the norm of ‘one virtue—one class—one duty.’

Key Principles of Ideal State


Plato wanted to make the city-state of Athens an ideal state and to realize
his theory of justice he conceptualized the rule of ‘Philosopher King.’ Key
principles of Plato’s Ideal State ‘Kallipolis’ include:
Corruption and nepotism need to be curbed completely.
It can happen only when either rulers learn philosophy or philosophers
become rulers.
‘No law is mightier than knowledge’ and hence, the rule of knowledge
should prevail.
Censorship of art and literature.
Propagation of Noble Lie (the Myth of Metals).
However, later looking at the imperfectness of humans, Plato gave the
theory of the ‘sub-ideal state’ in his last work ‘The Laws.’ In this, he favoured a
state based on laws rather than reason.

Theory of Education
Rousseau has called ‘The Republic’ as the finest treatise on education to be
ever written. Plato suggested the idea of ‘State Controlled Education’ with
the sole objective to search for the soul or virtues of people for establishing an
Ideal State. Plato has provided for equal and quality state-sponsored
education for all in the society including for the children of producing classes.
Plato’s Theory of Education represents six stages according to the age
group:

Stages Age Group Nature of Exam Result


Education (Test)
I 0- 6 years Moral
Stories
II From 6 to 18 Music,
years gymnastics,
and
elementary
education
III From 18 Physical and At 20 years Those who
years to 20 Military fail would
years Training join the
‘Producing
Class.’
IV From 21 Higher At 30 years Those who
years to 30 Education— fail would
years mathematics join the
, astronomy, Auxiliary
geometry, Class
harmonics, (Soldier
etc. Class).
Stages Age Group Nature of Exam Result
Education (Test)
V From 31 Dialectics,
years to 35 Metaphysics
years , Logic, and
Philosophy
VI From 36 Practical At 50,
years to 50 Training of Qualified to
years Governance become the
Philosopher
King

COMMUNISM OF WIVES AND PROPERTY


Plato was a great patriot and was very sad after the defeat of Athens at the
hands of Sparta in the Peloponnesian War. According to Plato, the reason
for this defeat was the prevailing corruption in the democracy of Athens. He
understood arrogance and ignorance as the key factors responsible for
corruption. He argued that arrogance comes from property and ignorance
from family, hence, he advised the communism of property and wives in his
book ‘The Republic: Concerning Justice.’ Communism applies to the
‘guardian class’ which includes both the ruling class and the auxiliary class.
He prohibited the use of private property and provided that the state will
decide on the wives, and the institution of marriage will be only for producing
good offspring and nothing more than that.

TYPES OF GOVERNMENT
Plato categorises five types of government in the order of best to worst. It
starts with ‘Aristocracy’ at the top and ‘Tyranny’ at the bottom.
Famous Commentaries on Plato:

1. ‘Justice for Plato is at once a part of human virtue and the bond which
joins men together in the states.’—Ernest Barker
2. ‘Virtually all socialistic and communistic thought has its roots in
Plato.’—Maxey
3. ‘Plato may not be everybody’s saint, but undoubtedly, he is
everybody’s teacher.’—R. N. Berki
4. ‘Modern communist totalitarianism has been derived from Platonic
communism.’—Karl Popper
5. ‘Plato is Philosophy and Philosophy is Plato, from out of Plato comes
to all things that are still written and debated among the men of
thought.’—R. W. Emerson
6. ‘Plato’s justice is a bound which holds the society together.’—G. H.
Sabine

Plato’s famous books with the basic subject matter.

Book (Chronological Central Theme


Order)
Apology Socrates’ defence speech
Crito Political Obligation and Disobedience
Phaedo Immorality of Soul
Meno Ideas for Teaching Virtue
Gorgias Importance of Conscience
Republic Divided into 10 Parts.
It contains the Theory of Justice, the
Theory of Education, the Theory of
Communism, and ‘Kallipolis (Ideal
State).’
Statesman Types of Government
Laws Second Best State (Sub-ideal State) or
Rule of Law

List of Famous Books on Plato:


1. The Myths of Plato—J. A. Stewart
2. The Argument and the Action of Plato’s Laws—Leo Strauss
3. City and Soul in Plato’s Republic—G. R. F. Ferrari
4. The Political Thought of Plato and Aristotle—Ernest Barker
5. The Republic of Plato—Ernest Barker
6. In Defense of Plato—Ronald B. Levinson
7. Plato Today—Richard Crossman
8. The Open Society and Its Enemies: The Spell of Plato—Karl
Popper
9. Plato, or The Philosopher—Ralph Waldo Emerson
10. Preface to Plato—Eric Havelock

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following works is not written by Plato?
(a) Republic
(b) Prince
(c) Laws
(d) Apology

2. Plato can be categorized as a:


(a) Absolutist
(b) Social Contractarian
(c) Realist
(d) Anarchist

3. Match the followings:

Book Author

1. Open Society and its Enemies i.Levinson

2. In Defense of Plato ii.Karl Popper

c.Plato Today iii. Haveloc


d.Preface to Plato iv.Crossman

Choose the correct answer:


(a) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
(b) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(c) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(d) a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i

4. The name of Plato’s ideal state is:


(a) Kingdom of God
(b) Juspolis
(c) Kallipolis
(d) Philosopher Paradise

5. Which of the following work of Plato presents an elaborate discussio


over the practically possible best rule?
(a) Republic
(b) Laws
(c) Apology
(d) Phaedo

6. Who said, ‘justice for Plato is at once a part of human virtue and th
bond which joins men together in the states’?
(a) G. H. Sabine
(b) Ernest Barker
(c) Karl Popper
(d) Maxey

7. Assertion (A): Plato’s arbitrary classification of the soul is criticized fo


being unreasonable and discriminatory.
Reason (R): Plato’s ‘myth of metals’ is very similar to caste
discrimination in India.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.

8. Which of the following statements about Plato are false?


A. His theory of Justice is developed by deduction

B. Plato regarded women as inferior, with fewer reasoning abilities

C. Plato does not consider Democracy as the worst form of governan


D. Plato had a Eugenic purpose to favor the communism of wives
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only

9. Arrange the following works of Plato in chronological order:


i. Apology
ii. Republic
iii. Statesman
iv. Laws
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iv, iii, ii, i
(c) ii, iii, i, iv
(d) iii, ii, iv, i

10. Plato’s ‘Philosopher King’ is different from Machiavelli’s ‘Prince’


because
(a) Philosopher King is guided by reason whereas Prince is guided by
power
(b) Philosopher King is to govern whereas Prince is to rule
(c) Philosopher King is well educated whereas Prince is ill-educated
(d) Philosopher King is old whereas Prince is young

11. Who amongst the following stated that ‘One can be either Platonic or
Anti-Platonic but can never be Non-Platonic’?
(a) Aristotle
(b) G. H. Sabine
(c) R. W. Emerson
(d) Karl Popper

12. Consider the following statements and choose the correct one
regarding Plato and his philosophy :
i. Plato was concerned with ‘what is?’ rather than ‘what ought to be?
ii. Reality is the shadow of ideas
iii. In developing his justice idea he used deductive reasoning
iv. Each category of person is assigned a task to which they are natu
suited
Code:
(a) i and iii
(b) i, ii, and iii
(c) ii, iii, and iv
(d) i, ii, iii, and iv

13. According to the Platonic System of Education, education for the


Philosopher King is?
(a) Till the age of 35
(b) Till the age of 55
(c) Life-Long
(d) None of the above

14. Match the following regarding the influences on Plato:

Influencers Ideas borrowed by Plato:

1. Pythagoras 1. Change is the essence of this world

2. Socrates 2. The idea of Transmigration of Souls

c.Héraclites 3. Theory of Reality


d.Parmenides
4. Ideas are the only thing which remains permanent

Codes:
(a) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4
(b) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–4
(c) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1
(d) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1

15. Match the following:

Plato’s Book: Central Theme:

1. The Republic 1. immortality of the soul

2. Phaedo 2. The classification of forms of Government

c.The Laws 3. The order and character of the just city state

d.The Statesman 4. Who it is that receives credit for creating laws

Codes:
(a) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4
(b) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(c) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1
(d) a–3, b–4, c–2, d–1

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(b) (c) (b) (a) (d) (c) (b)
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (a)
(a) (b) (c) (a) (c)
3.
6. (b)
(c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Plato’s Political Philosophy is based on Idealism. He wanted to create a


Absolute Order of Governance, hence is known as an ‘Absolutis
Thinker.’

8. Option A is correct because Plato deduced a just state from the Theor
of the Soul. Option D is also correct because Plato believed that th
Communism of Family in Guardian class will create the best race o
administrators. Option B is incorrect because Plato ensured the equalit
of sexes in his Theory of Education. Option C is incorrect becaus
according to Plato Democracy is the worst form. The question is asking
for selecting incorrect statements.

10. Plato believed that a ruler should be a person with superior rational and
intellectual qualities. The best rule according to him is a rule by a
philosopher who understands the concept of Good.

12. Option ‘i’ is incorrect because Plato was an Idealist hence, he is


concerned about ‘what ought to be’ or ‘what should be.’

13. According to Plato education is a lifelong process, it’s never-ending.


CHAPTER 3
Aristotle

INTRODUCTION
Aristotle (384–322 BCE) was an ancient Greek Philosopher. He is
known as the father of political science as well as the father of
comparative politics due to his comparative study of 158 constitutions. He
was an illustrious disciple of Plato but also his biggest critique. He was
also a tutor of Alexander the Great. Aristotle’s political thought can
be considered conservative, due to his presence for stability over change.
Aristotle believes in the middle path, according to him, the ‘Golden
Mean is the Golden Rule.’
Influence of Plato’s Philosophy on Aristotle:
From Plato, he acquired the understanding that man is social by
nature and must live an associated existence. Society is an
essential component of man’s life.
The opposition to democracy and considering it as a corrupt form
of Government.
An idealistic and moral understanding state, as Plato believed
that the State exists to help individuals achieve moral perfection.

DIFFERENCES IN POLITICAL PERSPECTIVES

Plato Aristotle
Plato Aristotle

Utopian Practical and Pragmatic


He believes in perfection. He believes in Moderation.
Radical Conservatives
Extremist Golden Mean
Deductive Approach— Inductive Approach—
General to Particular Particular to General

Idea of ‘Rule of Law’


Aristotle considered that ‘Law is a reason without Passion,’ and hence
protects people from the arbitrary misuse of power by rulers. Aristotle is
also famously considered as the father of constitutionalism. Aristotle
compared rule of law with the rule of the Philosopher King and
established the superiority of rule of law. In short, he criticised Plato’s
conception of the Philosopher King. Aristotle said that rulers must be
‘the servants of the laws,’ because ‘law is order, and good law is good
order.’ Law represents collective wisdom which is preferable to the
wisdom of one person. Aristotle talks about the best practicable unlike
Plato’s ideal/best and suggests that we should not sacrifice good for the
sake of the best because the best is unachievable.

THEORY OF STATE
As Aristotle considered that ‘Man is by nature a political animal,’ and
God has not made humans self-sufficient. Hence, living within an
association is the destiny of a human being (Teleological argument). He
rhetorically said, ‘The man who can live without the state is either a beast
or god but cannot be a man.’
According to him ‘State is a union of families and villages.’ Hence, the
‘State is biggest of all associations.’ Further solidifying the position of the
State, Aristotle claimed that ‘Chronologically man is prior to state but
logically state is prior to man.’ Aristotle establishes that a state is a
natural institution by suggesting the origin of a state lies in the natural
needs of man. He said, that ‘State comes into existence for the sake of
life & continues for the sake of good life.’

THEORY OF CONSTITUTION
‘Good ruler ought to be worldly-wise rather than wise in the world of
ideas.’—Aristotle
Aristotle is known as the father of constitutionalism because he
does not permit the deviation between the constitution and the manner of
government.
There were three major components to the constitutional rule:
First, it was a rule in the general or common interest of the public,
as opposed to a faction or tyrant’s government which is in the
interest of a ruler or a faction,
second, a government could not act in violation of the constitution,
and
third, constitutional government means to rule by consent of
subjects rather than force.

1. Aristotle studied 158 constitutions based on his study he gave 6


basic forms of the constitution.

No. of Normal form* Perverted form**


Person
ruling
One Monarchy—with Tyranny—representing
supreme virtue as its force and selfishness.
guiding principle.
Few Aristocracy— Oligarchy—representing
representing a mixture of the greed for wealth.
virtue and wealth.
No. of Normal form* Perverted form**
Person
ruling
Many Polity—representing Democracy—
martial and medium representing the principle
virtues, power resting with of equality with power in
the middle-class people. the hands of the poor.
Note— * Normal: in the interest of people. ** Perverted: corrupt/self-interest.

According to Aristotle, Polity is the best practicable form of


government. Polity is the rule of many but not too many. Thus, polity
avoids the two extremes. The extreme of richness and extreme of
poverty, the extreme of arrogance and ignorance and represent the
golden mean between oligarchy and democracy.

THEORY OF CITIZENSHIP
According to Aristotle, all the residents of a state are not its citizens. In
ancient Greek city-states women, slaves, and aliens were not regarded
as citizens. According to Aristotle citizenship is a duty or responsibility.
It is a duty to participate in the affairs of the states. Aristotle recognized
‘citizenship’ as the privilege of the ruling class. Hence, he excludes those
groups which are not capable of performing these roles:
Women—he believes women are inferior to men. He confines
women within the four walls of the family.
Old People—because of their health conditions they may not be
able to play the required role.
Children—are immature.
Slaves—they lack reason.

Thus, only natural-born adult males possessing property qualify to be a


citizen.

THEORY OF SLAVERY
‘For that, some should rule and others be ruled is a thing not only
necessary but expedient; from the hour of their birth, some are marked
out for subjection other for the rule.’—–Aristotle (Politics)
Aristotle justified slavery. According to Aristotle, slavery is natural
and useful. Aristotle’s justification is about natural slaves rather than
legal slaves. Aristotle suggests that nature has created two types of
persons. Those who are physically strong (involve them in the task of
production). Those who are mentally strong (involve them in the affairs of
the state).
According to Aristotle slavery is useful for the master. Master will
have leisure time to develop his virtues. Hence master should treat the
slave properly. It is also useful for the economic system as the slave is
physically strong, he can work for a longer duration. It is good for the
state because the master will get time to participate in the affairs of the
state. It is also good for slaves: It is a necessity for a slave because he
does not have a reason. He requires someone else to guide him. In the
company of a good master, a slave can develop virtue. If a slave
develops the virtue of reason and courage master should set him free.

CONCEPT OF JUSTICE AND EQUALITY


‘The goodness in the sphere of politics is justice, and justice contains
what tends to promote the common interest.’—Aristotle
Aristotle’s view of justice reflects his adherence to conservatism as
he was in favour of keeping the existing order intact. Aristotle believed
that justice is the very essence of the state and that no polity can endure
for a long time unless it is founded on the right scheme of justice.
Aristotle’s theory of justice is known as the ‘Theory of Proportionate
Justice.’ In Aristotle’s view, justice is concerned with the regulation of
human relations. He identified three types of justice:
1. Distributive Justice,
2. Retributive Justice (also called corrective, rectificatory or
remedial), and
3. Communicative Justice.
Distributive Retributive Communicative
(Corrective &
Rectificatory)
The concern of the The concern of the The concern of the
legislator. judges. judges.
Allocation of honours Punishment and Regulation of
and wealth. payment of damages. voluntary transaction.
According to merit. Full restoration of Full equivalence of
loss goods and services to
be transacted.

Aristotle said, ‘It is unjust to treat equals, unequally. It is equally


unjust to treat unequal, equally.’ Aristotle’s theory of justice is linked to
the theory of equality/idea of equality. According to Aristotle, justice
demands that persons who are equal and possess equal merit ought to
be treated equally. There is a linkage between Aristotle’s theory of
justice and the theory of slavery. According to Aristotle, treating
masters and slaves as equals would be unjust. As a result, Aristotle
believes in differentiated rewards.

Important Commentaries on Aristotle:


‘Politics is not a systematic study of political philosophy, but rather
is 3 treatise on the art of government.’—R. G. Gettel
‘Aristotle is the greatest of all Platonists.’—Susanne E. Foster
‘As Brutus loves not Caesar less, but Rome more, so Aristotle
says--dear is Plato, but dearer still is truth.’—Will Durant
‘Some persons, remarks Aristotle, think slavery is unjust and
contrary to nature, but he is of the opinion that it is quite in accord
with the laws of nature and the principles of justice.’—Maxey
‘Aristotle’s conception of slavery is more a justification of a
necessity than a deduction from disinterested observation of
facts.’—Ernest Barker
List of Important Books by Aristotle:
Nicomachean Ethics—Aristotle here analysed how a man
should best live and the virtues that bring happiness. It contains his
views on justice.
Politics—The most influential political treatises of Aristotle. It
includes concepts like the Theory of the Constitution, Rule of Law,
Theory of Citizenship, Theory of Slavery, and Theory of Revolution.
Metaphysics—In this, Aristotle rejects Plato’s theory of forms.
The work is described by Aristotle as ‘the study of being qua
being’ or ‘the first philosophy,’ in which the author investigates the
nature of ‘things that can be claimed to be.’
Poetics—It is considered the oldest surviving text of literary
criticism.
On the soul (De Anima)—Aristotle strives to understand the
soul, attempting to characterize its essential essence and
attributes.
Rhetoric
Rhetoric
Rhetoric
Rhetoric
Eudemian Ethics

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. How many constitutions Aristotle studied?
(a) 148
(b) 6
(c) 16
(d) 158

2. ‘Distributive Justice is mainly concerned with the distribution o


honours or wealth.’ Who said it?
(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Antonio Gramsci

3. Who are the natural slaves?


(a) Who lacks reason
(b) Who lacks courage
(c) both A and B
(d) none

4. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List – I List – II

1. Justice as one person, one duty, one class one 1. Plato


work

2. Justice as fairness 2. Aristotle

c.Justice as proportionate equality 3. John Raw

d.Justice as the interest of the strong 4. Thrasyma

Codes:
a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 3 2 4

5. According to Aristotle, when a family cannot meet all of man’s needs


he formed
(a) The Village
(b) The State
(c) The Commune
(d) None of the above

6. Polity is the golden mean between?


(a) Monarchy and Democracy
(b) Democracy and Oligarchy
(c) Oligarchy and Aristocracy
(d) Aristocracy and Monarchy

7. Who constitutes the mean according to Aristotle in social structure?


(a) Wealthy Class
(b) Poor Citizen
(c) Middle Class
(d) Artisan Class

8. For Aristotle, which of the following characteristics do not necessarily


qualify him to become an Athenian citizen?
(i) Residence in a particular place
(ii) The right of suing and be sued
(iii) Those who are disenfranchised or exiled
(iv) Descent from a citizen
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (ii) and (iv)
(c) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

9. Who said, ‘Without the State, Man cannot realize his destiny’?
(a) Socrates
(b) Plato
(c) Aristotle
(d) None of the above

10. Who among the following said that in order of time state is latter
than the family or the individual, but in order of nature, prior to
them?
(a) Cephalus
(b) Thrasymachus
(c) Aristotle
(d) Lacophon

11. Assertion (A): Aristotle is justifiably called the ‘Father of Political


Science.’
Reason (R): His criticism of Plato’s idealism justifies this claim.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

12. Which among the following method is allied with Aristotle’s Theory
of the Constitution?
(a) Deductive Method
(b) Inductive Method
(c) both (A) and (B)
(d) None

13. According to Aristotle, Slavery is good for the Slave because


(a) He gets a constant supply of food
(b) The Master protects the Slave
(c) The Master does not kill the Slave
(d) He gets Virtue in a secondhand manner

14. According to Aristotle, the three normal forms of Government are?


(a) Kingship, Aristocracy, and Polity
(b) Kingship, Aristocracy, and Democracy
(c) Tyranny, Oligarchy, and Democracy
(d) None of the above

15. Who said, ‘Aristotle’s conception of slavery is more a justification of


a necessity than a deduction from disinterested observation of
facts.’?
(a) G. H. Sabine
(b) Ernest Barker
(c) Karl Popper
(d) Maxey

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(d) (d) (c) (c) (a) (d) (b)
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (a)
(b) (a) (d) (c) (b)
3.
6. (b)
(c)
Explanation for Selected Questions

4. Check out the definitions part on the topic of justice in Unit - 1.

5. According to Aristotle, ‘people create a family and then a bunch o


families create villages, then a few villages together create a
commune, and then a few communes together create a State.’

8. According to Aristotle the one condition which is compulsory fo


citizenship is—a male adult from a propertied class.
CHAPTER 4
Niccolò Machiavelli

INTRODUCTION
Niccolò Machiavelli was born in Florence, Italy on 3 May 1469. He
was born at a time of conflict in Florence, Italy, between the republican
leaders and the family of the Medicis, to which Niccolò Machiavelli’s,
especially, had a history of opposition. After years of conflict between
powers, Niccolò Machiavelli was exiled from his country. It was
during this exile that he wrote his most famous work, ‘The Prince’ in 1513
CE, a piece about political power. Niccolò Machiavelli underlined the
importance of politics as a public responsibility and the need for rules and
maxims distinct from those applicable in the private sphere. He was
honoured with the title of being the ‘First modern political theorist and
scientist.’

IMPACT OF RENAISSANCE
The renaissance signified a rebirth of the human spirit in the attainment
of liberty, self-confidence, and optimism. It presents a cultural as well as
social transformation in Italy and then spread to the other part of Europe.
Renaissance revived the spirit of enquiry and humanism which is
reflected in Niccolò Machiavelli. Niccolò Machiavelli thus made
human nature the centre of his philosophy. Niccolò Machiavelli
dreamt of a united, regenerated, and glorious Italy as an example of a
Modern Nation. Italian unification became the chief objective of Niccolò
Machiavelli. Harold J. Laski clearly observed Niccolò
Machiavelli and said, ‘The whole of the Renaissance is in Machiavelli.’

IDEA OF HUMAN NATURE


According to Niccolò Machiavelli, ‘history repeats itself and human
nature has remained constant throughout history.’ He said, ‘the individual
was wicked, selfish, and egoistic. Humans are fundamentally weak,
ungrateful, exhibitionist, artificial, anxious to avoid danger, and
excessively desirous of gain. It was only under compulsion or when there
was a personal gain that an individual was ready to do well. The
individual would readily forgive the murder of his father, but never the
seizure of property.’

ADVICE TO THE PRINCE


As humans are selfish, a prince must rule in such a manner that
people will believe that the action of the prince is in the interest of
the people.
A prince had to be strong and demonstrate his strength whenever
necessary.
A prince had to select his officers and advisers carefully, and
should not hesitate to purge those who had been disloyal.
Prince should know the skilful use of both hard power and soft
power.
Prince should not leave anyone to take revenge. Revenge is a
powerful sentiment in man.
It is better for the prince to be feared than loved.
A prince had to know to fight with the help of laws and force. While
laws were for civilized persons, and the force was for the brutes.
According to Niccolò Machiavelli, the prince should be clever
like a fox to understand the traps and brave like a lion to protect
himself from the wolves.
CONCEPT OF DUAL MORALITY

Niccolò Machiavelli separated the private from the public sphere


of morality. The morality of the prince is different from the morality of the
common man. A prince had to be compassionate, humane, loyal, and
honest, while simultaneously willing to use force, fraud, deception, and
treachery. Strauss characterized Niccolò Machiavelli as a ‘teacher
of evil.’ The common man can sacrifice his life for the sake of his
principles, but the prince cannot sacrifice the nation-state for the sake of
his principles. According to him, political actions must be judged by
political standards and not by standards of religion and ethics. Niccolò
Machiavelli said, ‘In Politics, Ends justify Means.’

CONCEPT OF SECULARISM
Niccolò Machiavelli separated religion from politics and set the tone
for one of the main themes of modern times, namely the secularization of
thought and life. Niccolò Machiavelli did not accept the role of
religion, especially Christianity, to determine the course of politics as per
the tradition of the Middle Age. Church during Niccolò Machiavelli’s
time had become a corrupt institution. He, therefore, did not want the
church to guide the state. Niccolò Machiavelli made a clear
distinction between distinctions between politics on the one hand and
religion and ethics on the other and in doing so he has accorded a
subordinate position to the latter. Although he was critical of the inclusion
of religion in the State political system, but due to his realistic perspective
he said, ‘There is nothing more important than appearing to be religious.’
He suggested that religion was a disciplinary force and should be used
by the prince to control the people as well as a source to win back
legitimacy. He presented a utilitarian approach towards religion as can be
seen in the thoughts of Kautilya.

REPUBLICANISM AND THE IDEA OF LIBERTY


Niccolò Machiavelli distinguished between republics and
princedoms, free and unfree states. Free states were those ‘which are far
from all external servitude and are able to govern themselves according
to their own will.’ Niccolò Machiavelli’s admiration for the ancient
Romans was essential because they had a republican form of
government under which they ‘had achieved unexampled greatness and
power.’
According to Niccolò Machiavelli, republicanism (people control
over state power) is the ideal form of Government.
The three books of ‘The Discourses’ were devoted to the exploration
of the theme of liberty and republicanism. Niccolò Machiavelli saw
liberty as being possible within the framework of the law. Laws ensured
the enjoyment of liberty by all, for they prevented interference and
curtailed the corrupt use of wealth. Freedom, to Niccolò Machiavelli,
produced not only powerful states but also strong individuals. Niccolò
Machiavelli recommended the creation of a special magistracy as a
guardian of liberty to ensure that liberty was not violated.

FAMOUS QUOTES BY MACHIAVELLI


1. ‘There is no other way to guard yourself against flattery than by
making men understand that telling you the truth will not offend
you.’
2. ‘The lion cannot protect himself from traps, and the fox cannot
defend himself from wolves. One must therefore be a fox to
recognize traps, and a lion to frighten wolves.’
3. ‘Men are so simple of mind, and so much dominated by their
immediate needs, that a deceitful man will always find plenty who
are ready to be deceived.’
4. ‘Never attempt to win by force what can be won by deception.’
5. ‘Since love and fear can hardly exist together, if we must choose
between them, it is far safer to be feared than loved.’
6. ‘Therefore, it is necessary to be a fox to discover the snares and a
lion to terrify the wolves.’
7. ‘Men are driven by two principal impulses, either by love or by
fear.’

COMMENTARIES ON MACHIAVELLI
‘It is ironic that everyone is Niccolò Machiavelli in politics, but no
one accepts himself as Machiavellian.’—Dunning
‘Niccolò Machiavelli’s political philosophy was narrowly local and
narrowly dated.’—G. H. Sabine
‘Niccolò Machiavelli was the child of Florence and of the
Renaissance. All the qualities which characterize his city and his
age appear in his own personality.’—W. T. Jones
‘In no system of political philosophy is the influence of the
environment more manifest than in that of Niccolò Machiavelli.
The brilliant Florentine was in the fullest sense the child of his
time.’—Dunning
‘Niccolò Machiavelli of Florence is not dead; he is still alive in the
minds of the leaders of today’s big powers.’—J. R. Hale

BOOKS OF MACHIAVELLI
1. Art of War (1521)—this book is based on war and military in the
west. It explains the relationship between war and politics.
2. History of Florence (1525)—It talks about Niccolò
Machiavelli’s work in the city of Florence and the forces which
shaped its history.
3. The Prince (1532)—is one of the best books written on statecraft
(the art of politics). It was written in 1513 but published in 1932.
Niccolò Machiavelli in ‘The Prince’ gives advice to the prince
(ruler) about ruling the states in a realist manner.
4. Discourses on Livy (1531)—Here Niccolò Machiavelli has
described republicanism. His criticism of feudal order and nobility
is reflected in his book.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Read the given statements regarding Machiavellian thought and
answer accordingly:
(A) ‘He who seeks to deceive will always find someone who will a
himself to be deceived.’
(B) There is nothing more important than appearing to be religious
(a) (A) is correct, (B) is incorrect
(b) Both are correct
(c) Both are incorrect
(d) (B) is correct, (A) is incorrect

2. To whom did Niccolò Machiavelli dedicate ‘The Prince’?


(a) Rodrigo Borgia
(b) Piero Soderini
(c) Lorenzo di piero de’ Medici
(d) Marcello Adriani
3. What did Bertrand Russell say about Niccolò Machiavelli’s ‘The
Prince’?
(a) It should be required reading for all MBA candidates.
(b) It is a brilliant treatise on diplomatic survival.
(c) It is a handbook for gangsters.
(d) It should be banned from the educational system.

4. Who said, ‘Machiavelli was the child of Florence and of the


Renaissance. All the qualities which characterize his city and his
age appear in his own personality’?
(a) Harold J. Laski
(b) Dunning
(c) W. T. Jones
(d) J. R. Hale

5. What was the most important part of human behaviour that Niccolò
Machiavelli considered to understand politics?
(a) Empirical Theory
(b) Empirical Reality
(c) Empirical Thinking
(da) Empirical Reasoning

6. ‘Men sooner forget the death of their father than the loss of thei
patrimony.’
This famous statement is given by whom?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Niccolò Machiavelli
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) John Locke

7. Assertion (A): Prince should know the skilful use of both hard
power and soft power.
Reason (R): State can’t be run by only huge armies and
infrastructure.
(a) Both are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both are correct, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

8. Which of the following book is not written by Niccolò Machiavelli?


(a) The Art of War
(b) The Prince
(c) Road to Serfdom
(d) History of Florence

9. Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List-1 List-2

1. The Discourses 1. Thomas Hobbes

2. De Cive 2. Niccolò Machiavelli

c.Nicomachean Ethics 3. Plato

d.The Republic 4. Aristotle

Codes:
a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 3 2 4

10. Who separated religion from politics and criticized the dominance
of the church in the public sphere?
(a) Saint Aquinas
(b) Saint Augustine
(c) Niccolò Machiavelli
(d) Thomas Hobbes

11. ‘The Discourses’ by Niccolò Machiavelli expresses his real political


ideal and calls for the creation of a form of government that is?
(a) Authoritarian
(b) Republican
(c) Participative
(d) Elitist

12. Consider the following statement regarding Niccolò Machiavelli’s


political theory:
i. Human nature is wicked, selfish, and egoistic
ii. State and church (religion) exists side by side
iii. Success or failure of the state can be judged by the prosperi
its subjects
iv. Republican state as the best form of government
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii), and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

13. According to…man is always termed as a creature of habits


(a) John Locke
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) Niccolò Machiavelli
(d) Rousseau

14. In which book did Niccolò Machiavelli presented criticism of feudal


order and nobility reflected in his book?
(a) The Prince
(b) The Discourses
(c) History of Florence
(d) Art of War

15. Who said, ‘There is no avoiding war, it can only be postponed to


the advantage of your enemy’?
(a) John Locke
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) Niccolò Machiavelli
(d) Rousseau

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (c).
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (b)
(c) (b) (c) (c) (c)
3.
6. (b)
(c)

Explanation for Selected Questions


2. Niccolò Machiavelli dedicated his book ‘The Prince’ to the king
of Florence Lorenzo di Piero de Medici. His book the ‘History
of Florence’ was dedicated to Clement VII. Niccolò Machiavell
dedicates the ‘Discourses on Livy’ to two friends, Zanob
Buondelmonti and Cosimo Rucellai. He Dedicated ‘Art o
War’ to Lorenzo di Filippo Strozzi.

3. ‘The Prince’ by Niccolò Machiavelli was considered as a


blueprint for totalitarianism, carried to its logical and horrible
conclusion in regimes like Nazi Germany or Stalinist Russia
Bertrand Russell called ‘The Prince’ ‘a handbook for gangsters
and Leo Strauss called Niccolò Machiavelli ‘a teacher of evil

4. Niccolò Machiavelli was a modern political philosopher who


believes in the scientific and rational aspects of society. He believe
in ‘Empirical Reality.’

12. According to Niccolò Machiavelli, religion should be


subordinated to State and hence option (ii) is incorrect.
CHAPTER 5
Thomas Hobbes

INTRODUCTION
Thomas Hobbes (1588–1679) is one of the most controversial and
important figures in the history of western political thought. He was an
English-born political philosopher famous for his social contract theory. Due to
his alleged atheism and blasphemy, he was also known as the ‘Monster of
Malmsbury’ as he was born in Malmsbury, England. It was Thomas
Hobbes who expounded the absolutist theory of sovereignty for the first
time. According to G. H. Sabine, Thomas Hobbes was probably the
greatest writer of political philosophy that English-speaking people have
produced. Karl Marx himself is said to have remarked that ‘Thomas Hobbes
was the father of us all,’ because Thomas Hobbes used scientific
principles for developing his political philosophy.

IMPACT OF THE ENGLISH CIVIL WAR


During 1640–60, England found itself in a political upheaval which would later
be known as the ‘English Civil War.’ Thomas Hobbes was a witness to the
great political and constitutional turmoil caused by the ‘English Civil War,’ and
his life and writings bear a clear imprint of it. The political chaos was the direct
result of controversies between the Crown and the Parliament. Thomas
Hobbes was against parliamentarians and supported Royalists (Crown
Rule). In this horrific war the Royalists were defeated, and Charles I was
executed at the behest of the Parliamentary Army in 1649. His incident led to
the creation of his understanding of a pessimistic view of human nature.
SOCIAL CONTRACT THEORY
Social contract theory is a hypothetical thought experiment applied by the
philosopher to understand and explain the origin of the state and the basis of
political obligation in a political society. Thomas Hobbes used this method
to support his idea of the Commonwealth (Leviathan). Thomas Hobbes
claims that human nature is conflicting as he experienced in the ‘English Civil
War.’ To keep men away from destroying one another, they must relinquish
some of their rights to a higher power that will protect them from one another,
here arises a requirement of contract among people.

HUMANS IN THE STATE OF NATURE


According to Thomas Hobbes, humans are self-interested creatures and
are always power-hungry. He explains human action by using the term
(seeking pleasure and avoiding pain) which means humans are always
attracted by pleasures and move away from pain. Human beings naturally
desire the power to live well and self-preservation. He postulates that men are
driven by ‘a perpetual and restless desire of power after power that ceaseth
only in death.’ He further said humans have rational qualities, but they are
imperfect because they are motivated by their selfish interests which always
supersede rationality and not hence, they are not capable of dispute
resolution.
As humans are selfish and power-hungry, their behaviour makes the state
of nature a state of anarchy. Thomas Hobbes said, that in a political
society (state) life of humans in a state of nature would be ‘solitary, poor,
nasty, brutish, and short.’ The state of nature consists of a war of all against
all. In this state of nature, projects like farming, manufacturing, science, and
the arts are a waste of time because there is no guarantee you’ll enjoy the
fruits of your labour. Everyone lives in continual fear and danger of violent
death. Humans have natural rights in the state of nature, but those rights are
nothing but mere power and hence can’t protect until human moves towards a
civil and political society. Formation of State is necessary for self-preservation.

LAWS OF NATURE
Thomas Hobbes presented the idea of the laws of nature to provide the
rationale behind the formation of the State. He claimed that the anarchic
situation in the state of nature, teaches some wisdom to humans, as these
wisdoms are created in natural society and in the absence of the State, they
were called ‘Laws of Nature.’ Thomas Hobbes talked about a total of 19
Laws of Nature which are considered as ‘Articles of Peace.’ The three most
important ‘Laws of Nature’ are:

1. The first law of nature tells us to seek peace and follow it,
2. the second law of nature tells us to abandon natural rights to seek
peace, and
3. the third law of nature tells us to honour their contract, where
covenants (contract) are the most important vehicle through which
rights are laid down.

SOCIAL CONTRACT AND CREATION OF


ABSOLUTE SOVEREIGN
The state of nature was completely intolerable, and so rational men would be
willing to submit themselves even to absolute authority to achieve self-
preservation. The social contract is executed when individuals surrendered all
their power (natural rights) over themselves through a contract to a third party
who is not a party to the contract. This third party will now have all the power
over these individuals and the individuals are completely obligated to follow
and approve its actions and decisions of it. This third party is Commonwealth
(Sovereign Power) and this is constituted when a multitude of individuals were
united in one person.
Thomas Hobbes said once sovereign power is constituted, then all the
power would be entitled to all power. In Thomas Hobbes’s words ‘This is
the generation of that great Leviathan, or that Mortal God, to which we own
under the Immortal God, our peace and defence.’ Thomas Hobbes sees
the sovereign as a Monarch. As Thomas Hobbes develops the idea of the
absolute sovereign, he mentioned some important features of sovereign and
contract:
Sovereign power is undivided, unlimited, inalienable, and permanent.
Sovereign was the result of the contract, thus, not a party to the
contract.
No right to revolution against the sovereign.
The contract was perpetual and irrevocable.
The contract is mutually constructed by people and not a
representation of the divine rights of the king.

INDIVIDUALISM IN THOMAS HOBBES’S


PHILOSOPHY
Thomas Hobbes is known as an important figure of individualistic
philosophy. According to Thomas Hobbes, man is so individualist, he
cannot live in peace with other men until and unless there is the absolute
authority. Thomas Hobbes theory represents a combination of
individualism and absolutism. He created the sovereign by the consent of the
individual hence representing a liberal perspective, but simultaneously by
creating an absolute sovereign he takes away the liberty of people to replace
or change the government.

VIEWS ON LIBERTY AND SELF-PRESERVATION


RIGHTS
Thomas Hobbes suggests liberty as the absence of external impediments.
Laws are artificial chains reducing individual liberty. He opines that pure liberty
only turns people against each other. He said liberty is whatever the law
permits, and whatever the law is silent about. Thomas Hobbes claims that
the laws of nature derive from reason and from the desire for self-
preservation. He put only one restriction on the power of the absolute
sovereign i.e. Right to Self-Preservation. He considered the Right to Self-
Preservation as an absolute right of man, because the very basis behind the
contract was self-preservation, hence sovereign is not allowed to take that
away from a people. People can resist a king who can’t protect their life and a
successful resistance would bring people back to the state of nature and their
people will again select a new monarch and reinstate the same kind of
political authority.
Famous Books of Thomas Hobbes in Chronology:

Year Name Subject matter


1642 De Cive (On the Citizen) Anticipation of the theme of
Leviathan.
1651 Leviathan or the Matter, The book is divided into four
Forme, and Power of a parts. It Contains Laws of
Commonwealth Nature, Social Contract
Ecclesiasticall and Civil Theory, and Absolute
Sovereign.
1655 De Corpore (On the Body) Also known as the
‘Elements of law, natural
and politic.’
1658 De Homine (On Man) Last one of the Hobbesian
great trilogy (De Cive, De
Corpore, and De Homine).
1681 Behemoth: the history of the Also known as ‘The Long
causes of the civil wars of Parliament.’
England

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Leviathan is published in the year?
(a) 1651
(b) 1655
(c) 1532
(d) 1771

2. Who expounded the absolutist theory of sovereignty for the first time?
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) John Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Karl Marx
3. Who said ‘In a natural state, every man is against every man.’?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Vladimir Lenin
(c) Mao Zedong
(d) Thomas Hobbes

4. According to Thomas Hobbes, men fight for reason includes


(a) Competition
(b) Diffidence
(c) Glory
(d) All of the above

5. Who said men are driven by ‘a perpetual and restless desire of powe
after power that ceaseth only in death.’?
(a) Immanuel Kant
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) John Locke
(d) Rousseau

6. Consider the following statements regarding Hobbes’s views on huma


nature:
i. Human beings are selfless and act in a manner to preserve their fa
ii. Human beings are isolated, egoistic, and self-interested
iii. the weakest has strength enough to kill the strongest
iv. Human beings are not equal in physical power and faculties of min
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

7. For whom all existence is simply a matter in motion?


(a) Immanuel Kant
(b) G. W. F. Hegel
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) Karl Marx

8. The theory that Thomas Hobbes refuted in his political philosophy was?
(a) Logic
(b) Divine Right
(c) Speed
(d) Discontinuity

9. How many natural rights did Thomas Hobbes introduced in his boo
‘Leviathan’?
(a) 12
(b) 03
(c) 19
(d) 16

10. According to Thomas Hobbes, in the state of nature man was?


(a) very law-abiding
(b) nasty and brutish
(c) cultured and well mannered
(d) selfless and had a fellow feeling

11. Who said, ‘Thomas Hobbes’s scientific method required him to build up
a model of a man and of society and the models he constructed were
bourgeois models’?
(a) W. D. Ross
(b) Ernest Barker
(c) C. B. Macpherson
(d) Maxey

12. Who contends ‘The first maketh men invade for gain; the second, for
safety; and the third, for reputation. The first use Violence, to make
themselves Masters of other men’s persons…the second to defend
them; the third for trifles…’?
(a) John Locke
(b) Niccolò Machiavelli
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) Rousseau

13. Consider the following statements regarding the Hobbesian theory of


‘Social Contract’:
1. In Thomas Hobbes’s social contract, the many trade liberty for safety

2. The sovereign makes no promises to the many to win their submissio

3. The sovereign is a party to the social contract.

4. The sovereign is also bound by law, including his own laws.

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

14. After the creation of the state, according to Thomas Hobbes, people
continued to enjoy:
(a) Certain natural rights
(b) Those rights which were granted to them by the sovereign
(c) Those rights which they had retained at the time of the conclusio
the contract
(d) Only those rights which were specified in the contract

15. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Thomas Hobbes, man is so individualist,
he cannot live in peace with other men until and unless there is the
absolute authority.
Reason (R): Sovereign was the result of the contract, thus, not a party
to the contract.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(a) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b)
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (b)
(a) (b) (b) (b) (c)
3.
6. (c)
(d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

4. Thomas Hobbes believes that there are only three reasons for whic
men fight: competition, diffidence, and glory. In a natural state, ever
man is against every man. For this horrid situation, the only solution is
commonwealth.

5. Option ‘A’ is incorrect because according to Thomas Hobbes human


are selfish, not selfless. Option ‘D’ is incorrect because according t
Thomas Hobbes in State of nature, people are completely free an
hence have equal potential to hurt each other.

7. Thomas Hobbes held that human beings are ‘matter in motion’ t


satisfy their desire; seeking pleasure and avoiding pain and the continua
fulfilment of their desire is what Thomas Hobbes called ‘Felicity.’

11. C. B. Macpherson considered Hobbesian theory as an individualist


in nature and a system which supports economic liberties and creates a
capitalist society.

12. In ‘Leviathan’ while explaining the cause of conflict and quarrel


between humans, Thomas Hobbes said that first, they fight for
profit, then they fight for safety, and then for glory or reputation.
CHAPTER 6
John Locke

INTRODUCTION
John Locke is an English philosopher known as the ‘Father of Liberalism’
and as the most influential of enlightenment thinkers. His idea of liberalism as
a political and social dimension combines constitutionalism, stability, freedom,
consent, property, and tolerance which has played a crucial role in the orderly
development of Western Democracies. He was an inspirer of both the
European Enlightenment and the Constitution of the United States. His
political thought was grounded in the notion of a social contract between
citizens and in the importance of tolerance, related to religion. Much of his
works related to politics were accepted in England after the Glorious
Revolution of (1688–89) and in the United States after independence in 1776.

IDEA OF HUMAN NATURE AND STATE OF


NATURE
The state of nature is characterized by human freedom and equality, the
absence of government but not by the absence of mutual obligation. The
notion of self-preservation, the law of nature, or reason, teaches ‘all mankind,
with consent that being all equal and independent, no one ought to harm
another in his life, liberty, or possessions’. Hence the state of nature is
relatively peaceful. John Locke’s idea is that the rights of life, liberty, and
property are natural rights that precede the establishment of civil society.
For John Locke, human nature is guided by tolerance and reason. As
Dunning mentioned that John Locke’s ‘state of nature is pre-political, but
it is not pre-moral’. Persons are assumed to be equal to one another in such a
state, and therefore bound by the Law of Nature. This Law of Nature
according to John Locke consists of the basis of all morality and is given to
us by God. John Locke sees men as being rational and capable of keeping
the divine precepts guiding the state of nature.

NEED OF CONTRACT AND STATE


Although people were enjoying complete liberty in the state of nature, but if in
case someone surpasses the laws of reason and violate the natural rights of
other people then there are three inconveniences that were faced while being
in the state of nature:

i. Absence of common law,

ii. absence of an impartial and known judge, and


iii. absence of an executive to enforce the law and protect the liberties of
people.

According to John Locke, these situations in the state of nature


convinced humans to form a state for the sake of protection of the natural
rights of life, liberty, and property.

SOCIAL CONTRACT
Social Contract Theory as given by John Locke could find its mentioning in
his famous book ‘Two Treatises on Civil Government (1690)’, wherein he
emphasizes law to be an expression of the will of the people. It was for the
purpose of protection of natural rights that man entered the ‘Social Contract’
so that he yields to the sovereign, not all his rights, but only the power to
preserve order and enforce the law of nature.

People made two contracts, namely social and political contracts. The
‘Social Contract’ was made between the people themselves. They
surrendered only some of their rights—the right of interpreting and enforcing
the law of nature. It was only a partial surrender of their rights. It brought
people out of the natural society and creates a civil society.
The ‘Political Contract’ or ‘Governmental Contract’ was made between the
people and the rule. It was made to enforce the first contract. This contract
needs generational consent. The government is removed by people if they are
not happy with it.

IDEA OF FIDUCIARY TRUST


According to John Locke trust is important to ‘Social Contracts’ and made a
famous assertion that ‘all governance is fiduciary, or founded on trust’. The
purpose of government and law is to uphold and protect natural rights. He
argued that sovereignty lies in the people for whom governments were
trustees and that such governments could be legitimately overthrown if they
failed to discharge their functions to the people.
John Locke’s idea of ‘Social Contract’ was founded on a new secular
approach to natural law whereby the power of the government was conceded
by the rulers and was treated as a breach of the people’s fundamental natural
rights which justified revolt against the government. John Locke pleaded for
a constitutionally limited government.

THEORY OF PROPERTY
Instead of emphasizing the natural value of property John Locke prioritized
the labour of the people to add value to the property. He implicitly mentioned
this in his ‘Second Treatise’. The theory is rooted in laws of nature, which
permit individuals to appropriate, and exercise control over, things in the world
like land and other material resources. In other words, John Locke favoured
private property rights. The main features of John Locke’s theory of
property are as follows:
Labour act as a principle of the first appropriation,
properties can be private and common,
the self-ownership of property is created by the related labour,
the government also protects individual ownership or rights to property,
and
divinely ordinated nature of property and labourer.
THREE TYPES OF POWER
In the ‘Two Treatises of Government’, John Locke distinguished between
legislative, executive, and federative powers.

1. Legislative Power: The legislative power creates the rules to giv


effect to and protect inalienable rights. The law for the protection of th
natural rights of people also ensures judicial power and protection.
2. Executive Power: It is the power to make the judgements
necessary to apply those rules to specific cases and administer force
as directed by the rule or it is the power by which the law is enforced.
3. Federative Power: It is the natural power in charge of the state’s
international relations. The federative power is always concerned with
the making of war and peace and controls the external relations of the
state.
List of Books with Important Concepts:

1. Essays on the Law of Nature (1676).


2. A Letter Concerning Toleration (1689)—against uniformist position and
suggested religious toleration.
3. Two Treatises of Government (1689)—the first treatise was a critique
of patriarchalism or Sir Robert Filmer’s ‘Patriarcha’. And the
second treatise explained the true original, extent, and end of civil
government based on natural rights and contract theory.
4. An Essay Concerning Human Understanding (1689)—deals with the
foundation of human knowledge and understanding. In this he
mentioned the concept of ‘tabula rasa’—this was the theory that at
birth the (human) mind is a ‘blank slate’ without built-in mental content,
and therefore all knowledge comes from one’s sensory experience.
5. Some Thoughts Concerning Education (1693).
6. The Reasonableness of Christianity (1695).
7. Of the Conduct of the Understanding (1706)—in this, he describes
how to think clearly and rationally.
8. A System of Theology (1962).
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Which of the following political and social dimensions constitutes Joh
Locke’s idea of Liberalism?
(a) Constitutionalism, equality, freedom, property, and tolerance.
(b) Constitutionalism, liberty, equality, fraternity, and private property.
(c) Constitutionalism, stability, freedom, consent, property, and toleran
(d) Constitutionalism, natural law, private property, and social contract

2. John Locke was born in the year?


(a) 1630
(b) 1631
(c) 1632
(d) 1633

3. Consider the following statement regarding John Locke’s State o


Nature:
(a) The state of nature was relatively a state of freedom, peace,
equality.
(b) The state of nature was characterized by self-preservation, the la
nature, and teaches all humankind not to harm another in his
liberty, and possessions.
(c) The state of nature was political and pre-moral bound by the la
nature.
(d) The state of nature was considered a creation of God and capab
keeping the divine precepts guiding nature.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) A and C only
(b) A and B only
(c) A, B, and C
(d) All of the above.

4. The contract through which people surrendered only some of their right
to the community and not to any particular individual is known as?
(a) The Community Contract
(b) The Political Contract
(c) The Judicial Contract
(d) The Social Contract

5. Given below are two statements, one is considered as Assertion (A) an


the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The idea of fiduciary trust is based upon the law to
uphold and protect the natural rights of the government.
Reason (R): Sovereignty lies in the people for whom government
were trustees and that such government could be legitimately
overthrown if it failed to discharge its functions to the people.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, and (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, and (R) is true.

6. Consider the following statements with regard to John Locke’s theory o


Property:
A. John Locke was in favour of private property, which allows indiv
appropriate, and exercise control over material things.

B. Labour acts as a principle of the first appropriation.

C. Properties can be divided into two: private and common.


D. Believes in the divinely ordinated nature of property and labourer.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) Only A and B are correct.
(b) Only B and C are correct.
(c) A, B, and C are correct.
(d) All are correct.

7. In which of the following book John Locke implicitly mentioned about th


three types of Power?
(a) A Letter Concerning Toleration (1689).
(b) The Reasonableness of Christianity (1695).
(c) An Essay Concerning Human Understanding (1689).
(d) Two Treatises of Government (1689).

8. Arrange the following books in chronological order:


A. Of the Conduct of the Understanding.

B. Essays on the Law of Nature.

C. A System of Theology.
D. Some Thoughts Concerning Education.
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) D, C, B, A
(b) C, D, A, B
(c) B, D, A, C
(d) B, D, C, A

9. According to John Locke, the power which is always concerned with th


making of war and peace and related to the state’s internationa
relations, comes under which types of power?
(a) Executive Power
(b) Federative Power
(c) Legislative Power
(d) International Power.

10. The theory that states ‘at birth the human mind is like a “blank slate”
without built-in mental content, and gains all knowledge from sensory
experience’—is termed as a?
(a) Tabula Slate
(b) Tabula Experience
(c) Tabula Rasa
(d) Tabula Knowledge

Answer Key
1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (b) (a) (d) (c) (b) (c)
2. 4.
6. (d)
(c) (d)
CHAPTER 7
Rousseau

INTRODUCTION
Born in Geneva in 1712, an accidental philosopher, original thinker, great
advocate of direct democracy, and ardent critic of modernity, Rousseau has
a rare distinction of being a ‘philosopher of equality’. Gaining prominence from
an essay competition of the Academy of Dijon, Rousseau went on to
become an inspiration for the French Revolution of 1789 and ideas of liberty,
equality, and fraternity.

VIEWS ON ENLIGHTENMENT
Rousseau took part in an essay competition in the year 1750 on the topic of
‘Has the Restoration of the Arts and Sciences Had a Purifying Effect Upon
Morals?’ Interestingly, Rousseau went against the question and claimed that
the growth of sciences and arts has contributed to corrupting human
civilization instead of reforming it. This made him popular among literature
galleries and his essay was published in 1750 with the title of ‘Discourse on
the Arts and Sciences’.
In the essay Rousseau has given important arguments against the age
of science and art, he made an appeal for a ‘return back to nature’. This was
in sharp contrast to the enlightenment movement promoted by
contemporaries like Voltaire. As enlightenment believed in the reason for
man, opposing it, Rousseau famously proclaimed that ‘thinking man is a
depraved animal’.

STATE OF NATURE
Rousseau presented his ideas on the ‘state of nature’ first in his book
‘Discourses on Inequality (1755)’ and then in his ‘Social Contract (1762)’.

Noble Savage
According to Rousseau ‘state of nature’ is a state of ‘Idyllic Blissfulness’. He
argued that man was a noble savage in a primitive state of nature, he was
free to choose, consume, and live. The concept of status, power, and
hierarchy all emerged with the rise of society. It was society and science, the
increasing population, and growing conflicts that led to the degeneration of
noble savage. This romantic ‘Natural Man’ who was free and happy was
enslaved by the growth of civilization.

‘Amour De Soi’ vs ‘Amour Propre’


Rousseau has differentiated between the state of nature and present human
nature in a very romantic way which later on even inspired great poets of
romanticism like William Wordsworth. For Rousseau, the man before
the origin of society was in a condition of ‘Amour de Soi’ which stands for self-
preservation, maintenance, and fulfilment of one’s own needs through the
help of nature. As the French word ‘Amour’ stands for ‘Love’, Rousseau
argued that with the emergence of society the ‘Amour de Soi’ degenerated
into ‘Amour Propre’. The ‘Amour Propre’ reflects a possessive version of ‘self-
love’ when man’s love is judged by its comparative worth. The cutthroat
competition and race for resources have ‘inflamed’ the ‘Amour Propre’, and
hence, though in itself ‘Amour Propre’ is harmless, the inflamed version is
dangerous for the greater good of mankind.

RISE OF INEQUALITY AND PRIVATE PROPERTY


Rousseau in his work ‘Discourse on Inequality’ challenged the notion of
inequality. Perhaps, he was the first thinker to strongly advocate for equality in
society. From Aristotle to John Locke, earlier thinkers took inequalities as
a norm but Rousseau stood for the analytical study of inequalities. He
creatively divided inequalities into two categories:

1. Natural Inequalities: Those are irreconcilable and unalterable, e.g


colour, gender, physical appearance, etc.
2. Conventional Inequalities: Not natural but a construct of society.
These are alterable e.g. social inequalities, income, wealth
inequalities, etc.

ON PROPERTY
Unlike John Locke, Rousseau doesn’t agree with the point that ‘private
property’ is a natural right. Instead, he argues that private property is a result
of scientific developments and the growth of civilization, it is an evil and has
corrupting effects. This is the reason Colletti called Rousseau the
precursor of Karl Marx. However, despite arguing that private property is a
source of inequality in his ‘Second Discourse’, Rousseau in his ‘Social
Contract’ approved of private property as a medium of reconciliation between
increasing population and scarce resources.

SOCIAL CONTRACT
‘Man is born free, but everywhere he is in chains.’
These are the opening lines of Rousseau’s ‘Social Contract’. Unlike
Thomas Hobbes’s absolutist monarchy and John Locke’s constitutional
government, Rousseau provides for a sovereign community. It is a mixture
of Thomas Hobbes and John Locke, fully absolute but without any face.

(i) General Will


The greatest contribution of Rousseau to political philosophy is his idea of
‘general will’. According to Rousseau general will is the supreme will and the
basis of all laws. It is the sum total of all the real wills. He divided human will
into two categories:

1. Actual Will: reflects momentary impulse and crude self-interest.


2. Real Will: reflects true will, well thought out and in-depth
understanding of the greater good of society.
It is ‘real will’ which matters the most and results in ‘General Will’.
Interestingly, he argued that even minorities can be forced to be free and obey
the ‘General Will’. This led to sharp criticism of Rousseau from thinkers like
Bertrand Russell and Alfred Cobban for inspiring the rise of
totalitarianism.
(ii) Popular Sovereignty
Rousseau’s ‘Popular Sovereignty’ is a very peculiar and different concept.
He doesn’t provide for any third-party sovereign, rather he asked for the
transfer of full authority from ‘individual capacity’ to ‘corporate capacity’
governed by the people themselves. He provides for no natural right, no right
to revolution. In other words, Rousseau’s ‘Popular Sovereignty’ is Thomas
Hobbes’s ‘Leviathan’ with its head chopped. Features of his popular
sovereignty are:

1. No Master: ‘The instance where there is a master, there is n


sovereign.’
2. Inalienable: ‘…because it is a collective authority, it is vested in the
whole society.’
3. Indivisible: ‘Sovereignty for the very same reason as making it
inalienable is indivisible.’
4. Illimitable: ‘All rights are vested in a “sovereign community”, no
question of limit arises.’
5. Infallible: ‘Sovereignty represents “General Will” which is a
combination of all the “Real Wills”, hence, cannot be false.’
6. No representation: ‘The moment people allow themselves to be
represented, they are no longer free.’

(iii) Principle of Direct Democracy


Rousseau had no faith in the representative model of democracy. He
famously said, ‘Englishmen are free only once in a five year’. His ideal was
always the Greek way of direct democracy. For Rousseau, ‘General Will’
can be decided only by ‘Associations’ and not by any representatives.

WOMEN AS SEXUAL BEING


‘Women and men are made for each other, but their mutual dependence is
not equal: men are dependent on women because of their desires; women
are dependent on men because of both their desires and their needs. We
men could subsist more easily without women than they could without us.’
—Rousseau in ‘Emile (1762)’
This discriminatory explanation of inequality was by Rousseau who was
known for his ideas on equality. Rousseau’s view of women was very
narrow, materialistic, and centred around the utility of women as merely
sexual beings and nothing else.

List of Books with Related Information:

Book Subject Matter


Discourse on the Arts and Sciences Criticism of civilization and
(1750) enlightenment.
Discourse on the Origin and Basis Investigation on the origin of
of Inequality (1755) [also referred to inequalities and private property.
as ‘Second Discourse’]
Emile (1762) Thesis on education, and views on
women.
Social Contract (1762) General Will and Popular
Sovereignty.
Confessions (1782) Autobiography of Rousseau.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Rousseau has not given which of the following concepts?
(a) General Will
(b) Actual Will
(c) Real Will
(d) Sovereign Will

2. When Dunning writes in his book ‘A History of Political Theories’, ‘he i


neither fearful like Montesquieu nor aggressive like Thomas Hobbes’, h
is talking about:
(a) Rousseau’s Noble Savage
(b) Thomas Hobbes’ Leviathan
(c) John Locke’s State of Nature
(d) Plato’s Philosopher King

3. Arrange the following books in chronological order:


i) Emile
ii) Social Contract
iii) Second Discourse
iv) Confessions
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iii, ii, iv, i
(c) ii, i, iv, iii
(d) iii, i, ii, iv

4. Rousseau’s ‘Popular Sovereignty’ is different from Thomas Hobbes an


John Locke because?
(a) It is a social contract
(b) It supports absolute power
(c) It is limited in nature
(d) It doesn’t transfer sovereignty to the third party

5. Assertion (A): Rousseau was against women’s equality.


Reason (R): Women are naturally inferior and dependent on men,
according to Rousseau.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not a correct explanation of
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.

6. What is the common point between Plato and Rousseau?


(a) Both advocate direct democracy.
(b) Both are against the equality of women.
(c) Both wrote about the importance of education.
(d) Both talk about the relevance of the will of governing.
7. Match the following idea of Rousseau which inspired later thinkers:

Rousseau’s Idea Thinker


a. M. K. Gand
1. General Will

b. T. H. Green
2. Parliament Represents Slavery

3. Political Association c.Hannah Arendt

4. Forced to be free d.Adolf Hitler

(a) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d


(b) 1–b, 2–a, 3–c, 4–d
(c) 1–d, 2–a, 3–b, 4–c
(d) 1–c, 2–b, 3–d, 4–a

8. Who categorically rejected the Enlightenment as the ‘republic of letters


in favour of his own ‘republic of virtue’?
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) John Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Voltaire

9. Rousseau’s ‘state of nature’ is:


(a) Nasty, poor, brutish, and short
(b) Idyllic Blissfulness
(c) Condition naturalis
(d) Amour Propre

10. Choose the correct statement:


1. ‘Amour de soi’ is a condition when society was fully developed and
started competing with each other.

2. ‘General Will’ is for reconciliation of ‘Amour de Propre’ and increa


centric world.

3. Sovereigns cannot act against ‘General Will’, and if they do so, peo
no right to revolt.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above

11. Match the following:

Thinker: Thoughts:

1. Thomas Hobbes 1. The General Will is Sovereign

2. John Locke 2. Sovereign is the main source of law

c.Rousseau 3. The state is a secular entity

d.Niccolo Machiavelli 4. Laws are passed by the legislature

Codes:
(a) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4
(b) a–3, b–1, c–2, d–4
(c) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3
(d) a–4, b–3, c–2, d-1

12. Match list (i) to List (ii):


Thinker: Works
a)John Locke 1)Confessions
b)Rousseau 2)The Reasonableness of Christianity
c)Niccolo Machiavelli 3)De Corpore
d)Thomas Hobbes 4)Discourses on Livy

Choose the correct match:


(a) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3
(d) a–2, b–1, c–3, d–4

13. Who Said, ‘I prefer liberty with danger than peace with slavery.’
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) John Locke
(c) Niccolo Machiavelli
(d) Rousseau

14. Who said, ‘Rousseau is regarded as the progenitor of the modern


nation-state’.?
(a) Alfred Cobban
(b) David Held
(c) C. B. Macpherson
(d) Maxey

15. Under Rousseau’s contract:


(a) Each individual surrendered his powers to the King
(b) Each individual surrendered his powers to the Parliament
(c) Each individual surrendered his powers to the Community
(d) Each person received certain rights from the King

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.
(d) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c).
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (a)
(a) (a) (c) (b) (b)
3.
6. (c)
(d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Dunning was trying to comparatively explain the features of huma


nature presented by Rousseau. Rousseau considered humans a
noble species or animals in the state of nature.

4. In Rousseau’s social contract, the sovereign power resides in th


people. He gave the idea of ‘Popular Sovereignty’. According to him th
state is governed by the popular wish of the people and not by any kin
or government.

8. Rousseau criticized the intellectual community of enlightenment know


as the ‘Republic of Letter’ and support the Jacobian concept of th
‘Republic of Virtue’, ‘Virtue’ meant ‘devotion to family, to work, and to th
ideals of the revolution’.

10. Option 1 is incorrect because ‘Amour di soi’ stands for natural self-love
and not a fully developed idea of the human in a society.

14. Alfred Cobban in his book ‘Rousseau and The Modern State (1934)’
claimed that modern nation-states which are characterized by a
homogeneity of culture and language, by a certain territorial integrity,
and by a state which at least in principle treats all its citizens in the
same way by giving them all equal rights and duties that we are
experiencing in a contemporary time period, it is actually originated
from the social contract principle of Rousseau.
CHAPTER 8
Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel

INTRODUCTION
Born in 1770, Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel was a philosopher par
excellence. His political ideas are found in his famous work ‘Philosophy of
Right (1821)’. As the official ‘state philosopher’ of the erstwhile German
Kingdom of Prussia, he is known for his political concepts on dialectics of
ideas, civil society, state, and freedom, etc. Georg Wilhelm Friedrich
Hegel’s philosophically profound political concepts are so timeless and non-
binary that he is equally revered as an inspiration for both, right and left.

DIALECTICAL IDEALISM
For Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel, ideas represent consciousness or
absolute spirit. It is a reason which makes sense in reality. Georg Wilhelm
Friedrich Hegel propounded that ‘real is rational, and rational is real’.
Taking inspiration from Ancient Greek Philosopher Socrates’s claim that ‘an
unexamined life is not worth living’, Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
formulated his own way of examining life which was called ‘dialectical
idealism’. According to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel, all realities
which we see through our naked eyes are the result of a continuous ‘struggle
between ideas’. Dialectics is a process of exposing contradictions and refining
and removing them to achieve an absolute or perfect form. He provided three
steps of his ‘dialectical idealism’, which include:

1. Thesis: This is the central theme of the discussion, the main argument
2. Antithesis: There exist contradictory ideas for each and every
argument. countering arguments also need to be examined and cross-
examined, and
3. Synthesis: This is the final outcome which emerges from the
struggle between thesis and antithesis.
As a result of these three steps, we are left with three outcomes in each
step namely thesis, antithesis, and synthesis, respectively. A thesis
represents narrative, antithesis represents counter-narrative, and synthesis is
the best possible conclusion which includes important elements of both thesis
and antithesis. However, synthesis is neither the end of dialectical idealism,
nor it is infallible and hence, this circulation of thesis–antithesis–synthesis
keeps running until we find ‘absolute truth’ or ‘absolute consciousness’.
According to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel, dialectics is the most
logical apparatus for interpreting history in its true form.

PHILOSOPHY OF HISTORY
Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel proclaimed that ‘ideas are the true
motor of history’. History is nothing but a continuous corollary of a thesis,
antithesis, and synthesis. Unlike the Indian conception of a negative and
regressive march of history towards Kaliyuga, Georg Wilhelm Friedrich
Hegel gave a progressive version of history where history is moving towards
a logical and rational conclusion which will bring absolute spirit and absolute
consciousness. He proclaimed Ancient Greece as the starting point of the
history of the state and the European notion of ‘nation’ as the noblest form of
state. Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel presented a philosophical
presentation of human society and considered it as a dialectical process. The
stage of history according to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel are:
THEORY OF STATE
‘State is the march of God on earth.’—Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel conceptualized three important
aspects of human life, they are family, civil society, and state. Unlike early
social contractarians like Thomas Hobbes and John Locke, Georg
Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel doesn’t mingle ‘civil society’ with the ‘state’.
According to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel, each of these organs
reflects an idea:

1. Family reflects the idea of ‘particularistic altruism’, which means eac


member of the family is ready for selfless service of another member o
the family, but this altruism is limited to family members and hence
particularistic in nature.
2. As opposed to family, civil society reflects the idea of ‘universal
egoism’, a sphere where each member of society creates
interpersonal relations for the fulfilment of self-interests e.g. our
relationship with newspaper hawkers, milkmen, shopkeepers, etc.
To sustain civil society relations, Georg Wilhelm Friedrich
Hegel proposed an intermediary setup called the ‘external state’
which is based on the idea of ‘universal principles’. According to
Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel, it is nothing but what Thomas
Hobbes and John Locke call ‘state’, whose primary work is to
facilitate relations among members of civil society by providing
common measurements, communication mediums, and security.
3. However, above all exist the institution of ‘State’. It is the supreme
reason. Based on the conception of ‘universal altruism’, the state
reflects not merely the will of people but the spirit of god. The state has
its own soul, reason and consciousness. Georg Wilhelm
Friedrich Hegel’s state is a political community, where a group of
people manage their collective life together. Under his ‘theory of
freedom,’ Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel said that ‘what the
state decides for people is true freedom’. State laws and regulations
represent a universal spirit and are for the benefit of larger humanity,
hence, even disagreeing citizens should follow the state’s orders.
Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel was a statist thinker, according to him,
the formation of the State as an organization for human society represents a
dialectical process. For Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel ‘reason gets its
perfect realization in the state’. The state is the highest manifestation of
reason because it emerges as a synthesis of the family (thesis) and civil
society (antithesis). Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel further said that
‘The State is Reason Personified’.

IDEA OF UNIVERSAL CLASS


Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel’s idea of freedom required an efficient
and exemplary bureaucracy. Hence, he advised a bureaucracy chosen from
the open competition and based on merit. He called them the universal class
because they represent the common interest of people and serve them.
Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel’s faith in bureaucracy was so strong
that he called for a constitutional monarch whose work would be basically to
sign on dotted lines.

Book List with Important Information

Book Central Idea


Book Central Idea
Phenomenology of Spirit (1807) Inquiry about philosophical ideas
like absolute spirit, consciousness,
and truth.
Science of Logic (1812) Logical reasoning and dialectics.
Philosophy of Right (1821) Theory of civil society and the state.
Lectures on the Aesthetics (1835) Romanticism
Philosophy of History (1837) Historical Idealism

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Whose statement it is: ‘state is the march of god on earth’?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Plato
(c) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
(d) John Locke

2. According to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel, civil society represents?


(a) Particularistic Altruism
(b) Universal Egoism
(c) Universal Interest
(d) Universal Altruism

3. Assertion (A): History is the creation of ideas, their conflicts and


synthesis.
Reason (R): Ideas represent the real spirit and absolute
consciousness according to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel’s dialectical
idealism.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

4. Arrange the following steps of Hegel’s dialectical idealism in sequentia


order:
1. Thesis

2. Antithesis

3. Synthesis

(a) 1–2–3
(b) 3–2–1
(c) 2–1–3
(d) 3–1–2

5. Which Hegelian idea led to criticism of Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel a


a Fascist?
(a) Philosophy of History
(b) Theory of Slavery
(c) Theory of Civil Society
(d) Theory of Freedom

6. The central idea of Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel’s concept of Freedom


is:
(a) Absence of restraints
(b) Absence of domination
(c) Develop its full potential
(d) Following the laws of the state

7. Who was the founder of Historicism?


(a) George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
(b) Rousseau
(c) Mary Wollstonecraft
(d) J. S. Mill

8. Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel’s idea of universal class applies on:


(a) Bureaucracy
(b) Civil Society
(c) Bourgeoisie
(d) Proletariat

9. Arrange the following books of Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel i


chronological order:
1. Philosophy of Right

2. Science of Logic

3. Phenomenology of Spirit

4. Philosophy of History

(a) 3–2–1–4
(b) 2–3–4–1
(c) 1–2–3–4
(d) 4–2–1–3

10. Consider the following statements regarding Georg Wilhelm Friedrich


Hegel’s views on State:
i. Formation of State represents the end of human historical evolution
ii. Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel sees State as an Embryonic Stage
iii. For Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel all forms of State are not ration
iv. Reason gets its perfect realization in the state
Choose the incorrect option:
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

11. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel argued that through
the use of the dialectical method he discovered the greatest formula in
the history of philosophy.
Reason (R): It is a mechanism by which history propels itself.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

12. Who did not give to the individual the right to resist or oppose the State
or the Laws made by it?
(a) J. S. Mill
(b) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
(c) Mary Wollstonecraft
(d) Karl Marx

13. Who considered material things merely as the cumulative result of the
evolution of absolute ideas?
(a) J. S. Mill
(b) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
(c) Mary Wollstonecraft
(d) Karl Marx

14. Match the following list (i) to List (ii) regarding Hegel’s Ideas on Stages
of History :

Stages of History: Features:


a)Third Stage 1)Economic Interdependence
b)Fourth Stage 2)Qualitatively higher stage
c)Fifth Stage 3)Perfectly rational and perfectly ethical
d)Last Stage 4)Evolution of family system

Choose the correct match:


(a) (a)–(1), (b)–(2), (c)–(3), (d)–(4)
(b) (a)–(2), (b)–(1), (c)–(4), (d)–(3)
(c) (a)–(2), (b)–(4), (c)–(1), (d)–(3)
(d) (a)–(2), (b)–(1), (c)–(3), (d)–(4)

15. Consider the following statement regarding Georg Wilhelm Friedrich


Hegel’s political theory and identify the incorrect ones:
i. Laws made by the state are the dictates of pure reason.
ii. Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel gave primacy to private interest
public interest.
iii. Perfect knowledge is about knowing the idea of a thing.
iv. Material constitute the true motor of history.
Choose from the option:
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(c) (a) (a) (a) (a) (b) (d).
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (c)
(b) (d) (a) (c) (b)
3.
6. (d)
(a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

5. According to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel, the freedom o


people lies in following the laws of the state and people have no right t
challenge the state. According to him, State is perfect and infallible
hence it can’t be questioned by the citizen. This kind of absolutism in hi
view about the State makes him dear to the Fascist Theory and leader
like Mussolini.

7. Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel was the first thinker to apply a


historical perspective in the evolution of human society and the State
This historicism was later also used by Karl Marx in his idea o
‘Historical Materialism’.

10. Question is asking to identify the incorrect options. Option (ii) is


incorrect because to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel’s Stages of
History, Civil Society is the Embryonic stage (early stage of
development) before the formation of a State. Option (iii) is also
incorrect because according to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
all kinds of States are created in a historical process of evolution of
‘Reason’, Hence, all forms of state are perfect.

13. Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel in his theory of Idealism, argued


that all the material things around us, are temporary, they are just
representations of Ideas. ‘The idea of a thing is more important than the
thing itself.’

15. Question is asking to identify incorrect options. Option (ii) is incorrect


because Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel gave priority to the
public interest rather than the private interest. Option (iii) is also
incorrect because according to Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel,
ideas are the true motor of history. It was Karl Marx who consider the
material as the true motor of history.
CHAPTER 9
Mary Wollstonecraft (1759–97)

INTRODUCTION
Mary Wollstonecraft was born in London, an English writer and
philosopher, who advocated for women’s rights. Her writing advances
atheism, anarchism, and personal freedom. She was considered as the first
feminist writer. Her central idea was that all human beings have God-given
abilities and rights and, considered that both men and women share these
abilities and rights. According to her feminism is a transformative idea that
women are human beings and imagines a social order founded on reason.
She was influenced by the ideas of John Locke, Voltaire, and Thomas
Paine. She is also known as the ‘Child of the French Revolution’.

THOUGHTS ON EDUCATION
A vital concern with education, especially the education of girls and women
runs throughout in Mary Wollstonecraft’s writing. In her first book
‘Thoughts on the Education of Daughters’, she advocates educating children
into the emerging middle-class ethos of self-discipline, honesty, frugality, and
social contentment. Her most important work, ‘A Vindication of the Rights of
Women’, begins as a plea for the equal education of women and includes an
ambitious proposal for a national school system. She was acquainted with the
value of a ‘rational education’ to success and independence for women. She
believed that education should be built on strengthening a women’s
intellectual faculties, particularly by emphasizing the skills of logical reasoning
and abstract thinking through mastery of subjects such as mathematics,
science, history, literature, and language.
In her book ‘A Vindication of the Rights of Women’ she argues that men
and women hold the same type of virtue as one another. Through the
conditions society put on women, Mary Wollstonecraft believed they
were being forced to be weak of the constitution and of mind, through the way
they were socialised and educated. Mary Wollstonecraft stated, ‘I do not
wish women to have power over men but over themselves’. Equality was the
key to the reform of social institutions in general and women in particular.
Therefore, she often quotes that, it is necessary ‘to strengthen the body from
the heart’.
According to Mary Wollstonecraft, it is through education that
emancipation would come. She holds that the end goal with women’s
education is not only a change for women but rather a more virtuous society.
Both of her novels, ‘Mary’ and ‘Maria’, centrally address self-education, while
seeking to fill a pedagogical role in relation to their female readers.

SUPPORT FOR LIBERALISM AND EGALITARIAN


VIEW
Mary Wollstonecraft was considered as a liberal feminist who, in fact,
believed in procedural accounts of personal autonomy. She aimed at a
revolutionary transformation of liberal society by emphasizing the importance
of caregiving duties. She recognized an important role for justice and argued
that before personal caregiving activities could transform the political, political
justice had first to be extended to personal caring relationships. The liberal
paradigm was understood to be grounded in a particular set of ideals that
were held out as abstract universal values but which were, in reality,
masculine constructs. But due to Mary Wollstonecraft’s support for the
individual over community, rights over duties and care, and prioritising the
private over the public, many feminists during the 1970s and 80s distanced
themselves from Mary Wollstonecraft.
By using intersectionality as a conceptual tool for diagnosing the causes,
symptoms, and cures of arbitrary and harmful inequalities in her society,
Mary Wollstonecraft developed the most egalitarian account of social
justice in the egalitarian era. Being an egalitarian-liberal feminist she holds
that much can and should be done to support the personal and political
autonomy of women and to achieve parity in the processes of democratic self-
governance in liberal societies.
Mary Wollstonecraft advocated formal equality in which women were
entitled to the same civil liberties as men, so that, women would be able to
experience a life of genuine liberty free from the constraints of patriarchy. As
an egalitarian-liberal thinker, she claims that the state must effectively protect
women from violence, regardless of where it takes place.

A VINDICATION OF THE RIGHTS OF WOMEN


Mary Wollstonecraft writes ‘A Vindication of the Rights of Women’ in
response to French politician Talleyrand Perigord’s pamphlet on national
education. In this work, she argues that women are only inferior to men
because they lack education and not because of any innate deficiency. Many
considered it was the first book on feminist literature when the term ‘feminism’
did not even exist. This work of hers was against Rousseau’s ‘Emile’, which
argues that women did not need rational education, and argues that women
should be educated for the pleasure of men.
Her ideas in the book were greatly inspired by the French Revolution, the
Enlightenment Age, and associated beliefs. The main ideas are centred on
women’s oppression, education, reform, societal viewpoints and change, the
ideal family and marriage, and morality and virtue in society. She believed that
sexes should work together and be viewed as companions.
‘A Vindication of the Rights of Women’ insisted that women could not
become virtuous, even as mothers unless they won the right to participate in
economic and political life on an equal basis with men. She concludes ‘A
Vindication of the Rights of Women’ with a proposal to establish free national
schools for all children. Such schools are marked by strongly republican
‘Jostlings of Equality’—which focused on creating good citizens, and
coeducation at every stage.

List of Books with the Central Idea


Thoughts on Education of It offers advice on educating
Daughters (1787) children into the emerging middle
class.
Mary: A Fiction (1788) A novel that criticizes the patriarchal
institution of marriage and its
deleterious effects on women.
A Vindication of the Rights of Men It was a response to Edmund
(1790) Burke’s ‘Reflections on the
Revolutions in France (1790)’.
A Vindication of the Rights of Against Rousseau’s ‘Emile’. Talks
Women; with Strictures on Moral about rational education for women
and Political Subjects (1792) to commensurate their position in
society equal to men.
Letters Written in Sweden, Norway, Personal travel narrative, related to
and Denmark (1796) subjective experience in relation to
nature, and exploring the
connections between sublime and
sensibility.
Maria or The Wrongs of Women An unfinished novel, and is
(1798) considered as the most radical
feminist work. A critique of the
discourse of sensibility, a moral
philosophy, and aesthetics.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. What are the three major advances of Mary Wollstonecraft’s writings?
(a) Atheism, Anarchism, and Personal freedom.
(b) Theism, Harmony, and Personal freedom.
(c) Socialism, Feminism, and Atheism.
(d) Rationalism, Liberalism, and Feminism.

2. The emphasis of ‘Rational Education’, was implicitly mentioned in whic


book of Mary Wollstonecraft?
(a) Thoughts on the Education of Daughters.
(b) A Vindication of the Rights of Men.
(c) A Vindication of the Rights of Women.
(d) Original Stories from Real Life.

3. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A), and th
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Wollstonecraft believed that education should be
based on women’s reasoning and abstract thinking through mastery of
subjects.
Reason (R): In ‘A Vindication of the Rights of Women’, she advocated
a proposal for a national school system.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct, and (R) is false.
(d) (A) false, and (R) is true.

4. Consider the following statements about Mary Wollstonecraft’s view o


Education.
A. She believed that the end goal of women’s education is not only to c
women but rather a more virtuous society.

B. She believed that women were being forced to be weak of the co


and of mind, through the way they were socialised and educated.

C. She does not consider self-education as playing a pedagogical


among women readers.
D. She often believes that it is necessary to strengthen the body from
heart.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) All are correct.
(b) Only A, B, and C are correct.
(c) Only A, B, and D are correct.
(d) Only B, C, and D are correct.

5. As a supporter of Liberalism Mary Wollstonecraft emphasizes upo


which of the following key notions?
(a) Procedural accounts of personal autonomy and caregiving duties.
(b) Personal justice had first to be extended to political relationships.
(c) Supports community over the individual and priority of public
private.
(d) Believes in achieving parity in the processes of socialistic governan

6. In ‘A Vindication of the Rights of Women’, Mary Wollstonecraft cite


which of the following revolution?
(a) American Revolution.
(b) Russian Revolution.
(c) French Revolution.
(d) October Revolution.

7. Consider the following statements:


A. ‘A Vindication of the Rights of Men’, was a response to Edmund
‘Reflections on the Revolutions in France’.

B. ‘A Vindication of the Rights of Women’, was a response to Ro


‘Emile’.

Choose the correct statement from the following:


(a) Both statements A and B are correct.
(b) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(c) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect.
(d) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct.

8. What is the other name of Mary Wollstonecraft’s unfinished nove


‘Maria’?
(a) Mary: A Fiction
(b) Education of Daughters
(c) Jostlings of Equality
(d) The Wrongs of Women

9. Which type of education does Mary Wollstonecraft advocates?


(a) Radical
(b) Rational
(c) Reflective
(d) Relational

10. Which book explores the relation between sublime and sensibility and
subjective experience?
(a) Mary: A Fiction
(b) Maria
(c) Emile
(d) Letters Written in Sweden, Norway, and Denmark

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(a) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b) (d).
2. 4.
6. (c)
(c) (c)
CHAPTER 10
John Stuart Mill

INTRODUCTION
John Stuart Mill (1806–73) was a British philosopher, economist, and
statesman. As a liberal thinker, his thoughts represent a transition from
negative liberalism towards positive liberalism. On one hand, he is influenced
by utilitarians and on the other hand by idealists like Socrates and Plato.
He is known as both the advocate of liberty and at the same time Ernest
Barker called him the ‘prophet of empty liberty’. John Stuart Mill is a
proponent of representative democracy, yet he is also known as a reluctant
democrat. He is a utilitarian who destroyed utilitarianism. Thus, John Stuart
Mill was a liberal, he could also be regarded, at the same time, as a reluctant
democrat, a pluralist, a cooperative socialist, an elitist, and a feminist.

CONCEPT OF LIBERTY AND HARM PRINCIPLE


It is said that ‘if there is anyone, who is liberal, it is John Stuart Mill’.
Liberty is the core value of liberalism and no one before John Stuart Mill
has provided a systematic view of the liberal concept of liberty.
John Stuart Mill said, ‘No state becomes great by dwarfing its own
people’. According to him, liberty is a condition of progress, and it is essential
for the full development of personality.
John Stuart Mill suggested that liberty if provided to the people, then
that will increase their moral and mental abilities.

1. Freedom of thought and expression


2. Freedom of action, and
3. Freedom of association.
‘If all mankind minus one were of one opinion, mankind would be no more
justified in silencing that one person than he, if he had the power, would be
justified in silencing the mankind.’—John Stuart Mill
John Stuart Mill also proposes the concept of the ‘harm principle’ to
clarify the extent of individual liberty and the use of power by the State over
people against their wishes. He divides human actions into two categories:

The sole basis where mankind is permitted to intervene in the liberty of


man is to prevent harm to others. A person’s actions can be limited by the
state if they cause harm to others. Due to his division of human actions into
self-regarding and other-regarding, Ernest Barker calls John Stuart Mill
a ‘prophet of empty liberty’ and a ‘scholar of abstract individualism’.

REVISION OF UTILITARIANISM
Utilitarianism has been the dominant philosophy in Britain. It had a wide
appeal and become the philosophy of the common man. According to
utilitarian ethics, man should do what gives him pleasure and avoid what
gives him pain. What brings you pleasure/pain determines what is right and
bad. Utilitarianism’s slogan is the ‘greatest happiness of the greatest number’.
Once a dominant philosophy, utilitarianism came into criticism, Carlyle called
it a pig’s philosophy.
One of John Stuart Mill’s most important contributions to political
thought was his transformative critique of Benthamite utilitarianism. He also
replaced Bentham’s quantitative approach with a qualitative one. John
Stuart Mill used to consider himself a disciple of Bentham and hence he
revised utilitarianism. Major modifications that were introduced by John
Stuart Mill are:
For Bentham pleasure is quantitative whereas for John Stuart
Mill pleasures not only differ in quantity they also differ in quality.
John Stuart Mill included factors like moral motives, feeling of
universal altruism, sympathy, and a new concept of justice without
partiality.
For John Stuart Mill, it was not the principle of pleasure but
happiness and the dignity of man, the chief end of life.
He rejected the idea of ‘Felicific Calculus’ (Bentham’s Algorithm to
calculate pleasure) and said, happiness is qualitative and different for
different people.

John Stuart Mill said, ‘It is better to be a human being dissatisfied than a
pig satisfied, it is better to be Socrates dissatisfied than a fool satisfied’. He
wanted to say the quantitative satisfaction of the mere pleasures of the
majority should not be the basis of state governance. A state should always
work for creating qualitatively a better life for their citizen.

JOHN STUART MILL AS A FEMINIST


John Stuart Mill was known as the champion of individual liberty but also
one of the earliest advocates of women’s rights. According to John Stuart
Mill, all forms of slavery have been abolished except for the slavery of
women. Slavery of women is a universal phenomenon, just because it is
universal, does not mean it is right. He referred to women as both the subject
and the enslaved class, because their situation was worse than slaves. Unlike
slaves, they were in a ‘chronic state of bribery and intimidation combined’,
John Stuart Mill’s principal concern was gender equality as a legal right.
He was an advocate of women’s participation in the public sphere.
John Stuart Mill stated in the ‘Principles of Political Economy’ that
women were paid less because of societal prejudices not because of any
inferiority.
John Stuart Mill stated in the ‘Representative Government’ that
gender differences could not be the basis of political rights. The biological
difference cannot be logically invoked to justify the exclusion of women from
suffrage i.e. the right to vote.
According to John Stuart Mill, improvement in the position of women is
a concern not restricted to women alone, but to the entire humankind. ‘The
Subjection of Women (1869)’ made a strong claim for equal status in three
key areas:

1. Women’s right to vote,


2. Right to equal opportunities in education, and
3. Right to equal opportunities in employment.

REPRESENTATIVE GOVERNMENT
In his book ‘Consideration on Representative Government (1861)’ he
supported the idea of representative democracy as the best form of
practicable form of democracy in modern times. According to him
representative government will always function in the interest of the people
and be guided by the principles of individual liberty and skill development. The
function of government is to provide the situation for the moral and mental
development of its citizen. According to John Stuart Mill, democracy is the
best form of government.
John Stuart Mill is a champion of democracy, despite of that he was
referred to as a reluctant democrat by C. L. Wayper because John Stuart
Mill is afraid of introducing democracy in the colonies. According to him,
people in colonised countries like India are not well educated and civilized,
hence they might convert democracy into a ‘tyranny of the majority’. In the
words of John Stuart Mill, benevolent despotism is best for barbarians.
Democracy without democratic culture will be false democracy. People should
be committed to the principles of democracy. According to him, democracy is
not a free gift to be distributed.
To protect the future of democracy, John Stuart Mill proposed the
following reform:
Weighted Voting—Everyone is to be given one vote but those who are
educated and possess property should be given more than one vote.
Plural Voting—A person should have the right to vote in all such
constituencies where he has his own property.
Proportional Representation—Instead of a majoritarian model.
Greater powers to the upper house.
Open ballot rather than secret ballot.
John Stuart Mill has proposed the right to vote in favour of women.

List of Important Books by John Stuart Mill in Chronological


Order:
A System of Logic (1843),
Principles of Political Economy (1848),
On Liberty (1859),
Considerations on Representative Government (1861),
Utilitarianism (1863), and
The Subjection of Women (1869).

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who called John Stuart Mill a reluctant democrat?
(a) Karl Popper
(b) C. B. Macpherson
(c) C. L. Wayper
(d) Bentham

2. Who among the following sought to establish the non-utilitaria


proposition that some pleasures are of a higher quality than others?
(a) Priestley
(b) Hutcheson
(c) Bentham
(d) John Stuart Mill

3. What was the most important change done by John Stuart Mill i
Utilitarianism?
(a) He changed the quantitative approach with a qualitative approach.
(b) He renders felicific calculus useless.
(c) Differentiated between higher and lower pleasures.
(d) None of the above
4. Who stated that ‘placing restrictions on the freedom of expression o
human beings is like robbing off the present and future races.’?
(a) John Stuart Mill
(b) John Locke
(c) Isaiah Berlin
(d) F. A. Hayek

5. According to John Stuart Mill which principle can be utilized for th


interference with individual liberty?
(a) Harm Principle
(b) Felicific Calculus
(c) Utilitarianism
(d) Greatest happiness of the greatest number

6. Why John Stuart Mill is considered as an inconsistent thinker?


(a) He was a utilitarian.
(b) He was a reluctant democrat.
(c) He supported women’s suffrage.
(d) He stands at the crossroads of negative and positive liberty.

7. In which type of actions state does have an influence?


(a) Harm Principle
(b) Other regarding actions
(c) Self-regarding actions
(d) Empty liberty

8. Which thinker is being considered as ‘Peter who denied his master’?


(a) James Mill
(b) John Locke
(c) Bentham
(d) John Stuart Mill

9. Arrange the books in chronological order:


1. On Liberty

2. The Subjection Of Women

3. The Principles Of Political Economy

4. Utilitarianism

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3
(d) 2, 1, 4, 3

10. Below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Assertion (A): For John Stuart Mill will is the basis of all institutions
including the state.
Reason (R): ‘Will’ is not only dependent on number, it has a
qualitative foundation and the ‘Will’ which makes the institutions takes
on the form of a belief.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

11. Who called John Stuart Mill the ‘prophet of empty liberty’?
(a) Bentham
(b) Ernest Barker
(c) Berlin
(d) Bagehot

12. Which among the following is not written by John Stuart Mill?
(a) On Liberty
(b) The Subjection Of Women
(c) The Principles Of Political Economy
(d) A Vindication Of Rights Of Women

13. Which of the following reform is not proposed by John Stuart Mill in
democracy?
(a) Secret Ballot
(b) Weighted Voting
(c) Plural Voting
(d) Open Ballot

14. According to John Stuart Mill, which is the most important freedom?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom of action
(c) Freedom of association
(d) Freedom of contract

15. Which of the following is correct regarding John Stuart Mill?


A. Argued that universal suffrage does injustice to property owners.

B. John Stuart Mill wrote a famous book ‘On Liberty’ in the year 1855.

C. Does not favour qualification as the basis for the right to vote.
D. Justice not in the sense of greatest happiness of the greatest num
only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and C only
(b) A and D only
(c) B and D only
(d) C and D only

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 10. 13. (a)
(c) (a) (b) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11.
14. (a)
(d) (a) (d) (b)
3. 6. 9. 12.
15. (b)
(a) (d) (b) (d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

6. The liberal view of John Stuart Mill represents an age of transition


His idea includes a negative image of the state then he gave limited
power to the state only in case of other-regarding action. On the othe
hand, he gave a positive responsibility of developing skills and talen
among individuals to the state, and he also argued for State-sponsore
education. Hence, it is said that John Stuart Mill is an inconsisten
thinker.

11. According to Ernest Barker, the division created between self-


regarding and other-regarding action is ‘Artificial’. Any action could be
termed as other-regarding. Ernest Barker suggested that the
inconsistency and ambiguity of the harm principle provide immense
scope for the state to intervene in matters of liberty, which makes liberty
an empty idea.

15. Option B, is incorrect because the book ‘On Liberty’ was published in
1859. Option C is also incorrect because John Stuart Mill favoured
weighted voting and plurality voting systems.
CHAPTER 11
Karl Marx

INTRODUCTION
Karl Marx is one of the most extensively admired as well as a criticized
scholar of human history. He is famously known as the ‘Father of
Communism’. Dead or alive, Karl Marx is a personality who haunted
capitalism forever. He was born in 1818 in present-day Germany. He started
his philosophical journey as a Young Hegelian, but soon he counters the
idealism of Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel and presented a
materialistic interpretation of history, which became the foundation of what he
called ‘scientific socialism’.
He was a revolutionary, a philosopher, a radical thinker, and above all a
votary of the marginalized landless working class or ‘proletariat’. Theoretically
materialistic, practically anarchist, and philosophically humanist, Karl Marx
is not just a point in history but a creator of his own dialectics of history, called
‘Marxism’. Koestler arguably said Karl Marx is ‘The God that Failed’. His
critics hailed him as utopian, an enemy of open society, and what not? But
even today, when vertical and horizontal gaps within and among nations are
increasing, Karl Marx’s vision of a classless and stateless society is as
relevant as it was then.

CAPITALISM AND FREEDOM


Karl Marx was deeply engraved by the exploitation of the working classes
by capitalists (bourgeoisie). He theorized that under the capitalist mode of
production, all forces of production are monopolized by capitalists and
working classes are left at the mercy of the market. Through his ideas like
historical materialism and dialectical materialism, he has proved that this
monopoly on the economic base is the prime reason for the subjugation of the
proletariat in every other sphere of life. His understanding of capitalism is well
reflected in three volumes of ‘Das Kapital (1867)’ and ‘A Contribution to the
Critique of Political Economy (1859)’. According to Karl Marx capitalism is
the source of:

1. Surplus Value: Karl Marx said, ‘Labour is the sole creator of value
In a capitalist economy, a capitalist uses market competition and reduc
the wage of labour and increase their working hours. By not paying th
actual value of the labour-power a capitalist increases his profit, thi
extra value for which labour remains unpaid is ‘surplus value’ which goe
into the pocket of the capitalist because he owns the means o
production.
2. Exploitation: The ‘surplus value’ generated by workers themselves
is used against workers only. Capitalist uses the extra money to
consolidate their position in relation to production, Capitalist class
controls the State and uses it as an instrument of exploitation of the
Working Class. The relation of production in a capitalist society is in
favour of the Capitalist Class because the Working Class have no
force of production and no choice other than to work for capitalists in
every pathetic condition.
3. Alienation: In his work ‘Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts or
Paris Manuscripts (1844)’, Karl Marx talked about four levels of
alienation under the capitalist mode of industrial production:
a. From the product of their labour,

b. from the process of labour,

c. from themselves, and

d. from society.

4. Commodity Fetishism: Capitalism is based on the principle of


commodification. Everything is judged based on not its intrinsic value,
but on its exchange value. It represents a new kind of slavery where
not people, but their labour is traded.
5. Unfreedom: For Karl Marx, freedom represents ‘freedom from
needs’, because capitalism is exploiting people even for their basic
needs, freedom can never be accomplished under such an unfree
system.
COMMUNIST MANIFESTO AND REVOLUTION
Published in 1848 ‘Communist Manifesto’ emerged as the biggest political
doctrine of Karl Marx. Written along with his lifelong friend, Friedrich
Engels, ‘Communist Manifesto’ made a clarion call for uniting the workers of
the world and revolting against the capitalists. Karl Marx cleared that ‘no
birth is possible without blood’ and hence, only a violent revolution by the
working class could change the system into a classless and ultimately a
stateless society. However, any such revolution only took place after the death
of Karl Marx, in 1917, with the advent of the Russian Revolution.

IDEOLOGY AND RELIGION


For Karl Marx economic base i.e. production relations are the determining
features of any society. Governments, civil society, politics, ideology, and
religion, all are part of the superstructure which is also decided by economic
base only. Hence, he put forward that ‘in every epoch ideas of ruling classes
are the ruling ideas’ and they just reinforce ‘bourgeois’ dominance in every
sphere. He even called ideology a ‘false consciousness’ and religion as
‘opium of the masses’ because they divert people’s attention from real issues
and constrain proletariat consciousness. He counters the ‘false
consciousness’ with ‘class consciousness’.

MARX ON STATE
Though fundamentally Karl Marx was an ardent advocate of a stateless
society called ‘Communism’, there emerged different ideas of Karl Marx on
the state. He talks about the ‘dictatorship of the proletariat’ in the socialist
state, which is a transitional state after the revolution and before the
establishment of communism. In ‘Communist Manifesto’ he even called the
state as ‘executive machinery of the bourgeoisie’ and ‘an instrument’ of
capitalist exploitation of workers. Quite interestingly, in the ‘18th Brumaire of
Louis Bonaparte’, he presented a ‘relatively autonomous’ version of the state
when he said that states exercise a great deal of independence in societies
where capitalism is not mature enough. These contradictory opinions on the
state led to the famous ‘Miliband vs Poulantzas Debate’ in the contemporary
Marxist theory of state where Ralph Miliband stands by the idea of
‘Instrumental Marxism’, and Nicos Poulantzas and Louis Althusser
presented the perspective of ‘Structural Marxism’.
ASIATIC MODE OF PRODUCTION
The idea of the Asiatic Mode of Production (AMP) was propounded by Karl
Marx in the early 1850s in his articles on India. The central theme of this idea
is the different nature of Asian societies from Western societies which don’t
replicate similarities with ‘Western Capitalism’. Karl Marx suggested that
Asiatic societies were held in control by a despotic ruling elite, residing in
central cities and directly expropriating surplus from largely self-sufficient and
generally undifferentiated village communities. The basic tenets of the Asiatic
Mode of Production (AMP) are:

1. Absence of private ownership of land (self-sustaining units o


communes),
2. unity between agriculture and manufacturing (handloom, spinning
wheel),
3. absence of strong commodity production and exchange, and
4. stabilizing the role of societies and cultures like India against
invasions, conquests, and famines.

YOUNG KARL MARX VS MATURE KARL MARX


Louis Althusser divided the writings of Karl Marx into two separate
categories based on their chronology and central themes. Young Karl
Marx is characterized by the early writings of Karl Marx which reflect
human Subjectively like ‘alienation’, prominent works among them are
‘Economical and Philosophical Manuscripts’ of 1844. Young Marxist writings
inspired Gramsci and later the Neo-Marxist of the Frankfurt School. Old
Karl Marx or Mature Karl Marx’s writing is economically deterministic
and represents scientific methodology. Mature Karl Marx includes a more
political and activist version of Karl Marx which encompasses writings like
the ‘Communist Manifesto’ of 1848.
Important Books of Karl Marx in Chronology:

Book Year of Key Concept


Writing
Book Year of Key Concept
Writing
On the Jewish Question 1843 Political Emancipation and
Human Emancipation
The Economic and 1844 Theory of Alienation
Philosophical Manuscripts
Theses of Feuerbach 1845 # It lays the foundation of
historical materialism.
# Eleventh Theses—‘The
philosophers have only
interpreted the world, in
various ways, the point is to
change it.’
The German Ideology 1846 Camera Obscura
Communist Manifesto 1848 Proletariat Revolution
18th Brumaire of Louis 1852 Relative Autonomy of State
Bonaparte
A Contribution to the 1859 Base and Superstructure
Critique of Political Economy
Das Kapital 1867 Criticism of Capitalism of
Adam Smith and David
Ricardo
The Critique of the Gotha 1875 Social Democratic View
Programme

COMMENTARIES ON KARL MARX


Karl Popper—‘Karl Marx misinformed intelligent people by saying
that the historic method is the scientific way of approaching social
problems.’
G. H. Sabine—‘Marxism is a utopia but a generous and humane
one.’
Michael Harrington—‘The contemporary radical view of Marx as
being an excellent critic of capitalism but unable to provide a detailed
alternative to it.’
Robert Dahl—‘Karl Marx’s Politics is based on particular qualities of
the bourgeoisie state in the nineteenth century.’
Sheldon Wolin—‘Karl Marx sketched but never developed a
systematic theory of the state and hence the idea of a political
economy remained overdetermined and undescribed politically.’
Isaiah Berlin—‘Karl Marx did not foresee the rise of Fascism,
totalitarianism and the welfare state.’

FAMOUS QUOTES OF KARL MARX FOR EXAM


‘Capital is dead labour, which, vampire-like, lives only by sucking living
labour, and lives the more, the more labour it sucks.’
‘Workers of the world unite; you have nothing to lose but your chains.’
‘History repeats itself, first as tragedy, second as farce.’
‘From each according to his abilities, to each according to his needs.’
‘Religion is the sigh of the oppressed creature, the heart of a heartless
world, and the soul of soulless conditions. It is the opium of the people.’
‘Reason has always existed, but not always in a reasonable form.’
‘The last capitalist we hang shall be the one who sold us the rope.’
‘The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class
struggles.’
‘It is not the consciousness of men that determines their being, but, on
the contrary, their social being that determines their consciousness.’
‘If anything is certain, it is that I myself am not a Marxist.’

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following are the basic principles/political ideas of Ka
Marx?
A. Class Struggle

B. Estrangement

C. Parliamentary Government
D. Separation of Powers
E. Economic Base

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A, B, and E only
(b) B, C, and D only
(c) A, B, and D only
(d) B and E only

2. Which of the following is central to Karl Marx’s economic theory o


labour?
(a) Both labour and capital are important for the economy.
(b) Labour has no value without capital.
(c) Capital has no relation to labour.
(d) Workers own no forces of production.

3. Choose the correct statement/s:


1. Karl Marx’s socialist thought includes the idea of a classless and
society.

2. Karl Marx called for a nonviolent continuous revolution by the proleta

3. Karl Marx’s version of history sharply contradicts Georg Wilhelm


Hegel’s version.

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

4. ‘Freedom from necessities’ is advocated by?


(a) Republicans
(b) Marxists
(c) Liberals
(d) Social Liberals

5. Which of the following are matched correctly?


A. Commodity Fetishism—Exchange Value

B. Alienation—Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts

C. Communism—Each according to his work


D. Socialism—Each according to his need
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) C and D
(d) D and A

6. Which of the following views of the state is not discussed by Karl Marx?
(a) Instrumentalist
(b) Relative Autonomy
(c) Communist
(d) Managerial

7. Who said, ‘Karl Marx’s Politics is based on particular qualities of th


bourgeois state in the nineteenth century.’?
(a) G. W. Allen
(b) J. R. Hale
(c) J. S. McClelland
(d) Robert Dahl

8. Idea of the Asiatic Mode of Production (AMD) was given by?


(a) Mao Zedong
(b) Lenin
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Rosa Luxemburg

9. Assertion (A): Surplus Value generated by Capitalists is used t


exploit workers.
Reason (R): Surplus Value is generated by workers themselves.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

10. Who said, ‘It is not the consciousness of men that determines their
being, but, on the contrary, their social being that determines their
consciousness.’?
(a) J. S. Mill
(b) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
(c) Mary Wollstonecraft
(d) Karl Marx

11. Which among the following is not correct about Karl Marx’s views on
Dialectical Method?
(a) Matter is the essence of the universe and social institutions.
(b) Dialectics will bring a perfect or rational mode of production
existence.
(c) It is an ongoing process, and society will be ever-evolving.
(d) Dialectical Materialism represents the philosophical basis of Marxis

12. Who said, ‘Marx did not foresee the rise of Fascism, totalitarianism and
the welfare state.’?
(a) Harold J. Laski
(b) Isaiah Berlin
(c) Max Weber
(d) Macpherson

13. According to Karl Marx a capitalist adds surplus to his wealth because:
(a) The workers wish so.
(b) Machines installed by him produce more.
(c) There is a difference between the exchange value of what is prod
and what is paid.
(d) Capitalists can win the cooperation of the workers.

14. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Karl Marx’s
theory of Historical Materialism:
i. Historical materialism theory was introduced in ‘Economic
Philosophical Manuscripts’.
ii. Theory represents the philosophical basis of Marxism.
iii. The economic structure is the real basis of Society.
iv. Relations of production consist of means of production like tools,
equipment, and labour power.
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) (iii), and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii), and (iv)

15. Arrange the work of Karl Marx in ascending order:


A. A Contribution to the Critique of Political Economy

B. The Class Struggles in France

C. The Poverty of Philosophy


D. Critique of Hegel’s Philosophy of Right
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A, B, C, and D
(b) D, C, B, and A
(c) A, B, D, and C
(d) D, B, C, and A

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (c) (b)
2. 5. 8. 10. 12. 14. (a)
(d) (a) (c) (d) (b)
3.
6. (d)
(c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

3. Option 2 is incorrect because Karl Marx supported a ‘Bloody Socialis


Revolution’.

11. Option C is incorrect because according to Karl Marx dialectical


process will stop once we will achieve the perfect social order.
According to him, Communism (a Stateless and Classless Society) is
the perfect social order because it does not have any class and hence
no conflict or contradiction.

14. Historical Materialism was initially introduced in the book ‘The German
Ideology’. Option (ii) is also incorrect because historical materialism
represents the scientific basis of Marxism on the other hand
philosophical basis was represented by dialectical materialism.
CHAPTER 12
Antonio Gramsci

INTRODUCTION
Antonio Gramsci (1891–1937) was an influencing scholar of the
Marxist tradition. His philosophy may be regarded as an important link
between Classical Marxism and Neo-Marxism. He was the founder of the
Communist Party of Italy in 1921. As the founder and leader of the
Communist Party, he was imprisoned in 1926 by Mussolini’s fascist
regime. He died inside the prison. His ideas were later published as
‘Prison Notebook’. He was part of the Western Marxist tradition and is
famously known as the ‘Godfather of Cultural Marxism’. Antonio
Gramsci tried to move the focus of Marxist theory towards human
consciousness, by combining the materialism of Karl Marx with the
idealism of Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel he gave birth to the
phenomenon of Hegelian Marxism.

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN KARL MARX’S &


ANTONIO GRAMSCI’S THOUGHTS

Karl Marx Antonio Gramsci

1. Economical Deterministic 1. Rejected Economic Determinism and


Ideas. supported Human Subjectivity.
2. Scientific and Positivist 2. Anti-Positivist and Anti-Scientific
Thought. Relativism.
3. Historical Materialism. 3. Historical Relativism.
4. The base determines the 4. The base and superstructure are
nature of the relative, and the superstructure also
superstructure. determines the base.
5. Capitalism survives and 5. Capitalism survives and exploits by
exploits by use of manufacturing consent, which he called
coercive force. ‘Hegemony’.

CONCEPT OF HEGEMONY
Antonio Gramsci was inquiring why western societies’ capitalism is
thriving despite its exploitative characteristics. He realized that the people
of these countries are influenced by their leaders about the usefulness of
capitalism. He said consent is manufactured among the people in support
of the capitalist order of society and hence capitalism is a dominating
ideological setup and represents a ‘Hegemony’.
‘Hegemony’ is also a type of power (soft power). It is an invisible
power. ‘Hegemony’ is controlling the mind. The ‘bourgeoisie’ class rules
by controlling the mind. They rule by developing the power of attraction.
‘Hegemony’ implies manufacturing consent. When any idea or value
starts appealing to common sense it becomes ‘Hegemony’.

CIVIL SOCIETY VS POLITICAL SOCIETY


Antonio Gramsci takes Karl Marx’s division of the state into a base
and a superstructure, a step further when he divides the superstructure
into what he calls political society and civil society.
Whereas political society stands for such coercive institutions as the
government, armed forces, police, the legal system, and the like, civil
society refers to those institutions that are not coercive, including all
institutions used in the construction of public opinion. Civil Society is the
site of hegemony. It is a location where hegemony is manufactured. Civil
society acts silently. Civil Society acts as a cushion or a shock absorber
and helps in maintaining the domination of the bourgeoisie class. The
figure below is representing Gramscian understanding of society.
Antonio Gramsci said if the working class want to bring socialism
to these western societies, then they need to develop a counter-
hegemony against capitalism. For developing a counter-hegemony, the
working classes need to follow the war of position.

WAR OF POSITION VS WAR OF MOVEMENT


By ‘War of Movement’ Antonio Gramsci meant a frontal and direct
attack on the state power, as it was tried during the Russian Revolution.
Antonio Gramsci said a ‘War of Movement’ is not required and he
supported the path of a ‘War of Position’ in which the working class try to
create a position for socialist ideas among people of civil society.
Antonio Gramsci observed that the state is ‘only an outer ditch’
behind which lies a robust and sturdy civil society. So, if socialism wants
to control the western country, then the socialist forces must attack the
cultural structure which gives support to the capitalist economic system.
Antonio Gramsci was convinced that if the people start supporting the
socialist idea, then the transition from a capitalist to a socialist state
would be smooth and bloodless as well as stable. Antonio Gramsci
said for waging this war of position we need some organic intellectuals.

Organic Intellectuals vs Traditional Intellectuals


According to Antonio Gramsci, ‘Traditional Intellectuals’ are those
who have knowledge of various ideologies, but they don’t support any
specific ideology. On the other hand, ‘Organic Intellectuals’ are those
people who believe in an ideology as well as propagate it among the
masses. Antonio Gramsci said the working class is not capable or
intelligent enough to influence people about the qualities of socialism.
Hence, he said the working class also need their own ‘Organic
Intellectuals’. These ‘Organic Intellectuals’ will wage the war of position
within civil society by convincing people about the exploitative nature of
capitalism and the qualities of a socialist form of society. The role played
by the ‘Organic Intellectuals’ in a social system to create hegemony is
central. Antonio Gramsci said, ‘All men are intellectuals, but everyone
does not perform the function of Intellectuals’.

HISTORICAL RELATIVISM VS HISTORICAL


MATERIALISM
Antonio Gramsci refuted economic determinism as anti-Marxist. He
critically analyzed Karl Marx’s materialistic interpretation of history
(Historical Materialism). He sought alternative explanations for history
and was influenced by the idea of history presented by Italian Academic
Benedetto Croce. Benedetto Croce has underlined the
significance of cultural variables in history. As a result, Antonio
Gramsci believed that Karl Marx had overlooked the role of cultural
elements in history. In Historical relative philosophy, he considered that
the historical evolution of human society is not just dependent on an
economic base as suggested by Karl Marx, rather according to
Antonio Gramsci History represents a relative combination of ideas,
consciousness, materials etc.
Antonio Gramsci is known as the ‘theoretician of superstructure’.
Antonio Gramsci regarded the distinction between base and
superstructure as non-essential. He debunked the concept that the
superstructure was merely a realm of appearances or a ‘less real’ side of
life than a mode of production. Karl Marx, he argued, had taken
superstructure for granted. Superstructures, on the other hand, are
structures. Karl Marx’s historical materialism has been called vulgar
economic determinism. Marxism, however, is no longer crude economic
determinism as a result of Antonio Gramsci’s contribution. According
to him, history is nothing but human praxis and therefore it includes a will.
WORKERS COUNCIL
Antonio Gramsci believed in ‘Government by Councils’, as opposed
to party government. He was critical of bureaucratic centralism and
Leninist communism. He even chastised dictatorial parties for devolving
into a privileged class. Antonio Gramsci felt that a socialist society
should be constituted democratically. Like Karl Marx, he believed that
socialism would narrow the gap between civil society and the state.
IMPORTANT WRITINGS AND WORKS
A Great and Terrible World: The Pre-Prison Letters (1908–26).
The Prison Notebooks (three volumes) (1929–35)—They are
considered one of the most original contributions to twentieth-
century political theory. They cover a wide range of topics from
Italian history and nationalism to fascism, religion, culture and the
French Revolution.
The Southern Question.
The Modern Prince: And Other Writings (1949).

GRAMSCI’S ESSAYS
Newspapers and Workers (1916)—Antonio Gramsci discusses
the bourgeois newspaper as a tool of hegemony. He discusses
how newspapers serve the dominant class. He describes how, on
a daily basis, multitudes of workers contribute pennies to the
bourgeois press, so supporting them in consolidating their
authority.
Men or Machines? (1916)—Antonio Gramsci discusses the
bourgeoisie’s desire for worker machines over worker men.
One Year of History (1918)—In this essay, he discusses the
Russian Revolution and its consequences on workers.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following statements on Antonio Gramsci are correct?
(i) The State cannot be understood without a thorough understan
of Civil Society.
(ii) Civil Society is not the ensemble of organisms commonly ca
‘Private’.
(iii) It is in Civil Society that the struggle for hegemony takes place
(iv) He derived the term Civil Society and Political Society from He
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only (i) and (iv)
(b) Only (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

2. Hegemony means?
(a) The dominance of the working class.
(b) Tyranny of bourgeoise.
(c) Oppression of the working class.
(d) Controlling the mind or manufacturing consent.

3. In which year did Antonio Gramsci founded the Communist Party o


Italy?
(a) 1921
(b) 1925
(c) 1919
(d) 1914

4. In which book Antonio Gramsci’s ideas are published?


(a) The Prison Diary
(b) The Prison Notebook
(c) Letters from Prison
(d) Prison Catalogue

5. What changes does Antonio Gramsci bring to Marxism?


(a) He brings capitalist elements into Marxism.
(b) He changed the Marxist theory of surplus value.
(c) He denied the possibility of revolution.
(d) He changed Marxism from crude economic determinism in
balanced theory.

6. Choose the correct answer


(a) At the level of civil society, there is a ‘War of Position’.
(b) At the level of state there is a ‘War of Position’.
(c) At the level of state there is both a ‘War of Manoeuvre’ and a
of Position’.
(d) At the level of civil society there is a ‘War of Manoeuvre’.

7. Which type of intellectuals purposefully maintain the dominance o


the bourgeoise class?
(a) Traditional Intellectual
(b) Organic Intellectual
(c) Both a and b
(d) None

8. In which state does civil society exist?


(a) Transparent State
(b) Opaque State
(c) Both
(d) None

9. Match the following:

1. Mary Wollstonecraft 1. The Wretched of the Earth

2. Antonio Gramsci 2. Political Liberalism

C. Frantz Fanon 3. Vindication of the Rights of Women


D. John Rawls
4. Modern Prince

(a) A1, B2, C3, D4


(b) A3, B4, C1, D2
(c) A1, B3, C1, D4
(d) A4, B3, C2, D2

10. According to Antonio Gramsci, which factors were ignored by Karl


Marx in his analysis of history?
(a) Political Factors
(b) Economic Factors
(c) Cultural Factors
(d) Social Factors

11. Which of the following is the reason that directed Antonio Gramsci
towards an alternative form of socialism?
(1) Italy during the times of Antonio Gramsci was unsuited
deterministic Marxism.
(2) In the Classical Marxist tradition, objective material condit
were given an important place.
(3) His encounter with the fascist regime of Mussolini.
(4) He believed this historical relativism to be the core of Marxism.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason R).
Assertion (A): Antonio Gramsci rejected ‘scientific determinism’
and advocated political and intellectual struggle.
Reason (R): History is nothing but human praxis.
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(b) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explana
of (A).

13. Who suggested that there is no difference between social


consciousness and scientific knowledge?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Vladimir Lenin
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) Mao Zedong

14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Revolution, for Antonio Gramsci, is not a mere
technical act of seizing power.
Reason (R): Workers councils are a proper instrument of the act
of mass-based revolution.
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(b) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explana
of (A).

15. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Antonio Gramsci suggests working class to have
their own ‘Organic Intellectuals’.
(a) Intellectuals play an important role in manufacturing hegemony
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(c) (b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (a).
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (d)
(d) (d) (b) (c) (c)
3.
6. (a)
(a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Option (ii) is incorrect because civil society is a private organism


according to Antonio Gramsci.

5. Antonio Gramsci seeks a more democratic, less dogmatic, and


open version of socialism. He saved Marxism from the criticism of
crude economic determinism.

8. Antonio Gramsci categorises states into two types:


(1) In a transparent state civil society is absent, so the exploita
nature of the state is visible and revolution is easy in s
societies e.g. USSR and China.
(2). In the opaque state where civil society exists, here people faile
understand the real nature of the state and the state app
neutral. Hence revolution is difficult e.g. India and USA.

11. During Antonio Gramsci’s times, Italy was a semi-developed


country with a deep internal difference. It possessed a proletariat
with a broad rural base, a large essentially conservative peasantry,
and the influence of intellectuals in the working-class leadership.
Hence, Italy during the times of Antonio Gramsci was unsuited
for deterministic Marxism.

14. Revolution, for Antonio Gramsci, is not a mere technical act of


seizing power. It is a mass process, in which the toiling masses
take over the economic and political leadership. Workers councils
are a proper instrument of that process. According to him,
revolution cannot take place unless it is preceded by the spiritual
emancipation of the working classes.
CHAPTER 13
Hannah Ardent (1906–75)

INTRODUCTION
Hannah Ardent was a pure political philosopher of the twentieth-century,
an author, and the Holocaust survivor. She was born in Hannover, Germany
and is known as a German-born American political scientist and philosopher.
She was also famous for her critical writing on Jewish affairs and the study of
Totalitarianism. She is best known for those dealing with the nature of power
and evil, as well as politics, direct democracy, authority, and totalitarianism.
Her works were related to historical and contemporary political events, such
as the rise and fall of Nazism, and drew a conclusion about the relationship
between the individual and society. She also gave the concept of
‘Bureaucratization of Terror’.
Hannah Arendt was influenced by the ideas of Martin Heidegger,
Immanuel Kant, Friedrich Nietzsche, Walter Benjamin, Karl
Jaspers, Heinrich Blucher, Carl Schmitt, Hans Jonas, etc. She
was known by various phrases, like—‘Thinking without barriers’, ‘complex
thinker’, ‘controversial thinker’, and ‘heterodox thinker’.

EXISTENTIALISM AND CRITICISM OF WESTERN


POLITICAL THOUGHT
Existentialism is a thought that counters the external and objective
interpretation of the political and social system which is prevalently used in
western political thought. According to existentialist thinkers, subjective
understanding and explaining things according to their internal value is
important. As an existentialist, she approaches ‘freedom’ as not just the
capacity to be free, but also as the means from which meaning is derived.
Hannah Ardent did not conceptualize the human experience within as
individualist (singular) instead, she strongly focused on the human as a
member of the polis (political society). To Hannah Ardent it was in this, the
environment that human beings, with conscience, meaning, and motivation,
were made. Instead of individual, private, and contemplative freedom, she
gave priority to the social, the public, and active examples.

THEORY OF TOTALITARIANISM
There are three phases of Hannah Ardent’s theory of totalitarianism. All
these three phases of Hannah Ardent’s thought are in evidence in the text
of ‘The Origins of Totalitarianism’.

Phases of Totalitarianism
Phase 1 Anti-Semitism: hostile behaviour toward Jews as a
religious, ethnic, or racial group.
Phase 2 Imperialism: European powers, the emergence of
‘tribalist’ ethnic movements.
Phase 3 Totalitarianism: regimes of Hitler (Nazism) and
Stalin (Marxism and Leninism).

Hannah Ardent defined totalitarianism as a ‘novel form of government’


which is totally different from previous models of tyranny, despotism, or even
dictatorship. According to her, ‘totalitarianism has discovered a means of
dominating and terrorizing human beings from within’.
According to Hannah Ardent, modernity is the main reason behind the
rise of totalitarian tendencies. In modern society, people are more concerned
about their personal or private sphere (life), and less concerned about the
public sphere. The negligence of the public sphere by the masses leads to the
arbitrary use of power by the government, which results in excessive violence
and terror. She is critical of excessive bureaucratization and technocratic
societies which modernity has created. According to her, the Jews were
themselves responsible for their situation as they neglected the political
sphere for the economic sphere. According to her, totalitarianism is
associated with the rise of mass society.

THEORY OF ACTION
In her book ‘The Human Condition’, she talks about the ‘theory of action’.
Action, for Hannah Ardent, is ‘revelatory’ in that person engaging in action
discloses their essential being to others. In action, the end is ‘not pursued but
lies in the activity itself’. The two central features of action are freedom and
plurality.
In ‘The Human Condition’, she stresses that action is primarily symbolic in
character and that the web of human relationships is sustained by
communicative interaction. Action entails speech by means of language were
able to articulate the meaning of our actions and to coordinate the actions of a
plurality of agents.
According to her human action can be divided into two parts: ‘Vita Activa
(Action)’ and ‘Vita Contemplativa (Thinking)’. She states, ‘Action is more
important than thinking’. She further divides ‘Vita Activa (Action)’ into three
parts: labour, work, and action.

Table 13.1 Vita Activa (Action)

Labour Actions which are even performed by animals. Routine


action of life. Doesn’t represent individual identity and
freedom.
Work Economic Sphere—Homo Faber, ‘mixing of labour’,
reification, instrumentalization, and degradation of things
into means.
Action Most important, Zoon Politikon (Political Power), and active
in civic affairs. Man as a Political agent.
According to Hannah Ardent, political action is the most important
action, and it is superior to work and labour. Hannah Ardent believed that
by active involvement in the political sphere and performing political action,
people can prevent the rise of totalitarian tendencies in a political system.

THEORY OF POWER
She rejects the standard assumptions and definitions of power. She
distinguishes power from a series of concepts that political science often
refers to under the name like violence, force, and strength. Hannah Ardent
presented a constructive and positive theory of power, instead of explaining it
as coercion, she defined power as the empowerment of people. According to
her, power is a social phenomenon. Power is not a possession of an
individual, it is collective in nature.
She said, ‘Power is Sui-generic’, stating that it is the ability of human
beings to act together, and power appears when people join themselves
together and it disappears when people are disorganized and busy in their
private life.
Hannah Ardent—‘Power is the human ability to act in concert…it belongs
to a group and remains in existence as long as the group keeps together.’
According to her power and violence are different.

Power Violence
End in itself. Means to an end.
It needs no justification. It needs justification.
It cannot be centralized. It is centralized.

VIEWS ON REVOLUTION
She has provided a liberal view of the revolution. Revolution means doing
something new. She didn’t support the Marxist approach to revolution. In her
essay ‘On Revolution’, she gave an account of both the liberal-democratic and
Marxist traditions. She has compared the American and French revolutions.
According to her American Revolution was the ‘tale of freedom’, and it gave
political freedom whereas, the French Revolution was a ‘tale of necessity’,
and promised social and economic freedom, however it ended in tyranny.
Hence political freedom is more important than social and economic freedom.
She is not totally in favour of the American Revolution also, as it created
the institutions of representative democracy but not created enough
institutions for direct democracy. She distinguished between liberty and
freedom. ‘Liberty is freedom from tyranny’ whereas ‘freedom is capacity to do
something new’.
Important Books with Concepts:

1. The Origins of Describes Nazism and Stalinism as major


Totalitarianism (1951) totalitarian movements and blamed
modernity.
2. The Human Condition Provided Theory of Action and the concept
(1958) of Vita Activa (labour, work, action) and Vita
Contemplativa.
3. Between Past and Future Related to eight topics: freedom, education,
(1961) authority, tradition, history, politics, culture,
and stature of man.
4. Eichmann in Jerusalem: A Eichmann: a bureaucrat, did his duty during
Report on the Banality of Holocaust and says that he followed the
Evil (1963) culture of obedience.
5. On Revolution (1963) Comparison of American and French
Revolutions.
6. On Violence (1970) Differentiates between power and violence.
7. Crisis of the Republic Consists of four essays, ‘Lying in Politics’,
(1972) ‘Civil Disobedience’, ‘On Violence’, and
‘Thoughts on Politics and Revolution’.
8. The Life of the Mind Related to her moderate approach.
(1977)

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Hannah Ardent was best known for which type of Democracy?
(a) Representative Democracy
(b) Direct Democracy
(c) Constitutional Democracy
(d) Deliberative Democracy

2. ‘The most radical revolutionary will become a conservative the day afte
the revolution’. Whose statement is this?
(a) John Rawls
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) Frantz Fanon

3. What are the three phases of Hannah Ardent’s Theory o


Totalitarianism?
(a) Nazism, Expansionism, and Marxism.
(b) Totalitarianism, Leninism, and Imperialism.
(c) Anti-Semitism, Imperialism, and Totalitarianism.
(d) Anti-Semitism, Imperialism, and Bolshevism

4. In which of the following book does Hannah Ardent talk about th


‘Theory of Action’?
(a) On Revolution
(b) On Violence
(c) Crisis of Republic
(d) The Human Condition

5. Labour, Work, and Action, as major parts of human action are th


constituents of?
(a) Vita Contemplativa
(b) Vita Labora
(c) Vita Activa
(d) Vita Action

6. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A), and th
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Hannah Ardent was against the standard assumptions
of power, under the name of violence, force, and strength.
Reason (R): According to her power implies end in itself, can not be
centralized and needs no justification.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of
(c) (A) is true, and (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, and (R) is true.

7. Match the following:

Books Concepts

1. Crisis of the Republic 1. Labour, work, and action.

2. Between Past and Future 2. Moderate approach.

3. The Human Condition c.Stature of man.

4. The Life of the Mind d.Thoughts on Politics and Revolution.

Choose the correct answer from the following:


(a) 1–c, 2–b, 3–d, 4–a
(b) 1–b, 2–a, 3–d, 4–c
(c) 1–d, 2–c, 3–a, 4–b
(d) 1–d, 2–c, 3–b, 4–a

8. What is the full name of the book—‘Eichmann in Jerusalem’?


(a) A Report on evil.
(b) A Report on Jerusalem.
(c) A Report on the Banality of violence.
(d) A Report on the Banality of evil.

9. Consider the following statement.


A. Liberty is freedom from tyranny, whereas freedom is the capac
something new.

B. The American Revolution was a tale of necessity, whereas th


Revolution was a tale of freedom.

Choose the correct answer from the following:


(a) Both A and B are correct statements.
(b) A is the correct statement, and B is the incorrect statement.
(c) Both A and B are the wrong statements.
(d) A is an incorrect statement, and B is the correct statement.

10. Which of the following essays were not written by Hannah Ardent?
(a) Lying in Politics
(b) Civil Disobedience
(c) Crisis of the Democracy
(d) On Violence

11. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Hannah Arendt considers that only action is
authentically human and hence superior to labour and work.
Reason (R): The products of work constitute what Hannah Arendt
calls the ‘world’.
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(b) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).

12. Arrange the work of Hannah Arendt in ascending order:


A. The Origin of Totalitarianism

B. The Human Condition

C. Eichmann in Jerusalem
D. On Violence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A, B, C, and D
(b) B, C, A, and D
(c) C, B, A, and D
(d) D, B, C, and A

13. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: According to Hannah Ardent, the Jews were
themselves responsible for their situation as they neglected the political
sphere for the economic sphere.
Statement II: Totalitarianism is associated with the rise of mass
society.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

14. Who said that the political community is a ‘council state’?


(a) John Rawls
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) Frantz Fanon

15. Match the following list (i) to List (ii) regarding:

Books Ideas
a) The Human Condition 1) American vs Frenc
Revolution
b) Eichmann in 2) Individualistic view
Jerusalem politics
Books Ideas
c) The Origins of 3) Facelessness of ev
Totalitarianism
c) On Revolution 4) Modernity has
neglected the politi
sphere

Choose the correct match:


(a) (a)–(1), (b)–(2), (c)–(3), (d)–(4)
(b) (a)–(2), (b)–(3), (c)–(4), (d)–(1)
(c) (a)–(2), (b)–(4), (c)–(1), (d)–(3)
(d) (a)–(2), (b)–(3), (c)–(1), (d)–(4)

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (b).
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (b)
(b) (c) (d) (c) (a)
3.
6. (a)
(c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. In The New Yorker magazine in 1970, while defining the tendency o


power, she said ‘The most radical revolutionary will become
conservative on the day after the revolution’.

11. Reason statement is also correct, according to Hannah Ardent the


economic activities of humans resulted in the creation of this
materialistic world. Hence the world is a product of work. But the
reason statement is not explaining why action is superior to work and
labour.

14. For Hannah Ardent, a political community is a participatory


community- constructed from the bottom upwards. The political
community is a ‘council state’.
CHAPTER 14
Frantz Fanon (1925–61)

INTRODUCTION
Frantz Fanon led the groundwork for the development of post-colonial
studies. His ideological orientation can be understood from his own statement
that ‘what matters is not to know the world but to change it’. In his political
thought, he unmasked the psychological reality of Colonialism to the world.
He originally belongs to the French Colony Martinique which is a part of the
Caribbean Islands. Throughout his life, he remained a revolutionary leader
and was famously known as an Algerian political theorist. He was influenced
by the Marxist theory and contributed to the field of dependency theory as well
as critical theory. By profession, he was a psychiatrist, and he used his
psychic understanding to explain the phenomenon of colonialism as well as
the tendencies in post-colonial societies. He was part of the Anti-Apartheid
movement against white man’s supremacy.

POST-COLONIAL DILEMMA
In his famous work ‘Black Skin, White Mask’ Frantz Fanon tried to explain
the psychological situation which is faced by the people of colonial countries.
Frantz Fanon argued that colonialism has dehumanized the natives.
According to him, the process of dehumanization was thorough. And that the
black man can see himself only as a black (mirror) image of the white man.
The White man is the master and represents an object that must be feared
and desired. The black therefore tries to be more like the (desirable) white
master by putting on a ‘white mask’. They tried to become white by speaking
their language and adopting their culture and their values. Frantz Fanon
argues that the nature of the relationship between the white and the black has
its roots in the latent desire to become white.
COLOUR HEGEMONY
Frantz Fanon states that whites make them realize that they are inferior
and that whites are superior. Blacks then internalize this racism as a personal
failure leading to an inferiority complex. According to Frantz Fanon, this
racism is continuously reinforced in society reminding black people that they
are black first and people second. This hegemony of colour is the reason why
blacks always try to become whites. The black man, according to Frantz
Fanon has 2 dimensions—one with his fellow and the other with the white
man. A black man behaves differently with his fellow and the white man.
Frantz Fanon holds colonial subjugation to be solely responsible for the
self-division among black men.

VIOLENCE IN COLONIAL RULE


Frantz Fanon analyzed colonialism in his famous work ‘The Wretched of
the Earth’. Frantz Fanon talks about the effects of colonialism on the
psyche, cultural formation, and political organization of society. According to
Frantz Fanon, the colonial world is divided into the colonist and the
colonized. These identities, Frantz Fanon states are created by the
colonists to assert their superiority over the colonized people. According to
him, colonization is the creation of two conflicting societies, one of the
colonizers and one of the colonized. Colonization barbarizes the colonized in
a way that the colonizer can, in good conscience take everything from the
oppressed. The colonial masters maintain this hierarchy through violence
using police and soldiers. He said, ‘The colonized is elevated above his jungle
status in proportion to his adoption of the mother country’s cultural standards’.

MANICHAEISM
To explain colonialism, Frantz Fanon introduced the concept of
Manichaeism. The term was taken from a religion founded by Mani, known
by his followers as the ‘Apostle of Light’. Manichaeism represents the binary
split between everything that we around us. The things with light and good
represent truth, beauty, cleanliness, health, prosperity, etc. On the other hand,
dark and evil represent false, ugly, dirty, diseased, impoverished, etc. Frantz
Fanon said colonialism also works in a similar fashion and divides the world
of white and black people.
DEHUMANIZATION THESIS
According to Frantz Fanon, the colonial masters rule using violence.
Therefore, there is segregation between the colonizers and the natives. The
colonial world is violent and therefore the people living in this world may have
post-traumatic disorders. Native society is thus dehumanized and de-cultured.
Frantz Fanon argues that a violent revolution is necessary for the natives to
start a new humane society.

DIMENSIONS OF DECOLONIZATION
Frantz Fanon was a revolutionary and Marxist thinker and hence his
version of decolonization is violent. He said that, because colonialism was
established and maintained through violence, hence a violent revolution is
necessary to end colonialism. He gives a psychological dimension to the
sufferings of the natives. Frantz Fanon states the importance of the role of
violence in remedying suffering and facilitating the course of decolonization.
He said, ‘Violence is a man recreating himself.’

He said, ‘Imperialism leaves behind germs of rot which we must clinically


detect and remove from our land but from our minds as well.’ According to
Frantz Fanon, colonization was not legitimate and was rooted in violent
sources. Therefore, the suppressed are entitled to physical reclamation of
sovereignty as well as liberation from the psychological suffering of
colonization. Frantz Fanon states that the colonized should form a number
of political organizations to overthrow colonial masters. According to Frantz
Fanon, ‘Violence is not only justified, it is required.’
Major Books of Frantz Fanon:

Book Name Key Concepts


Black Skin, White Masks (1952) Psychological effects of colonial
subjugation.
A Dying Colonialism (1959) History of Algerian nationalism and
revolution.
The Wretched of the Earth (1961) Colonialism, Decolonization, and is
considered as a handbook for the
‘Black Revolution’.
Toward the African Revolution Collection of essays with a wide
(1964) number of topics ranging from
racism to decolonization.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who said, the hegemony of colour is the reason why blacks always try t
become whites?
(a) Frantz Fanon
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) John Rawls

2. Who said, ‘The colonized is elevated above his jungle status i


proportion to his adoption of the mother country’s cultural standards.’?
(a) Frantz Fanon
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) John Rawls

3. Who said, ‘What matters is not to know the world but to change it.’?
(a) Frantz Fanon
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) John Rawls

4. Who considered Colonization as the ‘implantation’ of an irrelevan


society?
(a) Frantz Fanon
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) John Rawls

5. Which among the following is correct about Frantz Fanon’s views o


colonialism:
A. Colonialism is an ‘implantation’ of an irrelevant society.

B. Colonization is the creation of two conflicting societies.

C. Colonial subjugation to not solely responsible for the self-div


among black men.
D. The effects of colonialism are only psyche and cultural.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and C only
(b) A and B only
(c) B and C only
(d) B and D only

6. Arrange the work of Frantz Fanon in ascending order:


A. The Wretched of the Earth

B. Black Skin, White Masks

C. Toward the African Revolution


D. A Dying Colonialism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Options:
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, C, D, A
(c) B, D, A, C
(d) D, B, C, A

7. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and th
other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Frantz Fanon uses psychoanalysis and
psychoanalytical theory to explain the feelings of subjugation that
blacks experience in the white world.
Reason (R): Frantz Fanon argued that colonialism has dehumanized
the natives.
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(b) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).

8. ‘Imperialism leaves behind germs of rot which we must clinically detec


and remove from our land but from our minds as well,’ whose statemen
is this?
(a) John Rawls
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) Frantz Fanon

9. In which of the following book Frantz Fanon gave the perspective o


decolonization?
(a) Black Skin, White Masks
(b) A Dying Colonialism
(c) The Wretched of the Earth
(d) Toward the African Revolution

10. According to Frantz Fanon why do black people want to become white:
i. Whites make them realize that they are inferior and that whites
superior.
ii. Blacks internalize racism as a personal failure.
iii. Hegemony of the colour.
iv. The process of dehumanization.
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) Only (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii)

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9.
(a) (a) (b) (c) (c)
1
2. 4. 6. 8.
(a) (a) (c) (d) 0.
(c)
CHAPTER 15
Mao Zedong (1893–1976)

INTRODUCTION
Mao Zedong (Mao Tse-Tung) is considered as the father of modern
communist China. He was a revolutionary leader and a celebrated thinker
of Marxist Theory. He tried to adapt and revamp the Marxist theory and
practice of revolution as per Chinese conditions. Mao Zedong was the
first person to apply communist principles in purely Asiatic situations and
in purely feudal societies. He founded the Chinese Communist Party in
Shanghai in 1921. The experiences and ideas which the Chinese
Communist Party had learned while waging protracted struggles were
summed up as Mao Zedong’s Thoughts.

MAJOR CONTRIBUTIONS TO MARXIST


THEORY
Unlike Karl Marx and Vladimir Lenin, Mao Zedong has
given a central position to the peasantry class in the Chinese
Communist Revolution, because the economic base of Chinese
society was agrarian at the time of the revolution.
Mao Zedong became the originator of guerrilla warfare within
Marxian revolutionary framework.
Karl Marx in his thought suggested that the socialist state will be
temporary, and it will wither away, but Mao Zedong suggested
that a socialist or communist state will be long-lasting and called it
a permanent revolution.
He replaced the phrase ‘Dictatorship of Proletariat’ with ‘People’s
Democratic Dictatorship.’
He even included the bourgeois class (capitalist) in the Chinese
Communist Revolution because he was fighting against the feudal
lords and imperialism in China. His Communist Revolution was not
against the capitalist class.

PERMANENT REVOLUTION
Mao Zedong’s most important contribution to political thinking is his
concept of revolution. In ‘On Contradiction’, he observes that inherent
contradictions in society create revolutions. There are tensions or
disputes among the classes in bourgeois society, particularly between the
two main classes, the bourgeoisie, and the proletariat. A revolution can
eliminate the ills of society. It is referred to as cosmetic surgery. As a
result, a proletariat revolution is required for societal change. Mao
Zedong once said, ‘A revolution is not a dinner party, or writing an
essay, or painting a picture, or doing embroidery, it cannot be so refined,
so leisurely and gentle, so temperate, kind, courteous, restrained, and
magnanimous. A revolution is an insurrection, an act of violence by which
one class overthrows another.’
Mao Zedong also highlighted the role of the party in a revolution. A
well-organized party structure is critical to the success of a revolution. A
party is absolutely necessary for a revolution. The growing contradictions
would eventually lead to revolution. As a result, it is the leaders’
responsibility to exploit the antagonism. Mao Zedong incorporated
guerrilla warfare, or launching a surprise attack on the enemy, into his
revolutionary idea.
A revolution is not a final solution rather, it is a start in the right
direction. There will be contradictions. Mao Zedong argued that when
the proletariat takes power, the ‘law of contradiction’ will continue to work.
Hence class struggle will not come to end, only its form would change.
According to Mao Zedong, the economic socialist revolution would
not automatically result in the strengthening of the socialist system. It will
be important to promote socialism on political, cultural, educational, and
ideological fronts over time. The process of socialist reconstruction is a
‘continuous’ or ‘permanent revolution’ that cannot be stopped at any point
in time.

ANTAGONISTIC AND NON-ANTAGONISTIC


CONTRADICTIONS
He formulated the notions of antagonistic contradictions and non-
antagonistic contradictions.

1. Antagonistic contradictions can only be resolved through struggle


e.g. contradictions between the Chinese people and the bourgeoise
is antagonistic.
2. Non-Antagonistic contradictions are those which can be resolved
peacefully e.g. contradictions between the peasantry and the
proletariat.
The non-antagonistic contradictions ‘exist among the people,’ and the
antagonistic contradictions are ‘between the enemy and the people’.

PEOPLE’S WAR
Mao Zedong in his ‘Red Book’ stated that, ‘political power comes from
the barrel of the gun’. Maoism is a pragmatic and flexible form of
communism. Maoism is not against capitalism. Maoism is also not
against nationalism. Maoism is against imperialism and feudalism in
Chinese society. Hence, Mao Zedong believed that revolution is
required on two fronts:
He was sure that it was not possible for the rule of the feudal
landlords to end until the rule of imperialism was overthrown. The
peasantry can be mobilized to undertake a ‘people’s war’ of armed
struggle involving guerrilla warfare in three stages.
The three stages are:

1. The First Stage—Mobilisation and organization of the peasantry.


2. The Second Stage—Setting up a rural base and increasing
coordination among the guerrilla organizations.
3. The Third Stage—Transitioning into conventional warfare.
He stated, ‘Weapons are a significant factor in battle, but they are not
the deciding factor; people, not things, are decisive.’ According to Mao
Zedong people are more important than the weaponry in the struggle.
Thus, Mao Zedong emphasized the doctrine of a total revolution by the
totality of the masses.

NEW DEMOCRACY
Mao Zedong saw that the Chinese peasantry lacked the strength to
win the revolutionary war against imperialism and feudalism. As a result,
it was necessary to seek assistance from the other classes of Chinese
society. Mao Zedong highlighted the concept of a United Front in this
context. He used the United Front Policy to unite the Chinese peasantry
with the proletariat, petty bourgeoisie (middle class), and even the
national bourgeoisie. Mao Zedong called for the New Democratic
Republic of China in 1940 as part of his United Front Strategy. In 1945,
he proposed a new state system known as New Democracy.
Mao Zedong suggested that in Colonial and Semi-colonial
countries, the democratic system will be different according to the social
and economic conditions. He said the model of ‘Representative
Democracy’ favoured by Western countries is ‘Old Democracy’. The Idea
of a new democracy is also known as the ‘Dictatorship of Four Social
Classes’.
He called such a state as the ‘People’s Democratic Dictatorship’. It
was a combination of two aspects—‘democracy for the people’ and
dictatorship over the ‘enemies of the people’ or the ‘running dogs of
imperialism’. Thus, Mao Zedong replaced the Marxist principle of
‘Proletariat Dictatorship’ with the principle of ‘Peoples Democratic
Dictatorship’.

OTHER IMPORTANT CONCEPTS


According to Mao Zedong, a revolution should keep on happening after
a definite time frame as bourgeoise elements rise again and again. Mao
Zedong himself started many campaigns like the hundred flowers
campaign, the great leap forward, the cultural revolution, etc.
Hundred Flowers Bloom Theory: ‘Many a hundred flowers
bloom, and a hundred schools of thought contend.’—Mao Zedong in
1956. Mao Zedong’s ‘Hundred Flowers Policy’ is part of the new
ideology advocated by Mao Zedong during the Cultural Revolution.
Mao Zedong asserted that it would be incorrect to believe that any
society should have only one ideology or state. He believed that ‘every
thought was a flower, and let such a hundred schools of thought
compete.’ In short, this policy stressed the need not to use coercion in
ideological concerns. However, throughout the Cultural Revolution,
coercion was commonplace.
Cultural Revolution: The Cultural Revolution was essentially a
social-political movement that occurred in the People’s Republic of China
from 1966 to 1976. The stated goal of the Cultural Revolution was to
impose Maoist Orthodoxy within the Chinese Communist Party and to
install communism in the country by eradicating capitalist, traditional, and
cultural components from Chinese society. This revolution should be
viewed in the context of Mao Zedong’s convictions that class struggle
persisted throughout the communist period due to the fundamental
antagonistic contradiction between capitalism and socialism. However,
China suffered greatly as a result of the Cultural Revolution.
The Great Leap Forward: In Chinese history, the ‘Great Leap
Forward’ was a campaign undertaken by Chinese communists between
1958 and early 1960 to organize its vast population, particularly in large-
scale rural communes, to meet China’s industrial and agricultural
problems. The promulgation of the ‘Great Leap Forward’ was the result of
the failure of the Soviet model of industrialization in China.
Mass Line: Mass line refers to the policy and style of leadership
recommended for socialist countries. This policy seeks to ensure that
leaders and party workers come closer to the masses, explore their
sentiments, and mould their leadership patterns along those lines. It
seeks to restore the importance of ordinary workers (and peasants) in
regard to their role in socialist reconstruction.

IMPORTANT WORKS OF MAO ZEDONG


On Contradiction (1937)— Mao Zedong’s interpretation of dialectical
materialism. He uses the concept of contradiction to describe several
events in China.
On Guerrilla Warfare (1937)—In this essay, he discusses the Chinese
need for Guerrilla Warfare during the Second Sino–Japanese War.
On Practice and Contradictions (1937)—In this work, Mao Zedong
affirms his support for Marxism and discusses the establishment of a
Chinese brand of communist philosophy.
On Protracted War (1938)— Mao Zedong discusses a protracted
people’s war to combat state power.
On New Democracy (1940)—It contains the political structure of New
Democracy.
On Coalition Government (1945)—Mao Zedong’s political report to
the Communist Party of China’s Seventh National Congress.
On People’s Democratic Rule (1949)—It was written to commemorate
the Chinese Communist Party’s twenty-eighth anniversary.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who adopted communism to the Asiatic form?
(a) M. N. Roy
(b) Mao Zedong
(c) Vladimir Lenin
(d) Leon Trotsky

2. Who said that ‘political power comes from the barrel of the gun.’?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Vladimir Lenin
(c) Mao Zedong
(d) Rosa Luxemburg

3. When was the Communist Party of China founded?


(a) 1921
(b) 1925
(c) 1919
(d) 1931
4. Mao Zedong gave the most important position to bring revolution to
which group?
(a) Workers
(b) Industrialists
(c) Peasants
(d) Intellectuals

5. Which contradictions can be resolved peacefully?


(a) Antagonistic
(b) Non-Antagonistic
(c) Both
(d) None

6. Mao Zedong’s Political ideology framed the official name of China


Identify the correct one:
(a) Democratic Republic of China
(b) People’s Republic of China
(c) Democratic People’s Republic of China
(d) Dragon Sino–China

7. Mao Zedong replaced the Marxist principle of ‘Proletaria


Dictatorship’ with the principle of?
(a) People’s Democratic Dictatorship
(b) Democratic Centrism
(c) Democratic People’s Republic
(d) People’s Democratic Republic

8. Which statement is wrong regarding Mao Zedong?


(a) He supported violent means of revolution.
(b) He emphasized the doctrine of a total revolution by the totali
the masses.
(c) He was against feudalism and imperialism.
(d) He was of the view that a single revolution would be sufficie
bring communism.

9. Which is not the work of Mao Zedong?


(a) On Contradiction
(b) On Protracted War
(c) On Revolution
(d) On People’s Democratic Rule

10. In which of the following book Mao Zedong stressed on the theory
of a total revolution by the totality of the masses?
(a) On People’s Democratic Rule
(b) On Practice and Contradictions
(c) On Protracted War
(d) On Guerrilla Warfare

11. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): According to Mao Zedong, the economic socialist
revolution would not automatically result in the strengthening of the
socialist system.
Reason (R): The process of socialist reconstruction is a
‘continuous’ or ‘permanent revolution’ that cannot be stopped at
any point in time.
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(b) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explana
of (A).

12. Which of the following is/are the modification that was made by
Mao Zedong in Classical Marxist Theory:
i. Mao Zedong stated that the leadership of the revolution shoul
provided by the peasants.
ii. The phase of the dictatorship of the proletariat would last for a
time.
iii. The principle of ‘Peoples Democratic Dictatorship’.
iv. Communist party should be the vanguard of the revolution.
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

13. Consider the following statements regarding Mao Zedong’s views:


i. Mao Zedong has profound faith in the wisdom of the masses.
ii. Mao Zedong stated that it is not necessary that in any soc
there should be only one ideology or one state.
iii. Mao Zedong sought to carry the violent revolution for a s
duration.
iv. People as a more important factor than weapons in the war.
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i), (iii), and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

14.
(a) Arrange the work of Mao Zedong in descending order:
(a) On Protracted War
(b) On New Democracy
(c) On People’s Democratic Rule
(d) On Practice and Contradictions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, B, A, D
(b) D, A, B, C
(c) B, C, D, A
(d) A, B, C, D

15. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Mao Zedong, the revolution was
needed on two fronts.
Reason (R): Unless the imperial powers were overthrown, the
rule of the feudal landlords cannot be ended.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(b) (c) (a) (c) (c) (b) (a).
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (a)
(c) (b) (d) (c) (b)
3.
6. (b)
(a)
Explanation for Selected Questions

11. In his Permanent Revolution Theory, Mao Zedong stated that


just an economic revolution would not be enough, the communist
party need to control the power to ensure the maintenance and
development of a socialist system. Social reconstruction is a
permanent process or a permanent revolution.

12. Option (iv) is not an original contribution of Mao Zedong.


Vladimir Lenin was the first Marxist thinker to consider the party
as the ‘Vanguard of Revolution’.

13. Option (iii) is incorrect because according to Mao Zedong, a


revolution needs to be permanent.

14. Books need to be arranged in descending order, not ascending


order.
CHAPTER 16
John Rawls (1921–2002)

INTRODUCTION
John Rawls (or John Bordley Rawls) was an American Political
Thinker. He belongs to the era of Contemporary Political Thought. His theory
of justice once again revived the normative perspective in Political Theory.
The application of deontology in combination with the social contract
methodology made him the prince of contemporary political thought. His
difference principle in justice theory revolutionised the idea of affirmative
action and positive discrimination by the State. He can be considered as a
modern liberal or social liberal and even an egalitarian thinker based on his
ideological orientation. He died on 27 November 2002.

THEORY OF JUSTICE
In ‘A Theory of Justice,’ John Rawls started with the statement that, ‘Justice
is the first virtue of social institution,’ meaning that a good society is one
structured according to principles of justice. John Rawls’s theory of justice
ultimately appears to be based on the principles of liberalism. John Rawls
describes his theory as ‘purely procedural,’ he wants to show that his theory is
completely rational, it is not based on some prior values or biases. Also, he
revived the tradition of the social contract.
Before John Rawls’s theory of justice, the utilitarian theory of justice
has been the dominating theory of liberalism which is based on the principle
of the greatest happiness of the greatest number and its disregard for
distributive justice. The flaw of utilitarianism is the neglect of human dignity.
John Rawls in the first part of his book ‘Theory of Justice’ criticized the
utilitarian theory of justice and then presented his idea of distributive justice.
The tradition of human dignity was revived by Immanuel Kant. Therefore,
John Rawls prefers the tradition of Immanuel Kant and calls his theory
of justice as deontological. In John Rawls’s words, ‘Each person
possesses an inviolability founded on the principles of Justice.’ It shows that
human dignity has to be the fundamental principle of the theory of justice.
John Rawls constructs his theory of justice as fairness by conceptualizing a
hypothetical original position.

ORIGINAL POSITION
The original position is a thought experiment and a heuristic device very
similar to the state of nature in the traditional social contract theories. The
original position is a hypothetical situation, not some pre-civilized period of the
history of mankind.
People have assembled to determine the principles of the distribution of
primary goods. The primary goods are such as liberty, rights income, wealth,
and dignity. John Rawls resorts to such a method to ensure that the
principles of justice that come up are fair.
According to John Rawls, the people who gather do have moral
judgements and reasoning, so they are ‘mutually disinterested’ i.e. self-
interested. Though they are mutually disinterested, they understand that to
live in a society they have to agree on some basic principles of cooperation so
they have come to determine the distribution of primary goods. However, the
original position is located behind a veil of ignorance which is characterized by
the lack of knowledge possessed by the people in it.
Figure 16. Veil of Ignorance in Original Position

VEIL OF IGNORANCE
It is the defining feature of the original position which prevents the arbitrary
facts about citizens from influencing their judgments. John Rawls did not
consider that the various attributes people gain by virtue of their births (such
as class, caste, colour, race, intelligence, prowess, etc.) should influence the
functioning of social institutions towards them. Therefore, he did not find any
moral dilemma in depriving the people gathered in the original position of
knowledge of their positions in society (as they only happened to be in that
position by chance of nature). Therefore, the veil of ignorance screens out
specific information about the people.
However, they do know general facts about human life, facts of common
sense, and all citizens have an interest in primary goods.
John Rawls also makes other assumptions regarding reasonable
citizens who have gathered at their original position:
They are rational and have an intuitive sense of justice,
they are not motivated by envy and are mutually disinterested, and
they must make a final agreement on the principles of justice and must
not renege on it once the veil is lifted.

Reasonable citizens would want to live in a society in which they can


cooperate with their fellow citizens on terms that are acceptable to all.
Therefore, John Rawls uses the original position in two forms—as an
analytic device to reduce complex social problems to simple individual
choices and as a justificatory device to defend the fairness of the chosen
principles of justice.

Behind the veil of ignorance, the people do not know:


Their place in society,
their class position or social status,
their fortune: both in terms of their natural abilities, such as their
strength and intelligence, and assets, such as money or land.
their conception of the good life, and
the way society is organized in terms of what abilities and assets are
important.
Thus, the people, who were kept behind the veil of ignorance have to
decide what should be the system with respect to the arrangement of
primary goods. To determine the order of priority, John Rawls
believes that the ‘Maximin Principle’ is the most rational way.

MAXIMIN PRINCIPLE
Any rational person would like to maximize the benefits of any advantage he
has. Any rational person would like to minimise the impact of any
disadvantage if he has one. Any rational person will put himself in both
situations:

1. What if he is best of and


2. What if he is worst of.
People in the original position will consider different options and will
ultimately opt for the options whose worst outcome is better than the worst
outcome of any other option.
According to John Rawls, any rational person will give primacy to
thinking about advantages over disadvantages. This process of determining
the advantages over disadvantages is known as the ‘Maxi Min Principle’ or
‘Maxi Min Reasoning’.

REFLEXIVE EQUILIBRIUM
John Rawls believed that in the original position people will use the method
of reflexive equilibrium to achieve the principle of justice. These principles of
justice are a reflection of our inherent moral sense and our innate sense of
justice inherent in our minds. Reflexive equilibrium is a process by which we
streamline and verify our judgments. This happens when we question our own
beliefs.

PRINCIPLES OF JUSTICE
John Rawls stated that in the original position, the members of a society
would be led by reason and self-interest to agree upon the following principles
of justice:

1. FIRST PRINCIPLE—Equal Liberty Principle: Each person is t


have an equal right to the most extensive basic liberty compatible with
similar liberty for others. This principle seems to be of negative liberty i.e
freedom from restrictions or coercion.
2. SECOND PRINCIPLE—The Principle of Fair Equality of
Opportunity and the Difference Principle: John Rawls’s
second principle of justice states that social and economic inequalities
are to be arranged so that they are both:
(a) Attached to offices and positions open to all under conditions o
equality of opportunity i.e. the fair equality of opportunity princip
provides that society must facilitate everyone with the most b
means to enable them to participate in social competition. Every
should have an equal opportunity to compete for the public or pr
offices or positions that they wish for. This includes providing educ
and healthcare.
(b) To the greatest benefit of the least advantaged i.e. the Differ
Principle which is a principle of distributive justice. The Differ
Principle of John Rawls is based on ‘Maximin Reasoning
provides that in case of an unequal distribution of wealth and inco
the inequality must be such that those that are worst off are still b
off than they would be under any other distribution. ‘In justic
fairness,’ John Rawls says, ‘men agree to share one another’s f

LEXICAL ORDER
John Rawls held that the principles of justice are in lexical order (in the
manner as alphabets are in dictionaries, ‘y’ cannot come before ‘x’). The first
principle of equal liberties was lexically prior to the principle of equal
opportunities which itself was prior to the difference principle. It meant that the
first principle could not be violated to fulfil or justify the second principle. In
other words, the distribution of equal liberties and rights could not be violated
to justify a more equal distribution of opportunities.

LIST OF IMPORTANT WRITINGS AND BOOKS IN


CHRONOLOGY

Year Name Key Concepts


1971 Theory of Justice Original Position, Veil of
Ignorance, Difference
Principle, Lexical Order,
Maximin Principle, etc.
1985 Justice as Fairness: An article to express the
Political, not Metaphysical conception of justice as a
(Article) balance of desert (talent),
merit, and need.
Year Name Key Concepts
1993 Political Liberalism # Revised the theory of
justice based on the
communitarian critique.
# Overlapping Consensus
and Public Reason.
1993 Laws of People # Revised theory of justice
based on the cosmopolitan
critique by Thomas
Pogge and Charles
Beitz. John Rawls added
a global perspective.
# He identified five types of
political regimes—liberal
societies, hierarchical
societies, outlaw states,
burdened societies, and
benevolent absolutism.
2001 Justice as Fairness: A published as a restatement
Restatement of his 1971 classic ‘A Theory
of Justice’.

IMPORTANT TERMS AND KEY CONCEPTS


Chain Connection: A society is ‘chain-connected…if an advantage
has the effect of raising the expectations of the lowest position, it raises
the expectations of all positions in between. For example, if the greater
expectations for entrepreneurs benefit the unskilled worker, they also
benefit the semiskilled.’
Close-knitted: A society is ‘close-knit…[if] it is impossible to raise or
lower the expectation of any representative man without raising or
lowering the expectation of every other representative man, especially
that of the least advantaged. There is no loose-jointedness, so to
speak, in the way expectations hang together.’
Public Reasoning: Public reason requires that the moral or political
rules that regulate our common life be, in some sense, justifiable or
acceptable to all those persons over whom the rules purport to have
authority.

Overlapping Consensus: Overlapping Consensus is a situation in which


different people having different comprehensive doctrines agree to a common
set of political conceptions of justice for different reasons. In an overlapping
consensus, citizens support the same basic laws for different reasons.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following statements regarding John Rawls is/are correct?
Statement I: John Rawls stated that justice is the first virtue of the
social institution.
Statement II: John Rawls stated that justice is the first virtue of state
institutions.
(a) Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.
(b) Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.
(c) Both statements are incorrect.
(d) Both statements are correct.

2. Which of the following concepts were not given by John Rawls?


(a) Veil of Ignorance
(b) Reflective Equilibrium
(c) Philosophy of Praxis
(d) Original Position

3. Which of the following is not a work of John Rawls?


(a) A Theory of Justice
(b) Political Liberalism
(c) Justice as Fairness
(d) Principles of Political Economy

4. Arrange the works of John Rawls in chronological order:


A. Justice as Fairness: Political, Not Metaphysical

B. Political Liberalism

C. Justice as Fairness: A Restatement


D. Theory of Justice
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) C, B, A, D
(b) D, A, B, C
(c) B, C, D, A
(d) A, B, C, D

5. In which book John Rawls mentioned the idea of the veil of ignorance?
(a) A Theory of Justice
(b) Political Liberalism
(c) Laws of the People
(d) None of the above

6. Arrange the following works of John Rawls chronologically:


i. Theory of Justice
ii. Political Liberalism
iii. Justice as Fairness
(a) ii, i, iii
(b) i, ii, iii
(c) iii, ii, i
(d) i, iii, ii

7. Who said, ‘Justice is the first virtue of societal Institutions.’?


(a) J. S. Mill
(b) John Rawls
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Thomas Hobbes

8. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?


1. Plato—Idealist

2. Mary Wollstonecraft—Communist

3. Antonio Gramsci—Feminist

4. John Rawls—Egalitarian

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

9. Which of the following statements is not correct about John Rawls?


(a) John Rawls was born in 1921 in Baltimore, Maryland.
(b) He talked about the principle of reflective equilibrium.
(c) He advocated the tradition of Thomas Hobbes instead of Imma
Kant’s Human Dignity.
(d) The Difference Principle was given by him.

10. Match the following:

List I (Thinkers) List Ii (Works)

1. Mary Wollstonecraft 1. The Wretched of The Earth

2. Gramsci 2. Political Liberalism

C. Frantz Fanon 3. Vindication of The Rights of Women

D. John Rawls 4. The Prison Notebook

(a) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1


(b) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
(c) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(d) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

11. Which among the following statement is not correct about the veil of
ignorance?
(a) Principles chosen from behind the veil of ignorance are fair.
(b) It is used to remove irrational choices.
(c) It is a social experiment.
(d) It is a way of procedural justice.

12. Which one of the features of John Rawls’s concept of the veil of
ignorance is not true?
(a) No one knows his place in society, his class position, or his s
status.
(b) No one knows his fortune in the distribution of natural assets
abilities.
(c) The parties know their special psychological propensities.
(d) The parties do not (even) know their conception of the good.

13. Which among the following is a process by which a person streamlines


his/her thoughts or ideas?
(a) Original Position
(b) Reflexive Equilibrium
(c) Veil of Ignorance
(d) Maximin Principle

14. What is the full name of the essay written by John Rawls in the year
1985?
(a) Justice as Fairness: A Restatement on Social Justice
(b) Justice as Fairness: A Restatement
(c) Justice as Fairness: Political, not Metaphysical
(d) Justice as Fairness: Social, not Metaphysical

15. According to John Rawls, inequalities are justified only when:


(a) They result in the development of the worst-off section of society.
(b) They result in the development of a meritorious society.
(c) They do not create equality of opportunity in society.
(d) None of the above

16. In which of the following book John Rawls introduced the idea of
overlapping consensus?
(a) Political Liberalism (1993)
(b) Justice as Fairness: A Restatement (2001)
(c) A theory of Justice (1971)
(d) Justice as Fairness: Political, not Metaphysical (1985)

17. Why John Rawls used the ‘Social Contract Theory’ for the developing
principles of justice?
(a) For respecting the talent of people.
(b) Because he was looking for a fair condition.
(c) Because human nature is selfish.
(d) Because Inequality is inevitable.

18. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to John Rawls democratic equality is
necessary for stability in a society where people adhere to different
comprehensive doctrines.
Reason (R): John Rawls believes that a society can develop such a
conception of justice which will represent the overlapping consensus
among a society, despite their differences.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

19. Who said that ‘what is not a matter of our talent is also a matter of
chance.’?
(a) John Rawls
(b) Hannah Arendt
(c) Antonio Gramsci
(d) Frantz Fanon

20. John Rawls while proposing his concept of justice has taken into
consideration?
(a) Desert
(b) Need
(c) Merit
(d) All of the above

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.
(a) (b) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(c) (a) (d) (c) (c) (b) (d)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.
18. (a)
(d) (d) (c) (c) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

9. Option (c) is incorrect because John Rawls supported Immanue


Kant’s concept of Human Dignity. According to John Rawls, the mos
important pillar of human society is human dignity and justice can b
ensured by securing human dignity in society.

11. The veil of ignorance is a thought experiment and not a social


experiment.

12. According to John Rawls, people differ in their talents. Hence


inequality is inevitable. However, inequalities related to different offices
and positions can be justified only when they result in the development
of resources which can be utilized for the worst-off sections of society.

18. According to John Rawls, stability is possible only when people in a


democratic political culture treat each other as equal citizens ready to
offer fair terms to develop an ‘overlapping consensus’ on the political
conception of justice. For John Rawls, democratic equality is
necessary for stability in a society where people adhere to different
comprehensive doctrines.

19. According to John Rawls, what is not a matter of our talent is also a
matter of chance. Hence, we should compensate those who have not
been as advantageous as we are:

20. The theories of Justice are based on the following principles:

Desert—What one deserves based on his quality.


Merit—From the perspective of society i.e. what the society values.
Need—What an individual requires for his existence.
Previous Years’ Questions

1. The concept of anomie was coined by (2015)


(a) Durkheim
(b) Tocqueville
(c) Weber
(d) Mosca

2. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)


and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer
from the codes given below: (2016)
Assertion (A): The ‘Ideal state’ of the Republic was never
entertained by Aristotle, even as an ideal.
Reason (R): Aristotle’s ideal was always constitutional and never
despotic rule.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

3. For Plato which of the following statement/s is/are not true ?


(2016)
(A) Communism would destroy the false conception of self as
isolated unit.
(B) Reason, without communism, may remain inactive or may
impaired by appetite.
(C) The union of economic and political power would degrade
state into plutocracy.
(D) It is for and by the whole community.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (B) only
(d) (D) only

4. Arrange the following publications of Thomas Hobbes in the


chronological order. (2016)
(A) De Corpore
(B) De Cive
(C) The Elements of Law
(D) The Leviathan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(c) (C), (D), (A), (B)
(d) (D), (B), (C), (A)

5. For Rousseau which of the following statements are true ?


(2016)
(A) General will is my “Real Will”.
(B) General will is the voice of all for the good of all.
(C) General will is “Group Mind”.
(D) General will is “a common me”.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (C) and (D)
6. With which author’s book J.S. Mill’s “Essay on Liberty” is fit to
be compared? (2016)
(a) Milton’s Areopagitica
(b) Locke’s Essay on Human Understanding
(c) Sir Robert Filmer’s Patriarcha
(d) Hobbes’ De Corpore

7. For Aristotle which of the following statement is/are not true?


(2016)
(a) Ideas are not realities.
(b) Idea could exist apart from the particular.
(c) There is absolute interdependence of the form and matter w
can not be separated.
(d) Reality lies in a combination of form and matter.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (a) and (d)
(b) (b) only
(c) (a) and (c)
(d) (c) and (d)

8. For Bentham which of the following statement is/are not true?


(2016)
(a) The doctrine of utility is a hedonistic doctrine.
(b) All experience was neither pleasurable nor painful.
(c) Pleasures were simply individual sensations.
(d) Happiness was not the piling up of all pleasures.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (b) only
(b) (d) only
(c) (c) and (d)
(d) (a) and (c)

9. Who has given the concept of Fiduciary Trust? (2016)


(a) Hobbes
(b) Locke
(c) John Rawls
(d) John Stuart Mill

10. Karl Popper attacked the historicism of: (2016)


(a) Plato and Aristotle
(b) Plato and Hegel
(c) Plato and Machiavelli
(d) Machiavelli and Marx

11. Who of the following fled Athens for Calchis, ‘in order that the
Athenians might not commit a second crime against
philosophy’? (2016)
(a) Socrates
(b) Plato
(c) Aristotle
(d) Euclid

12. Who among the following said of Rousseau, “Ardent apostle of


Reason, he has done more than most to prepare the way for
the age of unreason in which he live”? (2016)
(a) Maxey
(b) Sabine
(c) Wayper
(d) Karl Popper

13. The base of citizenship is, as per Aristotle (2016)


(a) Domescile
(b) Leisure
(c) Age
(d) Education

14. Who is the author of Emilé? (2017)


(a) Hobbes
(b) Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Plato

15. John Rawls believed in: (2017)


(A) Difference principle
(B) Entitlement principle
(C) Egalitarianism
(D) Libertarianism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and C only

16. Which one of the following statements is not true ? (2017)


(a) Marx drew distinction between ‘ideology’ and ‘science’.
(b) Napoleon denounced ideology as cloudy metaphysics that ign
history and reality.
(c) de Tracy coined the term ideology.
(d) Daniel Bell talked of ‘ideology without an end’.

17. Which of the following is not an expression of the constitutional


rule of Aristotle ? (2017)
(a) Rule in public interest
(b) A lawful rule
(c) A Government of willing subjects
(d) Inconsistent with the dignity of the subjects

18. Which one of the following social contract traditions has not
been revitalized by John Rawls in his book A Theory of
Justice? (2017)
(a) Hobbes
(b) John Locke
(c) J.J. Rousseau
(d) Immanuel Kant

19. Who among the following argued that “The belief in the
principle of authority is reliable means of securing order”.
(2017)
(a) Joseph de Maistre
(b) Max Weber
(c) Friedrich Nietzsche
(d) Giovanni Gentile

20. Plato’s communism of family and property was largely derived


from the experience of: (2017)
(a) Stagira
(b) Sparta
(c) Athens
(d) Venice
Choose the correct answer:
(a) (a) and (b)
(b) (a) and (c)
(c) (c) only
(d) (b) only

21. Scholasticism of middle ages sought to establish: (2017)


(a) Supremacy of political domain over the spiritual.
(b) The autonomy of intellectual freedom over the political regimes
(c) The ascendency of theology over the philosophy.
(d) The subordination of rational element to the theological eleme
the church.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (c) and (d)
(b) (a) and (d)
(c) (a) and (c)
(d) (b) and (d)

22. Which one of the following statements is not correct in regard


to Aristotle’s classification of governments? (2017)
(a) The classification of governments was on the basis of numbe
people involved in the task of governing.
(b) Whether rulers governed in common interest (the genuine form
in their own (perverted form)
(c) The government is more effective and stable when rulers gove
the long interest
(d) The government is captured by shared interest and rem
insensitive to shared interests of the whole community.

23. In a state, there are two types of sovereignty not one - one of
government and second of peoples - among the following who
consider this thought (2017)
(a) Hobbes
(b) Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Mill

24. From french revolutionary traditions, Marx adopted the idea of


(2017)
(a) Dialectical Materialism
(b) Class struggle
(c) Radical Change
(d) Natural Laws of Production

25. It is not a kind of power, as per Bierstadt (2017)


(a) Force
(b) Influence
(c) Domination
(d) Persuasion

26. The distinction between traditional and modern societies were


derived from which sociologists? (2017)
(a) Talcott Parson
(b) Adam Smith
(c) John Locke
(d) Karl Marx

27. Marx, in his thoughts on bureaucracy, refuted (2017)


(a) Spinoza
(b) Nietzsche
(c) Hegel
(d) Mosca

28. Aristotle’s Nichomachaen Ethics primarily explores (2017)


(a) Human happiness
(b) Theoretical wisdom
(c) Practical wisdom
(d) Political constitutions

29. St. Augustine’s chief political views find expression in his


concept of (2017)
(a) Two Cities
(b) Faith
(c) Role of Reason
(d) Commonwealth
30. For whom, “ideas” and not the “material conditions of
production” are the effective causes of revolution ? (2018)
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Lenin
(c) Engels
(d) Stalin

31. Who of the following notes the existence of legislative,


executive and federative powers of the state ? (2018)
(a) Hobbes
(b) Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) J. Bentham

32. Match the following: (2018)

List I List II
(Thinker) (Idea)
(A)John Locke (i)Partyless democracy
(B)Hobbes (ii) Consent theory
(C)Jaya Prakash Narain (iii) Neo-liberalism
(D)Robert Nozick (iv) Absolute sovereig

Codes:
(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(b) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

33. Identify the odd pair from the below: (2018)


(a) Marx and Engels
(b) Sandel and Taylor
(c) Sen and Nozick
(d) Gandhi and Jayaprakash

34. Who wrote City of God? (2018)


(a) St. Aquinas
(b) St. Augustine
(c) Marsillo of Padma
(d) None of them

35. “It is better to be . . . Socrates dissatisfied than a fool satisfied”.


— Who said this? (2018)
(a) Bentham
(b) James Mill
(c) J. S. Mill
(d) None of them

36. Match the following: (2018)

List I List II
(A)Sovereign is the main source of law (i)Hobbes
(B)Laws are passed by legislature (ii) Locke
(C)General will is sovereign (iii) Roussea
(D)Will, and not force, is the basis of state (iv) T.H. Gre

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) (A)-(iv) (B)-(ii) (C)-(iii) (D)-(i)
(b) (A)- (i) (B)-(ii) (C)-(iii) (D)-(iv)
(c) (A)- (ii) (B)-(i) (C)-(iii) (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)- (iv) (B)-(i) (C)-(ii) (D)-(iii)

37. Who among the following favoured qualification as the basis


for right to vote? (2018)
(a) J. Bentham
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) T. H. Green
(d) E Barker

38. Which of the following is not an idea of Rousseau ? (2018)


(a) A thinking man is a depraved animal
(b) Science is the fruit of idle curiosity
(c) Philosophy is mere intellectual frippery
(d) General will is the sum total of wills

39. Match the following: (2018)

List I List II
(A)Modern political thinker (i)Plato
(B)Positivist school (ii) Machiavelli
(C)Normative political theory (iii) August Comte
(D)Scientific/inductive method (iv) Aristotle

Codes:
(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

40. Who is not a source of inspiration for Neo Marxism ? (2019)


(a) Young Marx
(b) Hegal
(c) Rousseau
(d) Stalin

41. The theory of social contract primarily seeks: (2019)


(a) to explore the historical origin of the state
(b) to explain the basis of political obligation
(c) to justify the status quo
(d) to bring out a radical transformation of society by revolution

42. The idea of social contract has been recently revived under a
new form by: (2019)
(a) Nozick
(b) Rawls
(c) Oakshott
(d) Gramsci

43. Who of the following said that felicity is “continued success in


obtaining those things which a man from time to time desires”
? (2020)
(a) Bentham
(b) J. S. Mill
(c) Hobbes
(d) Rousseau

44. Who among the following compares the organisations of civil


society to a powerful system of ‘Fortresses and earthworks’
standing behind the state? (2020)
(a) McLellan
(b) Bernstein
(c) Lenin
(d) Gramsci

45. Aristotle’s “ideal state is always Plato’s second best”. Who said
this? (2020)
(a) G.H. Sabine
(b) W.Ebenstein
(c) J. A . Dunning
(d) C.LWayper

46. Who among the following rejected ‘scientific determinism’ and


advocated political and intellectual struggle? (2020)
(a) Antonio Gramsci
(b) Karl Marx
(c) V.I. Lenin
(d) Friedrich Engels

47. Match List I with List II: (2020)

List I List II
Books Authors
(A)Politics and Markets (i)Robert
Dahl
(B)The Power Elite (ii) C. Wrig
Mills
(C)A Preface to Democratic Theory (iii) Mancu
Olson
(D)The Logic of Collective Action: Public Goods (iv) Charles
and the Theory of Groups Lindblo

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

48. Who among the following defined Civil power as “the right of
making laws with penalties… for the regulating and preserving
of property, and of employing the force of the community, in the
execution of such laws… . All this only for the public good.”?
(2020)
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) John Locke
(d) Rousseau

49. Arrange these in a chronological order: (2020)


(A) Benn and RS Peters Social Principles and Democratic State
(B) John Rawls A Theory of Justice
(C) Susan Mollerokins Justice Gender and Family
(D) Rousseau’s Social Contract
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) (D), (B), (A), (C)
(b) (A), (D), (B) and (C)
(c) (B), (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (C), (B), (D) and (A)

50. For Locke which of the following statement is are not true?
(2020)
(A) Desire is the spring of all human action.
(B) There are universally binding moral laws.
(C) The state of nature is a state in which men are equal and fre
act within the bounds of the law of nature.
(D) Men make a contract to enter into civil society.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (D) only
(b) (B) only
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (B) and (D)

51. For Hegel which of the following statement is are not true?
(2020)
(A) The universe is a coherent whole.
(B) Everything, including matter and the external world is not
creation of the idea.
(C) The history of the world presents us with a rational process.
(D) The rational is the real and the real is the rational.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) only
(b) (B) only
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (D)

52. Match List I with List II (2021)

List I List II
(A)Howard I.A Vindication of the Rights of
Warrender Woman: with Strictures on Political
and Moral Subjects
(B)Edmund II.The Political Theory of Possessive
Burke Individualism: Hobbes to Locke
(C)Mary III. Reflections o
Wollstonecraft the Revolutio
in France
(D)C. B. IV. The Political Philosophy of Hobb
Macpherson His Theory of Obligation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(b) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
(c) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(d) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

53. Arrange chronologically, the texts of Plato in ascending order


(2021)
(A) Apology
(B) Republic
(C) Laws
(D) Statesman
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) B, A, C, D
(b) B, D, C, A
(c) A, B, D, C
(d) C, B, D, A

54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Identify the correct
answer. (2021)
Assertion (A): F. A . Hayek portrayed state intervention and
collectivism, even in their moderate forms, as inevitably leading to
an erosion of Liberty.
Reason (R): He is a supporter of laissez faire and opponent of
Keynesian economics and the welfare state.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

55. For J. S. Mill which one of the following is not true ? (2021)
(a) Pleasures differ in quality
(b) The felicific calculus is absurd
(c) The principle of utility is the final end of life
(d) Liberty consists in doing what one desires

56. For Karl Marx who among the following is not a Utopian
socialist ? (2021)
(a) St. Simon
(b) Proudhon
(c) Fourier
(d) Engels

57. Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2021)

List I List II
(i). Defence of sovereignty and assertio
1. Hobbes of the claims of political authority over
religion
(ii) Defence of Individual freedom of thought and
2. Locke expression

C. Rousseau (iii) Limited form of constitutional government


D. J.S. Mill (iv) Claim that sovereignty has its origin in the people an
remains with the people

Code:
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

58. For John Locke which of the following statements are not true
? (2021)
(A) The true state must be constitutional.
(B) The state is limited, not absolute.
(C) Revolution ought to be the act of a minority.
(D) It is also a “transformer” state.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (D)

59. Who amongst the following stated that life is “a perpetual and
restless desire for power after power, that ceaseth only in
death”? (2021)
(a) Aristotle
(b) Machiavelli
(c) Hobbes
(d) Rousseau

60. Who amongst the following wrote The Art of War? (2021)
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Mao
(c) Hobbes
(d) Rousseau

61. “Revolutionary violence is not just cathartic but it also allows


the colonial subjects to recreate themselves”. Whose
statement is this? (2021)
(a) Hannah Arendt
(b) Frantz Fanon
(c) Machiavelli
(d) Hobbes

62. Who considered bureaucracy as the ‘State’s consciousness’?


(2021)
(a) Marx
(b) Lenin
(c) Miliband
(d) Poulantzas
63. Which of the following aspects have been defended by J. S.
Mill? (2021)
(A) The rights of women
(B) Bentham’s utilitarianism in toto
(C) Married woman’s property bill
(D) Patriarchy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) B and D only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

64. Which of the following statements about Hegel are true?


(2021)
(A) State is the march of God on Earth
(B) Hegel regarded women as inferior, with less reasoning abilities
(C) Hegel rejected the concept of civil society
(D) Hegel does not believe in war
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and B only

65. Match List I with List II (2021)

List I List II
(A)Bureaucratic Terror I.Frantz Fanon
(B)Cultural Revolution II.Plato
(C)Apartheid III. Mao Zedong
(D)Allegory of Caves IV. Hannah Arendt
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
(b) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(c) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(d) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

66. Arrange the work of Hannah Arendt in ascending order (2021)


(A) The origin of totalitarianism
(B) The Human Condition
(C) On Revolution
(D) On Violence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) B, C, A, D
(b) D, B, C, A
(c) A, B, C, D
(d) C, B, A, D

67. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R (2021)
Assertion A: John Locke was portrayed as possessive
individualist
Reason R: John Locke was not in favour of merely maximising
interest
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare correct but R is NOT the correct explanation o
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

68. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R (2021)
Assertion A: Every thinker was a child of his age
Reason R: Mary Wollstonecraft argued in the Vindication of
Rights of Woman that women should be entitled to the same rights
and privileges as men and should be given access to education
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and Rare correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

69. Given below are two statements (2021)


Statement I: Hobbes’s theory of obligation is physical because
the subjects obeyed the sovereign out of fear of punishment
Statement II: Laws of Nature of Hobbes were not mere pieces of
advice about the prudent pursuit of self-interest, but were moral
laws which dictated duties, and were obligatory because they were
commanded by God
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

70. Which of the following statements is false with respect to


Plato’s ideas ? (2021)
(a) Division of functions does not rest on difference of aptitude.
(b) State is assumed to be merely individual writ large.
(c) Athenian women were not allowed to participate in politics.
(d) Ignorance and incompetence of politicians is the cause
democracy.
Answer Key

1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 52. 62.


(a) (c) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a)
2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 53. 63.
(a) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (a)
3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 54. 64.
(d) (b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (d)
4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 55. 65.
(b) (c) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a)
5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 56. 66.
(a) (d) (d) (c) (a) (d) (c)
6. 16. 26. 36. 47. 57. 67.
(a) (d) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b)
7. 17. 27. 37. 48. 58. 68.
(b) (d) (c) (b) (c) (c) (b)
8. 18. 28. 38. 49. 59. 69.
(a) (a) (a) (d) (a) (c) (a)
9. 19. 29. 39. 50. 60. 70.
(b) (a) (a) (a) (b) (a) (a)
10. 20. 30. 40. 51.
61. (b)
(b) (d) (b) (d) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Concept of Anomie was conceptualized by Durkheim. Anomie is a


state of disintegration. Industrialization resulted in radical socia
change with structural principle of division of labour. Division o
labour resulted in social differentiations i.e. poor-rich, religious
secular. This change weakens social cohesion and resulted i
increased crime and suicide.

2. Aristotle, who is known as the greatest disciple of Plato, was also


the biggest critic of Plato. He didn’t support the platonic idea o
“Philosopher King” and “Ideal state”. Aristotle supported the
constitutional government. He believed in a pragmatic solution to the
question of governance and according to him ‘ideal state’ is too
normative to be practical.
Hence, the answer will be A.

6. J. S. Mill’s “Essay on Liberty” is an important document which


advocates “freedom of speech and expressions” backed by solid
reasoning. Milton’s Areopagitica is also an advocacy of freedom o
speech and expression.
Hence, the answer will be A.

8. Jeremy Bentham was an English philosopher, jurist, and socia


reformer regarded as the founder of modern utilitarianism. Bentham
defined as the “fundamental axiom” of his philosophy the principle
that “it is the greatest happiness of the greatest number that is the
measure of right and wrong”. According to him all experiences in
human life are either pleasurable or painful.
Hence, the correct answer will be A.

16. Daniel Bell in his work ‘The End of Ideology: On the Exhaustion of
Political Ideas in the Fifties (1960)’ espoused for end of ideology
thesis. End of ideology concept based on the context of advanced
stage of industrial growth where socio-economic basis of any
country determined by development not ideology.

19. Joseph de Maistre (1753-1821) was a savoy philosopher, lawyer


and diplomat. Maistre advocated for the social hierarchy and
monarchy after French revolution. Maistre regarded monarch and
authority a divinely sanctioned institution and stable form of
government to secure order in society.

21. Scholasticism was the philosophical system of medieval Christian


age. Scholasticism known for its reconciliation of philosophy of
ancient philosopher Aristotle with Christian theology. Scholasticism
accepted catholic orthodoxy and placed theology at above.

25. Power assumes two things: a) power is an attribute of individuals


which is exercised over other individuals, and b) power is
domination over others, that is, power is used to make others do
what one wants, against their own will.

29. Augustine concept of two cities was mentioned in his book ‘City of
God’ was written in about 413-426 CE. It was written during Great
Rome Empire fallen down by the vandals under the command king
Alaric. Augustine asserted in his work rome fallen due to internal
moral decay and city was saved from total destruction due to the
Christianity. By two cities he meant to explain distinction between
Church and world. Love of self has formed earthly city i.e. Rome
and love of god has formed the heavenly city i.e. Jerusalem.

30. Vladimir Lenin powerful works were “Imperialism, the Highest


Stage of Capitalism (1916) and State and revolution (1917)”. Lenin
interpreted the theory of imperialism through Marxian lens. Lenin
explained imperialism as the final stage of capitalism which would
result in a new age of Socialism. Lenin asserted to achieve the
revolution ideas are required.

33. Sen and Nozick represent two different school of thoughts.


Amartya sen is a liberal philosopher where Robert Nozick was a
libertarian. Marx and engels represent Marxism, Sandel and Taylor
represents liberalism and Gandhi and Jayaprakash represents
Gandhian principles.

54. Hayek in his influential work ‘the road to serfdom’ argued that state
intervention for centralised planning would take away individual
liberties. Hayek warned that government control of economic
decision making would lead to tyranny.

64. Hegel held that state is the incarnation of divine reason and the
march of god on earth because when individual obeys the state, he
follows divine reason and thereby exercise his freedom. For Hegel,
men and women are functionally complementary, with men in a
dominant role. Women are consigned to the home, to the family
Because they do not leave the household, women are denied the
progression and development of their ethical self-consciousness.

67. Macpherson is critical of the “possessive individualism” that


Locke’s theory of property represents. He argues that its
coherence depends upon the assumption of differential rationality
between capitalists and wage-laborers and on the division of
society into distinct classes. Because Locke was bound by these
constraints, we are to understand him as including only property
owners as voting members of society.
Hence, the correct answer will be B.
UNIT III
Indian Political Thought

Chapter 1: Dharmashastra
Chapter 2: Kautilya
Chapter 3: Aggannasutta
Chapter 4: Ziauddin Barani (1285–1357)
Chapter 5: Kabir
Chapter 6: Pandita Ramabai (1858–1922)
Chapter 7: Bal Gangadhar Tilak (1856–1920)
Chapter 8: Swami Vivekananda (1863–1902)
Chapter 9: Rabindranath Tagore (1861–1941)
Chapter 10: M. K. Gandhi
Chapter 11: Sri Aurobindo Ghosh (1872–1950)
Chapter 12: Periyar E. V. Ramasamy Naicker (1893–1973)
Chapter 13: Muhammad Iqbal (1877–1938)
Chapter 14: Manabendra Nath Roy (1887–1954)
Chapter 15: Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (1883–1963)
Chapter 16: Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar
Chapter 17: Jawahar Lal Nehru (1889–1964)
Chapter 18: Ram Manohar Lohia (1910–68)
Chapter 19: Jayaprakash Narayan (1902–79)
Chapter 20: Deen Dayal Upadhyay (1916–68)
CHAPTER 1
Dharmashastra

INTRODUCTION
Dharmashastra is the tradition of thoughts that represents the idea of
socio-political arrangement in a society based on Hindu Philosophy.
Dharmashastras are actually moral codes of laws and treaties that
determine the way of life of people. The significance of this tradition is
that it sees the arrangement and structure of society from the
perspective of Dharma (Duty). According to Dharmashastra, a society is
well-ordered if everyone performs their duty in an organic manner. The
political authority in Dharmashstra is created to maintain order and the
king has the power to punish (danda) to maintain Dharma.

HISTORY AND ORIGIN


i. There are more than 100 books that can be considered under the
tradition of Dharmashastra, a few important among them are Manu
Smr iti, Yājñavalkya Smr iti, Nārada Smr iti, and Vi u Sm iti. These
Dharmashastras originated from the learning of Vedas. The
supplementary text of Vedas, which are known as Vedangas (limbs
of Vedas) includes, Shiksha, Chandas, Vyakarana, Nirukta
Jyotisha, and Kalpa (ritual & procedures). The Kalpa Vedanga
studies lead to the development of Dharmasutras, and these
Dharmasutras further lead to the development of Dharmashastras.

FOUR IMPORTANT DHARMASUTRAS


Although there were a lot of Dharmasutras, but the most important are:
Apastamba Sutra
Gautama Sutra
Baudhayana Sutra
Vasishtha Sutra

ŚHRUTIS AND SM ITIS IN HINDU PHILOSOPHY


The Śhruti and Sm iti are divisions of Hindu literature.
Śhruti is considered as divine sound, heard by a human. They
are considered as revealed text and not created by humans. It
comprises the four Vedas.
Sm iti is derived knowledge, generated for understanding the
Śhruti, to synthesize knowledge that benefits human society.
They are remembered traditions of Hindu society. Dharmashastra
comes under the category of Sm iti. Sm iti consists of the Itihasa,
Epics (Mahabharata and Ramayana), Manu Sm iti, etc.

MANU SM ITIS
It is the oldest and most well-known Sm iti. It includes discourse given
by Manu and Bhrigu Rishi. This text is considered as the most
important book of Hindu law and code. ‘The Laws of Manu’ was one of
the first Sanskrit texts to be translated into English in 1776 by William
Jones. Manu Sm iti consists of 12 chapters and the content can be
divided into four parts: The creation of the world, the source of Dharma,
Four Social Classes, and the Law of Karma rebirth and liberation. Some
factual details about Manu Sm iti are:
Chapter 1—Varna system, and duties of all four castes.
Chapter 5—Duties and position of women in society.
Chapter 7—Duties and function of King. Theory of Kingship.
Chapter 8—Laws of Punishment

PRINCIPLE OF PURUSHARTHA
The Purusharthas are the inherent values of the Universe,
Dharmashastra suggests that a human need to develop a balance
between material and spiritual objectives. The four goals of a human
being are:

1. Dharma (righteousness)
2. Artha (economic values)
3. Kama (pleasure, desire)
4. Moksha (liberation)

Varnas
Manu viewed the caste system formed an essential part of ancient
Hindu society. Varna system would preserve the social harmony of the
society. He viewed that the king came into existence to protect the
Varna system and that any failure on the part of the ruler would make
him an unworthy ruler. In classical Indian Thought community or society
is more important than the individual. Society is divided into four fold
classes which are organically linked with each other.

1. Brahmins—Those who enjoyed a supreme position in the socia


hierarchy looked after intellectual and spiritual aspects of social life
2. Kshatriyas—were considered as warriors and the ruling class.
3. Vaishyas—They were responsible for production. They were
given educational rights.
4. Shudras—They were given the lowest position in the social
hierarchy. They serve the people belonging to the other three
Varna.

THEORY OF STATE
Chapter seven of the Manu Sm iti mentions ‘The Theory of State’ and
the duties of a king. Manu believes in the divine origin of the state.
Manu said that human beings possess a mixture of both good and evil
tendencies. When individuals are swayed by evil tendencies, they
violate the principles of Dharma. Dandaniti has emerged to control these
evil tendencies. According to Manu, King is a symbol of Danda created
by God to save the world from anarchy. The king is said to possess to
unique qualities of all the major gods—Indra, Vayu, Yama, Kuber, Agni,
Varuna and Chandra. Thus, the king is considered as the embodiment
of ‘God on earth’.
To ensure social harmony and promote people’s welfare, the state
should be governed by a selfless and enlightened Yogi King who would
uphold the principles of Dharma. The king is neither allowed to create
new rules nor existing principles of Dharma. He is only expected to
uphold it and preserve it. According to Manu, everyone doesn’t
possess the qualities of a king. Thus, here he has openly supported
monarchical kingship instead of a democratic ruler. Manu’s view of
kingship departs from the western view of kingship where the monarchy
is considered an ‘Agent of God’ and believes in the principles of ‘the
king can do no wrong’.

NATURE OF STATE
The state was a welfare state. The nature of the state is organic. The
state is compared with a human organ. The state is comprised of seven
parts likewise seven organs of the human body. For a better human
body, all organs should be stronger a similarly powerful component of
the organs of state makes a strong state. The state is natural like a
human body. The seven elements of the state are as follows:

1. Swami (King)
2. Amatya (Minister)
3. Durg (Fort)
4. Janapad (District)
5. Kosh (Treasury)
6. Mitra (Ally)
7. Danda (Punishment)
DUTIES OF KING
According to Manu, the king is the next best to God and he must
have complete control over himself and his senses.
He is a divine creation and his purpose is to promote social
harmony, peace, and welfare.
A king was expected to control his anger, satisfy the people, and
govern the state with their consent rather than the use of force.
The King is supposed to follow the Varna Dharma or the
Kshatriya Dharma. Accordingly, ‘War is a Kshatriya Dharma.’
He should administer Punishment according to the shastras—In
Manu Sm iti, there is no concept of equality before the law. The
lower the Varna, the higher the punishment for the same offence.
He should help the citizens achieve ‘yogkshem’, i.e. the four
Purushartas.
These are 5 main duties—
Dandaneeti,
Taxation,
Justice and Judicial System,
Inter-State Relations, and
Morality and Religion.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Find the correct statement:
(a) Śhruti and Sm iti are two parts of Vedic literature.
(b) Śhruti is a type of compilation derived from Vedas.
(c) Sm iti has no author and is called the text of God.
(d) All of the above.

2. ‘The Law Code of Manu’ book written by whom?


(a) George Buhler
(b) Patrick Olivelle
(c) Julius jolly
(d) Shashi Tharoor

3. Find incorrect statement


(a) Manu Sm iti is also called Manav Dharmashastra.
(b) There are 14 chapters and 2694 couplets in Manu Sm iti.
(c) Nature of state according to Manu Sm iti was anarc
‘Matsyanyaya’.
(d) All of the above.

4. ‘The Laws of Manu’ book written by whom?


(a) George Buhler
(b) Patrick Olivelle
(c) Julius jolly
(d) Shashi Tharoor

5. According to Manu Sm iti finds out the correct statement.


(a) The state is created by God.
(b) The king has divine rights to run State.
(c) The functions of the state are public security and inters
affairs.
(d) All of the above.

6. Which among the following belongs to the Dharmasastra textua


tradition of Hinduism:
i. Yājñavalkya Sm iti
ii. Nārada Sm iti
iii. Vi u Sm iti
iv. Manu Sm iti
Code:
(a) Only iv
(b) Only i, iv
(c) Only ii, iii, and iv
(d) i, ii, iii, and iv

7. Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List-1 Varnas List-2 Description


a)Brahmins 1)warrior class and rule the state
b)Kshatriyas 2)lower caste and serve all the caste
c)Vaishyas 3)superior in the hierarchy and intellectuals
d) Shudras 4) production class

Codes:
a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 1 4 2

8. How many types of taxation were propounded by Manu in Man


Sm iti?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 07

9. Who holds the view that the theory of the divinity of the king was
advanced by Manu Sm iti?
(a) V. R. Mehta
(b) K. P. Jaiswal
(c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(d) Thomas Panthem

10. How many chapters and couplets are in Manu Sm iti?


(a) 12 chapters and 5000 couplets
(b) 14 chapters and 3862 couplets
(c) 12 chapters and 2694 couplets
(d) 10 chapters and 2500 couplets

11. Which among the following statement is incorrect about


Dharmashastra?
(a) Were composed in poetic verses.
(b) Dharmashastras played an influential role in modern-era colo
Indian history.
(c) It doesn’t include the rules of just war.
(d) Part of the Hindu Sm iti.

12. Which among the following is correct about Śhrutis?


(a) They are codified principles for human life for practice applica
(b) They are revealed texts.
(c) They are based on Sm iti.
(d) They are written in Laukik Sanskrit.

13. Consider the following regarding Dharmasastra’s theory on State


and identify the correct ones:
i. The king had only a divine personality but no divine rights.
ii. The state has to patronize art and culture.
iii. It asks for a complete political obligation towards the laws.
iv. The king is created by God and is different from ordinary hu
beings.
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) Only (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii)

14. Which among the following Dharma represents a balanced way of


life which includes both material and spiritual goals?
(a) Ashramas
(b) Purusharthas
(c) Varnas
(d) All of them

15. Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

List-1 List-2
Chapter of Manu Sm Content
iti
a)Chapter One 1)Duties and position of women in socie
b)Chapter Five 2)Laws of Punishment.
c)Chapter Seven 3)Varna system and duties of all four
castes.
d) Chapter Eight 4) Duties and function of the
king.

Codes:
a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 1 4 2

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.
(a) (a) (d) (b) (c) (c) (d)
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (b)
(b) (d) (d) (c) (b)
3.
6. (d)
(b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. ‘The Laws Codes of Manu’ is an English translation of Manu Sm i


provided by Patrick Olivelle in 2004.

4. ‘The Laws of Manu’ is an English translation of Manu Sm i


provided by George Buhler in 1886.

9. K. P. Jaiswal wrote the book ‘Manu and Yājñavalkya – A


Comparison and a Contrast’ and he claimed that the idea of the
divinity of a king was introduced by Manu Sm iti.
CHAPTER 2
Kautilya

INTRODUCTION
Kautilya (also known as Vishnu Gupta) is a profound and systematic
ancient Indian Philosopher. He is the author of the celebrated book
Arthashastra (the science of polity) written in the fourth-century BCE.
Kautilya was the pen name of Chanakya, the Prime Minister of Chandra
Gupta Maurya in the fourth-century BCE. Kautilya played the central role
in the establishment of the Maurya Empire under Chandra Gupta Maurya
(321–297 BCE)—the first pan-Indian state. Kautilya was the first to provide
a realist theory of State as well as International Relations.

ARTHASHASTRA
Kautilya defines statecraft as Arthashastra. Artha denotes material well-
being. It can be considered the first textbook in geopolitics. His book,
Arthashastra, has 15 parts (or books), 180 divisions, 150 chapters, and
approximately 6,000 verses or shlokas. Kautilya in Arthshastra described:
Well-organized state,
Kingship and the qualities of an ideal ruler,
The principles of practical politics, administration, ethical and moral
order,
Domestic and Inter-state policies,
Warfare, and
Criminology, Intelligence, and Espionage.
Besides politics, the other subjects included in Arthashastra are:
Economics, Ethics Sociology Science of Education, Engineering, and others.
According to Kautilya, the basis of good governance as stated in
Arthashastra are the following branches of knowledge:
Anvikasi (Philosphy): Lamp of all sciences,
Trayi (Three Vedas): Cultural Context,
Varta: Economic Policies, and
Dandaneeti: Science of government and politics.

THEORY OF STATE
Kautilya believed that the state was an organism, not a mere mechanical
institution. Kautilya was the first contractarian thinker in India like Thomas
Hobbes, John Locke, and Rousseau. He rejected the ‘Divine Origin of
the Monarch’ and considered State as a man-made institution. According to
him, the state originated to fulfil the desire of the people to have a peaceful
society. He describes the King as the servant of the people who receive
payments in the form of taxes for the services rendered to the people. The
King was the head of State, the upholder of the law and order. His foremost
duty is Rakshana (Protection) and Palana (Nurture) of the people of the State.
The main duty of the state was the protection of private property by punishing
the thief. The welfare of the people is the only objective of the state.

THE SAPTANG THEORY (SEVEN ELEMENTS OF


STATE)
The state is defined for the first time in the Arthashastra of Kautilya as
consisting of seven elements. Saptanga Siddhant explains the elements of
the state. It is an example of the organic theory of the state. It explains the
state as a system of seven elements/limbs or seven elements of sovereignty.
Kautilya in his Arthashastra put in an order like the Swami, the Amatyas,
the Janapada, the Durgas, the Kosha, the Danda, and the Mitra. The King
heads the list of seven constituent elements of the state.
1. Swami (The Ruler) (Head/Soul): Kautilya assigns to the King
the highest place in the body politic. He is the main pillar of the state
and the master of the techniques of statecraft. The King must be a
scholar of high merit. He must have full knowledge of the Vedas,
Arthashastra, Dandniti, the science of war, etc. The King was the head
of the state and in him were vested executive, legislative, judicial, and
financial powers. An ideal king is one who has the highest qualities of
leadership, intellect, energy, and personal attributes. In the happiness
of the subjects lies the happiness of the king. ‘Praja Sukham Sukhe
Rajya.’
2. Amatya (Ministers) (Eyes): Amatyas are the senior ministers,
preferably Brahmin experts in Vedas are required for consultation.
Ministers should be men of wisdom, integrity bravery and loyalty.
Kautilya says kingship is possible only with assistance. One wheel
alone does not move the carriage. The King should consult Amatya’s
but the King should keep on testing their integrity. According to
Kautilya, the King should have at least three Amatyas because two
can easily conspire against the King.
3. Durga (Fort) (Arms): It is necessary to have a safety and protection
system. It is the symbol of both offensives as well as defensive power
of the state. He considers forts as powerful as people and land.
Because internal and external securities are important. Because
without external security, no state can be stable. Kautilya has
detailed many types of forts in Arthashastra:
(a) Audak fort is surrounded by a water body,

(b) Parvat fort is built amidst high mountains,

(c) Dhanvan fort is surrounded by desert, and

(d) Van fort is situated amidst a dense forest.

4. Janapada (Population/Territory) (Legs): It implies both territory


and population because without the territory and the population a state
cannot exist. It is a place where the common man/citizens live. It is a
place for economic activities. It is the source of strength, revenue, and
other necessary commodities.
5. Bala (Force) (Brain): He has used the ‘force’ word for the army.
Kautilya suggests the hereditary army of the Kshatriyas. Kautilya
mentions six types of armies—hired troops, hereditary forces, soldiers
of the fighting corporation, troops belonging to an ally, troops
belonging to an enemy, and soldiers of wild tribes.
6. Kosha (Treasury) (Mouth): Kautilya has given utmost
importance to public finance. Because without treasury even a family
cannot run. The foremost duty of a King is to keep the treasury full and
prosperous. It should be sufficient to care for the welfare functions and
to meet any emergency, natural calamity, or war.
7. Mitra (Ally) (Ears): Mitras have symbolic importance. When a
person has a lot of Mitras, it shows that the person is powerful. Hence
it is a symbol of power to be the friend of the strong. Kautilya
envisaged two types of Mitra’s:
1. Sahaja—whose friendship was derived from the time of father
grandfather and were situated close to the territory of the imme
neighbourhood enemy.
2. Kritrima—is the acquired ally for the protection of wealth and life.

Kautilya held that the ally of the first category is superior to the second
one.

MANDAL SIDDHANT (THEORY OF CIRCLE)


It is a theory of inter-state relations. It is based on the principle of ‘balance of
power’. He addresses the King as Vijigishu, which means ‘victory seeker.’
Kshatriya Dharma is war, the King must embark on an expedition soon after
his coronation. The Mandala Siddhanta holds that neighbours are natural
enemies. Because both kings seek material well-being and seek to acquire
the same plot of land. Mandal Siddhant also implies that there is no such thing
as a permanent friend or enemy. Mandal Siddhanta explains about twelve
kings or twelve circles of the state.
The first King is Vijigishu.
Five Kings in the front—Ari, Mitra, Ari-Mitra, Mitra-Mitra, Ari Mitra-Mitra.
Four Kings in the back—Parshvanigrah, Akaranda, Parshavanigrah-
Sara, and Akaranda-Sara.
Madhyama—Buffer State. Vijigishu should try to bring Madhyama on
his side.
Udasina—Neutral State. Vijigishu should try to bring Udasina under his
control.
Kautilya said Vijigishu has to calculate the status of seventy-two
(twelve King X six organs of the state) elements of sovereignty, before
starting a war.
THEORY OF DIPLOMACY
In Kautilya’s political thought, diplomacy and statecraft have been built on
the geographical and economic foundations of the state. Kautilya has
enumerated four Upayas, devices or expedients, deemed to be the most
reliable devices of diplomacy and statecraft:

(a) Sama or Conciliation

(b) Dana or Concession or Gift


(c) Damda or the Use of Force
(d) Bheda or Sowing the Seeds of Dissension in one’s enemy’s camp
(also called the policy of divide and rule).

SHADA GUNYA SIDDHANTA/SIX FORMS OF


DIPLOMACY
His forms of diplomacy also depend on the type of the king whether the policy
is directed toward the superior, inferior, or equal.
Sandhi (Alliance): If the enemy is strong,
Vigraha (War): Break the Sandhi, and start a war if you are strong,
Yaan/Yana (Military expedition): It means military exercise near
enemies’ territory,
Asana (Halting): Stationing of the forces near enemies’ territories.
Samashrya (Seeking Protection): Joining hands with those who have
similar aims, and
Dvedhibhaava (Duplicity): Dual policy—it means friendship with one
enemy for the time being and enmity with the other—don’t open two
fronts at the same time.

KAUTILYA ON CORRUPTION
Kautilya identified forty different types of corruption. He also referred to its
inevitability and remarked, it’s like honey on the tongue, you can’t help but
taste it. Corruption weakens the state from within and without. It erodes the
state’s ability to achieve people’s well-being. It lowers the morale of the
people. Low morale makes it very easy for the enemy to win. As a result,
corruption must be addressed. He has a very practical approach to corruption.
As public officials control so many resources, corruption is unavoidable. Even
officials may be unaware that they are engaging in corruption. When a fish
swims in water, it has no idea when it has drunk the water.
Kautilya admits that it is difficult to tackle corruption. However, he
suggests ways to tackle it:
Reducing the size of the bureaucracy,
Transfer officials at regular intervals until he is aware of all the
loopholes,
Public humiliation of corrupt officials,
He brings up Suchaks (Whistle-blowers), and
The entire chain should be punished, not just the corrupt official. The
chain also includes the Dayak (briber), Pratigraha (receiver of money),
and Nidhayak (one who keeps the money).

COMMENTARIES ON KAUTILYA
R. Shamasastry—‘The theory of social contract was not unknown in
the days of Chanakya.’
B. A. Salvatore—‘Of all the schools of ancient Indian political
thought, the most noteworthy is that of Kautilya.’
N. C. Bandyopadhyay—‘The state according to Kautilya must be
based on sound economic foundations, so as to enable men to realize
the aims of life.’
M. V. Krishna Rao—‘Kautilya’s attitude to religion was secular and
not apathetic.’
Max Weber—‘Machiavelli’s Prince was harmless when compared to
Kautilya’s Arthashastra.’
Amartya Sen—‘Kautilya is not immoral but unmoral in his politics.’

LIST OF BOOKS AND AUTHORS ON KAUTILYA


1. R. P. Kangle—The Kautilya Arthashastra
2. L. N. Rangarajan—Kautilya : The Arthashastra
3. Roger Boesche—The First Great Political Realist: Kautilya and his
Arthashastra
4. T. N. Ramaswamy—Essentials of Indian Statecraft: Kautilya’s
Arthshastra for Contemporary Readers
5. N. C. Bandopadhay—Kautilya and an Exposition of his Social Ideal
and Political Theory
6. Hari Krishna Deb—The Kautilya Arthashastra on Forms of
Government
7. Narasingha Prasad Sin—Kautilya‘s Arthashastra and
Machiavellism: A Reevaluation

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. How many kings have been mentioned in Kautilya’s Mandal Theory?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13

2. Saptang Siddhant is an example of a/an?


(a) organic view of the state
(b) democratic view of the state
(c) pluralist view of the state
(d) communitarian view of the state

3. Who said, ‘Kautilya is not immoral but unmoral in his politics.’?


(a) M. V. Krishna Rao
(b) N. C. Bandopadhyay
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) None

4. Who said, ‘Kautilya’s Arthashastra exemplified radical Machiavellianism


compared to it, Machiavelli’s Prince is harmless.’?
(a) Max Weber
(b) Morgenthau
(c) K. N. Waltz
(d) Henry Kissinger

5. Mandal Siddhant explains?


(a) Interstate Relations
(b) Intrastate Relations
(c) Economic Relations
(d) Cultural Relations

6. What does Samashrya in Shadgunya Niti mean?


(a) Break the Sandhi and start a war if you are strong.
(b) The stationing of the forces near enemies’ territories.
(c) Joining hands with those who have similar aims.
(d) It means friendship with one enemy for the time being and enmity
the other.

7. According to Kautilya, who is the most important person after the King?
(a) Ambassador
(b) Spies
(c) Army
(d) People

8. What is the most important duty of the King?


(a) Rakshana (Protection)
(b) Palana (Nurture)
(c) Both
(d) None

9. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the case o


Kautilya?
(a) He was the first to make political economy an independent subject
(b) He propounded a theory of politics which dealt with immediate prac
concerns of the polity.
(c) He is credited with being the founder of the Nitishastra tradition.
(d) For the first time, he emphasized the need for strong political cont
India.

10. Kautilya mentions how many types of corruptions?


(a) 35
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 50

11. Match List I with List II

List I Books List II Author


(A)Kaut.ilya and the Arthaśāstra I.Radhakrishna
Choudhary
(B)Kautilya and an Exposition of his Social II.L. N Rangarajan
Ideal and Political Theory
(C)Kautilya’s Political Ideas and Institutions III. Thoma
Trautm
(D)Kautilya-The Arthshastra IV.N. C.
Bandhopadhaya

(a) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV


(b) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(c) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(d) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III

12. Consider the following statements regarding the Kautilya Theory of


Rajamandala:
i. Vijigishu is at the centre of the political network.
ii. Ari is the enemy of the Vijigishu.
iii. Mitra is a neighbour of the neighbour who is friendly with Vijigishu.
iv. Madhyama could turn out to be an ally or enemy or decide t
neutral.
Choose the correct options :
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

13. Match the following list (i) to List (ii) regarding Kautilya Theory of
Diplomacy:

List (i) List (ii)


(A)Samsraya 1)If an enemy is stronger.
(B)Asana 2)Alliance with those who have similar objectives.
(C)Sandhi 3)An indifferent foreign policy in case of equal power.
(D)Dvaidhibhava 4)friendship with one enemy and war with the other.

Choose the correct match:


(a) (A)–(2), (B)–(1), (C)–(3), (D)–(4)
(b) (A)–(1), (B)–(4), (C)–(2), (D)–(3)
(c) (A)–(1), (B)–(4), (C)–(3), (D)–(2)
(d) (A)–(2), (B)–(3), (C)–(1), (D)–(4)

14. Which among the following statement is incorrect about Kautilya’s


theory on State?
1. According to Kautilya, Amatyas can only be from the Brahmin caste.

2. Kautilya suggests that the King must keep two Amatyas.

3. Durga(Fort) is the symbol of the only defensive power of the state.

4. Mitra is the symbol of the strength of the King.

Choose the option:


(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

15. Who said that ‘Just as it is impossible to know when a swimming fish is
drinking water, so it is impossible to find out when a government
servant is stealing money.’ ?
(a) Kautilya
(b) Kabir
(c) Buddha
(d) Barani

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 9. 11. 13. 15.


(c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (d) (a)
2. 5. 8. 10. 12.
14. (c)
(a) (a) (c) (b) (d)
3.
6. (c)
(c)
CHAPTER 3
Aggannasutta

INTRODUCTION
Aggannasutta is a part of the famous Buddhist literature ‘Digha Nikaya’.
Digha Nikaya contains the teachings of Buddha, it’s an ancient text and
belongs to the sixth-century BCE. The twenty-seventh Sutta of Digha
Nikaya is known as Aggannasutta. It contains an alternative theory about
the creation of life, and earth as well as social order and counters the
social order suggested in Vedas or Dharmashastra tradition.
The major emphasis of Aggannasutta is about challenging the caste-
based hierarchy present in Hindu and Vedic Philosophy. Aggannasutta is
an account of a dialogue that occurred between Buddha and two Hindu
(Brahmin) sages Vasettha and Bharadvaja, Buddha explained to them
about injustice in the caste-based hierarchy and told them the path to
Dhamma.

ORIGIN OF LIFE ON EARTH


Buddha explained the origin of life as a cosmic process of contraction
and expansion. In Buddhist discourse, the universe appears Vivat.t.a
kappa (opening up) and disappears, Samvat.t.a kappa (closing down). In
a very long span of time, ‘the society opens up in the particular time and
it closes down after millions of periods of that particular time.’ Buddha
said before the origin of the earth, humans were living in Abhassara
Brahma World, where they are luminous beings and do not require any
material to survive. The expansion of the universe led to the creation of
the sun, moon, and planets. The earth was created and these being of
Abhassara Brahma world not reborn on the earth as human beings,
whose life depends upon material resources.

ORIGIN OF SOCIAL ORDER (SOCIAL


CONTRACT THEORY)
Buddha said rice appeared on earth and people started growing it
on daily basis for their meals.
With time differences in the human body started appearing, and
the sexual organs of men and women were developed.
Now people started indulging in sexual activities. People built
houses for privacy and started feeling lazy.
Instead of growing rice daily, they started storing that for days,
months, and then years.
The family was created by humans, and they started having lust
and desire for their family.
That lust led to the division of land among people and created the
system of private property.
A few greedy people started seizing and stealing the land
(property) of others and this created social disorder.
To deal with this disorder, Buddha said, Humans joined together
and made an agreement and created the social institution and
appointed a king for the protection of their property and
maintenance of social order.
King was known by a title like ‘The People’s Choice’ or ‘Lord Of
The Fields’.
THE CREATION OF CASTE ORDER
Buddha was not in favour of the idea of Hindu mythology, that Brahmins
are born out of Brahma’s mouth, Kshatriyas from Brahma’s Arms,
Vaishyas from the stomach, and Shudras from the feet of Brahma.
Buddha rejected it and said that caste and class order are created by a
historic process and not any divine order.
Kshatriyas Class—as created for the protection of property
and for maintenance of law and order.
Brahmin Class—those who are not happy with the social evils,
they left society and started living in huts in the forest and started
meditation. Few of them are not good at meditation and so they
settled near towns and started writing rules and books of rituals.
They are known as Brahmins.
Vaishyas—some people adopted some trades and business
activities and were known as Vaishyas.
Shudras—some people remained away from society life and
collected their food by hunting and gathering and were named as
Shudras.
Arahat—some people are dissatisfied with household life and
their duties in society. They left the family and became Ascetic
(Sanyasi). Buddha said people from all the above four castes
joined this Arhat to achieve Salvation or Nirvana.

THEORIES OF KINGSHIP
According to Buddha’s view in the Aggannasutta text, the creation of the
state is a historic process not a natural or divine process. He belongs to
the social contract tradition of the Political Theory of State. He supported
the idea of monarchy as a necessity of the existence of the state for an
orderly human society. The rights of private property and family can
prevail only under the state’s regulatory and punitive authority. People
select the king to ensure the common good and they agree to give a
proportion of his rights. Origin of kingship in a social contract.
Aggannasutta challenges Vedic ideas of maintaining social order
based on Varna-Ashrama Dharma. He rejected caste-based
discrimination and considered people of caste as equal with different
responsibilities and functions.

KEY QUOTES OF BUDDHA IN AGGANASUTTA


‘Dhamma’s the best thing for people, In this life and the next as
well.’
‘I am a true son of Blessed Lord, born of his mouth, born of
Dhamma, created by Dhamma, an heir of Dhamma.’
‘The Khattiya’s best among those who value clan, he with
knowledge and conduct is best of gods and men.’

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the othe
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Buddha the rights of private property
and family can prevail only under the state’s regulatory and punitive
authority.
Reason (R): Aggannasutta presented private property as the
source of evil in society and hence recommended the abolition of
private property.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

2. Arrange the following in a sequence according to the emergence o


social order introduced in Aggannasutta:
i. Property
ii. Family
iii. Instability
iv. Social Misconduct
Code:
(a) iii, iv, ii, i
(b) ii, i, iv, iii
(c) ii, i, iii, iv
(d) iv, ii, iii, i

3. Which one of the following is not a part of the political philosophy o


Aggannasutta?
(a) Aggannasutta supports Vedic ideas of maintaining social o
based.
(b) The necessity of the existence of the state for an orderly hu
society.
(c) Preferred monarchy over anarchy.
(d) People select the king to ensure the common good.

4. Match the Caste and their function as presented in Aggannasutta:

Caste Function
I.Landed ruling
class 1. Writing religious books.

II.Priestly class 2. Making judgements and deciding the


punishment.

III. Arhat 3. Labourers and servants.

IV.Hunters 4. Live a life of a celibate.

Codes:
(a) I–2, II–1, III–3, IV–4
(b) I–4, II–3, III–2, IV–1
(c) I–4, II–3, III–1, IV–2
(d) I–2, II–1, III–4, IV–3

5. Consider the following statement regarding Aggannasutta and


choose the correct ones:
i. Every person is entitled to become virtuous and attain Nirv
irrespective of their caste.
ii. It was a critique of Hindu dogmatism and orthodoxy.
iii. The King is created by God and is different from ordinary hu
beings.
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii)

6. Which among the following statement is incorrect abou


Aggannasutta?
(a) It is less about the creation of the earth and social order and m
about the refutation of caste.
(b) It is based on a contractarian approach towards the origin of
state.
(c) It rejects private ownership for the sake of the welfare of all.
(d) Aggannasutta challenges Vedic ideas of maintaining social ord

7. Which among the following thinkers criticized religious orthodoxy in


Hinduism?
(a) Kabir
(b) Buddha
(c) Kautilya
(d) Only 1 and 2

8. Aggannasutta is which sutta of Digha Nikaya?


(a) Twenty-eight Sutta
(b) Twenty-seventh Sutta
(c) Twenty-sixth Sutta
(d) Twenty-fifth Sutta

9. According to Aggannasutta, how many castes are there in a socia


order?
(a) Four Castes
(b) Six Castes
(c) Eight Castes
(d) Five Castes

10. According to Aggannasutta, the appearance of the society is


called:
(a) Samvat.t.a kappa
(b) Vivat.t.a kappa
(c) Khattiya
(d) Paticca Sammupada

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9.
(c) (a) (a) (d) (d)
2. 4. 6. 8. 10.
(b) (d) (c) (b) (b).
CHAPTER 4
Ziauddin Barani (1285–1357)

INTRODUCTION
Ziauddin Barani was an Islamic political thinker during the period of the
Delhi Sultanate. In his lifetime he witnesses the reigns of around ten Delhi
Sultans, from Ghiyasuddin Balban to Firoz Shah Tughlaq. He is famous for
the Nasihat (advice) he gave in Fatwa-i-Jahandari to Muslim rulers to become
an Ideal Sultan. Like other medieval writers, his political philosophy also
revolves around the Sultan’s personality. The basic objective of Ziauddin
Barani is to implement Islamic Shari’ah. The state must attain an ideal
stage, which he defines as the triumph of good values over evil forces.
Ziauddin Barani’s political thought is usually compared with Kautilya’s
Arthashastras and Machiavelli’s Prince. Tarikh-I-Firuz-Sahi was a
magnificent book of history about the reigns of the Delhi Sultanate.

ADVICE FOR HIS IDEAL SULTAN


In his book Fatawa-i- Jahandari he instructed Sultans and Kings, through
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni, his ideal ruler, on how to construct an effective
system of governance by applying Islamic Shari’ah. He considered the Sultan
an agent of God on earth (Zillallah). According to Ziauddin Barani, Islam
was opposed to the system of monarchy, but for practical reasons and
administrative objectives, monarchy can be maintained with some necessary
precautions. Ziauddin Barani gave twenty-four advices to the monarch.
These advices can be divided into two parts:
PERSONAL CHARACTERISTICS OF SULTAN
The distinction between the personal life of the Sultan and his political
role.
Sultan must be nobly born, preferably from the family of the monarch.
Sultan must be wise enough to understand the deception and
conspiracies of the wicked.
Sultan must divide his time judiciously between his personal needs and
political requirement.
The Sultan was expected to reflect supplication, helplessness, poverty,
and humility.
Sultan should achieve the objectives of Islam and possess the
attributes of terror, prestige, pride, high status, domination, and
superiority.
Sultan must desist from five mean qualities such as falsehood,
changeability, deception, wrathfulness, and injustice.

STATECRAFT ADVICE
Justice is the most important attribute of the State and absolute power
to the Sultan can only be justified by enforcing justice.
The first act of the Sultan is the appointment and gradation of judges,
with the Sultan himself being at the apex.
Sultan must apply both forgiveness and punishment while carrying out
justice.
Deliverance of justice should be according to the religious practices of
the subjects.
Sultan should objectively implement Islamic Shari’ah in all aspects of
life.
Sultan should have high resolve, lofty ideals, fair administration,
distinctiveness from other monarchs, and obligation over people.
Sultan should maintain all royalties (counsellors, army, and intelligence
officers).
Sultan should create a system of administration, army, intelligence, and
justice which has people of high integrity and character.
Sultan should safeguard traditional political families. They should not
leave to live in material deprivation.

Components of Ideal Polity

ZAWABIT/STATE LAWS
Ziauddin Barani divided the laws into two categories, the Shariat and the
Zawabit. Shariat contains the teaching of the prophet and of caliphs.
According to Ziauddin Barani, Shariat should be the bedrock of an Islamic
State. Ziauddin Barani proposed the idea of Zawabit (state laws) which
can be formulated by the Sultan in case of non-applicability of Shariat in any
specific dimension of Governance.
The Zawabit were state laws drafted by the monarch in cooperation with
the nobles in response to new requirements that the Shariat could not meet.
He stated that the Zawabit must be in the spirit of Shariat and listed four
parameters for its formation as recommendations. They are as follows:

1. ‘The Zawabit should not contradict Shariat.’


2. ‘It must increase nobles’ and common people’s devotion and hope for
the Sultan.’
3. ‘The Shariat and devout Caliphs should be its sources and inspiration.’
4. ‘If the Shariat must be rejected due to exigencies, it must be followed
by charities and restitution.’

STRUCTURE OF BUREAUCRACY
Bureaucracy is responsible for the collection of tax and the measurement of
land. According to Ziauddin Barani tax should be collected based on the
people’s ability to pay back their debts. Ziauddin Barani advised the Sultan
to regulate the bureaucracy to check corruption and to protect the weak and
the poor against the strong. He recommended the remission of taxes
temporarily during natural calamities like floods and drought. Ziauddin
Barani talked about the three-tier revenue bureaucracy structure in a
sultanate.

Level Revenue Department Subordinates


and Heads
Central Diwan-i-Wazarat (Ministry of Naib, Musharif-i-Mamalik,
Revenue) headed by Wazir Mustawfi-i-Mamalik, and
(prime minister) Dabirs
Provincial Muqtis or Walis Diwan (Provincial Wazir)
Local Muqaddam (headman of the Patwari
(Village) village) or Chaudhari

JUDICIARY
According to Ziauddin Barani, justice is an inevitable responsibility of the
Sultan. Sultan is the head of the judiciary and is responsible for appointing the
judges. Sultan while dealing with religious cases should be assisted by the
Mufti and the Sadr-us-Sadur, while in secular cases he should be assisted by
Qazi-ul-Quzat. All of a good ruler’s other policies will fail if he is unable to
accomplish justice in his domain. As a result, the Sultan must take extra care
to designate competent judges, qazis, and governors in the state. Delhi
Sultanate was mainly urban in character. The structure of the judiciary
suggested by Ziauddin Barani can be represented in the following
manner:

CONTROLLED MARKET FOR SOCIAL JUSTICE


Ziauddin Barani opposed the concept of a ‘free market economy.’
Ziauddin Barani believed that the primary job of the state in ensuring
social and political order was to regulate the market price, which would benefit
the material condition of the people in general. Ziauddin Barani ruled out
the increase in the salary of army personnel to prevent inflation. Ziauddin
Barani was possibly inspired by Alauddin Khalji’s successful price control
measures, which he attributed to being in the interests of the common
masses.

ARMY
He advised the Sultan to maintain the army disciplined and up to date. He
also stated that the Sultan should take every precaution to keep the army well
supplied with armaments and other facilities and to keep it as an ever-ready
force for the defence and offensive objectives. The army was based on the
Turkish–Mongol Model. It was divided into four parts, viz., infantry (foot
soldiers or payaks), cavalry (horsemen), war-elephants, and auxiliary, viz.,
boats, engineers, transporters, scouts, spies, etc. Ziauddin Barani
recommended that Sultan should maintain personal troops called Qalb for his
safety and ultimate reliability in case of rebellion occurring from within the
nobility.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. What was the main objective of Ziauddin Barani’s Fatwa-i-Jahandari?
(a) Implementation of Shariat.
(b) Guidelines for an Ideal Sultan.
(c) Market Price control.
(d) Implementation of Buddhist doctrines.

2. Ziauddin Barani was a contemporary of which dynasty?


(a) Delhi Sultanate
(b) Mughal Dynasty
(c) Lodhi Dynasty
(d) Suri Dynasty

3. How many pieces of advice Ziauddin Barani gave to the ruler?


(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 36
(d) 48

4. Ziauddin Barani divided the law into?


(a) Zawabit
(b) Shariat
(c) Both
(d) None

5. What was the term Zawabit stands for?


(a) It was another name for Shariat.
(b) It was a law made by local people to govern themselves.
(c) It was a law drafted by the monarch with the nobles in response to
requirements that the Shariat could not meet.
(d) Zawabit laws are not against the Shariat.

6. Fatwa-i-Jahan-Dari is related with?


1. Ziauddin Barani

2. Tenets of Secularism

3. Advice to the Muslim rulers

4. Origin of state

Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4

7. According to Ziauddin Barani, the army should be based on?


(a) Turkish–Mongol Model
(b) Mughal Model
(c) Alexandrian Model
(d) Genghis Model

8. The personal troops of the Sultan were known as?


(a) Deewan-i-Khas
(b) Akasira
(c) Qalb
(d) Falasifa

9. According to Ziauddin Barani what should be the qualities/features of


ruler?
1. The appointment of judges should be the Sultan’s first act.
2. The Sultan should objectively implement Shariat in all aspects of life.

3. A person can be of bad character but should be an able ruler.

4. Sultans must be from royal families and have a strong sense of justic

Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only

10. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Ziauddin


Barani?
1. Fatwa-i-Jahandari and Tarikh-i-Dindariare are works of Ziauddin Bara

2. Sultan is an agent of God on earth.

3. Zawabit law is above the Shariat Law.

4. He divided the army into four parts.

5. Sultan was assisted by Sadr-us-Sadurin secular cases.

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, and 4
(d) 1, 2, 4, and 5

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7.
9. (c)
(b) (b) (c) (a)
2. 4. 6. 8.
10. (b)
(a) (c) (c) (c)
CHAPTER 5
Kabir

INTRODUCTION
Academically speaking, Kabir was not a political thinker, he can correctly be
classified as a social reformer, but if we analyze his social thought, they do
challenge the socio-political paradigm of Indian Society. Although he didn’t
articulate any principle of political association or organization, but he
countered the injustice at the religious as well as the social level and stand for
the oppressed and downtrodden. He belongs to the fifteenth-century, was
born in a lower caste family Julaha (weavers) and was a contemporary of
Sikandar Lodhi. Kabir is widely known for his ‘Dohas’ or couplets through
which he professed wisdom to the world. Kabir belongs to the period of the
Bhakti Movement which revolutionized Indian society in a significant manner.

WORKS OF KABIR
The teachings of Kabir were compiled majorly by his disciples. Different
kinds of scholars in different regions of India have been compiling his works.
As a result, the content and language of his works vary in different sources.
Some of the key sources to understand the teachings of Kabir include Adi
Granth, Bijak, Panchvani, Sarvangi, and Granthavali. Some other famous
books which contain the work of Kabir are:
Saakhi
Padavali
Rekhtas
Suknidhan
Mangal Vasant
Kabir Bijak
Sabdas
Ramaini

INFLUENCES ON KABIR
Kabir was an admirer, or we can as a disciple of Saint
Ramananda (fourteenth-century). Saint Ramananda’s dream of
reconciling the intense and personal mysticism of Islam with the
theology of Hinduism and that of Christian faith was furthered by
Kabir.
Kabir was also influenced by the ideals of truth and non-violence
available in Jain philosophy. It can even be seen in Kabir’s idea of
Begumpura, which aspires to a society with no violence, greed, crime,
etc.

SOCIO-RELIGIOUS THOUGHT OF KABIR


Kabir significantly challenges the Brahminic hegemony and domination over
the Hindu religion. He tried to protect the people from the vicious and
orthodox practice of religion. He supported a secular idea of society and
promoted unity among the Hindu–Muslims. In Kabir’s Bijak he said ‘Who
can be called a Hindu and who a Turk (Muslim) when the same God is the
Father of both, and they are brothers embodying the same spirit?’. He
purposed monotheism and syncretism (an amalgamation of different religions
and cultures).
Kabir was critical of caste and class-based inequality and discrimination
in Indian society. He criticized the practice of untouchability by saying that
‘Pandit, look in your heart to know. Tell me how untouchability was born,
untouchability is what you made so…We eat by touching, we wash by
touching, from a touch the world was born. Says Kabir, only he’s untouched
who has no link with Maya.’ Rationally, Kabir argues that there is no
evidence to indicate that people of some castes are superior to others.
Everybody has the same flesh and does everything in a similar manner.
Despite his progressive outlook, Kabir was not a supporter of gender
equality. His views regarding the position of women in society are full of
orthodox. He even supported the practice of Sati. Kabir considered women
as a means of distraction and seduction in human life. He once said, ‘many
have been ruined due to the love for women. Many more will go to hell
laughing all the way through’ and ‘A snake has two hoods, a woman has
twenty hoods If she stings one, there is no chance to survive.’

POLITICAL THOUGHTS OF KABIR


Kabir was not happy with the administration and judicial system. He
considered taxation as a means of exploitation of the weaker sections and all
the benefits of the state goes to the noble classes. He even criticized the
judicial administration and said that it favours religious dogmas and orthodoxy
instead of justice.
His main political ideas can be seen in the ideal and utopian concept of
Begumpura. The idea of Begumpura originally belongs to Ravidas, who was
also a contemporary of Kabir. Kabir in his writings promoted the idea of
Begumpura. Kabir had his own terms for the utopian society as he sang of
Amarpur (Immortal Place) or Premnagar (Land of Love). His ideal polity, the
kingdom of God, had no State, no elite, no corruption, and no surplus
extraction. It was premised on justice, equality, and freedom. Kabir believed
that people can destroy the old socio-political order and can create a new and
ideal one when he said ‘किबरा खड़ा बाज़ार म िलए लुकाटी हाथ जो घर फूंके आपना,
चले हमारे साथ’ (Kabir stands in the market, flaming torch in hand. Burn down
your home, then come and walk with me). Some important qualities of
Begumpura are:
an ideal village society without any sorrow,
an ideal village society without any private property and taxation,
an ideal village society without any monarchy and social hierarchy
(caste system),
people will be followers of the monotheistic and syncretic God of
Kabir, and
a society based on the idea of bhakti.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Kabir belongs to which caste?
(a) Kumhar (Pottery Maker)
(b) Julaha (Weaver)
(c) Mallah (Fishermen)
(d) None of the above

2. Which of the following texts are related to Kabir?


i. Padavali
ii. Sahitya Lahari
iii. Sarvangi
iv. Sur Saravali
Choose the correct one:
(a) Only i and ii
(b) Only ii and iii
(c) Only i and iii
(d) i, ii, iii, and iv

3. Which of the following texts is not related to Kabir?


i. Panchvani
ii. Ramaini
iii. Saakhi
iv. Amritbani
Choose the correct one:
(a) Only i and iv
(b) Only ii and iii
(c) Only i and iii
(d) i, ii, iii, and iv

4. Which among the following statements are correct regarding Kabir?


i. Kabir was influenced by the ideals of Jainism.
ii. He tried to protect the people from the vicious and orthodox practi
religion.
iii. He supported the idea of gender equality.
iv. According to him caste differences are natural.
Choose the correct one:
(a) Only i and iv
(b) Only ii and iii
(c) Only i and ii
(d) i, ii, iii, and iv

5. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other a
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Kabir argues that there is no evidence to indicate that
people of some castes are superior to others.
Reason (R): Kabir considered women as a means of distraction and
seduction in human life.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

6. Which of the following statements about Kabir are true?


A. He was against false rituals and superstitions of both Hindu an
religions.

B. He satirically denounced Brahmins and Mullahs and thus won the


poor people who were the victims of their exploitation.

C. He preached that salvation can be attained by merely performing


rituals.
D. He has criticized idol worship.
(a) A and B only
(b) A, B, C, and D
(c) A, B, and D only
(d) C and D only

7. Kabir argued in favour of:


(a) Caste-based social system
(b) Tax based society
(c) Rationale and a humane society
(d) Private property

8. Which among the following statements are incorrect regarding Kabir:


A. He was a fourteenth-century poet who belongs to Bhakti Movement.

B. He says that sacrificing animals in the name of God is not religious b


pardonable sin.

C. He believed that one can get rid of all sins by having a bath in Ga
water.
D. He said that a saint has no caste.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) A, B, and D only
(c) B and D only
(d) C and D only

9. Who says that ‘a priest, a warrior, a tradesman and people of all caste
are seeking God alike, Hindu and Muslims alike have achieved tha
end.’?
(a) Kautilya
(b) Kabir
(c) Buddha
(d) Ziauddin Barani

10. Which among the following statements are correct regarding Kabir’s
idea of Begumpura:
A. People will be followers of polytheism.

B. An ideal village society with a monarchy.

C. An ideal village society without any private property.


D. Society based on the idea of bhakti.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) A, B, and D only
(c) B and D only
(d) C and D only

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7.
9. (b)
(b) (a) (b) (c)
2. 4. 6. 8.
10. (d)
(c) (c) (c) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Sahitya Lahari and Sur Sarvali are work of Surdas.

3. Panchvani and Amritbani are texts related to Ravidas.

8. Kabir was quite consistent in his belief that not just human beings, bu
all creations of God are equal because of his conviction that they are a
endowed with the same supreme spirit. He is, therefore, critical of th
slaughtering of animals, even for religious rituals in the name of God an
preached humane treatment of animals.
CHAPTER 6
Pandita Ramabai (1858–1922)

INTRODUCTION
Pandita Ramabai is perhaps one of the first feminists in modern Indian
history who struggled for the emancipation of Indian women. Her political
thoughts are reflected in her critique of patriarchy and the demand for civil
rights and gender justice. Thus, she was a liberal feminist and a social
reformer. Pandita Ramabai counters the caste system as well as the
inferior status of women in Indian Society. Throughout her life, she worked
for the upliftment of women.
Important Events and Achievements:
Honoured with the title of Saraswati and Pandita in 1878 by the
University of Calcutta.
Founded the Arya Mahila Sabha in 1882 in Pune.
On 25 September 1883, Pandita Ramabai converted to
Christianity.
In 1887, she founded Ramabai Association which accepted to pay
the expenses for 10 years to run a widow’s home for upper-caste
Hindu widows in India.
In 1889, she opened a secular residential school for high caste
widows, the Sharada Sadan, in Bombay.
In 1908, Pandita Ramabai translated Bible into the Marathi
language.
In 1919, the British government awarded Pandita Ramabai, the
Kaiser-i-Hind medal for her distinguished service to the Indian
education system.
She was in the first meeting of the National Congress in Bombay in
1889 along with other women such as Swarnakumari Devi, and
Calcutta University’s first lady graduate Kadambini Ganguly.
Critique of Patriarchy: According to Pandita Ramabai, the
patriarchal ideology of the society placed women within domestic
fear as wives/mothers/housewives according to their sexual,
reproductive and homemaking roles. In this caste-ridden, patriarchal
society, the highest status for a woman was that of a Saubhagyavati
that is a blessed woman whose husband was alive and a mother of
sons, rather than daughters. A woman only with daughters or one
without children had a lower status and lived under the fear of being
deserted by her husband. A widow had the lowest status, especially
a child widow or one without children. She has particularly drawn the
attention of people towards what she considered the biggest curse
for a Hindu woman which is her becoming a widow, especially a child
widow. In her testimony before the education commission set up in
1882, Pandita Ramabai demanded women teachers for girls and
schools. She noted that ‘women being one-half of the people of this
country are oppressed and cruelty treated by the other half.’
Reform for Women’s Empowerment: Pandita Ramabai
founded the Arya Mahila Sabha which may be termed as the first
feminist organisation in India. The objective of this institution was to
promote education among native women and discouragement of
child marriage. Pandita Ramabai Associations in the United States
resulted in the formation of the Ramabai Association in Boston in
December 1887 which pledged financial support for 10 years for her
proposed secular school for high cast widows in India. She played
an important role in the Congress convention demanding civil rights
for women that is widows, deserted wives and sexually exploited
women and her main contribution was her desire to protect the upper
caste widow who was the symbol of Hindu patriarchal oppression.
Mukti Mission consisted of not only Hindu widows but also famine
victims, sexually assaulted women blind and old women all kept in
separate sections. This section came to be known as the Kripa such
as the Home of Mercy. In this Mukti Sadan, girls did everything in it,
from weaving, dairy farming, cooking, etc. The social and economic
value of being independent was no doubt the most important of all
values to be taught to Indian women.
Important Books:
Stri Dharma Niti: 1882 published
Consists of Morals for Women
The Cry of Indian Women: published in 1883. It contains details of
Indian women’s oppression through early marriage, marital
harassment, desertion by the husband, and widowhood.
The High Caste Hindu Women (1887): It was India’s first feminist
manifesto with an agenda for women’s emancipation and
empowerment. It offers a feminist critique of Indian women’s
condition.
United Stateschi Lokeshiti Ani Pravasvritta (1889): A Marathi book
in which she tried to highlight the importance of social movements
and civil society in changing society for the better.
Mukti Prayer Bell: A newsletter containing writings showing
increasing frustration and resentment.
Lamentation of Divine Language: A Sanskrit poem submitted to the
Oriental Conference at Berlin in 1881, highlighting the violence of
colonialism.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who among the following founded the Arya Mahila Sabha?
(a) Ramabai Ranade
(b) Pandita Ramabai
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Savitri Bai Phule

2. Arrange the following works chronologically:


A. The High-Caste Hindu Women

B. Stri Dharma Niti

C. The Cry of Indian Women


D. United Stateschi Lokeshiti Ani Pravasvritta
Code:
(a) A, D, C, B
(b) B, A, C, D
(c) C, B, A, D
(d) B, C, A, D

3. Which among the following are not the works of Pandita Ramabai?
A. The Cry of Indian Women

B. The High-Caste Hindu Women

C. Amachya Ayushyatil Kahi Athavani


Code:
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) Only C

4. Which of the following is founded by Pandita Ramabai?


A. Seva Sadan

B. Mukti Sadan

C. Sharada Sadan
Code:
(a) B only
(b) C only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Both B and C

5. Which of the following statements are incorrect?


(a) She opened a secular residential school for high caste widows
Sharada Sadan, in Bombay.
(b) She founded the Arya Mahila Sabha in 1882.
(c) She was conferred upon the highest title possible in India f
woman, that of ‘Saraswati’.
(d) None of the above

6. Assertion (A) and Reason (R):


Assertion (A): Pandita Ramabai was a liberal feminist.
Reason (R): She supported the notions of freedom and equality,
and she was all for women’s rights on the same terms as that of men.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(c) (A) is true but (R) false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

7. Why was Pandita Ramabai given the title of Kaiser-e-Hind?


(a) As she converted to Christianity.
(b) To glorify her female education work.
(c) As shelter was given to famine-stricken women.
(d) As Ramabai Association was established.

8. ‘Women being one-half of the people of this country are oppresse


and cruelty treated by the other half.’ Who made this statement?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Pandita Ramabai
(d) Savitri Bai Phule

9. Match the following:

Thinkers Works

1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak I.The Cry of Indian Women

II.The Arctic Home in the Vedas


2. Swami Vivekananda

C. Pandita Ramabai III. Karma Y


D. Rabindranath Tagore IV.Ghare Baire

A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) II III I IV
(c) II I III IV
(d) III II IV I

10. Why did Pandita Ramabai founded Arya Mahila Samaj?


(a) To ameliorate the downtrodden women.
(b) To give assistance to the widows.
(c) To prevent child marriages.
(d) To promote women’s education and deliverance from the oppres
of child marriage.

11. Arrange the following live events of Pandita Ramabai in chronology :


A. Conversion to Christianity.

B. Title of Saraswati.

C. Secular Residential School for High-Caste Widows.


D. Wrote ‘The High caste Hindu Women.’
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) B, D, C, A
(b) C, A, D, B
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) B, A, D, C

12. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Pandita Ramabai in Ancient times
people were assigned to the four castes according to their work and
merit and not based on their birth.
Reason (R): She held that all sacred books in Sanskrit literature
shared hateful sentiments about women like child marriage,
polygamy, and enforced widowhood which constitutes the greatest
social evils in India.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

13. Consider the following statements with reference to Pandita Ramabai


Sarasvati:
1) She established the Mukti Mission to liberate children from
labour.
2) She supported the defence of the Rakhmabai case in 1884, w
became instrumental in the drafting of the Age of Consent A
1891.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. With reference to Pandita Ramabai Sarasvati, consider the following


statements:
1) She founded the Arya Women’s Association to promote
education and empowerment of women.
2) She opened the Sharada Sadan (Home of Learning) Cente
widowed women’s welfare.
3) She wrote a book named ‘The High-Caste Hindu Woman’ to re
the plight of high-caste widow women.
Which of the given statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 13.
(b) (d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (b)
2. 4. 6. 8. 10. 12. 14.
(d) (d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

13. Mukti Mission are residential widow homes and not related to the
issue of child labour. Arya Mahila Sabha was established to oppose
child marriage.
CHAPTER 7
Bal Gangadhar Tilak (1856–1920)

INTRODUCTION
The extremist ideology created a leadership of ‘Lal–Bal–Pal,’ during the
national movement of India. They criticized the moderates and altered the
nationalist vocabulary by incorporating swadeshi, boycotts, and national
education. Bal Gangadhar Tilak, rooted in Maharashtra was perhaps the
most articulate militant leader of this phase of the freedom struggle. Bal
Gangadhar Tilak was the first leader of the Indian independence
movement. The British journalist Valentine Chirol called him ‘The Father
of the Indian unrest.’ He was also conferred with the title of ‘Lokmanya’ which
means ‘accepted by the people as their leader,’ M. K. Gandhi called him
‘The Maker of Modern India’. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was one of the
strongest advocates of Swaraj (self–rule) and a strong radical in Indian
consciousness. He is known for his quote in Marathi: ‘Swaraj is my birthright
and I shall have it.’ Throughout his political life, he was arrested three times
by the British government on sedition charges.

IMPORTANT EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


In 1881 he started two nationalist newspapers: Kesari (Marathi
language) and Maratha (English Language).
The Deccan Indian Society was founded by him in 1884 along with
Gopal Krishna Agarkar.
In 1885 Fergusson college was established in Pune.
In 1890, Bal Gangadhar Tilak joined the Indian National Congress.
In 1894, he started the celebration of the Ganpati and Shivaji Festival
for building national unity among the Indian masses.
In 1897, he was accused in the Rand Murder Case and sedition
charges and was sentenced to eighteen months of imprisonment.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak had been tried for sedition charges three
times by British India Government—in 1897, 1909, and 1916.
In 1905, he started the Swadeshi Movement against the British Empire
in India and recommended actions like boycotting national education.
1907, Surat Split—Clash over the leadership of congress between
Extremist and Moderates.
In 1909—he was charged with sedition again for supporting the
revolutionary activities in his newspaper and sentenced to six years
(1909–14) of imprisonment in Mandalay Jail in Burma (Myanmar).
In 1916, Bal Gangadhar Tilak reunited with his fellow nationalists
and rejoined the Indian National Congress during the Lucknow Pact.
In 1916, Bal Gangadhar Tilak along with Annie Besant and G.
S. Khapdre founded the All-India Home Rule League. Under his
leadership, the home rule league was started in Maharashtra,
Karnataka, Central province, and Berar region.

IDEA OF SWARAJ
His concept of Swaraj was of a government constituted by the Indians
themselves that rules according to the wishes of the people or their
representatives. Swaraj which meant ‘self-rule’ was what Bal Gangadhar
Tilak asked for, not as a mercy but as a right, a natural right, a birthright.
Swaraj was not only a political concept merely. It was more than a law-and-
order mechanism. It was also more than economic order providing the
necessities of life. Swaraj according to Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a full
self-government—political, social-economic, and spiritual. Thus, Swaraj was
something more than a home rule.
Politically, Swaraj meant the rule of India by Indians. It means political
non-interference by foreigners in the matter relating to India.
Economically, Swaraj meant non-interference in the economic activities
of India. Let the Indian natural resource be owned by the Indian and let
them decide as to how would they use them for the benefit of the
people and the development of the state.
Socially, Swaraj meant for the type of society where evils do not exist,
let the British not interfere in our religion and social life.
Culturally, Swaraj meant a high level of Nationalism where materialism
has no place.

During the Swadeshi Movement in 1905, Bal Gangadhar Tilak


proposed that realization of Swaraj can be possible by four means:

1. National Education,
2. Boycott,
3. Swadeshi, and
4. Passive Resistance.

NATIONALISM
Bal Gangadhar Tilak’s Nationalism was oriented on culture and tradition.
He said national unity can be created among the masses by reminding them
about the glory and history. Cultural celebrations like the Ganpati festival and
Shivaji festival can unify the Indian masses for the cause of nationalism. He
said the western liberal ideas won’t be useful for infusing nationalist feelings
among the Indian masses. The elements of a nation according to Bal
Gangadhar Tilak were common language and literature, common religion,
tradition, and history. Bal Gangadhar Tilak’s concept of nationalism was
spiritual and religious. Bal Gangadhar Tilak wrote, ‘God and our country,
are not different in short, our country is one form of God. He looked at our
Motherland as a Goddess.’

List of Books and Themes:


The Orion—published in 1893 is based on the ancient text of Aryan.
The Arctic Home in the Vedas—Published in 1903 is about the origin of
Aryanic people and proposed a new way to determine the exact time of
the Vedas.
Shrimad Bhagavad Gita Rahasya—Published in 1915 that is on the
analysis of karma yoga in Bhagavad Gita.
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Who among the following founded the Deccan Education Society?
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. Arrange the following live events of Bal Gangadhar Tilak in chronology:


A. Joined Indian National Congress.

B. Sedition charges for the first time.

C. Establishment of Kesari Prakashan.


D. Raised the slogan ‘Swaraj is my Birth Right.’
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A, D, C, B
(b) C, A, B, D
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) B, A, D, C

3. The birth anniversary of Bal Gangadhar Tilak was observed on?


(a) 23 July
(b) 24 May
(c) 15 March
(d) 9 October

4. Which daily newspaper was started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in Marathi?


(a) The Tribune
(b) Kesari
(c) Marathi
(d) Harijan
5. In which year Bal Gangadhar Tilak joined The Congress Party?
(a) 1881
(b) 1899
(c) 1890
(d) 1905

6. In 1909 Bal Gangadhar Tilak was imprisoned for six years and was sen
to?
(a) Mandalay
(b) Cellular Jail
(c) Bamkipur Jail
(d) None of the Above

7. Which of the following book was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak?


(a) The Orion
(b) The Arctic Home of the Vedas
(c) Shrimad Bhagavat Gita Rahasya
(d) All of the Above

8. When was the Home Rule League movement started by Bal Gangadha
Tilak?
(a) 1919
(b) 1916
(c) 1911
(d) 1907

9. Who called Bal Gangadhar Tilak ‘the father of Indian unrest.’?


(a) N. M. Joshi
(b) Lord Lansdowne
(c) Valentine Chirol
(d) Gopal Krishan Gokhale

10. Who said that ‘Our Nation is like a tree of which the original trunk is
Swaraj and the branches are Swadeshi and Boycott.’?
(a) Pandita Ramabai
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Swami Vivekanada
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (c) (d)
2. 4.
6. (a)
(b) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Bombay State Political Conference was held in 1916 at Belgaum and h


announced his famous slogan ‘Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have i
at this conference.
CHAPTER 8
Swami Vivekananda (1863–1902)

INTRODUCTION
Swami Vivekananda is considered as one of the most influential, spiritual,
educationist thinkers of India. He is considered as an icon for his fearless
courage and his positive exhortations to the youth. His pre-monastic name is
Narendra Nath Dutta. He was a monk and chief disciple of
Ramakrishna Paramhansa. He introduced the Indian philosophies of
Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


He established Ramakrishna Mission in 1897.
He also represented India in the first Parliament of Religion held in
Chicago (US) in 1893.
His birthday on January 12 is celebrated as National Youth Day and
the week commencing from that day is known as National Youth Week.
Narendra Nath Dutta became a member of the Brahmo Samaj’s
breakaway faction led by Keshub Chandra Sen.

NEO-VEDANTA PHILOSOPHY
According to Vedanta philosophy, God alone was real, the visible world was
unreal and the absorption of the individual soul in the one supreme soul was
the real goal of every human being. However, Swami Vivekananda
followed the Vedanta preached by his teacher which was rooted in the
traditional Indian wisdom of bhakti tradition. There were three important
principles of the Neo-Vedanta philosophy of Swami Vivekananda:
Vedanta believed in the one between God and man and the solidarity
of the universe.
It did not stand for a life of renunciation but stood for selfless action in
the services of humanity. Hence service of man should be considered
as the service of God.
It propagated the principle of universal tolerance and believed that
different religious faces were different parts to reach the goal of
liberation.

He wanted the Neo-Vedantists to remain active and to work for the


awakening of the masses. He wanted youth to dedicate themselves to the
cause of the resurgence of India. According to him in every individual, there
prevailed three qualities of Sattva (knowledge), Rajas (valour), and Tamas
(ignorance) and in every society and in every civilization, there existed four
classes of people based on the division of labour. Based on historical
examples and the law of nature each of these classes in every society
governed the country one after another in succession.

CULTURAL NATIONALISM
Swami Vivekananda’s nationalism is associated with spiritualism. He
linked India’s regeneration to her age-old tradition of spiritual goals. He said,
‘Each nation has a destiny to fulfil, each nation has a message to deliver,
each nation has a mission to accomplish.’ He galvanized the National Spirit by
exposing the British policy of profiteering in complete disregard to the Indian
interests.
Swami Vivekananda was a great advocate of democracy and he
wanted to awaken the youth people to establish a free and democratic
government in India. He also believed in the principle of liberty, equality, and
religious tolerance.
The four pillars of nationalism according to Swami Vivekananda are:

1. Consciousness and pride in the ancient glory of India,


2. development of moral and physical strength,
3. awakening of the masses, and
unity based on common spiritual ideas.
4.

FAMOUS QUOTES OF SWAMI VIVEKANANDA


1. ‘I am proud to belong to a religion which has taught the world both
tolerance and universal acceptance.’
2. ‘The soil of India is my highest heaven; the good of India is my good.’
3. ‘Let a new India arise out of the peasant’s cottage grasping the
plough; out of the hearts of the fisherman, the cobbler, and the
sweeper. Let her emerge from the groves and forests, from the hills
and mountains.’
4. ‘To make a great future India, the whole secret lies in organization,
accumulation of power, co-ordination of wills.’
5. ‘India must conquer the World and nothing less than that is my ideal.’
6. ‘Arise, awake, and do not stop until the goal is reached.’
7. ‘You cannot believe in God until you believe in yourself.’
8. ‘External nature is only internal nature writ large.’

IMPORTANT WORKS
Karma Yoga (1896)
Raja Yoga (1896)—It was his interpretation of Patanjali’s Yoga
Sutras.
Vedanta Philosophy: Address before the Graduate Philosophical
Society (1897)—Lectures from Colombo to Almora.
The Vedanta Philosophy: Lectures on Jnana Yoga (1902)
Inspired Talks—published in 1909.
Practical Vedanta (1912)—It is about how Vedanta can be made
practical in our day-to-day life.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and th
other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Swami Vivekananda said service to man should be
considered as service to God.
Reason (R): Neo-Vedanta philosophy stands for selfless action in the
service of humanity.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is True but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

2. In which year did, the Government of India decided to observe th


birthday of Swami Vivekananda as the National Youth Day?
(a) 1982
(b) 1983
(c) 1984
(d) 1985

3. Swami Vivekanand was the disciple of?


(a) Ramananda
(b) Sankracharya
(c) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
(d) Nagarjuna

4. Among the following is not the principle of the Neo-Vedanta Philosoph


of Swami Vivekananda?
(a) Oneness between God and man.
(b) Universal tolerance.
(c) Self-action in the services of humanity.
(d) National spirit could be developed by the elder people of the count

5. Which of the following is not said by Swami Vivekananda?


(a) Arise awake and stop not until the goal is reached.
(b) Strength is Life, Weakness is Death.
(c) Give me blood I will give you freedom.
(d) Each nation has a destiny to fulfil, each nation has a messag
deliver, and each nation has a mission to accomplish.

6. Which among the following statement are correct regarding Swam


Vivekananda’s ideology:
A. His idea of Nationalism is based on religion.

B. He wanted India to lead the world towards the path of spiritual develo

C. He was a supporter of the Dvaita-Vedanta Philosophy.


D. His Neo-Vedanta led to the creation of a human-centric Hinduism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and D only
(b) A, B, C, and D
(c) A, B, and C only
(d) A and B only

7. Arrange the following works chronologically:


I. Raja Yoga
II. The Vedanta Philosophy: Lectures on Jnana Yoga
III. Karma Yoga
IV. Practical Vedanta
(a) I, II, III, and IV
(b) III, I, II, and IV
(c) III, II, I, and IV
(d) IV, I, II, and III

8. Which of the following is not a work of Swami Vivekananda?


(a) The Vedanta Philosophy: Lectures on Jnana Yoga
(b) Karmayogin
(c) Karma Yoga
(d) Raja Yoga
9. Which of the following is not correct about Swami Vivekananda?
(a) He established Ramakrishna Mission in 1897.
(b) In 1902, he helped Jyotindranath Banerjee to organize a Se
Society in Calcutta.
(c) He founded the Vedanta Society of New York.
(d) Belur Math is the international headquarters of the Ramakri
Mission. It was founded in 1899 by Swami Vivekananda.

10. National Youth Day is celebrated each year on:


(a) 12 January
(b) 21 January
(c) 16 June
(d) 18 June

11. Identify the philosopher who remarked that religious toleration is crucial
for the growth of democracy.
(a) Pandita Ramabai
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Swami Vivekananda
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

12. Who said that ‘The soil of India is my highest heaven; the good of India
is my good.’?
(a) Pandita Ramabai
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Swami Vivekananda
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 12.
(a) (c) (c) (b) (b) (c) (c)
2. 4. 6. 8. 10. (a)
(c) (d) (a) (b)
CHAPTER 9
Rabindranath Tagore (1861–1941)

INTRODUCTION
Rabindranath Tagore was born on 7 May 1861 in Calcutta. He was an
iconic figure in the Indian cultural renaissance and was a polymath poet,
philosopher, musician, writer, and educationist. He became the first Asian to
win the Nobel Prize in 1913 for his collection of poems, Gitanjali. He was
honoured with the title of Gurudev by M. K. Gandhi, also known as
Kabiguru, and Biswakabi and his songs are popularly known as
Rabindrasangeet. The national anthems of India (the Jana Gana Mana), and
Bangladesh (Amar Shonar Bangla) are composed by him.

IMPORTANT EVENTS AND ACHIEVEMENTS


1874 Rabindranath Tagore’s first poem, entitled Abhilasha
(Desire), is published anonymously in the journal
‘Tattvabodhini Patrika’.
1876 Rabindranath Tagore joins a ‘Secret Society’,
supposed to have been modelled after Mazzini’s
Carbonari.
1877 Introduced the short story genre to Bengali literature named
Bhikharini (The Beggar Woman) in Bharati magazine.
1879 He publishes his ‘Europe-Prabasir Patra’ (Letters on a
Sojourn in Europe), in serialized form in the journal Bharati.
1905 Took a key part in the Swadeshi Movement during the
partition of Bengal and introduced the Rakhi Bandhan
Utsav.
1911 Adopted the National Anthem of India on the second day of
the annual session of the Indian National Congress.
1913 Received the Nobel Prize for Literature (Gitanjali).
1915 He was awarded Knighthood by the British Government but
returned it in 1919 in protest of the Jallianwala Bagh
Massacre.
1918 The formal foundation stone of Visva-Bharati.

1921 Rabindranath Tagore sets up the ‘Institute for Rural


Reconstruction’, later renamed ‘Shantiniketan’ or ‘Abode of
Welfare’.
1933 Delivered professorial lecture at Calcutta University on
‘Religion of Man’.
1957 and Rabindranath Tagore’s short story Kabuliwala (The
1961 Fruit seller from Kabul), based on which a 1957 Bengali film
and a 1961 Hindi film were made.

CRITIQUE OF NATIONALISM AND INDIAN


NATIONAL LEADERS
To him, a nation is an organized political and economic union of people for
mechanical purposes—power, material gain, and competitive advantage.
Rabindranath Tagore rejected the term ‘Nationalism’ as understood in the
western sense. His critique of nationalism emerges in his essays and lectures:
Nationalism in the West, Nationalism in Japan, Nationalism in India,
Construction versus Creation, and International Relations. In these works, he
criticized nationalism as an epidemic of evil or a terrible absurdity, posing a
recurrent threat to mankind’s higher humanity, through the canonization of
banditry or the brotherhood of hooliganism. Rabindranath Tagore states
that nationalism has close links to capitalism, colonialism, and imperialism,
and was only an organization of politics and commerce.
Rabindranath Tagore criticizes Indian National Leaders, particularly
M. K. Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement, calling it as political
asceticism, the Charkha, the Swadeshi Movement to achieve independence.
Within the Indian National Leaders, he criticized the extremists, who were
blindly following the revolution and adopting violent measures and ignoring
the real suffering of their own people.
SYNTHETIC UNIVERSALISM
Rabindranath Tagore states that he is not against any nation in particular.
Instead, he was against the general idea of all nations. He believed in a
cosmopolitan world where people will iron out their differences and follow the
path of humanity. He firmly believes that there is a harmony of completeness
in humanity. For Rabindranath Tagore— ‘when a man does not realize
his kinship with the world, he lives in a prison house whose walls are alien to
him’. Hence men must rise above the idea of nationalism and seek
universalism and humanity.

IMPORTANT BOOKS AND THEMES


1. Chokar Bali (1903) Known as ‘A grain of sand’. The
meaning of Chokar Bali is ‘an
irritation in the eye or an eyesore’.
2. Gitanjali (1910) A compilation of 103 Bengali
poems. ‘Love’ is the main theme of
Gitanjali.
3. Gora (1910) The social message, self-searching,
conflicts, and resolutions.
4. The Home and the World (1916) Against the Western culture.
or Ghore Baire
5. Nationalism (1917) A compendium of lectures delivered
by Rabindranath Tagore during
World War I and the Swadeshi
Movement.
7. The Religion of Man (1931) The main theme of the book is the
divinity of humanity and the
humanity of God.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Rabindranath Tagore was born in the year?
(a) 1860
(b) 1861
(c) 1862
(d) 1863

2. The national anthems of India and Bangladesh are from which of th


following song of Rabindranath Tagore?
(a) Tomari Tare Maa
(b) Baglar Mati Banglar
(c) Rabindrasangeet
(d) Amar Sonar Bangla

3. Rabindranath Tagore’s first poem Abhilasha was published in which o


the following journal?
(a) Young India
(b) Indian Opinion
(c) Navajivan
(d) Tattvabodhini Patrika

4. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A), and th
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In his book Nationalism, Rabindranath Tagore
criticized nationalism as an epidemic of evil or a terrible absurdity.
Reason (R): His critique of nationalism could be mentioned in his
essay entitled ‘Nationalism in Taiwan’, ‘Nationalism in India’, and
‘Nationalism in West’.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true.

5. Which of the movement of M. K. Gandhi was criticized by Rabindranat


Tagore, calling it as political asceticism?
(a) Non-Cooperation
(b) Civil Disobedience
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Khilafat movement

6. Match the following Columns:

Events Years
A. Award of Knighthood 1.19
B. Joining of secret society 2.19
C. Foundation of Visva-Bharati 3.18
D. Europe-Prabasir Patra 4.18

Choose the correct answer from the following:


(a) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3
(b) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–4
(c) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1
(d) A–1, B–3, C–4, D–2

7. Consider the following statement regarding Rabindranath Tagore’s idea


on Synthetic Universalism.
A. He believes in human unity and was against the general idea of all n

B. He states that ‘when a man does not realize his kinship with the
lives in a prison house whose walls are alien to him.’

Choose the correct answer:


(a) Both statements A and B are correct
(b) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(c) Statement A is correct, and B is incorrect
(d) Statement A is incorrect, and B is correct

8. What was the main theme of Gitanjali?


(a) Anger
(b) Love
(c) Conflict
(d) Peace

9. The book ‘The Home and the World’ was against which of the following
culture?
(a) Indian culture
(b) Chinese culture
(c) Asian culture
(d) Western culture

10. According to Rabindranath Tagore nationalism has close links to which


of the following principle?
(a) Capitalism, Fascism, and Colonialism
(b) Colonialism, Imperialism, and Fascism
(c) Capitalism, Colonialism, and Imperialism
(d) Capitalism, Imperialism, and Fascism.

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (d) (a) (a) (b) (d) (c).
2. 4.
6. (a)
(c) (c)
CHAPTER 10
M. K. Gandhi

INTRODUCTION
Albert Einstein said in praise of M. K. Gandhi, ‘Generations to come will
scarce believe that such a one as this ever in flesh and blood walked upon
this earth.’ M. K. Gandhi’s personal life as well as his thought on
Satyagraha and Non-Violence have inspired leaders around the globe. From
Martin Luther King Jr to Barack Obama and from Nelson Mandela
to Desmond Tutu. Born on 2 October 1869, M. K. Gandhi was called
‘Father of the Nation’ by Subhash Chandra Bose in 1944 and the title
‘Mahatma’ was given by Rabindranath Tagore in 1915. He was a
freedom fighter, a civil rights activist, a philosopher, and above all a great
human being. He was awarded the title of ‘Kaiser-i-Hind’ in 1915 by the British
government.
He never accepted the existence of any ‘ism’ called ‘Gandhism’ nor he
compiled anything substantial on political concepts so that we can refer to him
as a political philosopher but still, as he himself said ‘his life was his
message,’ fragments of his ideas collected from different works gives us
credible inputs to talk about the political philosophy of M. K. Gandhi. From
his early life and struggle in South Africa to his first public appearance at the
inaugural session of Banaras Hindu University and from Champaran to Quit
India, his political life has given us many political ideas.

NON-VIOLENCE AND TRUTH


These two principles are the backbone of Gandhian philosophy. In fact, the
United Nations General Assembly recognized the importance of Non-violence
and Truth in Gandhian philosophy, so it started celebrating his birthday as
‘International Day of Non-violence’ in 2007. Truth is to M. K. Gandhi like
idealism is to Plato and materialism is to Karl Marx. It is the central theme
of all his discussions and is the supreme goal of human life. For him, non-
violence is the only way to know the truth and hence, he proclaimed that:
Ahimsa Parmo Dharma (Non-violence is the supreme virtue).
Non-violence is not only in action but also in thoughts.
Hate the sin, not the sinner.
Non-violence doesn’t mean cowardice. Nonviolence is a weapon of the
strong and is the greatest force at the disposal of mankind.

IMPORTANT INFLUENCES ON M. K. GANDHI

S.No. Personality Ideas/Books


1. Leo Tolstoy The simplicity of life and purity of purpose,
truth and non-violence is taken from:
‘The Kingdom of God is Within You’
and ‘A letter to a Hindu’ work.
2. John Ruskin Socialism or the idea of Sarvodaya is taken
from ‘Unto This Last’ book.
3. Thoreau Essays on Civil Disobedience.
4. Gopal Krishna He was the political mentor (Guru) of M. K.
Gokhale Gandhi.
5. Edward Criticism of modern medicine on human
Carpenter health.

IDEA OF SWARAJ
M. K. Gandhi in his book ‘Hind Swaraj (1909)’ spelt out his understanding
of ‘true freedom’ or what he called ‘Swaraj’. Unlike the common understanding
of freedom from the yoke of British Colonialism, M. K. Gandhi’s Swaraj has
two meanings: one is to get political, economic, and spiritual freedom from
British rule while the other one means to establish ‘rule over ourselves’. The
‘rule over ourselves’ means to limit our needs and to progress towards the
path of Satya (Truth) and Ahimsa (Non-violence). Gram Swaraj was an
inalienable part of M. K. Gandhi’s idea of Swaraj. According to M. K.
Gandhi, ‘the soul of India lives in its villages and these villages are self-
dependent.’ M. K. Gandhi, in fact, advocated a village-led development
model with minimum reliance on cities. He was always a great advocate of
cooperatives.

SATYAGRAHA
Satyagraha (firmness to truth) is the only way to achieve Swaraj. According to
M. K. Gandhi Satyagraha means ‘to win over one’s enemy.’ It is a time
taking but very effective way to make the opponent realize his mistake. Not
only during his lifetime but also after his death, Satyagraha has emerged as
the cherished way to fight with forces of evil, whether it is Black Rights
Movement in the US or the Forest Rights Movement in India. M. K. Gandhi
used to follow the ‘Struggle–Truce–Struggle Method’ of Satyagraha. Under
this method, he used to suspend movements once they take more than
speculated time because according to M. K. Gandhi, people may resort to
violence if the struggle goes too long. In between the phases of struggle, he
used to do constructive work like working for the abolition of untouchability. M.
K. Gandhi chalked out a difference between Satyagraha and Passive
Resistance.

Passive Resistance Satyagraha


Violence is not used because Complete rejection of violence.
it may not be appropriate to Satyagraha is deontological. It is an
article of faith in Ahimsa.
use violence in the given
context. If situations favour,
violence can be used.
There is a feeling of enmity There is no evil feeling against the
towards other people. evil-doer but only against the evil.
The purpose of Satyagraha is to
help the evil-doer become a better
person.

TRUSTEESHIP AND CLASS COOPERATION


For M. K. Gandhi, economic inequalities and the backwardness of certain
sections of society are a harsh reality of India. He prioritized the need for
reducing poverty more than the need for Independence from British rule. He
was strictly against the accumulation of property and resources. However, his
way forward was very different from Marxist prescriptions. According to M. K.
Gandhi, we need not to abolish private property but judiciously use it for the
benefit of common people. M. K. Gandhi advocated for class cooperation
instead of the Marxist version of class antagonism. He advised a system of
‘benevolent capitalism’ or what he calls, trusteeship. According to this
principle, all possession of capitalists is the commonwealth of society, and
these capitalists are acting just as the ‘trustees’ of that property. A capitalist
should keep the amount he thinks is necessary to run the industry the rest of
the amount should be given for the well-being of the workers and society.

THE OCEANIC CIRCLE AND VIEWS ON


DEMOCRACY
M. K. Gandhi was a fierce critic of parliamentary democracy and political
parties because according to him, they are not truly representative.
Parliamentary democracy works on the principle of centralization and
‘Pyramid Structure,’ where the vast population at the base is represented and
governed by a chosen few. M. K. Gandhi’s alternative was a decentralized
governance system, based on the principle of oceanic circles. It simply means
to advocate a public administration rooted in grassroots democracy where the
centre of the circle is always people.

VIEWS ON SCIENCE
Though initially, M. K. Gandhi was very critical to western civilization and
science. In Hind-Swaraj, he called science and the growth of industrialization
as ‘satanic’ because they will ruin the village handicrafts and cottage industry.
However, in later periods of his life, he emphasized the humane aspects of
science and advocated its use for the progress of humanity.

UNITY OF MEANS AND ENDS


Unlike Machiavelli’s crude realism where he says that ‘ends justify the
means,’ M. K. Gandhi believed that both our ends and means to achieve
those ends should be justifiable. He famously said that we cannot expect the
smell of roses if we have grown a babool seed. Similarly, he also supported
the relevance of ethics and religion in the conduct of politics. According to
him, without religion and ethics, politics is a devil’s misadventure.

KEY DEBATES

M. K. Gandhi vs. Dr B. R. Ambedkar


Though both were great patriots and lawyers by profession, their views
clashed on many points. One of such point was the Second Roundtable
Conference (1931) in which Dr B. R. Ambedkar demanded a Separate
Electorate for Dalits whereas M. K. Gandhi opposed the demand, referring
to it as a divisive policy. However, the then British Prime Minister Ramsey
Mcdonald accepted the demand for a separate electorate in his infamous
‘Communal Award’ of 1932. Against the move, M. K. Gandhi sat on an
indefinite hunger strike in Yerwada Jail. At last, M. K. Gandhi prevailed over
Dr B. R. Ambedkar in the famous Poona Pact of 1932. There existed other
flash incidents also when both contradicted each other.
Dr B. R. Ambedkar was an advocate of western education and
parliamentary democracy.
M. K. Gandhi supported education in their mother tongue and was a
fierce critic of parliamentary democracy.
M. K. Gandhi called villages the ‘soul of India’ whereas Dr B. R.
Ambedkar called them ‘a sink of localism, a den of ignorance and
narrow-mindedness.’

M. K. GANDHI VS KARL MARX

S. Issue M. K. Gandhi Karl Marx


No.
1. Philosophica Spiritualism and Moral Materialism and
l Basis (D) Individualism Scientific Socialism
2. Attitude Positive: all religions are Negative: religion is the
towards equal and have a ‘opium of the masses.’
religion (D) constructive role to play
in political life.
S. Issue M. K. Gandhi Karl Marx
No.
3. Class Exists: because of the Exists: because of the
Division (S) existence of a false concentration of forces
mentality of considering of production in the
manual labour as a sin. hands of the capitalists.
4. Recommend Class Cooperation Class Struggle
ed relation
between the
classes (D)
5. Classless Based on respect for Through abolishing
Society (S) ‘dignity of labour’ and capitalism and
the importance of ‘Bread establishing common
Labour.’ ownership over means
of production.
6. Stateless Establishment of Establishment of
Society (S) Ramrajya through Communism through
decentralised Gram proletariat revolution.
Swaraj and order based
on non-violence.
Note: (D) denotes differences and (S) denotes similarities between the two.

IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS AND ASHRAMS


ESTABLISHED BY M. K. GANDHI
1. 22 August 1894—Founded Natal Indian Congress to fight colour
prejudice.
2. 1903—Founded Transvaal British India Association.
3. Nov–Dec 1904—Founded Phoenix settlement in Natal near Durban–
Phoenix Farm is considered as the birthplace of Satyagraha.
4. 1910—Tolstoy Farm was the second ashram initiated and organized
by M. K. Gandhi during his South African Movement.
5. 1915—Kochrab Ashram in Ahmedabad.
6. 1916—Mazoor-Mahajan Sabha or the Textile Labour Association was
formed by M. K. Gandhi with Anasuya Sarabia in a mill at
Ahmedabad (Gujarat) in 1916 as a model trade union.
7. 1917—Kochrab Ashram was shifted to the bank of the Sabarmati river
and named as Sabarmati Ashram.
8. 1925—All India Spinners Association was launched by M. K.
Gandhi with the intention of propagation, production and selling of
khadi.
9. 1932—Harijan Sevak Sangh is a non-profit organisation founded by
M. K. Gandhi to eradicate untouchability in India. It was initially
known as Anti-Untouchability League.
10. 1934—All India Village Industries Association
11. 1936—Founded Sevagram Ashram at Wardha (Maharashtra).

FAMOUS SATYAGRAHA BY M. K. GANDHI


In September 1906, M. K. Gandhi organized the first Satyagraha
campaign to protest against the Transvaal Asiatic ordinance that was
constituted against the local Indians.
April 1917—Champaran Satyagraha in Bihar.
Feb-March 1918—Ahmedabad Mill Strike.
11 March 1918—Kheda Satyagraha began, although M. K. Gandhi
was its spiritual head, the Kheda Satyagraha was principally led by
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel after the region was hit by famine,
cholera, and plague, destroying the agrarian economy.
6 April 1919—Rowlatt Satyagraha, M. K. Gandhi started a non-
violent Satyagraha against the unjust Rowlatt Act passed by the British
government.
1920–21—Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement.
March 1930—Civil Disobedience Movement was started.
8 August 1942—Quit India Movement/August Movement.
15 August 1947—Naokhali Satyagraha.

WORKS OF M. K. GANDHI

Books
Hind Swaraj (1909)—where he expresses his views on Swaraj,
mechanization and modern civilization.
Swaraj in One Year (1921)
The Story of My Experiments with Truth (1927)—It is an autobiography,
where he describes his struggle against racism, violence, and
colonialism. It is a window to the evolution of his ideas over a period.
Satyagraha in South Africa (1928)
Constructive Programme It’s Meaning and Place (1941)
India of My Dreams (1947)

Magazines
Indian Opinion was founded by M. K. Gandhi in 1903 in South
Africa.
Young India (1919–32) English weekly. The journal was reprinted in the
US by the India Home Rule League of America by Lala Lajpat Rai.
Harijan in English (1933), Harijan Bandhu in Gujarati, and Harijan
Sevak in Hindi.
Navjivan was founded in 1947 by M. K. Gandhi and J. L. Nehru.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who said, ‘an eye for an eye will only make the whole world blind.’?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) Swami Vivekananda

2. Assertion (A): According to M. K. Gandhi, voters should have th


qualification of manual labour.
Reason (R): Manual labour is the supreme virtue which teaches
people to respect their fellow beings.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.

3. M. K. Gandhi was an advocate of:


a. Varnavyavstha

b. Separate electorate

c. Two nations theory


d. Universal adult franchise
Code:
(a) a and d
(b) b and c
(c) a and c
(d) b and d

4. Which of the following ideas is not related to M. K. Gandhi?


(a) Saptanga Theory
(b) Theory of Oceanic Circle
(c) Trusteeship
(d) Civil-Disobedience

5. Match the following:

1. All India Anti-untouchability League 1. Rabindranath Tagore

2. Mahatma 2. Subhash Chandra Bos

C. Father of the Nation 3. M. K. Gandhi

D. Sevagram
4. Maharashtra

(a) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4


(b) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(c) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
(d) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

6. Maganlal Gandhi suggested the word ‘Sadagraha’ which was change


later by M. K. Gandhi to ‘Satyagraha,’ meaning?
(a) firmness to truth
(b) firmness in a good cause
(c) wedded to truth
(d) constant–absolute loyalty to truth

7. M. K. Gandhi gave us an unfailing ‘Talisman’ for the right actio


whenever you are in doubt or when the self becomes too much with yo
apply the following test:
1. Recall the face of the poorest and the weakest man whom you m
seen.

2. Ask yourself if the step you contemplate is going to be of any use to

3. Recall the face of the rich and brave man whom you may have seen

4. Ask yourself if the step you contemplate is going to be of any use to y

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

8. Choose the incorrect match:


1. Oceanic circle—theory of public administration

2. Trusteeship—economic justice
3. End and means—spiritual theory

4. Gram Swaraj—decentralisation

9. M. K. Gandhi’s concept of Sarvodaya means:


(a) redistribution of private property.
(b) progress of all through the upliftment of all.
(c) common ownership of resources.
(d) respectfully disobeying repressive laws.

10. Arrange the following books/newspapers in chronological order:


1. My Experiments with Truth

2. Hind Swaraj

3. Young India

4. Harijan

(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(b) 2, 1, 4, and 3
(c) 3, 1, 4, and 2
(d) 2, 3, 1, and 4

11. Which of the following statements about M. K. Gandhi are true?


A. Satyagraha is a fight against evil and not the evil-doer.

B. First all-India level Satyagraha was the one against the Rowlatt bills.

C. He prescribed individual Satyagraha as well as collective Satyagra


D. Method of Satyagraha was developed by M. K. Gandhi in India.
(a) A and C only
(b) A, B, C, and D
(c) A, B, and C only
(d) C and D only

12. From whom has M. K. Gandhi taken the concept of ‘Sarvodaya’?


(a) John Ruskin
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Kasturba Gandhi

13. Through which principle/device did M. K. Gandhi strive to bridge


economic inequalities?
(a) Abolition of Machinery
(b) Establishment of Village Industries
(c) Adoption of Non-Violence
(d) Trusteeship Theory

14. Who was the Political Guru of M. K. Gandhi?


(a) Gopalakrishna Gokhale
(b) Bal Ganadhar Tilak
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

15. Match List I with List II:

List I (Books) List II (Author)

1. Gandhi’s Political Philosophy: A I.Judith M.


Critical Examination Brown

II.Ramachandra
2. Gandhi: Prisoner of Hope Guha

C.Gandhi: The Years That Changed the III. Rajmoha


World Gandhi
D.The Good Boatman IV.Bhikhu Parekh

(a) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV


(b) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(c) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(d) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III

16. Arrange the following live events of M. K. Gandhi in chronology:


A. M. K. Gandhi was named as ‘Time’s Person of the Year’ by Times ma

B. Kaisar-i-Hind award by the British government.

C. Wrote Story of My Experiment with Truth.


D. Attended the second round table conference in England.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A, D, C, B
(b) B, A, C, D
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) B, C, A, D

17. Arrange the following Ashramas of M. K. Gandhi in descending order:


A. Kochrab Ashram

B. Sabarmati Ashram

C. Phoenix Settlement
D. Sevagram Ashram
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) D, A, C, B
(b) B, A, C, D
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) B, C, A, D

18. Arrange the following Satyagraha of M. K. Gandhi in ascending order:


A. Ahmedabad Mill Strike

B. Rowlatt Satyagraha
C. August Movement
D. Champaran Satyagraha
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) D, A, B, C
(b) B, A, C, D
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) B, C, A, D

19. All India Village Industries Association was formed by?


(a) Pandita Ramabai
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Swami Vivekananda
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

20. Who said that ‘Politics without religion is a “Death Trap.”’?


(a) Pandita Ramabai
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) Swami Vivekananda
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.


(c) (a) (a) (d) (d) (d) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(a) (c) (d) (c) (a) (c) (b)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.
18. (a)
(a) (a) (b) (a) (d)
Explanation for Selected Questions

2. In his theory of Bread Labour M. K. Gandhi suggested that everyon


should perform some kind of physical labour before taking his bread
That is how we can realize the pain and hardships of those who are
engaged in manual work. His objective was to give dignity to suc
people who are engaged in manual work.

7. M. K. Gandhi said—‘I will give you a Talisman.’ ‘Whenever you are i


doubt, or when the self becomes too much with you, apply the followin
test. Recall the face of the poorest and the weakest man (woman) whom
you may have seen, and ask yourself if the step you contemplate i
going to be of any use to him (her).’

11. Method of Satyagraha was introduced by him initially in South Africa.

16. Kaisar-i-Hind award by the British government in 1915. He wrote ‘The


Story of My Experiments with Truth’ in 1927. He was named ‘Time’s
Person of the Year’ by Times magazine in 1930 and attended the
second round table conference in England in 1931.
CHAPTER 11
Sri Aurobindo Ghosh (1872–1950)

INTRODUCTION
Romain Roland described Sri Aurobindo Ghosh as the prince of
Indian thinkers. He was a great poet, a great metaphysician, a great patriot,
and above all a great systematic thinker. He propounded a philosophy of
divine life on earth through spiritual evolution. He provided a Spiritual
foundation for Indian nationalism. His life, teachings, and legacy have
contributed to the idea of India that embodies a revolutionary zeal deeply
rooted in its cultural values and complex histories.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


He took up a job under Maharaja of Baroda first as an
administrator and then as a French professor.
From 1904–05, he attended annual sessions of the Congress but
was opposed to its methods of working.
Joined Anushilan Samiti after Bengal Partition.
In 1906, Sri Aurobindo Ghosh was appointed the first principal of
the National College in Calcutta now as Jadavpur University,
Kolkata.
He faced charges of treason for the Alipore Conspiracy in 1908.
At Cambridge, Sri Aurobindo Ghosh became a member and
secretary of the Indian Majlis.
He joined a secret revolutionary society known as the Lotus and
Dagger.
In 1902, he helped Jyotirnath Banerjee to organize a secret
society in Calcutta.
He was influenced by the Sinn Fein Movement in Ireland and then
the Resurgomento in Italy.
In 1926, with the help of his spiritual collaborator, Mirra Alfassa
(referred to as ‘The Mother’), Sri Aurobindo Ashram was founded.
In 1943, he was nominated for the Nobel Prize for literature and then
again in 1950 for the Nobel Peace Prize.

Sri Aurobindo Ghosh’s thought processes may be categorized into two


phases:

1. Phase I: Political Activism (Nationalism)[1902–10] and


2. Phase II: Spiritual Activism [ 1910–50].

Phase I: Concept of Nationalism


Nation for him symbolized divinity and the living Goddess rather than a
mere political entity. He interpreted nationalism as ‘a way of life, like a
religion’. The ‘nation’ is a living entity—‘Shakti’ composed of all the Shaktis
of all the millions of units that make up the nation. He believed nationalism
was a holy yojana for achieving Poorna Swarajya.
He advocated a two-pronged strategy for achieving the Poorna
Swarajya:

i. Revolutionary: Sri Aurobindo Ghosh made it clear that th


passive resistance i.e. both Swadeshi and Boycott may turn out to b
violent in case of ruthless suppression by the ruler. He found the
proceedings and methods of working of the Indian National Congres
too timid and inspiring. He didn’t outrightly condemn the use o
violence and suggested its use as a measure of utmost urgency.
ii. Boycott: He advocated economic boycott and the correlative
Swadeshi, educational boycott and the correlative national
educational system, judicial boycott and the correlative arbitration
courts, executive boycott and the correlative national organisation of
self-government.

Phase II: Spiritual Activism (1910–50): Idea of Integral


Yoga:
It was the phase of his stay at the Ashram at Pondicherry after he left active
politics. During this time, he developed his theory of Cosmo Genesis, a
theory of pure consciousness. Integral yoga, sometimes also called
supramental yoga, is the yoga-based philosophy and practice of Sri
Aurobindo Ghosh and The Mother (Mirra Alfassa). According to
Sri Aurobindo Ghosh, all life is Yoga, while Yoga as a sadhana is a
methodized effort towards self-perfection, which brings to expression the
latent, hidden potentialities of being. Success in this effort unifies the
human individual with universal and transcendental existence. It helps to
move from the present fractured, fragmented, and disoriented state of
people’s consciousness into higher consciousness.

Important Works
Love and Death—Famous poem written by him in 1899, it was later
published in 1924.
The Ideal of Human Unity (1918)— Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
discusses the inevitability of the unification of the human race as a
result of imperative evolutionary forces and presents the principles
which could be followed in the process of such unification.
The Life Divine (1919)—his principal philosophic work, a theory of
spiritual evolution culminating in the transformation of man from a
mental into a supramental being.
Essays on Gita (1922)—In this, the struggle of Indians to free the
motherland from the alien rule was regarded by him as a
‘Dharamyudh’.
Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol (1940)—an epic poem in blank
verse, based upon the theology of the Mahabharata. Its central
theme revolves around the transcendence of man as the
consummation of terrestrial evolution and the emergence of an
immortal supramental gnostic race upon earth.
The Synthesis of Yoga (1948)—There is an Introduction, ‘The
Conditions of the Synthesis’, and four parts: ‘The Yoga of Divine
Works,’ ‘The Yoga of Integral Knowledge,’ ‘The Yoga of Divine Love,’
and ‘The Yoga of Self-Perfection’.
The Human Cycle: The Ideal of Human Unity—War and Self-
Determination (1949)—An explanation of the growth of human
society from a psychological perspective and its evolutionary destiny.
Secret of the Veda (1956)
Hymns of the Mystic Fire—provided the translations for all hymns to
Agni (Rig Veda).
The Hour of God—A collection of twenty-four short prose pieces on
some of the principal concepts of Sri Aurobindo Ghosh’s
philosophy and yoga.
Article—‘New Lamps for Old’ in ‘Indu Prakash’ newspaper 1893.
Weeklies:
Dharma ( Bengali)
Karmayogin (English)
Newspaper:
Bande Matram (1905) an English newspaper in which he worked
with Bipin Chandra Pal.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who was involved in the Alipore bomb conspiracy case?
(a) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh and his brother Barindra Ghosh
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Prafull Chakki
(d) All the above

2. Who among the following has started two weeklies, the Karmayogin
and the Dharma?
(a) M. K. Gandhi
(b) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

3. Who coined the slogan ‘No Control, No Cooperation’?


(a) M. K. Gandhi
(b) J. L. Nehru
(c) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

4. Arrange the following works of Sri Aurobindo Ghosh in chronologica


order :
a) Love and Death
b) The Life Divine
c) Essays on Gita
d) Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) a, b, d, and c
(b) a, b, c, and d
(c) b, d, a, and c
(d) d, a, b, and c

5. Which of the following statements about Sri Aurobindo Ghosh are


false?
A. He supported the idea of world society and rejected the nat
division of the world.

B. He supported the idea of a world society in which the nations w


intrinsic parts of a whole.

C. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh was influenced by the Vedantic idea of Hu


Unity.
D. The rise of India as a nation for the benefit of humanity.
Code:
(a) A and C only
(b) B, C, and D only
(c) A, B, and D only
(d) C and D only

6. Match the following:

Works Thinkers
I.Dr B. R. Ambedkar
1. Annihilation of Caste

2. The Cunning Reason II.M. K. Gandhi

C. The Human Cycle III. Sri Aurobindo Gho


D. Hind Swaraj IV.G. W. F. Hegel

Codes:
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) I IV III II
(c) I III IV II
(d) II I III IV

7. The weekly magazine ‘Karamyogin’ was founded by Sri Aurobind


Ghosh in which language?
(a) Hindi
(b) Sanskrit
(c) English
(d) Bengali

8. Which of the following is not correct about Sri Aurobindo Ghosh?


(a) In 1903, his radical views appeared in a book no compromise.
(b) He helped Jyotindranath Banerjee to organise a secret socie
Calcutta.
(c) He wrote in Bhawani Mandir, ‘India cannot perish, our race ca
become extinct, because, among all the divisions of mankind, it
India, that is reserved the highest and the most splendid testing.
(d) Set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarni Sabha.

9. Which of the following is not correctly matched?


(a) Integral Yoga: Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Scientific Humanism: Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Radical Humanism: M. N. Roy
(d) Abhinav Bharat: V. D. Savarkar

10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Aurobindo Ghosh was arrested in Alipore
Conspiracy Case.
Reason (R): All arrested in this case were from Anushilan Samiti,
for the murder of Inspector Shamsul Alam.
Choose the correct options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

11. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh conceives nationalism as:


A. Territorial nationalism, different from the western concept of nation

B. A nation is a God.

C. Nationalism as a political sentiment.


D. Nation as a living entity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and C only
(b) A, B, C, and D
(c) B and D only
(d) C and D only

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 10. 11.
(d) (c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (c)
2. 4. 6. 8. (d)
(b) (b) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

5. Option A is incorrect because Sri Aurobindo Ghosh never rejected the


idea of the nation, although he suggested the idea of world society an
human unity. Option C is incorrect because he was influenced by th
philosophy of Neo-Vedanta given by Swami Vivekananda, not b
Vedanta tradition.

9. Scientific Humanism—J. L. Nehru, Radical Humanism—M. N. Roy


Integral Humanism—Deendayal Upadhyaya.

10. Shamsul Alam Murder case is related to Howrah Gang Case not the
Alipore bomb case.
CHAPTER 12
Periyar E. V. Ramasamy Naicker
(1893–1973)

INTRODUCTION
E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as Periyar (Elder), held
high regard in the Tamil region and was regarded as a strong leader in Indian
politics. He is considered as the Father of Modern Tamil Nadu. He was born
into the Naicker family, which was considered low caste among Hindus, and
consequently faced social discrimination because of his caste. He launched a
harsh attack on the caste system, worship, and Hindu mythology, all of which
were blamed for perpetuating social injustice in India. He aimed to restore the
former glory and gave a new identity to discriminated Hindus of South India as
the ‘Dravidian’ race.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


1904 Kashi Pilgrimage Incident—Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy
Naicker was a theist until his visit to Kashi, he considered Kashi as a
land of God, but when he visited Kashi he faced caste discrimination.
After this visit to Kashi, he became an atheist.
In 1919 joined the Indian National Congress. He was also elected as
President of the Madras Presidency Congress Committee. He resigned
from Congress in 1925 and called it a ‘Fortress of Brahmin
Imperialism.’
In 1924, he led the renowned Vaikkom Satyagraha (Temple Entry
Movement) in Travancore (now Kerala). Lower caste individuals were
not permitted to enter the roadway near the shrine at Vaikkom.
Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker was eventually proclaimed
as the ‘Hero of Vaikkom.’
In 1925, Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker launched the ‘Self-
Respect Movement’ to push the social reform programme. Its goal was
to make non-Brahmins in the Tamil region proud of their Dravidian
heritage. Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker introduced
initiatives like ‘Self-Respect Marriage’ i.e. marriage ceremony
conducted with any Hindu Ritual or Brahmin Priest.
In 1929, during the self-respect conference to put an end to the caste
system, everyone pledged to drop the description of caste from names
and hence he dropped the word ‘Naicker’ from his name.
In 1933 he joined with communist leaders like M. Singaravelu and
merged the self-respected with the communist party’s plan of
Socialism.
By 1935 he started supporting Justice Party and he became the leader
of the Justice Party in 1938. He converted Justice Party into a Non-
Political Organization and renamed it as the Dravida Kazhagam in
1944. Current political parties like DMK, AIADMK, and MDMK, are
offshoots of erstwhile Dravida Kazhagam.
In 1938, he raised the slogan ‘Tamil Nadu for Tamilians’ in protest
against the introduction of Hindi in schools.
In 1938, The title ‘Periyar’ was conferred on him by Tamil Nadu Women
Conference.
In 1970, UNESCO honoured Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
as ‘The Socrates of South Asia’.

CRITIQUE OF CASTE SYSTEM


Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker was convinced that Varnashrama
Dharma promoted evil practices like untouchability and child marriage.
According to Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker, Hinduism was a tool
of Brahminical domination, and the Brahmins epitomized Hindu arrogance
and perpetuated social injustice. Manu Smritis were burned on many
occasions. A new interpretation was given to the characters of Hindu
mythology. Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker coined the term
‘Brahmnocracy’ to express Brahminical domination.
Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker said, ‘Who wants Religion,
Scriptures, and God, which cannot bring about a change in the sphere?’.
Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker was convinced that Hinduism
perpetuated casteism and must be resisted. Thus, he publicly ridiculed the
Puranas as fairy tales, not only imaginary and irrational but also grossly
immoral.

IDEAS OF WOMEN’S LIBERATION


He believed that women’s situation in society was even worse than that of the
Untouchables. He advocated for equal rights for men and women through the
Self-Respect Movement, as well as the right of women to inherit and equal
weightage for men and women’s consent in divorce. They organized many
Self-Respect Marriages, which were solemnised in the absence of Brahmin
priests, in order to challenge the religious superiority of Brahmins. He rejected
the word ‘wedding’ and sought to replace it with a ‘Contract for
Companionship in Life’. Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker opposed
child marriage and encouraged widow remarriage. He emphasized the
importance of educating all girl children and allowing young widows to
remarry.

CRITIQUE OF CONGRESS AND M. K. GANDHI


On the issue of communal representation, Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy
Naicker disagreed with Congress. He resigned from Congress in protest of
Brahminical domination in upper politics. During his initial days, Periyar E.
V. Ramaswamy Naicker was an ardent follower of M. K. Gandhi and
his idea of Satyagraha, Swaraj, etc. Later he severely criticized M. K.
Gandhi for supporting Hindu Varnashrama Dharma.
Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker also saw Gandhian nationalism
as a hegemonic project to perpetuate Brahmin domination and ‘Brahminism’
in Indian society, as well as the dominant influence of North India in national
politics. Although after the assassination of M. K. Gandhi in 1948 he
proposed that India should be named as ‘Gandhi Desh’. But in his last speech
in 1973 he suggested the ‘annihilation of God, the annihilation of religion, the
annihilation of Gandhi, the annihilation of Congress and annihilation of
Brahmins…before we could annihilate Gandhi, the Brahmins did the task for
us’.
LIST OF BOOKS AND NEWSPAPER

Newspapers and Journals


Kudi Arasu (1925)—Weekly paper to spread the principle of the Self-
Respect Movement.
Revolt (1928)
Puratchi Revolution (1933)
Paguth Tharivu (Rationalism) (1934)
Viduthalai (Liberation) (1935)—Newspaper of Justice Party, was edited
by Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker.

Important Books
Karpa Atchi’ (1930)—book contains rules of Pregnancy for birth and
population control.
Why were women enslaved? (1934)—It comprised ten essays he
wrote on the women’s question between 1926 and 1931.
The World to Come (1938)—Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
visualised many scientific inventions including the possibility of the
‘Test Tube Baby’ which is now a reality.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Arrange the following life events of Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker i
chronology:
A. Joined Indian National Congress

B. Burning of Manusmriti

C. Vaikkom Satyagraha
D. President of Justice Party
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A, C, B, D
(b) C, A, B, D
(c) A, B, C, D
(d) B, A, D, C

2. Who was the Editor of the newspaper Kudiarasu?


(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) C. N. Annadurai
(d) J. L. Nehru

3. Who raised the slogan of ‘Tamil Nadu for Tamilians’?


(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
(c) Alladai Krishnaswamy Iyer
(d) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

4. Dravida Kazhagham is formed by the merger of:


a. Self-Respect Movement

b. Madras Congress

c. Justice Party
d. Vaikkom Satyagrah
Options:
(a) a and b
(b) b and c
(c) c and d
(d) a and c

5. Which party was the first to approve the participation of women i


electoral politics?
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Justice Party
(c) Republican Party of India
(d) Socialist Party

6. Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker’s birthday is celebrated by the Tam


Nadu government as?
(a) Women Liberation Day
(b) Social Justice Day
(c) Liberation Day
(d) Vaikkom Day

7. Put the life events of Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker in chronologica


order:
1. Vaikkom Satyagraha

2. Self-Respect Movement

3. Kashi Pilgrimage Incident

4. Dravida Kazhagham

Codes:
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

8. Which among the following statement are correct regarding Periyar E. V


Ramaswamy Naicker’s ideology:
A. Promoted social justice and wanted an end to all kinds
discrimination.

B. Rejected communal representation in provincial elections in British In

C. He blamed the Aryans for introducing an unjust and oppressive s


system.
D. He considered Gandhian nationalism as a Hegemonic Projec
maintain the dominance of Brahmins.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and D only
(b) A, B, C, and D
(c) A, C, and D only
(d) A and B only

9. UNESCO honoured which thinker as the Socrates of South Asia?


(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh

10. Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker wanted to replace religion by?


(a) Spiritualism
(b) Nationalism
(c) Rationalism
(d) Atheism

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(a) (d) (b) (a) (c) (a) (c).
2. 4.
6. (b)
(a) (d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

6. In 2021 the state government of Tamil Nadu announced to celebrate th


birthday of Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker on 17 September ever
year as ‘Social Justice Day’ in Tamil Nadu.

8. Option B is incorrect because Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker


proposed the idea of Communal Representation for Non-Brahamins
(Dravidians) but this was rejected by the Congress Party and finally he
left Congress in 1925.
CHAPTER 13
Muhammad Iqbal (1877–1938)

INTRODUCTION
Muhammad Iqbal is known as a great poet of Urdu and Persian, and
a religious philosopher. Muhammad Iqbal was a great promoter of
democratic government which is based on Islamic ideology. He
compared liberal democracy’s political ideas to Islamic political ideas and
offered a critique of liberal democracy’s political ideas. Initial thoughts of
Muhammad Iqbal are marked by the liberal attitude towards politics
and nationalism. But in the later phase of his career, Muhammad
Iqbal conceded the primacy of religion in politics and promoted the idea
of a separate State for Indian Muslims.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTION


1904—Composed patriotic poem ‘Sare Jahan Se Achcha
Hindustan Hamara’.
1905—Went Europe for higher studies and experienced the
discrimination against Muslim community in European society.
1906—He joined the Muslim League.
1923—Knighthood title by British.
1926—Started active political career and won in Punjab Legislative
Assembly election.
1929—In Madras, delivered the lecture ‘The reconstruction of
Religious Thoughts in Islam’.
1930—In the Allahabad session of the Muslim League, in his
presidential address he outlined a vision of a separate Muslim
state for Muslim-majority provinces in north-western India, thus
becoming the first politician to articulate what would become
known as the Two-nation theory.
1931–32—Attended second and third round table conferences.
Muhammad Iqbal has been referred to as the ‘Poet of the East’
by academics, and also known as ALLAMA i.e. most learned,
‘Hakeem-ul-Ummat’ (The Sage of the Ummah) and the ‘Mufakkir-
e-Pakistan’ (The Thinker of Pakistan) and he is honoured as the
National Poet of Pakistan.

CRITIQUE OF NATIONALISM
Muhammad Iqbal’s political thought is deeply embedded in his broad
and comprehensive Islamic conception of Tawhid, the unity of God, the
unity of life, the unity of Ummah, and the unity of humanity. His
rejectionist approach towards secularism, materialism, Western
democracy, and nationalism is based upon his concept of Tawhid. Before
Muhammad Iqbal had visited Europe, he supported a strong sense of
patriotism. For instance, his famous song ‘Sare Jahan Se Achcha
Hindustan Hamara’ was the ultimate tribute to the motherland, India.
However, upon his return from Europe, he seemed to develop some
distaste for nationalism.
In the Indian context, Muhammad Iqbal opposed the ideology of
Nationalism on two grounds:

1. If the goal of all Indian nationalism could be realised, it would resu


in the domination of Hindus over Muslims because of the
overwhelming numerical majority of Hindus.
2. The concept of Nationalism would promote narrow patriotic
feelings among the Muslims of different countries and loosen the
bonds of the Islamic fraternity.
He rejected the idea of territorial nationalism. Nationalism in Islam is
not based on the unity of languages, the oneness of territory or economic
affinities. Its basis is the simple unity, the Ummah, founded by the Holy
Prophet.

IDEA OF PAN-ISLAMISM
After his initial enthusiasm for territorial nationalism, Muhammad Iqbal
had become an ardent Muslim Universalist. His concept of the Ummah
was basically Pan-Islamic and his wholehearted advocacy was for a
return to the Qur’an as a code of human conduct. For Muhammad
Iqbal, the state by itself is spiritual because all that is secular is spiritual
in Islam. Muhammad Iqbal has asserted that, unlike secularism and
nationalism, Islam provides balance in life by joining matter and spirit into
a harmonious entity for success. He argued that the Islamic community is
not a nation but a ‘league of nations’. He found the idea of nationalism as
inadequate to solve the problems of humanity. Disillusionment with
European culture made Muhammad Iqbal look inward to seek
inspiration from his, own religion.
Muhammad Iqbal was of the view that the Muslim commonwealth,
as established by the Holy Prophet was based on the equality of all
Muslims. Muhammad Iqbal’s image of the future of Islam was Muslim
Universalism. He firmly believed that denial of the universal brotherhood
of Islam meant the rejection of the basic principles of the Quranic
ideology. In his view, the main cause of the downfall of the Muslim
community was disunity among the Muslim Ummah. He delivered a short
address at the Muhammadan Educational Conference in 1911,
Muhammad Iqbal openly declared that it was his conviction that
Muslim Ummah as a simple entity has a glorious future.

IMPORTANT WORKS
Tarana-e-Hind (1904)—it is a patriotic song in the Urdu language.
It starts with the statement ‘Sare Jahan Se Achcha Hindustan
Hamara’ and also articulates the Hindu Muslim unity.
Bang-e-Dara (The Call of the Marching Bell)—was his first Urdu
philosophical poetry book published in 1924.
The Secrets of the Self (1915)—deals with an individual’s religious
and spiritual aspects.
The Secrets of Selflessness (1918)—The main theme of this work
was a relationship between the individual and the society in order
to preserve an ideal Muslim community.
The Reconstruction of Religious Thought in Islam—The
Reconstruction of Religious Thought in Islam is a compilation of
lectures delivered by Muhammad Iqbal on Islamic philosophy
and published in 1930.
The Development of Metaphysics in Persia— Muhammad
Iqbal’s doctoral thesis.
Naya Shiwala.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who wrote the poem Naya Shiwala?
(a) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) V. D. Savarkar
(c) Muhammad Iqbal
(d) Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya

2. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the othe
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Muhammad Iqbal Secular state is
merely incapable of solving the social, economic and political
problems of any particular community.
Reason (R): European People are losing their peace of mind due
to their aversion to religion.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

3. Who is the National Poet of Pakistan?


(a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(b) Muhammad Iqbal
(c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

4. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A


and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Muhammad Iqbal criticised capitalism.
Reason (R): Muhammad Iqbal supported Karl Marx and
socialism.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

5. The Islamic conception of Tawhid stands for?


(a) Unity of humanity
(b) Unity of God
(c) Unity of life
(d) All of the above

6. Consider the following statements about Muhammad Iqbal.


I. He was against the concept of Nationalism since forever.
II. He was a Pan-Islamist.
III. He outlined a vision of an independent state for Muslim-maj
and Two Nation Theory at the Allahabad Address.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) None of the above

7. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A


and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Before Mohammed Iqbal had visited Europe, he
supported a strong sense of patriotism.
Reason (R): His famous song ‘Sare Jahan Se Achcha Hindustan
Hamara’ (Tarana-e-Hind)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

8. Which of the following is not a work of Muhammad Iqbal?


(a) The Secrets of the Self
(b) Tarana-e-Hind
(c) Bang-e-Dara
(d) Qua’id-i-Azam and Education

9. Consider the following statements with reference to Iqbal and


identify the incorrect ones:
1) Islamic Universalism is more important than nationalism.
2) He also tried to revise the crux of Islam from being a religious
of the people to a world view of Muslim brotherhood.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Match the following:

Works of About the Work


Muhammad Iqbal

1. Bang–e-Dara I.Published in 1915.

2. Tarana-e-Hind II.Published in 1918.

C. The Secrets of the III. His first Urdu


Self philosophical poetr
D. The Secrets of IV.Articulates the Hindu-
Selflessness Muslim unity.

(a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV


(b) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(c) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(d) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (d) (b)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(a) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions


2. Muhammad Iqbal held that government should be based on religion
because it was a great force. He was also of the opinion that a
secular state is merely incapable of solving the social, economic
and political problems of any particular community. His stay in
Europe had also convinced him that in western capitalist societ
people are losing their peace of mind due to their aversion to
religion. Hence, he also condemned Machiavelli as the
‘Messenger of Satan’ because of his theory of separation betwee
religion and politics.

4. He criticised capitalism on a humanitarian basis. He neithe


supported socialism nor Karl Marx. He criticized Karl Marx for hi
atheistic approach.

6. Option I is incorrect because he was initially a nationalist, but afte


his return from Europe, he because a religious fundamentalist.

9. Both the statements are correct and hence D would be the answer
which means neither of them is incorrect.
CHAPTER 14
Manabendra Nath Roy (1887–1954)

INTRODUCTION
Manabendra Nath Roy, originally known as Narendranath Bhattacharya,
was born in Arbelia, West Bengal. He was an Indian revolutionary, radical
activist, and political theorist of the twentieth-century. He was also a founder
of the Mexican Communist Party and the Communist Party of India (Tashkent
group). As a delegate to congresses to the Communist International and
Russia’s aide to China he pondered Vladimir Lenin on national liberation
and operated in the upper levels of international communism.
Like Sri Aurobindo Ghosh, he began his political life as a militant
nationalist. His thinking passes through three phases—revolutionary and
nationalist, Communist, and radical humanist. He was one of the first leaders
to inject Marxism into the practical politics of India. He joined the underground
revolutionary organisation ‘Anushilan Samiti’, and when it was banned, he
helped in organizing the Jugantar Group under the leadership of Jatin
Mukherjee. He was called a ‘remarkable failure’ by Sudipto Kaviraj.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


1908 He shot dead Nandalal Banerjee and also spent 9 months
in jail for the ‘Howrah Conspiracy Case’.
1916 In search of arms reached the US, and changed his name
from Narendranath Bhattacharya to Manabendra
Nath Roy.
1917 In Mexico became a vocal advocate of the socialist state
and founded the Mexican Communist Party.
1919 He met Michael Borodin, and later discussions with
Michael Borodin resulted in Manabendra Nath Roy
accepting the materialist philosophy and becoming a full-
fledged communist.
1920 Established The Communist Party of India (Tashkent group)
in October.
1926 He served as a policy-making body of Communist
International. But later expelled from it in the year 1929.
1931 He was six years of imprisonment for involvement in the
1924 ‘Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case’.
1936 He joined the Indian National Congress and organized his
followers into a body called League of Congressmen
(1939), but left the party in 1940 and formed his own party
under the name Radical Democratic Party.
1937 He started editing a weekly newspaper ‘Independent India’.
1943 He created Radical Democratic Party and criticized M. K.
Gandhi and Karl Marx.
1946 He established the Indian Renaissance Institute at
Dehradun.
1947 Manabendra Nath Roy published New Humanism-A
Manifesto, an elaboration of Twenty-Two Theses (principles
of Radical Democracy).

COMMUNIST PHASE THOUGHTS


Manabendra Nath Roy played a pioneering role in spreading Marxist
ideas and the Communist party amongst the fledging Communist groups. At
the second conference of Communist International, he formed a favourable
impression of Communist leader Vladimir Lenin, met Joseph Stalin and
became a member of the executive committee of Communist International.
He introduced the process of displacing communism in India by sending
his trained representatives to different parts of the country. He wanted to
make the Communist Party of India as a legal and national political party.
Manabendra Nath Roy’s exceptional contribution with respect to
Communism was that it surfaced the way for the growth of national
movements by organizing the workers and the peasantry to work for the
cause of National Movements.
From 1921 onwards Manabendra Nath Roy started publishing various
articles to channel the Communist activities in India. Subsequently, in 1922,
he started the journal ‘The Vanguard of Indian Independence’ and it was
considered as the first Communist journal in India.

CRITIQUE OF COMMUNISM
Manabendra Nath Roy was basically the critique of Soviet
Communism/Marxism. He criticized theoretical principles as well as the
practical use of Marxism. His critique of Communism was contained in Theses
Seven to Eleven based on the Soviet Union, particularly the discrepancy
between the ideal and the reality of the socialist order. According to
Manabendra Nath Roy freedom does not necessarily follow from the
capture of political power in the name of the oppressed classes and the
abolition of private property in the means of production. Also, he elaborated
that, the state is the political organization of society and its withering away
under communism is a utopia which has been exploded by experience.
Similarly, he also rejects the communist doctrine of the dictatorship of the
proletariat. ‘Dictatorship of any form, however plausible may be the pretext for
it, is,’ asserts Manabendra Nath Roy, ‘excluded by the Radical-Humanist
perspective of social revolution’.
Radical Humanism/New Humanism<H1>
Radical Humanism was contained in Manabendra Nath Roy’s
‘Twenty-Two Theses and New Humanism: A Manifesto.’ The philosophical
foundations of the political thought of Manabendra Nath Roy are rooted in
Radical Humanism. It brought Manabendra Nath Roy closer to M. K.
Gandhi’s beliefs. Radical Humanism is neither materialism nor idealism but
a scientific philosophy insisting upon the freedom of the individual. It lays
greater emphasis on the personality of the individual as a human being. He
tried to give the philosophical background of concepts such as being
disillusioned with communism and capitalism, to search a new model of
democracy, malfunctions of Parliamentary democracy and laissez-faire
economic doctrine through Radical Humanism. Radical Humanism as a
Revolutionary and liberating social philosophy contains three main concepts:
1. Freedom,
2. Reason, and
3. Morality.
According to Manabendra Nath Roy amount of freedom is a marker of
social progress in society. He said, ‘A free society can be created only by free
men…a good society can be created only by good men’. Equality in Radical
Humanism goes beyond the abolition of private property. He founded a new
party named the Radical Democratic party to mobilize people and raise
awareness about his ideas. Radical Humanism was the manifesto of the
Radical Democratic Party. He also emphasized on the social fabric of Radical
Humanism and stressed on the importance of education and rational thinking
as an epitome that would give people a perspective on how to respond to a
particular situation in a rational manner.

IMPORTANT BOOKS AND WRITINGS


1. The Communist International (1920)
2. India in Transition (1922)
3. The Future of Indian Politics (1926)
4. The Russian Revolution (1937)
5. The Historical Role of Islam: An Essay on Islamic Culture (1938)
6. War and Revolution; International Civil war (1942)
7. People’s plan (1945)
8. Revolution and Counter-revolution in China (1946)
9. New Humanism: A Manifesto (1947)
10. Beyond Communism (1947)
11. Reason, Romanticism, and Revolution (1952)

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following was considered as the first phase of Manabendra
Nath Roy’s political career?
(a) Communist
(b) Radical Humanist
(c) Anti-Marxist
(d) Nationalist

2. Arrange the following life events of Manabendra Nath Roy in chronology


A. Joined Indian National Congress.

B. Formed his League of Radical Congressmen within Congress.

C. Communist Party of India in Tashkent.


D. Created the Radical Democratic Party.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) C, D, A, B
(b) B, A, C, D
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) C, A, B, D

3. In the year 1908 Manabendra Nath Roy was imprisoned for which case?
(a) Kanpur Conspiracy Case
(b) Surat Conspiracy Case
(c) Howrah Conspiracy Case
(d) Mathura Conspiracy Case

4. Consider the following statements.


A. In 1920, he started the journal ‘The Vanguard of Indian Independen
was considered as the first Communist journal in India.

B. At the first conference of Communist International, he became a m


the executive committee.

C. Manabendra Nath Roy joined the Indian National Congress


organized a group named League of Congressmen.
Choose the incorrect answer from the following:
(a) All are correct
(b) Only A and B
(c) Only B and C
(d) Only A and C

5. Manabendra Nath Roy’s criticism of Communism was contained in whic


of the following major sources?
(a) Twenty-Two Theses
(b) Twenty Theses
(c) Theses Six to Seven
(d) Theses Seven to Eleven

6. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A), and th
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Manabendra Nath Roy was particularly a critique of
Soviet Marxism, along with theoretical and practical use of its principles.
Reason (R): According to him Government is the political organization
of the society and withering away from Communism is a utopia.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct

7. In which of the following book does Manabendra Nath Roy elaborates o


Radical Humanism?
(a) Beyond Communism
(b) People’s Plan
(c) Twenty-Two Theses
(d) India in Transition

8. Which of the following was not among the major works of Manabendr
Nath Roy?
(a) Revolution and Counter-Revolution in China
(b) Reason, Romanticism, and Revolution
(c) The Russian Revolution
(d) Major aspects of Indian Politics
9. Match the following books with the years:

Books Year

1. The Future of Indian Politics 1. 1947

2. India in Transition 2. 1938

C.Beyond Communism 3. 1926

D.The Historical Role of Islam 4. 1922

Choose the correct answer from the following:


(a) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(b) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(c) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
(d) A–2, B–4, C–3, D–1

10. Radical Humanism was a most important contribution of Manabendra


Nath Roy with regard to his philosophical foundation of political thought,
it is closely linked to which of the following aspect?
(a) Fraternity and Brotherhood
(b) Freedom of an Individual
(c) Living in Harmony
(d) Humanism and Self-Respect

11. Arrange the following works of Manabendra Nath Roy in chronological


order:
a) Reason, Romanticism, and Revolution
b) Revolution and Counter-Revolution in China
c) Historical Role of Islam
d) India in Transition
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) c, b, a, and d
(b) c, b, d, and a
(c) a, b, c, and d
(d) d, c, b, and a

12. Identify the thinker who criticized Marxism for hampering the growth of
free man in society.
(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) V. D. Savarkar
(c) Shaikh Muhammad Iqbal
(d) Manabendra Nath Roy

13. Who is the editor of the ‘Independent India’ weekly newspaper?


(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) V. D. Savarkar
(c) Shaikh Muhammad Iqbal
(d) Manabendra Nath Roy

14. Who said that ‘A free society can be created only by free men…a good
society can be created only by good men.’?
(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) V. D. Savarkar
(c) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Manabendra Nath Roy

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 13.
(d) (c) (d) (c) (c) (d) (d)
2. 4. 6. 8. 10. 12. 14.
(d) (b) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d)
Explanation for Selected Questions

3. In 1922, he started the journal ‘The Vanguard of Indian Independence


At the second conference of Communist International, he became a
member of the executive committee.

6. Reason (R) statement is incorrect because according to him, the Stat


not government is the political organization.

12. According to Manabendra Nath Roy, Marxism hampers the growth of


free men as the economic interpretation of history has negated the
creativity of man and the foundation of individual freedom.
CHAPTER 15
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (1883–
1963)

INTRODUCTION
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar born in Bombay, was an Indian politician,
activist, and writer. A leading figure in the Hindu Mahasabha and popularized
the term ‘Hindutva’ (Hinduness). He was known by the famous prefix ‘Veer’ or
‘brave’, a term used by writer Sadashiva Rajaram Ranade as ‘Swatantra
Veer’. He wrote about himself using the pseudonym ‘Chitragupta’. Vinayak
Damodar Savarkar’s ideas of ‘Hindutva’ reflects the ideology of cultural
nationalism. His thought has sectarian and exclusivist orientations.
The life and thoughts of Vinayak Damodar Savarkar can be divided
into two phases, one where he was behaving as a Revolutionary Nationalist
Leader (1902–21) and another where he dedicated his life to the cause of
Hindu Nationalism (1921–63). He was influenced by Lokmanya Tilak,
Giuseppe Mazzini, Dayananda Saraswati, Herbert Spencer, and
Johann Kaspar Bluntschili.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


1899 Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and Ganesh Savarkar started
‘Mitra Mela’, a revolutionary secret society in Nasik.
1904 Abhinav Bharat Society was established by Vinayak
Damodar Savarkar, at Ferguson college.
1910 Arrested in London on multiple charges, like procurement
and distribution of arms, waging war against the state, and
delivering seditious speeches.
1911 Sentenced to 50 years in the cellular jail of Andamans in
relation to the Nasik Conspiracy Case (Murder of Jackson).
1921 Release from the Jail.
1923 Wrote, ‘essentials of Hindutva’ that formulated his theory of
Hindutva.
1924 He formed Ratnagiri Hindu Sabha.
1937 Joined Hindu Mahasabha and became its President and
remained in the same position for 7 years.
1942 Wardha Session of Congress and resigned from the post of
President of Hindu Mahasabha.
1948 He was charged as a co-conspirator in the assassination of
M. K. Gandhi.

CONCEPT OF HINDUTVA AND HINDU RASHTRA


Hindutva, a predominant form of Hindu Nationalism in India, is a political
ideology, articulated by him in 1923. It was retitled as ‘Hindutva: Who is
Hindu?’ in 1928. He used the term ‘Hindutva’ to describe ‘Hinduness’ or ‘the
quality of being Hindu’.
He regarded Hinduism as an ethnic, cultural, and political identity. It is
different from the term ‘Hindu’ in present-day terminology as it includes all
Indian religions not only Hinduism. Hinduism is the most persistent religion,
and ‘Hindutva’ is the political ideology of Hindu right, represented by the
Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP), and the cultural ideology of Rashtriya
Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS). The three essentials of ‘Hindutva’ in Vinayak
Damodar Savarkar’s definition were ‘one nation (Rashtra), one race (Jati),
one culture or civilization (Sanskriti).
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar includes all Indian religions in the term
‘Hinduism’ like Buddhism, Sikhism, Jainism, etc. But he excluded Christians
and Muslims and said the holy land of these religions is not India and hence
people of these religions can’t be considered Hindus. He issued the term
Fatherland and Holyland (Pitrabhumi and Punyabhumi). He outlines his vision
of a ‘Hindu Rashtra’ (Hindu Nation) as ‘Akhand Bharat’ (Undivided India),
stretching across the entire Indian subcontinent. According to the concept of
Hindu Rashtra, the people and their culture should be emphasized by political
and economic systems based on native thought rather than on the concepts
borrowed from the west.

POLITICAL CAREER AND ASSOCIATION WITH


HINDU MAHASABHA
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar began his political activities as a high
school student and continued to do so at Fergusson College in Pune. When
he was in the United Kingdom, he involved himself with organizations like
India House and the Free India Society.
Serving as the president of the Hindu Mahasabha, he advanced the
slogan ‘Hinduize all Politics and Militarize Hindudom’. He started his
militarization of Hindus from then to liberate and protect the country and
Hindus in future. Under Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, the Hindu
Mahasabha openly opposed the Quit India Movement in 1942 and asked
Hindus to stay active in the war and not to disobey the government. Hindu
Mahasabha activities protested M. K. Gandhi’s initiative to hold talks with
Muhammad Ali Jinnah in 1944, which he denounced as ‘appeasement’.

IMPORTANT BOOKS AND KEY IDEAS


He expressed the view that the
1. The Indian War of Independence Indian Mutiny of 1857 was the first
1857 (1909) expression of Indian mass rebellion
against British colonial rule.
To describe ‘Hinduness’ or the
2. Essentials of Hinduism (1923), Quality of being a Hindu.
later retitled as ‘Hindutva: Who is
Hindu?’ in 1928.

It is a review of the Hindu Empire of


3. Hindu Pad Padashahi (1925) Maharashtra.

Originally published in Marathi. The


4. My Transportation for Life (1927) first-hand story of sufferings and
humiliations in the Cellular jail,
published in the weekly named
‘Kesari’.
It is a collection of Presidential
5. Hindu Rashtra Darshan (1949) speeches delivered from the Hindu
Mahasabha’s platform.
Mentioning of six epochs: the reign
6. Six Glorious Epochs of Indian of Chandragupta Maurya,
History (1963) Pushyamitra Sunga, Chandra Gupta
Vikramaditya, Yahodharma,
Marathas, and M. K. Gandhi’s
movement.
An Autobiography of Vinayak
7. Inside the Enemy Camp (1965)
Damodar Savarkar dealing with
his work and activity in London from
1906–10.
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. By which name ‘Abhinav Bharat Society’ was initially known as?
(a) Chaitra Mela
(b) Mitra Mela
(c) Arya Samaj
(d) Brahmo Samaj

2. In which year Vinayak Damodar Savarkar was sentenced to 50 years o


life imprisonment?
(a) 1908
(b) 1920
(c) 1917
(d) 1911

3. Consider the following statements.


A. In the year 1912, he was arrested on multiple charges, including
speeches.

B. In the year 1948, he was charged as a co-conspirator in the assass


M. K. Gandhi.

C. The term ‘Veer’ was used to him by writer Sadashiva Rajaram Ra


as ‘Swatantra Veer’.
Choose the correct answer from the following.
(a) Only A and B
(b) Only B and C
(c) All are correct
(d) Only A and C

4. According to Vinayak Damodar Savarkar what are the three essentia


elements of Hindutva?
(a) Nation, Race, and Power
(b) Power, People, and Culture
(c) People, Culture, and Nation
(d) Nation, Race, and Culture

5. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A), and th
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): He regarded Hinduism as an ethnic, cultural, and
political philosophy, different from Hindutva.
Reason (R): Hindutva is the political ideology of Hindu Right,
represented as a cultural ideology of Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh
(RSS)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true.

6. Match the following columns:

Books Year Written

1. Hindu Rashtra Darshan 1. 1928

2. Inside the Enemy Camp 2. 1949

C. Hindutva: Who is Hindu? 3. 1925

D. Hindu Pad Padashahi 4. 1965

Choose the correct answer from the following:


(a) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(b) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3
(c) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
(d) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2

7. ‘Hinduize all politics and Militarize Hindudom’, a slogan used by Vinaya


Damodar Savarkar was related to which of the following?
(a) Quit India Movement
(b) Free India Society
(c) Hindu Mahasabha
(d) India House

8. ‘Inside the Enemy Camp’ was a work dealing with his work in Londo
was relatively?
(a) An Essay
(b) An Autobiography
(c) Presidential address
(d) A fiction.

9. Which of the following was not under the six epochs of Indian Histor
mentioned by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar?
(a) Pushyamitra Sunga
(b) Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya
(c) M. K. Gandhi’s Movement
(d) Chalukyas of Vengi

10. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar described Nehru’s Democracy by which


phrase?
(a) Cowardly Democracy
(b) Party Less Democracy
(c) Representative Democracy
(d) Protective Democracy

11. Arrange the following life events of Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in


chronology:
A. Went to London for studying law.

B. Adopted the ideology of Hindu Nationalism.


C. Sent to the Cellular Jail in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
D. Became the President of Hindu Mahasabha.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
(a) C, A, D, B
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) A, C, B, D

12. Match the following work of Vinayak Damodar Savarkar with the ideas:

Books Thoughts

1. The Indian War of 1. Nation, Race, and Culture


Independence

2. Hindu Pad Padshahi 2. 1857 Revolt

c.Hindu Rashtra Darshan 3. Maratha power in Maharashtra

d.Hindutva: Who is a Hindu? 4. Presidential Address in Hindu


Mahasabha

Codes:
(a) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4
(b) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1
(c) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(d) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3

Answer Key
1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 12.
(b) (b) (a) (c) (d) (d) (b)
2. 4. 6. 8.
10. (a)
(d) (d) (b) (b)
CHAPTER 16
Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar

INTRODUCTION
Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar was born on 14 April 1891 in a low-caste Mahar
family. He himself experienced caste-based discrimination during his
childhood which made him the Messiah of Dalit rights and politics in India. He
was popularly known as Babasaheb. He was a jurist, economist, politician,
and social reformer who chaired the Drafting Committee of the Constituent
Assembly and was also India’s First Minister for Law and Justice. He was a
fierce critique of the Hindu Social order and challenged it in his various works.
He played a significant role in the upliftment of the Dalit community and
gathered them in the fight for Dalit rights.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTION


1924—He set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarni Sabha (Outcastes Welfare
Association). The motto of the organization was ‘Educate, Organize
and Agitate’.
He also formed Samaj Samata Sangh and Samata Sainik Dal in 1927
to reinforce the demand for equality of the depressed classes and in
1928, the Depressed Classes Education Society, Bombay was formed.
1936—He established Independent Labour Party.
1942—All India Scheduled Caste Federation was established.
He participated in all three Round Table Conferences.
He presided over the first All India Depressed Classes Congress in
Nagpur in 1930.
Advocated for Separate electorate and reservation of seats of the
depressed classes.
He signed (signatories of Poona pact - B.R. Ambedkar & Madan
Mohan Malaviya) agreeing to the joint electorate with reservation for
depressed classes in 1932.
He was appointed as a member of the Viceroy’s Council in 1942.
In 1955, he founded the Bharatiya Buddha Mahasabha or the Buddhist
Society of India.
Converted himself to Buddhism in 1956.
Republican Party of India (1957)—On 30 September 1956, Dr Bhim
Rao Ambedkar announced the establishment of the ‘Republican
Party of India’ by dismissing the ‘Scheduled Castes Federation’, but
before the formation of the party, he died on 6 December 1956.
In 1990, the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award, was
posthumously conferred on him.

CRITIQUE OF CASTE SYSTEM


Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar’s understanding of the caste system underwent
certain significant changes Overtime. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar argues
that caste has no scientific basis. The caste system has made Hindu society
stagnant which creates hurdles in Integration with outsiders. Even internally,
Hindu society fails to satisfy the test of a homogeneous society, as it is just a
conglomeration of different castes. According to him, the caste system in India
is the ‘Graded System of Hierarchy’. The Caste system does not allow lower
castes to prosper which led to moral degradation. The battle for the removal
of untouchability becomes the battle for Human rights and justice. He insists
that it is essential to entirely annihilate caste in order to unite India, and that
inter-caste marriage and inter-caste dining are not enough. He says that it is
necessary ‘to destroy the religious notions upon which caste is founded.’ He
has used the word ‘Dalit’ which is derived from the Marathi word ‘Dal’ which
means broken. Thus, he called Dalits as ‘broken men’. He found M. K.
Gandhi’s approach too idealistic and held that Indian Villages are ‘Den of
Ignorance’ where the caste system is merely entrenched. He suggested the
annihilation of caste by putting burning on Vedas and Manu Smriti.

IDEA OF SOCIAL JUSTICE


Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar’s concept of social justice stands for the liberty,
equality, and fraternity of all human beings. He stood for a social system that
is based on the right relations between man and man in all spheres of his life.
Social justice implies that all benefits and privileges in society should be
shared by all its members. If there is any structural inequality towards any
particular section, the government should take affirmative action in eliminating
such inequalities. The theory of state socialism in India has developed by Dr
Bhim Rao Ambedkar. He submitted a memorandum entitled as ‘State and
Minorities’ in the constituent assembly on behalf of all India scheduled caste
federations in the year 1946. The aims and objectives of his state socialism
are to remove the extreme inequalities and evil caste system from society. He
advocated the religion of humanity. He rejected any notion of religion that
separated men. As he said, ‘I like the religion that teaches liberty, equality and
fraternity’.

IMPORTANT DALIT MOVEMENTS


Depressed Classes Movement—1924.
Mahad Satyagraha (20 March 1927)—Mahad Satyagraha or Chavdar
Tale Satyagraha was a Satyagraha led by Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar
to allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad in
Maharashtra.
Manu Smriti Dahan Din—On 25 December 1927, he led thousands of
followers to burn copies of Manu Smriti. Since then this date is
annually celebrated as Manu Smriti Dahan Din (Manu Smriti Burning
Day) by Ambedkarites and Dalits.
Kalaram Temple Entry Movement (2 March 1930)—Kalaram Temple
entry movement formed a pivotal role in the Dalit movement in India. B.
K. Gaikwad (Dadasaheb) and Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar led a
protest outside the temple on 2 March 1930, in order to allow Dalits
into the temple.
Dalit Buddhist Movement in 1956.

LIST OF BOOKS AND WORKS


Annihilation of Caste (1936)—an undelivered speech written in 1936 by
Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar. He criticized the Hindu Religion, its caste
system and its religious text for advocating hatred and male domination
in society.
Waiting for a Visa—waiting for a Visa is a 20-page autobiographical life
story of Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar written in the period of 1935–36.
Published in 1990.
Federation vs Freedom (1939)—Federation is concerned, the
generality of the Indian public seems to be living in a fog.
Mr Gandhi and the Emancipation of the Untouchables (1942)—a paper
that Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar had read at the 1942 Pacific
Relations Conference, brought the caste issue out in the world.
Ranade, Gandhi & Jinnah (1943)—Address Delivered on the one-
hundred-first Birthday Celebration of Mahadev Govind Ranade
Held on to the 19 January 1943 in the Gokhale Memorial Hall, Poona.
What Congress and Gandhi have done to Untouchables (1945)
Who were Shudras? (1946)—It explains the formation of untouchables
and the hierarchy of the caste system. He dedicated the book to
Jyotirao Phule.
The Untouchables: Who were they and why they became
Untouchables (1948)—The book is a great source of information on
how broken men came to be known as untouchables.
Buddha and his Dhamma (1957)—It is a treatise on Buddha’s life and
philosophy. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar mentioned that it is one of the
three books which he believed to form a set for the proper
understanding of Buddhism. The other two books are:
Buddha and Karl Marx, and
Revolution and Counter-Revolution in Ancient India.

PERIODICALS
Mooknayak (The Leader of the Dumb, 1920),
Bahishkrit Bharat (Ostracised India, 1924),
Samta (Equality, 1928),
Janata (The People, 1930), and
Prabuddha Bharat (Enlightened India, 1956).
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Who among the following attended all three Round Table Conferences?
i. Tez Bahadur Sapru
ii. M. K. Gandhi
iii. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar
iv. J. L. Nehru
Codes:
(a) iii only
(b) i and iii only
(c) i, ii, and iii only
(d) All of the above

2. Who set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarni Sabha and in which year?


(a) Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar—1924
(b) Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar—1925
(c) M. K. Gandhi—1923
(d) M. K. Gandhi—1925

3. Arrange the following chronologically:


I. Buddha and his Dhamma
II. Who were the Shudras?
III. Federation vs Freedom
IV. Annihilation of Caste
Codes:
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) IV, II, III, I
(c) IV, III, II, I
(d) II, III, IV, I

4. Which of the following statements is/are true about Dr Bhim Rao


Ambedkar?
I. He signed Poona Pact agreeing to the joint electorate.
II. In 1990, the Bharat Ratna was posthumously conferred on him.
III. The period from 14 April 1990–14 April 1991 was observed as
‘Year of Social Justice’ in the memory of Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar.
IV. Formed a political group known as Abhinav Bharat.
Codes:
(a) I, II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, II, III
(d) All of the above

5. In which year the Bharat Ratna was conferred on him?


(a) 1957
(b) 1991
(c) 1990
(d) 1956

6. Match the following:

Thinker Works
I.Glimpses of World
1. M. K. Gandhi History

2. Dr Bhim Rao II.Annihilation of Caste


Ambedkar

C. M. N. Roy III. The Problem of


Freedom
D. J. L. Nehru IV.Hind Swaraj

(a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV


(b) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(c) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(d) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I

7. What is the name of Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar’s memorial site?


(a) Samta Sthal
(b) Buddhist Bhoomi
(c) Veer Bhoomi
(d) Chaitya Bhoomi

8. Which among the political parties has not been formed by Dr Bhim Ra
Ambedkar?
(a) Indian Republican Party
(b) Dalit Shoshit Samaj Sangharsh Samiti
(c) Independent Labour Party
(d) Scheduled Caste Federation

9. Who has written the book ‘The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and It
Solution’?
(a) Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) J. L. Nehru
(d) M. N. Roy

10. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar was a proponent of Social
democracy.
Reason (R): His main objectives are to remove the extreme
inequalities and evil caste system from society.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
11. Arrange the following Newspapers of Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar in
Chronology:
a) Samta
b) Bahishkrit Bharat
c) Prabuddha Bharat
d) Janta
Codes:
(a) a, b, d, and c
(b) b, a, c, and d
(c) b, a, d, and c
(d) d, a, b, and c

12. Arrange the following life events of Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar in


chronology:
A. Conducted Kalaram Temple entry movement.

B. Annihilation of Caste speech.

C. Converted to Buddhism.
D. Burned copies of Manu Smriti.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
(a) A, C, B, D
(b) D, A, B, C
(c) D, B, C, A
(d) A, B, D, C

13. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar’s views regarding democracy:


A. In absence of division of society on a caste basis, a democratic go
would not be able to function properly.

B. Conversion of Political Democracy into Social Democracy.

C. The role of a State in a Democracy is to guarantee protectio


minority communities.
D. Populism is good for democracy.
Choose the incorrect answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and C only
(b) B, C, and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and D only

14. Arrange the following works of Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar in descending


order:
a. What Congress and Gandhi have done to the Untouchables

b. The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and Its Solution

c. Buddha and His Dhamma


d. Who were Shudras?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) c, b, a, and d
(b) c, d, b, and a
(c) a, b, c, and d
(d) d, c, a, and b

15. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar opposed which decision of M. K. Gandhi?


(a) Partitioning India
(b) Calling the lower castes ‘Harijans’
(c) Satyagraha Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (d)
(a) (c) (b) (c)
3. 6.
9. (a)
(c) (d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar and Tej Bahadur Sapru took part in all thre
Round Table Conferences. M. K. Gandhi took part in the Second Roun
Table Conference.

7. ‘Chaityabhoomi’ is situated in Mumbai and is the cremation ground of D


Bhim Rao Ambedkar.

13. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar was a strong votary of constitutional


democracy combined with social and economic democracy as it is
based on liberty, equality, fraternity, justice, and human dignity so that
the rights of untouchables who are in minority shall be guaranteed by
the constitution itself and they will no longer suffer at the will of the
majority rule.

14. Book need to be arranged in reverse order, descending order.


CHAPTER 17
Jawahar Lal Nehru (1889–1964)

INTRODUCTION
Jawahar Lal Nehru was the Statesman that India needed to consolidate
democracy and for the Nation Building. Jawahar Lal Nehru was born on
14 November 1889 in Allahabad. He was one of the eminent leaders of the
Indian Independence movement and was the first Prime Minister of India. As
Prime Minister of independent India, Jawahar Lal Nehru initiated socio-
economic policies of the idealistic socialist kind. In 1955, he was awarded the
highest civilian honour of the country the Bharat Ratna. His birth date is
celebrated as Bal Diwas (children‘s day) in India.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


He returned to India in 1912 and plunged straight into politics.
In 1916 Jawahar Lal Nehru met M. K. Gandhi for the first time in
the Lucknow session of Congress. In 1919 Jawahar Lal Nehru
became the Secretary of the Home Rule League, Allahabad.
In 1920 he organized the first Kisan March in the Pratapgarh District of
Uttar Pradesh.
In 1923 Jawahar Lal Nehru became the General Secretary of the
All-India Congress Committee.
In 1928, He founded the ‘Independence for India League’ along with
Subhas Chandra Bose, which advocated complete severance of
the British connection with India and became its General Secretary.
In 1929 he was elected President of the Lahore session of the Indian
National Congress, where Complete Independence for the country was
adopted as the goal.
In 1938, National Planning Committee was established by Congress
President Subhash Chandra Bose under the chairmanship of
Jawahar Lal Nehru.
In 1942 Jawahar Lal Nehru moved the historic ‘Quit India’
Resolution at the All-India Congress Committee session in Bombay.
Jawahar Lal Nehru took office as Prime Minister of Independent
India on 15 August and his inaugural address is called ‘Tryst with
Destiny’.

DEMOCRATIC SOCIALISM
In a democratic-socialistic set-up, Jawahar Lal Nehru opined that class
conflict should be ended by a peaceful solution. He never believed in the
Marxian idea of class struggle or communist policy of ‘ruthless suppression’.
In a democratic set-up, due caution should be taken to put an end to class
conflicts inside the society. Jawahar Lal Nehru contended that majority
rule government and communism are correlative to each other Jawahar Lal
Nehru expressed, ‘vote-based system without communism will be joke and
communism without popular government will prompt tyranny and
regimentation.’
Jawahar Lal Nehru’s socialism is a combination of Fabian socialism,
Gandhian Sarvodaya and Marxist scientific socialism. Jawahar Lal Nehru
evolved a peaceful method of overplanning to achieve democratic socialism.
The planned development of the economy will ensure the establishment of a
classless society through cooperative efforts.

SCIENTIFIC HUMANISM
He held that science should be used for social reconstruction in India as it will
help in tackling poverty, insanitation, illiteracy, and other social problems. He
described the scientific laboratories as the Temple of Modern India. He also
asserted that science should also be tempered with wisdom and realize the
truth and new knowledge. Jawahar Lal Nehru’s scientific humanism
compiles his concern for science and humanity as he attempted to bring
harmony between the world of fact and the world of spirit. Therefore, his
scientific humanism upheld that power that is gained from the advancement of
science must be directed to the service of humanity and not to gain profit by
exploiting others.

LIST OF BOOKS AND WRITING


Whither India? (1933)—after his release from British prison in August
1933, Jawahar Lal Nehru wrote a series of articles published in a
pamphlet titled ‘Whither India?’.
Glimpses of World History—was published in 1934 and consists of a
collection of 196 letters on world history that were written from prison to
his daughter Indira Gandhi.
An Autobiography—also known as Towards Freedom written by
Jawahar Lal Nehru between 1934 to 1935 when he was
imprisoned. It was published in 1936.
India and the World (1936)
The Agrarian Problem in India: A General Survey (1936)
The Discovery of India—was written in 1944 when he was imprisoned
in Maharashtra and was published in 1946. It discusses the journey of
India from its Ancient history to the end of the British Raj. He also
argued that India is a historic nation with a right to sovereignty.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who is regarded as the maker of Modern India?
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) M. K. Gandhi
(c) R. K. Narayan
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru

2. The discovery of India was written in 1944 but published in?


(a) 1944
(b) 1945
(c) 1945
(d) 1946

3. The discovery of India is written during Jawahar Lal Nehru’


imprisonment at?
(a) Rajkot
(b) Allahabad
(c) Maharashtra
(d) None of the Above

4. Whose speech is ‘Tryst with Destiny’?


(a) Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(b) J. P. Narayan
(c) Bhagat Singh
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru

5. Arrange the books of Jawahar Lal Nehru in chronology:


A. India and the World

B. Whither India?

C. Towards Freedom
D. The Discovery of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Options:
(a) C, D, A, B
(b) B, A, D, C
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) B, A, C, D

6. Match the following:

Concept Thinker

1. New Socialism 1. Ram Manohar Lohia


2. Antyodaya 2. J. P. Narayan

c.Scientific Humanism 3. Jawahar Lal Nehru

d.Sarvodaya 4. Deen Dayal Upadhaaya

Codes:
(a) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(b) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1
(c) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(d) a–1, b–4, c–3, d–2

7. Which newspaper did Jawahar Lal Nehru launch?


(a) The Hindu
(b) Times of India
(c) The Tribune
(d) National Herald

8. Which of the following statement is/are true about Jawahar Lal Nehru?
(a) He insisted on the secular and liberalist approach.
(b) He imparted modern values and thoughts.
(c) He encouraged India’s industrialization.
(d) All the above are correct.

9. Match the following:

Work/Article Thinker

1. My Picture of Socialism 1. Ram Manohar


Lohia
2. Whither India? 2. J. P. Narayan

c.Satyagraha Now 3. Jawahar Lal


Nehru

d.Caste in India: Their Mechanism, Genesis and


4. Dr Bhim Rao
Development
Ambedkar

Codes:
(a) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(b) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1
(c) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

10. Who said this quote, ‘Democracy is good I say this because other
systems are worse.’?
(a) Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) Swami Vivekananda

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(d) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b)
2. 4.
6. (d)
(d) (d)
CHAPTER 18
Ram Manohar Lohia (1910–68)

INTRODUCTION
Indian politician and activist who was a leading figure in socialist politics and
the Indian independence movement. His life was spent fighting injustice by
developing an Indian version of socialism. At the age of 19, he went to
Germany for higher studies and to obtain a Ph.D. in economics on the topic
‘Salt Taxation in India’ focusing on M. K. Gandhi’s socio-economic theory.
He returned to India in 1933 and got involved in the national movement. He
joined Congress Socialist Party (formed in 1934), a socialist group within
Congress.
Ram Manohar Lohia came into prominence due to his views, he
advocated for the abolition of English and the promotion of Indian languages.
He pleaded for affirmative action for backward castes. He mobilized
lower/backward castes to overthrow the Indian National Congress in
elections.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


He joined the Indian National Congress in 1932.
Formed Congress Socialist Party within Congress in 1934 with J. P.
Narayan and Acharya Narendra Deva.
In 1941 Ram Manohar Lohia became one of the leading figures of
the Central Directorate which secretly tried to organize the Quit India
revolt, led by M. K. Gandhi in 1942.
Ram Manohar Lohia established the Hind Kisan Panchayat in 1949
to assist farmers with agricultural solutions.
Following the Independence, Congress Socialist Party separated from
Congress. He formed the Praja Socialist Party in 1952.
In 1956, he founded a Socialist Party (Lohia), because he was not
happy with the decisions of the Praja Socialist Party.
In 1956, he also became chairman and editor of its periodical,
Mankind.
In 1963, he was elected as a member of Lok Sabha.
In 1965 merged the Socialist Party (Lohia) with Samyukta
Socialist Party.

FOUR PILLAR STATE


He coined the phrase ‘Four Pillar State’, where he supported the
decentralized form of the political system. According to Ram Manohar
Lohia, the self-sufficiency and autonomy of each and every level of
government are important to maintain the stability of a state. He considered
the state standing on a structure based on four pillars i.e. Central
Government, Provincial Government, District government, and Village
Government. These are what he wanted to replace parliamentary democracy
with a decentralized system.

SEVEN TYPES OF REVOLUTION (SAPTA KRANTI)


Ram Manohar Lohia differed from other socialists as his ideas were not
confined to only the removal of economic inequalities. He widens the scope of
socialism and wants to fight against all forms of injustice prevalent in society.
In 1962, Ram Manohar Lohia gave an account of the seven types of
revolution to secure comprehensive social transformation:

NEW SOCIALISM
Ram Manohar Lohia came to believe that traditional and organized
socialism was ‘dead doctrines and decaying organizations’. He accepted
socialism as a viable philosophy for India but attempted to conceptualize it
considering Gandhian contributions.
In 1959, he proposed ‘New Socialism’, arguing that it provides a full
system of socioeconomic and political life for the people of India. He claims
that: equality, democracy, nonviolence, decentralization, and socialism are the
five supreme ideals of not only Indian politics but all global actions and must
be the goals of ‘New Socialism’.
A distinctive feature of ‘New Socialism’ was the concept of decentralized
socialism, which emphasized small machines, cooperative labour, village
governance, and decentralized planning. The philosophy of ‘New Socialism’
was centred on six key principles:

1. egalitarian income and expenditure standards,


2. growing economic interdependence,
3. a world parliament system based on adult franchise,
4. democratic freedoms including the right to private life,
5. Gandhian techniques of individual and collective civil disobedience
and dignity, and
6. Rights of the common man.

IMPORTANT WORKS & BOOKS


1. Fragments of World Mind (1949)
2. Wheels of History (1955)
3. Will to Power and Other Writings (1956)
4. Satyagraha Now (1940) article in M. K. Gandhi’s newspaper
‘Harijan’.
5. Guilty Men of India’s Partition (1960)
6. India, China, and Northern Frontiers (1963)
7. Marx, Gandhi, and Socialism (1963)
8. The Caste System (1964)
9. Interval During Politics (1965)

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. What year did Ram Manohar become a member of the Praja Socialis
Party?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1953

2. Which of the following statements about Ram Manohar Lohia’s thought


are true?
A. He said Marxism turns humans into material men.

B. He criticized Marxism for its Internal Contradictions.

C. European Socialism is adequate for an Indian Society.


D. Invested in evolving indigenous models for the needs of the countr
Codes:
(a) A and C only
(b) B, C, and D only
(c) A, B, and D only
(d) C and D only

3. Which is not part of Ram Manohar Lohia’s Chaukhamba Siddhant o


Four Pillars State?
(a) World Parliament
(b) Centre
(c) District
(d) Village

4. Who gave the concept of Sapta Kranti?


(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

5. Arrange the following works of Ram Manohar Lohia in chronologica


order:
A. Fragments of World Mind

B. Marx, Gandhi, and Socialism

C. Guilty Men of India’s Partition


D. Wheels of History
Select the correct code:
(a) A, C, B, D
(b) A, D, C, B
(c) A, C, D, B
(d) A, B, C, D

6. Which is not a work of Ram Manohar Lohia?


(a) Fragments of World Mind
(b) Interval During Politics
(c) Towards Total Revolution: India and Her Problems
(d) Wheels of History

7. Who said, ‘Marxism is the last weapon of Europe against Asia.’?


(a) Ram Manohar Lohia
(b) Jayprakash Narayan
(c) M. N. Roy
(d) M. K. Gandhi

8. Ram Manohar Lohia wanted to replace the parliamentary system with a?


(a) Social Democracy
(b) Liberal Democracy
(c) Decentralised System
(d) A stateless system

9. Which statement is wrong about Ram Manohar Lohia?


(a) He founded a New Socialist Party.
(b) He was elected as a member of Lok Sabha.
(c) He completed his Ph.D. Germany
(d) He gave the concept of Sampoorna Kranti.

10. Who declares socialism as a ‘dead doctrine and decaying


organizations.’?
(a) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) M. N. Roy
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru

11. Which among the following leaders are related to the view of Non-
Congressism?
A. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar

B. Ram Manohar Lohia

C. J. P. Narayan
D. Deen Dayal Upadhayaa
Choose the correct code:
(a) A and C only
(b) A, B, C, and D
(c) A, C, and D only
(d) B and D only

12. Consider the following statements about Ram Manohar Lohia:


1. He believed that satyagraha without constructive work is like a
without a verb.

2. He wrote his Ph.D. these is paper on the topic of Salt Satyagraha fo


M. K. Gandhi’s socio-economic theory.

3. He recognized that caste, more than class, was the huge stumbling
India’s progress.

Choose the correct code:


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 12.
(c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (d) (d)
2. 4. 6. 8.
10. (b)
(c) (c) (c) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Option C is incorrect because Ram Manohar Lohia supported the idea o


socialism but he was also sure about the inadequacy of Europea
Socialism for an Indian Society. He gave the idea of ‘New Socialism’ tha
suits India better.

3. In the 1960s leader like Deen Dayal Upadhyaya and Ram Manoha
Lohia joined together to provide an alternative to the Congress party
Non-Congressism referred to the Non-Congress parties along with the
different programmes and ideologies together to form Anti-Congres
fronts.
CHAPTER 19
Jayaprakash Narayan (1902–79)

INTRODUCTION
Jayaprakash Narayan popularly known as J. P. Narayan or Lok
Nayak (people’s leader), was an Indian Independence activist, theorist,
socialist, and political leader. He is remembered for leading the mid-
1970s opposition against Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, for whose
overthrow he had called for a ‘Total Revolution’. His biography,
‘Jayaprakash’, was written by his nationalist friend and the writer of Hindi
literature, Rambriksh Benipuri. In 1999, he was posthumously
awarded the Bharat Ratna, and in 1965 he was awarded Magsaysay
Award for Public Service.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


Jayaprakash Narayan joined the Indian National Congress in
1929 at the invitation of Jawahar Lal Nehru.
In 1932 he was imprisoned for a year for participation in the Civil
disobedience Movement.
He played a key role in the formation of the Congress Socialist
Party in 1934 a left-wing group within the Congress party.
In 1948, he left the Congress Party and initiated an Anti-Congress
Campaign.
In 1952, he formed the Praja Socialist Party (PSP).
In 1954, he devoted his life exclusively to the Bhoodhan
Movement led by Vinoda Bhave, which demanded land re-
distribution to the landless.
In 1959 he argued for a ‘Reconstruction of Indian Polity’ by means
of a four-tier hierarchy of village, district, state, and union councils
(Chaukhamba Raj).
In 1974 led the Bihar Movement against the authoritarian and
corrupt tendencies of the Indira Gandhi government.
5 June 1974 he gave the clarion call of Sampoorna Kranti (Total
Revolution).
He formed the Janta Party (People’s Party) in 1977.

DEMOCRATIC SOCIALISM
In his book Why Socialism? Jayaprakash Narayan writes, ‘Socialism
is not a code of personal conduct but a system of social reconstruction.
When we speak of applying Socialism to India, the first thing that strikes
us is the strange and painful fact of inequalities of rank, of culture, and of
opportunity, a most disconcertingly unequal distribution of the good things
in life. Poverty, hunger, filth, disease, and ignorance for the overwhelming
many. Comfort, luxury, position, and power for the select few.’
He like Karl Marx, believed that the inequality and poverty of the
Indian people were due to the reason that the means of production were
not in their control. He offered a solution to this evil: the Socialist
Revolution: ‘to abolish private ownership of the means of production and
to establish over them the ownership of the whole community.’
Jayaprakash Narayan was fully convinced that socialism in India
could be established if sufficient power was obtained by a socialist party.
He was in support of adult franchises on a functional basis, organising
cooperatives, strengthening the producing masses with the powers and
overpowering role of the state in the economic life of the country. These
Ideas became the philosophy and objectives of the Congress Socialist
Party.
Other Socialist friends of Jayaprakash Narayan like Minoo
Masanai of Bombay and Srimati Kamala Devi joined with him and
were engaged in spreading the Socialist Movement in India staying inside
the Congress. He was a Democrat. For him, ‘the state in socialist India
must be a fully democratic state….it should be remembered that
dictatorship of the proletariat in Marxist theory does not mean the
dictatorship of a single party, such as the communist party in Russia, it
means the dictatorship of a class, the working class.’
He was convinced that a democratic society offers the chance for
socialism to come into existence. Otherwise, the bureaucratic state
emerges with the support of the capitalist class. At this point people will
resort to violent means hence democracy is the only system for a free
non-violent socialist society.

IDEA OF TOTAL REVOLUTION (SAMPOORANA


KRANTI)
The concept of the Total Revolution became popular in 1974 in the wake
of mass movements in Gujarat and Bihar. He was deeply disturbed by
the political process of degeneration in the Indian politics of the time.
Jayaprakash Narayan’s concept of Total Revolution is a confluence
of his seven revolutions i.e. social, economic, political, cultural,
ideological & intellectual, educational, and spiritual.
In a letter to a friend in August 1976, Jayaprakash Narayan
defined the character of the Total Revolution. He wrote, ‘Total revolution
is a permanent revolution. It will always go on and keep on changing both
our personal and social lives.’ Jayaprakash Narayan’s Total
Revolution involved the development of peasants, workers, Harijans,
tribal people, and indeed all weaker sections of the social structure.

IMPORTANT BOOKS AND WRITINGS


Nation Building in India
Prison Diary,1975 which was published in 1977.
India: Struggle for Freedom, Political, Social, and Economic seeks
to understand the complexities of Swaraj.
Towards Total Revolution: India and Her Problems published in
1978.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who wrote the book Nation Building in India?
(a) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
(b) J. L. Nehru
(c) Jayaprakash Narayan
(d) None of the Above

2. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the othe
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): J. P. Narayan advocated the ownership of
Industries by the cooperatives and the community.
Reason (R): State should acquire a monopoly in industry and
employment.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

3. When was Total Revolution was announced by Jayaprakash


Narayan?
(a) 1969
(b) 974
(c) 1967
(d) 1978
4. Who formulated the Sarvodaya plan?
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) J. L. Nehru
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) None of these

5. When Jayaprakash Narayan joined Indian National Congress?


(a) 1934
(b) 1924
(c) 1929
(d) 1920

6. Match the following:

Work/Article Thinker

1. My Picture of Socialism 1. Ram Manoh


Lohia

2. Whither India? 2. Jayaprakas


Narayan

c.Satyagraha Now 3. J. L. Nehru

d.Caste in India: Their Mechanism, Genesis, and


4. Dr B. R.
Development
Ambedkar

Codes:
(a) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(b) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1
(c) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

7. Jayaprakash Narayan was not associated with which party?


(a) Indian National Congress
(b) All India Kisan Sabha
(c) Congress Socialist Party
(d) Janta Party

8. When was Jayaprakash Narayan given the Bharat Ratana Award


Posthumously?
(a) 1981
(b) 1975
(c) 1987
(d) 1999

9. Jayaprakash is popularly known as?


(a) Lok Nayak
(b) Lokmanya
(c) Gurudev
(d) Deshbandhu

10. My Interest is not in the capture of power, but in the control of


power by the people. Who said this statement?
(a) M. K. Gandhi
(b) J. L. Nehru
(c) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan

Answer Key
1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (b) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d)
2. 4.
6. (d)
(c) (a)
CHAPTER 20
Deen Dayal Upadhyay (1916–68)

INTRODUCTION
R. Balashankar while emphasising the significance of Deen Dayal
Upadhyay’s thought and ideology wrote that ‘Deen Dayal Upadhyay is to
the BJP, what Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was to Congress’. He was born
in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh. He lost his parents at an early age and was
brought up by his maternal uncle. He studied at Sanatan Dharam College in
Kanpur. Deen Dayal Upadhyay conceived a classless, casteless, and
conflict-free social order. He stressed the ancient Indian wisdom of oneness of
the humankind. His treatise Integral Humanism, a critique of communism and
capitalism, offers a completely alternative vision for political activity and
statecraft. He belongs to the field of cultural Nationalism.

KEY EVENTS AND CONTRIBUTIONS


He joined Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh in 1937. He worked as an
organizer (Pracharak) in Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh under the
leadership of M. S. Golwalkar.
He joined Bhartiya Jana Sangh Party in 1951 and became the General
Secretary in 1952.
In 1952 he launched the Anti-Article 370 movement (Kashmir
Satyagraha) with the slogan ‘Ek Vidhan, Ek Nishan, Ek Pradhan’ (One
Constitution, One Flag, One Prime Minister).
In 1964 he propounded the theory of Integral Humanism, which was
adopted as Bhartiya Jana Sangh’s official doctrine in 1965 and later by
the Bhartiya Janata Party in 1985.
He founded ‘Rashtra Dharam Prakashan’ in 1945. Later, he started the
weekly ‘Panchjanya’ and the daily ‘Swadesh’ newspapers.
He was elected President of the Bhartiya Janata Sangh in December
1967 and was found dead under mysterious circumstances near the
Mughal Sarai station in February 1968.

INTEGRAL HUMANISM
He propounded his theory of ‘Integral Humanism’ in 1964. Integral Humanism
was a counter-ideology developed by him to eliminate the extremist principle
of capitalism, individualism as well as Marxist socialism. It’s a moderate
philosophy to create a bridge between liberal principles as well as socialism.
Integral Humanism was built by borrowing some ideas from Gandhian
Principles as well as from the Hindu philosophy of Dharma (Duty). Deen
Dayal Upadhyay borrowed three Gandhian principles i.e. Sarvodaya (all-
inclusive progress), Swadeshi (Indian products), and Gram-Swaraj (Village
self-sufficiency to self-rule).
Integral humanism is organized around two themes:

1. Morality in politics.
2. Swadeshi and small-scale industrialization in the economy, promoting
self-sufficiency, as reflected in M. K. Gandhi’s philosophy.

According to Deen Dayal Upadhayaya, humankind had four


hierarchically organized attributes:
It defines society as a living natural entity with a distinct national soul.
Integral humanism advocates for the incorporation of religious and moral
principles into politics. It proposes a culturally authentic method of
modernization that upholds Hindu traditions. Integral Humanism is
propounded on the concept of Dharma and is based on morality that is above
religion.
He proposed that every economic theory and policy should be considered
in the context of specialization, local culture and nature, and people’s
temperament. He added in Indian thinking,

1 Dharm (Moral Duties),

2 Arth (Wealth),
3 Kaam (Desire & Satisfaction), and
4 Moksh (Salvation)
all four are significant. There is social stability when they are in balance.

NATIONALIST VIEW
He introduced the fundamental concept of Indian philosophy in political,
social, and cultural debates. Deen Dayal Upadhyay creates a new three-
legged foundation of Indian philosophy,

1 Vedanta of Shankara
2 Arthashastra of Kautilya
3. Integral Humanism

Deen Dayal Upadhyay is one of the Indian philosophers who has


worked on ‘Swaraj of ideas,’ which means decolonization of ideas, or
decolonization of Indian minds. Although India was politically free, the colonial
legacy lingered.
He also envisioned the notion of Dharma Rajya for the Indian state, which
is duty-oriented as opposed to right-oriented concepts. Every individual is
bound by various obligations and regulations.
He condemned the concept of Territorial Nationalism, which saw the
Indian Nation as made up of all the people who live in this country, who may
be Hindus, Muslims, Christians, and others.
ANTYODAYA
The socio-economic thought of Deen Dayal Upadhyay has an egalitarian
orientation. He suggested that the objective of economical planning as well as
public policy should be the development and growth of the weakest person in
the nation. Antyodaya stands for ‘rise of the last person’. The last man in
society was at the centre of his economic ideas. He said, ‘The success of
economic planning and economic progress will not be measured through
those who are at the top of the society’s ladder, but through the people at the
lowest rung of the society.’ Antyodaya means the welfare of the people at the
bottom of the pyramid. He said, ‘It is our thinking and principle that these
uneducated and poor people are our gods. We have to worship them. It is our
social and human dharma.’

HIS MAJOR WORKS


Samrat Chandragupta (1946)
Jagatguru Sankaracharya (1947)
Akhand Bharat Kyon? (1952)
Bharatiya Arthniti: Vikas Ki Disha (1958)
The Two Plans: Promises, Performances, Prospects (1958)
Rashtra Jivan Ki Samasyayen (1960)
Devaluation: A Great Fall (1966)
Political Diary (1968)

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Deen Dayal Upadhyay considers his philosophy Integral Humanism
follows the tradition of?
(a) Ajivika
(b) Advaita
(c) Yoga
(d) Dvaita

2. Deen Dayal Upadhyay proposed which philosophy?


(a) Existential Humanism
(b) Sarvodaya
(c) Integral Humanism
(d) Rationalist humanism

3. In which year, Deen Dayal started a monthly journal named ‘Rashtr


Dharma’ to spread the ideology of Hindutva nationalism from Utta
Pradesh?
(a) 1940
(b) 1942
(c) 1945
(d) 1949

4. Antyodaya Divas is celebrated on?


(a) 15 September
(b) 20 September
(c) 25 September
(d) 30 September

5. Which of the following is/are true regarding the philosophy of Deen Daya
Upadhyay?
1) He borrowed a few principles from Gandhian philosophy.
2) It advocates a middle ground between capitalism and socialism.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) None

6. What is a nation according to Deen Dayal Upadhyay’s views?


(a) It is not born out of a social contract.
(b) It arises out of a deeper life force.
(c) It is self-created.
(d) All of the above
7. When was Deen Dayal Upadhyay elected as President of Bhartiya Ja
Sangh?
(a) 1965
(b) 1966
(c) 1967
(d) 1968

8. Who gave the slogan ‘Ek Vidhan, Ek Nishan, Ek Pradhan’?


(a) Deen Dayal Upadhyay
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) V. D. Savarkar
(d) Subash Chandra Bose

9. According to Deen Dayal Upadhyay ‘Dharma’ is not?


(a) Science
(b) Religion
(c) Nation
(d) None of these

10. Which one among the following statements regarding Deen Dayal
Upadhyay is not correct?
A. He supported a social system in which the individual is supreme.

B. He seeks a culturally authentic mode of modernization that will pre


values of Hinduism.

C. He denounced territorial Nationalism.


D. He visualised a decentralized polity and self-reliant economy.

11. Match the following:

Concept Thinker

1. New Socialism 1. Ram Manohar Lohia


2. Antyodaya 2. J. P. Narayan

c.Scientific Humanism 3. J. L. Nehru

d.Sarvodaya 4. Deen Dayal Upadhyay

Codes:
(a) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(b) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1
(c) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(d) a–1, b–4, c–3, d–2

12. Match the following:

Books Author

1. Rashtriya Jeevan Ki Disha 1. Ram Manohar Lo

2. Socialist Unity and the Congress Socialist 2. J. P. Narayan


Party

c.Buddha and Karl Marx 3. Dr B. R. Ambedk

d.Fragments of World Mind 4. Deen Dayal


Upadhyay

Codes:
(a) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(b) a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1
(c) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4
(d) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 12.
(b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (b)
2. 4. 6. 8.
10. (a)
(c) (c) (d) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

4. Antyodaya Divas is celebrated in India on September 25 to mark th


birth anniversary of Deen Dayal Upadhyay and remember his life an
legacy.

9. Integral Humanism is propounded on the Concept of Dharma and i


based on morality that is above religion.

10. Option A is incorrect because according to Deen Dayal Upadhyay,


humans and humanity should be the central theme of society and not
the individual interest which is the core idea of Liberalism.
Previous Years’ Questions

1. By Satyagraha, Gandhi meant (2015)


(a) truth by force.
(b) truth as strategy.
(c) holding firmly to truth.
(d) giving sermons on truth.

2. Who of the following said that Gandhi is greater by far than


Gandhism and of all our heroes in recent Indian history, this frail
little man was the tallest? (2016)
(a) Hiren Mukherjee
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

3. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)


and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer
from the codes given below: (2016)
Assertion (A): Gandhism is not Marxism minus violence or plus
God.
Reason (R): Marxism was based on violence and denial of God.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
4. For Ambedkar, which of the following strategies is not true
regarding the destruction of caste system in India? (2016)
(a) Forging distinct identity for the dalits.
(b) Recognition of differential interests.
(c) Removing untouchability without destroying the caste system.
(d) Securing separate political representation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (a) and (b)
(b) (a) and (d)
(c) (c) only
(d) (a) and (c)

5. What is the full form of Gandhi’s Hind Swaraj? (2016)


(a) Hind Sawraj or Indian Home Rule
(b) Hind Sawraj or Indian Independence
(c) Hind Sawraj or Indian Satyagraha
(d) Hind Sawraj or Indian Sarvodaya

6. Who among the following Sultans, tried to curb the powers of


Amirs and Ulemas? (2016)
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Md. Bin Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

7. Who among the following described Aurobindo as ‘a poet of


patriotism, prophet of nationalism and lover of humanity’?
(2016)
(a) M.N. Roy
(b) R.P. Dutt
(c) C R. Das
(d) Vivekananda

8. Which one of the following options was not a part of M. N. Roy’s


‘four classes’ framework in Indian context? (2017)
(a) The bourgeoisie
(b) Proletariat
(c) Intellectual
(d) Peasantry

9. Nehru wrote Whither India? in support of (2017)


(a) Nationalism
(b) Capitalism
(c) Socialism
(d) Democracy

10. In which chapter of Mahabharata are the duties of the king


enunciated? (2018)
(a) Virat Parva
(b) Shanti Parva
(c) Sabha Parva
(d) Udyog Parva

11. The monthly magazine Rashtra Dharma was started by (2018)


(a) K. B Hedgewar
(b) Deendayal Upadhyaya
(c) Syama Prasad Mukherjee
(d) None of them

12. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Satyagraha movement in 1919.


Which of the following was the correct reason? (2018)
(a) It was a protest against the British government for its failur
introduce promised reforms at the end of the war.
(b) It was a protest against the massacre at Jallianwala B
Amritsar.
(c) It was a protest against the Rowlett Act.
(d) It was a protest against communal awards.

13. Who represented the Congress in the Second Round Table


Conference at London (1931) ? (2018)
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Srinivas Shastri
(d) B.R. Ambedkar

14. Find the incorrect statement: (2018)


(a) Sri Aurobindo was a revolutionary leader
(b) Mahatma Gandhi’s Satyagraha was meant also for h
transformation of the opponent
(c) Periyar promoted rationalism, self-respect, and women’s rights
(d) V.D Savarkar was the champion of composite nationalism

15. In which book, Gandhi has described western civilization as


Satanic (2018)
(a) My Experiment with Truth
(b) History of Satyagrah in South Africa
(c) Hind Swaraj
(d) Sarvodaya

16. Two-Nation Theory was propounded by Mohd. Ali Jinnah in the


year (2018)
(a) 1930
(b) 1940
(c) 1942
(d) 1945

17. The Lahore Session of the Congress which adopted a


resolution of complete independence for India was presided
over by: (2018)
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Motilal Nehru
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

18. Who believed that the aggregate of the four, body, mind, heart,
and soul is the individual? (2018)
(a) B G. Tilak
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Deendayal Upadhyaya
(d) M. N. Roy

19. Arrange the following works of Sri Aurobindo in chronological


order: Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(2018)
(A) Love and Death
(B) The Life Divine
(C) Essays on Gita
(D) Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol
Codes:
(a) A, B, D and C
(b) A, B, C and D
(c) B, D, A and C
(d) D, A, B and C

20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements
and choose the correct answer using the code given below. (2018)
Assertion (A): For Gandhiji, enlightened anarchy refers to a form of
society which functions without the coercive power of the State.
Reason (R): Individuals have full control of themselves.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

21. Who said that the ‘Government of India Act, 1935 was a
charter of slavery’? (2018)
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mohd. Ali Jinnah
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(d) Gopal Krishan Gokhale

22. Which of the following books was not written by M. N. Roy?


(2018)
(a) India in Transition
(b) The Future of Indian Politics
(c) Reason, Romanticism and Revolution
(d) The Human Cycle

23. Who gave the concept of ‘graded inequality’? (2018)


(a) Gandhi
(b) Nehru
(c) B R. Ambedkar
(d) M. N. Roy

24. Ram Manohar Lohia was opposed to: (2019)


(A) Capitalism
(B) Communism
(C) Socialism
(D) Decentralisation of powers
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)

25. Which of the following is not related to Kabir? (2019)


(a) Begampura
(b) Bhakti
(c) Panchvani
(d) Gender inequality

26. Arthashastra is known as (2019)


(1) Shruti
(2) Smriti
(3) Samhita
(4) Nitishastra
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

27. When was Jaiprakash Narayan awarded Bharat Ratna?


(2019)
(1) 1999
(2) 1998
(3) 1997
(4) 1996
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

M.N. Roy’s Integral Scientific Humanism is also known as


28. (2019)
(a) Marxism
(b) Orthodox Marxism
(c) Scientific Socialism
(d) New Humanism

29. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R): (2019)
Assertion (A): According to Gandhi, politics divorced from
religion is a deathtrap.
Reason (R): The entry of religion into politics is necessary
because without religion it may take communal colour.
On the basis of the two statements choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

30. Gandhi believes in: (2019)


(1) End justifies Means
(2) Means justifies End
(3) Neither End justifies Means nor Means justifies End
(4) End and Means both should be justified
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

31. Agganna Sutta is the (2019)


(a) 27th Sutta of the Digha Nikaya
(b) 27th Sutta of the Majjhima Nikaya
(c) 26th Sutta of Samyutta Nikaya
(d) 27th Sutta of Anguttara Nikaya

32. Match List I with List II: (2019)

List I List II
Thinker Work
(A)Jai Prakash (i)Salt Taxation
Narayan in India
(B)Ram Manohar (ii) The Reconstruction of religious
Lohia throught in Islam
(C)Muhammad (iii) Why socialism
Iqbal
(D)Barani (iv) Fatwo-I-Jahandari

Select the correct option from the given below:


(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

33. Agganna Sutta deals with: (2019)


(A) Origin of life
(B) Origin of social order and castes
(C) Origin of secularism
(D) Origin of six fold policy
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) (A) only
(b) (B) only
(c) (A) and (B)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)

34. In which year did Rabindranath Tagore surrender the


knighthood as a protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
(2019)
(a) 1919
(b) 1924
(c) 1935
(d) 1937

35. Given below are the statements about the difference between
passive resistance and satyagraha. Which ones are true?
(2020)
(A) Passive resistance is weapon of the weaker sections, satyag
never desires to terrorize the opponent
(B) Passive Resistance is negative in practice. whereas satyagrah
positive morality
(C) Passive Resistance is equivalent to satyagraha
(D) Passive Resistance is not afraid of the physical strength w
satyagraha is afraid of physical strength
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) C and D Only
(c) B and C Only
(d) A and D Only

36. Jaya Prakash Narayan formed which of the following parties?


(2020)
(A) Congress Socialist Party
(B) Bhoodan Aandolan Party
(C) Praja Socialist Party
(D) Democratic Praja Socialist Party
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) C and D Only
(d) A and D Only

37. ‘Fatwa-i-Jahandari of Ziauddin Barani is related with (2020)


(A) Advices for Muslim kings in order to earn religious merit and
gratitude of the subject
(B) Advices to all the kings
(C) Description of the origin of state
(D) Tenets of secularism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) A Only
(c) B and C Only
(d) D and D Only

38. Match List I with List II (2020)

List I List II
Works of Tagore content of the work
rabindranat
h
(A)Geetanjah (I)The
realization
of life
(B)Gora (II) Devotion of God
(C)Sadhana (III) Deeper meaning of life in the backdrop
Swadeshi movement
(D)Ghare – (IV) Analysis of the mutifarious social life (T
Baire home and the world) in colonial India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

39. Given below are two statements: (2020)


Statement I: M.N. Roy considered the economic interpretation of
history propounded by Marx as misconceived and imperfect.
Statement II: M.N. Roy argued that the real form of social and
economic process is not determined merely by types of material
resources.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

40. ‘Agganasutta’ is related with (2020)


(a) Hindu Philosophy
(b) Buddhist Philosophy
(c) Jain Philosophy
(d) Vedanta Philosophy

41. Which of the following is not an organ of Kautilya’s state?


(2020)
(a) Swami
(b) Amatya
(c) Varna system
(d) Danda

42. Who is considered a radical humanist? (2020)


(a) Ambedkar
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) M.N. Roy
(d) Savarkar

43. Atmiya Sabha was established in 1828 by (2020)


(a) Raja Radhakanta Deb
(b) Raja Rammohun Roy
(c) Akshay Kumar Dutta
(d) H. L. V. Derozio

44. Gandhiji believed in the principle of non-violence. Satyagraha


is: (2020)
(a) a weapon to oppose violence by non-violence
(b) a method of civil disobedience
(c) a method of people’s participation
(d) a weapon of violence

45. According to Deendayal Upadhyaya which are four elements of


nation? (2020)
(a) People who treat their country as mother, Common His
Common Language, Dharma
(b) Desire to live together, Motherland, Common heritage, Com
language
(c) People who treat their country as mother, Desire to live toge
Dharma, Ideal and Values of life
(d) Desire to live together, Common language, Common His
Dharma

46. Which one of the following party firstly joined by E.V


Ramasami Periyar? (2020)
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party
(b) Indian National Congress
(c) Justice Party
(d) Communist Party of India

47. Who has given originally the idea of ‘Hindu Rashtra? (2020)
(a) V.D. Savarkar
(b) Hedgewar
(c) B.S. Moonje
(d) M.S. Golwalkar

48. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R (2020)
Assertion (A): Swadeshi, Boycott, National Education and Passive
Resistane were the means of protest used by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Reasons (R): Boycott was accepted to be an effective weapon by
Tilak.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) 1s not the correct explana
of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

49. Tagore’s Nationalism is based on his lecture-tour in (2020)


(a) Japan and UK
(b) Japan and USA
(c) USA and China
(d) China and Italy

50. Arrange the following books written by B. R. Ambedkar in an


ascending order (2021)
(A) Gandhi and Gandhism
(B) The problem of the Rupee: Its origin and its solution
(C) The Buddha and His Dhamma
(D) The Rise and Fall of Hindu Woman
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, D, C, A
(c) D, A, B, C
(d) C, B, D, A

51. “The mind, therefore, had to be de-colonized first before it


could be made more responsive to freedom”. Who among the
following made this statement? (2021)
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) B . R. Ambedkar
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Swami Vivekanand

52. Nehru’s idea of nationalism was based on: (2021)


(A) Militant nationalism
(B) Strong faith in cultural pluralism
(C) Right to self-determination
(D) Synthetic universalism propounded by Rabindranath Tagore
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A, B, C and D

53. Match List I with List II: (2021)

List I List II
(A)Gail Omvedt I.Periyar: The Social Scientist
(B)K. Veermani II.Periyar: Father of the Tamil Race
(C)N. Velusamy III. Periyar
his
Ideologi
(D)M. D. IV.Dalit visions: The Anti Caste
Gopalakrishnan Movement and the Conduction of an
Indian Identity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(b) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(c) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
(d) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

54. Arrange the following in an ascending order (2021)


(A) Civil disobedience movement by Gandhi
(B) Non-Corporation movement by Gandhi
(C) Satyagrah at Champaran by Gandhi
(D) Establishment of Sabarmati Ashram
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) D, C, B, A
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) D, A, B, C
(d) C, D, A, B

55. Who among the following said that Bhakti in religion may be a
road to the salvation of the soul. But in politics, Bhakti or hero
worship is a sure road to degradation and eventual dictatorship?
(2021)
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) M.N.Roy
(c) B .R. Ambedkar
(d) Savarkar
56. Who coined the slogan “No control, no co-operation”? (2021)
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) J. Nehru
(c) Aurobindo
(d) Subhash Bose

57. Who said, ‘therefore, the sword of Brutus is holy. Therefore the
Baghanakha of Shivaji is of fair fame. Therefore, the
beheading of Charles I is a just deed. Therefore the arrow of
William Tell is divine. (2021)
(a) M.N. Roy
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Aurobindo Ghose
(d) V.D . Savarkar

58. Which one of the following is NOT a part of the political


philosophy of Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya? (2021)
(a) Consideration of man as atoms
(b) Cultural nationalism
(c) Integral humanism
(d) Democratic governance

59. “We will get nothing by appealing to or shouting hoarse in the


ears of the British Bureaucracy in India”. Who said this?
(2021)
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) B . R. Ambedkar
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

60. Periyar E . V. Ramaswamy argued in favour of: (2021)


(a) Caste based social system
(b) Human dignity
(c) Varnaashram system
(d) Enhancing the status of Hindi in India

61. Which of the following about Raja Rammohan Roy are true?
(2021)
(A) He was influenced by the Upanishads
(B) He was a rationalist and supporter of monotheism
(C) He was an atheist
(D) He was critical of the principle of trinitarianism advocated
Christianity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B and C only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) B, C and D only

62. Which of the following statements about Balgangadhar Tilak


are true? (2021)
(A) He envisioned the formation of linguistic states
(B) He was both a restless nationalist and a realist
(C) He preferred political freedom over social reform
(D) For Tilak, political liberation and rights can be achieved thro
direct action and pressure
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A and B only
(d) C and D only

63. Sri Aurobindo conceives nationalism as (2021)


(A) Spiritual nationalism, different from the western concep
nationalism
(B) A nation as an organism
(C) Nationalism as a religious aspiration and moral attitude
(D) Nation as a geographical entity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only

64. Match List I with List II (2021)

List I List II
Books Author
(A)Fatawa-i-Jahandari I.Charles Bettelheim
(B)Thoughts on Linguistic States II.M. N. Roy
(C)India Independent III. Zia Bar
(D)The Future of Indian Policies IV.B. R. Ambedkar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
(b) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(c) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(d) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

65. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R (2021)
Assertion A: B . R. Ambedkar was critical of the existing federal
structure
Reason R: The local self-governments neither have legislative
power nor executive power in the real sense of the term, according
to Ambedkar
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

66. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar established (2021)


(a) India House
(b) Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Abhinav Bharat
(d) Samagra Savarkar Vangmaya

67. In the opinion of Vivekananda, the problems of India could not


be solved, except by (2021)
(a) Assigning sole priority to the political objectives
(b) Expanding the social basis of nationalism
(c) Supporting the Varnashrama system
(d) Not focusing on cultural and educational issues

68. Who among the following has written the book titled Kautilya:
The Arthashastra? (2021)
(a) R.S. Sharma
(b) L.N. Rangarajan
(c) Hermann Kulke and Dietmar Rothemund
(d) J. C . Heesterman

69. Gandhi’s concept of Swadeshi was impacted by: (2021)


(A) His deep ethical-spiritual conviction
(B) His understanding of the economic condition of the peo
especially at the grassroots
(C) Influence of Ruskin’s book, ‘Unto This Last’
(D) His focus on truth and understanding of Jainism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) C and D only

70. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Assertion (A): For Gandhiji, satyagraha is not identical to (2021)
passive resistance.
Reason (R): Satyagraha denoted a legitimate, moral and truthful
form of political action by the people against the Brutal state power.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Key

1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61.


(c) (b) (c) (a) (c) (d) (c)
2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62.
(a) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (a)
3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63.
(a) (a) (c) (c) (b) (c) (b)
4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64.
(c) (d) (a) (a) (a) (a) (b)
5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65.
(a) (c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (a)
6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66.
(c) (b) (d) (d) (b) (c) (c)
7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67.
(c) (d) (a) (b) (a) (d) (b)
8. 18. 28. 38. 48. 58. 68.
(b) (c) (d) (c) (a) (a) (b)
9. 19. 29. 39. 49. 59. 69.
(c) (b) (a) (a) (b) (d) (c)
10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70.
(b) (a) (d) (b) (b) (b) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Gandhiji believe in non-violence and Satyagraha came during hi


stay in South Africa. Satyagraha is based on truth and non-violence
and a weapon to oppose violence by non-violence. Principles o
satyagraha required satyagrahi to work on the principles o
withdrawl of cooperation and boycott. Some of the methods of the
Satyagraha are non-payment of taxes, declining honours and
positions of authority.

4. Removing untouchability without destroying the caste system is no


possible according to Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar. This was also
a key point of conflict between him and Gandhiji.
Hence, the correct answer will be C.

7. Deshbandhu Chittaranjan (CR) Das described Sri Aurobindo Ghosh


as ‘a poet of patriotism, prophet of nationalism and lover o
humanity’.
Hence, the answer will be C.
8. M. N. Roy analysed Indian past, investigated present and future o
Indian Society in his work, ‘India in Transition (1922)’. He argued
British Imperialism undermined feudalism, but feudalism remained
throughout the British rule. Indian Society divided among following
classes- landed aristocracy, the bourgeoisie, intellectuals, pett
peasants and working class including landless peasants.

10. Shantiparva was written by Vyasa. Shantiparva is the 12th of the 18


books of Mahabharata. Shantiparva describes theory of
governance and duties of the king and his government, rules and
laws, rights and justice. Bhisma who was dying outlined the theory
to Yudhistra who started his rule of the Pandava Kingdom.

16. Two nation theory advocated that muslims and hindus was two
separate nations in light of culture, ethics and religion. Sir Syed
Ahmed Khan was first muslim leader and philosopher who
introduced a word ‘two nations’. Two nations theory was an
ideology of religious nationalism which advocated by All India
Muslim League in 1940 under the leadership of Muhammad Ali
Jinnah.

20. In his weekly paper ‘Young India’ Gandhiji wrote that “Political
power means capacity to regulate national life through national
representatives. If national life becomes so perfect as to become
self-regulated, no representation becomes necessary. There is
then a state of enlightened anarchy. In such a state everyone is his
own ruler. In the ideal state therefore, there is no political power
because there is no State”. Thus, option A is the correct answer.

21. Britishers with enactment of Government of India Act 1935 thought


it would be a step forward for Indian Constitutional development.
Act was to dominion status to the India and contained several
provisions of participation at all level of government but still the
monopoly over all important matter is with the Britishers to which
Nehru condemned the act and said GOI Act 1935 was a charter of
slavery.

23. BR Ambedkar gave the concept graded inequality in the context


Indian subcontinent which is different from inequality. Inequality for
example found USA on the basis of race faced by black people. On
the other graded inequality is due to the Caste system, where
kshatriyas, vaishyas, and shudras sufferes on the one and
beneficiary on the other. Benefits and burdens are divided on the
lines of vertical caste system. Only Brahmins enjoy the most
benefits.

25. Begampura which means land without sorrows is a term coined by


Guru Ravidas in one of his poems. However, besides Begampura,
all the other terms are related to Kabir. His writings had greatly
influenced the Bhakti movement, his bhajans are included in
Panchvani and he has written poetry on gender inequality and
strength of women.
Hence A is the correct answer.

30. Gandhi stated that “Means and ends are convertible terms in my
philosophy of life.” So, End and Means both should be justified.
Thus, the Correct answer is D.

35. For Gandhi, Passive Resistance is a weapon of the weak and does
not exclude the use of physical force or violence for the purpose of
gaining one’s end, but satyagraha has been conceived as a
weapon of the strongest and excludes the use of violence in any
shape or form.” So, the motive behind Satyagraha was not to
destroy or harass the opponent, but to convert him or win him over
sympathy, patience, and self-suffering.

39. M. N. Roy criticized the economic interpretation of history as


envisaged by Marx. According to Roy, prior to a man becoming an
economic being, he was driven by biological needs in satisfying his
quest for economic amenities. Early anthropological studies
revealed that of early activities and struggles of human beings
revolved around finding means to subsistence.

45. Deendayal Upadhyaya articulate that Nation is formed when a


group of people lives with a goal, an ideal, mission and a land as
motherland. He further explained four elements of nation are-
people who treat their country as motherland, desire to live
together or a collective will for a corporate life, dharma, or
constitution and ideal and values of life. Nation is permanent.
49. Rabindranath Tagore’s Nationalism compendium of his lectures
delivered in Japan and United states from May 1916 to April 1917
during First World War and the Swadeshi Movement in India.
Nationalism emphasizes his political and philosophical views on
human understanding and its weakness for power and material
hoardings.

53. The correct match will be:

Periyar: The Social Scientist was written by N. Velusamy.


Periyar: Father of the Tamil Race was a book by MD
Gopalakrishnan.
K. Veermani wrote the book Periyar and his Ideologies.
Dalit visions: The Anti Caste Movement and the Conduction of
an Indian Identity is authored by Gail Omvedt.

Hence, the correct answer will be C.

55. Ambedkar considered father of Indian Constitution. Ambedkar


sought to achieve social equality for untouchables and depressed
castes. Ambedkar in his last speech to the constituent assembly
asserted against hero-worship in politics which will lead to
dictatorship.

56. Aurobindo advocated for passive resistance. Aurobindo did not see
Congress constructive programmes like opening of schools and
colleges as affective. He proposed the Two constructive activities-
first is to create parallel institutions like school courts etc and
second is to boycott of school colleges and courts run by alien
ruler. He advocate for breaking laws if they were unjust and
oppressive i. e. sedition laws and laws related racial enmity.

57. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in his work ‘The Indian War of


Independence (1909)’ presented his interpretation of 1857 revolt as
the first war of the independence for India. Savarkar justified the
measures taken by participants of war for independence as the
opponent was aggressive, brutal and bent upon crushing the
Indians.
61. Raja Ram Mohan Roy challenged traditional Hindu culture and
indicated lines of progress for Indian society under British rule. he
was the precursor of the Brahmo Samaj, a social-religious reform
movement in the Indian subcontinent. He composed a tract
denouncing what he regarded as India’s superstition and its
religious divisions, both within Hinduism and between Hinduism
and other religions. As a remedy for those ills, he advocated a
monotheistic Hinduism in which reason guides the adherent to “the
Absolute Originator who is the first principle of all religions.
UNIT IV
Comparative Political Thought

Chapter 1: Approaches to Comparative Politics


Chapter 2: Colonialism and Decolonization
Chapter 3: Nationalism
Chapter 4: State Theory
Chapter 5: Political Regimes
Chapter 6: Constitution and Constitutionalism
Chapter 7: Democratization
Chapter 8: Theories of Development
Chapter 9: Structure of Power
Chapter 10: Actor and Processes
CHAPTER 1
Approaches to Comparative Politics

INTRODUCTION
Comparative politics emerged as a distinct field of political science in the US
in the late nineteenth-century. The evolution of comparative politics is seen as
guided by two revolutions: the behavioral revolution and post scientific
revolution during the cold war. According to G. K. Roberts, the historical
development of it may be roughly put into three phases—unsophisticated
(traditional), sophisticated, and increasingly sophisticated (modern).

EVOLUTION OF APPROACHES OF COMPARATIVE


POLITICAL ANALYSIS

Phase 1
In the initial phase, the contributions of great figures like Aristotle,
Machiavelli, Tocqueville, James Bryce, Moisey Ostrogorsky, and
Max Weber could be mentioned. The approach during this phase was
based on philosophical and normative values of western liberal democracies
carrying with it the baggage of racial and civilizational superiority and
assumed a prescriptive character for the former colonies. Hence this phase
reflects a Eurocentric approach to the study of Comparative politics.

Phase 2
In the second phase, the contributions of writers like Samuel H. Beer, M.
Hass, Bernard Ulam, and Roy C. Macridis could be elaborated. They
provided a realistic study to the governments, and much, concerned with the
various strategies of comparison like area studies, configurative approach,
institutional and functional comparisons, a problem-based orientation, and
methodological and conceptual problems.

Phase 3
The contributions of David Easton, Gabriel Almond, James C.
Coleman, Kael Deutsch, Edward Shils, David Apter, Lucian Pye,
Sidney Verba, and Myron Weiner were elaborated under the third phase
of comparative politics. The emergence of behaviouralists broadened the
notion of politics from legalism or theoretical to realism or politics in practice.
In the 1970s the new comparative politics led by the theme of
‘Developmentalism’ was the dominant paradigm which is closely related to US
foreign policy towards developing countries and its attempt to check the tides
of socialism/communism. New approaches and methodologies like the study
of political culture, political socialization, developmentalism, dependency and
interdependency, corporatism, and bureaucratic authoritarianism emerged.
This was followed by universal theory-building initiatives like David
Easton’s general system approach, Karl Deutsch’s Social mobilization,
Edward Shils’s center, and periphery, modernization by David Apter,
etc., and political development by Gabriel Almond, James C. Coleman,
Lucian Pye, and Sidney Verba.
In the post-1990s the notion of Globalization changed the very scope of
comparative studies, hence, the ‘historical sociology’ which tries to
understand the phenomena in a very broad or holistic context brought new
insights upon the evolution of comparative politics by focusing on the
comparison on smaller systems, civil society, and democratization
approaches.
INSTITUTIONAL APPROACH
The institutional approach in comparative politics is part of old and traditional
approaches, where the study of the political system is based on the
understanding that ‘institutional’ or formal structure is the independent
variable. Thinkers who adopted the institutional approach in their political
studies are concerned about the formal structure like the legislature,
executive, and judiciary. According to them, the legal system of a country
determines and clearly represents the nature of the political system in a
country. Some key features of the institutional approach are:
Majorly used till the 1950s as a method of political studies.
Consider Institutions as the major player in a political system.
Doesn’t recognize the importance of individual behavior in the political
system.
Important characteristics of the institutional approach according to Guy
Peter are—Legalism, Structuralism, Holism, Historicism, and
Normativity.
Characterized by a preoccupation with constitutions and legal-formal,
and normative values of liberal democracy.
Thinkers related to institutional approach—James Bryce, A.
Lawrence Lowell, Moisey Ostrogorsky, Vilfredo Pareto,
Mosca, Harman Finer, Carl Friedrich, and Duverger.
Roy Macarids in his book ‘The study of comparative government
(1955)’ criticized the institutional approach as non-comparative,
descriptive, static, parochial, and monographic.

Institutional Approach: Thinkers and Books

1.James Bryce 1. The American Commonwealth (1888) and


2. Modern Democracies (1921)

2.A. Lawrence 1. Government and Parties in Continental Europe


Lowell (1896) and

2. Public Opinion and Popular Government (1913)


3.Moisei Democracy and Organization of Political Parties
(1902)
Ostrogorski
Theory and Practice of Modern Government
4.Harman Finer
(1932)

5.Carl Frederich Constitutional Government and Democracy (1941)

POLITICAL CULTURE APPROACH


The political culture approach is part of modern political studies. Political
culture consists of attitudes, beliefs, values, and behavior of people towards
the political system. It became quite prevalent after the second world war and
was used for studying the political system of third-world countries. It believes
that in every country the behavior or political participation of people
represents a specific culture and that can be analyzed by empirical analysis of
these political societies. Political culture is part of the school of
Behaviouralism.
Alan Ball said, ‘Political culture is composed of the attitudes, beliefs,
emotions, and values of the society that relates to the political system and to
apolitical issues.’ The political culture approach is Empirical and scientific in
nature. Includes the study of the legal-institutional, family relation, mass
behavior, electoral system, power, influences, etc.
Gabriel Almond introduced the idea of political culture in modern
political studies in his article ‘Comparative Political System (1956)’. After this
Gabriel Almond and Sidney Verba’s ‘The civic Culture’ study in 1963
become the first systematic study of the political culture approach. They did a
comparative analysis of five countries: the US, the UK, Germany, Mexico, and
Italy on three orientations: Cognitive, Effective, and Evaluative. Gabriel
Almond and Sidney Verba classified three types of Political culture:

1. Parochial Cultures—in which citizens have neither knowledge of no


interest in politics. Examples: Mexico as well as African tribal societies.
2. Subject Cultures—in which citizens largely obey but participate
little. Examples: Germany, Italy, and China.
3. Participant Cultures—in which citizens understand and take part
in politics and voluntary associations. Examples: the US and the UK.
Samuel Finer classified political culture under the categories of mature
political culture, developed political culture, low political culture, and minimal
political culture. In 1966, Daniel Elazar proposed three kinds of political
culture—individualist, traditionalist, or moralist. Samuel P. Huntington
used the political-cultural approach at the global level during his study of
‘Clash of Civilizations’.

Political Culture Approach: Thinkers and Books

1.Gabriel 1. Politics of Developing Area (1960),


Almond
2. Comparative Politics-A development approach (1966),
3. The Civic Culture: Political Attitudes and Democracy in
Five Nations (1963)—co-authored with Sidney Verba,
and
4. Comparative Politics Today (1974).
2.Lucian Pye 1. Political Culture and Political Development (1965) and
2. Political Culture Revisited (1991)
3. ’Aspect of Political Development’
3.Sidney 1. Small Groups and Political Behaviour: A study of
Verba leadership (1961) and

2. Elites and the Idea of Equality: A Comparison of Japan,


Sweden, and the USA (1987).
4.Samuel P. The Clash of Civilizations (1996)
Huntington

POLITICAL ECONOMY APPROACH


It is the domain of political studies in which the political system is analyzed in
relation to the economic situation of society. It emerged as a reaction to
mercantilism in the eighteenth-century. Adam Smith is considered as the
father of classical political economy. Weingast and Wittman: ‘Political
Economy is the methodology of Economics applied to the analysis of Political
Behaviour and Institutions.’
David Ricardo forwarded the notion of comparative advantage of
political economy. He states that ‘a country should produce goods which it can
make at a lesser cost than others and import those which other nations can
generate more profitably’. This approach recognizes that economic decisions
are of fundamental importance to the state in economics and politics. Socialist
and Marxist theories contributed to the stream of political economy.
Development theories like Modernization by Talcott Parson, Rostow,
and Dependency theories by Samir Amin, A. G. Frank, etc., brought the
political economy approach to its climax in comparative politics.

POLITICAL ECONOMY: THINKERS AND BOOKS

1.Adam Smith 1. An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of
Nations (1776) and
2. The Invisible Hand.
2.David Hume 1. A Treatise of Human Nature (1739) and
2. An Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding (1748)
3.Francois 1. Quesnay’s Tableau Economique (1758)
Quesnay
4.John Stuart 1. Principles of Political Economy (1848)
Mill

5.Karl Marx 1. Das Capital (in English, Capital: A Critique of Political


Economy) (1867)

New-Institutional Approach
New-institutionalism originated in work by sociologist John Meyer in 1977.
American political scientist James G. March and Norwegian political
scientist Johan P. Olsen are often considered as the two leading founders
of the New-institutionalism. It tries to combine the interest of traditionalist
scholars with behaviouralist scholars. It studies how the institutional norms,
rules, etc., determines the actions and behavior of individual political actor in a
political system. It is part of Post-Behaviouralism
There are three variants of New-Institutionalism:

1. Rational Choice Institutionalism: has roots in economics an


organizational theory and examines institutions as systems of rules an
incentives.
2. Sociological Institutionalism: the way in which institutions create
meaning for individuals. It examines how institutions, unlike rational
choice concerned that institutional norms and rules are culturally
constructed.
3. Historical Institutionalism: this mixes the quantitative analysis of the
rational choice stream with the idea of culture-based thought of the
sociological stream.

Thinkers and Books


Co-authored by James G. March and Johan P. Olsen:

2. The New Institutionalism: Organizational factors in Political Life (1984),


2. Rediscovering Institutions: The Organizational Basis of Politics (1989),
and
2. Democratic Governance (1995).
BEHAVIOURALISM VS POST-BEHAVIOURALISM

Behaviouralism Post-Behaviouralism

1. Accepts the importance 1. Accepts both facts and values (value-


of facts and ignores the laden).
values (value-free).

2. Developed from the 2. Propounded by David Easton in his


ideas of Charles presidential address to the American
Merriam and David Political Science Association in 1969.
Easton during the
1950s.

3. Behaviouralism is an 3. It is an important reform in


intellectual reaction Behaviouralism. Developed
against the traditional Behaviouralism through new insights.
political approach.

4. Claims that pure science 4. Claims that intellectuals have a positive


and experimental role to play in society.
aspects have a greater
role to play in society.

5. Emphasis on 5. Emphasis upon unverifiable aspects,


methodology and and non-empirical methods based on
empirical aspects. theoretical data.

6. Priority to natural 6. Priority to Social sciences and is


sciences and limited to dynamic in nature.
certain phenomena.
Behaviouralism Post-Behaviouralism

7. It is not creative and 7. It is creative and is backed by the


backed by a quantifiable qualitative social reality of phenomena.
part of phenomena.

8. Believes in uniformity of 8. Believes in the diversity of human


human behavior. behavior.

9. Primacy to objective 9. Primacy to subjective and based on


based on observation, equal importance to social complexities,
and scientific verification. values, etc.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The evolution of comparative politics could be seen as
guided by the behavioral and scientific revolution.
Statement II: The initial phase in the evolution of comparative
politics was based on the philosophical and normative values of
Western liberal democracies.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

2. Consider the following statements with regard to the institutiona


approach to comparative politics.
A. This approach emphasizes the formal structure of governm
subordinates the individual preferences.
B. An institution has not been regarded as an office and agency havin
powers and functions.

C. It is characterized by normative and legal values of liberal democra


Choose the correct answer from the given options:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and C only
(d) All are correct statements.

3. In the 1970s the study of comparative politics was led by the notion tha
gave importance to third-world countries and used to check the tides o
socialism and communism; it was known by which of the followin
theme?
(a) Historical Sociology
(b) Developmentalism
(c) Corporatism
(d) Democratization

4. Which of the following books are not written by Harman Finer?


A. Constitutional Government and Democracy

B. Theory and Practice of Modern Government

C. The American Commonwealth


D. Modern Democracies
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
(a) All are correct.
(b) Only A, B, and C are correct.
(c) Only B, C, and D are correct.
(d) Only A, C, and D are correct.

5. In which of the following book Gabriel Almond provided three types of


political culture based on the study of five nations?
(a) Comparative Politics Today
(b) The Civic Culture
(c) Politics of Developing Area
(d) Comparative Politics; A development Approach

6. Which of the following approach emerged as a reaction to Mercantilism?


(a) New-Institutionalism
(b) Historical Approach
(c) Political Economy Approach
(d) Political culture Approach

7. Match the following:

Thinkers Concepts

1. Karl Deutsch 1. Systems

2. David Apter 2. Political Development

C. David Easton 3. Social Mobilization

D. James C. Coleman 4. Modernization

Choose the correct answer from the following:


(a) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
(b) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1
(c) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
(d) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

8. Given below are two statements one is labeled as Assertion (A), and th
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Behaviouralism emerged as a reaction against
traditional approaches by accepting the facts and ignoring the values.
Reason (R): Post-Behaviouralism is a reform within Behaviouralism
through new insights by accepting the notion of value-laden.
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

9. Which of the following are not among the variants of new


institutionalism?
(a) Rational Choice
(b) Historical
(c) Sociological
(d) Economical

10. Match the following books with their authors:

Book Author

1. Democratic Governance 1. John Stuart Mill

2. Principles of Political Economy 2. James Bryce

C.Constitutional Government and


Democracy 3. Carl Frederich

D.Modern Democracies 4. James G. March and Joha


Olsen

Choose the correct answer from the following options:


(a) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1
(b) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(c) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2
(d) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3

11. Consider the following statement regarding the approaches of


comparative politics:
i. The behavior revolution shifted the focus of political studies
‘Processes’ to ‘Institutions’.
ii. New-Institutionalism is a Post-Behavioural Approach.
iii. Political culture pushed for philosophical understanding, rather
empirical observation.
Identify the correct code:
(a) i, ii, and iii
(b) Only i and iii
(c) Only ii
(d) Only iii

12. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the Political Culture
Approach?
(a) Empirically observation.
(b) Focus to well- established Western democracies.
(c) Study of mass behavior.
(d) Empirical analysis of transitional societies.

13. Match List I with List II

List I List II (Books)


(Authors)

I.The Study of Comparative


1. James
Government
Bryce

II.Constitutional Government and


2. Sidney
Democracy
Verba
C.Carl III. The American
Friedrich Commonwealth
D.Roy IV. Elites and the Idea of Equality
Macarids

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(b) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(c) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(d) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

14. Which among the following statements is/are incorrect about the
Political Economy Approach?
a. It was developed due to the transformation in a transitional society.

b. Adam smith consolidated the idea of the classical political


approach.

c. Marxist school of thought does not apply the political econ


approach in their study of the State.
Code:
(a) Only (a) and (c)
(b) Only (b)
(c) Only (c)
(d) All of the above

15. Who among the following are not supporters of New-Institutional


Approach?
A. James G. March

B. A. Lawrence Lowell

C. Harman Finer
D. Johan P. Olsen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:
(a) A and D only
(b) A and C only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only

16. Arrange the evolution of approaches of comparative politics in


descending order:
i. New Institutionalism
ii. Political Culture
iii. Institutional Approaches
iv. Philosophical Approaches
Code:
(a) iii, ii, iv, i
(b) iv, iii, i, ii
(c) i, ii, iii, iv
(d) iv, iii, ii, i

17. ‘The Study of Comparative Government’ book was published in the


year:
(a) 1950
(b) 1953
(c) 1955
(d) 1957

18. Which among the following approaches is based on the assumption


that institutions have an autonomy and independent behavior pattern of
their own that subordinates’ individual preference?
(a) General System Approach
(b) Structural Functional Approach
(c) New-Institutional Approach
(d) Institutional Approach

19. What is the sub-title of the famous book ‘The Civic Culture’?
(a) A Comparison of the UK, US, Germany, Italy, and Mexico
(b) Political Attitudes and Democracy in Five Nations
(c) A Political Development Approaches
(d) None of the above.

20. Consider the following statement regarding New-Institutionalism:


i. It treats institutions as dependent variables.
ii. Rules and norms shaped political behavior and social change.
iii. It argues institutions are emerging within a particular sociocu
environment.
iv. Institutions are rational actors.
Options:
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.


(a) (d) (a) (c) (c) (c) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(c) (b) (b) (c) (a) (c) (c)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.
18. (d)
(b) (c) (d) (b) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Option B is incorrect because in the institutional approach an institutio


is regarded as offices and agencies having certain powers and functions
11. Option i is incorrect because behaviouralism shifted political studies
from institutions to processes. Option iii is also incorrect because
political culture focuses on empirical and scientific analysis.

12. Institutional approach is focused on well-established western


democracies, political culture approach is focused on transitional
societies or third-world countries.

16. Question is asking for arranging the evolution of comparative politics


approaches in reverse order (descending).
CHAPTER 2
Colonialism and Decolonization

INTRODUCTION
Colonialism is a process in which a foreign power or country (colonizer) takes
over the control of authority and administration of another country (colonized)
for economical exploitation and cultural supremacy. Colonialism remained an
important part of world history since ancient times. The age of modern
colonialism started around 1500 CE when European nations discovered the
sea routes and began colonization in Asia, Africa, North American, South
America, Australia, etc. Colonialism results in control over the life of natives in
political, economic, cultural, and social spheres. It is more subtle whereas
imperialism is more formal and aggressive.
The twentieth-century marked the beginning of the process of
decolonization and led to the consolidation of a new world order with a Nation-
State system. After Second World War many countries achieved
independence. Decolonization may take several forms, namely attainment of
independence, incorporation with another state or creation of a ‘free
association’. Decolonization took place through peaceful negotiations,
aggressive revolts or non-violent protests.

FORMS OF COLONIALISM

Type of Features Example


Colonialism
Type of Features Example
Colonialism
Settler # Large-scale immigration. Australia, Canada,
Colonialism # Replace the existing native and the US.
population by sending many people.
# Purpose of Staying as well as
cultivating the land.
# Patrick Wolfe presented this
concept.
Exploitation # Small-scale immigration. India, Vietnam,
Colonialism # Economic exploitation of natural Congo, etc.
resources, raw materials, and
labour.
Surrogate # Settlement project supported by a Jewish settlement in
Colonialism colonial power. Palestine with the
# Settlers do not come from the assistance of the
same ethnic group as the ruling British empire.
powers.
# Scott Atran coined the term.
Plantation # Colonial settlers undertake the East Coast
Colonialism mass production of a single crop, American colonies—
such as cotton, tobacco, coffee, or Virginia, South
sugar. Carolina, and
# Large-scale enslaved labour Georgia.
operations.
Internal # Source of exploitation comes from Afghanistan, Algeria,
Colonialism within the State. Philippines, Sri
# Uneven effects of economic Lanka, Thailand,
development on a regional basis. etc.
# Robert Blauner and Pablo
Gonzalez Casanova developed this
concept.

STAGES OF COLONIALISM
There were three distinct stages of colonialism. Some countries went through
one to two stages only. India went through only the first and second stages,
Egypt only through the third stage, and Indonesia through the first and third
stages. These stages lasted over two hundred years.
First Stage: Monopoly Trade and Plunder
The first stage had two objectives. To make it more profitable indigenously
manufactured goods were to be bought cheaply. For this competitors were to
be kept out, whether local or European. Territorial conquest kept local traders
out of the lucrative trade while rival European companies were defeated in
war. Secondly, the political conquest of the colony enabled plunder and
seizure of surplus i.e., the drain of wealth from India to Britain during the first
stage was considerable.

Second Stage: Era of Free Trade


The interest of the industrial bourgeoisie of the metropolis in the colony was in
the markets available for manufactured goods. For this, it was necessary to
increase exports from the colony to pay for the purchase of manufactured
imports. In this stage changes in the economy, polity, administration, social,
cultural, and ideological structure were initiated to enable exploitation in a new
way.

Third Stage: Era of Finance Capital


The third stage saw an intense struggle for markets and sources of raw
materials and food grains. Large-scale accumulation of capital in the
metropolis necessitated the search for avenues for investment abroad. These
interests were best served where the imperial powers had colonies. This led
to more intensive control over the colony to protect the interest of the imperial
power. colonies were not able to absorb metropolitan capital or increase their
exports of raw materials because of overexploitation in the earlier stages. A
strategy of limited modernization was implemented to take of this problem.

IDEA OF NEO-COLONIALISM
Neo-Colonialism was coined by French philosopher Jean-Paul Sartre in
1956, it was first used by Kwame Nkrumah in the context of African
countries undergoing decolonisation in the 1960s. Neo-Colonialism is the
continuation or re-imposition of imperialist rule by a state over another
nominally independent state. Neo-Colonialism takes the form of economic
imperialism, globalization, cultural imperialism, and conditional aid to influence
or control a developing country instead of the previous colonial methods of
direct military control or indirect political control. Neo-Colonialism differs from
standard globalisation and development aid in that it typically results in a
relationship of dependence, subservience, or financial obligation towards the
neo-colonialist nation.

BEGINNING OF DECOLONIZATION
The twentieth-century was the era of decolonization. at the end of the
twentieth-century, the world was no longer Eurocentric. In the first decade of
the twentieth-century nationalism posed a challenge in Asia and Africa. They
were encouraged by the ability of Japan, a small Asian country, to inflict a
crushing defeat on Russia, a European power. Some of the well-known
leaders of the nationalist movements were Sun Yat–Sen in China, Arabi-
Pasha in Egypt, and Bal Gangadhar Tilak in India. These movements
were led in these stages by middle-class English-educated elites whose
demand for a say in the running of their countries was changing into a
demand for independence. The active period of decolonization was between
1945–60, three dozen new states in Asia and Africa achieved autonomy or
outright independence from their European colonial rulers.

FACTORS BEHIND DECOLONIZATION


The following were the primary Factors that led to the process of
decolonization:

1. The b>Atlantic Charter: The Atlantic Charter was a documen


developed in 1941 that implicated the objectives of the allied power
they must win the Second World War. One of those regulations of tha
charter was that all people had the right to self-determination. In othe
words, all people countries had the right to govern themselves.
2. Aftermath or Consequence of the Second World War 2:
Many of the colonies offered resources and manpower to their colonial
resources during the Second World War, since they thought they
would attain their independence if they offered assistance because
that was what they vowed in the Atlantic Charter and by their colonial
rulers.
3. Anti-Colonial Nationalism: Anti-Colonial sentiments depended
on colonies, and they wished to become independent and were ready
to do whatever it took until they obtained it.
4. The Emergence of Two New Superpowers: Post–Second
World War, the US and the Soviet Union sprung up as the two
superpowers of the world. Both nations had one thing in common, they
both were against colonial rule, and they put pressure on colonial
powers to end their colonial rule.
5. Nationalism: It is one of the vital causes for decolonization to be
formalized since nationalist movements consolidate the emancipator
project. Within this expression there are three major aspects:
(i) Opposition to the Colonizing Nations: This takes place whe
conquering nations assume all the commercial and social be
displacing the subjugated nations, who end up rebelling to uphold
rights.
(ii) Democratic Ideology: The concept of supremacy and auton
are disseminated and assimilated, which cause patriotic sentiment
are exhibited in two ways. The first is conservative on the past and
relevance of culture, while progressive nationalism seeks to copy
positive actions of power states.
(iii) Radical Animosity: The propagation of the concepts of liberty
democracy establishes the denial of extreme ideas. For this rea
colonies seek to shed the supremacy and influence of empires.

LIST OF IMPORTANT BOOKS AND AUTHORS


1. The Scramble for Africa by Thomas Pakenham
2. Settler Colonialism and the Transformation of Anthropology: The
Politics and Poetics of an Ethnographic Event by Patrick Wolfe
3. Neo-Colonialism: The Last Stage of Imperialism by Kwame
Nkrumah
4. Things Fall Apart by Chinua Achebe
5. Heart of Darkness by Joseph Conrad
6. The Age of Empire, (1875–1914) by Eric Hobsbawm
7. Culture and Imperialism by Edward Said
8. Colonialism and Culture by Nicholas Dirks
9. Orientalism by Edward Said
10. The White Man’s Burden by Rudyard Kipling
11. Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism By Vladimir Ilyich
Lenin
12. The Wretched of the Earth by Frantz Fanon
13. The Shock Doctrine: The Rise of Disaster Capitalism by Naomi
Klein
14. Naked Imperialism by John Bellamy Foster
15. How Europe Underdeveloped Africa by Walter Rodney
16. The Surrogate Colonization of Palestine (1917–39) by Scott Atran
17. Colonialism: A Theoretical Overview by Jurgen Oster Hammel
18. Internal Colonialism and National Development by Pablo Gonzalez
Casanova

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who is the author of ‘Colonialism: A Theoretical Overview’?
(a) Immanuel Waller Stein
(b) Kwame Nkrumah
(c) David Birmingham
(d) Jurgen Oster Hammel

2. Who said that—‘Where neo-colonialism exists the power exercisin


control is often the State which formerly ruled the territory in question
but this is not necessarily so.’?
(a) Frantz Fanon
(b) Kwame Nkrumah
(c) Ashish Nandy
(d) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code
given below:
(Type of (Features)
Colonialism)
(a)Settler (i)Exploitation of
Colonialism resources.
(b)Exploitation (ii) In a newly independent country.
Colonialism
(c)Surrogate (iii) It replaces any existing population
Colonialism
(d)Internal (iv) Most of the settlers are not from th
Colonialism colonial ruling power.

Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

b. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

c. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)


d. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

4. The ‘Internal Colonialism’ theory is most associated with:


(a) Joseph McCarthy
(b) Pablo Gonzalez Casanova
(c) Frantz Fanon
(d) E. M. Forster

5. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other a
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Decolonization is referred to as the fragmentation of
colonies by Sovereign states in America, Asia, and the African Regions.
Reason (R): Independence Movements in colonial States are the only
reason behind the decolonization.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

6. Match the following:

Thinkers Books

1. Naomi Chosky 1. Culture and Imperialism

2. Edward Said 2. Hegemony or Survival

c.John Bellamy Foster 3. Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism

d.Vladimir Ilyich Lenin 4. Naked Imperialism

Codes:
(a) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3
(d) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2

7. Which of the following are not the reasons for the emergence o
colonialism?
A. Discovery of the sea route.

B. Rise of consciousness against nationalism.

C. Industrial development & Material requirements.


D. Internal disarticulation of the European economy.
Choose the answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and D only
(c) B and D only
(d) C and D only

8. Who wrote the book Heart of Darkness?


(a) Edward Said
(b) Frantz Fanon
(c) Joseph Conrad
(d) None of these

9. Who first use the term neo-colonialism?


(a) Joseph Conrad
(b) Kwame Nkrumah
(c) Frantz Fanon
(d) Antonio Gramsci

10. Which of the following are the reasons for the emergence of
decolonization?
A. The historical development of capitalism as a world system.

B. Rise of consciousness against imperialism.

C. Western education and literature in the colonial country.


D. The change in position in the world economy of the metropolis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) C and D only

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:

(Type of Colonialism) (Areas/Regions)


(a)Settler Colonialism (i)East Coast American Colonies
(b)Exploitation Colonialism (ii) Austral
(c)Surrogate Colonialism (iii) Congo
(d)Internal Colonialism (iv) Philippi

(a) (b) (c) (d)


a. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

b. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

c. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)


d. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 10. 11.
(d) (b) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a)
2. 4. 6.
8. (c)
(b) (b) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Kwame Nkrumah in his book ‘Neo-Colonialism, the Last Stage o


Imperialism’ said that where neo-colonialism exists the power exercising
control is often the State which formerly ruled the territory in question
but this is not necessarily so. For example, in the case of South Vietnam
the former imperial power was France, but neo-colonial control of th
State has now gone to the US.

4. In his classic book Democracy in Mexico (1965), for the first time Pabl
Gonzalez Casanova refers to Internal Colonialism, he draws attention t
the dangers of using European concepts and categories withou
adapting them to the realities of countries of colonial origin.

5. Reason statement is incorrect because along with the independenc


movement, there were other factors also which contributed to th
process of decolonization.
CHAPTER 3
Nationalism

INTRODUCTION
Nationalism is an idea and movement that holds that nations should be
congruent with the state. As a movement, nationalism tends to promote the
interest of a particular nation, especially with the aim of gaining and
maintaining the nation’s sovereignty over its homeland to create a nation-
state. Nationalism has been called the religion of the nineteenth and
twentieth-centuries. As a way of thinking about the world, it emphasizes the
importance of nations in explaining historical developments and analyzing
contemporary politics and claims that ‘national character’ is a pervasive factor
differentiating human beings.
Nationalism assumes that all human beings should have one and only one
nationality which should be their primary factor of identity and loyalty. This
means that people should see themselves as member of a nationality and be
prepared to make any sacrifices required to defend and advance the interest
of a nation. As a doctrine of universal applicability, nationalism claims that all
people should give their highest loyalty to their own nation.

ERNEST GELLNER’S THEORY OF NATIONALISM


Ernest Gellner was a British–Czech philosopher and Social Anthropologist.
He gave the theory of Nationalism in which he explains nationalism as the
imposition of a high culture on society replacing local, low cultures and most
multiculturalism. In his key work ‘Nation and Nationalism (1983)’, he argued
that in industrial societies instead of cultural diversity, shared culture became
important and develops a sense of commonness and nationalism. Ernest
Gellner believes that nationalism strives for one culture or ethnicity under
one roof, or ‘state’. For Ernest Gellner, this is the most important principle
of successful states. Ernest Gellner analyzed nationalism from a historical
perspective. He saw the history of humanity culminating in the discovery of
modernity, nationalism being a key functional element.

BENEDICT ANDERSON’S CONCEPT OF


NATIONALISM
Benedict Anderson was Anglo–Irish Political Scientist. He is best known
for his book ‘Imagined Community: Reflections on the Origin and Spread of
Nationalism (1983)’. In this key work, he gave the concept of ‘Imagined
Community’. Benedict Anderson argued that ‘Nations are nothing but
Imagination.’ A nation is imagined because the members of even the smallest
nation will never know most of their fellow members meet them or even near
them. Benedict Anderson further argued that the creation of imagined
communities became possible because of ‘Print Capitalism’. While explaining
Nationalism, Benedict Anderson adheres to the modernization argument
explaining the origin of nations. In other words, nations developed as a
necessary component of industrial society.
Breaking from Ernest Gellner’s concept of nationalism, Benedict
Anderson places greater emphasis on the constructed nature of culture and
on the role of print capitalism in the development of nations. On the cultural
front, Benedict Anderson argues that pre-national culture was religious
culture. Nations replaced this religious culture with their own uniquely
constructed national cultures.

TYPES OF NATIONALISM
Liberal Nationalism: Liberal nationalism can be understood by applying
liberal ideas of individualism to the nation. Liberal nationalists see nations as
entities with their own rights, if individuals are entitled to determine their own
destiny, so are nations. For the liberal nationalist, nationhood is inclusive and
open. This is based on a civic understanding of nationhood—being committed
and loyal to the nation’s values is the primary requirement for membership, so
anyone who identifies passionately with the values of a nation should be
permitted to join it. Nationalism in western countries like the US, UK, etc,
represents the principle of Liberal Nationalism.
Anti-Colonial Nationalism: During the colonial period, when
European powers ruled over many regions in Africa and Asia, the native
people began to develop a sense of self-determination and a desire for
national liberation. With this came a form of nationalism that was specifically
anti-colonial that rejected the rule of the colonial powers and sought
independence from colonial interference. Nationalism in post-colonial
countries like India, Sri Lanka, Vietnam, etc, is based on the Anti-colonial
feeling.
Cultural Nationalism: In cultural nationalism, the nation is defined by
a shared culture and a common language, rather than on the concepts of
common ancestry or race. It refers to ideas and practices that relate to the
intended revival of a purported national community’s culture. John
Gottfried Herder is considered as the father of cultural nationalism. John
Gottfried Herder presented the nation as the primordial scene from which
the best of human endeavour owed its provenance, and which therefore
obliged its cultivation through the recovery and celebration of its history and
culture. Cultural nationalism is most clearly identified via symbols of national
pride. This may be contrasted with the ascribed characteristics surrounding
race and ethnicity. The history of cultural nationalism begins in late
eighteenth-century Europe. The main proponents of cultural nationalism are
John Gottfried Herder and Eric Woods. Nationalism in Germany is an
example of Cultural Nationalism.
Expansionist Nationalism: There is no clear unifying philosophy
behind expansionist nationalism, but these forms of nationalism tend to exist
alongside a belief in chauvinism. National chauvinism is the belief in the
superiority of one nation, and the inferiority of other nations. It tends to be
explicitly racialist, where members of the nation are often restricted to those of
a specific race. Expansionist nationalism is typically associated with the
fascist regimes in 1930 and 1940 in Germany, Italy, and Japan, but could also
be seen in the scramble for Africa exercised by the European powers in the
nineteenth-century.

EUROPEAN V/S NON-EUROPEAN NATIONALISM

European Nationalism Non-European


Nationalism
1)In Europe nationalism is associated with 1)In Non-European nations
the birth of a nation-state. especially in Asia and Africa
Nationalism is associated
with colonial rule.
2)The first full manifestation of modern 2)In Non-European Nations it
nationalism occurred in seventeenth- began after First World War
century England, during the puritan as a movement to oppose
revolution. England had become the colonialism and gain
leading nation in a scientific spirit, in freedom from foreign rule.
commercial enterprise and in political
thought and activity.
3)The rise and spread of nationalism gave 3)The rise and spread of
people a new sense of identity and unity. It nationalism in non-
also led to increased competition among European countries give
nation-states. people the feeling of
oneness and unity that they
fight against the imperial
power and achieve freedom.
4)Nationalism also led to conflict within 4)Nationalism also led to
empires. Multinational territories such as conflict in non-European
the Ottoman empire and Austria-Hungary countries like the partition of
combined many ethnic groups under one India in 1947 into two
rule. nations India and Pakistan.

LIST OF IMPORTANT BOOKS AND AUTHORS


Imagined Communities: Reflections of the origin and Spread of
Nationalism by Benedict Anderson
Nationalism: Five Roads to Modernity by Liah Greenfeld
Nations and Nationalism by Ernest Gellner
Nations and Nationalism Since 1780 by Eric. J. Hobsbawm
Nationalism and Modernity by Anthony D. Smith
Nationalism and Liberty by Hans Kohn
The Idea of Nationalism by Hans Kohn
Notes on Nationalism by George Orwell
The Ethnic Origins of Nations by Anthony D. Smith
Nations Before Nationalism by John Alexander Armstrong

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Read the Statement carefully:
Statement I: Print capitalism brought nationalism to western
countries.
Statement II: A nation is an imagined community because people
never know their fellow members face to face or personally.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

2. Who among the following has given the instrumental theory o


nationalism?
(a) Paul R. Brass
(b) Partha Chatterjee
(c) Ernest Gellner
(d) Eric J. Hobsbawm

3. Who among the following has written an essay titled ‘Whose Imagine
Community’?
(a) Ernest Gellner
(b) Anthony D. Smith
(c) Partha Chatterjee
(d) None of the these

4. Who is considered as the father of cultural nationalism?


(a) Plato
(b) John Gottfried Herder
(c) Eric J. Hobsbawm
(d) V. D. Savarkar

5. Nationalism is?
(a) a belief that all people are equal regardless of where they live.
(b) a belief that it is highly important where you live for your understan
of the world.
(c) conducive to peace and prosperity.
(d) likely to lead to conflict between nations.

6. Which one of the following statements about Non-European nationalism


is not correct?
(a) The nationalism of these nations required resistance to col
domination to survive.
(b) Anti-Colonialism Consciousness became the instrument for gener
nationalism.
(c) Nationalism was individualistic and civic in the sense that nat
identity was identical to citizenship.
(d) All of the above.

7. Who said that ‘Nationalism is an ideological movement for the attainmen


or maintenance of Self Government.’?
(a) Anthony D. Smith
(b) Ernest Gellner
(c) Hans Kohn
(d) Benedict Anderson

8. Which among the following statement is correct about cultura


nationalism:
1. Cultural nationalists emphasize heritage or culture, rather than
ethnicity or institutions of statehood.

2. The history of cultural nationalism begins in late nineteenth-century E

3. Johann Herder argued that language determines thought and that


and cultural traditions are the ties that create a nation.

Choose the correct option:


(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
9. Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that?
(a) they are part of different regions.
(b) they should aim for luxuries.
(c) they fight amongst themselves.
(d) they are all part of the same nation.

10. When John Gottfried Herder published the book ‘Treatise on the Origin
of Languages’?
(a) 1772
(b) 1775
(c) 1796
(d) 1770

11. Who was the author of the book ‘Nationalism and Liberty’?
(a) Anthony D. Smith
(b) Ernest Gellner
(c) Hans Kohn
(d) Benedict Anderson

12. Who said, ‘Nationalism is the religion of the Modern States.’?


(a) Anthony D. Smith
(b) Ernest Gellner
(c) Hans Kohn
(d) Arnold J. Toynbee

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 12.
(a) (c) (b) (a) (d) (c) (d)
2. 4. 6. 8.
10. (a)
(d) (b) (c) (d)
Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Instrumentalist Theories of Nationalism suggest that elites use an


abuse the identities and ideas of the masses on behalf of, and becaus
of, the interests of elites, especially through the ‘invention of traditions
This idea was promoted by Eric J. Hobsbawm.

3. In 1991, Partha Chatterjee wrote the article ‘Whose Imagine


Community’. Partha Chatterjee shows how middle-class elites firs
imagined the nation into being in this spiritual dimension and the
readied it for political contest, all the while ‘normalizing’ the aspirations o
the various marginal groups that typify the spiritual sphere.

6. Option C is incorrect about Non-European nationalism becaus


nationalism was individualistic and civic in the sense that is a feature o
European nationalism.

7. According to Anthony D. Smith, ‘Nationalism is an ideological movemen


for the attainment or maintenance of Self Government’.

8. Option B is incorrect because the history of cultural nationalism begins i


late eighteenth-century Europe.

10. In his book ‘Treatise on the Origin of Languages’ John Gottfried Herder
argued that language determines thought and that language and
cultural traditions are the ties that create a nation.

12. According to Arnold J. Toynbee, ‘Nationalism is the religion of the


Modern States’. Therefore, it is an integral part of the thoughts and
actions of the people of modern States.
CHAPTER 4
State Theory

INTRODUCTION
The object of the study of comparative politics is to understand similarities and
differences in the domestic, or internal, politics of states and develop
theoretical explanations between them and seek to test these explanations
against new cases. The state is central to the study of comparative politics
because it defines the territorial framework and institutional landscape within
which these politics unfold.
A state is a planned political structure that operates under a government.
States may be categorized as independent if they are not dependent on, or
subject to, any other power. States are called as subject to external dominion,
or hegemony if their ultimate sovereignty lies in another state. A state is a
territorial, constitutional community that forms a part of the federation. Such
states differ from sovereign states in that they have transferred a portion of
their sovereign powers to a federal government.

CAPITALIST STATE VS SOCIALIST STATE

Capitalist State Socialist State


Originated in the sixteenth-century Originated in the eighteenth-century
in Europe. in French Revolution.
A state is a tool for the The state acts as a principal agency
establishment and maintenance of for the maintenance of cooperation
the hegemony of the rich and the and coordination among people.
powerful over the poor.
Principle of individual rights. Principles of equality.
Capitalist State Socialist State
System based on private ownership, System based on social ownership
market allocation and and planned coordination of the
entrepreneurship, efficiency, and economy, the irrationality of
rationality. capitalism.
The economy is substantially run by The economy is shared and owned
individuals who own and operate by the government or cooperatives.
private companies.
The income is determined by free Income in such types of systems is
market forces. equally distributed among all based
on needs.
Prices are determined by the Prices are determined or set by the
demand and supply market. government.
The free market competition Government-owned businesses
encourages efficiency and have less incentive for efficiency
innovation. and innovation.
Limited taxes are based on High taxes are necessary to pay for
individual income. public services.
State based on the freedom to State-based freedom to follow any
follow any religion. religion but under this state, the
state encourages

POST–COLONIAL STATE
Those new nation-states that emerged out of the process of decolonization in
the post–second world war period are known as post–colonial states. The
post–colonial state has been categorized in two different ways, first is its
political and economic agenda and second is its infrastructural capacity. The
terms post–colonial and post–colonialism first appear in scholarly journals in
the mid–1980s. The study of post–colonial theory about the controlling power
of representation in colonialized societies began in 1950 with the work of
Frantz Fanon and reached a climax in the late 1970s with Edward Said’s
orientalism which led to the development of the colonialist discourse theory in
the work of critics such as Gayatri Chakraborty Spivak and Homi
Bhabha. Theoretical studies of post–colonial focus on the reading and
writing of literature written in previously and currently colonized countries. Key
concepts related to post–colonialism are othering, diaspora,
hybridity/syncretism, double consciousness, subaltern, mimicry, history,
nation, race, gender, black feminism, and neo-colonialism.

Thinkers and Thoughts


1. Edward Said—In his book Orientalism, he stated that the existence
and development of every culture impel the existence of a different
and inevitably competitive ‘other’ or ‘alter ego’. Therefore, Europe, in
attempting to construct its self-image, created the middle east (the
‘Orient’) as the ultimate ‘other’. The middle east (the ‘Orient’) and the
west (the ‘Occident’) do not correspond to any stable reality that exists
as a natural fact but are merely products of construction.
2. Gayatri Chakraborty Spivak—She introduced the terms such as
‘Essentialism’ and ‘Strategic Essentialism’. An Indian literary critic and
theorist. She was best known for her famous article Can Subaltern
Speak? which is considered as a founding text of post–colonialism,
and for her translation of Jacques Derrida’s Grammatology.
3. Homi Bhabha—An Indian post–colonial theorist realized that the
post–colonial world should vaporize spaces of mixing spaces where
truth and authenticity move aside for ambiguity. He offers that the
space of hybridity offers the most profound challenge to colonialism.
4. Frantz Fanon—Was a psychiatrist, philosopher, revolutionary, and
author from Martinique. He was famous for his writing on the issue of
decolonization and the psychopathology of colonization.

WELFARE STATE
The welfare state functions in a democratic way. Democracy is a fundamental
basis of the welfare state. The welfare state provides basic minimum services
to its citizens like law and order. Such a state opts for a middle path between
individualism and socialism, valuing both the liberty of an individual and the
interests of society. The welfare state provides equal rights to all irrespective
of caste, creed, and religion. Such a state always seeks development through
planning following the mixed economy. The welfare state creates a conducive
environment for the moral development of an individual.

Thinkers and Thoughts


William Beveridge—Father of the welfare state and famous for his
1942 report on Social Insurance and Allied Services.
T. H. Green—His structural understanding of poverty and inequality
eventually points to the failure of capitalism to provide universal welfare
as a useful state.
Otto von Bismarck—He established the first welfare state in
modern industrial society, with social welfare legislation.

GLOBALIZATION AND NATIONS-STATE


Globalization has become a major feature of contemporary social life.
Globalization changes the original condition of the nation-state but still brings
them some positive influence. It influences the nation-state’s territorial
integrity and sovereignty and impacts its economic development and national
culture. The notion of economic globalization in a present context which seeks
economic integrity also threatens the nation-state’s sovereignty and integrity.
Globalization helps the nation-state to develop better by giving chances
and challenges, restructuring politics, economic penetration and
communication between multinational culture and national culture.
International institutions like WTO, IMF, and World Bank regulates the nation-
state economy and makes their national foreign exchange and interest rate
fluctuate. Globalization can make people migrate to other countries, hence
leading to a change in the nation-state’s local labour market leading to an
increase in unemployment.

IMPORTANT BOOKS AND AUTHORS

Authors Books
Edward Said Orientalism (1978) and
Culture and Imperialism (1993).
Gayatri Chakraborty In Other Worlds: Essays in Cultural Politics (1987),
Spivak Thinking Academic Freedom in Gendered Post-
Coloniality (1992), A Critique of Post-Colonial
Reason (1999), and
Death of a Discipline (2003).
Authors Books
Homi Bhabha Identity: The Real me (1987), The Location of
Culture (1994), and
Hybridity and Discursive Unrest in Late Colonial
Anglophone Prose of South Asia (1880–1950).
Frantz Fanon The Wretched of the Earth (1961), Black skin White
Masks (1952), A Dying Colonialism (1959), and
Towards the African Revolution (1964).
T. H. Green Lectures on the Principle of Political Obligations
(1885) and
Prolegomena to Ethics (1883).
Roland Robertson Globalization: Social Theory and Global Culture
(1992).

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Consider the following statements regarding the capitalist state:
(a) The state acts as an agent for the maintenance of cooperation am
people.
(b) Based on individual rights overriding the principle of equality.
(c) Characterized by free market competition and market forces.
(d) Prices are determined by the government.
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
(a) All are correct.
(b) Only A and B are correct.
(c) Only B and C are correct.
(d) Only C and D are correct.

2. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to the post-colonial theory of state nation-
states emerged because of decolonization in third-world countries.
Reason (R): Post-colonialism was based on awareness of the social,
psychological, and cultural inferiority enforced by being colonized state.
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

3. Concepts such as diaspora, hybridity, double consciousness, and blac


feminism are associated with which of the following theory of the state?
(a) Capitalist State
(b) Socialist State
(c) Welfare State
(d) Post-colonial State

4. Edward Said introduced the terminology of ‘Orient’ and ‘Occident’ i


post-colonial studies. ‘Occident’ means:
(a) The Middle East
(b) South Asia
(c) The West
(d) West Asia

5. Match List I with List II :

Authors Books
I.Critique of Post-Colonial
1. Frantz FanonI. Reason

2. Edward Said II.The Wretched of the Earth

C.Gayatri Chakraborty III. Nation and


Spivak Nationalization
D.Homi Bhabha IV.Orientalism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(b) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(c) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(d) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I

6. Match the following thinkers with their concepts.

Thinkers Concept

1. Gayatri Chakraborty Spivak 1. Psychopathology

2. Frantz Fanon 2. Hybridity

C. Edward Said 3. Subaltern

D. Homi Bhabha 4. Orientalism

Choose the correct options from the following:


(a) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(b) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3
(c) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(d) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3

7. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the welfare state from th


following:
A. The state does not provide equal rights to all people.

B. The state seeks development through planning following the mixed e

C. The state is backed by a feature of a totalitarian state.


D. Such kind of state creates a conducive environment for the m
development of an individual.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) All are correct.
(b) Only A and C are correct.
(c) Only B and C are correct.
(d) Only C and D are correct.

8. Consider the following statements regarding globalization.


A. Globalization includes features such as cross-border, integra
interdependence of nations.

B. The notion of globalization has penetrated into different aspec


business, politics, economics, culture, and identity.

C. It does not change the original condition of nation-states but b


positive influence.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only A and B are correct.
(b) Only B and C are correct.
(c) Only A and C are correct.
(d) All are correct.

9. Who is the author of the book ‘Death of a Discipline’?


(a) T. H. Green
(b) Edward Said
(c) Gayatri Chakraborty Spivak
(d) Frantz Fanon

10. Which of the following book was written by Edward Said?


(a) Death of a Discipline
(b) Culture and Imperialism
(c) A Dying Colonialism
(d) The Location of Culture

Answer Key
1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (c) (b)
2. 4.
6. (a)
(a) (c)
CHAPTER 5
Political Regimes

INTRODUCTION
According to Roy Macarids, ‘Political Regime embodies the set of rules,
procedures, and understandings that formulate the relationship between the
governors and the governed.’ In modern times, political regimes are majorly
categorized as democratic regimes and non-democratic regimes. The
democratic regime types can be classified as electoral democracy, liberal
democracy, majoritarian democracy, and participatory democracy. The non-
democratic regime types are patrimonialism, bureaucratic authoritarianism,
military dictatorship, totalitarianism, and fascism.

DEMOCRATIC REGIMES
The democratic political system is known since the days of ancient Greek, the
purest form of democracy through mass meetings was practised in Greek city-
states. In modern political thought, the idea of democracy was developed with
the inclusion of the idea of rule of law (constitutional) and universal adult
franchise. The standards of democratic regimes in modern times are:
respect for basic individual liberties,
accountability through institutionalized participation and contestation,
refrain from ‘tyranny of the majority’ and respect the opinion of
minorities,
a free and fair system of election,
governed by rule of law and not by the whims of a leader and parties,
and
the government must respond in some way to citizens’ demands.
In terms of operations, democracy is either direct or indirect, but in respect of
its nature, it has many forms such as liberal, electoral, majoritarian,
participatory democracy, etc.

ELECTORAL DEMOCRACY
An electoral democratic system ensures the procedural aspects of democratic
values like the election in regular intervals, one person one vote, and fair
opportunities for contesting elections for all political parties. The lack of
empowerment of the masses and activism and awareness usually creates a
situation of populism in electoral democratic regimes. Here elections just
become a means to achieve the popular support of the people and ignore the
aspect of power sharing principle. The electoral aspect of democracy is
available in almost every form of the democratic system, either liberal
democracy or social democracy. The major methods used for the process of
election involve a majoritarian system or proportional representation system.
Detailed information about the model of the electoral system will be available
in Chapter 10 of Unit 4.

LIBERAL DEMOCRACY
It is a type of democracy that operates under the principles of liberal political
ideology and put individual liberty as its foremost objective. They often grow
upon a constitution either formally written or uncodified to delineate the
powers of government. It may be a constitutional monarchy such as Australia,
Belgium, Canada, Denmark, Japan, Norway, UK, Netherlands, and Spain, or
a republic such as France, Italy, Ireland, India, and the US. It may have a
parliamentary system (UK), a presidential system (USA) or a semi-
presidential system (France). It emphasizes the separation of power, an
independent judiciary and a system of checks and balances.

MAJORITARIAN DEMOCRACY
It involves a form of democracy which is based on the majority rule of the
society and is criticized for excluding the voice of the minority. This form of
democracy has the inherent danger of turning into ‘tyranny of the majority’ and
therefore a consensus democracy was developed in response that
emphasizes rule by as many people as possible to make government
inclusive, with most of the support from society merely being a minimal
threshold. It can be defined as a democracy which is based on the rule of the
majority of citizens. The majoritarianism in Sri Lanka by the Sinhala
community over the minority Tamil is an appropriate example of this form.

PARTICIPATORY DEMOCRACY
It is a type of democracy which favours the participation of people in the
decision-making process. It is seen as the opposite of an authoritarian or
majoritarian democracy. It prefers to empower community-based grassroots
politics and ensure substantial democratic principles. It emphasizes
deliberation and discussion rather than only voting. Switzerland can be
considered as one of the most relevant examples of the participative
democratic model in contemporary times.

NON-DEMOCRATIC REGIMES
In history as well as in contemporary times would have seen a different
version of the undemocratic system. The main feature of the non-democratic
political system is that the state authority is not controlled by the people of the
country, but instead what is good for the people is determined and decided by
the government. The major types and subtypes of non-democratic regimes
are as follows:
TOTALITARIANISM
A totalitarian regime is defined as one in which the government attempts to
shape the interests and identities of its citizens by articulating a coherent
ideology, employing extensive efforts to coercively mobilize support for the
regime, and imposing tight restrictions on both social and political pluralism. A
totalitarian regime tries to control every aspect of people’s life. They control
the personal lifestyle, thoughts and every source of knowledge and
information.
The essence of totalitarian regimes lies in ideology. Most totalitarian
regimes are based on the single-party system. For example, communist
totalitarian regimes are Joseph Stalin’s rule in the erstwhile USSR and
communist regimes in Cuba, Vietnam, Mongolia, Ethiopia, Angola,
Mozambique, Nicaragua, etc. At present time North Korean and Taliban rule
in Afghanistan can be considered as an example of totalitarianism.

FASCISM
It is a totalitarian ideology based on racist principles that glorified militarism,
violence, nationalism, and the state over individual interests and identities,
usually led by charismatic individual political leaders. It is considered to be at
the far-right end of the political spectrum. It is characterized by the imposition
of dictatorial power, government control of industry, forcible suppression of
opposition, and strong regimentation of society and economy. It was first seen
in Italy and Germany during the 1920s–40s.

PATRIMONIALISM
Patrimonialism as a form of the non-political regime was described by Max
Weber. The form of governance is authoritarian, but people don’t consider
their ruler a tyrant. The ruler is looked upon by the masses as a father figure,
and his directions are considered as paternal directions. Patrimonialism is a
form of political organization in which authority is based primarily on the
personal power exercised by a ruler, either directly or indirectly. In this regime,
all powers flow directly from the leader and the leader enjoys absolute
personal power. For example, the leadership of the Roman Catholic Church,
and the rule of Dalai Lama as a spiritual and as well as political head in
Tibet before the Chinese annexation.
AUTHORITARIAN REGIMES
Authoritarianism is based on the principle that political power is not for
everyone and needs to be controlled and exercised by a specific group of
people. Authoritarian regimes are different in some way from Totalitarian, they
just focus on maintaining political authority and personal, economic, and
cultural liberties are maintained to some extent. The military is highly
significant and influential in such states. Government is not constitutionally
responsible to the people. The public has no or very little role in selecting a
leader. Criticism of the government is not allowed and is brutally suppressed.
There are four types of authoritarian regimes: tyrannies, dynastic regimes,
military regimes, and single-party regimes. The Communist regime is an
example of a single-party authoritarian regime.

BUREAUCRATIC AUTHORITARIANISM
It is an authoritarian regime which is characterized by having a government
made up of bureaucrats and technocrats officials and focusing on industry
rising the economy. Its rise can be seen in Latin American development. It is a
concept first formulated by Argentinian Political Scientist Guillermo
O’Donnell. It emphasizes on strong bureaucratic organisation, technocratic
decision-making, and repression of political dissidence. It is seen as the result
of a process of late modernization. The concept of bureaucratic
authoritarianism arose from the study of major episodes of authoritarianism in
South America between the 1960s–80s such as Brazil, Chile, Argentina,
Uruguay, etc.

MILITARY DICTATORSHIP
A military dictatorship is a dictatorship in which the military exerts complete or
substantial control over political authority, and the dictator is often a high-
ranked military officer or a group of such officers. A recent example includes
Myanmar. The brutal suppression of freedom and persecution of political
opponents is there. In most cases, military dictatorships come to power after
the previous civilian government has been overthrown in a coup d’etat. The
imposition of martial law or a permanent state of national emergency intended
to distract the people with a constant fear of attack is the most common
characteristic of military dictatorship.

RELATED BOOKS
Books/Works Author
Contemporary Political Ideologies: Roy C. Macridis
Movements and Regimes (1980)
Democracy in Plural Societies: A Lijphart, Arend
Comparative Exploration (1977)
The Origins of Totalitarianism (1951) Hannah Arendt
Totalitarian and Authoritarian Regimes Juan José Linz
(1975)
The Anatomy of Fascism (2004) Robert O. Paxton
Modernization and Bureaucratic- Guillermo A. O’Donnell
Authoritarianism (1973)
Bureaucratic Authoritarianism (1988) Guillermo A. O’Donnell
Fascism: What it is and How to Fight it Leon Trotsky
The Doctrine of Fascism (1932) Benito Mussolini and
Giovanni Gentile

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who among the following wrote the book ‘Bureaucrati
Authoritarianism’?
(a) Guillermo O’Donnell
(b) Max Weber
(c) Hannah Arendt
(d) None of the above

2. Which of the following statements are incorrect?


(1) Radical democracies are similar to monarchies and tyrannies.
(2) Military dictatorship is the most common form of contempo
authoritarianism.
(3) The essence of authoritarian regimes lies in the ideology.
(4) Ultra-nationalism was propagated by Adolf Hitler and Benito Musso
Choose the correct option:
(a) A. 1 and 2
(b) B. 1 and 3
(c) C. 2 and 4
(d) D. 3 and 4

3. Which of the following are correct regarding democratic regimes?


A. Representative types of democratic regimes existed since the days
city-states.

B. They have a substantial and procedural limitation which serves as a


power.

C. Radical democracy gives more emphasis on individual interests.


D. Liberal democracy gives more emphasis on social interests.
Choose the answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A, C, and D only
(c) A, B, and C only
(d) A, B, C, and D

4. Which of the following is not an example of a parliamentary system o


governance?
(a) India
(b) Netherlands
(c) UK
(d) US

5. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and th
other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Participatory Democracy is considered the opposite of
authoritarian democracy.
Reason (R): It emphasizes on deliberation and discussion rather than
only voting in the decision-making process.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

6. Which among the following are not a type of democratic regimes?


I. Patrimonialism
II. Totalitarianism
III. Electoral Democracy
IV. Military Dictatorship
V. Participatory Democracy
Code:
(a) II and IV only
(b) III and V only
(c) I, II, and IV only
(d) I, II, and III only

7. Arrange the following events in a sequence:


i. Benito Mussolini rose to power in Italy.
ii. Suffrage rights were granted to the majority of white males in the U
iii. Democratization of eastern Europe after the collapse of the S
Union.
iv. Allied victory in World War II and imposition of democracy in
Germany.
Code:
(a) iii, ii, iv, and i
(b) ii, i, iv, and iii
(c) i, ii, iii, and iv
(d) iv, iii, ii, and i

8. Which of the following is not a feature of a totalitarian regime?


(a) The government attempts to shape the interests and identities o
citizens by articulating a coherent ideology, employing extensive ef
to coercively mobilize support.
(b) The essence of totalitarian regimes lies in ideology.
(c) Most totalitarian regimes are based on the single-party system.
(d) It emphasizes on deliberation and discussion rather than only votin

9. Who said, ‘A Political Regime embodies the set of rules, procedures, an


understandings that formulate the Relationship between the governor
and the governed.’?
(a) Roy Macridis
(b) Guillermo O’Donnell
(c) Max Weber
(d) Hannah Arendt

10. Following are the features of which type of political regime?


A totalitarian ideology based on racist principles that glorified militarism,
violence, and nationalism.
It was first seen in Italy after World War I.
(a) Military Dictatorship
(b) Totalitarianism
(c) Participatory Democracy
(d) Fascism

11. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In patrimonialism legal authority of the ruler is largely
unchallenged.
Reason (R): The ruler is generally recognized as the chief landholder,
he is not viewed as a tyrant.
Code:
(a) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A

12. Which of the following is not an example of communist totalitarian


regimes in the past?
(a) Vietnam
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Ethiopia
(d) Cuba

13. Match the following:

Thinkers Books

1. Larry Diamond 1. The Anatomy of Fascism

2. Robert O. Paxton 2. The Real-world of Democracy

c.C. B. Macpherson 3. The Origins of Totalitarianism

d.Hannah Arendt 4. Developing Democracy

Codes:
(a) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3
(d) a–4, b–1, c–2, d–3

14. Match the following:

Types of Features
Government

1. Fascist 1. Political rights are nominal.


2. Patrimonialism 2. Ideological Control over all aspects.

c.Military Dictatorship 3. Regimentation of society.

d.Totalitarian 4. The ruler’s authority is largely unchalleng

Codes:
(a) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
(b) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
(d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 13.
(a) (a) (a) (b) (a) (c) (d)
2. 4. 6. 8. 10. 12. 14.
(b) (d) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Radical democracy are also known as social democracy. Here th


majority of the objective of the government is to use democracy as
means to remove social inequalities. Their structure is the same a
liberal democratic regimes, but they put social interest above individua
interest. Option 3 is also incorrect because ideology is the essence o
totalitarian regimes.

3. Option A is incorrect because the representative form of democracy wa


established in modern times, not in Greek city-states. Options C and D
are also correct because they contain opposite information.
CHAPTER 6
Constitution and Constitutionalism

INTRODUCTION
‘Constitution’ is a term mostly used in everyday language by almost everyone,
yet, its meaning, evolution, and intent are often unclear. Thomas Paine
famously said that ‘a government without the Constitution is as power without
rights’. It means, it not only limits the power of a government but also ensures
rights to the people. Tracing its roots in the Magna Carta of 1215 or the
Glorious Revolution of 1688, the idea of the constitution has taken theoretical
and practical shape only in the seventeenth and eighteenth-centuries. With
John Locke’s social contractarian justification of liberal natural rights and
the American and French Revolutions of 1776 and 1789 respectively,
constitution and constitutionalism became the most important part of political
philosophy.
Constitution—It is a set of rules, duties, responsibilities, and framework
for guiding the working of a state in accordance with basic principles and do’s
and don’ts of a government and its authorities.
Constitutionalism—It is a dynamic concept which ensures that the
basic principles of a constitution are followed and that a constitution remains
relevant to the changing needs of the time. ‘If the Constitution is a pipe,
Constitutionalism is the water running through that pipe.’

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN WRITTEN & UNWRITTEN


CONSTITUTION

Codified/Written Constitution Uncodified/Unwritten


Constitution
Codified/Written Constitution Uncodified/Unwritten
Constitution
Main constitutional provisions are Not compiled into a single document
written together into a single legal but rather based on different written
document. and unwritten conventions, statute
laws, common laws, etc.
The US was the first country to have Only three liberal democracies
a written codified constitution. Most (Israel, New Zealand, and the UK)
liberal democracies (India, Canada, and non-democratic countries like
Sri Lanka) have this kind of Bhutan, Saudi Arabia, and Oman
constitution. have Unwritten constitutions.
Rigid & Flexible—The structure of No fixed structure and hence,
the constitution is properly framed flexible, and ever-evolving.
and stable with minor scope for
amendments.
Parliament’s power is limited. Parliament enjoys wide powers.
Follows the system of ‘popular Follows the system of
sovereignty’ where the constitution ‘parliamentary sovereignty’ where
is supreme. the parliament is taken as supreme.
Judiciary has ample powers under Judiciary has a limited scope.
the garb of judicial review.
Promotes federal or quasi-federal Mostly follow a unitary system of
division and strict separation of governance.
powers.

CONCEPT OF RULE OF LAW


Woodrow Wilson famously said, ‘it is harder to run a constitution than
frame one’. This is because the concept of ‘Rule of Law’ has a cause-and-
effect relationship with the constitution. John Locke provided the idea of the
constitution because he wanted to create a government which safeguards the
natural rights of life, liberty, and property. The only way to do that is by
establishing rule of law instead of the rule of a single man or a despot. Hence,
the ‘Rule of Law’ is a rule based on statutes, governed by authorities,
adhering to principles of just procedure, and upholding basic constitutional
norms like liberty, equality, and fraternity. Sir Edward Coke is considered
as the originator of the modern concept of ‘Rule of Law’.
Aristotle proclaimed, ‘Laws are reason without passion’, and the ‘Rule
of Law’ ensures discrimination-free equal treatment of all citizens. Thomas
Hobbes said, ‘liberty is the absence of laws’. It is only under the rule of law
that people can actually enjoy the fruits of their freedoms. Utilitarian thinker
Jeremy Bentham was a great champion of legal rights and rule of law.
According to him, the only way to provide for ‘the greatest happiness of the
greatest number’ is through a legal framework based on the idea of rule of law
that provides for maximum security and utility.

Albert Venn Dicey


He is credited for his significant contribution to the field of ‘Rule of Law’. He
provided his view in his famous work ‘The Law of the Constitution (1855)’.
According to Albert Venn Dicey rule of law’s first meaning is ‘No man is
punishable except for a distinct breach of law’ established in the ordinary legal
manner before the ordinary court. According to him, a person can’t be
punished until he is proven guilty by a fair trial procedure. He supports that
even if 100 criminals are not arrested is ok rather than punishing one innocent
person. English legal positivist Albert Venn Dicey formulated three
important criteria for the rule of law:

1. supremacy of law,
2. equality before the law, and
3. the predominance of legal spirit.

SYSTEM OF JUDICIAL INDEPENDENCE


Judiciary is often cited as the ‘Guardian of Constitution’ and ‘Protector of the
Rule of Law’. Therefore, the independence of the judiciary from two other
organs of the state i.e., legislature and executives is the ‘Sine Qua Non’ of a
functional democracy. Though the independence of the judiciary is an
important part of codified constitutions, its relevance is no less important in
uncodified constitutions too. Judiciary acts as a ‘weapon of last resort’ for the
people. Montesquieu in his classic work ‘Spirit of the Laws’ advocated
independence of the judiciary as the backbone of the doctrine of separation of
power. And, following him, the forefathers of the American Revolution also
established the independence of the judiciary as the bedrock of American
democracy. Similarly, the Act of Settlement (1701) set free the British judiciary
from the pigeon box of the crown. In the famous S. P. Gupta case Supreme
Court held that the rule of law and the independence of the judiciary are part
of the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution.

IMPORTANT TERMS
Judicial Review—Marbury vs Madison (1803) in the US, this was the case
which is often cited as the foundation of the doctrine of judicial review. Judicial
review means the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of any
law or executive action.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL)—Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is
considered as the biggest discovery in the history of the judiciary.
Traditionally, the judiciary used to follow the rule of Locus Standi, which
means only an aggrieved person himself can come to the doors of the court
seeking justice. The system of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) changed this
rule, originating in America during the late nineteenth-century, it allows any
responsible citizen to fight a judicial battle for others affected who are not able
to fight for themselves. In India, Justice P. N. Bhagwati is credited to
introduce the Public Interest Litigation (PIL) system.

PROCEDURE ESTABLISHED BY LAW VS DUE


PROCESS OF LAW
While ‘procedure established by law’ gives the court power to question any
government action which is not in accordance with the law of land, the
concept of ‘due process’ even broadens that jurisdiction by also bringing the
law itself under scrutiny (if required). It simply means not only actions of
authorities should be in accordance with the laws, but laws should also be
rational and founded on constitutional principles. The Maneka Gandhi Case
broadened the definition of ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21 of the
Indian Constitution as the ‘due process of law’.

FEATURE OF LIBERAL CONSTITUTIONALISM


Liberalism is a philosophy that emerged from political thinking of the
seventeenth and eighteenth-century which evidently took many course
corrections due to the influence of Marxism and Socialism. The constitution is
a prerequisite for a liberal state and because a liberal state is based on
fundamental principles of individual liberty and limited state, liberal
constitutionalism also reflects the same. A few of the key features of liberal
constitutionalism are:

1. No Scope for Absolutism—basic idea behind libera


constitutionalism is to establish rule of law.
2. Separation of Power—to limit any one organ from exercising a
monopoly over power, separation of power is key that maintaining true
checks and balances.
3. Upholding Individual Liberties—the right to life, liberty, and
property are the cornerstone of the liberal Constitution.
4. Protection of Market Economy—classical liberal
constitutionalism remained very much concerned about it and hence,
provided the state with the constitutional responsibility to provide
proper policing and maintain peace which is conducive to the growth
of the market economy.
5. Independence of Judiciary—to check unbridled power of
legislative and executive organs.
6. Free and fair elections and democratic decision-making.
7. Freedom of speech and expression, religion, and basic human rights.
8. Scope for strong civil society and hierarchy of institutions.

UNITARY GOVERNMENT VS FEDERAL


GOVERNMENT

Federal Government Unitary Government


A political system in which No vertical division of power, rather
legislative, executive, and taxation the central government has all the
power are divided among central powers.
government and constituting units
(states or provinces) in accordance
with the constitutional mandate.
A clear hierarchy of institutions is No hierarchy exists.
established for efficient devolution of
powers.
Decentralized decision-making. Centralized decision-making.
Federal Government Unitary Government
States have power as well as Constituting bodies have
responsibilities. responsibilities but no power.
Vertical balance of power. Huge imbalance of power in hands
of the union government.
Time-taking process in decision Timely decisions are possible.
making.
E.g., the US, Canada, Brazil, etc. E.g., the UK, Ireland, Japan, etc.

EMERGENCY POWER & CHALLENGE TO


CONSTITUTIONALISM
Emergency powers are extraordinary powers conferred upon the government
by the constitution to use in an extraordinary situation. That extraordinary
situation could be war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or financial
distress. Under the garb of emergency power, a government can take
immediate decisions without going through usual procedures and
parliamentary approvals. The basic reasoning behind such an extraordinary
power was to ensure the sustainability of a state and the protection of its
people in unforeseen conditions, however, these powers have become a key
challenge for working of the constitution and its ethos i.e., constitutionalism.
Though classical liberal democracies like the US have very limited emergency
provisions, countries of the third world have often seen huge misuse of these
powers. For example, In India, the Proclamation of Emergency in 1975
opened the world to a key constitutional dark spot. A federal polity was turned
into a unitary system with no rights and no protector.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. A constitutional government is one which has?
(a) Limited Powers
(b) Centralized Decision Making
(c) Market Economy
(d) Parliamentary System
2. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
(a) India—Codified Constitution
(b) USA—Uncodified Constitution
(c) UK—Uncodified Constitution
(d) Japan—Codified Constitution

3. A written constitution is?


1. always federal in nature.

2. always unitary in nature.

3. always bear a preamble.

4. always provides fundamental principles of government.

Code:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 1 and 3

4. Assertion (A): rule of law establishes the government of laws and no


a man.
Reason (R): laws are reason without passion.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.

5. Match the followings:

1. Democracy 1. Montesquieu
2. Spirit of Laws 2. Liberal Constitutionalism

3. Rule of Law c.Marbury vs Madison

4. Judicial Review d.Albert Venn Dicey

(a) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d


(b) 1–b, 2–a, 3–d, 4–c
(c) 1–d, 2–b, 3–c, 4–a
(d) 1–c, 2–d, 3–a, 4–b

6. Choose the correct statement:


1. The federal government exercises a complete monopoly over power.

2. Unitary governments are usually able to take fast decisions becaus


not need to convince constituent units.

3. India is neither completely federal nor completely unitary, India is


federal system.

Code:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) All of the above

7. Which of the following is not a feature of liberal constitutionalism?


(a) Free and Fair Elections
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Hierarchy of Institutions
(d) Committed Judiciary

8. Independence of the judiciary is maintained through?


1. writs

2. judicial review

3. due process of law

4. administrative tribunals

5. security of tenure

Choose the correct statement:


(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(b) 1, 3, 4, and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 5
(d) 1, 2, 4, and 5

9. Arrange the following Constitutions in chronological order:


1. France

2. India

3. USA

4. Weimar Germany

Choose the correct statement:


(a) 1, 3, 4, and 2
(b) 3, 1, 4, and 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, and 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, and 3

10. Who authored the book ‘Introduction to the Law of the Constitution’?
(a) Granville Austin
(b) Albert Venn Dicey
(c) B. R. Ambedkar
(d) J. S. Mill

11. Consider the following statement regarding liberal constitutionalism:


i. Requires Ideals of law, rights, justice, liberty, equality, and frate
into the fundamental law of the land.
ii. constitutionalism is both an end and a means.
iii. operation of limited government.
iv. peaceful change.
Choose the correct options:
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

12. The Supreme Court’s right to judicial review was first established in:
(a) US
(b) India
(c) France
(d) Switzerland

13. In which country the practice of ‘once a speaker always a speaker’ is


followed?
(a) US
(b) UK
(c) India
(d) Switzerland

14. What has mainly accounted for the evolution of the unwritten
constitution of Britain?
(a) The British practice of following continuity and change peacefully.
(b) The British acceptance of conventions as sacred as law but
enforceable in courts.
(c) The British belief that the ‘King can do no wrong’.
(d) The common law tradition in Britain.

15. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?


(a) Administrative Law—France
(b) Appointment of Judges for Life—Switzerland
(c) Equal Representation of States—US in the House of Senate
(d) Rule of Law—England

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(a) (a) (d) (b) (a) (d) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (b)
(b) (b) (c) (d)
3. 6.
9. (b)
(c) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

11. Liberal view of constitutionalism required a state should have its own
rules and regulations to enshrine the ideals of law, rights, justice,
liberty, equality, and fraternity into the fundamental law of the land.
These rules may be written or unwritten, easily amendable, or rigid
rules of the amendment.

12. Power of judicial review was first established in the US. In the 1803
Marbury vs Madison Case, the Supreme Court of the US had exercised
the power to invalidate legislation enacted by congress.

13. The UK has the custom of ‘once a speaker always a speaker’. The
Speaker of the House of Commons in the UK is customarily re-elected
if desires to continue in office.

14. Common Law is based on the precedent of judicial decisions and


administered by the common-law courts of England.

15. In the US (not in Switzerland) the federal judges have life tenure once
appointed by the president and confirmed by the Senate.
CHAPTER 7
Democratization

INTRODUCTION
Democratization is a process leading to the introduction, institutionalization,
and consolidation of democracy in non-democratic societies. The idea of
democracy has played an important role in taking forward the world
civilization. It has helped in transforming the world from power structures of
monarchy, empire, and conquest to rule by the people, self-determination, and
peaceful co-existence. Democracy ultimately leads to the establishment of
values like liberty, equality, and justice leading to social cohesion through
cooperation among citizens. As a process, democratization does not have a
single defined path. It is a gradual process which takes time to consolidate.

HISTORY OF DEMOCRATIC IDEAS


Democracy is generally associated with the efforts of the ancient Greeks,
whom the eighteenth-century intellectuals considered the founders of western
civilization. Cleisthenes is referred to as ‘the father of Athenian democracy’.
However, in India also, early democratic institutions come from the
independent ‘republics’ of India, san˙ghas and gan˙as, which existed as early
as the sixth-century BCE. The notion of democracy has evolved over time
considerably. The original form of democracy was a direct democracy.
Gradually through various ages and waves present form of democracy is
developed with basic notions such as deliberation, tolerance, rights, and
participation of the people.

SAMUEL P. HUNTINGTON WAVES OF


DEMOCRATIZATION
Samuel P. Huntington in his book ‘The Third Wave: Democratization in
the Late Twentieth Century (1991)’ had surveyed democratic transitions
happening over the past two centuries and has identified three distinctive
waves of democratization. Democratization waves have been linked to
sudden shifts in the distribution of power among the great powers.

Waves Features
First long Wave of
Democratization (1828- Only in Western Countries
1926) Started in United States of America -
1828
Political Equality with Universal
Suffrage

First Reverse Wave (1922-


1942) Rise of authoritarian, dictatorship and
totalitarian regimes in the inter-war
period.
Occurred in Germany, Italy, Spain,
Portugal.
Mainly in Western Countries

Second Wave of
Democratization (1943- Democracy was imposed in West
1962) Germany, Japan and Austria.
Decolonization led to the adoption of
democracy by many third world
countries such as India, Pakistan,
Nigeria, Sri Lanka, among others.
Waves Features
Second Reverse Wave
(1958-1975) In many third world countries
democratic political systems, lapsed
into authoritarianism in the first
decade of their democratic career
itself.
Pakistan, Chile, Urugauy, Myanmar
etc.

Third Wave of
Democratization (1974- It began with the 1974 Carnation
Present) Revolution in Portugal.
Democratic transitions in Latin
America in the 1980s, Asia-Pacific
countries (Philippines, South Korea,
and Taiwan) from 1986 to 1988,
Eastern Europe after the collapse of
the Soviet Union, and sub-Saharan
Africa, beginning in 1989.
In post-communist countries as well
as in post-colonial countries of Africa,
Latin America and Asia.

DEMOCRATIC CONSOLIDATION
Democratic consolidation can be understood as the process by which a new
democracy matures, in a way that it becomes unlikely to revert to
authoritarianism without an external shock and is regarded as the only
available system of government within a country. In their important work,
Juan Jose Linz and Alfred Stepan 1996 popularize the phrase ‘the only
game in town’ to describe democratic consolidation. No significant political
group seriously attempts to overthrow the democratic regime, the democratic
system is regarded as the most appropriate way to govern by the vast
majority of the public, and all political actors are accustomed to the fact that
conflicts are resolved through established political and constitutional rules.
LIST OF IMPORTANT BOOKS

Book Author
The Civic Culture: Political Attitudes Gabriel Almond and Sidney
and Democracy in Five Nations Verba
(1963)
The Third Wave: Democratisation in Samuel P. Huntington
the Late Twentieth Century (1991)
Problems of Democratic Transition Juan Jose Linz and Alfred
and Consolidation (1996) Stepan
Illusions about Consolidation (1996) Guillermo O’Donnell
Democracy and Development: Adam Przeworski, Michael E.
Political Institution and Well-Being in Alvarez, Jose Antonio
the World (2000)
Cheibub, and Fernando
Limongi

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which among the following was the first country to grant universa
suffrage in 1893?
(a) China
(b) New Zealand
(c) Germany
(d) Britain

2. Which among the following is incorrect?


(a) First Reverse Wave (1922–42)
(b) Second Short Wave of Democratization (1950–62)
(c) Second Reverse Wave (1958–75)
(d) First Long Wave of Democratization (1828–1926)

3. Arrange the following chronologically:


1. Magna Carta

2. French Declaration of Men’s Rights

3. Bill of Rights

Code:
(a) 1, 3, and 2
(b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2, 3, and 1
(d) 3, 2, and 1

4. Match the following:

Works Authors
A) The Civic Culture: Political Attitudes I.Gabriel Almond
and Democracy in Five Nations and Sidney
Verba
B) The Third Wave: Democratisation in II.Samuel P.
the Late Twentieth Century Huntington
C)Problems of Democratic Transition III. Juan Jose Li
and Consolidation and Alfred
Stepan
D)Illusions about Consolidation IV.Guillermo
O’Donnell

Code:
(a) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(b) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(c) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(d) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV

5. Who among the following has propounded three waves o


democratization?
(a) Samuel P. Huntington
(b) Gabriel Almond
(c) Juan Jose Linz and Alfred Stepan
(d) Guillermo O’Donnell

6. Democracy in India as a formal western concept was adopted in whic


wave as analysed by Samuel P. Huntington?
(a) First wave
(b) Second Wave
(c) Third Wave
(d) Never, it is autocratic

7. Carnation Revolution in Portugal happened in:


(a) 1978
(b) 1976
(c) 1974
(d) 1972

8. Who among the following described democratic consolidation as ‘th


only game in the town.’?
(a) Samuel P. Huntington
(b) Gabriel Almond
(c) Juan Jose Linz and Alfred Stepan
(d) Guillermo O’Donnell

9. Democracy is first believed to be developed in (Western Civilization)?


(a) Athens, Greece
(b) US
(c) Australia
(d) India

10. Democratization can be defined as:


(a) The decline in the democratic characteristics of a political system.
(b) The introduction, institutionalization, and consolidation of democra
non-democratic societies.
(c) Democratic declining.
(d) A compound of ideas, attitudes, and patterns of behaviour elabor
the principle that the authority of government derives from an
limited by a body of fundamental law.

11. Carnation Revolution in Portugal Started which wave?


(a) First-Wave Democratization
(b) Second-Wave Democratization
(c) Third-Wave Democratization
(d) Fourth-Wave Democratization

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 10. 11.
(b) (a) (a) (c) (a) (a) (c)
2. 4. 6.
8. (c)
(b) (c) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. First Long Wave of Democratization (1828–1926), First Reverse Wave


(1922–42), Second Short Wave of Democratization (1943–62), Secon
Reverse Wave (1958–75), and Third Wave of Democratization (1974–
Present).

3. Magna Carta—1215, French Declaration of Men’s Rights—1789, an


The American Bill of Rights, inspired by Jefferson and drafted by Jame
Madison, were adopted in 1791.
CHAPTER 8
Theories of Development

INTRODUCTION
The end of the second world war saw the diffusion of democracy to relatively
newer geographies. This period witnessed the rise of many newly independent
countries in Asia, Africa, and Latin America. These countries were characterized
by unique socio-cultural patterns, forms of economy, peculiar political challenges,
and the trajectory of nation-building in these societies were bound to be different
from their western counterparts. Hence the field of comparative analysis
extended to investigate the ecological factors underlying these countries and
these efforts gave birth to the school of modernization theory and later its critique
in the form of dependency theory.

MODERNIZATION THEORY
Modernization theory is used to explain the process of development of a
traditional society into a modern society. Modernization theory emerged in the
late 1950s. Modernization theory originated from the ideas of German sociologist
Max Weber which provided the basis for the modernization paradigm
developed by Harvard sociologist Talcott Parsons. Modernization theory
suggests that traditional societies will develop as they adopt more modern
practices. Proponents of modernization theory claim that modern states are
wealthier and more powerful and that their citizens are free to enjoy a higher
standard of living. It advocates a linear theory of the progressive transition from a
‘traditional or premodern’ to a ‘modern’ society.

Main Postulates of Modernization Theory


Modernization is a phased process and adopts a linear approach to
explaining the phenomena.
Modernization is an irreversible phenomenon, once started it could not be
stopped.
Modernization is a homogenizing process.
Modernization could be defined as the Europeanization or
Americanization of these societies.
The word ‘development’ has been considered synonymous with terms like
‘westernization’, ‘modernization’, and ‘industrialization’.

The advocates of modernization argue that modern societies of the developed


world are naturally progressive and prosperous, have high levels of political
maturity and economic growth, and the citizens enjoy a higher degree of political
freedom, civil liberties, and a superior standard of living. They contend that these
conditions create an atmosphere wherein the traditional societies once they
encounter their modern counterparts could not resist the desire for change and
choose the path as followed by the latter.

Talcott Parson’s Views on Modernization


Through his structural-functional theory, Talcott Parson emphasized on the
imperative for developing countries to adopt the values and practices of the
developed nations. He was highly critical of the customs, rituals, and cultural
practices of the traditional societies and dubbed them as the ‘enemy of progress’.
He provided a comparative analysis of the values of traditional and modern
societies. Book by T. Parson- “The Structure of Social Action”

Traditional Societies Values Western Societies Values


Particularism Universalism
Collectivism Individualism
Patriarchy Legal and Administrative Order
Ascriptive Values Achieved Status and Meritocracy
The above values are the barriers to The above values promoted growth in
development in traditional societies. western societies.

WALT ROSTOW’S 5 STAGES OF ECONOMIC


GROWTH
Walt Rostow in his famous work ‘The Stages of Economic Growth (1971)’
suggested these five stages represented an evolutionary growth where countries
would begin to progress from a nascent stage to higher levels of development in
a phased manner. These five stages are traditional society, the precondition for
take-off, the take-off process, the drive to maturity, and high mass consumption
society.

SAMUEL P. HUNTINGTON’S IDEA ON


MODERNIZATION
Samuel P. Huntington in his seminal work ‘Political Order in Changing
Societies (1968)’ criticized the genesis of modernization theory by putting forth a
radical argument that it is not the form of the government but the degree of
government that matters. Laying the foundations of a neo-institutional framework
for which he is often credited, he underlined the fact that in the absence of proper
institutionalization, the march towards modernization by associating its key
elements like social mobilization, urbanization, industrialization, increased
literacy, and economic growth would not sustain longer. He asserted that these
factors are no guarantee of a stable, resilient, and flawless democratic political
system in case of a lack of institutionalization of the political process. This would
result in a situation where mass mobilization cum participation would supersede
institutionalization leading to political decay.

LUCIAN PYE’S IDEAS OF POLITICAL


DEVELOPMENT
In his book ‘Aspects of Political Development (1966)’, Lucian Pye identified
three criteria to determine the level of political development in a country:

DEPENDENCY THEORY AND THEORY OF


UNDERDEVELOPMENT
The dependency theory emerged as a response to the inherent contradictions
represented by the modernization theory. While the modernization scholars
blamed the archaic norms of traditional societies for their underdevelopment and
lack of progress, the dependency thinkers in contrast challenged the intellectual
foundations of the modernization paradigm by providing an alternative framework
of analysis that changed the way people used to perceive the development-
underdevelopment continuum.
Dependency theory originates with two papers published in 1949 by Hans
Singer and Raul Presbich respectively in which the authors have highlighted
the unequal terms of trade among underdeveloped countries vis–a–vis
developed countries. This is known as the ‘Presbich–Singer Thesis’.
Dependency theories are primarily influenced by Marxist literature, most notably
the Structural Marxist School, i.e., the Latin American Structuralist (Presbich,
Celso Furtado, and Anibal Pinto) and the American Marxist (Paul A.
Baran, Paul Sweezy, and Andre Gunder Frank).

CENTRAL THEMES AND CHARACTERISTICS OF


DEPENDENCY
Lack of equality in the ‘exchange’ relation between the third world
(periphery) and the capitalist countries (centre/core) is the source of first
world surplus.
Dependency theory sees the ‘capitalist system’ of the world as the main
focal point of theoretical evaluation.
It sees capitalist intervention in third world countries as the main cause of
their underdevelopment.
Investigates the impact of colonial rule in the peripheral nations.

A. G. FRANK’S THEORY OF DEVELOPMENT OF


UNDERDEVELOPMENT
A. G. Frank argues that developing nations have failed to develop not because
of internal barriers to development as modernization theorists argue, but because
the developed west has systematically underdeveloped them, keeping them in a
state of dependency. He considered that development and under-development
are the two aspects of the same system. He explained the process of
development or underdevelopment with the help of the Satellite/Metropolis
model.
IMMANUEL WALLERSTEIN’S WORLD SYSTEM
THEORY
Immanuel Wallerstein developed this theory in the 1970s in support of the
dependency theory. He argued that a global economic capitalist system has
emerged and controls the relationship between the countries of the world. World
systems theory views the world economy as an international hierarchy of unequal
relations. Immanuel Wallerstein added a new phenomenon of ‘Semi-
Periphery’ within the matrix of the ‘Core-Periphery’ relation.
Semi-Periphery is a group of those countries which lies in the middle of the
core and periphery. On the one hand, they exploit the raw material and cheap
labour from the periphery and sell manufactured goods to them, on the other
hand, they are exploited by the core for raw material and cheap labour and the
core sell their manufactured good here. According to Immanuel Wallerstein,
the position of a country is not always fixed in the world system, countries can be
upwardly or downwardly mobile in the world system.

COMPARISON BETWEEN THE THEORIES OF


DEVELOPMENT

Dimension Modernizatio Dependenc World Globalizatio


n y System n
Definition & Development Elements of Capitalis Greater global
Background as a neo-Marxist m is the integration of
systematic theory. dominant economic
process. system. transactions.
Model US & Europe- Revolution World- US & Europe-
Centre. A of under- centric. centric, a
normative developed positive
model. nations. model.
Focus Political, The totality Relations Communicati
Cultural of society. between ons and
changes, and Social countries. international
Imposition of system ties.
western values periphery.
and policies.
Dimension Modernizatio Dependenc World Globalizatio
n y System n
Main Direction Institutional Differences Culture Cultural and
structure. A between economic
phased countries. factors,
process. communicatio
n, and
technology.
Problem of Un- First World Social Communicati
Underdevelopm industrialized and Changes on systems
ent Identified Imperialism need to adopt
western-
centric forms.
Key Points in Differing value Regions and Culture Cultural and
Explaining systems and structural and the economic
Inequality ideas. conditions. role of the factors.
Immaturity of state.
systems.
Scope-Unit of Nation-State Nation-State Internatio Global
Analysis nal Connection
Connectio
ns

IMPORTANT BOOKS & WRITINGS


Lucian Pye—Political Culture and Political Development (1963)
Lucian Pye—Aspects of Political Development (1966)
Paul Baran—The Political Economy of Growth (1957)
Samuel P. Huntington—Political Development and Political Decay
(1965)
Samuel P. Huntington—Political Order in Changing Societies (1968)
S. M. Lipset—Political Man (1960)
Walt Rostow—The Stages of Economic Growth (1960)
A. F. K. Organski—The Stages of Political Development (1965)
Gabriel Almond and James S. Coleman—The Politics of
Developing Areas (1960)
David Apter—Introduction to Political Analysis (1977)
Raul Prebisch—The Economic Development of Latin America and its
Principal Problems (1950)
Hans Singer—Post-War Price Relations Between Under-Developed
and Industrialized Countries (1949)
Fernando H. Cardoso—Dependency and Development in Latin
America (1969)
Immanuel Wallerstein—The Modern World Systems (1971), World
Inequality (1975), and The Capitalist World Economy (1979)
Samir Amin—The Implosion of Contemporary Capitalism (2013)
A. G. Frank—The Development of Underdevelopment (1966),
Capitalism and Underdevelopment in Latin America (1967), and
Dependent Accumulation and Underdevelopment (1978)

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Match the following:

Authors Books

1. David Apter 1. World Inequality

2. Lucian Pye 2. Political Development and Political Decay

3. Samuel P. Huntington c.Communications and Political Development

4. Immanuel Wallerstein d.Introduction to Political Analysis

Codes:
(a) 1–(d), 2–(c), 3–(b), 4–(a)
(b) 1–(a), 2–(b), 3–(c), 4–(d)
(c) 1–(b), 2–(a), 3–(d), 4–(b)
(d) 1–(d), 2–(b), 3–(a), 4–(c)
2. Which of the following is not included in the three–dimensional model o
political development according to Lucian Pye?
(a) Equality
(b) Capacity
(c) Integration
(d) Differentiation

3. In which of the following stages of Walt Rostow, high economic growth an


improvement in health and education would be witnessed?
(a) High Mass Consumption
(b) Drive to maturity
(c) Take-off Stage
(d) Preconditions for Take-off

4. Read the Assertion and Reason statements:

Assertion(A): The dependency theory presents a macro-historical and


structural perspective.
Reason(R): It explains underdevelopment as a process of unequal
exchange of resources and labour between the core and periphery.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

5. Arrange the following books in chronological order of their publication:


(a) Stages of Political Development
(b) Political Man
(c) The Political Economy of Growth
(d) Implosion of Capitalism
Codes:
(a) A, B, C, and D
(b) D, C, B, and A
(c) C, A, B, and D
(d) C, B, A, and D
6. Statement I: Modernization theory emerged primarily in Latin Americ
and Africa.
Statement II: Dependency theory originated in Europe and North
America.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

7. Assertion (A): Dependency theorists held that the fundamenta


assumptions of modernization thinkers about the third world were untenabl
and unjustifiable.
Reason (R): Dependency literature draws heavily from the writings of
Structural Marxism.
(a) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

8. Who among the following undertook a study of India while attempting t


understand the situation of dependency of underdeveloped countries?
(a) Paul Baran
(b) Theotonio Dos Santos
(c) A. G. Frank
(d) Frantz Fanon

9. Choose the correct statements regarding modernization:


(a) It is a homogenizing process.
(b) It follows a multidimensional instead of a unilateral approach.
(c) It extols the virtues of individualism and meritocracy.
(d) It legitimizes particularism and ascriptive values.
Codes:
(a) Only A
(b) C and D
(c) A and C
(d) B, C, and D

10. The concept of ‘Development of Underdevelopment’ is popularly


associated with:
(a) Immanuel Wallerstein
(b) Raul Prebisch
(c) Walter Rodney
(d) A. G. Frank

11. Consider the following statement regarding the modernization theory of


development :
(a) It focuses on the internal factors of a country.
(b) It is developed by the structural-functional approach.
(c) Underdevelopment is caused due to external factors.
(d) It regards the need to eliminate traditional values.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) A, B, and C only
(c) A, B, and D only
(d) B, C, and D only

12. Match List I with List II

Authors Books

1. Lucian Pye I.The Structure of Social Action

II.Political Development and


2. Walt Rostow Political Decay

C.Samuel P. III. Politics and the stag


Huntington of growth
D.Talcott Parson IV.Communications and Political
Development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(b) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(c) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(d) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

13. Match list (i) to List (ii):

(Author) (Concepts)
a)A. G. Frank 1)World System Theory
b)Samuel P. Huntington 2)Underdevelopment Theory
c)Immanuel Wallerstein 3)Dependency Theory
d)Fernando H. Cardoso 4)Modernization

Choose the correct match:


(a) (a)–(4), (b)–(2), (c)–(1), (d)–(3)
(b) (a)–(4), (b)–(3), (c)–(1), (d)–(2)
(c) (a)–(2), (b)–(4), (c)–(1), (d)–(3)
(d) (a)–(2), (b)–(1), (c)–(3), (d)–(4)

14. Match List I with List II

(Authors) (Work/Books)

1. Immanuel I.Dependency and Development in Latin America


Wallerstein

II.The Economic Development of Latin America


2. Fernando
and its Principal Problems
H. Cardoso

C.Raul Prebisch III. World


Inequa
D.Hans Singer IV.Post-War Price Relations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
(b) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(c) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(da) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

15. Which of the following statements are incorrect?


(1) A. G. Frank belongs to the Latin American Structuralist stream
dependency.
(2) Raul Prebisch belong to the American Marxist stream of dependency.
(3) Paul Baran, Paul M. Sweezy, and Anibal Quijano belong to
dependency and imperialism stream.
(4) Fernando H. Cardoso belongs to the dependency and develop
stream.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

16. Who among the following are the main advocates of dependency theory?
i. A. G. Frank
ii. Raul Prebisch
iii. Theotonio Dos Santos
iv. Max Weber
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

17. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Immanuel Wallerstein’s World


System Theory Model :
i. The peripheral countries are dependent on core countries for capital.
ii. This theory emphasizes the social structure of global inequality.
iii. The core countries dominate and exploit the peripheral countries on
raw materials.
Code:
(a) i, ii, and iii
(b) Only i and ii
(c) Only iii
(d) Only ii

18. Which among the following is not a feature of traditional societies


according to Talcott Parson’s theory of modernization?
(a) Particularism
(b) Patriarchy
(c) Meritocracy
(d) Collectivism

19. According to Walt Rostow’s stages of economic development, ‘when a


society experiences economic growth as new modern practices become
the norm.’ It represents which stage?
(a) The preconditions for take-off.
(b) The drive to maturity.
(c) The age of high mass consumption.
(d) Take-off stage.

20. Identify the incorrect statement regarding A. G. Frank’s Underdevelopment


Theory :
i. Developing nations have failed to develop because of internal barrie
development.
ii. The global capitalist order keeps developing nations in a stat
dependency.
iii. Development and under-development are the two aspects of the s
system.
Code:
(a) i, ii, and iii
(b) Only i and ii
(c) Only i
(d) Only ii

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.


(a) (a) (c) (d) (c) (c) (d)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(c) (d) (a) (c) (a) (b) (c)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.
18. (c)
(b) (b) (c) (d) (a)
CHAPTER 9
Structure of Power

ELITE THEORY OF POWER


According to elitist theory, power is concentrated in a small group of
people known as elites, implying that ordinary people or the common
man are incapable of handling power. It underlines the existence of
conflict between ‘the elite’ and ‘the masses’. The Elite Theory tends to
divide society into ‘excellent’ and ‘ordinary’ people who are placed in
different positions. The elite theory treats this division as somewhat
natural and functional. They regard competence and aptitude to be
responsible for this division.
Elite theory is a state theory that seeks to describe and explain power
dynamics in contemporary society. According to them, power with the
masses is a myth. The concept of elites is not incompatible with
democratic theory. The elitist scholars place little emphasis on the
substantive aspects of democracy, instead focusing solely on the
procedural aspects. The elitist theory of power started with the Italian
School of Elitism which involves scholars such as Vilfredo Pareto,
Gaetano Mosca, and Robert Michels.

VILFREDO PARETO’S CIRCULATION OF ELITE


THEORY
Vilfredo Pareto was an Italian sociologist, in his book ‘The Mind and
Society (1916)’ he presented his theory of elite rule. According to
Vilfredo Pareto ‘History of mankind is nothing but a graveyard of
aristocracy’. Vilfredo Pareto’s ‘Circulation of Elite Theory’ claims that
in a political system power always circulate among the elite section only.
Power flows in a closed loop and this results in the circulation of elites.

Power is never enjoyed by the masses, even in a democracy, people


just choose a group elite among two or more groups. He said that
sometimes people are ruled by lions (brave leaders) and sometimes by
foxes (clever leaders). The class of those who are ruling currently would
be called governing elites and the class of elite whose who want to take
over the power would be called non-governing elites.

Gaetano Mosca’s idea of Ruling Class


Gaetano Mosca was an Italian political scientist, he wrote the book
‘The Ruling Class (1939)’ where he presented the concept of the ruling
class. He made the difference between the governing class and the
governed class or the rulers and the ruled. The ruling class controls the
majority of society’s wealth, power, and prestige. It cannot be replaced by
the ruled. The domination of a small, organized minority is inevitable over
the unorganized majority.
Gaetano Mosca is more democratic than Vilfredo Pareto. It is
in a sense that Vilfredo Pareto considers being elite as a natural
quality whereas, according to Gaetano Mosca the status of the elite
depends upon the ability to organize masses i.e., organizational skills. He
used the term modern elites for their superior organizational skills.
Gaetano Mosca also argues that in history there has always been one
form of govt. i.e., oligarchy.
ROBERT MICHEL’S IRON LAW OF OLIGARCHY
He was a German-born Italian sociologist, he wrote the book ‘Political
Parties: A Sociological Study of the Oligarchical Tendencies of Modern
Democracy (1911)’. Robert Michel did an elaborated study of different
types of political parties and their structure and after that, he came to the
conclusion that oligarchy (rule by few) is prevalent in every kind of
political party. Robert Michel by his ‘Iron Law of Oligarchy’ presented
that all complex organizations, regardless of how democratic they are
when started, eventually develop into oligarchies. Robert Michel
addressed the application of this law to representative democracy, and
stated: ‘Who says organization, says oligarchy.’ Hence, whether a
country is democratic or communist, power will always get concentrated
in the hands of a small section of elites, oligarchy is the iron law.

Joseph Schumpeter’s Elitist Democracy


Joseph Schumpeter presented an elitist perspective of democracy in
his work ‘Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy (1942)’. According to
him, democracy is neither a government of the people nor a means of
putting the will of the people into action, rulers are a different set of
people than the common people. The people’s role is reduced to
selecting their rulers from competing elites. He argued that political
decisions are made by the ‘leadership’, not by the people and that there
is free competition among the leaders for people’s votes. However, unlike
other forms of government, democracy does not allow political leadership
to wield absolute power.

CONTEMPORARY THEORY OF ELITISM

C. Wright Mills’s Concept of Power Elite


C. Wright Mills is an American sociologist and, in his book, ‘The
Power Elite (1956)’. C. Wright Mills uses the term ‘Power Elite’ for his
theory. It signified an inner circle of power holders who exercised all
power by virtue of their high status in all important spheres of social life.
He wanted to understand the nature of democracy in the US. C. Wright
Mills observed that modern American society was ruled by a set of three
loosely interlocking groups who had come to occupy pivotal positions in
the power industry, military leaders, and prominent politicians.

These three groups, taken together, constituted the ‘power elite’. They
project an image of high moral character to command respect in society,
but they are unconcerned about their moral or social responsibility. In
other words, he discusses the decline of democracy in advanced
industrial societies, where power is increasingly concentrated outside the
purview of elected representatives.

Robert Putnam
Robert Putnam was an American political scientist, in his book: ‘Bowling
Alone: The Collapse and Revival of American Community (2000)’.
Robert Putnam discussed how Americans have become disengaged
from political participation, such as decreased voter turnout, attendance
at public meetings, serving on committees, and working with political
parties. He highlighted the social capital crisis, or the unprecedented
collapse of social, civic, political, and associational life in the US. The
decline in social capital has undermined the active civil engagement
required by a strong democracy from its citizens.
James Burnham
James Burnham presented the concept of managerial control over
power. In his book ‘The Managerial Revolution (1941)’. He adopts an
economic approach to define elites. The elites draw their power in
accordance with the degree of control over the means of production and
production. He argues that capitalism would gradually be replaced by an
economic and political system, run by managers and this would occur as
a result of a managerial revolution. It implies that the real functions will be
in the hands of managers rather than political representatives or
businessmen.

G. William Domhoff
G. William Domhoff in his book: ‘Who Rules America? (1967)’ he
explains the case of post–second world war redevelopment policies and
the nexus between the top business and the government of the US. He
argues that the government is an instrument in the hands of the upper
class, which controls the corporate economy, media and
communications, and policy planning organizations. Thus, he equates the
ruling elite with the upper-class business elite, as for him, staying ‘upper’
is what ‘ruling’ is all about. They dominate the American power structure
politically and economically.

Thomas Dye
He argues in his book ‘Top Down Policymaking’ that US public policy is
determined by elite consensus found in Washington, D.C.-based non-
profit foundations, think tanks, special-interest groups, and prominent
lobbying and law firms, rather than ‘demands of the people’.

LIST OF BOOKS, THINKERS AND KEY


CONCEPTS

Thinkers Book Key Concept


Vilfredo Mind and Society Law of circulation of elites
Pareto Theory of Optimality
Thinkers Book Key Concept
Gaetano The Rulling Class Political Class & Non-
Mosca Political Class
Robert Political Parties: A Iron Law of Oligarchy
Michels Sociological Study of the
Oligarchical Tendencies of
Modern Democracy
C. Wright The Power Elite Three power elite -
Mills Political Elites, Economic
Elites & Military Elites
James The Managerial Revolution
Burnham
Robert Bowling Alone Social Capital
Putnam

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following writers are from Italy?
(i) Vilfredo Pareto
(ii) Gaetano Mosca
(iii) Robert Michels
(iv) C. Wright Mills
Codes:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

2. Which one is incorrectly matched?


(a) Domhoff: Who Rules America?
(b) C Wright Mills: The Power Elites
(c) Thomas Dye: Capitalism, Socialism, and Democracy
(d) James Burnham: The Managerial Revolution

3. Which statement is wrong according to the elite theory?


(a) Power is concentrated in a small group of people.
(b) Power with the masses is a myth.
(c) Elite theory accepts Pluralist theory.
(d) It is not compatible with the theory of democracy.

4. Who gave the concept of the iron law of oligarchy?


(a) Gaetano Mosca
(b) Vilfredo Pareto
(c) C. Wright Mills
(d) Robert Michels

5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): The system of democracy recognizes the equality
of all people and stands for the government of the common people.
Reason (R): It is commonly believed that government is largely
controlled and managed by the ‘power elite’.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

6. Who gave the economic conception of elitism?


(a) Robert Putnam
(b) James Burnham
(c) Thomas Dye
(d) G. William Domhoff

7. The elitist theory of holds that power is concentrated in the hand


of?
(a) Military Class
(b) Civil Servants
(c) Bureaucrats
(d) Small Group of Elites

8. Who held that the ‘History of mankind is nothing but a graveyard o


aristocracy.’?
(a) C. Wright Mills
(b) Vilfredo Pareto
(c) Gaetano Mosca
(d) Robert Michels

9. Match the following?

1. Vilfredo Pareto 1. The Sociological Imagination

2. Gaetano Mosca 2. The Mind and Society

C.Robert Michels 3. Political Parties

D.C. Wright Mills 4. The Ruling Class

Code:
(a) A–2, B–4, C–3, D–1
(b) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
(c) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(d) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

10. ‘Circulation of elites’ most closely refers to which one of the


following?
(a) Rotation of elites
(b) Replacement of elites
(c) Retention of elites
(d) Restoration of elites

11. Identify the correct statement regarding the Elite Theory of Power :
i. Democracy in its idealized form can only function in a capit
system.
ii. It asserts that rule by an elite, or oligarchy, is inevitable within
democratic organization.
iii. It asserts that major social, pressure and/or interest groups pl
significant and major role in exerting influence on the state.
Code:
(a) i, ii, and iii
(b) Only i and ii
(c) Only iii
(d) Only ii

12. Match the following:

Thinkers Books

1. Robert Putnam 1. Who Rules America?


2. C. Wright Mills 2. Bowling Alone

c.G. William Domhoff 3. Who’s running America?

d.Thomas R. Dye 4. White Collar: The American Middle Class

Codes:
(a) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
(b) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3
(c) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3
(d) a–4, b–1, c–2, d–3

13. Which among the following thinker asserts that an elite class that
owns and manages large income-producing properties (like banks
and corporations) dominate the American power structure politically
and economically?
(a) Thomas R. Dye
(b) James Burnham
(c) G. William Domhoff
(d) Robert Putnam

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:

Thinkers Thought
(a)James (i)Who says organization,
Burnham says oligarchy.
(b)Thomas (ii) psychological and intellectu
R. Dye superiority of elites.
(c)Vilfredo (iii) functional power is in the
Pareto hands of the managers.
(d)Robert (iv) elite consensus determine
Michels public policy.

Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

15. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Robert Michel’s Iron Law
of Oligarchy :
i. He asserts that social and political organizations are run by
individuals, and social organization and labour division are key
ii. According to him, all organizations eventually come to be ru
the ‘elite class or the leadership class’.
iii. To eliminate elite rule is impossible and the rule of elite
oligarchy is inevitable.
Code:
(a) i, ii, and iii
(b) Only i
(c) Only iii
(d) None

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(a) (d) (d) (a) (c) (d) (d)
2. 5. 8. 11. 13. (c)
(c) (b) (b) (d)
3. 6.
9. (a)
(c) (b)
CHAPTER 10
Actor and Processes

ELECTORAL SYSTEM
The electoral system basically describes the method of electoral competition
and explains the manner in which parties or candidates contest and win
elections in a political arena, i.e., how votes are converted into seats. The
electoral system is mostly of two kinds—a majoritarian and a proportional
representation system.

TYPES OF MAJORITARIAN ELECTORAL


SYSTEMS

First Past the Two-Round Instant-runoff Slate System


Post System system
Also known as Also known as Also known as It is like a list
the simple the second ballot an alternative system but
plurality method. system or vote or follow’s the
majority plurality. preferential majoritarian rule.
voting.
Principle of Principle of an Voters rank their Parties put up
relative majority. absolute candidates in their lists (called
majority. A the order of slates). Voters
repeated round preference. vote for a slate,
of voting is not candidates.
required.
First Past the Two-Round Instant-runoff Slate System
Post System system
A party or a A candidate who Ballots are The slate which
candidate can secures more initially counted gets the majority
win an election than 50% of the for top of votes polled is
even without votes is declared candidates while declared elected
getting the elected. the losing in its totality.
majority of votes. candidates are
eliminated.
Practised in the Practised in Practised in the Practised in
UK, India, France, Russia, Australian American
Canada, Ukraine, Brazil, House of presidential
Pakistan, etc. Egypt, Iran, etc. Representatives electoral college
and for the elections and
President of Canadian
Ireland. municipal
elections.

PROPORTIONAL REPRESENTATION
It was invented in the nineteenth-century and adopted by many European
parties in the early twentieth-century. The main reason for this switch was to
avoid the discrepancies created by the majoritarian electoral system and to
establish a kind of proportionality in terms of the share of votes polled and the
number of seats won. Proportional representation has sub-types like the
single transferable vote system and party list system.

SINGLE TRANSFERABLE VOTE SYSTEM


Suggested first by Thomas Hare, and hence also known as the Hare
system.
Preferential vote system as each voter is supposed to mark his/her
preferences of candidates on the ballot paper. Each voter has only one
vote.
Can be used in a multi-member constituency where three or more
members are to be elected from a single constituency.
Votes may be transferred according to the preferences indicated by a
voter (hence single transferable). The candidates who polled the least
votes are eliminated from the race and their votes are transferred to
the second/third preference candidates.
After polling, the total number of votes polled is divided by the total
number of seats plus one and one is added to the quotient. This
becomes the quota which the candidate must get in order to get
elected.
Elections to Rajya Sabha in India, Senate of Australia, Malta, and
Ireland parliamentary elections.

PARTY LIST SYSTEM


Multi-member constituencies. Also known as D’Hondt or the greatest
divisors method.
Different parties put up their list of candidates to be elected.
Suppose ten candidates are to be elected, a party would put up a list of
all ten candidates in order of preference they would want them to be
elected.
Electorate votes for the party and not the candidates.
Practised in South Africa, Indonesia, Albania, Argentina, Turkey, and
Israel.

MIXED-MEMBER PROPORTIONAL
REPRESENTATION (MMP)
Mixed electoral system.
Voters get two votes—one to decide the representative for their single-
member constituency and one for a political party.
Seats are first filled by successful constituency candidates and then by
the parties.
Also known as personalized proportional representation.
Practised in German Bundestag, Japan, Nepal, South Korea, New
Zealand, etc.

POLITICAL PARTY SYSTEM


Party system theory seeks to understand the typology of parties operative in
electoral competition, its nature and structural aspects. The study of political
parties is known as ‘Statistiology’.

DUVERGER’S THEORY OF PARTY SYSTEM


Maurice Duverger in his book ‘Political Parties: Their Organization and
Activity in the Modern State (1954)’ has provided a classification of party
systems based on his study of the evolution of political parties in Western
European countries. Based on the nature of competition, he has identified
parties as one, two or multi-party systems.

However, at a more comprehensive level, he has classified parties based


on structural analysis. Accordingly, there are four types of parties which
include:
SARTORI’S POLITICAL SYSTEM THEORY
In his work ‘Parties and Party System (1976)’, Giovanni Sartori gave a
taxonomic classification of political parties. According to him, a party system is
not shaped by a number of parties, but by the number of parties having
systematic relevance, i.e., influencing systems. He classified the party system
into two types—competitive system and non-competitive system. Competitive
systems are further divided into polarized pluralism, a predominant party
system, and atomized party system.
Polarized pluralism represents the level of polarization of voters in a
country which is represented in the number of relevant political parties.
A predominant party system is available in those countries where the
political atmosphere is already saturated and opportunities for growth
for new parties are rare.
The atomized party system is fragmented leader by leader with a small
group revolving around each leader.

A non-competitive party system represents those countries where


contestants and opponents are deprived of equal rights to participate in the
political process. Other political parties are banned by the ruling party or
group. This is further divided as one-party totalitarian (Nazi party in Germany,
Communist party in USSR), party authoritarianism (Communist Party rule in
China), and one-party pragmatic rule when a non-ideologically ridden party
maintain a rule in a country by the pragmatic policy.

LIPSET AND ROKKAN’S CLASSIFICATION


Seymour Martin Lipset and Stein Rokkan in their work ‘Party Systems
and Voter Alignments (1967)’ have offered a more scientific understanding of
party system theory by analyzing the voting behaviour of masses that shape
and influence the nature and evolution of political parties.
Seymour Martin Lipset and Stein Rokkan employ the concept
of ‘Cleavage’ (a politico-cultural line that divides the citizens into
various social groups that govern their political behaviour and electoral
choices) to typify the party system in European societies.
Political cleavages predominantly determine a country’s party system
as well as voting behaviours dividing them into ‘Voting Blocks’.
Focuses on aggregate and structural patterns instead of individual
voting behaviours.
They, therefore, argue that these ‘frozen party systems’ can be seen as
political expressions of historically determined societal divisions.

Types of Cleavages
Centre vs Periphery (between elites in central administrative areas and
those in outlying areas),
State vs Church (between secular and religious voters),
Owner vs Worker (typical divide between right-wing vs left-wing
parties), and
Land vs Industry (conflict between agriculture vs industry on the policy
front).

INTEREST GROUP THEORY


Interest groups play a vital role in a democratic setup. They act as a link
between the state and civil society and enrich the substantive aspects of
governance. In his structural-functional approach, Gabriel Almond puts
pressure groups as inputs. The pressure group/interest group perform the
function of interest articulation. Gabriel Almond and James S. Coleman
classified the interest group into four types. The sequence in which Gabriel
Almond and James S. Coleman arrange them is:

Institutional Interest Group: Comprises of professionals who are


formally organized. Part of government machinery and exert influence
but enjoy limited autonomy, e.g., political parties, army, bureaucracy,
etc.
Associational Interest Group: Organized specialized groups for
interest articulation but pursue narrow goals, e.g., farmers’ unions,
trade unions, business associations, etc.
Non–Associational Interest Group: Mobilized along kinship ties
and lineages, and pursue goals that cater to their identity issues like
caste groups, religious groups, language groups, etc.
Anomic Interest Group: Not formally organized or professionally
managed but raise issues that warrant public attention, at times
spontaneously like signature campaigns, demonstrations, and protests
or even riots. Could adopt either constitutional or unconstitutional
methods. Human rights campaigns or environmental activism.
SOCIAL MOVEMENT
Social movements are a part of civil society activities within a political system.
Social movements are especially known to bring social changes in the
structure and order of society. These are organizations are diverse in nature,
but majorly at the organizational level they are loose. The social movement
represents a collective form of actor to bring social change for serving the
common cause of society. The major components of a social movement are:
Objectives,
Ideology,
Programmes,
Leadership, and
Organization.

The Democratic transition on the one hand and the rise of industrial economic
order led to the growth of the social movement in European society in the
nineteenth-century. Initially, social movements were organized by class and
livelihood-related issues, but in contemporary times they became a source of
new politics and activism in a different part of the world. Social movements
can be majorly divided into old and new social movements.

Old Social Movement New Social Movement


Started during the nineteenth- Started after the 1960s.
century.
Concerned for the benefit of one Non-class related issues, it has a
class or group. cross-class clientele.
Collective action with political Collective action with humanistic
agenda. agenda.
Materialistic goals such as Quality of life, individual self-
economic well-being. realization, and human rights.
Economic issues of land, wages, or Concerned with individual and
property. collective morality.
Examples—the trade union Examples—Human rights and
movements and Marxist environmental movements etc.
movements.

NGO’S & CIVIL SOCIETY CAMPAIGNS


Civil society is referred to as the third sector of society that represents the
shared interests, values, purposes, and behaviour of the public. It is distinct
from government and commercial (for-profit actors). They in other words
manifest the will and interests of the common people, family, and the private
sphere. It includes charities, development NGOs, community groups,
women’s organizations, faith-based organizations, professional associations,
trade unions, social movements, coalitions, advocacy groups, etc. The major
characteristics of NGOs are:
They are a private institution and is independent of the government.
They are non-profit making and work as service-oriented organizations.
NGOs also work as lobbying groups for corporations and civil society,
to create pressure and influence decision/law-making at the state level.
They do not return profits generated to their owners or directors.
They are registered organizations or informal groups, with clearly
defined aims and objectives.

REVOLUTION
Revolution is an important process of social change in a political system.
According to Karl Marx ‘Revolutions are the locomotives of history’.
Revolutions are responsible for the change in the basic structure of society as
well as political power relations and matrix. Theda Skocpol in her book
‘States and Social Revolutions: A Comparative Analysis of France, Russia,
and China (1979)’, presented her views on revolution. Theda Skocpol
asserts that social revolutions are rapid and basic transformations of a
society’s state and class structure. She said basic changes in social structure
and political structure occur in a mutually reinforcing fashion and these
changes occur through intense socio-political conflict. According to her before
a social revolution can occur, the administrative and military power of a state
has to break down.
Crane Brinton in his book, ‘The Anatomy of Revolution (1938)’, Crane
Brinton compares revolution to a fever. Crane Brinton breaks down the
revolution into three entities: the symptoms, the fever itself which is the
manipulation of revolution, and the break of the fever when things return back
to normal.

IMPORTANT SCHOLARS AND THEIR WORKS


Maurice Duverger—Political Parties: Their Organization and
Activity in the Modern State (1954) and Party Politics and Pressure
Groups (1972).
Joseph La Palambora and Myron Weiner—Political Parties and
Political Development
Giovanni Sartori—Parties and Party Systems (1976)
Arendt Lijphart—Electoral System and Party Systems
Seymour Martin Lipset and Stein Rokkan—Party Systems and
Voter Alignments
Gabriel Almond and James S. Coleman—The Politics of the
Developing Areas (1960)
Vladimir Ilyich Lenin—The State and Revolution
Rosa Luxemburg—Social Reform or Revolution?
Crane Brinton—The Anatomy of Revolution
Theda Skocpol—States and Social Revolutions

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who introduced the concept of ‘Cleavage’ for explaining votin
behaviour and its role in party systems theory?
(a) Maurice Duverger
(b) Jean Blondel
(c) Seymour Martin Lipset and Stein Rokkan
(d) Giovanni Sartori

2. Match the following:

Scholars Ideas

1. Seymour Martin Lipset 1. Frozen Party System

2. Giovanni Sartori 2. Consociational Democracy


c.Polarized Pluralism
3. Maurice Duverger

4. Arendt Lijphart d.Caucus Type

Codes:
(a) 1–(a), 2–(b), 3–(c), 4–(d)
(b) 1–(a), 2–(c), 3–(d), 4–(b)
(c) 1–(b), 2–(a), 3–(c), 4–(d)
(d) 1–(c), 2–(d), 3–(a), 4–(b)

3. Assertion(A): First-Past-The-Post system is based on the principle o


relative majority.
Reason (R): A candidate must get more than 50% of the votes to be
declared the winner.
Codes:
(a) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false but (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) doesn’t provide the co
explanation of (A).

4. Which of the following is not a Majoritarian System of Election?


(a) First-Past-The-Post
(b) Instant-Runoff
(c) Slate system
(d) List System

5. Match the following:

Countries Electoral Systems


1. France 1. Party List

2. South Africa 2. Mixed of First-Past-The-Post and Party List

3. Japan c.Two-Round system

4. Canada d.First-Past-The-Post System

Codes:
(a) 1–(d), 2–(b), 3–(a), 4–(c)
(b) 1–(c), 2–(d), 3–(a), 4–(b)
(c) 1–(c), 2–(a), 3–(b), 4–(d)
(d) 1–(b), 2–(a), 3–(c), 4–(d)

6. Match the following:

Books Thinkers

1. Parties and Party Systems 1. Myron Weiner

2. Party Politics and Pressure Groups 2. Arendt Lijphar

3. Electoral Systems and Party Systems c.Giovanni Sartori

4. Political Parties and Political Development d.Maurice Duverge

Codes:
(a) 1–(c), 2–(d), 3–(b), 4–(a)
(b) 1–(d), 2–(c), 3–(b), 4–(a)
(c) 1–(a), 2–(b), 3–(c), 4–(d)
(d) 1–(b), 2–(d), 3–(a), 4–(c)

7. Which among the following is not correct regarding Jean Blondel’


classification of interest groups?
(a) Customary
(b) Non- Institutional
(c) Institutional
(d) Promotional

8. Assertion(A): According to Gabriel Almond, institutional interes


groups are formally organized and professionally managed.
Reason(R): They are part of government machinery and exert
significant influence.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

9. Who among the following has argued that the electoral system
determines the nature of the party system?
(a) Robert Mitchels
(b) Joseph Schumpeter
(c) Maurice Duverger
(d) Max Weber

10. Statement I: Two-Round system was invented by Thomas Hare.


Statement II: Party List System is also known as D’Hondt or the
Greatest Divisors Method.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(c) Only Statement I is correct.
(d) Only Statement II is correct.

11. Who said, ‘Revolutions are the locomotives of history.’?


(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Friedrich Engles

12. Who is the author of the book ‘States and Revolutions’?


(a) Karl Marx
(b) Charles Tilly
(c) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin
(d) Theda Skocpol

13. Who is the author of the book ‘The Anatomy of Revolution’?


(a) Sidney Tarrow
(b) Charles Tilly
(c) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin
(d) Crane Brinton

14. Who defined Social Revolution as ‘social structure and political


structure occur in a mutually reinforcing fashion and these changes
occur through intense socio-political conflict.’?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Charles Tilly
(c) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin
(d) Theda Skocpol

15. Which among the following statement is incorrect about social


movement:
1. They are often impulsive and do not aim at bringing social change.

2. They have organizational structures and strategies.

3. All collective actions can be considered as social movements.


4. It depicts the efforts or faith that people collectively have.

Choose the option:


(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(b) Only 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 2 and 4

16. Which among the following statement is incorrect about new social
movement:
1. They raise issues like employment, wages, and economic security.

2. The new movements focus not on issues of materialistic qualities


economic well-being.

3. New social movements emphasize on social changes in identity, life


culture.

4. They have a strong ideological grounding.

Choose the option:


(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(b) Only 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 4
(d) Only 2 and 4

17. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Old social movements had a political agenda to usher
a social movement.
Reason (R): The class-based old social movements tend to have a
strong ideological grounding about the overthrow of the entire political
system of governance and the reestablishment of a new social order.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

18. Two statements are given below, one as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Civil society monitors and evaluates government
policies via social audit.
Reason (R): They play a significant role in facilitating development,
education, training, and technical assistance.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

19. Consider the following statement regarding the majoritarian electoral


system:
(a) It is majorly used in single-member constituencies.
(b) It creates an overrepresentation of the large parties and
underrepresentation of small parties.
(c) It yields proportionality between votes cast and seats won.
(d) Candidates of small parties do have much of a chance to be electe
Choose the Incorrect answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A, B, and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) B, C, and D only

20. Which among the following is not a feature of a Single Transferable


Vote System?
(a) Each voter is required to indicate the preferences of candidates on
ballot paper.
(b) Each voter has more than one vote.
(c) Candidates need to achieve the quota for getting elected.
(d) Candidates who polled the least number of votes are eliminated.
21. Match List I with List II

Thinkers Electoral System


I.Preferential Vote
1. Steven J. Brams System

2. Marquis de II.Approval Voting


Condorcet

C. Thomas Hare III. Greatest Divisors


Method
D. Victor D’Hondt IV.Condorcet Method

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(b) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(c) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(d) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

22. Match list (i) to List (ii) :

Country Electoral System


a)Nepal 1)Party-List System
b)Pakistan 2)Mixed of First-Past-The-Post and Party-List
c)Indonesia 3)Two-Round System
d)Brazil 4)First-Past-The-Post System

Choose the correct match:


(a) (a)–(2), (b)–(1), (c)–(4), (d)–(3)
(b) (a)–(4), (b)–(3), (c)–(1), (d)–(2)
(c) (a)–(2), (b)–(4), (c)–(1), (d)–(3)
(d) (a)–(2), (b)–(1), (c)–(3), (d)–(4)
23. Identify the correct statement regarding the slate system:
i. Used in the election of the American Presidential Electoral Co
election.
ii. The slate which gets the majority of votes polled is declared electe
its proportionality.
iii. The voters vote for parties and not individuals.
Code:
(a) i, ii, and iii
(b) Only i and iii
(c) Only ii and iii
(d) Only i and ii

24. Which are the correct statements about the role of interest groups?
(a) Interest groups play an important role in linking the state and socie
(b) Interest groups play a role as ‘social partners’ in government.
(c) Interest groups’ role as social partners remains important in
corporatist countries.
(d) Interest groups as social partners represent a form of singularism.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B, and C only
(b) A, B, C, and D
(c) A, C, and D only
(d) C and D only

25. Who described the Democrats and Republicans in America ‘as two
bottles of wine, liquor being the same but different labels’?
(a) Ernest Barker
(b) Joseph Schumpeter
(c) Lord James Bryce
(d) Robert Michels

26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Types of Interest Features
Group
(a)Anomic group (i)have an informal
structure
(b)Institutional Interest (ii) cross-sectional
Group membership
(c)Non-Associational (iii) professionally employ
Groups persons
(d)Associational Interest (iv) homogeneous cliente
Groups

(a) (b) (c) (d)


(a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

27. According to Gabriel Almond classification Farmer based interest group


is an example of:
(a) Institutional Interest Group
(b) Associational Interest Group
(c) Non-Associational Interest Group
(d) Anomic Interest Group

28. Match the following :

Types Groups

1. Associational Interest Groups 1. Naxalite Groups

2. Institutional Interest Group 2. Indian Medical Association

c.Anomic Interest Groups


3. Jamaat-e-Islami

d.Non-Associational Interest Groups 4. State Civil Services Associat

Codes:
(a) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4
(b) a–2, b–4, c–3, d–1
(c) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(d) a–2, b–4, c–1, d–3

29. In which of the following book Gabriel Almond presented his


classification of interest groups?
(a) Comparative Politics Today: A World View
(b) Comparative Politics: A Developmental Approach
(c) The Politics of the Developing Areas
(d) The Civic Culture

30. Which among the following statement is incorrect about NGOs:


1. An NGO or a non-governmental organization is a private institutio
independent of the government.

2. They are humanitarian and profit-oriented.

3. NGOs are classified by orientation as local, regional, national, or int


NGOs.

4. They are registered organizations or informal groups, with unclearl


aims and objectives.

Choose the correct option:


(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(b) Only 2, 3, and 4
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 2 and 4
Answer Key

1. 6. 11. 16. 21. 25. 29.


(c) (a) (c) (c) (b) (c) (c)
2. 7. 12. 17. 22. 26. 30.
(b) (b) (c) (a) (c) (c) (b)
3. 8. 13. 18. 23.
27. (b)
(a) (a) (d) (b) (b)
4. 9. 14. 19. 24.
28. (d)
(d) (c) (d) (c) (a)
5. 10. 15.
20. (b)
(c) (d) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

7. Jean Blondel classified interest groups into two main categories i.e
community interest group and associational group, and divided them
further into four types i.e, customary, institutional, protective, and
promotional.

16. Options 2 and 4 are incorrect because they are representing the
features of old social movements.

30. Option 2 is incorrect because NGOs are non-profit-oriented


organizations. Option 3 is incorrect because NGOs are classified by
orientation and level of operation, orientation refers to the type of
activities an NGO undertakes. Activities may include human rights,
environmentalism, health, or development.
Previous Year Questions

1. According to Jean Blondel, which of the following are the three


phases in the development of comparative method in the 20th
century? (2016)
(a) Legalistic phase
(b) Behaviouralist phase
(c) Neo-institutional phase
(d) New Eclecticism phase
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (a), (b) and (c)
(b) (b), (c) and (d)
(c) (a), (b) and (d)
(d) (a), (c) and (d)

2. Which of the following are the constitutional conventions of the


British parliamentary system ? (2016)
(A) The ministers are collectively responsible to the House of Common
(B) Parliament must be summoned once a year.
(C) Prime Minister must belong to the House of Commons.
(D) Speaker is allowed to continue as Speaker as long as s/he desires
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

3. The main impact of the systems theory on the social sciences can
be traced to (2016)
(a) the 1920s
(b) the 1930s
(c) the 1940s
(d) the 1950s

4. First past-the-post system for elections to the legislature is followed


in: (2016)
(a) The United States
(b) India
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) France
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (a) and (b)
(b) (b) and (c)
(c) (a), (b) and (c)
(d) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

5. Who among the following supported the ‘configurative approach’ to


comparative politics ? (2016)
(A) Gabriel Almond
(B) R.G. Neuman
(C) Carter and Herg
(D) David Apter
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and(C)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (C) and (A)

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below: (2016)

List I List II
(Authors) (Books)
(A)John Blondel (i)Nationalism and Social
Communication
(B)Almond and (ii) An Introduction to
Coleman Comparative Governmen
(C)Karl Deutsch (iii) The Politics of Moderniza
(D)David Apter (iv) The Politics of the
Developing Areas

(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)


(b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

7. Arrange the following Prime Ministers of Labour Party in


chronological order by choosing the correct order: (2016)
(i) Harold Wilson
(ii) Edward Heath
(iii) John Major
(iv) James Callaghan
(a) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(d) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

8. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2016)
Assertion (A): In a parliamentary system, a cabinet minister can be
dismissed by the Prime Minister from the council of ministers.
Reason (R): The president appoints the minister on the advice of the
prime minister.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the correct explan
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the co
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

9. Since mid-1950s, the major trends in comparative politics have been


in the areas of: (2016)
(A) systems theories
(B) culture theories
(C) development theories
(D) class theories
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

10. The power that makes the Supreme Court of America the third
Chamber of the legislative is: (2017)
(a) Original
(b) Appellate
(c) Advisory
(d) Judicial review

11. Who among the following has defined “political power” as the
“relationship in which one person or a group is able to determine
the actions of another in the direction of the former’s own end” ?(2017)
(a) Bertrand Russel
(b) Habermas
(c) Morgenthau
(d) David Easton

12. Which one of the following committees dealt with political activities
of civil servants in Britain? (2017)
(a) Mastermann Committee
(b) Plowden Committee
(c) Assheton Committee
(d) Northcote-Trevelyan Committee

13. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer
using the codes given below. The Civil Service Reform Act 1978 of
the United States of America introduced (2017)
(A) Performance budgeting system
(B) Merit pay provision for middle managerial personnel
(C) Performance appraisal system
(D) Office of Personnel Management
Codes:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B) and (D)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (D)

14. The system of Efficiency Rating for scientifically assessing the


performance of public officials for promotion first originated in
(2017)
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) U. S. A .
(d) U. K.

15. Which one of the following is not a feature of Easton’s intellectual


foundation stones of behaviouralism? (2017)
(a) Regularities
(b) Values
(c) Pure Science
(d) Stratification

16. Arrange the following concepts in order in which they appeared.


Use the code given below: (2017)
(A) Democratic Centralism
(B) Feed – Back System
(C) New Democracy
(D) Due Process of Law
(a) (D), (B), (A), (C)
(b) (B), (D), (C), (A)
(c) (D), (A), (C), (B)
(d) (A), (C), (D), (B)

17. Who among the following is regarded as the Father of Comparative


Politics ? (2017)
(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) Lucian Pye
(d) G.A. Almond

18. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from
the codes given below: (2018)
Assertion (A): After the World War II, many Afro-Asian nations began
as democratic republican systems. But very soon they ended up as
military dictatorships.
Reason (R): Most of these nations experienced civil wars due to
ethnic, religious and linguistic diversities which eventually led to their
collapse as democracies.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

19. Who among the following has said that “privatization promotes
greater opportunities for corruption. Public administrators must
resist the market-based concepts of treating citizens as consumers and
degrading them to market commodities” ? (2018)
(a) John McMurtry
(b) Ali Farazmand
(c) Robert Putnam
(d) Larry Diamond

20. Who among the following wrote the article entitled “The
Behavioural Approach in Political Science: Epitaph for a Monument
to a Successful Protest”? (2018)
(a) Heinz Eulaei
(b) M.Q. Sibley
(c) R.A . Dahl
(d) David Easto

21. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
(Mass (Idea)
Compaign)
(A)The Great (i)Student & intellectuals were
Leap Forward first invited to express their
criticism of the regime.
(B)The hundred (ii) It was undertaken to
flowers defeat KMT forees
through guerrilla warfa
(C)The Great (iii) Destined to bring
Proletarian spectacular increase i
cultural economic productivity
Revolution
(D)The Historic (iv) Aimed at purging all a
‘Long March’ Mao elements from th
party & the governmen

Codes:
(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
22. Which approach treats the state as an institution intended for
creation and enforcement of law and refuses to treat it as a social
organisation? (2018)
(a) Legal – institutional approach
(b) Political economy approach
(c) Normative approach
(d) Comparative approach

23. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
(Authors) (Books)
(A)John Austin (i)The law of the
Constitution
(B)A. V. Dicey (ii) Modern Constitution
(C)K. C. (iii) Elections and Political Development
Wheare South Asian Experience
(D)Norman D. (iv) Lectures on Jurisprudence
Palmer

Codes:
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

24. Which of the following are the features of the judicial system of the
United Kingdom? (2018)
(A) Rule of law
(B) Jury system
(C) Judicial review
(D) Separate administrative courts
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (A) and (B)
(d) (B) and (C)

25. Which of the following gives legitimacy to the government in


modern times? (2018)
(A) Party manifestoes
(B) Periodic elections
(C) Bureaucratic leadership
(D) Independent judiciary
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (D) and (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (B) only
(d) (A), (B) and (D)

26. Which of the following statements is not true about the systems
theory? (2018)
(A) It is a ‘status quoist’ model
(B) It is a dynamic model as it seeks to explain the functioning of a po
system
(C) It is mostly relevant to western advanced nations.
(D) It has not taken into account the third world countries reality.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (B) only
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (A) and (D)
27. Which of the following contributed to the streak the using rise of
executive and the relative decline of legislature in modern times?
(2018)
(A) Delegated legislation
(B) Charismatic leadership of the executive
(C) Emergence of party system
(D) Specialization leading to the complex nature of legislation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

28. Which of the following statements are true regarding a revolution?


(2018)
(A) Revolution implies a shift in the class composition of elites.
(B) Transfer of power by legal or non-legal means.
(C) Alteration of values and myths of the society.
(D) Alteration of institutions
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

29. Which one of the following countries has no provision for Judicial
Review? (2018)
(a) United States of America
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Switzerland
(d) India
30. Apart from low income, the third world is also identified by the
presence of: (2018)
(A) Social inequalities
(B) Economic prosperity
(C) Human and economic poverty
(D) Gender inequalities
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) B and D only
(d) A, C and D only

31. Which of the following statements are correct ? (2018)


(A) Cabinet is an extra-constitution institution in the United State
America.
(B) It is simply an advisory body.
(C) It is collectively responsible to the congress.
(D) The members of the cabinet quite often take part in the cong
debates to defend the policy of the Government.
Select the correct answer from the codes of given below
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)

32. Direct democracy is not possible in the modern times because


(2018)
(a) People are indifferent towards the affairs of state.
(b) Political parties are opposed to it.
(c) Propertied classes oppose it.
(d) Of the practical difficulties posed by the size and population of mo
state.
33. Which one of the following is a character of “Co-operative
Federalism” ? (2018)
(a) A spirit of competition and rivalry between the centre and the state
(b) Co-operation secured on the basis of strong centre.
(c) Decentralization and more state responsibility.
(d) A spirit of co-operation among states.

34. Which one of the following practices is employed in the American


legislative process in order to delay a particular legislation? (2018)
(a) Gerrymandering
(b) Filibustering
(c) Log Rolling
(d) Spoils system

35. Propounder of the group theory of politics is (2018)


(a) Arthur Bently
(b) Graham Wallas
(c) Charles Marium
(d) David Easton

36. The crises described by Leonard Binder et all in their book “crises
and sequences in Political Development” are: (2018)
(A) Identity crises
(B) Integration crises
(C) Legitimacy crises
(D) Resource Mobilisation crises
Codes:
(a) (A)
(b) (A), (B)
(c) (A), (B), (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C), (D)

37. ‘Delegated legislation’ is not (2018)


(a) Subordinate legislation
(b) Executive legislation
(c) Ordinance making power
(d) Rule making power

38. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
(Citizen’s grievance redressal) (Countries

(A)Procurator system 1. France

(B)Administrative Courts 2. Russia

(C)Ombudsman 3. Britain

(D)Parliamentary commissioner 4. Sweden

Codes:
(a) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-1
(b) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3
(c) (A)-1, (B)-3, (C)-4, (D)-2
(d) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3

39. Frants Faron was the first scholar to use the term “Third World”. To
which country he belonged ? (2018)
(a) France
(b) England
(c) Algeria
(d) Egypt

40. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)
List I List II
(A)India (i)Rule of Law
(B)U.S.A. (ii) Judicial Review
(C)U.K. (iii) Two sets of courts
(D)France (iv) Due process of law

Codes:
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

41. Who among the following has given ‘sleeping dogs’ theory of
democratic culture ? (2019)
(a) Lucian Pye and Robert E. ward
(b) James S. Coleman and Myron weiner
(c) James C . Charlesworth and F. W. Riggs
(d) Almond and Verba

42. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (2019)

List I List II
(Authors) (Books)
Political man The Social Bases of pol
1. S.M. Lipset

Neo-colonialism The highest stage of


2. Lenin Imperialism

C.L. Anderson Transitions to Democracy


D.Charles Tilly From Mobilisation to Revolution

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

43. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2019)

List I List II
(Thinkers) (Concepts)

(A)Karl Deutsch 1. Modernisation - a multifaceted

(B)Huntington 2. Circulation of elites

(C)Pareto 3. The gate keepers

(D)David Easton 4. Receptors

Code:
(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

44. Who among the following makes a distinction between system


maintenance and system persistence? (2019)
(a) Gabriel Almond
(b) David Easton
(c) Lucian Pye
(d) F.W. Riggs

45. Arrange the following books in order in which they appeared. Use
the code given below: (2019)
(A) Comparative Federalism
(B) Democratisation: Theory and Practice
(C) The End of History and the last man
(D) The Civic culture: Political attitude and Democracy in five nations
Codes:
(a) (C), (D), (B), (A)
(b) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(c) (A), (C), (D), (B)
(d) (D), (C), (B), (A)

46. “We are under the Constitution, but the constitution is what the
Judges say it is”. Besides U.S.A . to which one of the following
countries can this be applicable? (2019)
(a) Switzerland
(b) India
(c) U.K.
(d) Russia

47. Who among the following has argued that the electoral system
determines the nature of the party system? (2019)
(a) Duverger
(b) Mitchels
(c) Schumpeter
(d) Weber

48. Which of the following writers are not associated with dependency
theory? (2020)
(A) A .G. Frank
(B) Gramsci
(C) Louis Althusser
(D) Wallerstein
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (B) and (D)
(c) (B) and (C)
(d) (A) and (D)
49. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from
the codes given below: (2020)
Assertion (A): Proportional representation with single transferable
vote system is more representative than other systems of
representation.
Reason (R): In a majoritarian system, the minorities do not find
adequate representation.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

50. What is the correct sequence of the following characteristics of


political development ? (2020)
(A) Capacity
(B) Equality
(C) Differentiation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (A) and (C)
(c) (C), (A) and (B)
(d) (C), (B) and (A)

51. Match the following and select the correct pairs: (2020)

List I List II
(Authors) (Books)
(A)Arend
Lijphart 1. Comparative Federalism

(B)Thomas
Hueglin 2. Comparing Federal System
(C)Giovanni
Sartori 3. Patterns of Democracy Government forms and
performance in thirty-six countries

(D)Ronald L.
4. Comparative constitutional Engineering An inquiry
Watts
intostructures, incentives and outcomes

Codes:
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(d) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

52. Which of the following statements is not correct ? (2020)


(a) Political culture is a set of basic political attitudes.
(b) Political culture cannot be empirically studied.
(c) The study of political culture focuses on attitude of people and
likely effects on politics.
(d) Political culture has a companion approach i. e. political socialisatio

53. In which of the following countries the residuary powers rest with
the states/units ? (2020)
(A) U. S. A.
(B) India
(C) Switzerland
(D) Australia
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (C) and (D)
(c) (A) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
54. Given below are two statements, on labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R): Select the correct answer from
the codes given below: (2020)
Assertion (A): Political development approach came under criticism
in the mid-1960s.
Reason (R): The approach based on the experiences of the United
States and Western Europe had limited relevance in the Third World.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

55. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). (2020)
Assertion (A): Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts
absolutely.
Reason (R): Democracy is the best check against the misuse of
power as the power is distributed among various groups.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is
correct ?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

56. The study of comparative politics became significant after the:


(2020)
(A) World War I
(B) World War II
(C) Emergence of new nations
(D) Rise of middle eastern nations
Choose the correct answer:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (D)
(d) (B) and (D)

57. Not matched with Lenin’s, idea on revolution (2020)


(a) Revolution can not sustain without leadership
(b) Professional revolutionaries are necessary for revolution
(c) Only the working class is capable for revolution
(d) The base of movement is constructed of those groups of people
are attracted towards struggle

58. According to the dependancy theory, root cause behind the


underdevelopment of third world countries (2020)
(a) Social and economic development of these countries is controlle
the external forces
(b) Military rules in these countries
(c) Political Instability in these countries
(d) Increasing corruption in these countries

59. Those characteristic which is essential for presidential form of


government but not essential for’ parliamentary form of government
is (2020)
(a) Supremacy of Parliament
(b) Effective Opposition Party
(c) Supremacy of Constitution
(d) Definite duration of executive

60. Identify the correct pair among the following: (2020)


(a) Almond and Powell - Comparative politics: A DevelopmentApproac
(b) R. C Macridis - Comparative Politics Today: A World View
(c) Sydney Verba - The Study of Comparative Government
(d) Easton - The Politics of the Developing Areas

61. Arrange in chronological order, the following constitutions in order


of their year of framing (2021)
(A) Constitution of Switzerland
(B) Constitution of America
(C) Constitution of India
(D) Constitution of Canada
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, A, D, C
(c) C, B, D, A
(d) D, A, C, B

Direction: Read the given passage and answer the next 5 questions that
follow (2021)
Since the 1960s, dependency theory generalized from the Latin
American experience, applying it to the rest of the world. Wallerstein (1974,
1980, 1989) advocated his theory of a world economic system which
consisted of concentric rings-the ‘core’ countries of the West, a ‘semi-
periphery’ and the ‘periphery’-a differentiation made possible by history. The
core states industrialized first and acquired a decisive advantage over the rest
of the world. Peripheral states are those that cater to the needs of the core
and are wilfully prevented from developing higher industrial skills. The semi-
periphery is the middle category of states that can move in either direction,
and may include one-time core states that have lost their states. The whole
system reflects an international division of labour. A basic nature of this
system is the transference of surplus from the periphery to the core. P. P. Rey
(1971, 1973), a French sociologist, added to the idea of dualism by advancing
a more refined notion of the ‘articulation of modes of production’. He argued
that underdevelopment in certain areas of the world was largely due to the
nature of indigenous society. In the West, feudalism led to capitalism because
of the attitude of the feudal upper class. In the rest of the world, which had not
experienced European feudalism, the integration of a society into the world
economy through trade and investment results in a strengthening of the
existing governing classes, reinforcing their resistance to the extension of
capitalism. Caporaso and Behrour (1981) stated: ‘dependency refers to a
structural condition in which a healthy integrated system cannot complete its
economic cycle except by an exclusive (or limited) reliance on an external
complement’.

62. According to Wallerstein in the world economic system reflects:


(2021)
(a) Unequal distribution of resources
(b) Historically emergent inequalities
(c) International division of labour
(d) Nature of indigenous society

63. Who among the following said that “post-behaviouralism was a


genuine revolution, not a reaction; a becoming, not a preservation;
a reform, not a counter reformation”? (2021)
(a) James Bryce
(b) Charles E . Merriam
(c) David Easton
(d) G. A . Almond

64. Who gave the concept of ‘semi-periphery’ in dependency theory?


(2021)
(a) A . G. Frank
(b) Samir Amin
(c) Immanuel Wallerstein
(d) Raul Prebisch

65. Who among the following said, ‘we cannot shed our values in the
way we remove our coats’ ? (2021)
(a) Leo Strauss
(b) Alfred Cobban
(c) Jean Blondel
(d) David Easton

66. Among the following essential condition of constitutionalism is not


(2021)
(a) Supreme and Free judiciary
(b) Regular Election
(c) Bureaucracy
(d) Rights and Liberties

67. Identify the incorrect pair among the fallowings: (2021)


(a) The Ruling Class - Mosca
(b) Elite and Society - Bottomore
(c) The power elite- Wright Mills
(d) The Mind and Society – Raymond Aron

68. ‘Articulation of mode of production’ explains (2021)


(a) Emergence of the semi-periphery
(b) Passage from feudalism to capitalism in the West
(c) Loss of states of countries in the core
(d) Under-development in certain areas of the world

69. The integration of non-European countries in the world economy


results in (2021)
(a) Strengthening their resistance to expansion of capitalism
(b) Weakening of the ruling elite
(c) Strengthening of feudalism
(d) Strengthening of the semi-periphery

70. Dependency as an integrated system relies on: (2021)


(a) Historical factors
(b) External contributory factors
(c) Internal milieu
(d) Regional condition

Answer Key

1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61.


(a) (d) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b)
2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62.
(d) (a) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c)
3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63.
(a) (b) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c)
4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64.
(d) (c) (c) (b) (b) (a) (c)
5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65.
(b) (d) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d)
6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66.
(a) (c) (b) (d) (b) (b) (c)
7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67.
(d) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c) (d)
8. 18. 28. 38. 48. 58. 68.
(d) (a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d)
9. 19. 29. 39. 49. 59. 69.
(d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (a)
10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70.
(d) (c) (d) (b) (b) (a) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Jean Blondel’s ‘three phases’ in development of comparative method i


20th century includes:
1. Legalistic Phase

2. Behaviouralist Phase

3. Neo-institutional Phase

Hence, the answer will be A.

5. Configurative approach of comparative politics believes in configurin


information from diverse fields and comparing them to establis
reasonable facts and arguments. This approach was supported by R. G
Neuman and Carter & Herg.
Hence, the answer will be B.

8.
In a parliamentary system, a cabinet minister can be dismissed by
the President from the council of ministers and not by the Prime
Minister. However, the PM can ask a minister to resign from his post.
The president appoints the minister on the advice of the prime
minister.

Hence, the answer will be D.

9. System theories stresses the need to study political system as whole


thus processes, policies, environment are major components of analysis
Culture approach of comparative politics explains the diversity amon
and continuity within states. Development theories of comparativ
politics describe different meaning and strands of development betwee
developed and developing nations. Class theories explain different clas
structure at societal and as well as state level.

11. David Easton defined political power as the ‘relationship in which one
person or a group is able to determine the actions of another in the
direction of the former’s own end’. In modern times state has the
ultimate power to rule. Political power comes from and deposited in the
political institutions of the state.

12. Right to political activity of civil servants is determined by constitutional


theory of government. Civil servant are required to maintained political
neutrality for the success of democratic government. Masterman
committee in 1948 of UK dealt with concept of political neutrality of
higher civil services.

13. Civil Service Reform Act 1978 of the United States enacted to provide
federal managers with flexibility to improve government functioning and
productivity. Civil Service Reform Act 1978 replaces the Civil Service
commission with three new agencies- The office of personal
management, The merit systems protection board, and The federal
labour relations authority.

14. The System of efficiency rating in USA is used for effective


performance management of public officials for promotions. There are
Five-level rating system: Level 5 – Outstanding, Level 4 – Exceeds
Fully Successful, Level 3 – Fully Successful, Level 2 – Minimally
Satisfactory and Level 1 – Unsatisfactory.

15. Behaviouralism emerged in 1950’s and 1960’s to move away from


conventional way of analysing political science. Behaviouralism
promoted factual analysis and studies the observable and measurable
behaviour of society and humans beings. Almond was one of the key
founder of behavioural approach of political science.

16.

Due Process of law originated by English Magna Carta in 1215


Lenin conceptualized Democratic centralism in 1902
David Easton conceptualized feed-back system in his System theory
in 1953
New Democracy conceptualized by Mao Zedong in his four social
class theory in post-revolutionary China.

17. Aristotle has been regarded as Father of Political science and


Comparative politics. He was a Greek ancient philosopher and was a
disciple of Plato. His influential work ‘politics’ set him apart from Plato.
He had surveyed various forms of Constitutions in the ancient world
and imply that a human being can lead a meaningful life only as a
member of a state. Aristotle was the first who used the comparative
method for his analysis of various constitutions.

19. Ali Farazmand in his work “Privatization Or Public Enterprise Reform?”


argued that privatization promotes greater opportunities for corruption.
Public administrators must resist the market-based concepts of treating
citizens as consumers and degrading them to market commodities.
Hence, the answer will be B.

20. Robert A. Dahl wrote the article entitled “The Behavioural Approach in
Political Science: Epitaph for a Monument to a Successful Protest” in
1961.
Hence, the correct answer will be C.

21. The correct match will be:

The Great Leap Forward: Destined to bring spectacular increase in


economic productivity
The hundred flowers: Students & intellectuals were first invited to
express their criticism of the regime.
The Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution: Aimed at purging all anti-
Mao elements from the party & the government.
The Historic’ Long March’: It was undertaken to defeat KMT forces
through guerrilla warfare.

These all are important events of the Chinese Communist Revolution


under the leadership of Mao Zedong.
Hence, the correct answer will be A.

22. The legal - institutional approach treats the state as an institution


intended for creation and enforcement of law and refuses to treat it as a
social organisation.
Hence, the correct answer will be A.

25. The conduct of periodic elections has become the new legitimising tool
to the government in modern times across the world.
Hence, the correct answer will be C.

27. The increasing instances of delegated legislation, charismatic


leadership of the executive, emergence of party system, specialization
leading to the complex nature of legislation etc. have contributed to the
streak in the using rise of executive and the relative decline of
legislature in modern times
Hence, the correct answer will be D.

31. US Cabinet is collectively responsible to the congress as in presidential


constitutional polity cabinets are meant to advise the president on
issues related to their respective offices. US Cabinet secretaries are
selected president with a senate confirmation required for approval of
nominees.

32. Direct democracy allows public to vote directly on a constitutional


amendment, law, treaty or any policy decision. In Ancient greek times
people directly participate in political affairs but modern states has
posed difficulties as the size and population is so huge. Referendums is
one of the instrument of direct democracy in modern times.

33. In co-operative federalism centre and state share horizontal


relationship. Centre and state both shows cooperation. Co-operative
federalism enables state participation in the formulation and
implementation of national policies.
34. Filibustering is a unique political procedure of American legislative
process through which any one or more members of the Congress
debate on the proposed legislation as long as to delay the decision
being made on the proposed legislation.

36. Crises and Sequences in Political Development (1971) authored by


many including Leonard Binder. In book one of the key concept was
introduced called ‘crisis syndrome of modernization’. Binder in his part
connected modernization with different spheres of crisis- identity
(religiou, ethnic, citizenship), legitimacy, participation of the elite and
masses or integration, separation between status and privileges, and
management control.

38.

Russia has Procurator system as citizens grievance redressal


system
France has Administrative courts as citizens grievance redressal
system
Sweden has Ombudsman as citizens grievance redressal system
Britain has Parliamentary commissioner as citizens grievance
redressal system

39. Frantz Fanon book ‘The Wretched of the Earth (1966)’ is the most
popular book on Decolonization. Fanon explains that colonized were
disinherited and wretched are new men, rising against the system.
These new men are gaining authority and dignity, which were
previously denied to them by the colonizers.

44. David Easton propounded System theory of comparative politics.


Feedback is one of the key principles of System theory. System-
maintenance asserted by Easton to ascertain feedback and feedback
responses. System persistence he asserted requires to maintain a
political system. Political system converts demands and bring outputs
through feedback mechanisms.

47. Maurice Duverger in his works i.e. ‘political parties, their organization
and activity in modern state’ and ‘choosing an electoral system: issues
and alternatives’ proposed a direct correlation between electoral
system and party system. His conceptualization is known as
‘Duverger’s Law’

49. Proportional representation with a single transferable vote system is


more representative than other systems of representation. Because it
reflects the overall distribution of public support for each political party.
Hence, the correct answer will be B.

53. Residuary powers are such powers that are retained by governments
federal or units after certain powers given to the other authorities. In
India residuary powers are given to the parliament. Parliament has
exclusive poer to make any law that mentioned in concurrent or state
list.

57. Lenin in his work State and revolution, wrote that during 1905
revolution working class overenthusiastically participated in the
agitation to achieve ‘new age’. Lenin termed working class as ‘new
people’ who weren’t coward and hypocrite like bourgeoisie.

59. Presidential form of government required a fixed tenure or definite


duration of executive especially for the office of President. Fixed tenure
provides stability of ytge government and continuance of policies.
Some of the examples of presidential form of government are United
States of America and South Korea etc.

64.

Written in 1787, ratified in 1788, and in operation since 1789, the


United States Constitution is the world’s longest surviving written
charter of government. Its first three words – “We The People” –
affirm that the government of the United States exists to serve its
citizens. The supremacy of the people through their elected
representatives is recognized in Article I, which creates a Congress
consisting of a Senate and a House of Representatives. The
positioning of Congress at the beginning of the Constitution affirms
its status as the “First Branch” of the federal government.
Switzerland’s constitution (modeled after that of the United States)
was adopted in 1848 and substantially revised in 1874.
The Constitution of Canada includes the Constitution Act, 1867, and
the Constitution Act, 1982. It is the supreme law of Canada.
The Constitution of India was enacted on 26 January 1950.

Hence, the correct answer will be B.


UNIT V
International Relations

Chapter 1: Approaches of International Relations


Chapter 2: Concepts of International Relations
Chapter 3: Conflict and Peace
Chapter 4: United Nations
Chapter 5: Political Economy of International Relations
Chapter 6: Regional Organization
Chapter 7: Contemporary Challenges in International
Relations
CHAPTER 1
Approaches of International
Relations

INTRODUCTION
International relations is one of the most important fields of study within the
discipline of political science. As a subject, it requires a vigilant understanding
of the dynamics of past as well as present global order with theoretical
examination to presume future events.
Scholars had studied and explained global events with the help of different
ideological orientations. Approaches to the study of international relations are
different theoretical tools which are used to make sense of international
happenings and international events and to come out with a decision or
conclusion. No approach to international relations is completely unbiased,
objective, and neutral and their use and utility are decided by their
understanding and relevance.
The study of international relations till the first world war had a hegemony
of the idealist school or what is also known as the liberal school of
international theory. During the interwar period and later another famous
approach called realism got into the limelight. Though idealists and realists
have dominated the sphere of international study, today we have different
theoretical tools which not only are critical to these two but also give some
alternative and a new way of thinking about and understanding international
relations.

IDEALISM
Idealism represents an altruistic and positive orientation towards the world
order. It represents a set of ideas which is in opposition to war and advocates
the reform of the international community. The central theme of idealism is
always to look for certain ideas in international relations which are conducive
to western capitalism, and it always aspires to build peace on the basis of
cooperation instead of conflicts and order instead of chaos. Idealism is
shaped by the inner goodness of humans and that’s why it advocates that
states are rational actors, who always prioritize the wellness of their people. It
traces its roots in Woodrow Wilson’s famous ‘14 Points Speech’ at the
Paris Peace Conference (1918) after the end of the first world war which
emphasized democratization and free trade.

Key Concepts and Thinkers


Universal and Perpetual Peace: Popularized by Immanuel
Kant, the concept reiterates the moral high ground of international
politics.
Multilateralism: As idealism is a strong advocate of international
laws, it believes in a mixed-actor model of the international sphere to
enforce those laws, instead of a state-centric model which creates a
system of international lawlessness.
Great Illusion: The idea was promoted by Norman Angell who
argued that ‘there is no winner in a war. Victory in a war is just an
illusion, even winners have paid a price which is far greater than the
prize of the war.’
Global Interdependence: As Joseph Nye argues, the world has
become a ‘3D chess board’ with complex interdependence due to
globalization and trade integration.
Republican Liberalism: Connecting democracy with peace,
republican liberalism was promoted by democratic peace theorists like
Michael Doyle.
Collective Security: The idea of collective security was first spelt
as the foundation of the league of nations and later on included in the
UN Charter. Under a collective security arrangement, an aggressor
against any one state is considered an aggressor against all other
states, which act together to repel the aggressor.
Thinkers: Woodrow Wilson, Alfred Zimmern, Philip Noel-
Baker, Parker Thomas Moon, Norman Angell, Bertrand
Russell, William Ladd, Mahatma Gandhi, Richard Cobden,
and Arnold J. Toynbee.
REALISM / CLASSICAL REALISM/ POLITICAL
REALISM
Realism was born in the inter-war period with the publication of ‘Twenty Years
Crisis’ by E. H. Carr in which he criticized idealism as a failed strategy which
could not prevent a world war. Later, Hans Morgenthau provided realism
with a theoretical explanation through his classic ‘Politics Among Nations’.
Realism suggests accepting the harsh realities of international politics, namely
the struggle for power and security. Realist thinkers believe that all states are
not equal in terms of power, therefore, they should act accordingly in order to
survive. The central idea of realism is based on two components, first is
human nature which is inherently selfish and second is the nature of the
international system, which is essentially anarchical.

Key Concepts and Thinkers


State Egoism and Struggle for Power: Ancient Greek thinker
Thucydides in his masterpiece ‘Peloponnesian War’ and Chinese
thinker Sun Tzu in his ‘Art of War’ has attributed the struggle for
power and existence of conflicts as the primary trait of interstate
relations. Similarly, Thomas Hobbes through his ‘Leviathan’ called
human nature as egoistic and self-centric, which also applies to
individual nations which are nothing but a collection of the same
egoistic people.
Statecraft and National Interest: Popularized by Niccolo
Machiavelli and later on promoted by Hans J. Morgenthau, the
idea of statecraft and national interest supersedes any other rhetoric.
Though subjective in interpretation, national interest is the core of
realist theory.
Balance of Power and Arms Race: Realism provides for a
balance of power as the only practical solution to the security dilemma
of nations. It talks about two levels of balancing i.e., internal balancing
through an arms race and external balancing through an alliance
system with other like-minded countries.
Thinkers: Max Weber, E. H. Carr, Frederick Schuman,
Nicholas Spykman, Reinhold Niebuhr, George F. Kennan,
Hans J. Morgenthau, and Henry Kissinger.
STRUCTURAL MARXISM
Though Karl Marx himself never talked about interstate relations much, his
writings inspired a whole new school of international relations theory which
not only challenges dominant narratives created by liberalism and realism but
also puts forward a theory which speaks for the ‘third world’. Emerging from
Karl Marx’s structural theory of the state where he puts that the ‘state is
nothing but a bureaucratic machinery of the bourgeoisie’, the same concept is
applied to understand the structure of the international system. Structural
Marxism too holds the opinion that the international system is a strictly class-
divided system where the international bourgeoisie (advanced capitalist
societies of the west) are exploiting the proletariat (developing countries of
Asia, Africa, and Latin America). They hold strong antagonism towards MNCs
and neoliberal international institutions like World Trade Organization.

Key Concepts and Thinkers


Neo-Colonialism: Coined by Kwame Nkrumah the idea speaks
about a new kind of colonialism which functions under the garb of
MNCs, NGOs, and other multilateral bodies.
Dependency Theory: Conceptualized by thinkers, like A. G.
Frank and Samir Amin, it talks about a global situation where
developing countries are almost dependent on the advanced industrial
west for finished goods and much more. They have been reduced to
the mere market of capitalist countries.
World System Theory: Popularized by Immanuel Wallerstein,
‘World System Theory’ argues that the world is divided among three
categories namely, ‘core’, ‘periphery’, and ‘semi–periphery’. The core
includes advanced developed countries which use peripheries (least
developed countries) and semi-peripheries (growing economies like
India, Brazil, South Africa, etc.) for their own interest. Interestingly,
Immanuel Wallerstein argues that semi-periphery though
themselves getting exploited by core countries also helps core
countries in exploiting peripheries.

NEO-LIBERALISM
Though it emerged from a famous quote by Woodrow Wilson in favour of
global institutions which goes as ‘Institutions will convert the “jungle” of
international relations into the “zoo”.’ However, initially liberal institutionalism,
the precursor of ‘neoliberal institutionalism’ was very broad in its framework
which was visible in the establishment of the UNO in 1945. Neo-liberal
institutionalism or neo-liberalism reiterates the Lockean idea of capitalism and
speaks for Woodrow Wilsonian principles of free trade.
Two seminal works that marked a break from the existing liberal tradition
in international relations are Robert Keohane’s ‘After Hegemony:
Cooperation and Discord in the World Political Economy (1984)’ and Robert
Axelrod’s ‘Evolution of Cooperation (1981)’. The key points of this theory
are more and more economic linkages, and cooperation creates a situation of
enduring peace and global interdependence.

Key Concepts and Thinkers


Neo-Liberal Institutionalism: It supports the idea of the
economic integration of the world through multilateral institutions like
the World Trade Organization and the International Monetary Fund.
Regional Trade Blocs: Regional trade blocs like the European
Union (EU) and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
create a new atmosphere of regional cooperation and coexistence.
Complex Interdependence: Joseph Nye and Robert O.
Keohane have claimed that different countries in the world are now
economically interlinked and hence, conflicts are not irreconcilable due
to the greater benefits of cooperation.
Hegemonic Stability Theory: Thinkers like Robert Gilpin and
Charles P. Kindleberger argued that the presence of a global
hegemon (e.g. the US) makes the global flow of goods and services
safe and secure, ensures adherence to international laws, and hence,
there are fewer conflicts.
Thinkers: Robert O. Keohane, Joseph Nye, and Charles P.
Kindleberger.

NEO-REALISM
Neo-realism takes cues from the classical realism of Hans Morgenthau
but developed its own hypothesis by giving more importance to the structure
of the international system rather than an unscientific explanation of human
nature. It is also known as structural realism. The Forerunner of this theory
was Kenneth Waltz who in his masterpiece ‘Theory of International Politics
(1979)’ provided that conflict among states is natural and power politics is the
only kind of politics possible in the virtually ‘anarchic’ world system. There is
no global government, no global police, and hence, states are the only actors
to safeguard their interests.

Key Concepts and Thinkers


Self-Help System and Anarchy: Unlike in the domestic sphere
where there is a government to protect the rights of people and to
provide them security, the international system is shaped by the
absence of any authority over and above the states and hence every
state act according to the principle of self-help.
Defensive Realism: Kenneth Waltz proclaimed that though the
military and economic power of a state matters for survival in an
anarchic world, their utility is only up to the limit that provides maximum
possible security. Hence, defensive realism put forward the idea of
‘security maximization’.
Offensive Realism: Contrary to Kenneth Waltz’s ‘security
maximization’, John Mearsheimer talked about the idea of ‘power
maximizer’. According to him, states are not merely seeking security
but competitive advantage in terms of power, hence, they should keep
building their power so that no other power could challenge them.
Polarity of Power and Stability: Kenneth Waltz argues that
bipolar world order is better than any other system because there is a
perfect balance of power possible in the case of two blocs. He even
said that ‘the cold war remained cold because of nuclear weapons.’
They created perfect deterrence.
Thinkers: Kenneth Waltz, Joseph Grieco, John
Mearsheimer, Christopher Layne, Stephen Krasner, and
Fareed Zakaria.

NEO-LIBERALISM VS NEO-REALISM
Argument Neo-Realism Neo-Liberalism
Nature of Anarchy (no authority to Anarchy (no authority to
International provide security to nation- enforce agreements and
System. states). maintain international laws).
Nature of The state can create a Cooperation on multilateral
Anarchy conducive environment platforms and through
despite anarchy by regional blocs can create
equalizing power (balance peace and order.
of power).
Key Actors States Various (States, MNCs,
NGOs, international
organizations, etc).
Key Themes Survival and Security Preferences and individual
utility of states.
Key Debates Hegemony, the balance of Alliances and supranational
power, and the balance of organizations
threat.

SOCIAL CONSTRUCTIVISM
Social constructivism was first coined by Nicholas Onuf in 1989 in his book
‘The World of Our Making’ where he put forward that nation-states are much
like individuals living in a reality primarily formed by themselves rather than
outside material entities. We are not made but constructed by our social and
cultural relations with others. Similarly, states through interstate interactions
and associations form their identities and interests which in turn inform the
structures and institutions they make among themselves. Though this is not to
say everything around us are beliefs or that ‘it is merely all in our head’ but
structures are real, material, and relatively stable but it is only by assigning
collective meanings to our structures that they will achieve their purpose.

Key Concepts and Thinkers


Anarchy is what states make of it: Alexander Wendt
criticized realists for giving a biased definition to anarchy and provided
that anarchy is not always to create conflicts rather it can also be
directed to create peace.
Nuclear Taboo: Nina Tannenwald argued that nuclear weapons
are neither made to use nor to deter war. She gave an example of the
Vietnam War, where despite being Nuclear Power, the US has to fight
a conventional war.
Thinkers: Alexander Wendt, Nicholas Onuf, Peter J.
Katzenstein, and Martha Finnemore.

CRITICAL INTERNATIONAL THEORY


Though inspired by Karl Marx and Immanuel Kant both, critical theory
traces its roots in Antonio Gramsci’s analysis of hegemony. His classic
ideas of manufacturing consent and the creation of ‘common sense’ are the
drivers of critical school. It studies the complex level of relations among states
and the hegemonic discourses. Frankfurt school also dwelled deeply on
critical theory.

Key Concepts and Thinkers


Robert Cox and Andrew Linklater: They have studied the
nature and nurture of American hegemony in the world.
Jurgen Habermas: Through his communication theory he tried to
analyze complex interconnections among various global actors.
Thinkers: Robert Cox, Andrew Linklater, and Nancy Fraser.

FEMINISM
The emergence of the feminist school of international relations is credited to
Cynthia Enloe (1989) who asked the question ‘Where are the women?’,
encouraging international relations scholars to see the spaces that women
inhabit in global politics and demonstrating that women are essential actors in
the international system. It emphasizes more on peacebuilding politics and
tries to portray the impact of war on women. As J. B. Elstein said, ‘men
make war because war makes men’, the feminist school takes war mongering
and conflicts as essentially patriarchal characteristics. The adoption of United
Nations Security Council Resolution 1325 in the year 2000 is taken as an
initial victory of feminist schools.

Key Concepts and Thinkers


Judith Ann Tickner: Author of ‘Gender in International Relations’,
Judith Ann Tickner provides strong arguments for including
women’s perspective in mainstream study and conduct of international
relations. She reformulated the 6 principles of realism (Hans
Morgenthau) according to the feminist school.
Cynthia Enloe: Author of ‘Bananas, Beaches, and Bases (1989)’.
Feminist Foreign Policy: Championed by former Swedish Foreign
Minister Margot Wallstrom emphasized upon including women in
decision-making and promoting issues of international importance
concerning women.
High Politics vs Low Politics: Feminist thinkers argues for giving
more emphasis to low politics issues like gender, family, institutions,
etc., rather than a traditional overemphasis on high politics of national
security, sovereignty, etc.
Thinkers: Sandra Whitworth, Elisabeth Prügl, Charlotte
Hooper, Judith Ann Tickner, Cynthia Enloe, Carol Cohn,
Laura Sjoberg, V. Spike Peterson, and Chandra Mohanty.

POST-MODERNISM/POST-STRUCTURALISM
This school of international relations emerged from the literary movement of
post-modernism where scholars like Michel Foucault spoke aggressively
against the dominance of certain discourses. According to this school, ‘truth is
majoritarian’ and the dominance of any actor would naturally create
discourses suitable to it. It analyzes the relationship between ‘knowledge and
power’ in the international sphere.

Key Concepts and Thinkers


Deconstruction: Jacques Derrida talked about the
deconstruction of classic texts to understand their actual meaning and
a broader perspective in which these texts were written.
Against Meta-Narratives: Thinkers like Jean Francois
Lyotard were vocal against the academic hegemony of certain
theories which do not tell the truth but create truth.
Der Derian and Richard Ashley are the key thinkers belonging to
the post-structural school of international relations.
LIST OF IMPORTANT BOOKS & THINKERS

Thinkers Books
Alfred Zimmern The League of Nations and the Rule of Law
1918–35 (1936)
Parker Thomas Moon Imperialism and World Politics (1926)
Norman Angell The Great Illusion (1909)
Arnold J. Toynbee Nationality & the War (1915)
E. H. Carr The Twenty Years’ Crisis: 1919–39 (1939)
Hans Morgenthau Politics Among Nations (1948)
Karl Deutsch Political Community at the International
Level (1953)
Michael W. Doyle Ways of war and Peace (1996)
Robert O. Keohane After Hegemony(1984) and Power and
Interdependence (1977)
John Mearsheimer The Tragedy of Great Power Politics (2001)
Christopher Layne The Peace of Illusions (2006)
Stephen Krasner Defending the national interest (1978)
Fareed Zakaria From Wealth to Power (1998)
Alexander Wendt Article—Anarchy is What States Make of it
(1992) and book—Social Theory of
International Politics (1999)
Nicholas Onuf The World of Our Making (1989)
Robert Cox Production, power, and world order (1987)
Andrew Linklater Beyond Realism and Marxism (1989)
Charlotte Hooper Manly States (2001)
Judith Ann Tickner Gendering World Politics (2001)
Cynthia Enloe Bananas, Beaches and Bases (1989)
V. Spike Peterson Gendered States
Chandra Mohanty Feminism Without Borders (2003)
Richard Ashley The Poverty of Neorealism(1984)
James Der Derian On Diplomacy: A Genealogy of Western
Estrangement (1987)
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. André Gunder Frank and Amir Samin are theorists belonging to whic
school of theory?
(a) Dependency Theory
(b) Critical Theory
(c) Marxian Theory
(d) Liberal Theory

2. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Structural realism argues that the character of the
international system is non-competitive equilibrium.
Statement II: According to structural realism, the behaviour of states
can be deduced from the properties of the state system which is
anarchical in nature.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

3. Who among the following has proposed the concept of historica


structures in international relations theory?
(a) Karl Polanyi
(b) Robert W. Cox
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Alexander Wendt

4. Which of the following ideas are related to the liberal school o


international relations?
1. International Organizations

2. Nuclear Deterrence

3. North-South Divide
4. Collective Security

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

5. Assertion (A): Nation-states are always compelled to behave in


responsible manner with each other due to complex interdependence.
Reason (R): Complex interdependence creates synergy in interstate
trade, communication, and flow of goods, services, and people but at
the same time creates conflicts of interest in certain other spheres.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

6. Identify the Social Constructivist thinkers:


1. Alexander Wendt

2. Nina Tannenwald

3. Nicholas Onuf

4. James Lovelock

Codes:
(a) Only 1, 2, and 3
(b) Only 2, 3, and 4
(c) Only 1, 3, and 4
(d) Only 4

7. Choose the correct statement from the following statements:


1. Offensive realism believes in power maximization through amassin
and weapons and economic wealth so that a revisionist power is su
before it emerges.
2. Defensive realism advocates an arms race and balance of power h
only up to the range it provides enough security and not beyond that
any other nation.

3. Kenneth Waltz was a stunt supporter of offensive realism wh


Mearsheimer opposed it.

Codes:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) All of the above

8. Liberal institutionalism has been modified into ‘neo-libera


institutionalism’ by giving more emphasis on?
(a) World Trade Organization
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) Regional Economic Blocs
(d) All of the above

9. Who among the following has studied the hegemonic power of the US
not only in the terms of its military ascendancy but also in terms of it
ability to generate broad consent for the ‘world order’ that it represents?
(a) Robert Gilpin
(b) Robert Cox
(c) Judith Ann Tickner
(d) Hadley Bull

10. Idea of ‘deconstruction’ and ‘contextualization’ is related to:


(a) Social Constructivism
(b) Feminism
(c) Post-Structuralism
(d) Critical Theory

11. Match the followings:


Scholar Idea
World of our making
1. Nina Tannenwald

Soft-Power
2. Norman Angell

Great Illusion
3. Nicholas Onuf

Nuclear Taboo
4. Joseph Nye

(a) 1–a, 2–b, 3–d, 4–c


(b) 1–d, 2–c, 3–a, 4–b
(c) 1–b, 2–d, 3–c, 4–a
(d) 1–c, 2–a, 3–b, 4–d

12. Match the followings:

Book Scholar

1. Politics Among Nations 1. Kenneth Waltz

2. Art of War 2. Hans Morgenthau

3. Prince c.Niccolo Machiavelli

4. Theory of International Politics d.Sun Tzu

(a) 1–a, 2–b, 3–d, 4–c


(b) 1–d, 2–c, 3–a, 4–b
(c) 1–b, 2–d, 3–c, 4–a
(d) 1–c, 2–a, 3–b, 4–d

13. Match the following:

Idea/Book Scholar

1. 14 Points 1. Hans Morgenthau

2. National Interest 2. Georg Sorensen

3. Security Dilemma c.Woodrow Wilson

4. Insecurity Dilemma d.John Herz

(a) 1–a, 2–b, 3–d, 4–c


(b) 1–d, 2–c, 3–a, 4–b
(c) 1–b, 2–d, 3–c, 4–a
(d) 1–c, 2–a, 3–d, 4–b

14. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?


(a) Cynthia Enloe—Bananas, Beaches, and Bases
(b) Margot Wallstrom—Gender in International Relations
(c) Joshua Goldstein—Gender and War
(d) Judith Ann Tickner—Gendering World Politics

15. What is the common point between the neo-realist and neo-liberal
theories of international relations?
(a) Both consider the state as an irrational actor.
(b) Both give supremacy to power politics.
(c) Both agree that motive of state action is always expansion.
(d) Both agree that the international system is shaped by anarchy.
16. Who is the author of the book ‘The League Of Nations And The Rule Of
Law’?
(a) Bertrand Russell
(b) Alfred Zimmern
(c) William Ladd
(d) Parker Thomas Moon

17. Who is the author of the book ‘The Tragedy of Great Power Politics’?
(a) Christopher Layne
(b) Stephen Krasner
(c) John Mearsheimer
(d) Kenneth Waltz

18. Who is the author of the book ‘The World of Our Making’?
(a) Peter J. Katzenstein
(b) Martha Finnemore
(c) Alexander Wendt
(d) Nicholas Onuf

19. Which among the following thinker does not belong to critical
international theory?
(a) Nancy Fraser
(b) Laura Sjoberg
(c) Robert Cox
(d) Andrew Linklater

20. Which among the following thinker re-formulated the six principles of
Hans Morgenthau?
(a) Charlotte Hooper
(b) Judith Ann Tickner
(c) Cynthia Enloe
(d) V. Spike Peterson
Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.


(a) (c) (a) (c) (d) (b) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c) (b)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.
18. (d)
(b) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. Statement I is incorrect because structural realism argues that th


character of the international system is competitive.

7. Option 3 is incorrect because Kenneth Waltz was a stunt supporter o


defensive realism while John Mearsheimer supports the idea of offensiv
realism.
CHAPTER 2
Concepts of International Relations

INTRODUCTION
International relations is the study of the political and social interaction of
state, non-state actors, intergovernmental organizations (UN, NATO,
European Union, and the Arab League), and individuals. To understand such
interactions, it is necessary for us to appreciate the importance of international
relations theory. Theory, in this sense, offers the conceptual tools to
accomplish three basic tasks: first, to analyze the impact of rules and
decisions on state behaviour, second, to understand the changing dimensions
and limits of power structures, institutions, and order, including the role of
greater transparency and accountability, and third is to promote the ideals of
justice, greater social inclusion, and equality.

STATE AND NATION-STATE SYSTEM


A state is a political unit with a defined area, population, government, and
sovereignty. The subject of international relations, in the traditional view, deals
with the interaction among independent sovereign states. States are important
because they have a monopoly on military power and they also make all the
relevant decisions about how relations with other states are conducted. The
state is comprised of ruling administration along formal administration of
government including laws. State boundaries are often changed by war,
negotiation, arbitration, or even by the sale of territory for money (Russia sold
Alaska to the US).
A nation-state is defined as a group of people who share a sense of
belonging to the state and it is the collective cultural, geographical, and
political identity of the people. It is a more precise concept than ‘country’ since
a country does not need to have a predominant ethnic group. The nation-state
is held together by its physical boundaries, its government, and the fact that
the people believe they are connected to each other.
The classical nation-states in northern and western Europe evolved with
the Peace of Westphalia (1648). After the second world war, a very different
generation of nation-states emerged from the process of decolonization
(Africa and Asia).

NON-STATE ACTORS
Non-state actors include organizations and individuals that are not affiliated
with, directed by, or funded through the government. These include
corporations, private financial institutions, and NGOs, as well as paramilitary
and armed resistance groups. There are various types of non-state actors
which include: large national and multinational corporations that are
authorized to act as single entities, legally as persons and are recognized as
such in law. This includes businesses like—Coca-Cola Company,
McDonald’s, etc. International media conglomerates, which are also usually
corporations, report on the social and political situation in countries worldwide
and are influential non-state actors, such as Reuters, Associated Press, etc.
Non-governmental organizations which include international non-
governmental organizations are usually non-profit organizations seeking to
effect change in humanitarian, educational, ecological, healthcare, public
policy, social, human rights, environmental, and other areas are notable non-
state actors.
Some religious groups engage in political affairs at an international level
like Quakers, as the historic peace church also forms an important non-state
actor. Another example is the Taliban, which is a religious group and also a
violent non-state actor along with ISIS (Islamic State of Iraq and Syria).

THEORIES OF POWER IN INTERNATIONAL


RELATIONS
Power is an attribute of particular actors in their interactions, as well as a
social process that constitutes the social identities and capacities of actors.
Various international relations diplomates have used the following concepts of
political power—realist thinkers, like Niccolo Machiavelli and Hans
Morgenthau used power as a goal in international relations. Some use
power as an influence through coercive, attractive, cooperative, and
competitive ways. Neo-realism defines power as entailing military capabilities
and economic strength. Some argue power is a victory in conflict and the
attainment of security.
In international relations, scholars use the term ‘polarity’ to describe the
distribution of power in the international system. ‘Unipolarity’ refers to one
power or hegemon. ‘bipolarity’ is two great powers. And ‘multipolarity’ is the
presence of three or more powers.

1. Super Power: In 1944, William T. Fox defined superpower as ‘grea


power plus great mobility of power’ and identified three states, Britain
the Soviet Union, and the US.
2. Great Power: States having strong political, cultural, and economic
influence over nations around them.
3. Middle Power: Forums, such as G2O and World Trade
Organization.
4. Small Power: Instruments of other powers and may at times be
dominated.

HARD, SOFT, AND SMART POWER


Hard Power: Refers to coercive tactics and the threat or use of
armed forces, economic pressure, or sanctions.
Soft Power: Joseph Nye is the leading proponent of it. Instruments
of soft power include debates on cultural values, dialogues on ideology
by means of diplomacy, dissemination of information, propaganda,
cultural programming, and so on.
Smart Power: The synthesis of hard power and soft power forms
smart power.
Balance of Power: This theory suggests that states secure their
survival by preventing any state from gaining enough military power to
dominate all others. States choose to balance for two reasons, first, for
survival and second for self-help which is very much close to realist
assumptions.
Fast power: Given by John Chipman. Speed has become the
determinant of power. Rule of the present world is not ‘survival of the
fittest’ but the ‘survival of the fastest’.
THEORIES OF SOVEREIGNTY
The doctrine of sovereignty is the fundamental organizing principle of
contemporary inter-state relations. It is sovereignty that confers a state’s
recognition by other states and gives a state the right to relate with other
countries on equal footing. Sovereignty may be defined as the independence
of state power from any other power, both in international relations as well as
internal matters. Sovereignty is characterized by three important features:
authority, command, and being obeyed.
Sovereignty has two dimensions, internal and external. Internal
sovereignty is understood to mean the sovereign rights of the state in
decision-making and enforcement authority in a given territory. External
sovereignty, of the state, means acceptance of the authority of states by other
states.
In international relations, there are two theories of sovereignty:

1. Absolute Sovereignty: The late nineteenth-century wa


characterized by the growth of the theory and practice of absolut
sovereignty in Germany and England. The advocates of this doctrin
state that sovereignty is not merely the supreme authority—Summ
Potestas (an authority over which there is no other authority), but als
the—Plenitude Potestas (full and more or less unlimited power).
2. Relative Sovereignty: In the period between two world wars, the
relativist approach to sovereignty dominated international political
thinking. Its main feature is that sovereignty can be subordinated to
international law, however importantly sovereignty of a state cannot be
subordinated to another state because all states in principle are equal.
Hence the theory of relative sovereignty provided the essential
prerequisites for the co-existence of states within the international
community.

CONCEPT OF SECURITY (TRADITIONAL AND


NON-TRADITIONAL)

Traditional Security Non-Traditional Security


Traditional Security Non-Traditional Security

1. The traditional notion of security 1. Non-traditional security goes


is concerned with the use of beyond military action and
military forces and action. focuses on the other kinds of
threats impacting human
existence.

2. Traditional security basically 2. It expands the notion of security


endangers certain core values of as it speaks of the security of
a nation like sovereignty, individuals, of people, and of
independence, and territorial humanity as a whole.
integrity.

3. It can be both external, i.e., 3. It is often referred to as human


threats emanating from other security or global security from
countries and internal, i.e., the dangers emanating from new
threats emanating from the sources or non-state actors.
groups or regions demanding
secessionism.

4. In traditional security the use of 4. In non-traditional security new


force is the source of threat as kinds of threats like terrorism,
well as the means of attaining poverty, human rights violation,
peace and security. human epidemics, and migration
could be extensively involved.

5. In traditional security the main 5. In non-traditional security the


strategies involved in countering main strategy involved in
threats are to defend, surrender, countering the threats is
prevent an attack, form an cooperation among the nation-
alliance, maintain a balance of states rather than military action.
power, etc.
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Consider the following statements.
A. A political unit with a defined area, population, government, and sove
known as a state.

B. A state is comprised of ruling and formal administration of go


including laws.

C. A state is a spatial concept and its boundaries are often not chan
by war, negotiation, arbitration, and annexation.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) Only A and B are Correct,
(b) Only B and C are correct
(c) Only A and C are correct
(d) All are correct.

2. A State in which people share a sense of belonging and is defined by th


collective cultural, geographical, and political identity is known as?
(a) City-State
(b) Democratic-State
(c) Nation-State
(d) Poly-State

3. Which treaty became a turning point in the evolution of the nation-state?


(a) Treaty of Rome
(b) Treaty of Paris
(c) Treaty of Versailles
(d) Treaty of Westphalia

4. Debate on cultural values, dialogues on ideology, dissemination o


information, and propaganda are the instruments of which type o
power?
(a) Smart Power
(b) Hard Power
(c) Super Power
(d) Soft Power

5. Match the following non-state actors with their associations:

Non-Sate Actors Association

1. MacDonald and Coca-Cola 1. International Media

2. Reuters and Associated Press 2. Terrorist Group

C. Quakers 3. Religious Group

D. Islamic State of Iraq and Syria (ISIS) 4. Businesses

Choose the correct options from the following:


(a) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2
(b) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(c) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(d) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

6. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): There are various types of non-state actors including
large national and multinational corporations which are recognized
under the law.
Reason (R): Non-state actors include organizations and individuals
that are not affiliated with or funded by the government.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true.

7. Which international identity defines power as entailing military capabilit


and economic strength?
(a) Realist Thinkers
(b) Neo-Realist Thinkers
(c) Liberal Thinkers
(d) Neo-Liberal Thinkers

8. The concept of bipolarity, which is used to describe the presence of two


powers in international relations could be seen during which of th
following phase?
(a) Post-Cold War (US)
(b) During the Cold War Period (US and USSR)
(c) During Decolonization Phase
(d) During the First World War

9. According to which concept of power does the state secure their surviva
by preventing any state from gaining enough military power to dominat
all others?
(a) Hard Power
(b) Soft Power
(c) Smart Power
(d) Balance of Power

10. What are the three important features of sovereignty?


(a) Authority, Power, and Law
(b) Law, Command, and Obedience
(c) Authority, Command, and Being Obeyed
(d) Power, Command, and Being Obeyed

11. Which theory of sovereignty advocates that sovereignty is not merely


‘Summa Potestas’ but also ‘Plenitude Potestas’?
(a) Relative Sovereignty
(b) Absolute Sovereignty
(c) Constructive Sovereignty
(d) Regulative Sovereignty

12. Choose the correct statements about Realist from the following:
A. The theory offers the conceptual tools to understand the impact of
decisions, and power structures and order.

B. International non-governmental organizations do not seek to effect c


humanitarian, educational, ecological, environmental, and public poli

C. A realist understanding of power is limited to national power.


Choose the right answer from the following:
(a) All are correct.
(b) Only A and B are correct.
(c) Only B and C are correct.
(d) Only B is the correct answer.

13. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Traditional security gives more priority to the use of
military forces.
Reason (R): The use of force is the source of threat as well as the
means of attaining peace and security.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

14. Non-traditional security is concerned with which of the following aspect


of security?
(a) Military Security
(b) Human Security
(c) National Security
(d) Strategic Security
15. What are the major strategies involved in traditional security?
(a) Defend, Surrender, and Prevent
(b) Cooperation, Violation, and Counter
(c) Defend, Counter, and Cooperation
(d) Surrender, Violation, and Prevent

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (a)
(c) (a) (b) (b)
3. 6.
9. (d)
(d) (b)
CHAPTER 3
Conflict and Peace

INTRODUCTION
In international relations, conflict and peace are two recurring
phenomena. They move parallelly within the arena of international
politics. Conflict of ideas or interests may lead to the situation of war.
Peace is generally conceived of as equivalent to the absence of manifest
violence.

CONCEPT OF PEACE
Peace as a concept can be defined as the concept of societal friendship
and harmony in the absence of hostility and violence. Ideally, peace is a
much wider concept than the absence of conflict. Kenneth Boulding,
one of the pioneers of peace research, makes a significant analysis of
the positive and negative aspects of peace. He says, ‘On the positive
side, peace signifies a condition of good management, orderly resolution
of conflict, harmony allocated with mature relationships, gentleness, and
love. On the negative side, it is conceived as the absence of something—
the absence of turmoil, tension, conflict, and war’.

CONCEPT OF CONFLICT
The conflict has positive aspects when it directs attention to the injustices
that need to be addressed, when it promotes much-needed change in
organizations and systems, and especially when it leads to creative
problem-solving. The negative aspects of the conflict are the destructive
behaviour (violence leading to loss of life and property), and the pain and
trauma that is a result of the violence.

CHANGING NATURE OF WARFARE


Warfare is the conduct of war. The nature of war is related to conflicts of
ideas and conflicts of interests which may be categorized as:
nationalism,
ethnic conflict, for example, ethnocentrism and dehumanization of
others,
genocide,
religious war, and
ideological war, for example, the cold war.

The nature of conflicts changed markedly in the late part of the


twentieth-century. The state-against-state model is becoming an
exception. However, the recent Russia–Ukraine conflict has brought to
the fore the possibility of armed conflict. In the changing nature of
warfare, the following are the new forms of it:
Cyber Attacks: Various factors include social media and
innovative use of cyberspace, data mining, and artificial
intelligence (AI).
Socio-Psychological Tactical Attacks: For example, the
refugee population is manipulated to incite protests.
Terrorism: The spectrum of conflict now ranges from conflicts
between states to conflict with non-state actors and proxies.
Biological and Chemical War
Nuclear War
Diplomatic War: Like China’s ‘Wolf Warrior Diplomacy’.
Economic Warfare: For example China’s ‘Belt and Road
Initiative’.

Factors responsible for changing nature of warfare include


technological progress, political changes, the rise of proxies, information
flow, and the internet, insurgent movements, and terrorist organizations.
WEAPON OF MASS DESTRUCTION
A weapon of mass destruction is a nuclear, radiological, chemical,
biological, or other devices that are intended to harm many people
frequently referred to collectively as the Nuclear, Biological, Chemical
(NBC) weapons. The term weapons of mass destruction have been used
since 1937. At that time, these high-flying battleships of the air seemed to
pose an unstoppable threat to civilian centres located far from any war
front as indeed they did during the second world war (1939–45)
noticeably use in the fire bombings of cities like Germany, Tokyo, and
Japan.
These are weapons with the capacity to inflict death and destruction
on such a massive scale and so indiscriminately that their very presence
in the hands of a hostile power can be considered a grievous threat.
Since the end of the cold war, the main concern regarding all weapons of
mass destruction has been proliferation which is the potential fee lesser
powers, rogue states, or international terrorist groups to acquire the
means to produce and deliver a weapon of mass destruction.
Efforts to control the spread of weapons of mass destruction are
enshrined in international agreements, such as:
Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty of 1968
Biological Weapons Convention of 1972
Chemical Weapons Convention of 1993
UN Security Council Resolution 1540 (2004): All States
shall refrain from providing any form of support to non-State actors
that attempt to develop, acquire, manufacture, possess, transport,
transfer, or use nuclear, chemical, or biological weapons and their
means of delivery, in particular for terrorist purposes.

DETERRENCE
Deterrence can be defined as the military strategy under which one
power uses the threat of reprisal effectively to preclude an attack from an
adversary power. It is a strategy intended to dissuade the adversary from
undertaking an action not yet started or to prevent them from doing
something that another state desires.
Deterrence theory gained increased prominence as a military strategy
during the cold war with regard to the use of nuclear weapons. During the
cold war, deterrence theory mostly focused on the antagonistic
relationship between the two superpowers based on the enormous
nuclear arsenals both maintained and the resulting impossibility of a
successful first strike. Countries can have:

1. Direct Deterrence and


2. Extended Deterrence, i.e., deterring an attack on allies, e.g.,
Japan and South Korea under US’s extended deterrence.
The concept of deterrence is developed by game theorists such as
Bernard Brodie, Herman Kahn, Mearsheimer, and Thomas
Schelling.
Today there is a question mark on the relevance of deterrence in the
twenty-first-century because of the emergence of complex
interdependence and now major security threat comes from non-state
actors. Realists however have never accepted that nuclear weapons
have lost relevance.

CONCEPT OF DUAL DETERRENCE


It was used by the US, in which it used vaguely worded pledges of
assurance to keep two sides from each doing things that may lead to war.
An example of this is the way the US pledges to aid Taiwan in its self-
defence if attacked by China but keeps the form of such aid ambiguous
and explicitly denounces any efforts by Taiwan to declare full
independence.
Deterrence has far more positive aspects than countable negatives.
The prevailing peace in the world, and stopping the third world war is the
best success of deterrence.

CONFLICT RESOLUTION
Conflict resolution is conceptualized as the methods and processes
involved in facilitating the peaceful ending of conflict and retribution.
Within peace and conflict studies a definition of conflict resolution is
presented in Peter Wallenstein’s book ‘Understanding Conflict
Resolution’, a conflict resolution is a social situation where the armed
conflicting parties in a (voluntarily) agreement resolve to live peacefully
with—and/or dissolve—their basic incompatibilities and henceforth cease
to use arms against one another.

Various Dimensions of Conflict Resolution are


Cognitive resolution is the way disputants understand and view the
conflict, with beliefs, perspectives, understandings, and attitudes.
Emotional resolution is the way disputants feel about a conflict, the
emotional energy.
Behavioural resolution is reflective of how the disputants act, their
behaviour.

Thus, dimensions of resolution typically parallel the dimensions of


conflict in the way the conflict is processed.
Seven distinct theoretical mechanisms for conflict resolutions by
Peter Wallenstein:

1. A shift in priorities for one of the conflicting parties,


2. The contested resource is divided,
3. Horse-trading between the conflicting parties,
4. The parties decide to share control and rule together over the
contested resource,
5. The parties agree to leave control to someone else,
6. The parties resort to conflict resolution mechanisms, notably
arbitration or other legal procedures, and
7. Some issues can be left for later.

CONFLICT TRANSFORMATION
Conflict transformation as a concept emerged in the late 1960s and early
1970s in the context of early conflict research and development research.
The idea of conflict transformation was already present in the works of
peace researchers, like Senghaas and Krippendorf. Conflict
transformation is a concept designed to reframe the way in which peace-
building initiatives are discussed and pursued, particularly in contexts of
ethnic conflict. Conflict transformation refers to the process of moving
from conflict-habituated systems to peace systems.
Conflict resolution is different from conflict transformation in the sense
that, in conflict resolution, the highest priority is finding a solution that can
solve the conflict while in conflict transformation, the highest priority is
understanding each other and building stronger relationships, so we can
create trust and longevity.
In 2003 in ‘The Little Book of Conflict Transformation’, John Paul
Lederach, described his shift from the term conflict resolution to conflict
transformation. For John Paul Lederach, conflict transformation
means being ‘engaged in constructive change efforts that include, and go
beyond, the resolution of specific problems’. These efforts are based on
‘two verifiable realities: conflict is normal in human relationships, and
conflict is a motor of change’.
Martina Fischer and Norbert Ropers in the ‘Introduction’ to
‘Berghof Handbook for Conflict Transformation’ written in 2004 define
conflict transformation as ‘a generic, Comprehensive concept’.
Conflict transformation thus sees conflict as an ‘opportunity’ wherein
the deep-rooted issues of injustice can be dealt with and constructive
change effected by minimizing the negative effects of conflict and
maximizing the positive ones.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. The process of moving from conflict-habituated systems to peace
systems is referred to as:
(a) Conflict Transformation
(b) Conflict Resolution
(c) Deterrence
(d) Conflict Management
2. Which of the following statements is/are correct about conflict?
I. Positive aspects of the conflict are the destructive behav
(violence leading to loss of life and property) and the pain
trauma that is a result of the violence.
II. Negative aspects are when it directs attention to the injustices
need to be addressed and when it promotes much-needed cha
in organizations and systems.
(a) Both I and II
(b) I only
(c) II only
(d) Neither I nor II

3. Who is the author of ‘Understanding Conflict Resolution’?


(a) Mearsheimer
(b) Peter Wallenstein
(c) John Paul Lederach
(d) Martina Fischer

4. Arrange the following chronologically:


I. Biological Weapons Convention
II. Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty
III. Chemical Weapons Convention
IV. UN Security Council Resolution 1540
(a) II, I, IV, III
(b) II, IV, I, III
(c) II, I, III, IV
(d) I, II, III, IV

5. Which of the following UN Security Council resolution is related to


controlling the spread of weapons of mass destruction?
(a) 1640
(b) 1540
(c) 1450
(d) 1460

6. India is a signatory to which of the following:


I. Biological Weapons Convention
II. Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty
III. Chemical Weapons Convention
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I and III only
(d) All I, II, and III

7. Military strategy under which one power uses the threat of reprisa
effectively to preclude an attack from an adversary power is know
as?
(a) Deterrence
(b) Conflict Resolution
(c) Conflict Transformation
(d) Conflict Management

8. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) was enforced in?


(a) 1968
(b) 1970
(c) 1978
(d) 1960

9. START stands for:


(a) Strategic Arms Resolution Treaty
(b) Simple Arms Rectified Treaty
(c) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
(d) None of the above

10. INF Treaty i.e., Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces Treaty was


signed between:
(a) USA and Israel
(b) USA and India
(c) USA and UK
(d) USA and Russia

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(a) (d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. 4.
6. (c)
(d) (c)
CHAPTER 4
United Nations

INTRODUCTION
The United Nation was established after the second world war with
the aim of preventing future world wars, succeeding the League of
Nations, which was characterized as ineffective. On 25 April 1945, fifty
governments met in San Francisco for a conference and started drafting
the United Nations Charter, which was adopted on 25 June 1945 and
took effect on 24 October 1945, since then, we celebrate 24 October as
United Nations Day. The name ‘United Nations’ was coined by US
President Franklin D. Roosevelt. The headquarters of the United
Nations is in New York, US. Official languages are Arabic, Chinese,
English, French, Spanish, and Russian. There are 193 members of the
United Nation, the latest member is the Republic of South Sudan joined
in 2011. The current Secretary-General is Antonio Guterres.

AIMS AND OBJECTIVES OF UNITED NATIONS


The United Nations was instituted to maintain international peace and
security. It aspires to develop friendly relations among nations, that are
committed to upholding international law. Promoting social progress,
better living standard and human rights. Promoting sustainable
development and climate action. To corporate in solving international
economic, social, cultural, and humanitarian problems. The United
Nations stands as a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations in
attaining these common ends and more specific goals.
STRUCTURE AND ORGANS OF THE UNITED
NATIONS

The United Nations system is made up of 6 main organs established


by the Charter of the United Nations, specialized agencies provided in
Article 57 of the Charter, and United Nations Programmes and Funds
established by General Assembly under its authority derived from Article
22 of the Charter. The six main organs are the General Assembly,
Security Council, International Court of Justice, Economic and Social
Council, Trusteeship Council, and Secretariat.

UNITED NATIONS GENERAL ASSEMBLY


It is the main deliberative organ of the United Nations, situated in New
York. Composed of all members of the United Nations each having one
vote. The annual session of the United Nations General Assembly
commences every year in September. In case of an emergency, a United
Nations General Assembly emergency session can be called within 24
hours. The United Nations General Assembly’s prime responsibilities are
to discuss, debate and make recommendations on subjects pertaining to:
Consider and approve the United Nations budget.
Elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council and the
members of other United Nations councils and organs.
Appointing the Secretary-General, on the recommendation of the
Security Council.
It shares the power to elect Judges to the International Court of
Justice along with the Security Council.
Consider and make recommendations on the general principles of
cooperation for maintaining international peace and security,
including disarmament.
Consider reports from the Security Council and other United
Nations organs.
According to the ‘Uniting for Peace’ resolution adopted on 3
November 1950. The United Nations General Assembly may also
act in cases of a threat to the peace when the Security Council has
failed to act owing to the veto of a permanent member.
The assembly president changes with each annual session and is
elected by the body itself.

UNITED NATIONS SECURITY COUNCIL


United Nations Security Council has the prime responsibility of
maintenance of international peace and security. It is situated in New
York. The United Nations Security Council has 15 members, 5 permanent
members with Article 27 - veto powers i.e., US, UK, China, Russia, and
France and 10 non-permanent members elected by the United Nations
General Assembly for a 2-year term. The primary functions and power of
the United Nations Security Council are:
To maintain international peace and security.
To Investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to
international friction.
To recommend methods of adjusting such disputes or the terms of
the settlement.
To call on members to apply economic sanctions and other
measures.
To take military action against an aggressor.
To recommend the admission of new members.
To exercise the trusteeship functions of the United Nations in
‘strategic areas’.
To recommend the appointment of the Secretary-General to the
United Nations General Assembly.
To elect the judges of the International Court of Justice along with
the United Nations General Assembly.
The presidency of the United Nations Security Council rotates
alphabetically every month.

DEMAND FOR REFORMS IN UNITED NATIONS


SECURITY COUNCIL
United Nations Security Council is the most powerful organ of the United
Nations, and hence different countries want the structure of the United
Nations Security Council to be more democratic and representative. One
of the most important suggestions is about increasing the number of
permanent members. G-4 Group which includes India, Germany, Brazil,
and Japan are raising the demand for permanent membership in United
Nations Security Council. To decentralize United Nations Security
Council’s governing power and authority over nations, it is essential that
all regions are represented equally in the United Nations Security
Council. An informal ‘coffee club’, comprising 40-odd members states,
has been instrumental in holding back reforms to the United Nations
Security Council.

UNITED NATION ECONOMIC AND SOCIAL


COUNCIL
United Nations Economic and Social Council is the principal body for
coordination, policy review, policy dialogue, and recommendations on
economic, social, and environmental issues, as well as the
implementation of internationally agreed development goals. It serves as
the central mechanism for activities of the social and environmental
fields, supervising subsidiary and expert bodies. It is also situated in New
York.
It has 54 Members, elected by the United Nations General Assembly
for overlapping three-year terms. It is the United Nations’ central platform
for reflection, debate, and innovative thinking on sustainable
development.

SECRETARIAT
It undertakes day to day work of the United Nations administering the
programmes and policies of the organization. It is headed by the
Secretary-General and assisted by a staff of international civil servants
worldwide. It is situated in New York. The Secretary-General is the Chief
Administration Officer of the Organization, appointed by the United
Nations General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security
Council for a five-year, renewable term. The United Nations staff,
members are recruited internationally and locally, and work in duty
stations and on peacekeeping missions all around the world.

TRUSTEESHIP COUNCIL
The Trusteeship Council was established in 1945 by the United Nations
charter, under Chapter XIII, to provide international supervision for 11
Trust Territories that had been placed under the administration of seven
member states and ensure that adequate steps were taken to prepare
the territories for self-government and independence. By 1994, all Trust
Territories had attained self-government or independence. The
Trusteeship Council suspended operation on 1 November 1994. The
headquarters of the Trusteeship Council is in New York.

INTERNATIONAL COURT OF JUSTICE


Principal judicial organ of the United Nations. It is situated at the Peace
Palace in the Hague (Netherlands). The court is composed of 15 Judges,
who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations
General Assembly and the United Nations Security Council. Elections are
held every three years for one-third of the seats and retiring judges may
be re-elected.
The president presides at all meetings of the court. The court may
entertain two types of cases: legal disputes between states submitted to
it by them (contentious cases) and requests for advisory opinions on
legal questions referred to it by the United Nations’ organs and
specialized agencies (advisory proceedings).

SPECIALIZED AGENCY OF THE UNITED


NATIONS
They are legally independent organizations with their own rules,
membership, organs, and financial resources, which were brought into a
relationship with the United Nations through negotiated agreements.
Article 57 and 63 of the United Nations Charter talks about specialized
agencies. A list of 15 specialized agencies of the United Nations along
with some exam-oriented information is given below:

Name Year Function Headquarte


r
Food and 194 Food security, defeating Rome, Italy
Agriculture 5 hunger, raising levels of
Organization (FAO) nutrition, and improving
agricultural productivity. It
has 195 members.
International Civil 194 Determines principles and Montreal,
Aviation 7 techniques of international Canada
Organization air navigation and
(ICAO) development of
international air transport
to ensure safe and orderly
growth.
International Fund 197 It is dedicated to Rome, Italy
for Agricultural 7 eradicating rural poverty
Development in developing countries.
(IFAD)
Name Year Function Headquarte
r
International 191 It advances social and Geneva,
Labour 9 economic justice by Switzerland
Organization (ILO) setting international
labour standards. It has
186 members.
International 194 It works to improve London, UK
Maritime 8 maritime safety and
Organization (IMO) prevent marine pollution.
It has 175 members.
International 194 It provides monetary Washington
Monetary Fund 5 cooperation and financial DC, US
(IMF) stability and acts as a
forum for advice,
negotiation, and
assistance on financial
issues. It has 190
members.
International 186 To standardize and Geneva,
Telecommunication 5 regulate international Switzerland
Union (ITU) radio and
telecommunications.
United Nations 194 The purpose is to Paris,
Educational, 5 contribute to peace and France
Scientific, and security by promoting
Cultural international collaboration
Organization through education,
((UNESCO) science, and culture. It
has 193 members.
United Nations 196 To promote and Vienna,
Industrial 6 accelerate the Austria
Development industrialization of
Organization developing countries,
(UNIDO) which were emerging from
decolonization.
Name Year Function Headquarte
r
Universal Postal 187 Coordinates postal Berne,
Union (UPU) 4 policies among member Switzerland
nations, in addition to the
worldwide postal system.
established by the Treaty
of Berne.
World Bank Group 194 Group of five international Washington
4 organizations that make DC, US
leveraged loans to
developing countries.
World Health 194 Working worldwide to Geneva,
Organization 8 promote health, Switzerland
(WHO) vaccination, keeping the
world safe, and serving
the vulnerable. It has 194
members.
World Intellectual 196 Created to promote and Geneva,
Property 7 protect intellectual Switzerland
Organization property across the world
(WIPO) by cooperating with
countries.
World Tourism 197 Promotion of tourism as a Madrid,
Organization 4 driver of economic growth, Spain
(UNWTO) inclusive development
and environmental
sustainability.
Name Year Function Headquarte
r
World 195 Originally known as Geneva,
Meteorological 0 International Switzerland
Organization Meteorological
(WMO) Organization (IMO) and
founded in 1873. It is
responsible for promoting
international cooperation
in atmospheric science,
climatology, hydrology,
and geophysics.

IMPORTANT PEACE INITIATIVES OF THE


UNITED NATIONS
Maintaining Peace and Security: By sending peacekeeping
and observer missions to the world’s trouble spots over the past
six decades, the United Nations has been able to restore calm,
allowing many countries to recover from conflict.
Preventing Nuclear Proliferation: For over five decades,
the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) has served as the
world’s nuclear inspector. The International Atomic Energy Agency
(IAEA) experts work to verify that safeguarding nuclear material is
used only for peaceful purposes. To date, the agency has
safeguarded more than 180 States.
Supporting Disarmament: The United Nations treaties are
the legal backbone of disarmament efforts, the Chemical Weapons
Convention 1997 has been ratified by 190 States, the Mine-Ban
Convention 1997 by 162 States, and the Arms Trade Treaty 2014
by 69 States. At the local, the United Nations peacekeeping often
work to implement disarmament agreement between warring
parties.
Preventing Genocide: The United Nations brought about the
first-ever treaty to combat genocide acts committed with the intent
to destroy a national, ethnic racial, or religious group. The 1948
Genocide Convention has been ratified by 146 states, which
commits to prevent and punish actions of genocide in war and in
peacetime. The United Nations tribunals for Yugoslavia and
Rwanda, as well as the United Nations-supported courts in
Cambodia, have put would-be genocide perpetrators on notice that
such crimes would no longer be tolerated.
Promoting Development: Since 2000, promoting living
standards and human skills and potential throughout the world has
been guided by the Millennium Development Goals. The United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP) supports more than
4,800 projects to reduce poverty, promote good governance
address crises and preserve the environment. The United Nations
Children’s Fund (UNICEF) works in more than 150 countries.
Alleviating Rural Poverty: The International Fund for
Agriculture Development (IFAD) provides low-interest loans and
grants to very poor rural people.
Focusing on African Development: Africa continues to be a
high priority for the United Nations. The continent receives 36% of
the United Nations system expenditures for development the
largest share amongst the world’s regions.

IMPORTANT HUMANITARIAN
INTERVENTIONS
Humanitarian intervention is the use of military force against a nation with
the stated aim of protecting civilians and ending human rights abuses.
Although many people see the 1990s and early 2000s as the peak of
humanitarian interventionism, in fact, states have used military force to
protect civilians throughout history.
British Intervention in Sierra Leone (2000): In 2000, the
UK military intervened in the Sierra Leonean civil war. This is a
strong example of humanitarian intervention as the UK used its
armed forces to protect civilians-both British and Sierra Leonean.
The Sierra Leone Civil war raged from 1991 to 2002 and saw
extensive atrocities committed against civilians.
US and United Nations Intervention in Somalia (1992):
The US-led military operation in Somalia in 1992 is another
example of humanitarian intervention. Following the over-through
of Somalian Dictator Mohamed Siad Barre and fighting
between factional warlords, Somalia faced an extensive
humanitarian crisis including famine and human rights abuses.
The United Nations, which had peacekeeping forces in the
country, accepted the American offer to deploy troops to protect
the distribution of aid.
US Invasion of Haiti (1994): Another example of humanitarian
intervention is the US invasion of Haiti. In 1991 a military group
coup overthrows the elected president of Haiti. Diplomatic efforts
were made to return democratic rule to Haiti, but when these failed
the United Nations authorized military action.
India’s Intervention in the Bangladesh Liberation War
(1971): The Bangladesh war of independence was incredibly
violent, with extensive atrocities committed. In 1971, India
launched a humanitarian intervention in Bangladesh to assist
civilians and help the country gain independence.
US Invasion of Iraq (2003): This a controversial one, although
it is generally agreed that the American-led invasion of Iraq in
2003 was conducted for geo-political motives, in fact, the
justification given at the time was that of humanitarian intervention.
Libyan Civil war No–Fly Zone (2011): A coalition led by the
US, UK, and France imposed a no-fly zone over Libya to prevent
Muammar Gaddafi’s force’s continued successes on the
battlefield. The justification for the implementation of the Libyan
no-fly zone was humanitarian intervention.

INTERNATIONAL CRIMINAL COURT


It is an international tribunal headquartered in the Hague in the
Netherlands. It was established in 2002. It has the jurisdiction to
prosecute individuals for the international crime of genocide, crimes
against humanity, the crime of aggression, and war crimes. International
Criminal Court is the world’s first permanent international criminal court. It
is intended and it may therefore only exercise its jurisdiction when certain
conditions are met. States becomes a party to Rome Statute by signing it
and subsequently becomes a member of the International Criminal Court
by ratifying it. The Rome Statute is a multilateral treaty that serves as the
International Criminal Court’s foundational and governing document.
There are 123 members on 1 February 2020 Kiribati became the 123
State party to the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court.
The International Criminal Court lacks universal territorial jurisdiction
and may only investigate and prosecute crimes committed within member
states, crimes committed by nationals of member states or the states that
have accepted the jurisdiction of the International Criminal Court, or
crimes in situations referred to the court by the United Nation Security
Council (mentioned under chapter VII of United Nations Charter). Only
two cases involving non-state parties have been referred to the
International Criminal Court by the United Nations Security Council: the
case of the Darfur situation (Sudan) in 2005, and Libya in 2011. India is
not a signatory to the Rome Statute.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. When World Health Organization was founded?
(a) 1949
(b) 1950
(c) 1919
(d) 1948

2. Which specialized agency of the United Nations lists World Heritage


Sites?
(a) United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organizatio
(b) United Nations Children’s Fund
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) World Wildlife Fund

3. Who publishes the Global Wage Report?


(a) International Labour Organization
(b) World Health Organization
(c) International Monetary Fund
(d) World Trade Organization

4. Special Drawing Rights, an international reserve asset is related to


which specialized agency of the United Nations?
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organizatio
(d) United Nations Children’s Fund

5. The Trusteeship Council of the United Nations was established to:


(a) set up international agencies for the welfare of children
women in developing countries.
(b) promote harmony between African and Western countries.
(c) approve of trusts that wanted to work at the international level.
(d) administer territories placed under its supervision by trustee
agreements.

6. Which of the following statement is correct about the United Nations


General Assembly?
(a) It carries out the administrative work of the United Nations.
(b) General Assembly resolutions are binding in nature.
(c) A simple majority is required for decisions on key issues
international peace and security.
(d) Each member state has one vote.
7. Which United Nations organ functions from the ‘Peace Palace’ in the
Hague, the Netherlands?
(a) United Nations Security Council
(b) United Nations General Assembly
(c) United Nations Economic and Social Council
(d) International Court of Justice

8. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) statements:


Assertion (A): Veto power indicates the power of the permanent
member to reject any resolution of the United Nations Security
Council.
Reason (R): All the fifteen member states of the United Nations
Security Council are permanent and have veto power.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

9. Which charter of the United Nations Charter authorizes the


Secretary-General to bring the situation to the notice of the United
Nations Security Council that might disrupt international peace and
security?
(a) Article 99
(b) Article 42
(c) Article 33
(d) Article 28

10. Uniting for Peace Resolution gives which organ of the United
Nations the power to maintain or restore international peace and
security?
(a) United Nation Security Council
(b) United Nations General Assembly
(c) Secretary-General
(d) United Nations Economic and Social Council

11. Which Article of the United Nations Charter deals with the veto
power of the United Nations Security Council?
(a) Article 25
(b) Article 26
(c) Article 27
(d) Article 28

12. In which of the following option is not the function of the United
Nations Security Council?
(a) To consider and approve the United Nations budgets.
(b) To take necessary measures for arms control and disarmamen
(c) Granting admission of a new member to the United Nations
approving expulsion of members.
(d) Elect the non-permanent members of the United Nations Sec
Council.

13. Which US President gave the speech ‘Atoms for Peace’ before the
United Nations General Assembly?
(a) Richard Nixon
(b) Ronald Reagan
(c) Harry S. Truman
(d) Dwight D. Eisenhower

14. Choose the incorrect statements about the United Nations


Economic and Social Council:
(a) The United Nations Economic and Social Council is the princ
body for activities of the United Nations system and its specia
agencies in the economic, social, and environmental f
supervising subsidiary and expert bodies.
(b) It has a total of 54 members.
(c) Members are elected by the United Nations General Assembl
a 4-year term.
(d) India has been elected to the United Nations Economic and So
Council for the term 2022–24.

15. G-4 nations include?


(a) India, Japan, Germany, and Brazil
(b) India, China, Russia, and South Africa
(c) Mexico, Canada, Pakistan, and Brazil
(d) Spain, Italy, UK, and Turkey

16. Which of the following was not included in Boutros Ghali’s ‘Agenda
for Peace’?
(a) Peace Keeping
(b) Peace Settlement
(c) Peace Building
(d) Peace Making

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the United
Nations Charter?
(1) Article 2 of the United Nations Charter uses the term ‘territ
integrity’ and ‘political independence’.
(2) Article 51 of the United Nations Charter talks about the righ
collective self-defence of a state.
(3) The United Nations Charter doesn’t use the term ‘Veto Po
anywhere in the text.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3

18. The Specialized Agencies of the United Nations and the United
Nations Programmes and Funds work under and report to which of
the following institutions?
(a) United Nations Security Council
(b) United Nations Economic and Social Council
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) United Nations General Assembly

19. Which of the following statements are true about the United
Nations Peace Keeping?
(A) Its provisions are not explicitly given in the United Nations Cha
(B) It is the sole prerogative of the Secretary-General of the Un
Nations.
(C) It has undergone quantitative and qualitative changes in the p
cold war period.
(D) India and America have jointly sponsored it.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B and C only
(b) A and D only
(c) A and C only
(d) C and D only

20. When was the United Nations Peacebuilding Commission


established:
(a) 1945
(b) 1995
(c) 2000
(d) 2005

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.
(d) (a) (d) (b) (d) (b) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(a) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (d)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.
18. (b)
(a) (d) (c) (d) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

3. Global Wage Report is published by the International Labou


Organization, which mainly focuses on the current wage trend
worldwide.

4. The Special Drawing Rights is an International Reserve Asset. It is


the unit of account of the International Monetary Fund. The value o
the Special Drawing Rights is based on the basket of 5 currencies—
the US Dollar, British Pound Sterling, Japanese Yen, Euro, and
Chinese Renminbi.

12. United Nations General Assembly is responsible for the election of


a non-permanent member to the United Nations Security Council.

13. ‘Atoms for Peace’ was the title of a speech delivered by US


President Dwight D. Eisenhower to the United Nations General
Assembly in New York City on 8 December 1953.

16. The idea of preventive diplomacy, peace-making, peace-building,


and peacekeeping, more commonly known simply as An Agenda
for Peace. It is a report written for the United Nations by Secretary-
General Boutros Boutros-Ghali in 1992.

17. Article 2 of the United Nations Charter talks about maintaining


peace in the world by not interfering with the ‘territorial integrity’
and ‘political independence’ of a member state by another member
state. Article 51 defends the right of self-defence of a sovereign
state from any external attack. Though Article 27 talks about the
‘concurring vote’ of a permanent member, the word ‘veto power’
has been used nowhere in the United Nations charter.

18. The Specialized Agencies and United Nations Programmes and


Funds work under United Nations Economic and Social Council
and report to it. The United Nations Economic and Social Council,
under the overall authority of the United Nations General
Assembly, coordinates the economic and social work of the United
Nations and the United Nations family of organizations.

19. United Nations Peacekeeping helps countries navigate the difficult


path from conflict to peace. We have unique strengths, including
legitimacy, burden sharing, and an ability to deploy troops and
police from around the world, integrating them with civilian
peacekeepers to address a range of mandates set by the United
Nations Security Council and the United Nations General
Assembly. United Nations Peacekeeping, although not explicitly
provided for in the United Nations Charter, has evolved into one of
the main tools used by the United Nations to achieve this purpose.
The United Nations Charter gives the United Nations Security
Council primary responsibility for the maintenance of international
peace and security.

20. The United Nations Peacebuilding Commission was established in


2005 as an intergovernmental advisory subsidiary body of the
United Nations General Assembly and United Nations Security
Council. Against the backdrop of failures of the United Nations
Peacekeeping missions, this body came into existence to propose
integrated strategies and priorities for post-conflict recovery, to
improve coordination among the various actors involved in post-
conflict activities.
CHAPTER 5
Political Economy of International
Relations

INTRODUCTION
The economic system is always a determining force behind any political
system. International relation is also a study of political structure, and it would
be incomplete without a comprehensive understanding of the political
economy of international relations. To understand the political-economic
perspective of the world order we need to investigate the origin and structures
of the economic order created by the Bretton Woods Conference, World
Trade Organization, G-20, BRICS, and North-South Dialogue.

BRETTON WOODS SYSTEM


A system of monetary and financial management was established to
enhance cooperation in the international arena. It laid down rules and
regulations to govern commercial and financial relations among different
countries of the world. Signed by 730 delegates from 44 allied countries in
1944, which is officially known as United Nations Monetary and Financial
Conference. Key architects were John Maynard Keynes and Harry
Dexter White.

The Bretton Woods System Established


a. International Monetary Fund—To extend short-term loans to
help countries tide over the Balance of Payment (BOP) crisis.
b. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
—Part of the World Bank Group, providing assistance to post-war
third-world countries in development and growth. Together the
International Monetary Fund and the World Bank are known as Bretton
Woods Institutions/Twins.
c. Fixed or Pegged Exchange Rate System.

Main Objectives
1. An obligation for each country to adopt a monetary policy that
maintained its external exchange within 1% by tying its currency to
gold (US dollar value was set as the benchmark).
2. Ability of the International Monetary Fund to bridge temporary
imbalances of payments.
3. Address the issue of lack of cooperation among countries.
4. To prevent competitive devaluation of the currency.
Bretton Woods system came to an end in the early 1970s when US
President Richard Nixon announced that the US would no longer
exchange gold for US currency and from 1973, a floating exchange rate
system was followed under which the job of currency exchange was left to
forex markets and private players.

WORLD TRADE ORGANIZATION


It is an intergovernmental organization that regulates and facilitates
international trade. It was established to achieve the principle of non-
discrimination, Reciprocity, binding, and enforceable commitments,
transparency, and safety valves in international trade. It was commenced
under the 1994 Marrakesh Agreement, by replacing the General Agreement
on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) that was signed in Geneva in 1944.
The World Trade Organization was established on 1 January 1995 by 123
nations in Marrakesh from the Uruguay Round Agreements. The
Headquarters of the World Trade Organization is in Geneva. The World Trade
Organization has 164 members and 25 observer governments (Afghanistan
and Liberia being the latest). Members need not be fully independent
countries, even customs territories with complete financial and commercial
autonomy can join. For example, Hong Kong.

Structure of World Trade Organization


Ministerial Conference is the highest decision-making body. It meets every
2 years, members are represented by their trade ministers. All major
decisions are made by the membership. The General Council is responsible
for the execution and implementation of World Trade Organization rules and
regulations, it has representatives for all the member countries, and it acts on
the behalf of Ministerial Conferences. General Council also performs the
function of a Trade Policy Review Body as well as a Dispute Settlement Body.
Doha Round—It was launched at the World Trade Organization’s fourth
Ministerial Conference in Doha, Qatar in November 2001. It is the latest round
of trade negotiations among the World Trade Organization members. The
aims are to achieve major reform of the international trading system through
the introduction of lower trade barriers and revised trade rules. Seeks to
prioritize the needs and concerns of the less developed countries. The
dialogue broke down in 2008 due to disagreements between developed and
developing countries.
Bali Conference—It was the ninth Ministerial Conference held in 2013
in Bali, Indonesia. The Ministerial Conference adopted the ‘Bali Package’ for
streamlining trade and options for developing countries to ensure food
security. Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) was adopted by the World Trade
Organization. Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) seeks to speed up customs
procedures and make trade easier, faster, and cheaper. Public stockholding
was permitted for developing nations to stockpile agricultural products as a
buffer against food shortages.
Nairobi Conference—It was the tenth Ministerial Conference in 2015
in Nairobi, Kenya. In this Ministerial Conference, the ‘Nairobi Package’ was
adopted to provide Special Safeguard Mechanism for developing countries in
issues related to agriculture and food security. The ‘Nairobi Package’
delivered commitments that will benefit the organization’s poorest members.
Giving more opportunities to businesses from the poorest countries.
Twelfth Ministerial Conference—It was held in Geneva in June
2022. ‘Geneva Package’ was announced to provide, the World Trade
Organization’s response to emergencies like food insecurity, the World Trade
Organization’s response to the COVID-19 pandemic and preparedness for
future pandemics, e–commerce moratorium, and an agreement on fisheries
subsidies.

NORTH–SOUTH DIALOGUE
It refers to the process in which the developing world i.e., the countries of
Asia, Africa, and Latin America (Global South) engaged with the developed
nations (Global North) over the changing contours of the world economic
system throughout the 1970s. The establishment of the United Nations
Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) in 1964 accelerated this
dialogue and addressed issues pertaining to trade and tariffs, international
finance, foreign aid, and the governance of multinational companies and
institutions. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(UNCTAD) is headquartered in Geneva and is a part of the United Nations
Secretariat.
The North–South dialogue is seen as a political struggle between the
haves and have-nots. The New International Economic Order (NIEO) was a
significant step towards readjusting the power dynamics and mainstreaming
the issues of economic justice and equity. The origins of the New International
Economic Order (NIEO) could be traced to the Afro-Asian Conference held at
Bandung in 1955.
Demand for a new democratized international economic order was made
at the Non-Aligned Movement’s Algiers Conference in 1973. The United
Nations General Assembly formally moved the proposal in 1974. The demand
for the New International Economic Order (NIEO) was wholeheartedly
accepted and supported by the countries at the fifth Non-Aligned Movement
Summit in Colombo in 1976. The major objectives of the New International
Economic Order (NIEO) are:
South–South Cooperation—Promote economic development among
the poor countries through self-help.
International trade tempered with the principle of social justice.
Press for more equitable and just allocation of global resources.
Overhaul of existing international institutions and open more channels
of participation for the south.
Intends to deal with specific economic problems of the south like the
Balance of Payment (BOP) crisis, debt burden, exchange scarcity, etc.
Envisages the establishment of a new international currency.

G-20
An international forum comprising the world’s leading industrialized and
emerging economies. It was established in 1999. It represents more than 80%
of the global GDP.
Members: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the UK, the US,
Russia, Australia, Saudi Arabia, India, South Africa, Turkey, Argentina, Brazil,
Mexico, China, Indonesia, and European Union.
+ AU - recently become the part of G20 and now called as G21 - on 9
Sep, 2023, India summit.
G20 acts as a forum for the governments and central bank governors from
20 major economies. The main objective is the promotion of international
financial stability by studying, reviewing and promoting high-level discussion
of policy issues. The G20 heads of state meet annually at summits and the
group also hosts separate meetings of finance ministers and central bank
governors. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or headquarters.
In recent years, the G20 summits have focused not only on
macroeconomic and trade-related issues but have also started deliberating
upon more urgent issues of global governance like climate change, health,
migration, terrorism, resource scarcity, etc.

BRICS
BRICS is an association of five major emerging economies, i.e., Brazil,
Russia, India, China, and South Africa. All five are G-20 members. The idea
of BRICS was first conceived by British Economist and the then Chairman of
Goldman Sachs Association, Jim O’ Neill in 2001 to describe the four
emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China. The grouping was
formally established during the first meeting of BRICS Foreign Ministers in
2006 and came into formation in 2009. The first formal summit was held at
Yekaterinburg, Russia on 16 June 2009.
South Africa was invited to join BRIC in December 2010 and hence the
group acquired the acronym BRICS. It comprises 42% of the world’s
population, accounts for 23% of the global GDP, and contributes to around
17% of world trade.
BRICS nations hold annual summits, and the chairmanship rotates
annually among the members in accordance with the acronym BRICS. During
the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil (2014) the leaders signed the
agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB) and entered into
force during the seventh BRICS Summit in 2015. The New Development Bank
(NDB) is in Shanghai, China.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Choose the correct statement/s:
Statement I: The G-20 is a forum of the world’s leading and
emerging economies.
Statement II: The G-20 Secretariat is in Washington DC.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Only Statement II is correct.
(d) Only Statement I is correct.

2. Match the following:

World Trade Organization Conferences Places

1. Fourth 1. Nairob
2. Ninth 2. Genev

3. Tenth C.Doha

4. Twelfth D.Bali

Codes:
(a) 1–(C), 2–(D), 3–(A), 4–(B)
(b) 1–(A), 2–(B), 3–(C), 4–(D)
(c) 1–(B), 2–(C), 3–(D), 4–(A)
(d) 1–(D), 2–(A), 3–(B), 4–(C)

3. The Marrakesh Agreement of 1994 established?


(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

4. Which two organizations are collectively known as Bretton Wood


Twins?
(a) World Trade Organization and International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank and United Nations Conference on Trade
Development
(c) International Monetary Fund and International Bank for Reconstru
and Development
(d) International Labour Organization and United Nations Indu
Development Organization

5. Assertion(A): The New International Economic Order (NIEO) focuse


on issues of economic justice and bats for a greater say of the thir
world in decisions pertaining to world economics and international trade.
Reason (R): The idea behind the New International Economic Order
(NIEO) was to democratize the process of engagement between
developed and developing countries with regard to issues of global
trade and commerce.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

6. Arrange the following in chronological order of their establishments.


A. World Trade Organization

B. International Monetary Fund

C. G-20
D. BRICS
Options:
(a) A, B, C, and D
(b) B, A, C, and D
(c) D, C, B, and A
(d) C, A, B, and D

7. Who among the following argues that American power had bee
essential for the establishment of international institutions such as th
International Monetary Fund and the World Trade Organization?
(a) David Harvey
(b) Robert Keohane
(c) Joseph Nye
(d) Robert Gilpin

8. The Fortaleza Declaration is related to


(a) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(b) BRICS
(c) IBSA Dialogue Forum
(d) Association of Southeast Asian Nations

9. Assertion (A): BRICS is a consortium of five developing powers.


Reason (R): Over the years, the agenda of BRICS has broadened
beyond political and economic cooperation to more nuanced issues like
climate change, sustainable development, counter-terrorism, and
scientific collaborations.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) correctly explains (A).
(c) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true and (R) is false.

10. India will be hosting G-20 Summit in the year?


(a) 2021
(b) 2022
(c) 2023
(d) 2024

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(d) (c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (c)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(a) (c)
CHAPTER 6
Regional Organization

INTRODUCTION
International politics is dynamic in nature, and in the modern world,
conflict and cooperation are not just at the bilateral level. Multilateralism
became the new reality of the world order. Regional organizations
represent the multilateral cooperation based on the geopolitical situation
of the country. The regional organization has different levels of
coordination like free trade agreements, transportation agreements,
employment, medical, and economic cooperation, even up to the model
of a common currency. Some important regional organizations in
international relations are the European Union, African Union,
Association of Southeast Asian Nations, and Shanghai Cooperation
Organization.

EUROPEAN UNION
The European Union is a supranational political and economic union of
27 member states that are located primarily in Europe. The European
Union was created by the Maastricht Treaty (1992), which entered into
force in 1993. The European Union was created by a series of
agreements among the European countries which include:
Treaty of Paris (1951) founding the European Coal and Steel
Community.
Treaties of Rome (1957) signed created a common market i.e.,
European Economic Community and European Atomic Energy
Community. It came into effect in 1958.
The Single European Act (SEA), which entered into force in 1987,
significantly expanded the European Economic Community’s
scope.
In 1992 Maastricht Treaty, formally called the Treaty on European
Union. The European Union is born, and Euro was introduced as
a fellow currency.
The Treaty of Amsterdam was signed in 1997 and came into
force in 1999, building on the social protocol of the Maastricht
Treaty.
The Treaty of Nice signed in 2001 and entered into force in 2003,
for the admission of new members from eastern Europe,
contained major reforms.
The Lisbon Treaty signed in 2007, modified the constitution, and it
contains a clause under Article 50, providing for a member to
leave the European Union. It came into effect in 2009.
The United Kingdom, which had been a founding member of the
European Union, left the organization in 2020.
Croatia was the last to join the bloc in 2013.

The European Union also includes a monetary union, which was


established in 1999 and went into effect in 2002, and 19 European
Union countries use the Euro currency. 8 European Union members
(Bulgaria, Croatia, Czech Republic, Denmark, Hungary, Poland,
Romania, and Sweden) do not use the Euro.
Schengen Agreement (1985) paved the way for the creation of open
borders without passport controls between most member states. It was
effective in 1995. Of the 27 European Union member states, 23
participate in the Schengen Area. Of the four European Union members
that are not part of the Schengen Area, three—Bulgaria, Cyprus, and
Romania—are legally obligated to join the area in the future, Ireland
maintains an opt-out and instead operates its own visa policy.
On 1 January 2023 Croatia joined the Schengen Area.

Table 6.1 Structure of the European Union


European Council of European European European
Commissio Ministers Council Parliamen Court of
n (Voice of (Voice of (Setting t (The Justice
common the the people’s (Upholdin
Interest) Member strategy) voice) g EU law)
States)

Function: Function: Function: Function: Function:


Executive Coordinate High-level Shares Gives legal
arm of the s member policymakin legislative judgement
EU. states’ g to set the power with on cases
Proposes policies and EU’s council, brought
legislation define the strategy exercises before it.
and policies, EU’s and budget. democratic
and foreign supervision
represent policy. of EU
the EU in institutions,
external shares
negotiations. authority
with
Council
over EU
budget.
Structure: Structure Structure Structure Structure
One : Relevant : Heads of : 705 : One
Commission ministers of State or Members of Judge from
er from each Member Governmen the each
Member States. t from each European Member
State, and is Presidency Member Parliament State.
headed by a rotating State, the (MEP),
President. every 6 President directly
months. of the elected by
European EU citizens.
Council and
the
President
of the
European
Commissio
n meet
twice every
6 months to
define the
political
agenda of
the EU.

Source: Based on How is the European Union Governed - (c) 2023 Global Challenges
Foundation, https://globalchallenges.org/how-is-it-governed/ , accessed on 15 March
2023
Iceland, Liechtenstein, Switzerland, and Norway are the four non-
European Union member countries that have made partial commitments
to the European Union’s economy and regulations. The European Union
was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2012, in recognition of the
organization’s efforts to promote peace and democracy in Europe.

AFRICAN UNION
African Union intergovernmental organization, established in 2002.
The African Union replaced the Organization of African Unity (1963–
2002). The African Union is a continental union consisting of 55 member
states located on the continent of Africa. The African Union was
announced in the Sirte Declaration in Sirte, Libya, in 1999. The Treaty of
Abuja (1991) established the African Economic Community (AEC) in
1994. In 2002 the Organization of African Unity and the African
Economic Community were integrated to become African Union. The
bloc was founded in 2001 in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, and launched in
2002 in Durban, South Africa. The headquarters of the African Union is
in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia. In 2022, the African Union celebrated its
twentieth anniversary: ‘Our Africa, Our Future’.
African Continental Free Trade Agreement: It was signed at the
twelfth African Union Summit. It started in 2020. It establishes the
largest free trade area in the world since the creation of the World Trade
Organization in 1995. The African Continental Free Trade Agreement
secretariat is headquartered in Accra, Ghana.
Agenda 2063: It was adopted on 31 January 2015 at the twenty-
fourth Ordinary Assembly of the Heads of State and Governments of the
African Union in Addis Ababa. Agenda 2063 calls for greater
collaboration and support for African-led initiatives to ensure the
achievement of the aspirations of the African people. Agenda 2063 was
developed as a strategic framework for Africa’s long-term socio-
economic and integrative transformation. To achieve this vision within a
50-year period from 2013 to 2063.

SHANGHAI COOPERATION ORGANIZATION


The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is a permanent
intergovernmental international organization. It’s a Eurasian political,
economic, and military organisation aiming to maintain peace, security,
and stability in the region. The Shanghai Cooperation Organization is
the successor to the Shanghai Five, formed in 1996 between the
People’s Republic of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and
Tajikistan. In 2001 these 5 countries along with Uzbekistan announced
the formation of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization. In the 2017
Astana Summit, India and Pakistan officially became member states.
It is the world’s largest regional organization in terms of
geographic scope and population.
It is sometimes considered an ‘alliance of the East’, i.e., the
eastern complementary of NATO.
Shanghai Cooperation Organization has 8 member countries
which include China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan,
Uzbekistan, India, and Pakistan.
It was created in 2001.
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization Charter was signed in
2002 and entered into force in 2003.
Shanghai Cooperation Organization’s headquarters is in Beijing,
China.
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization is governed by the
Heads of State Council (HSC), its supreme decision-making
body, which meets once a year.
In 2023 Iran will become a member of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organization.

Shanghai Cooperation Organization-RATS: It is a


permanent body of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization and is
intended to facilitate coordination and interaction between the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization member states in the fight against terrorism,
extremism, and separatism. It was formed in 2004. Headquarters in
Tashkent, Uzbekistan.
The military exercise ‘Peace Mission 2018’ was conducted in
Russia and became the first platform after UN Peace Mission Peace
Keeping Missions for joint military engagement between India and
Pakistan. India will assume the Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Presidency in 2023 and Varanasi has been selected as the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization region’s first ‘Tourism and Cultural Capital’.
The Samarkand Declaration (2022) adopted by the council of heads
of government of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization advocated a
‘commitment to peaceful settlement of differences and disputes between
countries through dialogue and consultation’. It pointed out the series of
challenges and headwinds to be faced by humanity in the twenty-first
century which includes climate change, terrorism, technological
disruptions, global reduction in investment flows, instability in the supply
chain, and increased protectionist measures.

ASSOCIATION OF SOUTHEAST ASIAN


NATIONS (ASEAN)
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations or ASEAN is an inter-
governmental organization, established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok,
Thailand. 8 August is observed as ASEAN Day. The primary objective of
the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is to accelerate
economic, social, and cultural growth along with regional peace and
stability. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
Secretariat is in Indonesia, Jakarta.
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was preceded
by an organization formed in 1961 called the Association of Southeast
Asia (ASA). In 1967 Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
was established by signing the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok
Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of the Association of Southeast
Asian Nations (ASEAN): Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore,
and Thailand. Brunei Darussalam joined the Association of Southeast
Asian Nations (ASEAN) in 1984, followed by Vietnam in 1995, Lao
People’s Democratic Republic and Myanmar in 1997, and Cambodia in
1999, making up what is today the 10 member states of the Association
of Southeast Asian Nations ASEAN.
ASEAN Countries are also known as ‘Flying Bees’ as the countries
of this particular organization have been seen the rapid growth in past
few years.

Development of the Association of Southeast Asian


Nations (ASEAN)
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
Summit: The supreme policy-making body of the Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). As the highest level of
authority. Under the Charter, the Summit meets twice a year. The
first Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Summit
was held in Bali, Indonesia in 1976.
In 1976, the members signed the Treaty of Amity and
Cooperation in Southeast Asia, which emphasizes mutual respect
and non-interference in other countries’ affairs.
In 1992, members created the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN) Free Trade Area (AFTA) with the goal of
creating a single market.
In 2006, the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
was given observer status at the UN General Assembly. In
response, the organization awarded the status of dialogue
partner to the UN.
In 2007, the ten members adopted the Association of Southeast
Asian Nations (ASEAN) Charter, a constitutional document that
provided the grouping with legal status and an institutional
framework. It came into force in 2008.
In 2007, the Cebu Declaration, accelerated the establishment of
the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Community
by 2015.
In 2015, the launch of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN) Community, which includes:
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Political-
Security Community,
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Economic
Community, and
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Socio-Cultural
Community.

Structure of the Association of Southeast Asian


Nations (ASEAN)
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
Led Forum
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Regional
Forum (ARF): Launched in 1993, the twenty-seven-member
multilateral grouping was developed to facilitate cooperation on political
and security issues to contribute to regional confidence-building and
preventive diplomacy.
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Plus
Three: The consultative group initiated in 1997 brings together
ASEAN’s ten members, China, Japan, and South Korea.
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Plus
Six: The group includes the Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN) Plus Three as well as India, Australia, and New Zealand.
East Asia Summit (EAS): It is a regional premier forum for
strategic dialogue. It was established in 2005 under Kuala Lumpur
Declaration. The summit seeks to promote security and prosperity in the
region and is usually attended by heads of state from the Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), Australia, China, India, Japan, New
Zealand, Russia, South Korea, and the US. The Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) plays a central role as the agenda-
setter. The East Asia Summit (EAS) is usually held alongside the
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) meetings. The East
Asia Summit (EAS) is an Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN)-centred forum; it can only be chaired by an Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) member. India is a founding member
of the East Asia Summit (EAS).
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
Defence Ministers Meeting (ADMM)-Plus Meeting: The first
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Defence Ministers
Meeting (ADMM)-Plus was convened at Ha Noi, Vietnam in 2010. The
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Defence Ministers
Meeting (ADMM)-Plus is a platform for the Association of Southeast
Asian Nations (ASEAN) and its 8 Dialogue Partners (Australia, China,
India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Kenya, Russian Federation, and
the US) to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace,
stability, and development in the region.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. European Union was created by which treaty?
(a) Lisbon Treaty
(b) Maastricht Treaty
(c) Treaty of Paris
(d) Treaties of Rome

2. The term ‘flying bees’ got associated with which of the following
associations?
(a) Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(b) South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation
(c) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(d) BRICS

3. Which treaty provides the clause for the members to leave the
European Union?
(a) Lisbon Treaty
(b) Maastricht Treaty
(c) Treaty of Paris
(d) Treaties of Rome

4. Which is the executive arm of the European Union?


(a) Council of the European Union
(b) European Council
(c) European Commission
(d) European Parliament

5. What is Schengen Agreement?


(a) A special economic zone.
(b) An agreement for a nuclear-free area.
(c) An agreement for open borders without passport controls.
(d) It is an agreement for the non-proliferation of anti-bal
missiles.

6. Which country uses Euro as its currency?


(a) Bulgaria
(b) Croatia
(c) Czech Republic
(d) France

7. The African Union replaced which organization?


(a) African Economic Community
(b) African Nations
(c) African Cooperation Organization
(d) Organization of African Unity

The African Union was announced under which declaration?


8.
(a) Cebu Declaration
(b) Sirte Declaration
(c) Bangkok Declaration
(d) Samarkand declaration

9. The Agenda 2063 is associated with which organization?


(a) European Union
(b) UNFCCC
(c) African Union
(d) UNEP

10. The theme of the twentieth anniversary of the African Union is?
(a) Our Africa, Our Future
(b) Silencing the Gun
(c) Cohesive and Responsive African Union
(d) Regaining African Identity

11. When was Shanghai Cooperation Organization was created?


(a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c) 2002
(d) 2003

12. When will India get the presidency of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organization?
(a) 2022
(b) 2023
(c) 2024
(d) 2025

Which organization is known as the ‘alliance of the east’?


13.
(a) Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(b) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(c) BRICS
(d) QUAD

14. Match the following:

a)European Union 1. Maastricht Treaty

b)African Union 2. Bangkok Declara

c)Shanghai Cooperation Organization 3. Sirte Declaration

d)Association of Southeast Asian Nations 4. Shanghai Five

Codes:
(a) a–1, b–3, c–4, d–2
(b) a–1, b–4, c–3, d–2
(c) a–1, b–2, c–4, d–3
(d) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4

15. Which Indian city is designated as the first ‘Tourism and Cultural
Capital’?
(a) Puri
(b) Mamallapuram
(c) Varanasi
(d) Jaipur

Which country was the last to join the Association of Southeast


16. Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
(a) Vietnam
(b) Brunei
(c) Cambodia
(d) Laos

17. In which year Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership


was signed at the Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN) summit?
(a) Thirty-Seventh Summit 2020
(b) Thirty-Sixth Summit 2021
(c) Thirty-Eighth Summit 2021
(d) Thirty-Ninth Summit 2020

18. Which country is not a part of the Association of Southeast Asian


(ASEAN) plus six?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Korea

19. When was the first Association of Southeast Asian Nations


(ASEAN) Defence Ministers Meeting (ADMM) Plus Meet held?
(a) 2005
(b) 2008
(c) 2010
(d) 2013

20. Which of the following is wrong about the East Asia Summit
(EAS)?
(a) The East Asia Summit (EAS) is an Association of South
Asian Nations (ASEAN)-centred forum.
(b) India is a founding member of the East Asia Summit (EAS).
(c) It was established in 2005.
(d) It was established under Bangkok Declaration.

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.


(b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (a) (d)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.
18. (b)
(a) (d) (c) (b) (c)
CHAPTER 7
Contemporary Challenges in
International Relations

INTRODUCTION
In contemporary times, the world is going through various challenges like
terrorism, environmental degradation, migration, poverty, human rights
violation, etc. These issues capture the central stage in bilateral, multilateral
as well as all intergovernmental institutions of international relations.

INTERNATIONAL TERRORISM
Terrorism is an act of violence aimed at destabilizing the civil order or
threatening the targeted population or government. According to the UN,
terrorism is any criminal act intended or calculated to provoke a state of terror
in the general public, a group of persons, or individuals for a particular
purpose and they are in all circumstances unjustifiable, whether political,
philosophical, ideological, radical, ethical, etc.

Types of Terrorism
1. Political Terrorism: Manifests in terms of organized violence to
destabilize or dethrone an established political regime. The sole
purpose is to seize control of political power using extreme violence.
For example, Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) and Irish
Republic Army (IRA).
2. Ethnic Terrorism: Violence is employed to establish ethnic
dominance. For example, LTTE’s demand for a separate Tamil State
and Hitler’s holocaust of Jews.
3. Religious Terrorism: Motivated by the ideology of preserving the
dignity of religion and its followers. For example, Al Qaeda, ISIS,
Taliban, and Hezbollah.
4. State Terrorism: When a government of a state resort to violence
and extremism to eliminate political opposition to establish its total
control. For example, USSR under Joseph Stalin and China under
Mao Zedong.
5. International Terrorism: Involves citizens of more than one
country and has transnational impacts. For example, the 26/11 attack
on Mumbai was sponsored by a terrorist group from a neighbouring
country.

Impacts of Terrorism
Undermines the sovereignty and integrity of nation-states.
Threat to world peace and a crime against humanity.
Terror groups might gain access to Weapons of Mass Destruction
(WMD). For example, the use of chemical weapons in Tokyo in 1995.
Strains and even breaks diplomatic ties between countries in case one
country overtly or covertly sponsors terrorism against the other. For
example, India and Pakistan, Arab States and Israel, etc.
Risk of radicalization and dissemination of extremist ideology exploiting
the fault lines across societies.

World Initiatives to Fight Terrorism


The UN adopted the UN Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy by the General
Assembly on 8 September 2006 which will enhance national, regional, or
international efforts to counter terrorism. It has four pillars:

1. Address the conditions conducive to the spread of terrorism,


2. Take measures to prevent and combat terrorism,
3. Act to build the state’s capacity to prevent and combat terrorism and to
strengthen the role of the UN in this regard, and
4. Take action to ensure respect for human rights for all and rule of law
as the fundamental basis for the fight against terrorism.
The Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT) was
proposed by India in 1996 and is a treaty which seeks to criminalize all forms
of international terrorism. The global Terrorism Index (GTI) released by
Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) ranks India as the seventh worst
terrorism-affected country.

CLIMATE CHANGE AND ENVIRONMENTAL


CONCERNS
Due to rapid industrialization and urbanization aided and abetted by the
process of globalization, issues related to the environment and climate
change have gained currency in the realm of international relations.
Industrialization led to the problem of the greenhouse effect that resulted
in the rise in global temperature due to the release of carbon dioxide (CO2),
methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
culminating in global warming and widespread disruption of the ecological
system. Climate change has significant repercussions on international
relations and hence concerted efforts have been made by the UN and other
organizations to deliberate and act on the issues affecting the environment.

Important Environmental Treaties and Conventions


In 1972 through the Stockholm Declaration in the UN conference on
the human environment, an environmental management body was
established as United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) on 5
June 1972.
Vienna Convention—Related to the protection of the ozone layer,
emerged in 1985 followed by the Montreal Protocol held in 1987 aimed
at phasing out of Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS) like
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HFCs), etc.
Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil (1992) which resulted in five
documents.
1. Rio Declaration—27 principles focusing on the human role in
protecting the environment.
2. Agenda 21—Action Program for Sustainable Development,
3. Forest Principles—Conservation and sustainable development of
forests,
4. Convention on Biological Diversity—Legally binding treaty for
sustainable use of biological resources, and
5. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC)—To stabilize greenhouse gas emissions in the
environment.
Kyoto Protocol—It was signed in 1997 as a legally binding
commitment by developed states to limit greenhouse gas emissions of
carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O),
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur
hexafluoride (SF6) under the principle ‘Common but Differentiated
Responsibilities’. It came into effect in 2005.
Paris Agreement—It is an agreement within the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It was
negotiated by representatives of 196 state parties at the Conference of
Parties (COP21) of the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) and signed in 2016. It has aims like:
1. holding the increase in the global average temperature to well
below 2°C above pre-industrial levels,
2. pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C above
pre-industrial levels, and
3. increasing the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate
change.

HUMAN RIGHTS
Those rights to which people are entitled by virtue of being human. Human
Rights are universal in nature irrespective of race, religion, gender, class, and
other distinctions.
These are guaranteed by the law, treaties (like UN treaties), Customary
International Law, etc. Magna Carta (1215), Petition of Rights (1628), US
Constitution (1787), French Declaration (1789), and US Bill of Rights (1791)
are the nascent sources of origin of contemporary human rights.

Three Generations of Human Rights


1. First Generation rights include civil and political rights (for example,
Freedom of Movement, Association and Assembly, Religious
Freedom, etc.)
2. Second Generation Rights include social and economic rights (for
example, the Right to Health, Right to Education, Right to
Employment, etc.)
3. Third Generation Rights include the newly recognized human rights
such as cultural rights of minorities, environmental rights, rights related
to gender equality and social justice like transgender and gay rights,
etc.
Universal Declaration on Human Rights (UDHR)—First
international document on Human Rights which held that Human Rights are
basic civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights that all human beings
should enjoy. It consists of 30 Articles apart from its Preamble and was
adopted by UN General Assembly (UNGA) in 1948. Described as the
‘International Magna Carta’. Universal Declaration on Human Rights (UDHR)
is further divided into two parts:
UN Report of 26 May 2005 titled ‘In Larger Freedom: Towards
Development Security and Human Rights for All’ by Kofi Annan highlighted
poverty and global inequalities, discrimination, armed conflict and violence,
impunity, democracy deficits, and weak institutions as contemporary
challenges to human rights.

MIGRATION AND REFUGEES


The movement of people from one place to another for settling permanently or
temporarily at a new geographic location is known as migration. It can be
external from one country to another as well as internal migration within a
country.
When a person who is seeking refuge in another country due to political,
religious, or other forms of persecution in their home country makes a formal
application where the refugee is sought and is described as an asylum seeker
and if this application is successful, that person’s legal status becomes that of
a refugee.
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is
the leading international agency coordinating refugee problems. It is a UN
agency mandated to aid and protect refugees, forcibly displaced communities,
and stateless people and to assist in their voluntary repatriation, local
integration, or resettlement in a third country. It was created in 1950 to
address the refugee crisis resulting from the second world war. It is
headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. World Refugee Day is celebrated on
20 June.
1951 Refugee Convention and 1967 Protocol to Refugee Convention deal
with the rights of refugees. India is having a large population of refugees but is
not a signatory to these conventions. Globally more than two third of all
refugees belong to countries like Syria, Afghanistan, South Sudan, Myanmar,
etc.

New York Declaration of Refugees and Migrants


It was adopted unanimously by UN General Assembly (UNGA) on 19
September 2016 to reaffirm the importance of the International Refugee
Regime and the commitment by member states to strengthen and enhance
mechanisms to protect refugees and migrants. It resulted in the adoption of
two new global compacts in 2018:

1. a global compact on refugees and


a global compact for safe, orderly and regular migration.
2.
The New York Declaration also sets out the key elements of a
Comprehensive Refugee Response Framework (CRRF) that focuses on
supporting those countries that host a large number of refugees.

International Organization for Migration (IOM)


It is a leading intergovernmental organization working in the field of migration
and established in 1951 with headquarters in Switzerland and works under
the mandate of the UN. International Organization for Migration’s stated
mission is to promote humane and orderly migration by providing services and
advice to governments and migrants. International Migration Day is celebrated
on 18 December.
International Organization for Migration works in four broad areas of
migration management:

a. migration and development,


b. facilitating migration,
c. regulating migration, and
d. addressing forced migration.
As of 2021, the International Organization for Migration has 173 nation-
states and nine observer states. India was granted observer status to
International Organization for Migration in the year 1991 and became a
member state in 2008. According to International Organization for Migrations’
latest report, ‘Global Migration Report 2020’, India is the largest country of
origin of international migrants with a 17.5 million strong diaspora globally
followed by Mexico at 11.8 million and China at 10.7 million.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. The New York declaration of 2016 is related to the?
(a) Climate Change
(b) Migration and Refugee
(c) Human Rights
(d) International Terrorism
2. Identify the incorrect statements:
Statement I: The Refugee Convention was signed in 1951 and the
Protocol to Refugee Convention in 1967.
Statement II: India is not a signatory to both of these conventions.
Options:
(a) Only Statement I.
(b) Only Statement II.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II.
(d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II.

3. Match the following:

Terrorist Organizations Countries of Origins

1. Taliban 1. Pakistan

2. Jaish e Mohammed 2. Syria

3. Hezbollah C.Lebanon

4. ISIS D.Afghanistan

Codes:
(a) 1–(A), 2–(B), 3–(C), 4–(D)
(b) 1–(D), 2–(B), 3–(C), 4–(A)
(c) 1–(D), 2–(A), 3–(C), 4–(B)
(d) 1–(C), 2–(A), 3–(D), 4–(B)

4. Arrange the following in reverse chronological sequence:


A. Magna Carta
B. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

C. Bill of Rights
D. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Options:
(a) B, D, C, and A
(b) A, C, D, and B
(c) B, C, A, and D
(d) C, A, B, and D

5. Assertion (A): International terrorism has far-reaching consequence


other than just inflicting macabre violence and destabilizing politica
order.
Reason (R): Terrorism operates with an ideological motive of
radicalism and extremism and ruptures the very fabric of society.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides the correct explanatio
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide the co
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

6. Match the following:

Environmental Treaties Years

1. Kyoto Protocol I.2015

2. Montreal Protocol II.1992

C. Rio Declaration III. 1987


D. International Solar Alliance IV.1997

Options:
(a) A–(I), B–(II), C–(III), D–(IV)
(b) A–(II), B–(IV), C–(I), D–(III)
(c) A–(IV), B–(III), C–(II), D–(I)
(d) A–(III), B–(I), C–(II), D–(IV)

7. Statement I: International Organization for Migration was establishe


in 1955 in Switzerland.
Statement II: India was granted observer status in 1991 and became
a member state in 2008.
Codes:
(a) Option Statement I is correct.
(b) Option Statement II is correct.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

8. Statement I: The Vienna Convention is related to the protection of th


Ozone Layer.
Statement II: The’ Panchamrit’ or the set of five pledges was
proposed by India at the twenty-sixth Conference of the Parties
(COP26) in 2021.
Options:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(b) Only Statement I is incorrect.
(c) Only Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

9. According to the Global Migration Report, which of the following countr


is the source of the largest origin of international migrants?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Mexico
(d) South Africa

10. Choose the correct statements:


a. The UN adopted the Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy in 2009.

b. Global Terrorism Index (GTI) is released by Stockholm Internation


Research Institute.

c. The Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT)


proposed by India in 1996.
Options:
(a) Only (c)
(b) Only (b) and (c)
(c) Only (a) and (c)
(d) (a), (b), and (c)

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b) (a)
2. 4.
6. (c)
(d) (a)
Previous Years’ Questions

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2016)

List I List II
(Author) (Concepts)
(A)Earnest Hauss (i)Post-
Modernism
(B)John von Neumann and (ii) Constructivis
Morgenstein
(C)Alexander Bend (iii) Game theory
(D)Richard Ashley (iv) Neo-
functionalism

(a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)


(b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2016)

List I List II
(Disarmament (Explanation)
)
(A)Human (i)Means abolition of all
disarmament human and material
instrumentalities of
warfare.
(B)Qualitative (ii) Is a kind of disarmam
disarmament in which all nations ta
part.
(C)General (iii) Refers to the abolition
disarmament reduction of only spec
types of armaments.
(D)Total or (iv) Refers to limitation or
comprehensive reduction of armed
disarmement forces.

(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)


(b) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

3. Which of the following are “four Pillars” of green politics? (2016)


(a) Ecological responsibility, social justice, non-violence and g
root democracy
(b) Ecological responsibility, social justice, non-violence and wes
democracy
(c) Ecological responsibility, social justice, non-violence
parliamentary democracy
(d) Ecological responsibility, social and economic justice, non-viole
and grass root democracy

4. Which of the following was not included in Boutros Ghali’s


“Agenda for Peace” ? (2016)
(a) Peace Keeping
(b) Peace Settlement
(c) Peace Building
(d) Peace Making

5. Which of the following does not promote trade liberalisation ?


(2016)
(a) Warsaw pact
(b) European Union
(c) NAFTA
(d) APEC

6. Which of the following approaches to the study of international


relations, the concept of national interests finds an important
place _____. (2016)
(a) Liberal approach
(b) Realist approach
(c) Marxist approach
(d) Traditional approach

7. Which of the following statements are correct regarding G-8 ?


Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (2017)
(i) It was formally set up in 1975
(ii) Russia had joined it in 1997
(iii) It considers global economic issues in its summits.
(iv) Now its summits are also attended by China, Brazil, South Af
India and Pakistan.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

8. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)


and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer
from the codes given below: (2017)
Assertion (A): The foreign policy of a country is mostly based on
‘national interests’ rather than idealism.
Reason (R): United States extended support to dictatorial
regimes on many occasions as it suited its ‘national interests’.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explana
of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

9. Which of the following statements are true regarding


Dependency theory? (2017)
(A) It originated in the context of Latin-American countries.
(B) It argues that peripheral countries have been integrated as we
assimilated into the international capitalist system.
(C) It explains the process of exploitation of the natural resource
the third world by the advanced nations through MNCs and o
means
(D) It is a neo-colonial-theory that seeks to explain new form
control and dominance by the advanced nations.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
answer from the codes given below: (2018)
Assertion (A): Interdependence and flow of information across
the world strengthened the process of globalization which in turn
restricted the powers and scope of nation state.
Reason (R): World trade is mostly controlled by the developed
nations of the world.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explana
of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

11. Ann Tickner is a famous: (2018)


(a) Realist
(b) Feminist
(c) Liberalist
(d) Marxist

12. Who among the following is not a supporter of ‘Policy Oriented


Approach’ of International Law? (2018)
(a) Myres. S. Mcdougal
(b) Andy Knight
(c) Lasswel
(d) Michael Reisman

13. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from
the codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
(Authors) (Ideas)
(A)Anthony (i)Capitalism has
Giddens contributed to
globalisation
(B)J.N. (ii) Political factors are respons
Rosenau for a globalisation
(C)Gilpin (iii) Globalisation is the result o
technological development
(D)Wallerstein (iv) Globalisation is the result o
modernisation

Codes:
(A) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(B) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(C) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(D) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

14. Arrange the ministerial conferences of W.T.O. in their


chronological order: (2018)
(A) Singapore
(B) Seattle
(C) Doha
(D) Hongkong
Codes:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(c) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(d) (D), (C), (B), (A)

15. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
answer from the codes given below: (2018)
Assertion (A): New International Economic order seeks to
promote more harmonious and favorable relations between the
advanced nations and the developing countries.
Reason (R): The terms of trade and transfer of technology to the
developing countries is not advantageous to them.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

16. In which year the Right to Development was declared as a


Human Right by the United Nations General Assembly?
(2018)
(a) 1980
(b) 1986
(c) 1998
(d) 2006

17. At which of the following places the UN Security Council has


held its sessions _____. (2018)
(i) Addis Ababa, 1972
(ii) Panama city, 1973
(iii) Geneva, 1990
(iv) Havana, 1992
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

18. In which year Brezhnev had propounded the concept of Asian


Collective Security System? (2018)
(a) 1967
(b) 1968
(c) 1969
(d) 1970
19. Match List-X with List-Y and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists: (2018)

List-X List-Y
(Treaties on Arms Control) (Year of Signe
on Treaty)
(A)Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty-I (i)1990
(B)Treaty- on Open Sky (ii) 1991
(C)Strategic Arms Reduction Tready - II (iii) 1992
(D)Treaty on the Reduction of Conventional (iv) 1993
Forces in Europe (C.F.E.)

(a) (A)-(i),(B)-(ii),(C)-(iii),(D)-(iv)
(b) (A)-(iv),(B)-(iii),(C)-(ii),(D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(ii),(B)-(iii),(C)-(iv),(D)-(i)
(d) (A)-(ii),(B)-(iv),(C)-(iii),(D)-(i)

20. Which of the following statements is not correct? (2018)


(a) Idealist approach stresses the role of moral values
(b) Idealism is essentially a variant of liberal internationalism
(c) Idealist approach aims at reforming international system thro
international law.
(d) Idealism is coextensive with liberalism.

21. Which of the following statements is not correct about US


policy of containment? (2018)
(a) The policy aimed at containing Soviet influence.
(b) The US used foreign aid as an instrument of containment
(c) The policy was meant for countering Soviet influence in Eas
Europe only
(d) Diplomacy and military intervention were also used for the purp
of containment.
22. Which of the following countries did not witness political
violence in the aftermath of Arab Spring, 2011? (2018)
(a) Tunisia
(b) Egypt
(c) Libya
(d) Saudi Arabia

23. Which of the following statements is correct about the role of


UN in the Syrian Civil War? (2018)
(a) UN intervened in Syria in 2011 following Arab Spring.
(b) UN intervened again in 2003 following Hezbollah support for
Syrian army
(c) After Sarin nerve gas attack in Damascus in 2013, UN votes
eliminating chemicals weapons
(d) UN wanted Syria’s stockpile of chemical weapons eliminated
fixed no time limit for elimination.

24. Who of the following considers self-defense, enforcing of


rights, making reparations for injury and punishing wrong-dore,
as the causes for a just war? (2018)
(a) M Koskenniemi
(b) Hugo Crotius
(c) C Gray
(d) J.G Starke

25. In January 2002, which of the following countries were


described as ‘axis of avil’ by the UD President? (2018)
(a) Iran, Libya, North Kore
(b) North Korea, Iran, Iraq
(c) North Korea, Afghanistan, Syria
(d) Syria, Iran, Iraq

26. Who was Chairman of the UN Committee, meant for inspecting


places in Iraq for finding nuclear weapons during Saddam
Hussain’s Regime? (2018)
(a) M.J Miller
(b) Hans Blix
(c) Mohamad Mahathir
(d) M Bouazizi

27. Which of the following statements is not correct? (2018)


(a) Following horrors of the First World War liberal internationa
sought to end war.
(b) They held that right to self-determination and statehood
impermissible
(c) They were convinced that system of balance of power would
way to collective security
(d) They also held that diplomacy would be replaced by constant.

28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
(Authors) (Books)
(A)Thomas L. (i)The World is
Friedman Flat
(B)Joseph E. (ii) In Defence of Globalization
Stiglitz
(C)Noam Chomsky (iii) Making Globalization Work
(D)Jagdish (iv) The Prosperous Few and the
Bhagwati Restless Many

(a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)


(b) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
29. Arrange the following disarmament pacts/treaties in their
chronological order: (2018)
(i) START I Treaty
(ii) Conventional Arms Cut Treaty
(iii) Non-proliferation Treaty Extension
(iv) Treaty on Strategic Offensive Reduction
(a) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(d) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

30. Who is the propounder of Structural Realism ? (2018)


(a) Kenneth Waltz
(b) E H. Cars
(c) Ronald Nebur
(d) George Kennan

31. Which of the following countries was not a member of SEATO?


(2018)
(a) Australia
(b) New Zealand
(c) Philippines
(d) Japan

32. Who was the first scholar to use the term “Public Diplomacy”?
(2018)
(a) Edmund Gulien
(b) Eugene Black
(c) R. Cohen
(d) Harold Nicolson

33. “Diplomacy has changed now and now-a-days it is concerned


with economy, trade and petroleum”, this statement is given by
(2019)
(a) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(b) A B Vajpayee
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) P. Chidambaram

34. Arrange these events according to ascending order (2019)


(A) Disintegration of USSR
(B) Kargil War
(C) Iraq’s attack on Kuwait
(D) Formation of G-4
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (D), (B), (C), (A)
(c) (C), (A), (B), (D)
(d) (D), (B), (A), (D)

35. Under the North-South dialogue, what is not included in


‘South’? (2019)
(a) European countries
(b) Asian countries
(c) African countries
(d) Latin American countries

36. Resolution 1267 of the UNSC is related to (2019)


(a) international terrorism
(b) cyber security
(c) maritime security
(d) humanitarian intervention

37. Globalization is antithetical to (2019)


(a) interdependence
(b) integration
(c) connectivity
(d) geopolitics

38. The Containment Thesis was propounded by (2019)


(a) Henry Kissinger
(b) George Kenar
(c) Lloyd George
(d) None of them

39. According to the UNDP’s Human Development Report of 1994,


which one of the following is incorrectly stated as an issue falls
within the scope of human security? (2019)
(a) Economic security, Food security
(b) Health security, Environmental security
(c) Personal security, Community security
(d) Political security, Energy security

40. Which is the most important element of current global politics ?


(2019)
(a) Technical
(b) Economical
(c) Political
(d) Military

41. Match List I with List II (2019)

List I List II
(A)Security Complex (i)Karl Deutsch
(B)Common Security (ii) Robert Jervis
(C)Security Community (iii) Barry Buzan
(D)Security Regimes (iv) Palme Report, 1992
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

42. Kyoto Protocol was enforced in: (2019)


(1) 1997
(2) 2000
(3) 2005
(4) 2006
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

43. Match List I with List II: (2019)

List I List II
(Organization) (Number of memb
states)
(A)Economic Community of West African (i)6
States
(B)South African Development Community (ii) 12
(C)Economic Community of Central African (iii) 16
States
(D)Eastern African Community (iv) 15

Choose the correct options:


(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

44. Match List I with the List II regarding terrorism: (2019)

List I List
(A)Convention on offences and certain other acts (i)1999
committed on Board Aircraft (Tokyo)
(B)Convention for suppression of unlawful acts against the (ii) 1
safety of Civil Aviation (Montreal)
(C)International Convention for suppression of Terrorist (iii) 1
Bombing
(D)International Convention for Suppression of Financing (iv) 1
of Terrorism

Choose the correct options:


(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
(4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

45. From legal point of view which of the following is called a soft
law? (2019)
(1) Right to Environment
(2) Right to Development
(3) Right to Health
(4) Right to Privacy
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

46. Bachract and Baratz have mentioned about the three classes
of International Relations to control the conduct of states.
Which of the following are the three classes? (2020)
(A) Influence Relationship
(B) Force Relationship
(C) Legitimate Relationship
(D) Power Relationship
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (D), (C) and (B)
(d) (B), (C) and (A)

47. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (2020)

List I List II
(Author) (Book)
AWilliam C. Olson The Growth of a Discipline
BB.G.F. Kennan American Diplomacy

CRussel H. Fifield The Introductory Course in


International Relations
DRobert Strausz- International Relations: A General
Hupe Theory and Stefan T. Possony

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

48. Who among the following had declared that arms race in itself
is experience of terror ? (2020)
(a) Hadley Bull
(b) Arnold Toynbee
(c) Kenneth Boulding
(d) Lynn Miller

49. Which of the following countries was a part of recently


concluded P5 + 1 Nuclear Argument ? (2020)
(a) Japan
(b) Australia
(c) India
(d) Germany

50. Which of the following is not a form of National Power? (2020)


(a) Social Power
(b) Military Power
(c) Psychological Power
(d) Economic Power

51. Which of the following scholars of International Politics did not


subscribe to this view that no social science can survive
without idealistic aspects ? (2020)
(a) Herbert Butterfield
(b) E. H. Carr
(c) Reinhold Niebuhr
(d) Arnold Wolters

52. Which of the following is also called as Total Disarmament ?


(2020)
(a) Qualitative Disarmament
(b) Quantitative Disarmament
(c) General Disarmament
(d) Comprehensive Disarmament

53. Who stated that, “International Politics includes analysis of


political relations and problems of peace among nations” ?
(2020)
(a) Charles Scheichar
(b) Norman Padelford
(c) Harold Sprout
(d) H. J. Morgenthau

54. Which of the following pairs correctly match? Choose your


answer from the codes given below: (2020)
(A) The control of the Arms Race –Hedley Bull
(B) Some Economic Aspects –L. Gromoo and V. Strigachow
(C) Disarmament: The challenge of the Nineteen sixties –Jame
Warbarg
(D) Winning without war –Emile Benoit
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (D), (C) and (A)
(d) (D), (D) and (A)

55. Who among the following is not related to Bargaining Theory?


(2020)
(a) Kenneth Waltz
(b) J.F. Nash
(c) Thomas Schelling
(d) Roger Fisher
56. Which one of the following was not feature of Old Diplomacy?
(2020)
(a) Limited
(b) Aristocratic
(c) Transparency
(d) Freedom of Action for Ambassadors

57. Which of the following country is not a member of ASEAN:


(2020)
(a) Laos
(b) Combodia
(c) Vietnam
(d) North Korea

58. Impact of Globalization is not (2020)


(a) Decline of Sovereignity of nation-state
(b) Curtailment in the power of the nation-state with a massive flo
capital, people and technology across territorial boundaries
(c) A shift from a Geopolitics regime to geo-economic regime
(d) Emergence of multipolar world

59. Which of the following statement is correctly defined present


world order ? (2021)
(a) Unipolar World
(b) Polycentric world with unipolar oligarchy
(c) Multipolar World
(d) Bipolar World

60. Who among the following distinguished between interest


articulation function and other anomic group functions?(2021)
(a) Almond and Powell
(b) Almond and Coleman
(c) Jean Blondel
(d) Hugh Heclo

61. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of ‘Sustainable


Development’? (2021)
(a) Unrestrained development
(b) Based on principle of generational equity
(c) Development without environmental degradation
(d) Meeting present needs, without compromising needs for future

62. Which of the following are true about the world system theory?
(2021)
(A) It is influenced by the Marxian idea of accumulation of wealth
(B) On the basis of wealth accumulation, the world is divided betw
‘core’, ‘periphery’ and ‘semi-periphery’
(C) It involves important concepts like players, strategies, rules
outcomes
(D) It analyses the situation of conflict, competition and coopera
among states
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

63. Arrange the following international treaties in chronological


order: (2021)
(A) Charter of the United Nations
(B) Treaty of Westphalia
(C) Treaty of Versailles
(D) Treaties of Utrecht
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) C, B, D, A
(c) B, D, C, A
(d) C, A, D, B

64. Given below are two statements (2021)


Statement I: Issues of peace and security are decided by 2/3
majority, including five permanent members, by the UN Security
Council
Statement II: UN Security Council represents all regions of the
world in adequate manner
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

65. Who gave the concept of ‘Gaia’? (2021)


(a) Rachel Carson
(b) Vandana Shiva
(c) James Lovelock
(d) Fritjof Capra

Direction: Read the given passage and answer the next 5 questions
that follow (2021)
In summary, an increasing readiness by the UN to intervene
within states in order to promote internal justice for individuals would
indicate a movement towards global governance and away from
unconditional sovereignty. There have been some signs of movement in
this direction, but principles of state sovereignty and non-intervention
remain important. There is no clear consensus on those points. There is
still some support for the view that Article 2(7) of the UN Charter should
be interpreted strictly; that there can be no intervention within a state
without the express consent of the government of that arguments
favoured by the government of the People’s Republic of China. Others
believe that intervention within a country to promote human rights is only
justifiable on the basis of a threat to international peace and security.
Evidence of a threat to international peace and security could be the
appearance of significant numbers of refugees or the judgement that
other states might intervene militarily. Some Liberals argue that this
condition is flexible enough to justify intervention to defend human rights
whenever it seems prudent. There is also some support for a stronger
position. In September 1999, UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan declared
that individual sovereignty may be as important as national sovereignty.

66. On what basis is the UN ready to intervene in the matters of a


state?
(a) To end the conflict
(b) To create international cooperation
(c) To promote internal justice
(d) To facilitate great powers

67. In the matter of state intervention, the UN should adhere to


provisions related to which aspect?
(a) Domestic jurisdiction
(b) Social equality
(c) Political independence
(d) Economic cooperation

68. Under what condition can the UN intervene in state affairs?


(a) To establish democracy
(b) To tackle problem of non-traditional threats
(c) On the basis of the express consent of the state’s government
(d) On the recommendation of major powers

69. What is the general feeling among some sections regarding the
basis of UN intervention?
(a) Human Rights violations
(b) Economic failure
(c) Large scale violence
(d) Problem of drug trafficking

70. UN’s new responsibility is to establish which kind of international


system?
(a) More democratic UN
(b) Provide global governance
(c) Strengthening UN finances
(d) Regulating the social sector

Answer Key

1. 11. 21. 31. 41. 51. 61.


(b) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a)
2. 12. 22. 32. 42. 52. 62.
(d) (b) (d) (a) (c) (d) (a)
3. 13. 23. 33. 43. 53. 63.
(a) (c) (c) (c) (b) (d) (c)
4. 14. 24. 34. 44. 54. 64.
(b) (a) (b) (c) (b) (a) (c)
5. 15. 25. 35. 45. 55. 65.
(a) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (c)
6. 16. 26. 36. 46. 56. 66.
(b) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c) (c)
7. 17. 27. 37. 47. 57. 67.
(a) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (a)
8. 18. 28. 38. 48. 58. 68.
(a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (d) (c)
9. 19. 29. 39. 49. 59. 69.
(d) (c) (a) (d) (d) (b) (a)
10. 20. 30. 40. 50. 60. 70.
(b) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions


2.

Human disarmament refers to limitation or reduction of armed


forces.
Qualitative disarmament refers to the abolition or reduction of
only special types of armaments.
General disarmament is a kind of disarmament in which all
nations take part.
Total or comprehensive disarmament means abolition of all
human and material instrumentalities of warfare.

Hence, the answer will be D.

6. In the Realist School of International relations profound role i


vested to the concept of national interests. Hans J. Morgenthau has
written about the nature and aspects of national interests in his wor
“Politics among Nations” (1948).
Hence, the correct answer will be B.

8. According to the Realist theory of international relations, the foreig


policy of a country is mostly based on ‘national interests’ rather than
idealism. This idea was strongly advocated by Hans J. Morgenthau
in his book “Politics among Nations”. The importance of “nationa
interest” as a foreign policy determinant is also evident from action
of contemporary powers like the USA, who often extended suppor
to dictatorial regimes on many occasions as it suited its ‘nationa
interests’.
Hence, the answer will be A.
11. Ann Tickmen is a famous feminist scholar who has worked upon
engendering the International Relations. Her important work
includes “Gender in International Relations: Feminist Perspectives
on Achieving International Security (1992)”.
Hence, the correct answer will be B.

12. The policy-oriented approach or the New Haven approach to


international law stress on the essential relationship between law
and policy. Except Andy Knight, all other options are supporters of
this approach.
Hence, the correct answer will be B.

22. The Arab Spring was spread in Libya, Egypt, Yemen, Syria and
Bahrain. The Arab Spring was a series of anti-government
protests, uprisings, and armed rebellions that spread across much
of the Islamic world in the early 2010s. It began in response to
oppressive regimes and a low standard of living, starting with
protests in Tunisia. So, option D is the correct answer.

23. In response to the Syrian Civil War a United Nations peacekeeping


mission was set up in Syria in 2012. After the sarin attack in
Damascus in 2013, Syria agreed to join the Chemical Weapons
Convention and allow all its stockpiles to be destroyed. Thus,
option C is the correct answer.

24. Hugo Grotius wrote three books on the Law of War and Peace.
These books are based on principles of natural law, which are held
to be binding on all people and nations regardless of local custom.
Book II identifies three ‘just causes’ for war: self-defense,
reparation of injury, and punishment.

26. Swedish diplomat and politician Hans Martin Blix was the head of
the United Nations Monitoring, Verification and Inspection
Commission from March 2000 to June 2003. In 2002, the
commission began searching Iraq for weapons of mass
destruction. The Commission did not find any weapons of mass
destruction. Thus, option B is the correct answer.

31. SEATO (Southeast Asia Treaty Organization) was a collective


defence Treaty signed in 1954. It was dissolved in 1977. SEATO
members include Australia, France, New Zealand, Pakistan,
Philippines, Thailand, United Kingdom and United States.
Hence, the answer will be D.

36. United Nations Security Council unanimously adopted resolution


1297 on international terrorism. UNSC resolution 1267 designated
Al-Qaeda, Osama bin Laden and his associates as terrorists.
Resolution contained the provisions of freezing assets and travel
on certain individuals.

45.

Hard law- These are binding legal laws. These laws give binding
responsibilities on states or institutions or individuals
Soft law- These are significant but non-binding laws.
Right to development is a soft law from legal point of view.

Thus, B is the correct answer.

53. Hans Morgenthau in his world ‘Politics among nations: the struggle
for power and peace (1948)’ sets the basic tenets of political
realism which assumes that interests defined as power is an
objective category meaning that sovereign states compete for
power survival constitutes the minimum goal of foreign policy and
core national interests.
UNIT VI
India’s Foreign Policy

Chapter 1: Perspectives on Indian Foreign Policy


Chapter 2: Indian Foreign Policy
Chapter 3: India’s Relations with Major Powers
Chapter 4: India’s Engagement with Multi-Polar World
Chapter 5: India’s Relations with Neighbourhoods
Chapter 6: India’s Negotiation Strategies in International
Regimes
Chapter 7: Contemporary Challenges to Indian Foreign Policy
CHAPTER 1
Perspectives on Indian Foreign
Policy

INTRODUCTION
In the domain of international relations, the foreign policy of any nation
represents the perspective from which they see the world and what kind
of interaction and relation they wish to develop with the world in general
and the country in particular. Foreign policy is an instrument to realize the
national interest of a country. The foreign policy of any country is shaped
by two factors—domestic and international.
India is a regional superpower in south Asia and an important player
in Asia as well as one of the most significant developing countries in the
world order. We need to have a clear understanding of how India reaches
here and how it maintains its position and this perspective of Indian
Foreign Policy need to be analyzed categorically.

INDIA AS POST-COLONIAL COUNTRY


As Prime Minister from 1947 to 1964, Jawaharlal Nehru defined the
paradigm according to which post-colonial India was to be built. It had
three decisive components: on the political front, a strong parliamentarian
democracy, on the economic front, a mixed system in which the state
played a strong role, albeit the private sector remained active under
protectionist barriers, and on the diplomatic front, the principle of non-
alignment.
The main concern was to stay out of the USSR and US government’s
cold war block rivalry. Panchsheel, the five tenets of peaceful
coexistence, served as the guiding ideals of this period. During the
Nehruvian Era, Indian Foreign Policy represents the principles of
Idealism in international relations. India was viewed as the obvious leader
among the newly independent emerging countries. India played an
important role in the process of decolonization of third-world countries
and became the voice of the former colonies of Asia and Africa, and the
moral and political force for decolonization.
India was embroiled in wars with both China and Pakistan in the
1960s. Therefore, this led to another phase of Indian Foreign Policy.

INDIA AS A RISING POWER IN WORLD


After the 1962 war, India made pragmatic choices on security and
political challenges. It looked beyond non-alignment in the interest of
national security, concluding a defence agreement with the US in 1964.
Through the Tashkent Agreement in 1965, both India and Pakistan
agreed to withdraw all armed forces to pre-war positions, restore
diplomatic relations, and discuss economic, refugee, and other questions.
Meanwhile, India struck a Friendship Treaty with the erstwhile USSR in
1971.
With this, there comes the period of Greater Indian Regional
Assertion. India showed remarkable use of hard power when it liberated
Bangladesh in the India–Pakistan war in 1971. In India’s political system,
Indira Gandhi had established her dominance by 1971. Indian foreign
policy acknowledged the value of power for the first time.
However, it was a particularly complex phase as the US–China–
Pakistan axis that came into being at this time seriously threatened
India’s prospects, as a regional power. India also faced sanctions from
the US and its allies after conducting a peaceful nuclear explosion test in
1974 (Pokhran I).

INDIA AS AN EMERGING ECONOMIC POWER


The combination of events as diverse as the Gulf War (1991–92), the
break-up of the USSR (1991), long-standing economic stagnation and
domestic turbulence came together in 1991, creating a balance of
payment crisis in India. These are the prevailing conditions which further
pave the way for Indian Foreign Policy leading to the phase of
liberalization in the economy and more economic development relations
across the globe.
The collapse of the USSR, India’s close ally, and the economic crisis
in 1991 compelled India to look again at the first principles of both
domestic and foreign policy. Gujral Doctrine which was formulated by I.
K. GUJRAL (former Prime Minister) outlined the five principles based
on the belief that India’s stature and strength cannot be isolated from the
quality of its relations with its neighbours. Despite international pressure,
I. K. Gujral firmly refused to sign the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(CTBT) in October 1996. The quest for strategic autonomy was
particularly focused on securing its nuclear weapon option (Pokhran II
1998). On the strength of its reputation as a democracy and a strong
economy, India also increased its soft power.
India gradually acquired the attributes of a balancing power (against
the rise of China). It is reflected in the India–US nuclear deal (123
Agreement). India’s policy of non-alignment has turned into multi-
alignment. India is now more aware of its own capabilities and the
expectations that the world has of India. India has been able to assert
itself beyond south Asia, through its approach towards the Indian Ocean
Region (SAGAR initiative) and the extended neighbourhood (Act East
policy and Think West policy).
India’s ‘Connect Central Asia Policy’ is a comprehensive strategy
designed to deepen and broaden India’s political, security, economic, and
cultural ties with the central Asian nations. When the Indian Prime
Minister toured all five central Asian nations in 2015 viz., Uzbekistan,
Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Kyrgyzstan, and Tajikistan it emphasized the
significance of this strategy.
Implemented policies like Look East into Act East Policy and added
Act Far East and Act West Asia, to bring significance to the domestic
needs of India. Prime Minister Narendra Modi Administration’s stronger
push to invite Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), ‘made in India’ and
Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan witnessed global appreciation, along with
India’s independent interests in world markets. India has emerged as the
fastest-growing major economy in the world and is expected to be one of
the top three economic powers globally over the next 10–15 years,
backed by its robust democracy and strong partnerships.
MAJOR EVENTS THAT SHAPED INDIAN
FOREIGN POLICY
1947–Invasion of Kashmir by Pakistan.
1962—India–China War.
1965—India–Pakistan War.
1971—Liberation of Bangladesh.
1991—Collapse of the USSR, severe depletion in India’s foreign
currency reserves.
1998—India’s nuclear tests at Pokhran, retaliatory tests by Pakistan.
1999—Kargil Intrusion by Pakistan.
2001—9/11 Terrorist attacks in the US, including the bombing of the
Twin Towers in New York and terror attacks on the Indian Parliament.
2008—Terror strikes in Mumbai by Pakistan, Lehman Brothers collapse
in the US and trigger the US-led global recession.
2014—Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s Government infuses new life into
Indian Foreign Policy—unabashed about India’s ‘great power’ ambition,
launched the Neighbourhood First Policy.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following is NOT correct about the Non-Aligned
Movement?
I. In 1961, drawing on the principles agreed upon at the Band
Conference of 1955, the Non-Aligned Movement was form
established.
II. Formally established in Belgrade, Yugoslavia.
III. The Movement advocates a middle course for states in
developing world between the Western and Eastern Blocs du
the cold war.
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) III only
(d) None of the above

2. Match the following:

Head (Non-Aligned Movement Respective


Foundation) Countries
A)Josip Broz Tito I.Yugoslavia
B)Gamal Abdel Nasser II.Egypt
C)Sukarno III. Indone
d)Kwame Nkrumah IV.Ghana

(a) A–I, B–III, C–II, D-IV


(b) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(c) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(d) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II

3. Which among the following is not correct about Panchsheel?


I. Principles first mentioned in the Sino-Indian Agreement, in 195
II. Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence.
III. Mutual respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty, mutual
aggression, mutual non-interference in internal affairs, equality
cooperation for mutual benefit and peaceful co-existence are th
five principles.
Codes:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) III only

4. Which of the following is not correctly matched?


(a) 1971—Liberation of Bangladesh.
(b) 1991—Collapse of the USSR.
(c) 1997—Kargil Intrusion by Pakistan.
(d) 2008—Lehman Brothers collapse in the US.

5. International Day of Yoga has been celebrated first time across the
world in?
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017

6. Agreement 123 was between?


(a) India and Pakistan
(b) India and US
(c) US and Russia
(d) US and Pakistan

7. Which of the following is not correct about the Gujaral Doctrine?


I. With neighbours like Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal,
Sri Lanka, India does not ask for reciprocity.
II. No south Asian country should allow its territory to be used aga
the interest of another country in the region.
III. The country should interfere in the internal affairs of another.
IV. All south Asian countries must respect each other’s territ
integrity and sovereignty.
V. They should settle all their disputes through peaceful bila
negotiations.
Codes:
(a) I, II, and III only
(b) I, II, and IV only
(c) II, III, and V only
(d) III only

8. Tashkent Agreement was agreed upon in the year?


(a) 1962
(b) 1963
(c) 1964
(d) 1965

9. Which of the following is related to India?


(a) Neighborhood First Policy
(b) No First Use
(c) Act East Policy
(d) All of the above

10. POKHRAN II was conducted in?


(a) 1996
(b) 1997
(c) 1998
(d) 1999

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(d) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (c)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(c) (c)
Explanation for Selected Questions

1. In 1961, drawing on the principles agreed upon at the Bandung


Conference of 1955, the Non-Aligned Movement was formall
established in Belgrade, Yugoslavia. All the statements are correct
but the question is asking for incorrect, hence the answer would be
(d) None of the above, is incorrect.

2. Non-Aligned Movement is an initiative introduced by Yugosla


President Josip Broz Tito, Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru
Egyptian President Gamal Abdel Nasser, Ghanaian Presiden
Kwame Nkrumah, and Indonesian President Sukarno.

3. Panchsheel, or the Five Principles of Peaceful Co-existence, were


first formally enunciated in the Agreement on Trade and Intercourse
between the Tibet region of China and India signed on 29 Apr
1954.
CHAPTER 2
Indian Foreign Policy

INTRODUCTION
In the Indian context, partition and British India’s legacy left many difficult
challenges. India’s efforts to pursue an independent foreign policy were a
high point in post-independence politics. Jawaharlal Nehru used
foreign policy to defend and strengthen India’s independence and
national interests, instil self-reliance, self-confidence, and pride in the
masses, and promote world peace and anti-colonialism. This goal is
echoed in the Directive Principles of State Policy, specifically in Article 51
of the Constitution, which states: ‘Promotion of international peace and
security’.

PRINCIPLES OF INDIAN FOREIGN POLICY


DETERMINANTS OF INDIAN FOREIGN POLICY
1. To protect India’s core national interests by fostering support and
understanding in the international community.
2. To preserve the autonomy of the decision-making process.
3. To give priority to economic diplomacy with the objective of
promoting foreign trade and investment.
4. To strengthen the international campaign against terrorism.
5. To strengthen cooperation, friendship, and trust with countries of
India’s extended neighbourhood.
6. To work closely with international bodies like the UN, Non-Aligned
Movement, the Common wealth, and regional groupings like the
European Union and G-20 for furthering India’s interests in the
international arena.
7. To reform and restructure the UN Security Council and espouse
multipolarity in a world order that respects the principles of
sovereignty and non-intervention.
8. To promote a more equitable equation between the developed and
the developing world.
9. To work towards the goal of global nuclear disarmament.
10. To closely interact with the Indian diaspora to strengthen their
bonds with India and to recognize their pivotal role in India’s
international relations.

NON-ALIGNED MOVEMENT
The term ‘non-aligned’ was coined by V. K. Menon in his speech at the
UN in 1953, which was later used by Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal
Nehru during his speech in 1954 in Colombo, Sri Lanka. The Non-
Aligned Movement is the largest movement of third-world countries.
Former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi described the Non-Aligned
Movement as the largest peace movement.
The Non-Aligned Movement was formed during the cold war as an
organization of states that did not seek to formally align themselves with
either the US or the Soviet Union but sought to remain independent or
neutral.
The Non-Aligned Movement is a group of 120 developing countries
that are not formally aligned with or opposed to any major power bloc. It
is the world’s second-largest grouping of states after the UN.
The basic idea for the group arose in 1955 during discussions at
Asia–Africa Bandung Conference in Indonesia. The Non-Aligned
Movement was founded in 1961 and held its first conference (Belgrade
Conference, Indonesia) under the leadership of Yugoslavia’s Josip
Broz Tito, Egypt’s Gamal Abdel Nasser, India’s Jawaharlal
Nehru, Ghana’s Kwame Nkrumah, and Indonesia’s Sukarno.
The purpose of the organization was enumerated in the Havana
Declaration of 1979 to ensure then ‘the national independence,
sovereignty, territorial integrity, and security of non-aligned countries’ in
their ‘struggle against imperialism, colonialism, neo-colonialism, racism,
and all forms of foreign aggression, occupation, domination, interference,
or hegemony as well as against great power and bloc politics’.
India being the founder and largest member of the Non-Aligned
Movement. The Seventh Non-Aligned Movement Summit was hosted by
India in New Delhi in 1983. In this Summit, India took up the cause of
development, disarmament, and the Palestine issue. The Non-Aligned
Movement meets every three years at the Non-Aligned Movement
Summit Conference of Heads of State. At the Summit, a Chair is chosen,
which is a post held for three years.
The Panchsheel principles or Five Principles of Peaceful Co-
Existence, embedded in the Indo–China Treaty on Tibet signed in 1954
by Jawaharlal Nehru and Zhou Enlai, guided the majority of Non-
Aligned Movement principles. These five principles are:

1. mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty,


2. mutual non-aggression,
3. mutual non-interference,
4. equality and mutual benefit, and
5. peaceful co-existence.
Non-Aligned Movement supported the following issues during the cold
war:
RELEVANCE OF NON-ALIGNED MOVEMENT
In terms of current relevance, the movement is very relevant and
significant in promoting principles that ensure:
to maintain world peace,
to foster cooperation between south–south nations,
preserving territorial integrity and sovereignty,
to promote equitable world order,
to increase cultural diversity and people-to-people connectivity,
to support the concept of sustainable development and can lead
the world toward sustainability,
cooperation can lead to higher and more sustainable economic
growth,
to act as a protector for third-world nations against western
hegemony, and
to combat terrorism and other illicit activities, etc.

INDIA’S NUCLEAR POLICY


Homi Jehangir Bhabha founded India’s nuclear programme in 1944,
with three stages of technological efforts when he established the Tata
Institute of Fundamental Research. The Chinese attack on India in 1962,
fuelled the development of nuclear weapons. India conducted its first
nuclear explosion in May 1974 (code-named ‘Smiling Buddha’ or
Pokhran I nuclear test), which is described as a ‘peaceful nuclear
explosion’.
In May 1998, India conducted a series of five nuclear tests (Pokhran II
nuclear test) to demonstrate its ability to use nuclear energy for military
purposes, and upon completion, declared itself a de facto nuclear-
weapon state.
Following the 1998 nuclear test, India also declared a policy of ‘No
First Use’ of nuclear weapons. It will be used as ‘minimum deterrence, no
first use, and non-use against non-nuclear-weapon states.’
In 2003, India officially accepted a Nuclear Doctrine based on the ‘No
First Use’ policy. It states:
the nuclear weapons will be used only in retaliation for a nuclear
attack on Indian territory or on Indian forces anywhere in the world,
nuclear weapons will be kept only as a credible minimum deterrent
to nuclear attacks. A massive retaliatory second strike in response
to a first nuclear attack would inflict unacceptable damage on the
opponent,
India would never use nuclear weapons against a non-nuclear
state. However, in the event of a major chemical or biological
attack on India or Indian forces anywhere, India will have the
option of retaliating with nuclear weapons, and
Only the civilian political leadership, through the Nuclear
Command Authority (NCA), can authorize nuclear retaliatory
attacks.
On 4 January 4 2003, India established a three-tier Nuclear
Command Authority (NCA) to oversee its nuclear weapons.

The Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) is made up of the following:


Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Which article of the Indian constitution is related to foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53

2. Which of the following country is not a founder of the Non-Aligned


Movement?
(a) Indonesia
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Yugoslavia

3. Following India’s nuclear explosions at Pokhran in 1998, which o


the following were the responses?
i. The US condemned nuclear tests of both India and Pakistan.
ii. UN Security Council passed a resolution condemning nuc
explosions.
iii. The US and its Strategic allies imposed economic sanctions
India.
iv. Following US pressures India consented to sign Non-Prolifera
Treaty.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) Only (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
4. Which is not the principle of Panchsheel?
(a) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereig
(b) Mutual non-aggression.
(c) Mutual interference.
(d) Equality and mutual benefit.

5. Who among the following Prime Ministers propounded the notion o


genuine non-alignment?
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Lala Bahadur Shastri
(d) I. K. Gujral

6. The first Non-Aligned Movement Summit was held at?


(a) Belgrade Conference 1955
(b) Bandung Conference 1955
(c) Belgrade Conference 1961
(d) Bandung Conference 1961

7. When were post-Pokhran II sanctions imposed on India lifted by the


US?
(a) In the wake of 9/11 in October 2001.
(b) At the time of the US attack on Iraq in March 2003.
(c) On the eve of the inauguration of Bush in the second term
January 2005.
(d) In September 2005 during the Sixtieth UN General Assem
meeting.

8. When did India officially adopt its Nuclear Doctrine?


(a) 1974
(b) 1999
(c) 2003
(d) 2005

9. The concept of ‘credible minimum deterrent’ relates to which of the


following types of weapons?
(a) Chemical
(b) Biological
(c) Nuclear
(d) Space-Based

10. The Panchsheel Treaty has been signed between?


(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka

11. What was the code name of India’s first nuclear test?
(a) Smiling Ashoka
(b) Smiling Krishna
(c) Smiling Buddha
(d) Smiling Arjun

12. Which of the following statement is wrong about India’s nuclear


doctrine?
(a) No First Use.
(b) Non-Use against Non-Nuclear-Weapon States.
(c) It was officially adopted in 2003.
(d) The Chief of Defence Staff can authorize nuclear attacks.

Answer Key
1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 11. 12.
(b) (c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (d)
2. 4. 6. 8.
10. (c)
(c) (c) (c) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

3. Option (iv) is incorrect because India never signed Non-Proliferation


Treaty.

4. Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister in 1977 and after that, he
started countering the foreign policy initiatives like the India–USSR
friendship treaty of 1971. According to him during the reign of Indira
Gandhi, Indian Foreign Policy lost its originality, and hence he stated
that India’s foreign policy would revert to ‘genuine’ non-alignmen
and that India would not allow any previous agreement to ‘come i
the way of friendship with other countries’.
CHAPTER 3
India’s Relations with Major Powers

INTRODUCTION
India is a prominent regional power, a nuclear power, an emerging global
power, and a potential superpower. World’s third largest military expenditure,
second largest armed force, and fifth largest economy and India is growing
international influence and becoming a prominent voice in global affairs. India
has diplomatic relations with 201 states around the globe, and 199 missions
and posts operating globally. An understanding of the kind of relation India
has developed with major powers like the US, Russia, and China provides us
with a deeper understanding of Indian Foreign Policy and its contemporary as
well as Long Term Goals.

INDIA–US RELATIONS

Relations During the Cold War Era


The relationship between the two countries did not live up to its full
potential, due to the US’s preoccupation with the ideology of
‘Communism Containment’.
Jawaharlal Nehru refused to be dragged into cold war politics and
adopted the policy of non-alignment, which aimed to offer India much-
needed freedom of action in foreign policy and relations.
In 1954, Indo–US relations suffered a major setback when the US
formed two military organizations, Southeast Asia Treaty Organization
(SEATO) and Central Treaty Organization (CENTO), with Pakistan as
its major member.
In 1962, the Indo–China war added a new dimension to Indo–US
relations, as the Indian government urgently appealed for military
assets from the US.
In 1965, the India–Pakistan war added a more negative impact on
Indo–US relations, as the US did not want to openly blame Pakistan for
launching a war with India.
The Bangladesh Liberation War (1971) also sparked a fresh crisis in
the Indo–US relation as the US halted all economic assistance to India.

Relations in Post-Cold War Era


India launches economic reforms that help expand economic ties with
the US.
In 1998, when India launches its nuclear device (Pokhran II), the US
sanctioned India and badly damages its relationship with the US.
In 2004, Yudh Abhyas military exercise started for understanding,
cooperation, and interoperability between the two Armies.
In 2006 the US and India signed the Civil Nuclear Cooperation
Initiative.
In 2010 the US and India formally convene the first US–India Strategic
Dialogue.
The US and India sign a Memorandum of Understanding in New Delhi
to promote closer cybersecurity cooperation in the year 2011.
India–US 2+2 Dialogue started in 2018.
Tiger Triumph a tri-services (Army+Navy+Air) military exercise started
in 2019.
In the year 2020, the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement
(BECA) is the last of four foundational military agreements signed by
India and the US over the past two decades.
In 2020 the ‘Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership Agreement’
was signed.

Important Agreements and Objectives


2002 GSOMIA-General Security of Military Information
Agreement, to facilitate sharing military intelligence
between India and US.
2005 India-US civil nuclear agreement, famously known as 123
agreements, to establish cooperation as a prerequisite for
nuclear deals between the two countries.
2016 LEMOA-Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement,
to use each other’s military bases to carry out repairs and
for resupplying.
2018 COMCASA-Communications Compatibility and Security
Agreement, signed during two-plus two dialogue, to share
and secure communications exchange between two
countries during training, exercises and operations.
2020 BECA-In the year 2020 the Basic Exchange and
Cooperation Agreement (BECA) largely pertains to
geospatial intelligence, and sharing information on maps
and satellite images for defence. It is the last of four
foundational military agreements signed by India and US
over the past two decades.

INDIA–RUSSIA RELATIONS

Relations with USSR


During the cold war, India and the USSR had strong strategic, military,
economic, and diplomatic relations. After the dissolution of the USSR, Russia
inherited its close relationship with India. Russia and India both term this
relationship as a ‘special and privileged strategic partnership’. The Indo–
Russian Inter-Governmental Commission (IRIGC) is the main body that
conducts affairs at the governmental level between the two countries.
In 1955, Soviet Communist Party leader’s visit to India, the political ties
began to improve considerably between the two countries.
At the UN Security Council, the Soviet Union backed India’s position on
Kashmir and vetoed an unpopular resolution sponsored by western
countries and increased its financial and technical assistance to India
in the late 1950s.
In 1971 India–USSR ‘Treaty of Peace and Friendship’ was signed.
The rise to power of M. Gorbachev in 1985, and his efforts to create
a ‘Common European Home’, diminished the importance of developing
countries such as India.
Relations Post-Cold War Era
Due to the fall of the USSR, both India and Russia were attracted towards the
west without any convergence. During this period:
Rupees-Rouble Trade suffered as the value of the Rouble declined
steeply. In response, Russia asked India to pay in Dollars.
Militancy in Chechnya and Kashmir presented a problem to both
nations.
Russia, Supported India arguing that India is surrounded by China and
Pakistan and had the right to protect itself using Nuclear deterrence.
In 2000, the President of Russia, Vladimir Putin visited India. The
‘India–Russia Strategic Partnership Agreement’ was signed.
In 2003, India–Russia started the INDRA military exercise for boosting
cooperation and interoperability between the Russian and Indian
navies.
In 2010, Vladimir Putin’s visit to India and Russia signed a ‘Special
and Privileged Strategic Partnership’ (SPSP).
India and Russia are presently collaborating on the projects like
International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC), BRICS,
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation, S-400 Triumf Air Defence
Systems, the joint development of Kamov-226 helicopters, and the
development of Far-East Russia.

Important Agreement and Objectives:

1971 Treaty of Peace and Friendship, as a blueprint for the


strengthening of regional and global peace and security.
1994 Military-Technical Cooperation Agreement.
2000 ‘India-Russia Strategic Partnership’, to enhance levels of
cooperation in almost all areas of the bilateral relationship
including politics, security, defence, trade and economy,
science and technology, and culture.
2000 INSTC—International North–South Transport Corridor, to
provide the shortest multi-model transportation route linking
the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea
via Iran and St Petersburg.
2017 INDRA—a tri-services exercise in Vladivostok.
2018 India–Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue (IRSED).
2021 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue meeting between the foreign and
defence ministers of the two countries was started.

INDIA–CHINA RELATIONS
Cultural and economic relations between China and India date back to ancient
times. The Sino–Indian diplomatic relationship began in 1950 when India was
among the first non-communist countries to start formal relations with the
Republic of China and recognise the People’s Republic of China.
Jawaharlal Nehru based his vision of a ‘resurgent Asia’ on the friendship
between the two largest states of Asia. In 1954 Panchsheel Agreement was
signed between India and China in relation to the Tibet region. The five
principles, as stated in the Sino–Indian Agreement 1954, are listed:

1. mutual respect’s territorial integrity and sovereignty,


2. mutual non-aggression,
3. mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs,
4. equality and cooperation for mutual benefit, and
5. peaceful co-existence.
Relations between contemporary China and India have been
characterized by border disputes, resulting in three military conflicts—the
Sino-Indian War of 1962, the border clashes, and the 1987 Sumdorong Chu
standoff.
In early 2018, the two armies got engaged in a standoff at the Doklam
plateau along disputed Bhutan–China border. A serious clash occurred in the
Galwan Valley. Additionally, India remains worried about China’s strong
strategic bilateral relations with Pakistan and China’s funding to the separatist
groups in northeast India, while China has expressed concerns about Indian
military and economic activities in the disputed South China Sea.

China’s Palm and Five Finger


This policy of China is envisioned by its erstwhile leader Mao Zedong,
during the 1940s. He believed that Tibet is the ‘palm’ of the right hand of
China and Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Bhutan, Nepal, and Ladakh were its
‘five fingers’ of its periphery and that it was China’s duty to ‘liberate’ these
areas. Although it was never discussed in official statements made by
successive Chinese governments, its existence was confirmed in a
provisional mouthpiece magazine of the Chinese Communist Party following
the Doklam standoff in 2017.

Major Border Issues

1. Western Sector (disputed): This comprises the Aksai Chin secto


and originally was a part of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is claime
by China as part of its autonomous Xinjiang region. After the 1962 war,
is administered by China. While India claims the entire Aksai Chi
territory as well as the Shaksgam valley.
2. Central Sector (undisputed): Although China has recognized
India’s sovereignty over Sikkim and had initiated the trade at Nathu La
pass, the Doklam failure could mean trouble at all ends.
3. Eastern Sector (disputed): The Arunachal Pradesh border that
China still claims to be its own territory is the largest disputed area. It
was formally called North-East Frontier Agency.
4. Johnson Line was proposed in 1865 and it marks Aksai Chin as
Indian territory, India’s accepted demarcation.
5. MacMahon Line—Eastern borderline between India–China in
Arunachal Pradesh.
6. Macartney–MacDonald Line was proposed in 1893 and it places
Aksai Chin under Chinese territory.

List of Important Agreements


Shimla Agreement of 1914: To demarcate the boundary between
Tibet and northeast India, a convention was held at Shimla in 1914,
representatives of all three i.e. Tibet, China, and British India. After the
discussion, the agreement was signed by British India and Tibet but not
by Chinese officials. Presently India recognizes the Mcmahon line, as
agreed by the Shimla convention, as the legal boundary between India
and China. However, China rejects the Shimla Agreement.
1954—Panchsheel Agreement between India–China on Tibet for
Peaceful Co-existence.
In 1989, India–China formed a Joint Working Group for Confidence
Building Measures (CBMs) and agreed to mutually settle all border
disputes.
In 1993, when then Prime Minister Narasimha Rao visited China,
‘The Agreement for Maintenance of Peace and Tranquillity along the
Line of Actual Control (LAC) has been signed between India and
China. The Line of Actual Control (LAC) is the effective military border
which separates Indian-controlled areas of Jammu and Kashmir from
Aksai Chin.
In 2003, China recognized India’s sovereignty over Sikkim.
In 2018, first India–China Informal Summit was conducted in the
Wuhan region. The cooperation that developed during that is famously
known as the ‘Wuhan Spirit’.
In 2019, Second India–China informal summit was conducted in
Mamallapuram and it has begun a ‘New Era of Cooperation’ between
India and China. It is also known as ‘Chennai Connect’.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following event led to the deterioration of India–US relation
during the cold war?
(a) Pokhran I
(b) SEATO, CENTO
(c) Non-alignment
(d) 123 Agreement

2. Which of the following agreement was not signed between India and the
US?
(a) General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA)
(b) Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA)
(c) International North South Transport Corridor (INSTC)
(d) Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA)

3. Consider the following statements:


A. In 2005, India and US signed 123 agreements to establish coopera
prerequisite for a nuclear deal between them.

B. In 2000, both the countries signed General Security of Military In


Agreement to facilitate sharing of military intelligence between them.

C. In 2010 both countries formally convene the first Indo–US Stra


Dialogue.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only A and B
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only A and C
(d) All are correct.

4. Which of the following body is responsible for conducting the affair


between India and Russia?
(a) Indo–Russia international commission
(b) Indo–Russia intra-national commission
(c) Indo–Russia inter-regional commission
(d) Indo–Russia inter-governmental commission

5. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Russia supported India’s position on the Kashmir
issue and vetoed an unpopular resolution sponsored by the west.
Reason (R): After the dissolution of the USSR, Russia inherited its
close relationship with India and term this as a ‘special and privileged
strategic partnership’.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

6. In which year India and Russia signed the Treaty of Peace an


Friendship?
(a) 1961
(b) 1971
(c) 1981
(d) 1991

7. Match the following:

Events Yea

1. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement 1. 20

2. India–Russia Strategic Partnership Agreement 2. 19

C. Sumdorong Chu Standoff 3. 20

D. Common European Home 4. 19

Choose the correct answer:


(a) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(b) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
(c) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(d) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

8. Which of the following does not include under China’s Palm and Fiv
Finger policy?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Bhutan
(c) Manipur
(d) Nepal

9. Which of the following line marks Aksai Chin as Chinese territory?


(a) Durand Line
(b) McMahon Line
(c) MacDonald Line
(d) Johnson Line

10. Consider the following the following statements:


A. In 2016, India and China engaged its a standoff at the Doklam Platea

B. India was among the first non-communist countries to recognize the


Republic of China.

C. Johnson’s line marks a demarcation that Aksai Chin is an In


Territory.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only A and B
(b) Only A and C
(c) Only B and C
(d) All are correct

Answer Key
1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (c) (b) (a) (c) (c) (c)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(c) (d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. The International North–South Transport Corridor is a 7,200-km-lon


multi-mode network of ship, rail, and road routes for moving freigh
between India, Iran, Azerbaijan, Russia, Central Asia, and Europe.

3. General Security of Military Information Agreement between India–the


US and was signed by the two countries in 2002.
CHAPTER 4
India’s Engagement with Multi-
Polar World

INTRODUCTION
A multi-polar world is shaped not just by a handful of great powers and
their alliances but also by newer and regional powers, global
organizations, corporations, social movements, and terrorist networks.
Economic interdependence in the multi-polar world is multifaceted and
complex. A multi-centre world has multiple layers of governance, and
regional powers and institutions enjoy a much greater significance than a
bipolar or unipolar world. The emerging multi-polar world manifests
opportunities as well as challenges to India’s foreign policy.

INDIA’S RELATIONS WITH EUROPEAN UNION


The European Union is a group of 27 countries that operate as a
cohesive economic and political block. 19 of these countries use Euro as
their official currency. India was among the first countries to establish
diplomatic relations with the European Economic Community. India’s
relations with the European Union started in the 1960s. Relations
between the European Union and the Republic of India are currently
defined by the 1994 European Union–India Cooperation Agreement.
In 2004, India and European Union became ‘Strategic Partners’. India
and European Union are committed to dynamic dialogues in all areas of
mutual interest as major actors in their own regions. India and the
European Union have been working on a Broad-Based Free-Trade
Agreement called the Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) since
2007, after being agreed upon at the seventh India–European Union
Summit in Helsinki in 2006. India’s bilateral trade with the European
Union amounted to over US$116 billion in 2021–22.
On 20 November 2018, the European Commission adopted a
‘European Union Strategy on India’ that sets out the use vision for a
strategy to strengthen cooperation and the partnership with India.
‘Horizon 2020’ is the use of funding instruments for research and
innovation actions among the European Union member states and
countries associated with the program and all other partners in the world.
It consists of three primary thematic priorities that are ‘Excellent Science’,
‘Industrial Leadership’, and ‘Societal Challenges’.

Important Summits & Agreements


First India–European Union Summit was held in Lisbon in 2000.
Science and Technology Agreement 2001.
Customs Cooperation Agreement 2004.
India–European Union Summit at The Hague in 2004, the
relationship was upgraded to a ‘Strategic Partnership’.
Memorandum of Understanding(MoU) on Cooperation in
Employment and Social Affairs 2006.
Horizontal Civil Aviation Agreement 2008.
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on Statistics (2012), Joint
Declaration on Enhanced Cooperation in Energy (2012), and
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on Competition (2013)
At the thirteenth India–European Union Summit held in 2017, an
Investment Facilitation Mechanism was adopted between the two
parties to facilitate European Union investments in India.
INDIA AND BRICS
India is a founding member of BRICS, it stands for Brazil, Russia, India,
China, and South Africa. Originally the first four were grouped as BRIC
before the induction of South Africa in 2010. They all are members of G-
20. The term BRIC was coined by Jim O’Neil, the then Chairman of
Goldman Sachs in 2001. The first BRIC summit took place in the year
2009 in Yekaterinburg, Russia. BRICS is an association with more than
40% of the global population and with 25% of the global GDP.

BRICS Summits & Agreements

Summit Place About


First BRICS Russia
Summit (2009) Financial and economic
issues emerging from the
2008 Financial Crisis.
Reformations of
international financial
institutions.
Summit Place About
Second BRICS Brazil
Summit Launch of multiple Intra–
2010 BRICS Cooperative
Institutions.
The summit also had a
meeting of National Security
Advisors and a Think Tank
Seminar.
Agricultural development of
respected countries related
discussion between
Ministers of Agriculture.
The signing of the
Memorandum of
Cooperations between
development banks of each
country.

Third BRICS China


Summit 2011 South Africa joins the
association.

Fourth BRICS Brazil


Summit 2012 India mooted the idea of a
New Development Bank.
Summit Place About
Fifth BRICS South Africa
Summit The BRICS Contingent
2013 Reserve Arrangement
(CRA) with a total capital of
US$100 billion was
introduced.
BRICS Business Council
was set up.
BRICS Think Tank was set
up. This was known as the
eThekwini Declaration.

Sixth BRICS Brazil


Summit In the Fortaleza Declaration
2014 leaders signed the
Agreement establishing the
New Development Bank
(NDB).

Seventh BRICS Russia


Summit 2015 Shanghai Cooperation
Organization (SCO) and the
Eurasian Economic Union
(EAEU) joint summit.

Eighth BRICS India


Summit 2016 Joint summit with Bay of
Bengal Initiative for Multi-
Sectoral Technical and
Economic Cooperation
(BIMSTEC).
Summit Place About
Ninth BRICS China
Summit 2017 Discussion on Emerging
Markets and Developing
Countries Dialogue
(EMDCD).
Discussion of the 2030
Sustainable Development
agenda.

Tenth BRICS South Africa


Summit 2018 Discussion on the fourth
industrial revolution.

Eleventh BRICS Brazil


Summit 2019 The theme was ‘Economic
Growth for an Innovative
Future’.
The Brasilia Declaration was
adopted by BRICS.

Twelfth BRICS Russia


Summit 2020 17th November 2020 via
videoconference.
Theme: ‘BRICS Partnership
for Global Stability, Shared
Security and Innovative
Growth’.

Thirteenth BRICS India


Summit 2021 Theme: ‘BRICS@15: Intra–
BRICS Cooperation’.
Summit Place About
Fourteenth BRICS Beijing,
Summit 2022 China Theme: ‘Foster High-quality
BRICS Partnership, Usher in
a New Era for Global
Development’.

INDIA AND THE ASSOCIATION OF


SOUTHEAST ASIAN NATIONS (ASEAN)
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional
organization which was established to promote political and social
stability amid rising tensions among Asia–Pacific’s post-colonial states.
The motto of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is
‘One Vision, One Identity, and One Community’. The Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Secretariat is situated in Indonesia,
Jakarta. Member Nations include Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia.
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established
with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration in 1967.
The search for economic space resulted in the ‘Look East Policy’.
The Look East Policy has today matured into a dynamic and
action-oriented ‘Act East Policy’. India at the Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) India Summit and the ninth
East Asia Summit held in Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar, in November
2014, formally enunciated the Act East Policy.
India is also an active participant in several regional forums like
Asia–Europe Meeting (ASEM), East Asia Summit (EAS), ASEAN
Regional Forum (ARF), ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting +
(ADMM+), and Expanded ASEAN Maritime Forum (EAMF).
The relationship of India with the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN) got upgraded in 2012 when it became a
‘strategic partner’.
This was a natural progression to the ground covered since India
became a Sectoral Partner of the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN) in 1992, Dialogue Partner in 1996 and Summit
Level Partner in 2002.
India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
have a free trade area bloc between them. The initial framework
agreement was signed on 8 October 2003 in Bali, Indonesia and
the final agreement was on 13 August 2009. The free trade area
came into effect on 1 January 2010.
In 2014, both have signed “Trade in services and investment
Agreement” came into force in July 2015.

INDIA AND SHANGHAI COOPERATION


ORGANIZATION (SCO)
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a Eurasian political
economic and military organisation which was founded in Shanghai by
the leaders of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and
Uzbekistan in the year 2001. In the 2017 Astana Summit India, Pakistan
officially became a member state.
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) presents a rare blend of
history, geopolitics, cultural, civilizational, and economic imperatives
connecting India to Central Asia. The problems like terrorism, radicalism,
and instability are key concerns of Indian Foreign Policy as well as Indian
sovereignty and integrity. Shanghai Cooperation Organization’s counter-
terrorism body, the Regional Anti-Terror Structure (RATS), may prove
useful for India in this context.
It provides a common channel to constructively cooperate and
communicate with two of Indian adversaries i.e., China and Pakistan.
India’s presence in the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) will
help in India’s aim to link itself to the larger Eurasian region, and to
Europe via International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
India joining the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) has been
seen as a puzzling foreign policy move, because on the one hand, India
is working with QUAD, which is specifically dedicated to countering the
domination of China by western powers. It will be challenging for India to
balance the new nexus between China–Pakistan–Russia and its
approach towards the west.

Important Summits
First Summit: Shanghai (2001),
Twenty-First Summit: via video conferencing in Dushanbe,
Tajikistan, (2021)
Twenty-Second Summit: Samarkand, Uzbekistan,
India takes over the Presidency of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organization (SCO) for 2023, and
Varanasi was declared as the Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(SCO) Tourism and Cultural Capital for 2022–23.

INDIA AND THE AFRICAN UNION


The African Union is a continental body consisting of the 55 member
states that make up the countries of the African Continent. The African
Union was officially launched in July 2002 in Durban, South Africa as a
successor to the Organization of African Unity (OAU, 1963–99).
The work of the African Union is implemented through several
principal decision-making organs:
The Assembly of Heads of State and Government,
Executive Council,
Permanent Representatives Committee (PRC),
Specialized Technical Committees (STCs), and
Peace and Security Council and The African Union Commission.

India is a member of the African Union Partners Group (AUPG), which


meets periodically in Addis Ababa.
India is investing in capacity building providing more than US$1 billion
in technical assistance and training to personnel under the Indian
Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) program. As a full member
of the African Capacity Building Foundation (ACBF), India has pledged
US$1 million towards African Capacity Building Foundation’s sustainable
development, poverty alleviation, and capacity-building initiative. India
has invested US$100 million in the Pan-African e-Network to bridge the
digital divide in Africa, leveraging its strengths in information technology.
India has also unveiled the vision document of Asia–Africa Growth
Corridor (AAGC) which is jointly prepared by Indian and Japanese think
tanks. Agenda 2063 is a set of initiatives proposed and currently under
implementation by the African Union. It was adopted on 31 January 2015.

India–Africa Forum Summit (IAFS)


First-ever India–Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) was attended by the
countries representing leave and the regional economic communities of
Africa. It was held in New Delhi on 8 and 9 April 2008. The India–Africa
Forum Summit (IAFS) is held triennially i.e., every three years.
India–Africa Forum Summits:
New Delhi (2008),
Addis Ababa (2011), and
New Delhi (2015).

The latest India–Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) took place virtually from 4
to 6 November 2020. The underlying discussion and focus in the latest
India–Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) were on the enhancement of ties to
the 100*100 matrix by 2025. This signifies the target of achieving
US$100 billion in trade and US$100 billion in investment between India
and Africa.
INDIA AND SOUTH AFRICAN DEVELOPMENT
COMMUNITY (SADC)
The South African Development Community (SADC) has been in
existence since 1980 when it was formed in an alliance of 7 states in
South Africa known as the South African Development Coordination
Conference (SADCC) with the main aim of political liberation of Southern
America. The transformation of the organization from a coordinating
conference into a development community took place on 17 August 1992
in Windhoek.
India’s investment relations with South African Development
Community (SADC) countries:
According to data from the Ministry of Finance and Reserve Bank of
India, India’s approved cumulative investments in the South African
Development Community (SADC) region from April 1996 to March 2015
amounted to US$46.5 billion. Mauritius is the largest investor in India in
terms of cumulative FDI inflows, mainly due to the Double Taxation
Avoidance Convention (DTAC).
India’s engagements in International Trade Centre’s Supporting Indian
Trade and Investment for Africa (SITA):
On 9 March 2014, Department for International Development (DEID)
mandated the International Trade Centre (ITC), UK to design and
implement a project called Supporting India’s Trade Preferences for
Investment for Africa now called Supporting Indian Trade and Investment
for Africa (SITA), Supporting Indian Trade and Investment for Africa
(SITA) is a six-year project that aims at promoting exports from five East
African countries i.e., Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, the United Republic of
Tanzania, and Uganda.

INDIA AND GULF COOPERATION COUNCIL


(GCC)
The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) was established by an agreement
concluded on 25 May 1981 in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia among Bahrain,
Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and UAE in view of their special
relations.
India–Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) Political
Dialogue
The first ever landmark India–Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) Political
Dialogue with the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) Chairman was
successfully held on the sidelines of the UN General assembly on 26
September 2003. The sixth round of India–Gulf Cooperation Council
(GCC) Political Dialogue was held in New York on 26 September 2011 on
the margins of the UN General Assembly.
Giving a boost to commercial and economic ties, India and Gulf
Cooperating Council (GCC) signed a Framework Agreement on
Economic Cooperation on 25 August 2004 to explore the possibility of a
free trade area between them.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Cultural show named ‘Rhythm of Life’ (India–Africa) inaugurated by?
(a) Herman Van Rompuy
(b) Pranab Mukherjee
(c) Azeb Mesfin
(d) Jose Manuel Barosso

2. SADC stands for?


(a) South African Development Community
(b) South African Domestic Corporation
(c) South Asia Development Community
(d) None of the above

3. India–Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) first industrial conference


was held in?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Iraq
(c) Riyadh
(d) Mumbai

4. In which year New Development Bank was established?


(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017

5. First India–Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) was held in:


(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Addis Ababa
(d) None of the above

6. Which of the following statements is incorrect about BRICS?


I. BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Amer
II. The term BRIC was coined by Jim O’Neil in 2001.
III. The first BRIC summit took place in the year 2009
Yekaterinburg, Russia.
IV. BRICS@15: Intra-BRICS Cooperation was the theme of the 2
BRICS Summit held in India.
Codes:
(a) I only
(b) I and IV only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II, and III only

7. Which city was declared as the Shanghai Cooperation Organization


(SCO) Tourism and Cultural Capital for 2022–23?
(a) Shanghai
(b) Moscow
(c) Delhi
(d) Varanasi

8. ‘One Vision, One Identity, and One Community’ is the motto of?
(a) Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
(b) BRICS
(c) Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
(d) African Union

9. Which of the following is not correct about the Association o


Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
(a) The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Secret
is situated in Indonesia, Jakarta.
(b) The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
established with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration in 1969
(c) The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) fundame
principles are contained in the Treaty of Amity and Cooperatio
Southeast Asia (TAC) of 1976.
(d) The founding fathers of the Association of Southeast A
Nations (ASEAN) are Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippi
Singapore, and Thailand.

10. India–Africa Forum Summits held:


(a) Triennially
(b) Biennial
(c) Annual
(d) Once in 4 years

Answer Key
1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (d) (a) (d) (a) (b) (a)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(a) (a)
CHAPTER 5
India’s Relations with
Neighbourhoods

INTRODUCTION
India has diplomatic/dependencies around the globe, having 199 missions
and post operating globally while plans to open new missions in 2020–21
hosted by 11 Member states. The Ministry of External Affairs is the
government agency responsible for the conduct of foreign relations in India.
With the world’s third largest military expenditure, second largest armed force,
fifth largest economy by GDP nominal rates, and third largest economy in
terms of purchasing power parity, India is a prominent regional power nuclear
power, emerging global power, and potential power. India assumes a growing
international influence and a prominent voice in global affairs.

INDIA AND SOUTH ASIAN ASSOCIATION FOR


REGIONAL COOPERATION (SAARC)
The proposal for the establishment of a regional organization for cooperation
in south Asia, similar to that of southeast Asia, was initiated by Bangladesh in
the late 1970s. After several years of informal and semi-formal diplomacy led
by Bangladesh, the ‘South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(SAARC)’ was formally launched at the first-ever summit of the seven south
Asian states—Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and
Sri Lanka—in Dhaka in December 1985. The South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is also a product of this evolutionary process
of Asian regionalism.
India’s Contribution to South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
India is a founding member of the South Asian Association of Regional
Cooperation (SAARC) which was set up in 1985 as an organization to build a
connected and integrated south Asia with the larger aim of promoting the
development and progress of all countries in the region. India continues to
support various initiatives in the South Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation (SAARC) framework to achieve closer cooperation in diverse
areas. Out of the eighteen South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(SAARC) Summits held so far, India has hosted three i.e., the second
(Bengaluru, November 1986), the eighth (New Delhi, May 1995), and the
fourteenth (New Delhi, April 2007).
India enjoys excellent bilateral relations with Afghanistan, Bangladesh,
Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. As per our Neighbourhood First
Policy, India is an active development partner and is engaged in several
projects in these countries. Our engagement with these countries is based on
a consultative, non-reciprocal, and outcome-oriented approach while focusing
on delivering benefits like greater connectivity, improved infrastructure, and
stronger development cooperation in various sectors of area, security, and
broader people-to-people contacts.
India has been steadfast in its commitment to sharing the fruits of
technological advances with like-minded countries in its neighbourhood. In
this context, India’s initiative of extending its National Knowledge Network to
the countries of south Asia has extended to Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, and
Bhutan in August 2019. Extension to other participating South Asian
Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) Countries is in progress.
India launched a South Asian Satellite (SAS) in May 2017 from
Sriharikota. Demonstration terminals of South Asian Satellite (SAS) have
been installed in Bhutan, Maldives, Afghanistan Nepal, Bangladesh, and Sri
Lanka.
India is home to South Asian University (SAU) it was established through
an inter-governmental Agreement at the fourteenth South Asian Association
for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) Summit (April 2008) to provide world-class
educational facilities and professional faculty to students and researchers
from South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) countries.
India also hosts the interim unit of the South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation (SAARC) Disaster Management Centre (DMC) at the
Gujrat Institute of Disaster Management (GIDM) Gandhinagar. It has been
operational since November 2016, serving the needs of all South Asian
Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) member states through policy
advice and technical support on system development, capacity-building
services and training for holistic management of disaster risk in the South
Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) region.

List of SAARC Summit held in India


Out of the 19 South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
summits so far India has hosted three.

1. Second South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC


Summit, Bangalore 1986.
2. Eighth South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
Summit, New Delhi 1995.
3. Fourteenth South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(SAARC) Summit, New Delhi 2007.

GUJARAL DOCTRINE
The Gujaral Doctrine is the set of five principles that were initiated to conduct
foreign relations with India’s neighbouring countries i.e. Bangladesh, Srilanka,
Nepal, and Bhutan. The doctrine was formulated by I. K. Gujaral, India’s
former Prime Minister (1997–98) and former External affairs Minster in H. D.
Deva Gowada Government in 1996. He is also known for his firm refusal to
sign Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) even after intense international
pressure. These principles are:
With neighbours like Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri
Lanka, India does not ask for reciprocity but gives and accommodates
what it can in good faith and trust.
No south Asian country should allow its territory to be used against the
interest of another country in the region.
No country should interfere in the internal affairs of another.
All south Asian countries must respect each other’s territorial integrity
and sovereignty.
They should settle all their disputes through peaceful bilateral
negotiations.

LOOK EAST POLICY


The Look East Policy was launched by former Prime Minister P. V.
Narsimha Rao in 1992 as a way to enhance economic integration with
southeast Asian Countries. Post the New Economic Policy (NEP) reforms, the
policy was a reaction to the changed direction of India’s foreign and economic
policy that focused more on forging close economic and commercial ties,
increasing strategic cooperation, and the emphasis on historic cultural and
ideological links. India thus sought to create and expand regional markets for
trade, investments, and industrial development.
It was a step to give a strategic push to India’s engagement with the
southeast region. In other words, India’s Look East Policy was an effort to
cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the nations of
southeast Asia to bolster its standing as a regional power and counterweight
to the strategic influence of the people’s Republic of China.
The policy was rigorously pursued by the subsequent government of Atal
Bihari Vajpayee and Manmohan Singh. The Look East policy was a
more action-oriented, project and outcome-based foreign policy of India with
respect to the southeast Asia region.

ACT EAST POLICY


The policy experienced an update when the Act East Policy was unveiled by
Prime Minster of India, Narendra Modi, at the twelfth Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)–India Summit and ninth East Asia Summit
held in Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar in 2014. Thus, Act East Policy is a successor
of the Look East policy. While the Look East Policy underlines enhanced
economic integration with the southeast Asian region’s countries and the
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). The Act East Policy moved
a step ahead and underlines economic as well as security cooperation and
integration with not only Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
nations but also with east Asian countries such as China, Japan, South
Korea, etc.
Apart from the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), India
has taken other policy initiatives in the region that involve some members of
the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) like Bay of Bengal
Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC),
Mekong–Ganga Cooperation (MGC) etc. India is also an active participant in
several regional forums like Asia–Europe Meeting (ASEM), East Asia Summit
(EAS), ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), ASEAN Defence Minsters’ Meeting +
(ADMM+), and Expanded ASEAN Maritime Forum (EAMF). Prime Minister of
India highlighted the 4Cs of Act East Policy:
A. Culture,
B. Commerce,
C. Connectivity, and
D. Capacity Building.
Thus, the ever-growing relations with the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN) and other major groupings such as the Bay of Bengal
Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC),
Mekong–Ganga Cooperation (MGC) etc. And countries in the region are an
outcome of India’s Look East and Act East policies. Security is an important
dimension of India’s Act East Policy which is visible through India’s role in
countering China’s assertiveness in the Indo–Pacific region (for example
Quad which is an informal military grouping comprising Australia, the US,
India, and Japan to counter China’s dominance) and its continuous effort in
combating terrorism, organized crimes, drug trafficking, etc.

Initiatives to Enhance Connectivity


Agartala–Akhaura Rail Link between India and Bangladesh.
Intermodal transport linkages and inland waterways through
Bangladesh.
Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project and the Trilateral
Highway Project connecting the northeast with Myanmar and Thailand.
Under India–Japan Act East Forum, projects such as roads and
bridges, and the modernization of hydroelectric power projects have
been undertaken.
India–Japan Act East Forum was established in 2017 which aims to
provide a platform for India–Japan collaboration under the rubric of
India’s ‘Act East Policy’ and Japan’s ‘Free and Open Indo–Pacific
Strategy’.

LOOK WEST POLICY


Look West Policy is the overall Indian government’s strategy in dealing with
the west Asian nations. The Look West Policy assumed significance and
focussed on Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s remark at the Make in India
conference in New Delhi on 26 September 2014 when he said, ‘For a long
time Look East Policy is under discussion, I would like to talk about link west’.
The previous government’s policies have been limited to energy owing to
intractable political fault lines and fractured socio-religious landscape in the
region such as the Arab–Israel contest, Iran–Saudi rivalry, terrorism, proxy
wars, etc.
However, under Look West Policy, India is intending to view the west
Asian region from a balanced approach owing to its own strategic vision and
national interests. India is therefore trying to take opportunities of the
turbulences and without taking any sides, trying to capitalize on its soft power
and huge diaspora in the region. Currently, the look west policy focuses on
three main axes: The Arab Gulf countries, Israel, and Iran. From an economic
integration point of view, many developments recently took place such as:

Government of India, Copyright 2023.


The external boundaries and coastlines of India agree with the
Record/Master Copy certified by Survey of India.
The spellings of names in this map, have been taken from various
sources.
Growing trading relations with Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC).
Major oil companies of the region, ARAMCO (Saudi Arabia) and
ANDOC (UAE) are developing strategic partnerships with Indian
companies both in the public and private sectors. The economic
diversification drive in the region, mainly in the Gulf is in sync with
India’s vision of a ‘US$Five Trillion Economy’.
Iran has strategic importance for India, especially with respect to the
security of the Indian Ocean, the stability of the Gulf region and its oil
supply and India’s Afghanistan policy and central Asian vision.
However, due to sanctions on Iran by the US, the relationship between
India–Iran has come to a rough patch as there seem to be no signs of
resuming oil trade with Tehran and progress on the Chabahar Port has
also not been up to the satisfaction of the Iranians.
The Israel Policy and the growing strategic proximity and security
cooperation are the perceptible success of the new vision and pursuit
of the ‘Look West Policy’ as it has managed this bold pragmatic step
without compromising its commitment to the Palestine issue. This new
diplomatic balance was proved with India’s voting with Palestine
against the US recognition of Jerusalem as the capital of Israel in the
UN and maintaining the unabated momentum of the India–Israel
partnership.
The most remarkable outcome of the Look West Policy and the dense
diplomatic outreach of Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the region
has been the perception of the Organization of Islamic Cooperation
(OIC), a 57-member organization of the Muslim World.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Look East Policy was launched by?
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Narsimha Rao
(d) Manmohan Singh

2. The Sixteenth India–ASEAN Summit was held in?


(a) Bangkok Thailand
(b) New Delhi
(c) Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar
(d) Phnom Penh, Cambodia

3. How Act East Policy is different from Look East Policy?


(a) it undertakes both economic and security integration and cooperati
(b) it enhances integration with southeast Asian countries as well as
Asian nations.
(c) Highlights 4Cs—culture, commerce, connectivity, and cap
building.
(d) All the above.

4. Which of the following statement are true about the South Asia
Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
A. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) Cha
signed in Dhaka on December 1985

B. There are nine observers of the South Asian Association for


Cooperation (SAARC).

C. Its headquarters is based in Dhaka, Bangladesh.


D. South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed in 2016.
Codes:
(a) A and B only
(b) C and D only
(c) B and D only
(d) A, B, and D only

5. In Which Year Look East Policy was started by India?


(a) 1990
(b) 1993
(c) 1992
(d) 1994

6. Who upgraded the Look East Policy to the Act East policy?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Narsimha Rao
(d) None of the these

7. Gujaral Doctrine aimed to achieve:


I. Improving India’s relations with a neighbour without reciprocity.
II. Unilateral concessions to the neighbours in trade and travel wit
reciprocity.
III. To contain Pakistan growing insurgency in Kashmir.
IV. Make India nuclear power nation.
Codes:
(a) I and II only
(b) III and IV only
(c) I and IV only
(d) I, II, and IV only

8. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Look West Policy i


wrong?
I. It focuses on western countries i.e., the US, Canada, and
America.
II. Announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2014.
III. It focuses on Arab Gulf countries.
IV. To increase India’s trade and oil export with Gulf Nations.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) III and IV only
(d) II, III, and IV only

9. Gujaral Doctrine was propounded under which Prime Minister’


Government?
(a) I. K. Gujral
(b) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(c) V. P. Singh
(d) H. D. Deve Gowda

10. Which of the following is a characteristic of India’s foreign policy?


(a) Non-Alignment
(b) Opposition to Imperialism
(c) Friendship and Cooperation
(d) All of the Above

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (d) (c) (a) (a) (d) (d)
2. 4.
6. (a)
(a) (d)
CHAPTER 6
India’s Negotiation Strategies in
International Regimes

INTRODUCTION
India holds a significant position in international relations, and it represents
the group of developing countries that want to ensure the interest of Third
world countries. The interaction and negotiation of India clearly represent its
position as a key leader of Developing nations. India is always supported
established international order and law to maintain peace in the world order.
So, when it sits in the United Nations, World Trade Organization, International
Monetary Fund or any other international regimes it tries to boost the position
of developing nations in the contemporary phase of globalization.

INDIA AND UNITED NATIONS


India was a founding member of the United Nations, and strongly supports the
purposes and principles of the United Nations. India’s deepening engagement
is based on its reliable commitment to multilateralism and dialogue as the key
to achieving shared goals and addressing common challenges.

Key Events and Contributions


India is currently a non-permanent member (2021–22) of the United
Nations Security Council and makes efforts for decentralizing the veto
power of the permanent members of the United Nations Security
Council.
India was, elected president in the thirteenth session of the United
Nations General Assembly in 2014.
India was elected the first chairman of the Economic and Social
Council (ECOSOC) for the year 2022–24.
India has always followed the decisions of the International Court of
Justice be it the maritime dispute with Bangladesh or the case of
Kulbhushan Jadhav.
Justice Dalbeer Bhandari of India became the first non-British judge of
the International Court of Justice for the second time, defeating the
British Judge Greenwood, and ensuring India’s powerful international
diplomacy.
India chaired the United Nations Security Council 1373 Committee
concerning Counter-Terrorism, the 1566 Working Group concerning
threat to international peace and security by terrorist acts and the
United Nations Security Council 751/1907 Committee concerning
Somalia and Eritrea.
India has been a partner in 15 out of 23 peace operations during the
post-Cold War period in which operations in Rwanda and Haiti are
important. In Somalia, where American soldiers also backed, India
proved its ability by successfully ending that mission.
India has also provided 15 Force Commanders to various missions and
was the first country to contribute to the Trust Fund on sexual
exploitation and abuse, which was set up in 2016.
India became the first country to deploy an all-women contingent for
Formed Police Unit to the United Nations peacekeeping mission in
Liberia.
India was elected to the United Nations Human Rights Council in Oct
2018 for the period 2019–22 with the highest number of votes
(188/193).

INDIA AND WORLD TRADE ORGANIZATION

India’s Role in World Trade Organization Summit


India has been a member of the World Trade Organization since January
1995 and had been a member of the erstwhile General Agreement on Tariffs
and Trade (GATT) since 1948. Its role in the World Trade Organization
summit could be enumerated as the implementation of Uruguay Round
agreements. India’s proposal in ongoing negotiations with the World Trade
Organization includes suggestions like allowing developing countries to
maintain an appropriate level of tariff bindings, compatible with their
developmental needs, and the prevailing distortions in international markets.
India too favours the extension of higher levels of protection to the
geographical indications for products like Basmati Rice, Darjeeling Tea, and
Alphonso Mangoes at par with that provided to wines and spirits under the
Trade-related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) agreement. In
the TRIMS (Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures), India wants
flexibility for developing countries in adopting appropriate domestic policy
while permitting foreign investment.
The recent conference of the World Trade Organization that is Doha
Conference took place in 2001, and India emerged as the most outspoken
advocate for the developing bloc. The meeting was declared a success since
the delegates of 142 countries agreed to a new round of trade talks, including
topics such as environment, competition, and investment.

Major Problems and Concerns of India and World Trade


Organization
Extending the scope of the investment regime in the World Trade
Organization beyond Trade-Related Investment Measures and General
Agreements on Trade in Services is not appropriate.
A multilateral framework cannot guarantee an increase in Foreign
Direct Investment inflows although it threatens to adversely affect the
quality of the inflows.
World Trade Organization has not been able to ensure the abolition of
non-trade barriers being imposed on labour and environmental
considerations, including the linkage in certain Generalized System of
Preferences (GSP) schemes to these issues.
India was not in favour of the Doha Ministerial meeting’s negotiation
over investment as it will put constraints on India to channel foreign
investments into useful sectors and put the burden on Fore repayment.
India is also working to replace its policies perhaps with a form of
income support for subsistence farmers so that they can gradually be
weaned away from a dependence on wheat and rice that is straining
the environment and distorting markets.
INDIA’S COORDINATION WITH INTERNATIONAL
MONETARY FUND
It signed the International Monetary Fund Agreement, on 27 December 1945.
India’s subscription quota was the fifth largest until 1970. By virtue of it, the
country had the power to appoint a permanent Executive Director on the
Board of Executive Directors, later ceased to hold the position of a permanent
Executive Director of the International Monetary Fund.
To deal with the balance of payments difficulties, India has sought
assistance funds from International Monetary Fund from time to time.
Between 1947 and 1955, India made two drawings from the International
Monetary Fund amounting to US$100 million to tide over her balance of
payments difficulties. Between 1957 and 1975, India made eight drawls from
the Fund amounting to US$1764 million. Between July 1978 and February
1981, India received a loan of US$529.01 million for Special Drawing Rights
at the concessional rates under the International Monetary Fund Trust Fund
with the object of meeting its balance of payments deficit.
By virtue of India’s membership in the International Monetary Fund, it is
also a member of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
or World Bank. From this institution, India has received long-term
development assistance for various development projects. India has also
received concessional assistance from the International Development
Association (IDA) over the decades.
The International Monetary Fund teams of specialists exchange views with
Indian officials on India’s Balance of Payment and exchange rate problems
and suggest monetary, fiscal and other measures for resolving them.
The International Monetary Fund has also been providing short-term
training courses to Indian personnel on monetary, fiscal, banking, exchange,
and Balance of Payments policies through its Central Banking Service
Department, the International Monetary Fund Institute and Fiscal Affairs
Department.
India’s membership of the International Monetary Fund has helped it to be
a member of the World Bank and its affiliates viz., International Finance
Corporation (IFC) and International Development Association (IDA) and India
have been the largest borrower from these World Bank groups.

INDIA’S NEGOTIATION STRATEGIES IN


INTERNATIONAL REGIMES
Relationship rule: building a positive relationship in advance of any
negotiations India looks for win-win situations.
The intellectual property right regime of India has been modified by
several legislations since 1995. For India, the World Trade
Organization’s Trade-related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(TRIPs) agreement became binding from 2005 onwards as the country
has got a ten-year transition period (1995–2005) to make the domestic
legislation compatible with Trade-related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights (TRIPs). India has got additional five-year transition
period because of not have a product patent regime in the critical
sector like pharmaceuticals.
Long-termism: recently India launched Long-Term Low Emission
Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) at the United Nations Climate
Change Conference (COP27), setting out a broad framework of how it
proposes to meet its goal of achieving climate neutrality by 2070.
New Delhi in negotiating with the Framework Convention on Tobacco
Control, has functioned as a rule shaper, which aligned with Indian
health officials’ priorities leading to robust engagement.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Consider the following with regard to India’s Negotiation Strategies i
International Regimes.
A. India’s concern for the intellectual property rights regime has been
by several legislations including Trade-Related Aspects of In
Property Rights (TRIPS).

B. In 2002, India launched the Long-Term Low Emission Development


at the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP27).

C. Relationship rule as a positive approach for negotiations enha


win-win situations.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) Only A and B
(b) Only A and C
(c) Only B and C
(d) All are correct

2. Which of the following events was not among the contributions made b
India to the United Nations?
(a) India was elected chairman of the Economic and Social Council fo
year 2022–24.
(b) India chaired the 1566 Working Group concerning threats
international peace and security.
(c) India does not follow the decisions of the International Court of Ju
with regard to maritime disputes be they national or internat
concerns.
(d) As a peacekeeping measure in United Nations India deployed an
women contingent to Formed Police in Liberia.

3. India was elected to the Human Rights Council in October 2018, with th
highest votes of (188/193) for the period of:
(a) 2018–20
(b) 2018–21
(c) 2019–22
(d) 2019–23

4. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In the Trade-Related Investment Measures
Agreement (TRIMS), India wants flexibility for developing countries in
adopting appropriate domestic policy while permitting foreign
investment.
Reason (R): India’s role in the World Trade Organization summit
could be seen as protecting the appropriate level of tariff barriers,
compatible with their developmental needs to the geographical
indicators under Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(TRIPS).
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

5. Which of the following system has not been imposed on labour an


environmental considerations by the World Trade Organization?
(a) Generalized System of Preferences
(b) Generalized System of Prevention
(c) Generalized Protection System
(d) Generalized Prevention System

6. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:


(a) India signed the International Monetary Fund agreement in 1946.
(b) In order to meet the balance of payment deficit India receives a
from the International Monetary Fund’s Special Drawing Right
concessional rates under the International Monetary Fund Trust Fu
(c) Being a member of the International Monetary Fund India has
benefitted from becoming a member of the International Bank
Reconstruction and Development and the World Bank.
(d) International Monetary Fund Specialists exchange views with In
officials with regard to the Balance of Payments, fiscal, and mone
policies.

7. World Trade Organization’s Trade-related Aspects of Intellectua


Property Rights (TRIPS) agreement became binding for India in whic
year?
(a) 2002 (b) 2003 (c) 2004 (d) 2005

8. Who was the first non-British judge of the International Court of Justic
for the second time?
(a) Dalbeer Bhandari
(b) Ronny Abraham
(c) Mohamed Bennouna
(d) Nawaf Salam

9. The recent World Trade Organization conference was held in the year?
(a) 2000 (b) 2001 (c) 2002 (d) 2003
10. From which position of the International Monetary Fund India ceased to
hold its position due to the subscription of quota?
(a) Board of Legislative Directors
(b) Board of Financial Directors
(c) Board of Tariff Directors
(d) Board of Executive Directors.

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (c) (a) (d) (a) (b) (d)
2. 4.
6. (a)
(c) (b)
CHAPTER 7
Contemporary Challenges to
Indian Foreign Policy

INTRODUCTION
International relations is a dynamic domain and hence the foreign policy
of any nation needs to be dynamic as well as pragmatic to deal with
contemporary issues. India Foreign policy experts, as well as the
government of India work round the clock to deal with the contemporary
challenges, be they related to its geo-political position, energy source
requirement, environmental concerns, demographic situation, or global
security threats like terrorism and cybercrimes.

MARITIME SECURITY
Indian Ocean factors as an important security calculus in India’s maritime
security. This has become more so due to China’s heightened military
presence in the Indian Ocean. This can be depicted from the strategy of
String of Pearls. Further, China is modernizing its military base at Djibouti
in the horn of Africa and there are similar reports regarding Gwadar port
in Pakistan.
Geo-Economic significance of Indian Oceans: Geopolitics is
intricately intertwined with geo-economics and its focus on matters of
control and access to economic resources. Sea Lanes of Communication
(SLOCs) are important for India as its exports and imports are primarily
dependent on these routes. The Central Indian Ocean Basin has become
the site for deep exploration and licenses for scarce mineral resources.
India’s Geo-Strategic Location: Located centrally between the
eastern and western stretches of the Indian Ocean, thereby able to
deploy naval forces in both directions more easily than other littoral states
in the Indian Ocean.

Key Indian Initiatives for Maritime Security in the


Indian Ocean
1. Security and Growth for all in the Region (SAGAR): Launched by
Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2015. Envisages India’s role
as a net security provider in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
Maintain warm relations with friendly countries in the region.
2. Reiterating its commitment to abide by the mandate of the UN
Convention on Law of Seas (UNCLOS) 1982.
3. Data Sharing on threats to Commercial Shipping—India
established an International Fusion Centre (IFC) for the Indian
Ocean region in Gurugram in 2018.
4. Project Mausam—proposed to establish cross-cultural linkages
and to revive historic maritime cultural and economic ties with 39
Indian Ocean countries.

ENERGY SECURITY
Economic growth is closely related to energy security and hence forms
an integral part of India’s Foreign Policy. India should deepen its ties with
energy-rich countries in order to secure a stable supply of key natural
energy sources like oil and gas amid geopolitical tensions and economic
volatilities arising out of them. At the same time, India should also focus
on diversifying its energy basket by focusing on developing renewable
energy sources like solar, wind, etc.

Important Deals for Energy Security


India’s growing energy ties with Myanmar, Vietnam, and Central
Asian countries like Kazakhstan and Gulf countries.
Indo–US Nuclear Deal (123 Agreement) opened up new
possibilities in the field of Nuclear energy facilitating cutting-edge
technology and nuclear fuel. India has started to engage with
China, Kazakhstan, and Australia for nuclear fuel.
India’s Shanghai Cooperations Organization membership could
foster increasing energy cooperation linking central Asia with south
Asia.

ENVIRONMENTAL SECURITY
With climate change assuming the centre stage of global policy
discourse, environmental security has gained salience and India has
been playing a very proactive role with regard to environmental
governance both internationally and as well as domestically.
On the issue of climate change and global environmental
degradation, India adopted the principle of common but differentiated
responsibilities enshrined in the UN Framework on Climate Change and
Nationally Determined Contribution under the Paris Agreement.

India’s Contribution Towards Climate Change


Mitigation
1. In line with its updated Nationally Determined Contributions, India
stands committed to reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP
by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels, 50% of cumulative electric
power installed from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by
2030.
2. India has pledged to achieve net zero carbon emissions by 2070
as part of its ‘Panchamrit’ (or five elixirs) at COP26 in 2021.
3. India has called for a phase-down of coal usage and has been
arguing for greater equity and a level playing field for developing
economies in terms of global environmental governance.
4. India has recently unveiled a campaign called Lifestyle for
Environment (LiFE) highlighting the imperative to adopt lifestyles
in a manner that is in sync with mother earth.
5. India joined hands with France in establishing International Solar
Alliance (ISA) on the sidelines of COP21 held in Paris in 2015. It is
an alliance of 121 sunshine countries whose main objective is the
efficient utilization of solar energy in order to reduce dependence
on fossil fuels.

MIGRANTS AND REFUGEE ISSUES FOR INDIA


Refugee influx began with the partition of India in 1947 and by the start of
2010, the country had nearly 450,000 refugees from within and outside
the region. India is not a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Conference nor
to its 1967 protocol on the repute of refugees.
However, refugee law has become inextricably linked with the larger
question of human rights and humanitarian law as well as other fields of
international law such as State responsibility and peace maintenance.
There is no internationally accepted legal definition of a migrant.
Existing Legislative Framework in India to Handle
Refugees
1. Foreigners Act 1946,
2. Passport (Entry into India) Act 1920,
3. Registration of Foreigners Act of 1939,
4. Citizenship Act 1955, and
5. Citizenship Amendment Act 2019— which seeks to provide
citizenship only to Hindu, Christian, Jain, Parsi, Sikh, and Buddhist
immigrants persecuted in Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.

Refugee Groups in India


Partition refugees from Pakistan in 1947,
Tibetan refugees in 1959,
Chakma and Hajong Refugees from Bangladesh in the early
1960s,
Bangladeshi Refugees in 1965 and 1971,
Sri Lankan Tamil refugees in the 1980s, and
Rohingya Refugees from Myanmar in 2022.

WATER RESOURCES: MAJOR WATER


DISPUTES WITH NEIGHBOURS

India–China Water Dispute


Both Brahmaputra and the glaciers that feed Ganga originate in China.
China maintains an advantageous position being an upstream riparian
region. China’s dam-building and water division plans along the
Brahmaputra are a source of tension between the two neighbours. China
has hydro-power projects on the Brahmaputra river at Zangmu in Tibet
and three other dams at Dagu, Jiexu, and Jiacha.

India–Bangladesh
India and Bangladesh share 54 rivers between them. The Joint River
Commission between India and Bangladesh was formed in the year 1972
under the peace treaty. Teesta River sharing remains a major bone of
contention between the two nations. Teesta originates in the Himalayas
and flows through Sikkim and West Bengal to merge with Brahmaputra in
Assam while draining 2800 sq km of Bangladesh governing the livelihood
of several thousand people since it caters to Bangladesh’s agricultural
needs.
For West Bengal, Teesta is equally important as it is considered the
lifeline of many North Bengal districts. Bangladesh has sought an
‘equitable distribution’ of Teesta waters from India on the lines of the
Ganga Water Treaty of 1996. Despite concerted efforts from both sides, it
remains an unfinished agenda.
Recently the Kushiyara River Water Agreement was signed between
India and Bangladesh on 6 September 2022 which is the first major river
water sharing accord between the two friendly neighbours since the
Ganga Water Treaty in 1996.

India–Nepal
Agreements are signed on major rivers like Kosi, Gandaki, Karnali, or
Mahakali for large hydroelectric and irrigation projects or dams.
Kosi Agreement signed in 1954: India and Nepal have disputes over
the issue of compensation for the Kosi dam over the issue of flooding in
the region. Nepal views India’s construction activities as detrimental to its
interests.
Both countries have disagreements over the Maha Kali river with
regard to the source of the origin of its stream as delimited by the Sugauli
Treaty of 1816. It assumes strategic significance as the disputed site is
located close to the Sino–Indian border.

India–Pakistan
India and Pakistan have experienced friction over various water conflicts
since Independence. Indus Water Treaty in 1960 clearly demarcated how
the region’s rivers are to be divided. As per the treaty, the eastern rivers
of the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej were given to India while Pakistan got the
control over western rivers of the Indus, Chenab, and Jhelum.
Indian Government has more than 40 projects either completed or in
the pipeline on the western rivers and since naturally, the flow of all of
Pakistan’s rivers passes through India first, these activities are resented
by Pakistan. Pakistan has already lost the case against India regarding
the Baglihar dam project and the Krishnaganga project.

TERRORISM CONCERN OF INDIA


India has been a victim of cross-border terrorism and has been vocal
about its fight against terror on various international platforms. India has
consistently maintained the stand that there should not be any distinction
between ‘good’ and ‘bad’ terrorism and all forms of terrorism need to be
obliterated. India’s efforts such as its proposal of the Comprehensive
Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT) in 1996 to the UN General
Assembly are noteworthy.

Major Terrorist Attacks in India


1993 Mumbai serial blasts,
1998 Coimbatore blasts,
2001 Indian Parliament Attack,
2005 Delhi Serial Blasts,
2006 Mumbai Local Train Serial Blasts,
2008 Blasts in Jaipur,
26/11 attack on Mumbai in 2008,
2 January 2016 Pathankot attack in Pathankot Air Force Station,
and
2019 Pulwama attack.

Terrorist Threats for India


Increasing instances of radicalization and indoctrination of Indian youths
by global terror outfits operating terror modules in India, for example, the
situation in Kashmir Valley, ISIS and other organizations active in various
Indian states, separatist tendencies fueled by violent extremist, and
insurgent groups in the northeast like ULFA, NSCN, etc.
Narco terrorism—a term explaining the illegal smuggling of drugs and
psychotropic substances into Indian territory, especially in border states
like Punjab from neighbouring Pakistan and with the ascendancy of
Taliban in Afghanistan this menace is expected to escalate further as per
intelligence agencies.

CYBER SECURITY
Cyber security is the technique of protecting computers, networks,
programs, and data from unauthorized access or attacks that are aimed
at the exploitation of cyber-physical systems and critical information
infrastructure. Cyber threats can be classified into two broad categories;

1. Cyber Crime: An illegal activity which is done using digital device


and the internet against individuals or corporations for financial and
material gains.
2. Cyber War/Terror: Involves the action by a nation-state to
damage another nation’s critical infrastructure through viruses or
Denial of Service (DOS) attacks. A kind of information warfare and
is considered as the fifth domain of warfare.
Over 313,000 cyber security incidents were reported in 2019 alone
according to the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-
In), the government agency responsible for tracking and responding to
cyber security threats.

Challenges to Cyber Security in India


Inadequate focus on cyber-attack preparedness by the profit-
oriented telecom sector.
Absence of separate procedural code.
Trans-national nature of cyber attacks.
Expanding Digital Ecosystem (5G and IoT).
Limited Expertise and Authority.
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Security and Growth for all in the Region (SAGAR) is related to?
(a) Trans-Pacific
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Arabian Sea

2. Match the following:

Strategic Ports Locations

I.Djibouti 1. Iran

II.Gwadar 2. Africa

III. Chabahar C. Sri Lanka


IV.Hambantota D. Pakistan

Options:
(a) I–(D), II–(A), III–(C), IV–(B)
(b) I–(A), II–(B), III–(C), IV–(D)
(c) I–(B), II–(D), III–(A), IV–(C)
(d) I–(C), II–(D), III–(B), IV–(A)

3. The 123 Agreement is concerned with which country?


(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) Canada
(d) US
4. Match the following:

Refugee Groups Countries of Origin

1. Chakma 1. Bangladesh

2. Rohingya 2. Sri Lanka

3. Tamil C. Pakistan

4. Sikh D. Myanmar

Options:
(a) 1–(A), 2–(D), 3–(B), 4–(C)
(b) 1–(D), 2–(C), 3–(B), 4–(A)
(c) 1–(A), 2–(D), 3–(C), 4–(B)
(d) 1–(C), 2–(B), 3–(A), 4–(D)

5. Mahakali River is a subject of dispute between?


(a) India—Bangladesh
(b) India—Nepal
(c) India—Bhutan
(d) India—Pakistan

6. ‘Panchamrit’ or the doctrine of five elixirs pledged by India is related


to?
(a) Anti-Terror Financing
(b) Cyber Security
(c) Climate Change Mitigation
(d) Tax Reforms

7. Match the following:

River Water Agreements Years

I.Kosi 1. 1960

II.Indus 2. 1954

III. Ganga C. 2022


IV.Kushiyara D. 1996

Options:
(a) I–(D), II–(C), III–(B), IV–(A)
(b) I–(A), II–(B), III–(C), IV–(D)
(c) I–(C), II–(D), III–(A), IV–(B)
(d) I–(B), II–(A), III–(D), IV–(C)

8. Assertion (A): Anti-terror policies in contemporary times need to


encompass a wider range of strategies and mechanisms.
Reason (R): Terrorism has acquired newer dimensions that
challenge the conventional modules of terror operatives.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explana
of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

9. Statement I: India’s Energy Diplomacy has acquired increasing


salience in the backdrop of recent geopolitical developments and
India’s rising global profile.
Statement II: India has established an International Fusion
Centre for the Indian Ocean region in New Delhi.
Options:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.

10. Fifth domain of warfare is also known as?


(a) Cyber War
(b) Biological War
(c) Chemical War
(d) Nuclear War

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (d) (b) (4) (a) (c) (a)
2. 4.
6. (c)
(c) (a)
Previous Years’ Questions

1. Which of the following is not a part of India’s nuclear doctrine?


(2016)
(a) No first use
(b) Credible Minimum Deterrence
(c) Negative Security Assurance
(d) Tactical Nuclear Weapons

2. India became a member of the United Nations in (2017)


(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1951

3. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC ?


(2017)
(a) Maldives
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Afghanistan

4. Among the following which country is a member of IBSA ?


(2017)
(a) Indonesia
(b) Afganistan
(c) Singapore
(d) South Africa
5. Eighth member of the SAARC is (2017)
(a) Nepal
(b) Afganistan
(c) Malaysia
(d) Bangladesh

6. South Asian University’s proposed to be establish at (2018)


(a) Islamabad
(b) New Delhi
(c) Dhaka
(d) Thirnpu

7. Which of the following statements is not a part of Nehruvian


Foreign Policy towards Pakistan ? (2018)
(a) An adequate defence against aggression is vital.
(b) To use international law and institutions as well as bilateral trea
and agreements to tie Pakistan down.
(c) To wean Pakistan away from its external backers and supports
(d) Efforts should be made to sign a Treaty of Peace, Friendship
Co-operation with Pakistan.

8. Name the boundary line between India and China (2018)


(a) Durand Line
(b) Radcliffe Line
(c) McMahon Line
(d) Palk Strait

9. In 1954, India signed the Panchsheel agreement with which


neighboring state? (2018)
(a) Nepal
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of non-
alignment ? (2018)
(a) Non - alignment stands for plurality and democratic equ
among community of nations.
(b) It opposes all forms of racialism and discrimination an
champions the cause of fundamental freedoms. Economic
social justice is the motto of non-alignment.
(c) Non-alignment rests on the presumption that national securi
linked with national strength of individual nations.
(d) Non-alignment asserts that international peace is an alien
prerequisite for attaining national aspirations and for the exer
of sovereign independence.

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II

(A)Second summit of Non-alignment 1. Colombo

(B)Third summit of Non-alignment 2. Algiers

(C)Fourth summit of Non-alignment 3. Lusaka

(D)Fifth summit of Non-alignment 4. Cairo

Code:
(a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
(b) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
(c) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-3, (D)-4
(d) (A)-4, (B)-1, (C)-3, (D)-2
12. The magazine which has characterized Barak Obama as
‘Underachiever’ (2018)
(a) TIME
(b) OUTLOOK
(c) FRONTLINE
(d) WORLD FOCUS

13. Among the following, what is not a characteristic of New


Economic World Order? (2018)
(a) Increase the financial and technical assistance
(b) Relaxation in taxes and facilities
(c) Positive Decision Making process
(d) Developing countries have to follow the Development Mode
Western countries.

14. Examine the following statements about India’s Nuclear Policy


and mark the incorrect one: (2018)
(a) India considers Nuclear Non (A) Proliferation Treaty (NPT
discriminatory treaty
(b) India is in favour of both vertical and horizontal nuclear wea
proliferation
(c) India is for total nuclear disarmament
(d) India is against declaring South Asia as a Nuclear Weapon
Zone

15. Which of the following groups does not have a free trade
agreement among members? (2018)
(a) European Union
(b) India-Brazil-South Africa (IBSA)
(c) South Asian Association of Regional Co-operation (SAARC)
(d) Mercosur

16. Which of the following is the main objective of the Threshold


Test Ban Treaty? (2018)
(a) Ban on transfer of space technology to the non-nuclear states
(b) Ban on transfer of nuclear technology to non-nuclear states
(c) Ban on nuclear tests having a yield of more than 100 kilotons
(d) Ban on underground nuclear tests having a yield of more than
kilotons

17. Who said that “We must deal wisely the world’s largest
democracy …. We need to work harder and more consistently
to assist India … while not neglecting out friends in Pakistan?
(2018)
(a) Nicholas Burns
(b) Colin Powell
(c) David C Mulford
(d) Henry Kissinger

18. Who condemned Non-alignment as a selfish policy ? (2018)


(a) Morgenthau
(b) William Johnstone
(c) Schwarzenberger
(d) Edward Crankshaw

19. India’s claim for permanent seat in the UN Security Council is


justified for the following reasons: (2018)
(i) India has successfully conducted nuclear explosions.
(ii) India has never attacked any country.
(iii) Indian economy is growing fast.
(iv) India has achieved greater diplomatic clout among third w
countries.
Choose the correct answer from the following codes:
(a) All are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

20. Who is the largest G-20 investor country in India? (2019)


(a) Japan
(b) USA
(c) UK
(d) Brazil

21. Match List I with List II (2020)

List I List II
(A)Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (I)2004
(B)Indo-US Civil Nuclear Deal (II) 20
(C)High Technology Cooperation Groups (III) 20
(D)Next Steps in Strategic Partnership (IV) 20

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
(b) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(c) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
(d) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

22. A non-align country should not be (2020)


(a) A partner of bilateral military alliances
(b) Supporter of Peaceful co-existance
(c) Opponent of colonialism
(d) Pursuer of Independent Foreign Policy

23. The Ninth Convention of BCIM Regional Cooperation Forum


was held at (2020)
(a) New Delhi
(b) Kumming
(c) Beizing
(d) Dhaka

24. ‘Project Mausam’ aims at (2020)


(a) developing reliable weather forecasts.
(b) restoring ancient maritime routes and cultural links.
(c) developing agriculture based on Monsoon predictions.
(d) improving irrigations in arid lands.

25. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R): (2020)
Assertion (A): The 17th NAM Summit in Venezuela was
attended by India’s Vice President Hamid Ansari.
Reason (R): In the post-cold war world NAM is expected to focus
on core issues of global concern.
In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is
correct ?
Codes:
(a) (A) is true, (R) is false
(b) (A) is false, (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the co
explanation of (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the co
explanation of (A)

26. Who is the Prime Minister of Myanmar ? (2020)


(a) Owang San Su Ki
(b) Thiyen Sen
(c) Khin Ki
(d) Ne Win

27. The idea of ‘genuine non-alignment’ was advocated by which


one of the following ? (2020)
(A) NDA Government (1998)
(B) I.K. Gujral government (1997-1998)
(C) Janata party government (1977)
(D) UPA government (2004)
Choose the correct answer:
(a) (C) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) only
(d) (C) only

28. Which among the following statements are true? (2020)


Choose the correct answer from the below:
(A) During post-1971 period, Indian foreign policy tilted towards So
Union.
(B) External security concerns received greater focus.
(C) Threat perception from India’s neighbour increased.
(D) Trade and economic issues were given an impetus.
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

29. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of India’s ‘Nuclear


Doctrine’? (2020)
(a) Minimum credible deterrence
(b) No use against friendly countries
(c) No first use
(d) Not against a state having conventional weapons only

30. Which of the following agreements have been concluded by


India with its neighbours in the past seven years? (2020)
(A) Indo-Nepal Power Trade Agreement
(B) Afghanistan-India Friendship Dam
(C) Chittagong Port in Bangladesh
(D) Building of Parliament in the Maldives
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) Band C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

31. Which of the following disputes are related to India and


Pakistan? (2020)
(A) Siachen Dispute
(B) Sir Creek Dispute
(C) Kalapani Dispute
(D) Dahagram Dispute
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

32. Match List I with List II (2020)

List I List II
(A)China I.Kalapani Dispute
(B)Bangladesh II.Galwan Incident
(C)Pakistan III. Land Boundary Agreement
(D)Nepal IV. Baglihar Hydro Project

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
(b) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
(c) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(d) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

33. Arrange the following events of Indian Foreign Policy in order


of their occurrence (2020)
(A) Lahore Bus Diplomacy
(B) Look East Policy
(C) Gujral Doctrine
(D) Pokhran-II Nuclear Explosion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, D, C
(b) C, D, A, B
(c) D, C, B, A
(d) B, C, D, A

34. Doklam Plateau is a disputed land between (2020)


(a) India and China
(b) China and Bhutan
(c) India and Bhutan
(d) Nepal and China

35. ‘Chennai Connect’ is related to informal summit between India


and (2020)
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Mauritius
(c) Maldives
(d) China

36. Which Prime Minister pursued the foreign policy of extending


non-reciprocal concessions to neighbouring states? (2020)
(a) V.P. Singh
(b) Inder Kumar Gujral
(c) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(d) Manmohan Singh

37. India is NOT a member of which multilateral export control


regime? (2021)
(a) Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)
(b) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
(c) Wassenaar Arrangement (WA)
(d) Australia Group (AG)

38. Which agreement of defence cooperation was signed by India


with USA in 2020? (2021)
(a) Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA
(b) General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA
(c) Logistic Exchange and Memorandum Agreement (LEMOA
(d) Communication and Information Security Memoran
Agreement (CISMOA)

39. Which of the following statements about India’s foreign policy


are true? (2021)
(A) India has signed the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA)
Bangladesh in 2015
(B) India has agreed to build Hambantota port in Sri Lanka in 2017
(C) India has signed a Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA)
Afghanistan in 2011
(D) The regime of Abdulla Yameen (2013-2018) of Maldives
friendly with India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and C only
(d) C and D only
40. In India’s Foreign Policy, ‘Indira Doctrine’ is related to (2021)
(A) It aims to make India a global power
(B) It is a policy to develop cooperation with neighbours
(C) It equates India’s security with that of South Asia
(D) Any interference in the South Asian region will be considere
threat to India’s security
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

41. Arrange the signing of the following agreements by India in


order of their appearance: (2021)
(A) Land Boundary Agreement
(B) Tashkent Agreement
(C) Moscow Test Ban Treaty
(D) India-Russia Friendship Treaty
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) C, B, D, A
(b) B, C, A, D
(c) A, C, B, D
(d) C, D, A, B

42. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R (2021)
Assertion A: India supports global nuclear disarmament, but
wishes to retain the option of “credible minimum deterrence”
Reason R: Indian nuclear policy is rooted to meet, both its global
and regional concerns
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and Rare correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare correct but R is NOT the correct explanation o
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the next 5


questions given below (2021)
Over the course of the 1990s, the question of the Indian
state’s relationship to the diaspora-formerly treated as more or less
settled-once again came to the forefront of policy debates. Developments
within diaspora communities, particularly in the United States served to
facilitate this process. Chief among them was the creation of the ‘Global
Organization of People of Indian Origin’ (GOPIO) in 1989, and the
establishment of the ‘India Caucus’ within the US Congress in 1993.
While the former served to provide a semblance of coherence to the
interests of a variegated community, the latter suggested the potential for
at least a section amongst the Indian diaspora to be conscious political
actors in their adopted homeland. GOPIO members, for instance, kept
alive the question of institutional recognition of the special place of the
diaspora by proposing the idea of a ‘Person of Indian Origin’ card in their
meetings with Indian government representatives in the mid-1990s.
Within the United States, politically active lobbyists of Indian origin
became de facto spokespersons for the then Indian government,
particularly in the aftermath of the nuclear tests of 1998. The support of
these groups in mitigating the post-tests economic sanctions imposed by
the United States, along with their enthusiastic response to the
‘Resurgent India’ bonds issued by the Indian government in the
immediate aftermath of the nuclear tests as a measure to withstand the
sanctions, was cited as an important indication of the continued
commitment of the diaspora to the homeland. It was a commitment that
according to the Indian government needed to be officially recognized in
the new millennium.

43. Why debate on Indian diaspora got prominence for India’s foreign
policy makers?
(a) Due to changed political milieu in the USA
(b) India’s economic thrust towards West Asia
(c) Resurgence among the Indian Community
(d) Compulsions of the Globalization process in India

44. What has been the task of ‘Global Organization of People of Indian
Origin’ (GOPIO)?
(a) Articulate the demands of NRIs
(b) Representing articulated interests of various people of India or
(c) Increase in Indian cultural activities
(d) Linkage between Bollywood and Hollywood

45. What is the main task of ‘India Caucus’?


(a) To influence US policy making toward India
(b) To form union of PIOs
(c) To act as a linkage between PIOs and Government
(d) To provide feedback to the Indian Government

46. Which organization gave the idea of issuing ‘PIO Card’ by


Government of India?
(a) GOPIO
(b) India Caucus
(c) Indo-US Association
(d) NRIs Association

47. Why PIOs got significant attention during the end of 1990s?
(a) Emerging Indo-US economic cooperation
(b) Indo-US Nuclear civil deal
(c) Pokhran-II and American sanctions
(d) India-America defence deal

48. Recently, France has agreed to set up atomic power plant in


India at: (2021)
(a) Kudankulam
(b) Tarapur
(c) Kakarapar
(d) Jaitapur

49. To fulfill the civil nuclear energy cooperation agreement, the


Indian government has not to undertake the following measure:
(2021)
(a) India has to separate civil and military nuclear facilities
(b) India needs to sign an additional protocol for the supervisio
civilian nuclear facilities by the IAEA
(c) India has to support United States of America’s effort
multilateral Fissile Material Cutt off treaty
(d) In case of any accident, the liability has to be fix with
consultation of NSG

50. India has the Kalapani territorial dispute with which country?
(2021)
(a) Indonesia
(b) Nepal
(c) Singapore
(d) Malaysia

Answer Key

1. 9. 17. 25. 33. 40. 46.


(d) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (a)
2. 10. 18. 26. 34. 41. 47.
(a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (a) (c)
3. 11. 19. 27. 35. 42. 48.
(b) (b) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d)
4. 12. 20. 28. 36. 43. 49.
(d) (b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (d)
5. 13. 21. 29. 37. 44. 50.
(b) (d) (d) (b) (b) (b) (b)
6. 14. 22. 30. 38.
45. (a)
(b) (b) (a) (a) (a)
7. 15. 23. 31.
39. (c)
(d) (b) (b) (a)
8. 16. 24.
32. (c)
(c) (d) (b)

Explanation for Selected Questions

6. South Asian University established at New Delhi by the membe


nation of South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation
(SAARRC) i.e Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives
Pakistan, Srilanka, and Nepal. South Asian started in 2010 and
offers post-graduate and doctoral programmes in various disciplines

10. Non-aligned movement (NAM) belongs to the developing world and


is a coalition of small and middle sized states of the developing
world, mostly former colonies. Its official beginning started in
Belgrade summit, 1961. NAM leaders sought to fasten the
decolonization process. NAM contribution can assessed in terms of
six Ds- Decolonization, Détente, Disarmament, Development,
Democratization and Dissemination.

12. India’s magazine Outlook portrays Barack Obama as


underachiever on its cover page in 2012. Outlook did so after the
Time magazine portrayal of India’s Prime minister as
underachiever on its front page. Outlook Magazine was first issued
in India in October 1995 and is the most popular political magazine
in the country.

13. In fifth NAM Summit held at Colombo in 1976, in which


establishment of New International Economic Order realized, which
highlighted the need for collective self-reliance among the
developing countries. NIEO sought a South-South Cooperation. In
Colombo Summit New International Information Communication
Order(NWICO) set up also known as New International Information
Order.

14. Vertical proliferation is defined as increased in numbers and types


of nuclear weapons and advancement or modernization of a
nation-state’s nuclear arsenal. Horizontal proliferation is defined in
the terms of direct or indirect transfer of technologies from one
nation-state to another, which leads to the more advanced
development and proliferation of nuclear weapons. India is in
favour of Vertical proliferation.

16. Threshold Test Ban Treaty (TTBT) signed between the United
States and the Soviet Union on 3 July 1974. TTBT established a
nuclear threshold through the prohibition of nuclear tests that
exceed 150 kilotons. This threshold limits prevents the testing of
new or existing nuclear weapons that goes above the limit.

18. Non- alignment is a foreign policy adopted by newly independent


nations from colonial to keep itself aloof from military blocs. Non-
alignment was the strong statement given by these nations
rejecting military and political alliances and maintaining
independent relations with all. Schwarzenberger defined non-
alignment policy of keeping out of alliances as selfish.

19. United Nations Security Council has been in existence for 76


years, but it does not represent the current geopolitical and
economic realities. Undemocratic nature of UNSC needed a
change. India is demanding for permanent membership for so long.
India historic ties with UN, its intrinsic values, and leadership role of
developing countries has made the case for India’s permanent
membership at UNSC.

21.
The General Security of Military Information Agreement
(GSOMIA) was signed by the government of Atal Bihari
Vajpayee back in 2002.It aims to protect the military information
shared by the US.
The Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA)
was signed a full 14 years later in 2016. It aims to provide
mutual logistics support around the world.
The Communication Compatibility and Security Agreement
(COMCASA) was signed in 2018. It aims to facilitate
communication between the weapons platforms of the two
armed forces.
The Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement largely
pertains to geospatial intelligence, and sharing information on
maps and satellite images for defence. BECA will provide Indian
military systems with a high-quality GPS to navigate and
missiles with real-time intelligence to precisely target the
adversary. It was signed in 2020.

Hence, the correct answer will be D.

22. Non-alignment movement NAM belongs to the developing world


and is a coalition of small and middle sized states of the developing
world, mostly former colonies. Its official beginning started in
Belgrade summit, 1961. NAM leaders sought to fasten the
decolonization process. NAM contribution can assessed in terms of
six Ds- Decolonization, Détente, Disarmament, Development,
Democratization and Dissemination.

23. BCIM – Bangladesh, China, India, and Myanmar economic corridor


is a trans-regional corridor which connects Kolkata with Kunming
capital of the Yunna province in China. BCIM focused on the
formation of thriving economic corridor, which will increase cross
border transport, energy and telecommunication networks.

24. Project Mausam was significant foreign policy initiative designed by


NDA-II government in 2014 to counter China’s policy Maritime Silk
Road. Project mausam is a multidisciplinary trans-national project
to revive the old relations across Indian Ocean
26. Aung San Suu Kyi was the de facto leader of the Myanmar. Her
official position of office was State councilor equivalent to Prime
Minister. However, Myanmar polity faced a coup dݎtat on 1
February 2021. Min Aung Hlaing become the State leader. Hlaing
has also been serving commander-in-chief of armed forces.

27. Janata Party Government (1977) under the leadership of Morarji


Desai chose the path of “genuine non-alignment”, which means not
siding with any of the parties of the Cold War, being strictly non-
aligned.
Hence, the answer will be D.

28. Due to India-Pak war of 1971 and open US support to Pakistan


during the war, post-1971 Indian Foreign Policy shown a shift in its
working, which includes:

Indian foreign policy tilted towards the Soviet Union.


External security concerns received greater focus.
Threat perception from India’s neighbour increased.

Hence, the answer will be B.

30.

India is currently supplying a total of about 600 MW of power to


Nepal. An Agreement on ‘Electric Power Trade, Cross-border
Transmission Interconnection and Grid Connectivity’ between
India and Nepal was signed on 21 October 2014.
Afghan-India Friendship Dam, formerly Salma Dam, is a
hydroelectric and irrigation dam project located on the Hari River
in Chishti Sharif District of Herat Province in western
Afghanistan.
In 2019, Bangladesh gave China access to two of its largest
seaports—Chittagong and Mongla. China also signed a deal to
develop the Mongla port. China expressed interest and was
going to construct a deep sea port at Sonadia but it was later
cancelled citing environmental concerns.
Hence, the correct answer will be A.

34. Doklam Plateau is a disputed land between China and Bhutan.


Doklam area is spread over 100sq km at the trijunction between
India, Bhutan and China. Dispute over Doklam plateau is
aggravated in 2017 when China tried to construct a road in the
area. India objected the the road construction as the doklam is
strategically is significant for India as located close to Siliguri
Corridor (Chicken neck) which connects India with north-eastern
India.

40. During the Indira Gandhi years, India’s Monroe Doctrine was
buttressed by the principle of bilateralism. Under the so- called
Indira Doctrine, India insisted that the problems in the region must
be resolved bilaterally and that external powers should have no
role in the region. Since then, the principle has been a matter of
faith for Indian foreign policy makers. Recall the 1987 agreement
Rajiv Gandhi signed with Sri Lanka which insisted that Colombo
not offer bases to any other country. It equates India’s security with
that of South Asia.
Hence, the correct answer will be C.
UNIT VII
Political Institutions in India

Chapter 1: Making of the Indian Constitution


Chapter 2: Constituent Assembly
Chapter 3: Philosophy of the Constitution
Chapter 4: Constitutionalism in India
Chapter 5: Union Executive
Chapter 6: Union Parliament
Chapter 7: Judiciary
Chapter 8: Executive and Legislature in the States
Chapter 9: Federalism in India
Chapter 10: Electoral Process and Election Commission of
India
Chapter 11: Local Government Institutions in India
Chapter 12: Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
CHAPTER 1
Making of the Indian Constitution

INTRODUCTION
The Constitution of India is a document that evolved through the legislative
steps taken during the British Empire in India. The making of the Constitution
of India can be divided into two phases: Colonial Legislation (1858–1935) and
Constituent Assembly (1946–49).
The British government commenced various elements of governance
when the power was transferred from the East India Company to the British
Crown in the form of various Acts which included the representation of Indians
in the institutions of governance. The East India Company got the right to
collect the revenue i.e., Diwani Rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa after the
Battle of Buxar (1764).

REGULATING ACT OF 1773


It recognized that the role of East India Company in India extended beyond
mere trade to political and administrative fields and instituted the elements of
centralized administration.
The ‘Governor of Bengal’ was designated as the Governor-General of
Bengal.
It established an executive council of four members to help the
Governor-General of Bengal. Lord Warren Hastings was the first
Governor-General of Bengal.
The governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies were made
subordinate to the Governor-General of Bengal. Therefore, the
foundation of the central administration was laid in India.
Provided for establishing a Supreme Court, therefore, Supreme Court
was established at Calcutta (1774) consisting of one chief justice and
three other judges.
Strengthened the control of the British Government over the East India
Company by requiring the Court of Directors (the governing body of the
East India Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs
in India.

To sort out the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773, the British
Parliament passed the Amending Act of 1781. It was also known as the Act of
Settlement.

PITTS INDIA ACT 1784


Commercial and political functions of the East India Company were
distinguished under this Act.
The Court of Directors were allowed to manage the commercial affairs
but a new body which was known as the Board of Control was created
to manage the political affairs. Therefore, a system of double
government was established.
This new body i.e., the Board of Control was empowered to supervise
and direct the operations of the civil and military government, and
revenues of the British Possessions in India.

CHARTER ACTS

Charter Act of 1813 Charter Act of 1833 Charter Act of 1853


Charter Act of 1813 Charter Act of 1833 Charter Act of 1853
# Abolished the # Governor-General of # Separation of
monopoly of the trade Bengal was legislative and
of the East India designated as the administrative functions
Company in India. Governor-General of of the Governor-
# Sovereignity of the India. General’s Council.
British Crown was # Commercial # Local representation
asserted over the East functions of the East was introduced in the
India Company’s India Company ended Indian (Central)
territories in India. and it solely became Legislative Council.
# The local the administrative # System of open
government was body. competition was
authorized in India to # It abolished the introduced in the
impose taxes on legislative power of the selection and
persons. Governor of Bombay recruitment of civil
and Madras. servants.

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT, 1858


It provided that from then onwards India to be governed by and in the
name of, Her Majesty.
The Governor-General of India was designated as the Viceroy of India.
The system of double government was ended by abolishing the Board
of Control and the Court of Directors.
A new office was created i.e., of Secretary of State for India vested with
complete authority, who was a member of the British Cabinet and was
ultimately responsible to the British Parliament.
15 member council of India was created to help the Secretary of State
for India.

INDIAN COUNCILS ACT, 1861


This act improve involvement of Indians in the governance and
administration.
Some Indians should be nominated by the Viceroy as non-official
members of his expanded council.
Therefore, three members—the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja
of Patiala, and Sir Dinkar Rao were nominated by the then
Viceroy Lord Canning to his Legislative Council in 1862.
The legislative powers were restored to the Bombay and Madras
Presidencies. Therefore, the process of decentralization was initiated.
Portfolio System was recognized. It was introduced by Viceroy Lord
Canning in 1859.
It provided for establishing new legislative councils for Bengal, North
Western Provinces and Punjab which were established in 1862, 1886
and 1897 respectively.
Viceroy was empowered to issue ordinances during an emergency
without the concurrence of the Legislative Council.

INDIAN COUNCILS ACT, 1909


It is also known as the Morley Minto Reforms. Lord Morley was the then
Secretary of State for India and Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of India.
Through this Act, the attempt was made for the first time to bring in a
representative and popular element in the governance of the country.
The size of legislative councils both central and provincial was
increased. The number of members in the central legislative council
was increased from 16 to 60.
The provincial legislative councils were allowed to have a non-official
majority but the official majority was retained in Central Legislative
Council.
The deliberative functions of the legislative councils were enlarged at
both levels.
For the first time, the association of Indians with the executive councils
of the Viceroy and governor was introduced. Therefore, Satyendra
Prasad Sinha was the first Indian to join the Viceroy Executive
Council.
The concept of a separate electorate was accepted and thus, a system
of communal representation for Muslims was introduced.
Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT, 1919


It is also known as the Montague–Chelmsford Reforms. Montague was the
Secretary of State for India and Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India. The
objective of gradually introducing responsible government in India, but as an
integral part of the British Empire was announced by the British government
for the first time in August 1917. Therefore the Government of India Act of
1919 was enacted and it was enforced in 1921.

Introduced the system of Dyarchy


Provincial subjects were divided into two parts: transferred and
reserved subjects. The Governor with the aid of ministers administered
the transferred subjects.
Bicameralism and direct elections were introduced for the first time in
the country.
This act provided that there should be three of the 6 members of the
Viceroy’s Executive Council (other than the Commander in Chief)
Indian.
The principle of communal representation was extended by providing
separate electorates for Indian Christians, Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, and
Europeans.
The franchise was granted but to a limited number of people which was
on the basis of property tax or education.
A new office of the high commissioner for India in London was
established and some of the functions which were performed by the
secretary of state for India were transferred to him.
The Act provided for establishing a public service commission.
Therefore, a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 to
recruit civil servants.
Provincial budgets were separated from the central budget for the first
time and the provincial legislatures were authorized to enact their
budgets.
This Act also provided to appoint a statutory Commission for enquiry
into and reporting on the working of this act after 10 years of its
enforcement.

Simon Commission
The Government of India Act 1919 Act provided for appointing a royal
Commission after 10 years of the enactment of the Act. Therefore in 9
November 1927, 2 years before schedule the British government
announced for its appointment as the Indian Statutory Commission which
submitted its report in 1930 and recommended to abolish the diarchy and
extending the responsible government in the provinces, establishing of
Federation of British India and the princely states and to continue the
electorates.

Communal Award
It was announced as a scheme for the representation of minorities, in August
1932 by the then-British Prime Minister, Ramsay McDonald. It extended
the separate electorates to the depressed classes (Scheduled Castes) along
with continuing it for Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians, and
Europeans. However Poona Pact in 1932 prevented this extension of
separate electorates to Scheduled Caste and therefore, Scheduled Caste got
the reservation cancelling the idea of a separate electorate.

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT, 1935


Dyarchy was abolished in the provinces instead provincial autonomy
was introduced.
This act provided for establishing an All India Federation which
consists of provinces and the princely states as units.
This act also provided for establishing that Dyarchy was at the centre,
therefore, the federal subjects were divided into reserved subjects and
transfer subjects.
Bicameralism was introduced in 6 out of 11 provinces.
The Council of India which was established by the government of India
Act of 1858 was abolished.
The franchise was extended to about 10% of the total population.
The establishment of a Reserve Bank of India was also provided by
this act to control the currency and credit of the country.
This Act also provided for establishing a Federal Public Service
Commission along with a Provincial Public Service Commission and
Joint Public Service Commission for 2 or more provinces.
The establishment of a federal Court was also provided by this act
consequently which was set up in 1937.

INDEPENDENCE OF INDIA ACT, 1947


British rule ended in India and India was declared as an independent
insurance state on 15 August 1947.
Partition of India and the creation of two independent dominions of
India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British
commonwealth was provided by this act.
The office of the Viceroy was abolished. However, it provided for
appointing a Governor-General for each dominion by the British King
on the advice of the dominion cabinet.
The constituent assemblies of the two dominions were empowered to
frame and adopt any constitution for their respective nations and also
empowered to repeal any act of the British Parliament including the
Independence Act of 1947 itself.
The office of the Secretary of State for India was abolished and his
functions were transferred to the Secretary of State for Commonwealth
Affairs.
It also announced the lapse of British paramountcy over the princely
states of India and the Treaty relations with the tribal areas from 15
August 1947.
The princely states of India were granted freedom either to join the
dominion of India or Pakistan or to remain independent.
It also proclaimed that the governance of each of the dominions and
the provinces will be as per the Government of India Act 1935 till the
new constitutions were framed.
The British monarch was deprived of his right to veto bills or to ask for
the reservation of certain bills for his approval.
The Governor-General of India and the provincial governors were
designated as the constitutional (nominal) heads of the states.
This act also provided for dropping the title of the Emperor of India
from the royal titles of the King of England.
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Which of the following was not a feature of the Government of India Ac
1919?
(a) Provision for a bicameral legislature at the centre.
(b) The Legislative Assembly would have an elected majority and co
over ministers.
(c) Communal Representation was not only retained but extended.
(d) Enlarged the electorates both for provinces and empirical legislatur

2. Match the following:

List I (Acts) List II (Provisions)

I.Introduction of the
1. Government
bicameral legislature
of India Act,
for the first time.
1858.

II.Complete Imperial
2. Indian Control by the
Councils Secretary of State for
Act, 1861. India.

C.Indian III. Inclusion of non-official membe


Councils Act, the Executive Council of the
1909. Governor-General for the first t
D.Government IV.Separate
of India Act, representation of the
1919. Muslim community.

A B C D
(a) II III IV I
(b) III II I IV
(c) II IV III I
(d) III IV I II
3. Which of the following act led to the introduction of a dual system o
government in India?
(a) Pitts India Act, 1784
(b) The Regulating Act, 1773
(c) Charter Act 1813
(d) Charter Act 1833

4. Who and when was Portfolio System introduced?


(a) Lord Canning—1859
(b) Lord Mountbatten—1945
(c) Lord Mountbatten—1947
(d) Lord Canning—1861

5. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then Viceroy, nominated three Indians to hi


legislative council. Who is not among them?
(a) Raja of Benaras
(b) Maharaja of Patiala
(c) Sir Dinkar Rao
(d) Satyendra Prasad Sinha

6. Which of the following is not a feature of Regulating Act, 1773?


(a) It was the first step taken by the British Government to control
regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
(b) It recognised, for the first time, the political and administrative func
of the East India Company.
(c) It laid the foundations of central administration in India.
(d) It was the first step towards the decentralization of powers.

7. Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal?


(a) Lord Canning
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Bentick
(d) Lord Mountbatten
8. Which Act allowed Christian missionaries to come to India?
(a) Charter Act of 1833
(b) Charter Act of 1813
(c) Regulating Act of 1773
(d) Pitts India Act, 1784

9. Which Act was the final step towards centralization in British India?
(a) Charter Act of 1813
(b) Charter Act of 1833
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Regulating Act of 1773

10. Who was the first Viceroy of India?


(a) Lord Canning
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Bentick
(d) Lord Mountbatten

11. Which of the following is not correct about Montford Reforms?


(a) It relaxed central control over the provinces by demarcating
separating the central and provincial subjects.
(b) It required that three of the six members of the Viceroy’s Exec
Council (other than the Commander-in-Chief) were to be Indian.
(c) It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Ce
budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact
budgets.
(d) It abolished dyarchy in the provinces.

12. Which of the following statement/s about the Government of India


Act,1935 are not true?
A. In 6 of the provinces, the legislature was bicameral.

B. The Governor-General had the power to make permanent acts


ordinances.
C. The residuary powers of legislation were vested in the ce
legislature.
D. Education as a subject was with the central legislature.
E. Separate representation was provided only to the Muslim community

Codes:
(a) A, B, C, and E
(b) B, D, and E
(c) B, C, D, and E
(d) A, C, D, and E

13. In which of the following Acts, the provincial subjects were divided into
transferred and reserved subjects?
(a) Indian Council Act, 1892
(b) Indian Council Act, 1909
(c) Montague Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

14. Simon Commission submitted its report in:


(a) 1928
(b) 1929
(c) 1930
(d) 1931

15. Which Act provided for the establishment of The Reserve Bank of
India?
(a) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Indian Council Act, 1909

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.
(b) (a) (b) (a) (c) (c) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (c)
(a) (d) (b) (d)
3. 6.
9. (b)
(a) (d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

6. Indian Council Act 1861 initiated the process of decentralization b


restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies

8. The Charter Act of 1813 allowed Christian missionaries to come to Indi


for the purpose of enlightening the people.

9. Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor-General of Bengal as th


Governor- General of India and vested in him all civil and militar
powers. It deprived the governors of Bombay and Madras of the
legislative powers.

11. Government of India Act of 1935 abolished dyarchy in the provinces


and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place.
CHAPTER 2
Constituent Assembly

INTRODUCTION
M. N. Roy proposed the concept of a constituent assembly for the first
time in 1934. The Congress Party adopted the demand as an official
demand in 1935. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru declared that the
‘Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by
a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of the adult franchise’. This
was accepted by the British in the August Offer of 1940.
Elections for the constituent assembly were held under the Cabinet
Mission Plan of 1946. The constituent assembly was formed to draft a
constitution for independent India.
COMPOSITION OF THE CONSTITUENT
ASSEMBLY
On 9 December 1946, the first meeting was held. Dr Sachchidanand
Sinha (the oldest member) served as the meeting’s temporary president.
The Constituent Assembly formally began its task of drafting the Indian
Constitution on 13 December 1946, when Jawaharlal Nehru
introduced the Objectives Resolution. It laid down the fundamentals and
philosophy of the constitutional structure. This resolution was unanimously
adopted by the assembly on 22 January 1947.
Rajendra Prasad was elected President of the Constituent
Assembly, with Two Vice-Presidents V. T. Krishnamachari and H. C.
Mookerjee. Sir B. N. Rau was appointed as the assembly’s
constitutional advisor. The elephant was adopted as the symbol (seal) of
the Constituent Assembly.

Assembly’s Important Characteristics


1. The assembly has a total of 389 seats (296 seats for British India
and 93 seats for princely states).
2. The British India seats were drawn from eleven governor’s
provinces and four chief commissioner’s provinces.
3. Seats were assigned in proportion to their respective populations.
4. Seats were to be allocated to each British province based on the
three major communities: Muslims, Sikhs, and others.
5. Members of each community were to elect representatives to the
provincial legislative assembly, and voting was to be done by
proportional representation with a single transferrable vote.
6. The heads of princely states were to nominate representatives for
these princely states.

It was a partially elected and partly nominated body. Members were


indirectly elected by members of provincial assemblies who were elected
on a tax, property or education.
The 93 seats allotted to princely states were not filled because they
chose not to participate in the Constituent Assembly. Although the
Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people of India using
the adult franchise, it included representatives from all sections of Indian
society, including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Parsis, Anglo-Indians, Indian
Christians, SCs, STs, and women from all of these groups.
The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time,
with the exception of M. K. Gandhi.
CHANGED COMPOSITION OF THE
CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY AFTER
INDEPENDENCE
The assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any
constitution it pleased after the enactment of the Indian Independence Act
of 1947. The assembly also became a legislative body. In other words, the
assembly was charged with two distinct tasks: drafting a constitution for a
free India and enacting general laws for the country. When the assembly
met as the constituent body, Dr Rajendra Prasad presided, and when
it met as the legislative body, G. V. Mavlankar presided.
Members of the Muslim League resigned from India’s Constituent
Assembly. As a result, the Assembly’s total membership fell to 299, down
from 389 under the Cabinet Mission Plan in 1946. The Indian provinces’
(formerly British Provinces’) strength was reduced from 296 to 229, and
the princely states from 93 to 70.

MAJOR CONSTITUTIONAL DEBATES

1. Between Gandhians and Modernists


Gandhians desired democratic decentralization or Panchayati Raj,
whereas Jawaharlal Nehru and Dr B. R. Ambedkar preferred
representative democracy.

2. Debates about the Nature of Federalism


Whether India should follow the Cabinet Mission Plan’s model of weak
federalism, whereas Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Vallabhbhai
Patel preferred a centralized federation with a strong centre.

3. Presidential System vs the Parliamentary System


K. M. Munshi supported the presidential system, whereas Jawaharlal
Nehru supported the parliamentary system.

4. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles


There was a lengthy discussion about the relationship between
Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, particularly the right to
property, secularism, reservation policy, uniform civil code, and so on.
Many members were dissatisfied when social and economic rights were
included in Part IV.

5. The System of Judicial Appointment


Some members proposed appointing judges, while Dr B. R. Ambedkar
was opposed to judges appointing judges.

6. Debate on the Preamble


The use of the words ‘God’ and ‘Gandhi’ in the Preamble was also a
source of contention.

IMPORTANT DATES AND DECISIONS OF CONSTITUENT


ASSEMBLY
It ratified India’s membership in the Commonwealth in May 1949.
It adopted the national flag on 22 July 1947.
It adopted the national anthem on 24 January 1950.
On 24 January 1950, it adopted the national song.
On 24 January 1950, it elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as
India’s first President.
The constituent assembly held its final session on 24 January
1950.

MAJOR COMMITTEES
1. Union Powers Committee: Presided by Jawaharlal
Nehru.
2. Union Constitution Committee: Presided by Jawaharlal
Nehru.
3. Provincial Constitution Committee: Presided by Saradar
Vallabhbhai Patel.
4. Drafting Committee: President by Dr B. R. Ambedkar.
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights,
Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas: Presided by
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. It had the following sub-
committees:
A. FR Sub-committee: J. B. Kripalani
B. Minorities Sub-committee: H. C. Mukherjee
C. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam exclu
and partially excluded areas sub-committee: Gopi
Bardoloi
D. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Commi
A. V. Thakkar
6. Rule Procedure Committee: Dr Rajendra Prasad
7. States Committee for Negotiating with States:
Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Steering Committee: Dr Rajendra Prasad

DRAFTING COMMITTEE
The most important committee was the Drafting Committee set up on 29
August 1947. It consisted of seven members, they were: Dr B. R.
Ambedkar (Chairman), N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi
Krishnaswamy Ayyar, Dr K. M. Munshi, Syed Mohammad
Saadullah, N. Madhava Rau (he replaced B. L. Mitter), T. T.
Krishnamachari (he replaced D. P. Khaitan).

ENACTMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION


Dr B. R. Ambedkar presented the final draft of the constitution to the
assembly in 1948.
On 26 November 1949, the constituent assembly adopted, enacted,
and gave themselves the constitution. It contained a Preamble, 395
Articles, 22 Parts and 8 Schedules. On the aforementioned date, some
provisions of the constitution went into effect. The Indian government in
2015 declared 26 November to celebrated as ‘Constitution Day’ every
year.
However, the majority of the provisions went into effect on 26 January
1950. The constitution refers to this date as the ‘date of its
commencement’. Every year, this day is observed as ‘Republic Day’. The
constitution-makers chose this day to honour the ‘Purna Swaraj’, which
began on 26 January 1930.

CRITICISM OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY


Despite its precise and dynamic composition, it was criticized for some
aspects:
not a representative body,
not a sovereign body,
time-consuming,
dominated by congress,
lawyer–politician domination, and
dominated by Hindus.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who called Constituent Assembly a ‘Drifting Committee’?
(a) Naziruddin Ahmed
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Granville Austin
(d) B. N. Rau

2. The demand for a constituent assembly was accepted under the?


(a) Cripps Mission
(b) August Offer
(c) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) Simon Commission

3. The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme


formulated by?
(a) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(b) August Offer
(c) Cripps Mission
(d) Cabinet Mission Plan

4. Which statement is wrong about the constituent assembly?


(a) Rajendra Prasad was elected President of the constit
assembly.
(b) The heads of princely states were to nominate representative
these princely states.
(c) Seats were assigned in proportion to their respective population
(d) It was a completely elected body.

5. When was Objective Resolution was adopted by the Constituen


Assembly?
(a) 22 January 1947
(b) 26 January 1947
(c) 26 November 1947
(d) 30 October 1947

6. Match the following

a)Union Constitution Committee 1. Dr Rajendra Prasad

b)Steering Committee 2. Jawaharlal Nehru


c)Provincial Constitution Committee
3. S. Varadachari

d)Ad Hoc Committee on Supreme Court


4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Pa

(a) a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3


(b) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
(c) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
(d) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4

7. Why was 26 January chosen as the ‘date of commencement’ of the


constitution?
(a) Nehru Report
(b) Do or Die Slogan
(c) Purna Swaraj
(d) Poona Pact

8. Apart from H. C. Mookerji, who was chosen as the Vice President o


the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
(b) V. T. Krishnamachari
(c) B. N. Rau
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

9. Who was the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly?


(a) Dr Sachchidanand Sinha
(b) S. Varadachari
(c) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
(d) Sir B. N. Rau

10. The Preamble is a modified version of which document?


(a) Nehru Report
(b) Objective Resolution
(c) Purna Swaraj Resolution
(d) JVP Committee Report

11. Who proposed the Constituent Assembly for the very first time?
(a) M. K. Gandhi
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) M. N. Roy

12. Who among the following referred to the Constituent Assembly of


India as a ‘Microcosm in action’?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Granville Austin
(c) Rajni Kothari
(d) Rajendra Prasad

13. For which purpose was the Cabinet Mission sent to India?
(A) To establish a national government.
(B) To work out a constitutional arrangement for the transfer of pow
(C) To suppress the intensity of the national movement.
(D) A Constituent Assembly to be elected by provincial assem
through proportional representation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and C only
(b) B, C, and D only
(c) A, B, and D only
(d) A and D only

14. In whose description did Maulana Azad, Jawaharlal Nehru,


Vallabhbhai Patel, and Rajendra Prasad formed an oligarchy within
the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Granville Austin
(b) Morris Jones
(c) V. P. Menon
(d) Richard Sisson

15. The Constituent Assembly of India was comprised of?


(a) 292 members from British provinces, 4 from C
Commissionaires, and 93 from Princely States.
(b) 294 members from British provinces, 4 from C
Commissionaires, and 91 from Princely States.
(c) 291 members from British provinces, 3 from C
Commissionaires, and 95 from Princely States.
(d) 292 members from British provinces, 5 from C
Commissionaires, and 92 from Princely States.

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(a) (d) (c) (b) (b) (a) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (c)
(b) (a) (b) (d)
3. 6.
9. (d)
(d) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Naziruddin Ahmad has coined a new name for the Drafting


Committee evidently to show his contempt for it. He calls it a Drifting
Committee.
12. Granville Austin was the author of two seminal political histories of
the constitution of India, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a
Nation and Working a Democratic Constitution: The Indian
Experience. Granville Austin referred to the Constituent Assembly of
India as a ‘Microcosm in action’.

13. A Cabinet Mission came to India in 1946 in order to discuss the


transfer of power from the British government to the Indian political
leadership, with the aim of preserving India’s unity and granting its
independence. Formed at the initiative of Clement Attlee (the Prime
Minister of the United Kingdom), the mission contained as its
members, Lord Pethick-Lawrence (Secretary of State for India), Sir
Stafford Cripps (President of the Board of Trade), and A. V.
Alexander (First Lord of the Admiralty).

14. Granville Austin’s ‘The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation’,


is a biographical sketch of Constituent Assembly debates and
constitution-making of India. Granville Austin in his book called
Maulana Azad, Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, and Rajendra
Prasad are the key members who played a significant role in the
Constituent Assembly.
CHAPTER 3
Philosophy of the Constitution

INTRODUCTION
Every constitution has a philosophy of its own. The constitution lays down
the basic governing set of principles of governance to establish the primary
organs and structure, functions, composition, and powers of government.
Regarding the philosophy of the Indian Constitution, we must look back into
the Objective Resolution (22 January 1947), of Jawaharlal Nehru.

THE PREAMBLE OF THE INDIAN


CONSTITUTION
The preamble is a brief introduction to the constitution. The preamble to our
constitution serves two purposes: first, as a ‘source’ from which the
constitution derives its authority and second as the ‘objectives’ from which
the constitution seeks to establish and promote. The preamble has been
amended only once. That was in the forty-second Constitutional
Amendment Act, of 1976 when three new terms were added—Socialist,
Secular, and integrity. The preamble of India has borrowed some principles
from the US, France, and Russia.

Preamble

We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute


India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, social, economic and political;
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; Equality of
status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all Fraternity
assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the
Nation;
In our constituent assembly this twenty-sixth day of
November, 1949, do hereby adopt, enact and give to
ourselves this constitution.

Key Terms Significance


Sovereign It means the independent authority of a State. In
India, the people are the source of all the
country’s power and authority, hence, establishing
Popular Sovereignty.
Socialist The forty-second Constitutional Amendment Act
(1976) added this to the constitution. It implies
socio-economic justice and a more equal society.
The Indian state advocates for nationalized
economic development, resource nationalization,
and limited freedom for private businesses and
industries.
Secular Added by the forty-second Constitutional
Amendment Act (1976). The state protects all
religions equally and does not declare one to be
the official religion.
Democratic The Constitution envisions a representative
democracy in which the people of India elect their
representatives through universal adult suffrage.
Republic It means that India will have an elected President
as its leader and that all government offices,
including the President’s, will be open to all
citizens.
Justice Meaning the harmonization of interests between
individuals and society. Justice has three facets—
(a) Social Justice, (b) Economic Justice, and (c)
Political Justice.
Liberty It means an absence of interference in individual
action by the government. In India, liberty would
mean freedom to do what one likes but it also
means liberty must be regulated in the larger
interest of society.
Key Terms Significance
Equality The preamble talks of equality of status and
opportunity and has got legal, social, political, and
economic dimensions.
Fraternity Sense of brotherhood and the word ‘Vasudev
Kutumbakam’ means the whole world is one
family and Article 51 of the Directive Principles of
State Policy (DPSP) elaborates on this principle.

PREAMBLE RELATED JUDICIAL CASES


1. Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan: Held that the preamble
indicates the source of the constitution. It is an introduction to the
statute and is useful to understand the legislative intent and policy.
2. Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves: Court stated that the
‘Preamble is the key to opening the mind of the makers’ but it cannot
be considered as part of the constitution. Therefore, it is not
enforceable in a court of law.
3. Keshava Nanda Bharti vs State of Kerala: Held that the preamble
is a part of the constitution and is amendable. Court said, that the
preamble is not the supreme power or source of any restriction or
prohibition but it plays an important role in the interpretation of
statutes and provisions of the constitution.
Also made it clear that it can be amended under Article 368.
SC held that the amendment should not destroy the essence or
basic features.

QUOTES ON PREAMBLE
‘Identity card of the constitution.’—N. A. Palkhivala
‘The preamble to our constitution expresses what we had thought or
dreamt so long.’—Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
‘The horoscope of our constitution.’—Dr K. M. Munshi
‘It is the soul of the constitution. It is a key to the constitution. It is a
jewel set in the constitution. It is a proper yardstick with which one
can measure the worth of the constitution.’—Pandit Thakur Das
Bhargava
‘Key-note of the constitution.’—Sir Ernest Baker
‘Preamble is the soul of our constitution, which lays down the pattern
of our political society. It contains a solemn resolve, which nothing
but a revolution can alter.’—Former Chief Justice of India, M.
Hidayatullah

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
Part III Articles 12–35 of the Indian Constitution provides a list of
fundamental rights and is termed as a Magna Carta of India. They are
called fundamental because of two reasons: first, they are enshrined in the
constitution which guarantees them, and second, they are justiciable
(enforceable by courts).

Fundament Articles & Provisions


al Rights
Right to 1. Article 14: Equality before the law or the equal
Equality protection of the laws.
(Articles 14–
18) 2. Article 15: Non-discrimination against any citizen on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth,
or any of them.
3. Article 16: Equality of opportunity for all citizens in
matters relating to employment or appointment to any
office under the State.
4. Article 17: Abolition of untouchability.
5. Article 18: Abolition of all titles except military and
academic.
Right to 1. Article 19: Protection of six rights concerning the
Freedom
freedom of:
(Articles 19–
22) 1. speech and expression,
2. assembly,
3. association,
4. movement,
5. residence, and
6. profession.
2. Article 20: Protection with respect to conviction for
offences.
3. Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty.
4. Article 21A: Right to elementary education.
5. Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in
certain cases.
Right Against 1. Article 23: Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
Exploitation
forced labour.
(Articles 23–
24) 2. Article 24: Prohibition of employment of children in
factories.
Right to 1. Article 25: Freedom of conscience, profession,
Freedom of practice, and propagation of religion.
Religion
(Articles 25– 2. Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs.
28) 3. Article 27: Freedom as to payment of taxes for the
promotion of any particular religion.
4. Article 28: To attendance at religious instruction or
religious worship in certain educational institutions.
Cultural and
1. Article 29: Protection of the interests of minorities.
Educational
Rights 2. Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and
(Articles 29– administer educational institutions.
30)
Right to The Constitution guarantees remedies if citizens’
Constitutional fundamental rights are violated. Citizens can even go
Remedies directly to the Supreme Court which can issue writs
(Article 32) (Habeas Corpus, Certiorari, Prohibition, Mandamus,
Quo Warranto) for enforcing fundamental rights.

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AVAILABLE FOR


FOREIGNERS
Equality before the law and equal protection of laws.—Article 14
Protection in respect of conviction for offences.—Article 20
Protection of life and personal liberty.—Article 21
Elementary education.—Article 21A
Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.—Article
22
Traffic and human beings and forced labour.—Article 23
Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.—Article 24
Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and
propagation of religion.—Article 25
Freedom to manage religious affairs.—Article 26
Freedom from payment of taxes for the promotion of any religion.—
Article 27
Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain
educational institutions.—Article 28

ABOLITION AND EVOLUTION OF


FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AFTER 1950
Regarding the evolution of fundamental rights, the apex court has provided
various judgements including A. K. Gopalan vs State of Madras (1950), this
case led the Supreme Court of India to that Article 21 of the constitution
shall not require the Indian courts to apply the due process of law. Shankari
Prasaad vs Union of India (1952), this case held that the power to amend
the constitution under Article 368 also includes the power to amend
fundamental rights. Golaknath vs the State of Punjab (1967), this case
ruled that parliament does not have the power to curtail any of the
fundamental rights in the constitution. Kesavananda Bharati vs the State of
Kerala (1973), this case held that the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution
can’t be abrogated by a constitutional amendment in fundamental rights.
Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975), in this case, the apex court added
certain features as ‘basic features’ to the already existing list of basic
features. Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India (1978), this case held that a
‘procedure’ under Article 21 of the constitution must be free from arbitrary,
unfair, oppressive, or unreasonable aspects. Originally the constitution
provided seven fundamental rights but later ‘The Right to Property’ was
removed from the list by the forty-fourth Constitutional Amendment Act of
1978.
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATES POLICY
Part IV of the Constitution of India (Articles 36–51) contains the Directive
Principles of State Policy, and it is not enforceable by law, (non-justiciable).
Directive Principles of State Policy were included in the constitution to set
the governance in India on the path to achieving the target of social as well
as economic democracy in India.
DPSP were borrowed from Irish Constitution.
Similar to ‘instrument of instructions’ in GOI act 1935.
DPSP are only advisory provisions.
Minerva Mill case - the Indian Const. founded bedrock of the balance
between FR & DPSP.

Gandhian Principles
Article 40 The State shall take steps to organize
village panchayats as units of self-
government.
Article 43 The State shall endeavour to promote
cottage industries on an individual or
cooperative basis in rural areas.
Article 43B To promote voluntary formation,
autonomous functioning, democratic
control and professional management of
cooperative societies.
Article 46 The State shall promote the
educational and economic
interests of the weaker sections of
the people, particularly that of the
Scheduled Castes (SCs),
Scheduled Tribes (STs), and other
weaker sections.
Article 47 The State shall take steps to improve
public health and prohibit the
consumption of intoxicating drinks and
drugs that are injurious to health.
Article 48 To prohibit the slaughter of cows,
calves and other milch and draught
cattle and to improve their breeds.

Socialist Principles

Article 38 The State shall strive to promote the


welfare of the people by securing and
protecting a social order by ensuring
social, economic, and political
justice and by minimising
inequalities in income, status, facilities,
and opportunities.
Article 39 To secure, the right of adequate means of
livelihood, equitable distribution of material
resources of the community for the
common good, prevention of concentration
of wealth and means of production, equal
pay for equal work for men and women,
preservation of health and strength of
workers and children against forcible
abuse, and opportunities for the healthy
development of the child.
Article 39A To promote equal justice and to provide
free legal aid to the poor.
Article 41 To secure the right to work, to
education and to public
assistance in cases of
unemployment, old age, sickness,
and disablement.
Article 42 Make provisions for just and humane
conditions for work and maternity relief.
Article 43 To secure a living wage, a decent
standard of living and social and
cultural opportunities for all
workers.
Article 43A Steps to secure the participation of
workers in the management of industries.
Article 47 Raise the level of nutrition and the
standard of living of people and
improve public health.

Liberal-Intellectual Principles
Article 44 A Uniform Civil Code.
Article 45 Early childhood care and education till the
age of six years of age.
Article 48 Agriculture and animal husbandry on
modern and scientific lines.
Article 48A Protect and improve the environment and
to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the
country.
Article 49 Protect every monument or place of artistic
or historic interest.
Article 50 Separate the judiciary from the executive
in the public services of the State.
Article 51 To establish international peace and
security.

New Directive Principles of State Policy by


Amendments
The forty-second Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 added four
new Directive Principles of State Policy.
Article 39: Secure opportunities for the healthy development of
children.
Article 39A: Promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to
the poor.
Article 43A: Participation of workers in the management of
industries.
Article 48A: Protect and improve the environment and to
safeguard forests and wildlife.
The forty-fourth Amendment Act of 1978, added a new Directive
Principles of State Policy which requires the State to minimise
inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
The eighty-sixth Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter
of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right
under Article 21A.
The ninety-seventh Amendment Act of 2011, added a new Directive
Principles of State Policy under Article 43B relating to cooperative
societies.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. What are the two main purposes served by the Preamble to India’
Constitution?
(a) Source and Subject
(b) Subject and Objectives
(c) Source and Objectives
(d) Justice and Freedom

2. Which of the following includes the notion of ‘Vasudev Kutumbakam


as a philosophy of our constitution?
(a) Justice
(b) Liberty
(c) Equality
(d) Fraternity

3. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:


A. The word Socialist was added by the forty-fourth Constitutional Am
Act of 1978.

B. The word Republic implies that India will have the president as a
head and its position will not be open to all citizens.
C. Regarding the philosophy of the Indian Constitution, we must loo
the Objective Resolution.
D. In the Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves case, the c
held that the constitution is the key to opening the minds of
makers of the constitution.
Select the correct answer from the options below:
(a) Only A, B, and C
(b) Only B, C, and D
(c) Only A, B, and D
(d) All

4. Which of the following fundamental rights are available to foreigner


as well?
(a) Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
(b) Abolition of untouchability.
(c) Abolition of titles except military and academic.
(d) Protection of the interests of minorities.

5. Match the following;

Article Contents

1. Article (21A) 1. Workers and Management.

2. Article (43A) 2. Free Legal Aid.

C. Article (48A) 3. Elementary Education.

D. Article (39A) 4. Environment and Forests.

Choose the correct option from the following:


(a) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(b) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(c) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(d) A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3

6. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) an


the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Keshavananda Bharti case held that the preamble
is a part of the constitution and is amendable but the amendment
should not violate the basic structure of the constitution.
Reason (R): Maneka Gandhi case held that a procedure under
Article 21 of the must be free from arbitrary, unfair, unreasonable
aspects.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

7. Which of the following Articles comes under the Gandhian Principles?


(a) Articles 40, 47, and 43B
(b) Articles 41, 42, and 43A
(c) Articles 44, 50, and 51
(d) Articles 38, 49, and 41

8. Which Constitutional Amendment Act added four new Directiv


Principles of States Policy?
(a) Forty-Fourth Amendment Act of 1978
(b) Forty-Second Amendment Act of 1976
(c) Eighty-Sixth Amendment Act of 2002
(d) Ninety-Seventh Amendment Act of 2011

9. Which Article ensures the Educational and Economic interests of th


weaker sections, particularly that of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and
Scheduled Tribes (STs)?
(a) Article 38
(b) Article 39
(c) Article 40
(d) Article 41

10. Which Constitutional Amendment Act added the new Directive


Principles of State Policy under Article 43B relating to cooperative
societies?
(a) Forty-Second Amendment Act
(b) Forty-Fourth Amendment Act
(c) Ninety-Seventh Amendment Act
(d) Eighty-Sixth Amendment Act

11. What is the correct order in which the following terms are enshrined
in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Equality
(b) Liberty
(c) Justice
(d) Fraternity
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (a), (b), (c), and (d)
(b) (c), (b), (a), and (d)
(c) (b), (a), (c), and (d)
(d) (c), (a), (b), and (d)

12 Preamble of the Indian Constitution is written in the name of…India.


(a) Judiciary
(b) People of India
(c) Legislature
(d) President

13. The Preamble of the Constitution of India was amended by?


(a) Thirty-Sixth Amendment
(b) Twenty-Sixth Amendment
(c) Forty-Second Amendment
(d) Fiftieth Amendment

14. Which of the following two statements are correct regarding the
Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Justice—Social, Economic, and Political
(B) Liberty of Thought, Expression, Belief, Faith, and Worship
(C) Equality of Status, Character, and Opportunity
(D) Fraternity Assuring the Dignity and Respect of the Individual
Choose the correct option:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A) and (D)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (B)

15. Which one of the following Acts have not been passed under Article
34 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Border Security Force Act
(b) The Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act
(c) Armed Forces Special Power Act
(d) The Army Act

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(c) (a) (a) (c) (b) (d) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (c)
(d) (b) (b) (b)
3. 6.
9. (b)
(c) (b)
Explanation for Selected Questions

14. Options C and D are incorrect because according to Indian


Preamble, equality of status and opportunity, promoting among them
all fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and
integrity of the nation are the goals.

15. Article 34 of the constitution provides for the restrictions on


fundamental rights while martial law is in force and martial law is
imposed in situations like war, invasion, rebellion, riot, or any violent
resistance to the law. It also empowers the parliament to compensate
any government employee or any person for his acts done for the
maintenance and restoration of public order where martial law was in
force.
CHAPTER 4
Constitutionalism in India

INTRODUCTION
Rule of law is a principle that was part of Indian society since ancient times.
During the era of the Indian Independence Movement, Indian leaders
understood the drawbacks of an authoritarian government due to the
misuse and atrocities of the British administration. The founder of modern
India had a clear vision of India as a country of empowered masses, the
constitutional democratic path was put forward during the national
movement and it culminated with the establishment of a constituent
Assembly and then the enactment of the Indian Constitution on 26 January
1950.
Though sailing successfully into its seventy-fifth year, as a constitutional
democracy, India’s journey has been of many back and forths. Cherished
as the ‘living document’, the constitutional history of India is full of landmark
moments that not only strengthened Indian democracy but at times created
new public discourse about the relevance and meaning of being a
democratic polity.
For the first time, it was the Regulating Act of 1773 which started the
tradition of governing through statutes in India. Other than the acts of the
British Raj, the Indian National Movement also contributed significantly
towards the process of ‘constitutionalism’ of the Indian Freedom Movement,
for instance, the idea of the constitution forwarded by M. N. Roy,
Jawaharlal Nehru Report of 1928, and Karachi Session of Indian National
Congress in 1931.

PRINCIPLES OF DEMOCRACY IN INDIA


Being the largest democracy on the planet, India has developed its own
principles of democratic governance. These principles as spelt out by
Indian Constitution, legal precedents, parliamentary conventions, and
political tradition include:
free and fair elections,
institutions as the hallmark of democracy,
judiciary as the guardian of the constitution,
government policies to ensure:
justice—social, economic, and political,
equality of status and opportunity, and
the level playing field for historically disadvantaged sections.
free press, and freedom of speech and expression,
promotion of shared life, cooperative values, and secular society,
and
the grassroots governance through Panchayati Raj.

LAWS & ACTS FOR SOCIAL CHANGE &


NATIONAL UNITY

Objective Laws/Act
Acts for Welfare and # The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, # The
Empowerment of Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005, # The Prohibition of
Women Child Marriage Act, 2006, # The Sexual
Harassment of Women at Workplace
(Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal)
Act, 2013, and
# The Muslim Women (Protection of
Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019.
Acts for Vulnerable # National Rural Employment Guarantee
Sections of Act, 2005, # The Right of Children to Free
and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, #
Populations, Health, The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection
Education, and Human of Children) Act, 2015, # The Protection of
Resource Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012,
# National Food Security Act, 2013, # The
Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2016, and
# The Transgender Persons (Protection of
Rights) Act, 2019.
Objective Laws/Act
Acts Promoting # The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988,
Transparency in # The Central Vigilance Commission Act,
2003, and
Governance # The Right to Information Act, 2005.
Acts Protecting # The Indian Forest Act, 1927, # The
Environment and Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, # The
Environment Protection Act, 1986, # The
Biodiversity Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974, and
# The Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006 [Also known as
FRA—Forest Rights Act].
Acts for # The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, #
Consolidations and The North-eastern Areas (Reorganization)
Act, 1971, # The J&K Reorganization Act,
Reorganizations 2019, and
within the Country # The Goods and Services Tax
and Economic Legislation, 2017.
Integration

PROVISIONS OF CHECKS AND BALANCES IN


THE CONSTITUTION

Legislature Control
On Judiciary: Power to impeach and remove the judges. Power to
amend laws declared ultra vires by the court and revalidate them.
On Executive: Through a no-confidence vote Legislature can
dissolve the government. It has the power to assess the working of the
executive through the question hour and zero hour. It can also impeach the
head of state i.e., the President.

Executive Control
On Judiciary: Making appointments to the office of Chief Justice and
other judges.
On Legislature: Powers under delegated legislation. Authority to
make rules for regulating their respective procedure and conduct of
business subject to the provisions of this constitution.

Judicial Control
On Executive: Judicial review i.e., the power to review executive action
to determine if it violates the constitution. Power to judicial review under
Articles 13, 32, and 226.
On Legislature: Unamend ability of the constitution under the basic
structure doctrine pronounced by the Supreme Court in Kesavananda
Bharati Case 1973. The doctrine of ‘due process of law’.

IDEA OF BASIC STRUCTURE

Origin & Debates


The Basic Structure Doctrine came into the picture in the landmark
judgment of the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973). The constitutional
bench of the Supreme Court ruled by a 7–6 verdict that the Parliament
could amend any part of the constitution so long as it did not alter or amend
the basic structure or essential features of the constitution.
The doctrine of basic structure is nothing but a judicial innovation to
ensure that the power of amendment is not misused by the
Parliament.
The idea is that the basic features of the constitution of India should
not be altered to an extent that the identity of the constitution is lost
in the process.
Indian Constitution upholds certain principles which are the
governing rules for the Parliament, any amendment cannot change
these principles and this is what the doctrine of basic structure
upholds.
The doctrine as we have today was not always present but over the
years it has been propounded and upheld by the judicial officers of
this country.

List of Basic Structures


The Supreme Court did not define the term ‘basic structure’, and only listed
a few principles—federalism, secularism, and democracy—as being its
part. The Basic Structure Doctrine has since been interpreted to include
the:
supremacy of the constitution—(Minerva Mills Case, 1980),
the rule of law—(Indira Sawhney Case, 1992),
independence of the judiciary—(NJAC Case, 2015),
the doctrine of separation of powers,
a sovereign democratic republic,
the parliamentary system of government,
the principle of free and fair elections—(Kihoto Hollohan Case,
1992),
the welfare state, and
secularism—(S. R. Bommai Case, 1994).

CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT

Provisions of Constitutional Amendments


There are three types of amendments to the Constitution of India of which
the second and third types of amendments are governed by Article 368
(Part XX).

1. The first type of amendment includes those that can be passed by a


‘simple majority’ in each house of the Parliament.
2. The second type of amendment includes that can be affected by the
parliament by a prescribed ‘special majority’ in each house of the
Parliament.
3. The third type of amendment includes those that require ratification
by at least half of the state legislatures, in addition to such a ‘special
majority’ in each house of the Parliament.

List of Major Constitutional Amendments

No. & Year Reason Amendments


No. & Year Reason Amendments

First, 1951 To remove certain Empowered the state to make


practical difficulties special provisions for the
created by the advancement of socially and
court’s decision in economically backward classes.
several cases such [Article 15(4) and Article 16(4)
as the Kameshwar were added.]
Singh Case, Provided for the saving of laws
Romesh Thapar providing for the acquisition of
Case, etc. estates, etc.
Issues involved in The ninth schedule was added to
the cases included protect the land reforms and other
freedom of speech, laws included in it from judicial
acquisition of the review. After Article 31, Articles
zamindari land, the 31A and 31B were added.
state monopoly of
trade, etc. Three more grounds for restrictions
on freedom of speech and
expression were added: public
order, friendly relations with foreign
states, and incitement to crime.
Also, it made the sanctions
‘reasonable’ and thus, equitable in
nature.
Provided that the state trade and
the nationalization of any trade or
business by the state shall not be
invalidated on the ground of
infringement of the right to trade or
business.

Forth, 1955 Made the scale of compensation to be given in lieu of


compulsory acquisition of private property beyond the
scrutiny of the courts.
Authorized the state to nationalize any business. Some
more Acts were included in the ninth schedule.
The scope of Article 31A (saving of laws) has been
extended.
No. & Year Reason Amendments

Seventh, To implement the The second and seventh


1956 recommendations schedules were amended.
of the State Abolished the existing
Reorganization classification of states into four
Committee and to categories i.e., Part A, Part B, Part
implement the State C, and Part D states and
Reorganization Act, reorganized them into 14 states
1956.
and 6 union territories.
Extension of jurisdiction of High
Courts to Union Territories.
Provided for the establishment of a
common High Court for two or
more States.
Provided for the appointment of
additional and officiating judges of
higher.
No. & Year Reason Amendments

Ninth, 1960 After the Nehru– Facilitated the cession of the


Noon Pact was Indian territory of the Berubari
signed to divide the Union (located in West Bengal) to
territory of the Pakistan as provided in the Indo–
Berubari Union Pakistan Agreement (1958).
between India and
Pakistan, the West
Bengal government
opposed it. The
Union then referred
the matter to the
Supreme Court,
which held that
Parliament’s power
(under Article 3) to
reduce the area of a
State did not
include the ceding
of Indian territory to
a foreign country.
Therefore, Indian
territory can be
handed over to a
foreign state only by
amending the
constitution under
Article 368.

Twenty- Included Sindhi as the fifteenth language in the eighth


First, 1967 schedule.
No. & Year Reason Amendments

Twenty- It was brought in Confirmed the Parliament’s power


Fourth, 1971 response to the to amend any part of the
Supreme Court’s Constitution, including fundamental
Golaknath rights, by amending Articles 13 and
Judgment (1967) 368.
which held that the Made it mandatory for the
Parliament did not President to give his assent to the
have the power to Constitution Amendment Bill.
take away any
fundamental right
through an
amendment to the
constitution.

Twenty- Abolished the privy purses and privileges of the former


Sixth, 1971 rulers of princely states.

Thirty-First, An increase in the Increased the number of Lok


1973 population of India Sabha seats from 525 to 545.
was revealed in the
Census of 1971.

Thirty-Ninth, It was enacted in Placed the disputes relating to the


1975 response to the president, Vice President, prime
ruling of the minister and Speaker beyond the
Allahabad High scope of the judiciary. They are to
Court which be decided by such authority as
declared the may be determined by the
election of Prime Parliament. (Later on, this
Minister Indira provision was abolished).
Gandhi to Lok Included certain Central Acts in the
Sabha void on the ninth schedule.
petition of Raj
Narain.
No. & Year Reason Amendments

Forty- Three new words (viz., Socialist, Secular, and Integrity)


Second, were added to the Preamble.
1976
Added Fundamental Duties of Citizens (New Part IV A).
The President is bound by the advice of the cabinet.
Provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for
other matters (Part XIV A added).
Restriction on seats in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
till 2001 on the basis of 1971 census—population control
measures.
The term of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies was
increased from 5 to 6 years.
Provided that the laws made for the implementation of the
Directive Principles cannot be declared invalid by the
courts on the ground of infringement of certain
fundamental rights.
Three new Directive Principles were added, equal justice
and free legal aid, participation of workers in the
management of industries, and protection of the
environment, forests and wildlife.
Provided for the creation of the All-India Judicial Service.

Forty- Replaced the words ‘internal disturbance’ with ‘armed


Fourth, 1978 rebellion’ in relation to the national emergency.
On the written recommendation of the cabinet, the
President declared a national emergency.
The right to property was removed from the list of
fundamental rights and made only a legal right.
Provided that the fundamental rights guaranteed by
Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national
emergency.

Fiftieth, Empowered the Parliament to restrict fundamental rights


1984 of persons employed in intelligence organizations and
telecommunication systems established for the armed
forces or intelligence organizations.
No. & Year Reason Amendments

Fifty- To stop defection Provided for disqualification of


Second, and the politics of members of Parliament and state
1985 ‘Aaya Ram, Gaya legislatures on the ground of
Ram’. defection and added a new tenth
schedule containing the details in
this regard.

Sixty-First, Reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the
1989 Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections.

Seventy- Included Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the


First, 1992 eighth schedule. With this, the total number of scheduled
languages increased to 18.

Seventy- Provided constitutional status and protection to


Third, 1992 Panchayati Raj institutions. For this purpose, the
amendment has added a new Part-IX as ‘Panchayats’
and a new eleventh schedule containing 29 functional
items of Panchayats.

Seventy- Provided constitutional status and protection to urban


Fourth, 1992 local bodies. For this purpose, the amendment has
inserted a new Part IX-A as ‘Municipalities’ and a new
twelfth schedule containing 18 functional items of
municipalities.

Seventy- Provided for reservation in promotions in government jobs


Seventh, for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. This
1995 amendment nullified the Supreme Court ruling with regard
to reservation in promotions (Indira Sawhney Judgement).

Eighty- Extended the ban on the readjustment of seats in the Lok


Fourth, 2001 Sabha and the state legislative assemblies for another 25
years (i.e., up to 2026).

Eighty-Sixth, Made elementary education a fundamental right under


2002 Article 21A.
Changed the subject matter of Article 45 in Directive
Principles.
Added a new fundamental duty under Article 51A.
No. & Year Reason Amendments

Ninety-First, It made the following provisions to limit the size of the


2003 Council of Ministers, prevent defectors from holding public
office, and strengthen the anti-defection law:
The total number of ministers including the Prime Minister
in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of
the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
A member of either house of the Parliament belonging to
any political party who is disqualified on the ground of
defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a
minister.
The total number of ministers, including the Chief
Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not
exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative
Assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers,
including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less
than 12.

Ninety- Four more languages were included in the eighth


Second, schedule. They are Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali.
2003 With this, the total number of constitutionally recognized
languages increased to 22.

Ninety- Empowered the State to make special provisions for the


Third, 2005 socially and educationally backward classes or the
Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in educational
institutions including private educational institutions.

Ninety- Gave constitutional status and protection to cooperatives.


Seventh, It made the following three changes to the constitution:
2006 It made the right to form cooperative societies a
fundamental right (Article 19).
It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the
promotion of cooperatives.
It added a new Part IX-B to the Constitution entitled ‘Co-
operative Societies’.
No. & Year Reason Amendments

Ninety- Replaced the collegium system of appointment of judges


Ninth, 2014 to the Supreme Court and High Courts with a new body
called the National Judicial Appointments Commission
(NJAC).
However, in 2015, the Supreme Court declared this
amendment act as unconstitutional and void. As a result,
the earlier collegium system became active again.

One- Introduction of the Goods and Services Tax.


Hundred
and First,
2017

One-
Constitutional status was granted to the National
Hundred
and Second, Commission for Backward Classes under the
2018 Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment of
India.
Removal of the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian
community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.

One- It introduced reservation for the Economically Weaker


Hundred Section for the first time in independent India, by
and Third, amending Article 16 to allow 10% reservation for EWS in
2019 public employment. [Article 16(6)]

104th
Extension of deadline for the cessation of seats of
Amendment
Act, 2020 SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and states
assemblies to 80 years.
Removal of the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian
community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.
No. & Year Reason Amendments

105th To restore the power of the state governments to identify


Amendment Other Backward Classes (OBCs) that are socially and
Act, 2021 educationally backward. This amendment annulled the
Supreme Court judgement of 11 May 2021, which had
empowered only the Central government for such
identification. Amended Article 338B, 342A and 366.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. When did the Constitution Assembly of India became a sovereig
body?
(a) 9 December 1946
(b) 15 August 1947
(c) 26 November 1949
(d) 26 January 1950

2. Who decides the elements of the basic structure of the Constitution i


India?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Loksabha
(c) Rajyasabha
(d) President

3. Assertion (A): Basic Structure Doctrine postulates that certai


portions of the Constitution are immune to the amendment.
Reason (R): This doctrine was put into the Constitution explicitly so
that no government ever tried to amend basic elements.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) Only (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(d) Only (R) is correct and (A) is incorrect.

4. Which of the following is not a way to check and balance the power o
the legislature?
(a) Judicial Review
(b) Judicial Activism
(c) PIL
(d) No confidence motion

5. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?


(a) Right to Information (RTI) Act—2005
(b) Right to Education (RTE) Act—2003
(c) National Food Security Act (NFSA)—2013
(d) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA)—2005

6. Which of the following principles of democracy are not found in India


Democracy?
1. Plural Voting.

2. Universal Adult Suffrage.

3. Parliamentary Proportional Representation.

4. Decentralized Governance.

5. Strict separation of power between the executive and legislature.

Choose the correct answer:


(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3, and 4

7. Match the following:

Constitution Amendment Act Subject Matter


Constitution Amendment Act Subject Matter
1. First a. Removed the Righ
Property as a
Fundamental Righ
2. Seventh b. Restricted Freedom
Speech and
Expression.
3. Forty-Fourth c. Introduced
Fundamental Dutie
4. Forty Second d. Removed ABCD
categories of state

Choose the correct answer:


(a) 1–b, 2–d, 3–a, 4–c
(b) 1–a, 2–b, 3–d, 4–c
(c) 1–c, 2–a, 3–b, 4–d
(d) 1–d, 2–c, 3–b, 4–a

8. Choose the correct statement:


1. Constitutionalism means the working of the constitution and its
according to the needs of time and space.

2. India has a rich history of constitutionalism due to the flexible nat


Indian Constitution.

3. The power to amend the Constitution is the only example of the e


constitutionalism.

Codes:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) All are correct

9. Articles 13, 32, and 226 of the Indian Constitution are tools of?
(a) Legislative Control
(b) Executive Control
(c) Judicial Control
(d) None of the above

10 Federalism and Secularism were spelt as the Basic Structures of the


Indian Constitution in which of the following case law?
(a) Minerva Mills Case
(b) S. R. Bommai Case
(c) Kesavananda Bharati Case
(d) I. R. Coelho Case

11. The first amendment in the Constitution of India was made in the
year?
(a) 1951
(b) 1952
(c) 1956
(d) 1957

12. The Right to Property, as a fundamental right, was deleted by virtue


of?
(a) Forty-Fourth Amendment
(b) Fortieth Amendment
(c) Thirtieth Amendment
(d) Forty-Third Amendment

13. The idea of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution was
discussed in the?
(a) S. R. Bommai Case
(b) Golak Nath Case
(c) Kesavananda Bharti Case
(d) Sajjan Singh Case

14. The total number of Ministers including the Prime Minister and
Deputy Prime Minister shall not exceed:
(a) 20% of members of the Lok Sabha.
(b) 10% of members of the Lok Sabha.
(c) 15% of members of the Lok Sabha.
(d) 25% of members of the Lok Sabha.

15. Which of the following statement/s about Fundamental Duties is/are


not correct?
(i) The Fundamental Duties are incorporated in Article 51A (Part IV
the Indian Constitution.
(ii) The Fundamental Duties were inserted in the constitution by
Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
(iii) The Fundamental Duties have to be fulfilled by every person livi
India.
(iv) The Eleventh Fundamental Duty was added by the Eighty-S
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2006.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) (i) and (ii) are not correct.
(b) (ii) and (iii) are not correct.
(c) (iii) and (iv) are not correct.
(d) Only (iii) is not correct.

16. By which Constitutional Amendment Act was ‘The Forest and


Protection of Wild Animals’ shifted from State to the Concurrent list?
(a) Thirty-Ninth Constitutional Amendment
(b) Fortieth Constitutional Amendment
(c) Forty-First Constitutional Amendment
(d) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment

17. The First attempt to confer constitutional status on rural local


government was made by
(a) the Sixty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment Bill.
(b) the Sixty-Eighth Constitutional Amendment Bill.
(c) the Seventy-Second Constitutional Amendment Bill.
(d) the Seventy-Third Constitutional Amendment Act.
18. By which amendment of the Constitution can the same person be
appointed as Governor of one or more States or Lt. Governor of the
Union Territory?
(a) Fourth Amendment Act, 1955
(b) Fifth Amendment Act, 1955
(c) Sixth Amendment Act, 1956
(d) Seventh Amendment Act, 1956

19. Which of the following is not true about the amendment of the
Constitution under Article 368?
(a) The Bill may be introduced in either house of Parliament.
(b) The Bill must be passed by a special majority (2/3rd present
voting and more than 50% of the total membership).
(c) In case of disagreement between the houses joint sitting ma
called.
(d) The President is bound to give assent to the Bill duly passed
ratified.

20. By which Constitutional Amendment Act, protection of freedom of


expression was withdrawn from those who advocate secession from
the Union of India?
(a) Fourteenth Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) Sixteenth Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) Eighteenth Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) Twentieth Constitutional Amendment Act

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 13. 16. 19.


(b) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11. 14. 17. 20.
(a) (b) (a) (a) (c) (a) (b)
3. 6. 9. 12. 15. 18. (d)
(c) (c) (c) (a) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

14. According to the Ninty-First Amendment of the Indian constitution


total number of Ministers including the Prime Minister and Deputy
Prime Minister shall not exceed 15% of members of the Lok Sabha.

15. Fundamental duties are mentioned in Part IV–A of the Indian


Constitution. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the
Indian Constitution by the Forty-Second Amendment in 1976 upon
the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Through
Eighty-Sixth Amendment a new fundamental duty was included in
2002.

17. Sixty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment Bill introduced in Parliament


in 1989 was the first attempt to provide constitutional status to
Panchayati Raj institutions. This bill was defeated in Rajya Sabha.
Later in 1992, Seventy-Third Constitutional Amendment Act granted
constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.

18. Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 made the provision


that the same person can be appointed as a governor for two or
more states. Thus, option D is the correct answer.

20. The Sixteenth Amendment Act of 1963 has two provisions as follows:

Empowered the state to impose further restrictions on the rights to


freedom of speech and expression, to assemble peacefully and to
form associations in the interests of sovereignty and integrity of
India.
Included sovereignty and integrity in the forms of oaths or
affirmations to be subscribed by contestants to the legislatures,
members of the legislatures, ministers, judges, and CAG of India.
CHAPTER 5
Union Executive

INTRODUCTION
Articles 52 to 78 in Part V of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union
Executive. The Union Executive consists of the President, the Vice-
President, the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to
aid and advise the President, and the Attorney General of India.

PRESIDENT
The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. Article
52 of the Indian Constitution says that ‘There shall be a President of
India’. The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature, and
judiciary of India and is also the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed
Forces. He is the first citizen of India and acts as a symbol of unity,
integrity, and solidarity in the nation.

IMPORTANT ARTICLES AND FUNCTIONS OF


THE PRESIDENT

Articles Information and Functions


Article 53 The executive power of the Government of India is
(Executive vested in the President of India. However, the
power of the President carries out the actual functions of the
Union) government only with the aid and advice of the Prime
Minister & Council of Ministers.
Articles Election of the President and Manner of election
54 & 55 respectively.

Article 56 The President is elected for a term of five years, and


(Term of the President may, by writing under his hand
office of addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office.
President)
Article 57 President is eligible for re-election any number of
times.
Article 58 No person shall be eligible for election as President
(Qualificatio unless he:
n of (a)is a citizen of India,
President’s (b)has completed the age of thirty-five years, and
office) (c)is qualified for election as a member of the House of
the People.
A person shall not be eligible for election as President if
he holds any office of profit.
Article 60 President’s term commences from the date on which
(Oath or he/she assumes office after taking an oath
affirmation administered by the Chief Justice of India.
by the
President)
Article 61 Procedure for impeachment of the President.
Article 62 Time of holding election to fill vacancy and the term of
office of person elected to fill casual vacancy- Within 6
months
Article 65 VP to act as a President or to discharge his functions -
For 6 months
Article 72 Power of the President to grant pardons etc., and to
suspend, remit, or commute sentences in certain
cases. The pardoning power of the President is
independent of the judiciary, and it is an executive
power. However, this power is to be exercised by the
President on the aid and advice of the Prime minister
and Council of Ministers.
Article 74 The President will exercise his functions in accordance
(1) with the advice of the Council of Ministers.
added by
44th
Amendme
nt
Article 85 President has the power to summon both Houses of
(Sessions of Parliament, nominate twelve members to the Rajya
parliament, Sabha, has the right to address either house or their
prorogation, joint session at any time, and the power to dissolve the
and Lok Sabha.
dissolution)
Article Assent to bills passed by the Parliament Union Budget
111 (annual financial statement).
All money bills to be introduced in the Parliament have
to obtain the recommendation of the President.
Article Power of the President to promulgate ordinances.
123 It is the most important legislative power of the
President. When both houses of Parliament are not in
session, the President can promulgate ordinances in
the public interest.
Article Power of the President to consult the Supreme Court.
143 President can seek advice from the Supreme Court on
any question of law or act. However, the advice
tendered by the Supreme Court is not binding on the
President.

Election of President
The Constitution prescribes an indirect election through an electoral
college composed of:

(a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament,


(b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States,
and
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the National
Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry.
The election is conducted in a secret ballot on the basis of proportional
representation and by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, the
nominated members do not participate in the election of the President.

Impeachment of President
President is removed through the process of impeachment. Article 61
deals with the procedure of impeachment. It is a quasi-judicial process.
Article 70: Empower parliament to make provisions for the contingency
when the offices of both the president and the VP fall vacant by reason of
death, resignation, removal or otherwise
The process of impeachment can be initiated in either House of
Parliament and must be passed by not less than two-thirds of the total
membership of the House in which it has been moved. If the other House
investigates the charge and a two-thirds majority of that House finds him
guilty, the President stands impeached from office from the date of
passing of the resolution. Important pointers about the process of
President’s Impeachments:

1. Nominated members of Parliament can participate in the


impeachment process but not in the election.
2. Members of state assemblies and union territories do not
participate in removal though they participate in the election.

Veto Power of President


The choice of the President over the bill is called his veto power. When a
bill is passed by the Parliament and presented to the President for his
assent, then he/she has three alternatives (Article 111):
1. give his assent,
2. withhold his assent, or
3. return the bill.
The President of India enjoys three veto power:

1. Absolute Veto, that is withholding of assent to the bill passed by


the legislature. It is used in the case of private member bills and with
respect to government bills when the cabinet resigns.
2. Suspensive Veto, which can be overridden by the legislature
with an ordinary majority. The President does not possess this
veto in the case of money bills.
3. Pocket Veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the
legislature. For example, in 1986, President Zail Singh exercised
Pocket Veto with respect to Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill.
However, the President has no veto power with respect to a
Constitutional Amendment Bill (Twenty-Fourth Amendment).

PRIME MINISTER
Prime Minister is the real executive authority i.e., the head of the
government. He is the head of the government while President is the
head of the state. He is directly elected by the people. Some important
Articles in Indian Constitution regarding the Prime Minister are:

Article 74 Council of ministers to aid and advise the President.


There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime
Minister as the head to aid and advice the President.
Article 75 Other provisions as to ministers like an
appointment, term, salaries, etc.
It specifies that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by
the President.
Article 78 Duties of the Prime Minister with respect to
the furnishing of information to the President
etc.
The Prime Minister communicates to the President all
the decisions of the council of ministers.

Appointment & Removal


The President of India appoints a Prime Minister who is either the leader
of the party with the majority of seats in the Lok Sabha or someone who
can win the confidence of the Lok Sabha by gaining the support of other
political parties.
The President may first appoint the Prime Minister and then ask
him to prove his majority.
A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can
be appointed as Prime Minister for six months, within which he
should become a member of either House of Parliament otherwise
he ceases to be in office.
The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office at
the pleasure of the President. However, as long as the Prime
Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot
be dismissed by the President.
However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must
resign or the President can dismiss him.

Other Key Functions of the Prime Minister


1. Prime Minister is the link between the President and the Cabinet.
The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and
selects the ministers to be sworn in by the President.
2. The Prime Minister is the ‘principal spokesman’ and defender of
the policies of the Government in the Parliament.
3. The Prime Minister is not only the leader of the Parliament but
also the leader of the nation.
4. The Prime Minister plays an important role in the formulation of
domestic and foreign policies. The President represents the
country in the world arena.
5. He acts as the chief advisor to the President.
Role Descriptions
Lord Morley—‘Primus Inter Pares (first among equals).’
Sir William Harcourt—‘Inter Stella’s Luna Minores (a moon among
lesser stars).’
Munro—‘The captain of the ship of the state.’
Ramsay Muir—‘The steersman of the steering wheel of the ship of the
state.’

COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister is the real
executive authority in our politico-administrative system. The principles of
the parliamentary system of government are not detailed in the
constitution, but Articles 74 & 75 deal with them. They are appointed by
the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Council of
Ministers along with the Prime Minister of India constitutes 15% of the
total strength of the Lok Sabha (Ninty-First Amendment Act).

Article 74 Council of Ministers to aid and advise the


President.
The nature of advice tendered by ministers to the
President cannot be enquired about by any court.
Article 75 Other provisions for Ministers.
The ministers have both responsibilities i.e., collective
responsibility (to Lok Sabha) and individual
responsibility.

STRUCTURE OF THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS


The council of ministers consists of three categories of ministers, namely,
cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers.

1. The cabinet ministers head the important ministries of the


central government like home, defence, finance, external affairs, and
so forth.
2. The ministers of state can either be given independent
charge of ministries/departments or can be attached to cabinet
ministers.
3. The deputy ministers are not given independent charge of
ministries/departments. They are attached to the cabinet ministers
or ministers of state and assist them in their administrative,
political, and parliamentary duties.

Role Description
Ramsay Muir—‘Dictatorship of the Cabinet’.
Ramsay Muir—‘The Cabinet is the steering wheel of the ship of the
state.’
Gladstone—‘The Cabinet is the solar orb around which the other
bodies revolve.’
Barker—‘The Cabinet is the magnet of policy.’
Bagehot—‘The Cabinet is a hyphen that joins, the buckle that binds the
executive and legislative departments together.’

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Name the President of India who has been impeached by the
Parliament?
(a) V. V Giri
(b) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(c) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(d) None of the above

2. The President of India is elected for a term of?


(a) Three years
(b) Four years
(c) Five years
(d) Six years

3. The proposal of Impeachment of the President can be moved in?


(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) Either House of Parliament

4. Which Article says that ‘The President will exercise his functions in
accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers’?
(a) Article 61
(b) Article 57
(c) Article 60
(d) Article 74

5. Members of which of the following House are not members of the


electoral college:
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Vidhan Sabha
(c) Vidhan Parishad
(d) Lok Sabha

6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides power to the


President to promulgate ordinances?
(a) Article 123
(b) Article 221
(c) Article 222
(d) Article 223
7. Who acts as the President when neither the President nor the Vice
President is available?
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

8. Which among the following is incorrectly matched regarding the


power of the President?
(a) Article 111—Veto Power
(b) Article 123—Pardoning Power
(c) Article 143—Power to consult Supreme Court
(d) None of the above

9. Which among the following is incorrect about the process o


impeachment of the President of India?
(a) It can be initiated only by Lok Sabha.
(b) Two-thirds majority for impeachment.
(c) It is a quasi-judicial process.
(d) Violation of the constitution is ground for impeachment.

10. Which among the following amendment set the limit on the size of
the Council of Ministers?
(a) Fifty-Second Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) Ninty-First Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) Eighty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment Act

11. Who administered the oath to the President?


(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice President
(d) Chief Justice of India

12. Which veto is not used by the President of India?


(a) Absolute Veto
(b) Suspensive Veto
(c) Pocket Veto
(d) Qualified Veto

13. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election
procedures are used?
(a) System of proportional representation by means of the si
transferable vote.
(b) Secondary Voting System.
(c) Proportional representation through a list system.
(d) Collective Voting System.

14. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s rule


promulgated on any state in India?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 343
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 83

15. Which article states that there shall be a Council of Ministers to aid
and advise the President?
(a) Article 75
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 78
(d) Article 123

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.
(d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (a)
(c) (c) (b) (d)
3. 6.
9. (a)
(d) (a)
CHAPTER 6
Union Parliament

INTRODUCTION
The Parliament of India is the legislative organ of the union government. The
constitution of India deals with the organization, duration, composition,
procedures, privileges, and powers of the Parliament in part 5 (Articles 79–
122).

STRUCTURE OF THE INDIAN PARLIAMENT


The Parliament of India includes three parts that are the President, the
Council of states (Rajya Sabha) and the House of People ( Lok Sabha). The
President of India is not a member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha and does
not sit in the Parliament to attend its meetings but he/she is an integral part of
the Parliament of India.

Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha


Represents ’The States and Union
Territories of the Indian
Union.’
Composition 552 250
Representati 530 members directly 238 members elected by
on of States elected by the people from the elected members of
the territorial legislative assemblies of
constituencies in the States and Union
states. Territories having
Legislative Assembly. Out
of the Eight Union
Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha
Representati 20 members Territories, only three
Union Territories (Direct (Delhi, Puducherry and
on of Union Jammu & Kashmir)
Election to the House of
Territories the People) Act, 1965, by have representation in
which the members are Rajya Sabha.
also chosen by direct
election.
Nominated 2 members of the Anglo- 12 members by the
Members Indian Community President who have
(Abolished through One- special knowledge or
Hundred and Fourth practical experience in art,
Constitutional Amendment literature, science, and
Act, 2019). social service

QUALIFICATIONS FOR MEMBER OF PARLIAMENT

Constitutional
1. He/she must be a citizen of India,
2. he/she must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation, and
3. he/she must not be less than 30 years of age in the case of Rajya
Sabha and must not be less than 25 years in the case of Lok Sabha.
And other qualifications as prescribed by the Parliament of India.

Representation of People Act (1951): (Parliament)


1. He/she must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary
constituency and
2. he/she must be a member of SC/ST in any State or Union Territory to
contest a seat reserved for them.

DISQUALIFICATIONS FOR MEMBERS OF


PARLIAMENT
Constitutional: If He/She
1. Holds any office of profit under the Union or State Government except
that of a minister or any other office exempted by parliament,
2. unsound mind and stands so declared by a court,
3. an undischarged insolvent, and
4. not a citizen of India.
And under any law made by Parliament.

Representation of People Act 1951 (Act of the


Parliament of India)
1. He/she must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or
corrupt practices in the elections and
2. he/she must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in
imprisonment for 2 years or more and many others.

Disqualification on the Ground of Defection


Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Speaker vs Chairman

Speaker (Lok Sabha) Chairman (Rajya Sabha)


Elected by the Lok Sabha from The Vice-President of India is the ex
amongst its members. The date of officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha,
the election of the speaker is fixed he or she is not an elected member
by the President. of parliament.
The decision of the speaker of Lok He or she cannot decide whether a
Sabha is the final decision on the bill is a money bill or not.
money bill.
He or she presides over the joint No such presidency.
sitting of Parliament under Article
108 of the Indian Constitution.
25 years is the minimum age 35 years is the minimum age
qualification. qualification.
Speaker (Lok Sabha) Chairman (Rajya Sabha)
He or she can vote in the first He or she cannot vote in such a
instance when a resolution for his or situation.
her removal is under consideration.
The speaker of Lok Sabha decides He or she cannot vote on house
matters of disqualification of a bills but only in case if there is
member of Parliament under the equality of votes.
Tenth Schedule but his judgement is
subject to judicial review.

IMPORTANT ARTICLES RELATED TO LOK SABHA


& RAJYA SABHA

Article
80 Composition of the Council of States that is Rajya Sabha.
81 Composition of the House of the People that is Lok Sabha.
83 Duration of Houses of Parliament.
84 Qualification for membership of the Parliament of India.
89 The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of
States.
90 Vacation, resignation or removal of the office of Deputy
Chairman.
91 Power of the Deputy Chairman or other person to perform
the duties of the office of Chairman.
92 The Chairman or the Deputy Chairman not to preside while
a resolution for his or her removal from office is under
consideration.
93 The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the
People that is Lok Sabha.
94 Vacation, resignation and removal from the office of
Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
95 Power of the Deputy Speaker or other person to perform
the duties of the office of Speaker.
Article
96 The Speaker or the Deputy Speaker not to preside while a
resolution for his or her removal from office is under
consideration.
97 Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy
Chairman and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
98 Secretariat of Parliament.
99 Affirmation by the Members of the Parliament.
100 Voting in Houses, power of Houses to act notwithstanding
vacancies and quorum.

LOK SABHA POWERS IN COMPARISON TO


RAJYA SABHA
A money bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha only.
A money bill cannot be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha.
The financial bill which does not contain the matters of Article 110 can
be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
The final decision on whether a bill is a money bill is vested in the
Speaker of Lok Sabha.
The joint sitting is presided over by the speaker of the Lok Sabha.
The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the demands for grants but it can
only discuss the budget.
Only Lok Sabha can pass the resolution for the discontinuance of the
national emergency.
The Council of Ministers cannot be removed by the Rajya Sabha by
passing a No-Confidence Motion.

SPECIAL POWERS OF RAJYA SABHA


Article 249: a resolution may be passed by a majority of not less
than two-thirds of the members present and voting in Rajya Sabha that
the Parliament should make a law with respect to any matter
enumerated in the state list.
Article 312: for the creation of all Indian services.
A Proclamation of emergency under Articles 352, 356, and 360 is
approved by the Rajya Sabha if Lok Sabha is dissolved.
Article 67: a resolution for a removal of VP can be introduced only in
RS not in the LS.

PARLIAMENTARY PROCEDURES &


INSTRUMENTS
Summoning: Each House of the Parliament of India is summoned by the
President from time to time to meet. But the maximum gap between the two
sessions of the Parliament of India cannot be more than 6 months.
Adjournment: Adjournment or adjournment sine die or prorogation or
dissolution (in the case of Lok Sabha) can terminate the sitting of the
Parliament. Sitting: Morning 11:00 am to 01:00 pm and lunch sitting: 02:00 pm
to 06:00 pm.
Adjournment Sine Die: It means a sitting of Parliament is terminated for an
indefinite period. The power of adjournment and adjournment sign die lies
with the Speaker and Chairman of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
respectively.
Prorogation: A notification for the prorogation of the session is issued by
the President of India after some days of adjournment sine die by the
presiding officer and while in session.
Dissolution: the life of the existing House ended with the dissolution.
However, Rajya Sabha, being a permanent house is not subject to dissolution.
The solution of the Lok Sabha is in the following two ways:
Lok Sabha can be dissolved on the expiry of 5 years or the terms as
extended during a national emergency.
The President is authorized to dissolve the Loksabha on the advice of
the Council of Ministers.

DEVICES OF PARLIAMENTARY PROCEEDINGS


Question Hour: It is the first hour of the sitting of Parliament. During the
Question Hour, the members can ask questions and the ministers usually give
answers. Questions asked during this are of three types:
1. Starred Question: (distinguished by * ) these questions require a
oral answer. These questions can be followed by supplementar
questions.
2. Unstarred Questions: these questions require a written answer.
questions cannot be followed by the supplementary questions.
3. Short Notice: these questions are asked by giving less than 10
days. Questions are answered orally.

Zero Hour: Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary


procedures. It is in existence since 1962. Therefore is an informal device
which is available to members of the Parliament tourist the matters without
any prior notice. The time gap between the question and the agenda is called
as the Zero Hour. It is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
Motions: The decisions or opinions on various issues of the House are
expressed through the adoption or rejection of the Motions which are moved
by either the ministers or by the private members with the consent of the
Speaker and Chairman of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha respectively.
There are three main categories of Motions:

1. Substantive Motion: This Motion is a self-contained independen


proposal that deals with a very important matter for exampl
impeachment of the President.
2. Substitute Motion: It is moved in substitution of an Original Motion.
Therefore it proposes an alternative to the Original Motion. If the
Substitute Motion is adopted by the House then it supersedes the
Original Motion.
3. Subsidiary Motion: This Motion itself has no meaning. Therefore it
cannot state the decision of the House without being referred to the
original motion of the House.

It is divided into 3 subtypes:

(a) Ancillary Motion: This Motion is used as the regular way of


proceeding with various types of businesses.
(b) Superseding Motion: This Motion is moved while there is debate on
another issue and it seems to supersede that issue.
(c) Amendment: This Motion seeks to substitute or modify only a part of
the Original Motion.
Closure Motion: A Closure Motion is moved by a member to cut short the
debate on a matter. If the House approves the motion, then the debate is
stopped after it and the matter is put to vote.
There are 4 types of Closer Motions:

(a) Simple Closure: When a member of the House moves that the matter
having been sufficiently discussed be now put to vote.
(b) Closure by Compartments: Before the commencement of the
debate, there is a grouping of the clauses of a bill or a lengthy
resolution into parts and the debate covers the part as a whole and
the entire part is put to vote.
(c) Kangaroo Closure: Taking up the important clauses for debate and
voting. The intervening clauses are skipped and taken as passed.
(d) Guillotine Closure: When the undiscussed clauses of a resolution or
a bill are put to vote along with the discussed ones due to the
requirement of time.

Privilege Motion: This Motion is moved by a member if he feels that a


minister has committed a breach of privilege of the house or one or more of its
members by holding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. The
purpose of this Motion is to censure the concerned minister.
Calling Attention Motion: Calling Attention Motion is also an Indian
innovation in the parliamentary procedure and it has been in existence since
1954. However, unlike Zero Hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. It
is introduced by the Member of Parliament to call the attention of a minister to
a matter of urgent public importance and to seek an authoritative statement
from the minister on that matter.
Adjournment Motion: This motion is moved to draw the attention of the
house to a definite matter of urgent public importance. It needs the support of
50 members to be admitted. However, the Rajya Sabha is not permitted to
make use of the adjournment motion. The discussion on it should last for not
less than 2 hours and 30 minutes. It should not cover more than one matter.
No Confidence Motion: Article 75 of the Constitution of India provided that
the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Therefore the ministry can be removed by the Lok Sabha by passing a no-
confidence motion. The motion needs the support of 50 members to be
admitted.
Confidence Motion: The government of the day falls if the Confidence
Motion is negatived.
Censure Motion: This is a Motion which is moved for censuring the Council
of Ministers for their specific policies and actions.
Motion of Thanks: The President addresses the first session after each
general election and the first session of every fiscal year. In this address, the
policies and the programs in the preceding year and the ensuing year of the
government of the day are outlined by the President. This address is
discussed in both houses of the Parliament and then put to vote. If the Motion
is not passed in the house it results in the defeat of the government.
No Day Yet Named Motion: It is admitted by the Speaker but no date has
been fixed for its discussion.
Dilatory Motion: It can be moved by a member of the House at any time after
a Motion has been made. It is a Motion for the adjournment of the debate on a
bill/motion/resolution, etc., or a Motion to retard or delay the progress of a
business under consideration of the House.

Censure Motion No Confidence Motion


Reasons for its adoption should be No need to do so.
stated in the Lok Sabha.
Can be moved against an individual Can be against the entire Council of
minister or a group of ministers or Ministers only.
the entire Council of Ministers.
It is moved for censuring the council It is moved for the confidence of Lok
of ministers for specific policies and Sabha in the Council of Ministers.
actions.
The Council of Ministers does not The Council of Ministers must
require to resign if it is passed in the resign if it is passed in the Lok
Lok Sabha. Sabha.

JOINT SITTING OF PARLIAMENT


It is an important and extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution of
India to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses for passing a bill under
the following situations:
If a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the othe
1. House or if the bill is rejected by the other House.
2. If the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made
in the bill.
3. If there is elapse of more than 6 months from the date of the receipt of
the bill by the other house without the bill passed by it.

The president can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint


sitting.
Not applicable to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
If the bill (under dispute) has already lapsed due to the dissolution
of the Lok Sabha, no joint sitting can be summoned.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two
Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy
Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman of
Rajya Sabha presides.
The quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total
number of members of the two Houses.
The joint sitting is governed by the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha
and not of Rajya Sabha.
The Constitution has specified that at a joint sitting, new
amendments to the bill cannot be proposed except in two cases:

1. Those amendments that have caused final disagreement betw


the Houses, and
2. Those amendments that might have become necessary due to
delay in the passage of the bill.

’The bill that has been passed at joint sitting are:

1. Dowry prohibition bill, 1960


2. Banking service commission (repeal) bill, 1977
3. Prevention of Terrorism bill, 2002’

PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEES
A Parliamentary Committee means a committee that:

1. Is elected or appointed by the House or nominated by the Speaker of th


Lok Sabha/ Chairman of the Rajya Sabha,
2. worked under the Speaker/Chairman,
3. reports to the House, and
4. has a Secretariat by the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha.
These are of two kinds—Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees.
The former are permanent while the latter are temporary and cease to exist
on completion of the task assigned to them.

Important Standing Committees of Parliament


Financial Committees: A minister cannot be elected in any of the
following financial committees. Members of all three committees are elected
by proportional representation with a single transferable vote.

Public Accounts Estimates Committee on


Committee Committee Public Undertakings
Set up in 1921 under Was constituted in the Was created in 1964 on
the provisions of the post-independence era the recommendation of
Government of India in 1950 on the the Krishna Menon
Act of 1919. recommendation of Committee.
John Mathai.
Consists of 22 Originally, it had 25 Originally, it had 15
members (15 from the members but in 1956 members (10 Lok
Lok Sabha and 7 from was raised to 30 Sabha and 5 Rajya
the Rajya Sabha). members. All members Sabha).
are from Lok Sabha. However, it was raised
Largest committee of to 22 members in 1974
parliament (15 Lok Sabha and 7
Rajya Sabha).
Public Accounts Estimates Committee on
Committee Committee Public Undertakings
Examines the annual Examines the Reports and accounts
reports of the estimates of the of public undertakings
government and expenditure proposed are examined.
scrutinizes the reports in the budget.
of the Chief Attorney
General laid in the
Parliament by the
President.
Term of office: one one year one year
year.
Elected by the Elected by the Lok Elected by the
Members of the Sabha members. Members of
Parliament. Parliament.

COMMITTEES RELATING TO THE DAY-TO-DAY


BUSINESS OF THE HOUSE
(a) Business Advisory Committee: regulates the programme and
timetable of the House. The Committee in Lok Sabha has 15
members including the Speaker who is its Chairman and the
Committee in Rajya Sabha has 11 members including Chairman who
is its ex officio Chairman.
(b) Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions.
(c) Rules Committee: recommends necessary amendments or
additions to the rules of the House. The Committee in Lok Sabha has
15 members including the Speaker who is its Chairman and the
Committee in Rajya Sabha has 16 members including Chairman who
is its ex officio Chairman.
(d) Committee on Absence of Members from Sittings of the House.

Most Expected Practice Questions


Consider the following statements and identify the correct one:
1.
I. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament is sanctio
under Article 108 of the Indian Constitution.
II. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in
year 1961.
III. The second joint sitting of the two houses of the Indian Parliament
held to pass the Banking Service (Repeal) Bill.
Codes:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?


1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.

2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by
Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. The term of Lok Sabha


(a) Cannot be extended under any circumstances.
(b) Can be extended by 6 months at a time.
(c) Can be extended by 1 year at a time during the proclamatio
emergency.
(d) Can be extended for 2 years at a time during the proclamatio
emergency.

4. The speaker can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and le
another member speak this phenomenon is known as?
(a) Decorum
(b) Crossing the Floor
(c) Interpolation
(d) Yielding the Floor

5. Consider the following statements:


1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
members of that House.

2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of Parliament


voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vo
election of the Vice President.

Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Which of the following is not correct about Zero Hour?


(a) It has been in existence since 1962 and it is borrowed from
Constitution.
(b) A member is allowed to make only one Zero Hour request duri
week.
(c) It is not mandatory to have a Zero Hour every day during the sessi
(d) Only 20 matters are allowed to be raised during the Zero Hour in
Sabha.

7. Following statements are regarding which standing committee?

It consists of 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 members from


Rajya Sabha.
A minister is not eligible for this committee.
The main duty is to a certain whether the money granted by
Parliament has been spent by the government within the scope of
the demand.
Codes:
(a) Business Advisory Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Public Accounts Committee

8. How many department standing committees are there?


(a) 22
(b) 17
(c) 24
(d) 25

9. How many members are there on Estimates Committee?


(a) 22
(b) 10
(c) 30
(d) 17

10. Prorogation is done by?


(a) President
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Prime Minister

11. Regarding a Money Bill, which of the following statement/s is/are true?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) The decision of the Speaker of the House of the People shall be
to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not.
(ii) The decision of the Speaker about a Bill being a Money Bill is ope
question only in a Court of Law.
(iii) The decision of the Speaker about a Bill being a Money Bill sha
be open to question either by the President or even the Parliament
Codes:
(a) Only (i) is true.
(b) Only (i) and (ii) are true.
(c) Only (i) and (iii) are true.
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii) are true.

12. Which of the following are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha?
(A) Introduction of the money bill.
(B) Ratification of the declaration of emergency.
(C) To pass a motion of no-confidence against the council of ministers.
(D) To impeach the President.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) A and D only
(d) A, B, and C only

13. Arrange the following Parliamentary Committees in order of their


formation:
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Departmental Standing Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(b) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(c) (c), (a), (d), (b)
(d) (b), (c), (d), (a)

14. The purpose of an adjournment motion is to?


(a) Seek the leave of the House to introduce a bill.
(b) Censure the Government.
(c) Propose a reduction in the budget.
(d) Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent p
importance.

15. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to


make provisions for a contingency when the offices of both the
President and the Vice-President fall vacant by reasons of death,
resignation, removal, or otherwise?
(a) Article 123
(b) Article 72
(c) Article 70
(d) Article 58

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (d) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (c)
(b) (b) (c) (a)
3. 6.
9. (c)
(c) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

11. The decision of the Speaker of the House of the People shall be final to
decide whether a bill is a Money Bill or not. This decision cannot be
questioned in the Court of Law.
CHAPTER 7
Judiciary

INTRODUCTION
Judiciary performs the function of rule adjudication. Indian constitution
created an independent and integral judicial system. The supreme court of
India is at the apex of the Indian judicial hierarchy, followed by high courts
and lower courts. The supreme court of India is considered a ‘constitutional
watchdog’.
A single system of the judiciary was adopted by the government of India
Act 1935, and the supreme court was established on 28 January 1950. Part
V of the constitution deals with the supreme court, its powers, and functions
(Articles 124–147) and Part VI deals with the high court (Articles 214–231).

SUPREME COURT OF INDIA


Inaugurated on 28 January 1950 succeeding the federal court of India
established under the government of India Act of 1935. The supreme court
of India has replaced the British privy council, the highest court of appeal
and thus endowed with wider jurisdiction than its predecessor. The
supreme court comprises 34 judges in total (working in full strength since
May 2022—one chief justice and 33 judges).

Functions and Powers of the Supreme Court


The jurisdiction and powers of the supreme court can be classified as the
original jurisdiction, writ jurisdiction, appellate jurisdiction, advisory
jurisdiction, court of record, power of judicial review, and other powers.
Original Writ Appellate Advisory Court of
Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Record
n n n n
Article 131 Article 32 Articles Article Article
132, 133, 143 129
134, 136
Adjudicates The The The The
disputes supreme Supreme President is judgements,
between: court is the Court is the authorized proceedings
a. Centre guarantor highest to seek the . and acts of
and one and court of opinion of the
or more defender of appeals, it the Supreme
states, the can hear Supreme Court are
b. Centre fundamental and decide Court on recorded for
and any rights of the on any perpetual
state or citizens. Constitution question of memory and
states on The al matters, law or fact testimony.
one side supreme Civil matters of public They are
and one court is as well as importance recognized
or more empowered criminal or dispute as legal
states on to issue matters arising out precedents
the other, writs— forwarded to of any pre- and legal
and habeas it from High constitution references.
c. corpus, Courts. treaty,
between mandamus, agreement,
two or prohibition, covenant,
more quo- engagement
states. warranto, , etc.
and
certiorari.
Original Writ Appellate Advisory Court of
Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Record
n n n n
The An Appeal by Opinion It has the
Supreme aggrieved special tendered by power to
Court has citizen can leave: The the supreme punish for
exclusive directly Supreme court is only the
original approach Court has advisory contempt of
jurisdiction the discretionar and thus not court, either
which Supreme y power and binding on with simple
means no Court in the it is the imprisonme
other court event of a authorized president. nt for a term
can decide violation of to grant of up to six
upon such his/her special months or
disputes. fundamental leave from with a fine
rights. any or with both.
The judgement
Supreme in any
Court can matter
issue a writ passed by
for any court or
fundamental tribunal in
rights only, the country.
for other
matter high
courts has
the power.

Important Articles Related to the Supreme Court


Article 124: Establishment and constitution of the supreme court.
Article 124A: National Judicial Appointments Commission
(NJAC).
Article 129: The supreme court to be a court of record.
Article 131: Original jurisdiction of the supreme court.
Article 136: Special leave to appeal by the supreme court.
Article 141: Law declared by the supreme court to be binding on
all courts.
Article 142: Enforcements of decrees and orders of the supreme
court (plenary powers to do complete justice).
Article 143: Power of the president to consult the supreme court.
Article 144: Civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the
supreme court.

Appointment of Judges
The judges of the supreme court and high courts including the chief justices
are appointed by the president.
The judges of the supreme court can hold office till the age of 65 years
and the of high courts till the age of 62.
They can also resign from the post by writing to the president and can
be removed by the president on the recommendation of the parliament.
Appointments based on the collegium system established under the Three
Judges Case of 1968. The word ‘consultation’ used for appointments has
led to various interpretations by the supreme court in various cases.

Cases Year Judgement


First Judge Case (S. P. 198 Consultation doesn’t mean
Gupta vs Union of India) 2 concurrence and it only
implies the exchange of
views.
Second Judges Case 199 Consultation means
3 concurrence and it is
binding.
Third Judges Case 199 Collegium system to
8 recommend the president
on appointments and
transfers.
Cases Year Judgement
Fourth Judges Case 201 National Judicial
(NJAC inserted in Article 4 Appointments Commission
124A)
(NJAC) was established by
the ninty-ninth
Constitutional Amendment
Act 2014 to replace the
collegiums system.
However, the supreme court
declared it as null and void
and upheld the collegiums
system.

Impeachment of Supreme Court Judges


The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the
removal of a judge from the supreme court by the process of impeachment.
There are two grounds for removal—proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
A judge of the supreme court can be removed from his office by an
order of the president. The president can issue the removal order after an
address by the parliament, supported by a special majority of each house of
parliament.
So far, no judge of the supreme court has been impeached. The only
case where an impeachment motion was initiated and the inquiry
committee found the judge guilty was of justice V. Ramaswami of the
supreme court (1991–93). But, this motion was defeated in the Lok Sabha.

HIGH COURTS IN INDIA


The high court occupies the top position in the judicial administration of a
state.
The high courts were originated with the establishment of three high
courts at Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1862, and Allahabad in 1866.
Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of the constitution deal with the organization,
jurisdiction, and powers of the high courts. The Seventh Amendment Act of
1956 authorized the parliament to establish a common high court for two or
more states or two or more union territories. At present, there are 25 high
courts in the country.

Power and Function of the High Court


The constitution of India although talks about the composition and structure
of the high court but it does not contain detailed provisions with regard to
the jurisdiction and powers of a high court.

Original Writ Appellate Supervisory Control


Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Jurisdiction Over
n n n Subordinat
e Courts
# In such # Article # This is for # Power of # It states
kind of 226 cases superintende that the high
cases the empowers a where nce over all court can
applicant high court to people have courts and withdraw a
can directly issue writs risen a tribunals case
go to the includeing complaint functioning in pending
High Court habeas about a its territorial before any
and does corpus, review of jurisdiction subordinate
not require mandamus, the (except court if it
to raise an certiorari, judgement military courts involves a
appeal. prohibition, given by the or tribunals). substantial
# It is mostly and quo- district level # The High question of
applicable warranto for or Court holds law.
for cases the subordinate the right to # The case
enforcemen court of that
related to order its can be
t of the territory.
the State subordinate disposed of
Legislative fundamental # This offices and itself or
Assembly, rights of the power is courts the solve the
marriages, citizens and further way of question of
for any
enforcement divided into maintaining law and
other
of two records and return back
purpose.
fundamental categories: prescribing to the same
rights, and # Writ a. Civil rules for court.
transfer jurisdiction Jurisdictio holding
of the High n and
Original Writ Appellate Supervisory Control
Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Jurisdictio Jurisdiction Over
n n n Subordinat
e Courts
cases from Court is b. proceedings
other courts. wider than Criminal in the court.
the Jurisdictio
supreme n.
court. The
High Court
can issue
writs also
for other
legal rights.

Power of Judicial Review—This power of the high court includes the


power to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive orders of
both central and state governments. It is to be noted that the word judicial
review is nowhere mentioned in our constitution but the Articles 13 and 226
explicitly provide the high court with this power.

Important Articles Related to the High Court


Article 214: The high courts for states.
Article 215: The high courts to be courts of record.
Article 216: Constitution of the high courts.
Article 217: Appointment and conditions of the office of a judge of
a high court.
Article 222: Transfer of a judge from one high court to another.
Article 226: Power of the high courts to issue certain writs.
Article 227: Power of superintendence over all courts by the HC.
Article 230: Extension of jurisdiction of the high courts to union
territories.
Article 231: Establishment of common the high court for two or
more states.
Appointment of Judges in the High Court
The judges of a high court are appointed by the president. The chief justice
of the high court is appointed by the president after consultation with the
chief justice of India and the governor of the concerned state. For the
appointment of other judges, the chief justice of the concerned high court is
also consulted.
In the case of a common high court for two or more states, the
governors of all the states concerned are consulted by the president.

Removal of High Court Judges


A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the
president. The president can issue the removal order only after an address
by the parliament has been presented to him in the same session for
removal. Two grounds of impeachment—proven misbehaviour and
incapacity. Thus a judge of a high court can be removed in the same
manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the supreme court.

High Court Supreme Court


Apex judiciary body of a state’s The federal court which is the apex
administration. Headed by the chief court of justice in the country.
justice of the state. Headed by the chief justice of
India.
The judges are appointed by the Judges are appointed by the
President in consultation with the president after consultation with
Chief Justice of India and the such judges of the supreme court
Governor of the state in question. and the high court in the states.
Retirement at the age of 62 years. Retirement at the age of 65 years.
Has authority over all the other Has jurisdiction over all the courts
courts under its jurisdiction. and tribunals of the country.
Issues writs for the enforcement of Issues writs for the enforcement of
fundamental rights as well as any fundamental rights of citizens only
other legal right.
High Court Supreme Court
There is a Chief Justice and many At present, there are 34 judges
other judges. The number of (including the chief justice of India).
judges is appointed by the The parliament can make
President of India. provisions for increasing or
decreasing the number of judges.

JUDICIAL REVIEW IN INDIA


Judicial review is not specifically mentioned in the constitution of India, but
it is conferred under various Articles like Articles 13, 32, 21, 226, etc.
Judicial review is defined as the power of the judiciary to examine the
constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the
central and state governments. On examination, if they are found to be
violative of the constitution (ultra vires), they can be declared as null and
void by the judiciary.
The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the US in the
famous Marbury vs Madison (1803) by John Marshall. The Constitution
itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the supreme
court as well as high courts). The supreme court has declared the power of
judicial review as a basic structure of the constitution. Hence, it cannot be
curtailed or excluded even by a constitutional amendment. Importance of
judicial review:

a. to uphold the principle of the supremacy of the constitution,


b. to maintain federal equilibrium between the centre and the states,
and
c. to safeguard the fundamental rights of the citizens.

Articles related to Judicial Review:

1. Art. 13: any law that violates FR can be declared as invalid.


2. Art.13(2): Judicial Review of laws after commencement of Indian
constitution.
3. Art.372(1): JR of pre-const. laws that were enforce before the
commencement of constitution.
Important Cases Related to Judicial Review
Golaknath Case (1967),
Bank Nationalization Case (1970),
Privy Purses Abolition Case (1971),
Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), and
Minerva Mills Case (1980).

JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
Judicial activism denotes the proactive role played by the judiciary in
safeguarding and upholding the rights of citizens of the country and
ensuring justice in society. Originated in the US and the term ‘judicial
activism’ is believed to have been coined by an American historian Arthur
M. Schlesinger in 1947. In India, the phenomenon was introduced in the
mid–1970s by justice P. N. Bhagawati, justice V. R. Krishna Iyer, and
justice O. Chinappa Reddy & D.A. Desai.

Important Cases Related to Judicial Activism


ADM Jabalpur vs Shivkant Shukla (1976): Habeas Corpus case—
the dissenting judgement of H. R. Khanna caused widespread
outrage and ultimately paved the way for judicial activism in the
country.
Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India (1978): Due process of law was
introduced under Article 21 of the constitution.
Francis Coralie Mullin vs The Administrator, Union Territory of
Delhi: The supreme court ruled that the right to life entails the right
to live with human dignity and not merely animal existence.

Judicial activism heralded a new epoch in the arena of the judiciary–citizen


interface by introducing revolutionary practices like Public Interest Litigation
(PIL). Under Public Interest Litigation (PIL), the rule of ‘locus standi’, i.e.,
only the person whose rights have been infringed alone can move to the
court for remedies has been done away with. Now any citizen or a social
organization can approach the court on behalf of an aggrieved individual or
a collective who otherwise cannot do so on account of their poverty,
ignorance, or other socio-economic disadvantages.

IMPORTANT JUDICIAL REFORMS NEEDED IN


INDIA
Establishment of a national judicial infrastructure authority to
modernize and upgrade the infrastructure of Indian courts and
mitigate the mounting pendency of cases.
Use of technologies like artificial intelligence (AI) and encouraging
digitization of court records. For example, the SUPACE portal was
launched by the supreme court in 2021.
Creating Indian Courts and Tribunal Services (ICTS) to deal with the
administrative aspects of the legal system.
Creation of an All India Judicial Services in the spirit of Article 321(1)
of the constitution for streamlining the appointment system and filling
up vacancies plaguing Indian courts.
Reducing workloads by establishing special courts of commercial
and taxation-related cases, land disputes, traffic challans, etc.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Assertion (A): The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider tha
that of the supreme court.
Reason (R): While the supreme court could issue writs only for the
enforcement of fundamental rights, the high courts can issue writs for
other legal rights as well apart from fundamental rights.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false.
2. Which Article vests the supreme court with plenary powers in order to
do complete justice on a matter?
(a) Article 144
(b) Article 141
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 142

3. The collegium system for judicial appointments came into being for the
first time in which case?
(a) First Judge Case
(b) Second Judge Case
(c) Third Judge Case
(d) Fourth Judge Case

4. Assertion (A): The doctrine of ‘judicial review’ originated in the US.


Reason (R): The phrase ‘judicial review’ is mentioned in the
constitution of India under Articles 13 and 226.
Options:
(a) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of

5. Match the following:

Articles Provisions

1. 131 1. Common High Court

2. 136 2. Transfer of Judges

C. Special Leave Petition


3. 222

4. 231 D. Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

Options:
I. 1–(D), 2–(C), 3–(B), 4–(A)
II. 1–(A), 2–(B), 3–(C), 4–(D)
III. 1–(B), 2–(D), 3–(C), 4–(A)
IV. 1–(C), 2–(D), 3–(A), 4–(B)

6. Statement I: There are 28 high courts in India at present.


Statement II: The Seventh Constitutional Amendment authorized
the parliament to establish a common high court for two or more
states.
Options:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

7. The judges of the supreme court and high courts can be removed by?
(a) the president alone.
(b) the president after approval from parliament.
(c) the president after taking advice from the prime minister and co
of ministers.
(d) the president cannot remove the judges.

8. Which of the following cases opened the doors for judicial activism in
India?
(a) Golaknath Case
(b) Maneka Gandhi Case
(c) Keshavanad Bharati Case
(d) ADM Jabalpur Case

9. The supreme court of India was established on:


(a) 26 November 1949
(b) 26 January 1950
(c) 28 January 1950
(d) 15 August 1947

10. Assertion (A): The original jurisdiction of the supreme court


extends to subjects of disputes between two or more states.
Reason (R): The inter-state river water disputes are not subject to
the original jurisdiction of the apex court.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer Key

8. 9. 1
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
(d (c 0.
(b) (d) (c) (a) (a) (c) (a)
) ) (b)
2. 4.
6. (c)
(d) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions


10. The inter-state river water disputes are subject to Article 262 of the
Indian constitution which provides for adjudication of such disputes
duly authorized by the parliament. The supreme court or any other
court has no role in this.
CHAPTER 8
Executive and Legislature in the
States

INTRODUCTION
The state government also follows the parliamentary system of
government like the central government. Some states have a bicameral
legislature and some states have a unicameral legislature. The
executive is the part of a government that is largely responsible for
execution and administration. The executive branch of government is
responsible for carrying out the laws and policies passed by the
legislative.
The state legislature occupies a prominent and central position in
the political system of a state. Articles 168 to 212 in Part 4 of the Indian
constitution deal with the organization composition duration officer’s
procedures, privileges, powers, and so on in the state legislature.
Though these are similar to that of parliament. The structure of
government is as follows:
GOVERNOR
The governor is the head of the state. He is appointed by the president
of India and holds office at the pleasure of the president. The governor
acts in a ‘dual capacity’ as the constitutional head of the state and as
the representative. He is part of the federal system of Indian polity and
acts as a bridge between union and state governments. The governor
performs the same duties as of president, but for the state. Governor
stands as the executive head of a state and the working remains the
same as the office of the president of India under the constitution of
India.
Governor is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive).
Part 6 of the constitution deals with the government in the states.
Articles 153 to 167 in Part 6 of the constitution deal with the state
executive.
Executive Powers
Every executive action that the state government takes, is to be
taken in the name of the governor of that state.
Chief ministers and other ministers of the states are appointed
by the governor himself.
The governor appoints the advocate general of states and
determines their remuneration.
He appoints the people for the following posts:
state election commissioner,
chairman and members of the state public service commission,
and
vice-chancellors of the universities in the state.
He can make rules for more convenient transactions of the
business of the state government and for the allocation among
ministers

Judicial Power
According to Article 161 of the Indian constitution, The governor can
grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remission of punishments. He
also can suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person
convicted of an offence against the law.

List of Articles and Related Functions


Article 153—for governors of states.
Article 154—the governor is the executive head of the state.
All the executive functions will be performed by him or by the
officers subordinate to him in accordance with the constitution.
Article 155—for appointment of the governor.
Article 159—for oath or affirmation by the governor.
Article 161—pardoning power.
Article 163—he will be aided and advised by the chief
minister and council of ministers unless he is performing a
function at his discretion.
Article 201—bills reserved by the governor for consideration
of the president.
Article 213—the power of the governor to promulgate
ordinances.
Article 356—if the president receives a report from the
governor about the failure of constitutional machinery, the
president’s rule is imposed by suspending the state government
and the central government directly administers the state
through the office of the governor.

Important Cases and Committee


Recommendations
The supreme court in the Nabam Rebia Judgment (2016) ruled
that the exercise of the governor’s discretion Article 163 is
limited and his choice of action should not be arbitrary or
fanciful. It must be a choice dictated by reason, actuated by
good faith, and tempered by caution.
The Administrative Reforms Commission (1968) recommended
that the report of the governor regarding the president›s rule has
to be objective and also the governor should exercise his
judgment in this regard.
The Governors Committee (1971) laid down the responsibility on
the governor to see that the administration of the state does not
break down due to political instability and he must send a
regular report about the political situation of the state.
The Rajamannar Committee (1971) recommended the deletion
of Articles 356 and 357 from the constitution of India. The
Rajamannar Committee emphasized that the governor of the
state should not consider himself an agent of the centre but play
his role as the constitutional head of the state.
The Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommended that Article 356
should be used in very rare cases when it becomes unavoidable
to restore the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the
State.
S. R. Bommai Case (1994) recommended that failure of
constitutional machinery should be classified into four heads i.e.,
political crisis, internal subversion, physical breakdown, and
non-compliance with constitutional directions of the union
executive.

CHIEF MINISTER
The chief minister is the head of the state government. The chief
minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive). The leader
of the majority party or coalition of parties is appointed as the chief
minister by the governor. Thus, the position of the chief minister at the
state level is analogous to the position of the prime minister at the
centre.

List of Articles and Related Functions


The constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the
selection and appointment of the chief minister.
Article 163 says that there shall be a council of ministers with the
chief minister as the head to aid and advise the governor on the
exercise of his function.
Article 164 says that the chief minister shall be appointed by the
governor. And other ministers shall be appointed by the
governor on the advice of the chief minister.

The chief minister has the power to preside over the meetings of the
cabinet and makes policy decisions for the government. The chief
minister is also the mediator between the governor and the council of
ministers in making all cabinet-related decisions such as administrative
and legislative proposals. All the major appointments made by the
governors are made on the advice of the chief minister.

COUNCIL OF THE MINISTERS


The state council of ministers is formed similarly to the council of
ministers at the union. Article 163(1) says there shall be a council of
ministers headed by the chief minister to aid and advise the governor in
the exercise of his functions except when he is required by the
constitution to act at his discretion.

STATE LEGISLATURE
The legislature is the state’s law-making body. It is one of the three-
state organs. It has the power to enact laws as well as run the state.
According to Article 168 of the Indian constitution, a state can have a
unicameral (which should be the legislative assembly) and a bicameral
legislature (legislative council and legislative assembly). Every state
must have a legislature that includes the governor. The constitution
provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
Accordingly, the parliament can abolish a legislative council or create it,
if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to
that effect.

List of Articles and Related Functions


Article 168: Constitution of legislatures in states.
Article 169: Abolition or creation of legislative councils in
states.
Article 170: Composition of the legislative assemblies.
Article 171: Composition of the legislative councils.
Article 172: Duration of state legislatures.
Article 173: Qualification for membership of the state
legislature.
Article 174: Sessions of the state legislature, prorogation, and
dissolution.
Article 175: Right of the governor to address and send
messages to the house or houses.
Article 176: Special address by the governor.
Article 177: Rights of ministers and advocate-general as
respects the houses.

Structure of State Legislature


The state legislature is not complete without the governor. The
legislative assembly is the lower house (house of people or Vidhan
Sabha) in a unicameral legislature, and the legislative council (Vidhan
Parishad) is the upper house in a bicameral legislature. At present,
only six states have two houses these are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka. Even in states with
bicameral legislatures, the legislative assembly, or Vidhan Sabha, is
the true legislative.
The legislative assembly is a body that is elected. Using the
universal adult franchise principle, the people elect its member
of the legislative assembly (MLA).
The Vidhan Sabha has a five-year term. On the chief minister’s
recommendation, the governor may, however, dissolve the
assembly earlier.
Similarly, when the president’s rule is implemented in a state, the
assembly may be suspended or disbanded.
The parliament may extend the duration of legislative
assemblies during a national emergency for a maximum of one
year at a time.

The upper chamber of the state legislature i.e., the legislative council
shall not have more than one-third of the total membership of the state
legislative assembly but not less than 40. The state council is a
permanent house, and hence it is not dissolved. Members are
elected/nominated for a period of six years. One-third of its members
retire after every two years.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. In which Articles of the constitution include the provision for state
legislatures?
(a) Articles 26 to 78
(b) Article 370
(c) Articles 52 to 78
(d) Articles 168 to 212

2. Presently, how many Indian states have a bicameral stat


legislature?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 18
(d) 16

3. Who among the following in the state legislature decides whethe


a bill is a money bill or not?
(a) The speaker of the legislative assembly
(b) The chief minister
(c) The chairman of the legislative council
(d) The leader of the majority party

4. Which of the following statements about the speaker of the state


legislature’s power is incorrect?
(a) He maintains the order and decorum of the house.
(b) He adjourns the assembly or suspends the meeting in
absence of a quorum.
(c) He calls for a joint session of the assembly and counc
resolve the deadlock between the two houses over an ordi
bill.
(d) He decides whether a bill is a money bill or not.

5. The smallest Vidhan Sabha in India, in terms of the number o


members of the legislative assembly is?
(a) Delhi
(b) Goa
(c) Pondicherry
(d) Sikkim
6. Who of the following has the authority to dissolve a state’
legislative assembly?
(a) The governor
(b) The chief minister
(c) The speaker of the legislative assembly
(d) The speaker

7. Which state does not have a legislative council?


(a) Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala
(d) Bihar

8. One-third of the members of the legislative council retire


every_____ years?
(a) one
(b) four
(c) two
(d) six

9. Which state has a unicameral legislature?


(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka

10. Which is the upper chamber of the state legislature


in India?
(a) Legislative Council
(b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Governor’s Office
(d) None of the above

11. In which assembly of states, money bills are proposed?


(a) only in the legislative council.
(b) any one house.
(c) only in the legislative assembly.
(d) in both houses.

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 9. 10. 11.
(d) (a) (c) (c) (b) (a) (c)
2. 4. 6.
8. (c)
(a) (c) (a)
CHAPTER 9
Federalism in India

INTRODUCTION
A federal governance structure refers to the division of powers between
the federal and provincial governments; i.e., central and state
governments, where both structures have separate jurisdiction and no
one derives its authority from the other. It is an arrangement of power-
sharing between two levels of government. The term ‘federation’ is
derived from the Latin word ‘foedus’ meaning ‘treaty’ or ‘agreement’.
The constitution of India provides for a federal system of government
in the country. However, the term ‘federation’ is nowhere mentioned in
the constitution. Article 1 of the Indian constitution simply describes India
as a ‘Union of States’. ‘Union of States’ indicates two things:

i. the Indian state is not the result of an agreement among the states
like the American federation and
ii. the states have no right to secede from the federation.
Basically, the union is indestructible. The Indian federal system is
modelled upon Canadian federalism.

FEDERAL STRUCTURE OF INDIA


India has devised a peculiar model of federalism to cater to its needs and
aspirations taking into account particular historical factors necessitating
this kind of arrangement. Although India manifests a federal polity, it is
more tilted in favour of a strong centre. K. C. Wheare described the
constitution of India as ‘quasi–federal’. He remarked that the ‘Indian
Union is a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than a
federal state with subsidiary unitary features.’
P.Bardhan: Indian Federation as “Holding together federation” and not
a “Coming together federation.
Federal and unitary features of the Indian constitution:

Federal Features Unitary Features


Dual polity Strong Centre
Written Constitution All India Services
Division of Powers States not indestructible
Supremacy of the Constitution Single Constitution
Rigid Constitution The flexibility of the Constitution
Independent Judiciary No Equality of State
Representation
Bicameralism Emergency Provisions

PROVISIONS INDICATING A STRONG CENTRE


IN INDIA
1. Distribution of powers:
i. the union list contains more subjects than the state list,

ii. more important subjects like defence have been included in


union list,
iii. the centre has overriding authority over the concurrent list, and

iv. the residuary powers have also been left with the centre.
Note: The union list has 100 subjects, the state list has 61
subjects, and the concurrent list has 52 subjects.
The 42nd CAA 1976 transferred 5 subjects to concurrent list from
the state list
2. States not indestructible:
i. the states in India have no right to territorial integrity and

ii. the parliament can unilaterally change the area, boundarie


name of any state by a simple majority.
3. Single constitution:
i. Usually, in a federation, the states have the right to frame
own constitution independent of that of the centre but in India
such power is given to states. Both centre and the states hav
operate within a single constitutional framework.
4. Flexibility of the constitution:
i. The process of constitutional amendment is less rigid in Indi
compared to other federations. Also, the power to amend
constitution rests solely with the parliament, i.e., the ce
However, in countries such as the US, even the states
propose an amendment to the constitution.
5. No equality of state representation:
i. The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on
basis of their population. Hence the membership varies from
31. On the contrary, the US Senate has 100 members, two e
from each of the 50 states.
6. Emergency provisions:
i. During an emergency, the central government becomes
powerful and the states go into total control of the centr
converts a federal structure into a unitary one without fo
amendment of the constitution.
7. Single citizenship:
i. There is only Indian citizenship and no separate state citizens
All citizens regardless of the states they are born into or resid
enjoy the same rights all over the country. Other federal coun
like the US, Switzerland, and Australia have dual citizenship.
8. Integrated judiciary:
i. The Indian constitution has established an integrated jud
system with the supreme court at the top and the state high co
below it. This single integrated system enforces both the centra
well as state laws.
9. All-India services:
i. In India, both centre and states have their separate pu
services. But in addition, there are all-India services like IAS,
and IFS that are common to both centre and the states.
members of these services are recruited and trained by the ce
which also possesses ultimate control over them.
10. Integrated election machinery:
i. The election commission of India conducts elections not on
the central legislature but also to the state legislatures. But
body is constituted by the president and the states have no sa
this matter.

ASYMMETRICAL FEDERAL PROVISIONS IN


INDIA
Asymmetric federalism means federalism based on unequal powers and
relationships in political, administrative, and fiscal arrangements between
the units constituting a federation. Asymmetry in the arrangements in a
federation can be viewed both in terms of vertical (between centre and
states) and horizontal (among the states) senses.

Political and Constitutional Asymmetry


Ronald Watts has made an important distinction between political and
constitutional asymmetry which exist in our country. Political
representation of the state in the Rajya Sabha in proportion to their
population. For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31 members whereas Sikkim
has only 1 member in the upper house. Constitutional, erstwhile special
provision to Jammu & Kashmir under Article 370, existing special
provisions for various states of the northeast like Nagaland and Mizoram
under article 371. Similarly, there are specific provisions for promoting
socio-economic development in some states (Articles 371A–371J).

The Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Constitution


The Sixth Schedule makes provisions for the administration of tribal
areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. These create
autonomous districts and autonomous regions administered by district
councils and regional councils. These councils make laws governing the
socio-cultural lives of people residing in these regions.

Union Territory: Established in Sync with the Federal


Asymmetry
Union territories like Delhi and Puducherry have their own legislative
assemblies and elected governments whereas other like Chandigarh and
Lakshadweep comes under the administrative control of the union
government.
However, there are notable differences. While Puducherry has full
legislative powers over any matter contained in the state or concurrent
lists, in Delhi, subjects like police, land, and public order come under the
central government.

Fiscal Asymmetry
Statutory transfers of funds from the centre to states are made on the
recommendations of the finance commission. The cost of implementing
centrally sponsored schemes to bring about welfare is co-shared by both
the centre and the sub-national units. In the NITI Aayog era, the centre
has considerably reduced the share of its revenue to implement centrally
sponsored schemes.

INTERGOVERNMENTAL COORDINATION
MECHANISMS

Inter-State Water Disputes


Article 262 of the constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state
river water disputes. Under this provision, the parliament enacted the
River Boards Act (1956) and Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956). The
River Boards Act (1956) provides for the establishment of river boards for
the regulation and development of inter-state rivers and river valleys.
The Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956) empowers the central
government to set up an ad-hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute
between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river
or river valley.

Zonal Councils
The zonal councils are the statutory bodies established by an Act of the
parliament, i.e., under the States Reorganization Act, of 1956. The act
divided the country into five zones (northern, central, eastern, western,
and southern). The union home minister happens to be the chairperson
of all the five zonal councils and each chief minister acts as a vice-
chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year
at a time.
The zonal councils aim at promoting cooperation and coordination
between states, union territories, and the centre. They discuss and
recommend matters like economic and social planning, linguistic
minorities, border disputes, inter-state transport, and so on. They are only
deliberative and advisory bodies.

North-Eastern Council
Formed under the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971. Its members
include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland,
Tripura, Meghalaya, and Sikkim. It has an objective to formulate a unified
and coordinated regional plan covering matters of common importance.
To review from time to time the measures taken by the member states for
the maintenance of security and public order in the region.

NITI Aayog
NITI Aayog succeeded the planning commission as the principal policy
think tank of the union government. With this, the erstwhile top to bottom
approach paved the way for the bottom-to-top approach for development
and governance and provided more room for states to deliberate upon
policy-making at national levels. The NITI Aayog aims to foster the spirit
of cooperative as well as competitive federalism and intends to align the
broader national agenda of development in sync with the needs and
aspirations of different regions of the country. Through its initiatives like
the Healthy States Progressive India Report and School Education
Quality Index, it nudges the states to adopt the best practices and
governance reforms to improve their rankings in specific socio-economic
sectors.

GST Council
A constitutional body under Article 279(A). It is a joint forum of both the
centre and the states comprising the union finance minister as the
chairperson and the finance ministers of the states among others. The
GST councils play an important role in the realm of fiscal federalism by
making recommendations to the centre and the states on issues of
taxation and the list of items that may come under GST purview. It also
addresses the concerns of states with regard to their shares in GST, and
the issue of compensation for the loss of revenue arising on account of
the introduction of GST.

Inter-State Council
Article 263 stipulates the establishment of an inter-state council for
effective coordination between the states and between the centre and
states. The Sarkaria Commission on centre–state relations made a
strong case for the establishment of a permanent inter-state council
under Article 263. The Janata Dal government headed by V. P. Singh
established the inter-state council in 1990. It consists of:

i. prime minister as the chairperson,

ii. chief ministers of all the states and union territories having
legislative assemblies,
iii. administrators of union territories not having legislative
assemblies,
iv. governors of states under the president’s rule, and
v. six central cabinet ministers including the home minister to be
nominated by the prime minister.

The council is a recommendatory body and it aims at promoting


coordination among the centre and states by examining, discussing and
deliberating on such issues like:
a. subjects in which the states or the centre have a common stake,
b. better coordination of policy and action on such subjects, and
c. any such matters of general interest to the states as may be
referred to it by the chairman.
The council may meet at least thrice a year and all questions are
decided by consensus. The council is assisted by a secretariat which is
headed by a secretary to the government of India.

COMMENTARIES ON INDIAN FEDERALISM

Scholars Remarks on Indian


Federalism
K. C. Wheare Quasi–Federal
Paul Appleby Extremely Federal
Morris Jones Bargaining Federalism
Ivor Jennings Federation with a strong
centralizing tendency.
Alexandrowicz Sui Generis (unique in character).
Granville Austin Cooperative federalism
The supreme court of India Federalism as a ‘basic feature’ (S.
R. Bommai vs Union of India
case, 1994).

IMPORTANT BOOKS
K. C. Wheare: Federal Government
K. Santhanam: Union-State Relations in India
Ivor Jennings: Some Characteristics of the Indian Constitution
C. H. Alexandrowicz: Constitutional Development in India
Morris Jones: The Government and Politics in India
Granville Austin: The Indian Constitution-Cornerstone of a
Nation

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Statement I: Indian federation is modelled after Canadian
federalism rather than American federalism.
Statement II: The Indian state is not the result of an agreement
among the units like the American federation.
Options:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

2. Which among the following are non-federal features of the Indian


constitution?
I. Rigid constitution
II. All India Services
III. Bicameralism
IV. Flexibility of the constitution
Options:
(a) I and III only
(b) II and III only
(c) III and IV only
(d) II and IV only

3. Match the following:

Scholars Characterization of Indian Federalis


1. Granville Austin I.Cooperative Federalism

2. K. C. Wheare II.Quasi Federal

C. Paul Appleby III. Extremely Feder


D. Morris Jonnes IV.Bargaining Federalism

Options:
(a) A–(IV), B–(III), C–(II), D–(I)
(b) A–(III), B–(IV), C–(I), D–(II)
(c) A–(I), B–(II), C–(III), D–(IV)
(d) A–(II), B–(I), C–(IV), D–(III)

4. Assertion (A): States are not subordinate to the centre in the


federal polity of India although the latter has more powers.
Reason (R): The states have an independent constitutional
existence and do not derive their powers from the centre.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

5. Which of the following are constitutional bodies?


I. GST Council
II. Zonal Council
III. Inter-State Council
IV. North-Eastern Council
Options:
(a) II and IV
(b) I and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I and III

6. Statement I: Ronald Watts propounded the concepts of politica


and constitutional asymmetry.
Statement II: The provisions of the Fifth and Sixth Schedules of
the constitution are examples of political asymmetry.
Options:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.

7. The supreme court recognized federalism as a basic feature of the


constitution in which of the following cases?
(a) Olga Tellis’s Case
(b) A. K. Gopalan’s Case
(c) M. C. Mehta’s Case
(d) S. R. Bommai’s Case

8. Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect ones:


I. The inter-state council came into effect in 1990 based on
recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
II. Its recommendations are binding in nature.
III. It comprises the prime minister, chief minister of all sta
governors of all states, and the union home minister.
IV. It is a constitutional body under Article 263 of the In
constitution.
Options:
(a) II and III only
(b) I and IV only
(c) I and II only
(d) III and IV only

9. Assertion (A): Disbursements of funds to states are done as pe


the recommendations of the finance commission.
Reason (R): The GST council acts as a balancing wheel of fiscal
federalism in India.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

10. Choose the incorrect statements:


Statement I: The word ‘federalism’ is nowhere mentioned in the
Indian constitution.
Statement II: Indian federation is an example of an
indestructible union of destructible states.
Options:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II.
(b) Only Statement II.
(c) Only Statement I.
(d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II.

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(a) (c) (b) (d) (a) (b) (d)
2. 4. 6. (c)
(d) (a)
CHAPTER 10
Electoral Process and Election
Commission of India

INTRODUCTION
Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with elections and establishes an
election commission, as an autonomous and independent constitutional
authority responsible for administering union and state elections. The body
administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and state legislative
assemblies, and the offices of the president and vice-president. The election
commission was established following the constitution on 25 January 1950.
Articles 324 to 329 of the constitution deals with the powers, function, tenure,
eligibility, etc., of the election commission and its members.

ELECTION COMMISSION OF INDIA

Structure of the Election Commission


From 1950 to 1989, the election commission was a one-member body with
the chief election commissioner (CEC) as its sole member. But after the
Election Commission Amendment Act of 1989, it has made a multi-member
body with one chief election commissioner and two more election
commissioners, appointed by the president.
In the year 1990, the two posts of election commissioners were eliminated
and again made a single-member body. This was repeated later in October
1993 when the president appointed two more election commissioners. Since
then, the election commission functions as a multi-member body comprising
three commissioners. In case of a difference of opinion between the chief
election commissioner and two other election commissioners, the matter is
decided by the commission by a majority. The first chief election
commissioner was Sukumar Sen and Rajiv Kumar was appointed as the
present or twenty-fifth chief election commissioner of India.

Election Machinery
Election commission of India
Chief Electoral officer
District Election Officer
Returning officer
Electoral registration Officer
Presiding officer
observers

Powers and Functions of the Election Commission


To supervise the machinery of elections throughout the country for
ensuring the conduct of free and fair elections.
To determine the electoral constituencies’ territorial areas throughout
the country based on the Delimitation Commission Act of parliament.
To prepare and revise the periodic electoral rolls and register all eligible
voters.
To notify the schedules and dates of elections and scrutinize
nomination papers.
To grant election symbols to various political parties in India and act as
a court to settle disputes concerning the same.
To issue the model code of conduct in the election for political parties
and candidates so that no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no
arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power.
The commission can use advisory jurisdiction on matters concerning
the disqualification of members of parliament and the members of
legislative assemblies to the president and the governor.
To cancel the polls in case of booth capturing, rigging, violence, and
other irregularities.
To register the political parties and grant them the status of national or
state parties (depending on their poll performance).
To prepare the electoral roll, and issue electronic photo identity cards
(EPIC).
To set limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political
parties, and monitor the same.
To advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting
members of parliament and state legislatures.

Appointment and Removal of Election Commissioner


The president appoints the chief election commissioner and election
commissioners who have the same status and emoluments as available to the
judges of the supreme court of India. They have a tenure of six years, or up to
the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The chief election commissioner
may be removed from office through a motion adopted by parliaments on
grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. The election commissioner or
a regional commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the
recommendation of the chief election commissioner. The chief election
commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal
like that of a supreme court judge by parliament and the removal requires a
special majority of two-third members present and voting supported by more
than 50% of the total strength of the house.
The constitution does not use the word ‘impeachment’, for the removal of
the chief election commissioner, the term ‘impeachment’ is only used for
removing the president which requires a special majority of two-thirds
members of the total strength of both houses which is not used elsewhere.

ELECTION IN INDIA, CONDUCT AND RULES

Basic Rules and Important Provisions


No political party or contestant should take a chance to secure votes
based on caste and religion during the time of election.
Religious places should not be used for election purposes and giving
bribes, threats, and creating violence to scare the voters in the
opposition party meetings and campaigns are strictly prohibited.
Ministers of the ruling party have no right to use government
machineries such as government officials, government buildings, and
government vehicles during the election campaign.
The ruling party should not monopolize public spaces such as grounds
and helipads while holding public meetings for campaigning.
The armed forces should not be used as political tools in election
campaigns i.e., photographs of the army chief or functions attended by
defence personnel are prohibited.
Political parties and contestants shall not paste advertisement posters
or flags or display cut-outs/hoardings on the walls of government
properties like railway stations, airports, bridges, metro pillars,
government buildings, government hospitals, and post offices as part of
the election campaign.
No political party or individual can spend more than Rs. 25 lakhs on
campaigning for a Lok Sabha election, nor spend more than Rs. 10
lakhs on an assembly political race.

Model Code of Conduct


The model code of conduct is a set of guidelines that are issued by India’s
election commission for candidates and political parties during elections. The
guidelines are chiefly regarding speeches, polling booths, polling day conduct,
election manifestos, processions, and conduct in general. The model code of
conduct has its origins in the Kerala assembly elections of 1960 when the
state administration drafted a model code of conduct for election contestants.
Any person who violates the provisions of the model code of conduct
cannot be punished until the violation becomes an offence under the Indian
Penal Code, 1860, and the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and
whoever commits those crimes might be faced a fine and jail for
imprisonment. The election commission has the power to take immediate
action to stop violations of the provisions of the model code of conduct
concerning the election campaign.
There are a total of eight key provisions which are related to the model
code of conduct:

1. general conduct,
2. meetings,
3. procession,
4. polling day,
5. polling booth,
6. observers,
7. party in power, and
8. election manifestos.

Representation of Peoples Act of 1951


The Representation of Peoples Act 1951 was passed by Article 327 of the
Indian constitution. This Act did not contain all the provisions relating to
elections and merely provided for the allocation of seats and the delimitation
of constituencies for the house of people and legislatures of states, the
qualifications of voters at such elections, and the preparations of electoral
rolls.
The Representation of Peoples Act 1951 contains the following provisions
relating to electoral matters:

1. qualifications and disqualifications for membership of parliament an


state legislatures,
2. notification of general elections,
3. administrative machinery for conducting elections,
4. registration of political parties,
conduct of elections,
5.
6. free supply of certain material to candidates of recognized political
parties,
7. disputes regarding elections,
8. corrupt practices and election offences,
9. powers of the election commission in connection with inquiries as to
the disqualification of members,
10. re-elections and time limit for filling vacancies,
11. miscellaneous provisions relating to elections, and
12. barring the jurisdiction of civil courts.

ELECTORAL REFORMS IN INDIA


Electoral reforms in India refer to the evolution and positive change in election
processes to promote greater democracy, clean politics, ideal members of
legislative chambers, and equal representation, among other things. The first
three elections were conducted on fairground but the standards started to
degrade in the fourth one held in 1967. Many natives considered that it is the
result of political corruption that resulted in such maladministration. This is
why electoral reforms in India were introduced to face such challenges and to
make it a fair practice for all.
The electoral reforms contain the following aspects:
transparency about the background of the candidates,
to free election from muscle and money power,
prohibiting the nexus between business and politics,
upholding the secrecy of voters,
non-partisan role of media,
applying the model code of conduct efficiently, and
rationalizing electoral processes.

LISTS OF ELECTORAL REFORMS INTRODUCED


1. The Sixty-First Amendment Act 1988: this Act reduced the minimum
age for voting from 21 to 18 years.
2. Disqualification on Conviction for Violating the National Honours
Act, 1971: It is related to the disqualification of a person for 6 years
from contesting to the parliament and the state legislatures.
3. Electronic Voting Machine (EVMs): First introduced in 1998 during
the state elections of Delhi, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
4. Union of India vs Association of Democratic Reforms 2002:
Contesting candidates need to disclose all their assets and liabilities,
criminal convictions, etc., at the time of filing their nomination paper.
5. People’s Union of Civil Liberties vs Union of India 2013: Voters
enjoy the ‘Right to Negative Vote’ in the election process and directed
the election commission of India to include the choice of ‘NOTA’ in the
ballot paper.
6. Political Parties Registration Tracking Management System
(PPRTMS) 2020: To allow an applicant to track the progress of his/her
application.
7. Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation
Programme (SVEEP): The election commission of India organizes
voter awareness campaigns to educate the voters.

LISTS OF ELECTORAL REFORMS SUGGESTED


1. State Funding of Elections: This can bring transparency in the
funding process as public finance can limit the influence of interested
donors’ money and thereby help curb corruption.
2. Simultaneous Polls: to reduce the costs of holding elections by
the election commission of India and spending by political parties.
3. Public Interest Foundation & Others vs Union of India
2018: to prevent the criminalization of politics and take concerted
efforts to cleanse the political system of the country.
4. Limit on Party Expenditure: the expenditure of parties must be
made public before the actual date of elections so that the voters and
the concerned authorities could be priorly informed.
5. Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005: Political parties need to
be brought under the ambit of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
6. Voter’s Level: Voters need to be educated and should be aware
and well-informed about the candidate they seek to vote for.
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Consider the incorrect statements regarding the election commission o
India:
A. The election commission is an autonomous executive authority re
for union and state elections.

B. The election commission can use advisory jurisdictions on matters co


the disqualification of members of parliament and members of
assemblies.

C. The constitution uses the word ‘impeachment’, for the removal o


chief election commissioner.
D. The chief election commissioner cannot remove from office as gro
of the Judges of the supreme court of India.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) All
(b) Only A, B, and C only
(c) Only B, C, and D only
(d) Only A, C, and D only

2. Which Amendment Act made the election commission a multi-membe


body?
(a) Election Commission Amendment Act of 1987
(b) Election Commission Amendment Act of 1988
(c) Election Commission Amendment Act of 1989
(d) Election Commission Amendment Act of 1990

3. Which of the following was not among the powers and functions of th
election commission of India?
A. Determine the electoral constituencies based on Delimitation Co
Act.

B. Use legislative authority on matters concerning the disqualifi


members of parliament and members of legislative assemblies.

C. Advise the matter of post-election disqualification of member


parliament and members of legislative assemblies.
D. To refuse the status of national or state parties depending on their
performance.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only A and B
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only C and D
(d) Only B and D

4. What is the tenure of the election commissioner of India?


(a) Six years or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
(b) Six years or up to the age of 62, whichever is earlier
(c) Five years or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier
(d) Five years or up to the age of 62, whichever is earlier.

5. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The model code of conduct provides guidelines
regarding speeches, polling booths, election manifestos, processions,
etc.
Reason (R): Any person who tries to violate the guidelines issued by
the model code of conduct can be punished immediately.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

6. Which of the following does not come under the eight provisions relate
to the model code of conduct?
(a) Meetings
(b) Demonstrations
(c) Observers
(d) Election Manifestos.

7. Which state was the first to use the model code of conduct in India?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Bihar
(c) Orrisa
(d) Kerala

8. Consider the following statements:


Statement I: No political party or individual can spend more than Rs.
25 lakhs on Lok Sabha and Rs. 10 lakhs on assembly campaigning.
Statement II: The ruling party has the right to use government
machinery during the election campaign.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

9. Which of the following comes under the provisions of the Representatio


of Peoples Act of 1951?
A. Disputes regarding elections.

B. Barring the jurisdictions of civil courts.

C. Educate the voters.


D. Registration of political parties.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) All are correct
(b) Only A, B, and C
(c) Only B, C, and D
(d) Only A, B, and D

10. Which Amendment Act reduced the minimum age of voting from 21
years to 18 years?
(a) Fifty-Second Amendment Act
(b) Sixty-First Amendment Act
(c) Seventy-Third Amendment Act
(d) Hundredth Amendment Act.

11. Match the following:

Reforms Yea

1. Right to Negative Vote (NOTA) 1.

2. Political Parties Registration Tracking Management System 2.


(PPRTMS)

C. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) 3.

D. Right to Information Act (RTI) 4.

Choose the correct answer:


(a) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(b) A–2, B–4, C–3, D–1
(c) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2
(d) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3

12. The Disqualification on Conviction for Violating the National Honours


Act was passed in which year?
(a) 1970
(b) 1971
(c) 1972
(d) 1973

13. Which of the following are not among the suggested reforms by the
election commission in India?
(a) Simultaneous Polls
(b) Right to Information (RTI) Act
(c) State Fund
(d) Minister Level

14. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with the election commission
of India?
(a) Part XIV
(b) Part XV
(c) Part XVI
(d) Part XX

15. The removal of the chief election commissioner requires which of the
following process?
(a) One-thrid majority
(b) Three-fourth majority
(c) Two-third majority
(d) One-fourth majority

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (b) (c).
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (d)
(c) (c) (a) (a)
3. 6.
9. (d)
(d) (b)
CHAPTER 11
Local Government Institutions in
India

INTRODUCTION
The history of local government institutions as a key decentralized decision-
making body dates back to the Chola Kingdom of ancient times. However, it
was only after independence that these bodies evolved into a firm base of
vibrant Indian democracy. Inspired by M. K. Gandhi, the Indian constitution
initially put the provision of local government or Panchayati Raj into a non-
justiciable part of the constitution i.e., Article 40 under directive principles of
state policy.

TIMELINE OF EVOLUTION
In 1952 with the increasing complexities and centralization of power, it
was felt that India needed a robust grassroots democracy, and as a
result, some ‘pre-Panchayat Raj Institutions’ were introduced, one
among them being the ‘Community Development Programme’ of 1952.
Later on, in 1959, the journey of Panchayati Raj Institutions formally
began.
The amendment phase began with the Sixty-Fourth Amendment Bill
(1989) which was introduced by Rajiv Gandhi seeking to strengthen
the Panchayati Raj Institutions but the bill was not passed in the Rajya
Sabha.
Seventy-Third and Seventy-Fourth Constitutional Amendments were
passed by parliament in December 1992. Through these amendments,
local self-governance was introduced in rural and urban India. The Acts
came into force as the Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act,
1992 on 24 April 1993 and the Constitution (Seventy-Fourth
Amendment) Act, 1992 on 1 June 1993. 24th April is celebrated as
National Panchayati Raj Day since 2010.

COMMITTEES FOR PANCHAYATI RAJ


INSTITUTIONS AND RECOMMENDATIONS

Committee Recommendations
Balwant Rai Mehta
Committee (1957) The committee observed that the major
reason for the failure of the community
development programme was the lack of
people participation.
The committee suggested three-tier
Panchayati Raj Institutions, namely, Grama
Panchayats at the village level, Panchayat
Samiti at the block level, and Zilla Parishad at
the district level.
As a result, democratic decentralization was
launched in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan
on 2 October 1959.

Ashok Mehta
Committee (1977) The committee recommended a two-tier
Panchayat Raj Institutional structure
consisting of Zilla Parishad and Mandal
Panchayat.
In order to use planning expertise and secure
administrative support, the district was
suggested as the first point of decentralization
below the state level.
Based on its recommendation, some of the
states like Karnataka incorporated them
effectively.
Committee Recommendations
Hanumantha Rao
Committee (1983)
The committee advocated separate district
planning bodies under either the district
collector or a minister.

G. V. K. Rao
Committee (1985) Make the ‘district’ as the basic unit of
planning.
Hold regular elections.

L. M. Singhvi
Committee (1986) More financial resources.
Constitutional status to the Panchayats to
strengthen them.

P. K. Thungan
Committee (1989) Constitutional recognition for the local
government bodies.

SEVENTY-THIRD AMENDMENT ACT

Articles and Provisions


The Seventy-Third Amendment 1992 added a new Part IX to the constitution
titled “The Panchayats” covering provisions from Articles 243 to 243(O), and a
new Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects within the functions of the
Panchayats. The list of Articles and provisions is as follows:

Article Provision
243A Gram Sabha
243B Constitution of Panchayats.
243C Composition of Panchayats.
Article Provision
243D Reservation of seats.
243E Duration of Panchayats.

243F Disqualifications for membership.

243G Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.


243H Powers to impose taxes by, and funds of, the Panchayats.
243I Constitution of finance commission to review financial
position.
243J Audit of accounts of Panchayats.
243K Elections to the Panchayats.
243L Application to union territories.

243M Part not to apply to certain areas, e.g., Nagaland,


Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
243N Continuance of existing laws and Panchayats.
243O Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters.

COMPULSORY VS VOLUNTARY PROVISION OF


PANCHAYATI RAJ INSTITUTIONS ACT

Compulsory Provisions
Constitution of Gram Sabha in a village or a group of villages.
Establishment of Panchayats at village, intermediate, and district.
Direct elections to all the above.
Indirect election to the post of the chairperson of the Panchayats at the
intermediate and district level.
21 years to be the minimum age for contesting.
Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Panchayats at all levels.
Reservation of one-third of seats for women in Panchayats.
Fixing of tenure of 5 years and holding elections within six months in
any event of supersession of any Panchayat.
Establishment of the state election commission.
Constitution of state finance commission after every 5 years to review
the financial position of the Panchayats.

Voluntary Provisions
Giving representation to members of the parliament and state
legislature at various levels of the Panchayats.
Providing reservation of seats for backward classes.
Granting powers and authority to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Devolutions of powers and representation.
Granting financial powers to the Panchayats.

Functions in Eleventh Schedule


The state legislatures are needed to enact laws to endow powers and
authority to the Panchayats to enable the functions of local government. The
Eleventh Schedule enshrines the distribution of powers between the state
legislature and the Panchayats. These 29 subjects ensure constitutional
autonomy to the Panchayat governance in India. Some of the important
subjects in the list are:
Agriculture, including agricultural extension.
Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation,
and soil conservation.
Minor irrigation, water management, and watershed development.
Animal husbandry, dairying, and poultry.
Khadi, village, and cottage industries.
Public distribution system.
Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centres and
dispensaries.

Panchayats Extention to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act


of 1996
The Panchayats Extention to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act was enacted in
1996 on the recommendations of the Bhuria Committee ‘to provide for the
extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the
Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas’. Under the Panchayats Extention to
Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, Scheduled Areas are those referred to in Article
244(1), which says that the provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the
Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Fifth Schedule provides for a range of
special provisions for these areas.
The Panchayats Extention to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act was enacted
to ensure self-governance through Gram Sabhas (village assemblies) for
people living in the Scheduled Areas. It recognizes the right of tribal
communities, who are residents of the Scheduled Areas, to govern
themselves through their own systems of self-government, and also
acknowledges their traditional rights over natural resources.
In pursuance of this objective, the Act empowers Gram Sabhas to play a
key role in approving development plans and controlling all social sectors.
This includes the processes and personnel who implement policies, exercise
control over minor (non-timber) forest resources, minor water bodies and
minor minerals, manage local markets, prevent land alienation, and regulate
intoxicants among other things.

URBAN LOCAL SELF GOVERNMENT:


MUNICIPALITIES
The first municipal mechanism created during British rule was the municipal
corporation, set up in the former presidency town of Madras (today Chennai)
in 1688 with a view to transferring the financial responsibility of local
administration to the newly created corporation. The mayor’s courts were
established in each of the three presidency towns, Madras, Bombay, and
Calcutta through the Royal Charter of 1720. In 1882, the then Viceroy of India,
Lord Ripon’s resolution of local self-government laid the democratic forms
of municipal governance in India.
The current form and the structure of municipal bodies are based on Lord
Ripon’s Resolutions, which was adopted in 1882 as local self-government.
The Government of India Act, of 1919 incorporated the need for the
conferment of power to a democratically elected government. This act has
another development towards the evolution of urban local bodies in India. In
1935, another Government of India Act brought the local government under
the purview of the state of the provincial government and specific powers
were given to that local self-government.

SEVENTY-FOURTH AMENDMENT ACT

Articles and Provisions


Constitution (Seventy-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1992 has introduced a new
Part IXA in the constitution, which deals with municipalities in Articles 243P to
243Z(G). This amendment, also known as Nagarpalika Act, came into force
on 1st June 1993. It has given constitutional status to the municipalities and
brought them under the justifiable part of the constitution. States were put
under a constitutional obligation to adopt municipalities as per the system
enshrined in the constitution.

Article Provision
243P Definitions
243Q Constitution of municipalities.

243R Composition of municipalities.

243S Constitution and composition of Wards Committees, etc.

243T Reservation of seats.

243U Duration of Municipalities, etc.


243V Disqualifications for membership.
243W Powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities, etc.
243X Power to impose taxes by, and Funds of, the Municipalities.
243Y Finance Commission
243Z Audit of accounts of municipalities.

243Z(A) Elections to the municipalities.

243Z(B) Application to union territories.

243Z(C) Part not to apply to certain areas.

243Z(D) Committee for district planning.

243Z(E) Committee for Metropolitan planning.

243Z(F) Continuance of existing laws and Municipalities.

243Z(G) Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters.

TYPES OF URBAN LOCAL SELF-GOVERNMENT


Urban Area Structure
Local Self-
Governmen
t Body
Municipal Municipal A municipal corporation is made up
Corporation corporations are of wards committees. Each ward
usually found in big has one seat in the wards
cities such as committee. Members are elected to
Bangalore, Delhi, the wards committee on the basis of
Mumbai, Kolkata, adult franchise for a term of five
etc. years. These members are known
as councillors.
Municipality The smaller cities The municipalities are often called
tend to have the upon by other names such as the
provision of municipal council, municipal
municipalities. committee, municipal board, etc.
Notified Area Notified area All the members of the notified area
Committee committees are set committee are nominated by the
up for the fast- state government.
developing towns
and the towns
lacking the basic
amenities.
Town Area The town area It has minimal authority such as
Committee committee is found street lighting, drainage roads, and
in small towns. conservancy.
Cantonment It is usually set up It is created and run by the central
Board for a civilian government.
population living in
the cantonment
area.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure whic
among the following?
1. People’s participation in development.

2. Political accountability.

3. Democratic decentralization.

4. Financial mobilization.

Select the correct answer using the code given below


(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

2. Who is known as the father of local government institutions in India?


(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Macaulay
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Ripon

3. Assertion (A): In states or union territories with less than two millio
inhabitants there are only two levels of Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Reason (R): Seventy-Third Amendment Act, 1993 includes a three-
tier Panchayati Raj Institution system as a compulsory provision.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A).
(c) Only (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(d) Only (R) is correct and (A) is incorrect.

4. Match the followings:

Article Provision
i. State Finance Commission
1. 243A

2. 243D ii.State Election Commission

c.243I iii. Gram Sab


d.243K iv.Reservation in Panchayati Raj Institutions

Choose the correct answer:


(a) a–i, b–iii, c–ii, d–iv
(b) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
(c) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
(d) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i

5. Which of the following functions is not listed in the Eleventh Schedule o


the Indian constitution?
i. Libraries
ii. Minor Forest Products
iii. Adult Education
iv. Conventional Energy Sources
v. Public Transport
Options:
(a) i and iii only
(b) i, iii, and iv only
(c) iv, and v only
(d) iii, iv, and v only

6. Choose the correct statement/s:


1. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended a four-tier Panchayati Syste

2. The L. M. Singhvi Committee was the first to recommend constitutio


to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
3. G. V. K. Rao Committee led to the establishment of the C
Development Programme.

Options:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) None

7. Arrange the following committees in chronological order:


i. Ashok Mehta Committee
ii. G. V. K. Rao Committee
iii. Hanumanthaiah Committee
iv. P. K. Thungan Committee
Options:
(a) i–ii–iii–iv
(b) i–iii–iv–ii
(c) i–iii–ii–iv
(d) iii–i–iv–ii

8. All the members of which of the following body are nominated by th


state government?
(a) Metropolitan Corporation
(b) Notified Area Committee
(c) Cantonment Board
(d) Municipality

9. The Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996, wa


based on recommendations of?
(a) Bhuria Committee
(b) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(c) Venkatachaliah Committee
(d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
10. Provisions of the Panchayati Raj system don’t apply to states of?
1. Nagaland

2. Meghalaya

3. Mizoram

4. Manipur

Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (b) (c) (c) (b) (a) (d)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(d) (c)
CHAPTER 12
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies

INTRODUCTION
The constitutional bodies are established by the constitution itself and derive
their authority from it. It also means any changes in the structure or function
require a constitutional amendment. It includes important constitutional bodies
like the election commission, finance commission, union public service
commission, etc.
The statutory bodies are also known as non-constitutional bodies as they
are established not by the constitution but by an act of parliament. It includes
the national human rights commission, central information commission, etc.

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN CONSTITUTIONAL AND


STATUTORY BODY

Constitutional Bodies Statutory Bodies


Constitutional Bodies Statutory Bodies
1. These are mentioned in the 1. These are not mentioned
constitution with a dedicated anywhere in the constitution and
article in the constitution. are established through an act of
2. The function and structure parliament.
cannot be changed without 2. It can be modified after
amending the constitution. passing an act of parliament.
3. The members are appointed by 3. The members can be
special committees or high appointed by authority as
government offices, e.g., the mentioned in the act.
President. 4. For example, the National
4. For example, the Election Human Rights Commission,
Commission, Finance Central Information Commission,
Commission, Union Public etc.
Service Commission, etc.

COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL OF


INDIA
Article 148 provides for an independent office of the comptroller & auditor
general of India. He is the head of the Indian audit and accounts department.
He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system
of the country at both the levels-the centre and the state. His duty is to uphold
the constitution of India and the laws of parliament in the field of financial
administration. Shri Girish Chandra Murmu is the current comptroller &
auditor general of India.

Appointment & Tenure


The comptroller & auditor general of India is appointed by the president of
India. The comptroller & auditor general of India, before taking over his office,
makes an oath or affirmation before the president of India. His tenure is of six
years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can also be
removed by the president on the same grounds and in the same manner as a
judge of the supreme court.

Independence
He is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the
president only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the constitution.
Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is
appointed by him. He is not eligible for re-appointment, either under the
government of India or of any state after he ceases to hold his office. No
minister can represent the comptroller & auditor general of India in parliament
and no minister can be called upon to take responsibility for any actions done
by him.

Important Duties & Functions


Article 149 mentions the duties and powers of the comptroller & auditor
general of India. The duties and functions of the comptroller & auditor general
of India as laid down by the parliament and the constitution are:
He audits the accounts related to all expenditures from the
consolidated fund of India, the consolidated fund of each state, and
union territories having a legislative assembly.
He audits all expenditures from the contingency fund of India and the
public account of India as well as the contingency fund and public
account of each state.
He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the
president or governor, e.g., local bodies.
He advises the president with regard to the prescription of the form in
which the accounts of the centre and states shall be kept.
He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the centre to
the president, who shall, in turn, place them before both houses of
parliament. In the case of the state, to the governor.
He also acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher of the public accounts
committee of the parliament.
The comptroller & auditor general of India submits three audit reports
to the president audit report on appropriation accounts, audit. report on
financial accounts, and audit report on public undertakings.

IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL AND STATUTORY


BODIES

Name Type of Body & Members & Power & Function


Related Articles Compositio
& Act n
Name Type of Body & Members & Power & Function
Related Articles Compositio
& Act n

#A
chairperson,
vice
chairperson
National # A constitutional +3 # Commissions are
Commission body. members. vested with the
for # They are power to regulate
# Article 338
Scheduled appointed by their own procedure.
Castes # Sixty-Fifth
the # It has a function to
Amendment Act
president. investigate and
1990 established
National # It is under monitor all matters
Commission for SCs the Ministry relating to the
and STs. of Social constitutional and
Justice & other legal
# In Eighty-Ninth safeguards for the
Empowerme
Amendment Act scheduled castes
nt.
2003 bifurcated it and to evaluate their
into two separate work.
bodies, i.e., National
Commission for # To inquire into
Scheduled Castes specific complaints
(Article 338), and with respect to the
National deprivation of rights
Commission for and safeguards of
Scheduled Tribes the scheduled
(Article 338A). castes.
# Advise the
government on
scheduled castes-
related issues.
# To present a report
annually to the
president.
Name Type of Body & Members & Power & Function
Related Articles Compositio
& Act n

National # A constitutional #A # Commissions are


Commission body. chairperson, vested with the
for vice power to regulate
#Article 338A
Scheduled chairperson their own procedure.
Tribes # It is under the +3
Ministry of Tribal # It has a function to
members. investigate and
Affairs
# They are monitor all matters
appointed by relating to the
the constitutional and
president. other legal
safeguards for the
scheduled tribes and
to evaluate their
work.
# To inquire into
specific complaints
with respect to the
deprivation of rights
and safeguards of
the scheduled tribes.
# Advise the
government on
scheduled tribes-
related issues.
# To present a report
annually to the
president.

National # A statutory body # Chairman+ # To inquire into any


Commission # The Protection of four violation of human
for Human members rights or negligence
Human Rights Act,
Rights and 4 ex- in the prevention of
1993. This Act was
officio such violation by a
amended twice in
members public servant, either
2006 and then in
(deemed suo motu or on a
2019.
members). petition presented to
Name #Type
It is under the & Members
of Body # Chairman& Power & Function
Ministry of Home —retired
Related
Affairs. Articles Compositio
Chief Justice
& Act n
# Its headquarters is of India.
in Delhi and can # Member 2 it or on an order of a
establish offices in —retired court.
other areas of the judge of the # It is vested with
country. Supreme powers to regulate
# The chairman and Court. its own affairs and
members hold office # Member 3 has all the powers of
for a term of three —retired a civil court.
years or until they Chief Justice # It can investigate
attain the age of 70 of the High complaints of human
years, whichever is Court. rights violations.
earlier.
# Two- # It may call for
member— information or report
candidates from the Central and
with the State governments
knowledge or any other
or practical authority
experience subordinate thereto.
in the
matters of
human
rights.
# The ex-
officio
members
are
chairpersons
of:
National
Commission
for
Minorities.
National
Commission
for
Name Type of Body & Members & Power & Function
Related Articles Compositio
& Act n
Scheduled
Castes.
National
Commission
for
Scheduled
Tribes.
National
Commission
for Women.
Name Type of Body & Members & Power & Function
Related Articles Compositio
& Act n

National # A statutory body. # It consists # Investigate and


Commission # Established in of a examine all matters
for Women 1992, National chairperson, relating to the
Commission for five safeguards provided
Women Act 1990. members for women under the
and a constitution and
# It was first member other laws.
recommended in secretary.
1974 by the # Look into
committee on the # All the complaints and take
status of women. members Suo moto action
are over them.
# It is under the nominated
Ministry of Women & # Present reports
by the and make
Child Development. Central recommendations
Government. for effective
# At least implementation of
one member such safeguards to
each shall Union or state
be from governments.
amongst
# Review women
persons related to legislation
belonging to and bring out
the inadequacies and
scheduled shortcomings.
caste and
scheduled
tribe
respectively.
#
Chairperson
and member
shall hold
office not
exceeding 3
years.
Name Type of Body & Members & Power & Function
Related Articles Compositio
& Act n

National # A statutory body. # # To evaluate the


Commission # Set up in 1993, by Chairperson, progress of the
for Minorities National Vice development of
Commission for Chairperson minorities under the
Minorities Act 1992. + five union and states.
members. # To monitor the
# It is under the
# Members working of the
Ministry of Minority
to be safeguards provided
Affairs.
nominated in the Constitution
# Muslims, by the and in laws enacted
Christians, Sikhs, Central by Parliament and
Parsis and government the state
Buddhists are from legislatures.
minorities as per the amongst
Act. Jains were # To make
persons of recommendations
included in the list in eminence,
2014. for the effective
ability and implementation of
integrity. safeguards for the
# protection of the
Chairperson interests of
and every minorities by the
member Central Government
shall hold an or the State
office for a Governments.
term of three # To look into
years from specific complaints
the date he regarding
assumes deprivation of rights
office. and safeguards of
the minorities and
take up such
matters with the
appropriate
authorities.
List of Constitutional bodies:
Art. 76: Attorney General of India
Art. 148: CAG
Art. 165: Advocate General of State
Art. 243(I): State Finance Commission
Art. 243 (K): State Election Commission
Art. 234[z(d)]: District planning committee
Art. 263: Inter-state council
Art. 280: Finance Commission of India
Art. 279(a): GST Council
Art. 315- 323: UPSC + SPSC
Art. 324: Election Commission of India
Art 338: National Comm. for SCs
Art. 338(a): NC- STs
Art.338(b): NC-BCs
Art.339: SC & ST Comm.
Art.340: BC Comm.
Art.344: Official language comm.
Art. 350(b): Special officer for linguistic minorities

List of Statutory Bodies:


SEBI Act, 1992: Security Exchange Board of India
Protection of Human Rights Act(1993): NHRC
National Comm. for women act,1990: NC-Women
National Comm. Minorities Act, 1992: NC-Minorities
CVC Act,2003: Central vigilance Commission
CPCR Act, 2005: NC for Protection Of Child Rights (2007)
RTI Act,2005: Central Information Commission

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Under which article the office of the comptroller & auditor general i
mentioned?
(a) Article 147
(b) Article 148
(c) Article 149
(d) Article 150

2. Which statement is wrong about the comptroller & auditor general o


India?
(a) The comptroller & auditor general of India is appointed by the pres
of India.
(b) He is eligible for re-appointment.
(c) He is provided with the security of tenure.
(d) His tenure is of six years or up to the age of 65 years.

3. The comptroller and auditor general of India can undertake evaluatio


studies on the basis of which of the following?
a) On its own initiative.
b) The request of financial committees.
c) The directive in legislation.
d) The request of the organization and method division of a ministry.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) a, b, c, and d
(b) a, b, and d only
(c) b, c, and d only
(d) a, b, and c only

4. Which amendment bifurcated the National Commission for Schedule


Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
(a) Sixty-Fifth Amendment Act
(b) Eighty-Ninth Amendment Act
(c) Ninty-First Amendment Act
(d) Fifty-Second Amendment Act

5. Which one of the following is the Nodal Ministry for the National Huma
Rights Commission?
(a) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

6. Which statement is correct about National Commission for Schedul


Castes?
(a) It is under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
(b) It is under Article 338A.
(c) The commission has all the powers of a civil court.
(d) It is an extra-constitutional body.

7. The National Commission for Schedule Tribes is mentioned under whic


Article?
(a) Article 338
(b) Article 339
(c) Article 338A
(d) Article 339A

8. The National Human Rights Commission is established under whic


Act?
(a) The Protection of Human Rights Act 1993.
(b) The National Human Rights Acts 1992.
(c) The Protection of Human Rights Act 1992.
(d) The Protection and Welfare of Human Rights Act 1993.

9. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes under which ministry?


(a) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

10. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(d) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

11. Which community was last added to the list of minorities?


(a) Buddhist
(b) Lingayat
(c) Jains
(d) Parsis

12. Which committed recommended the formation of the National


Commission on Women?
(a) The Committee on the Status of Women
(b) The National Women’s Committee
(c) The United Nations Women’s Program
(d) The Special Committee of Women

13. Which one of the following commissions are the statutory body?
a. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

b. National Commission for Human Rights

c. National Commission for Minorities


d. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer from the given options:
(a) a and b only
(b) b, c, and d only
(c) a and d only
(d) b and c only

14. Which statement is wrong about the National Commission of Minority?


(a) It was set up under National Commission for Minorities Act 1992.
(b) It was a statutory body set up in 1993.
(c) It is under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
(d) Chairperson and every member shall hold an office for a term of
years from the date he assumes office.

15. Select the correct statement:


a. Constitutional bodies are mentioned in the constitution with a dedica
in the constitution.

b. Statutory bodies are also mentioned in the constitution however es


through an act of parliament.

c. The function and structure of constitutional bodies cannot be chan


without amending the constitution.
d. The statutory bodies are also known as non-constitutional bodie
extra-constitutional bodies
Options:
(a) a, b, and c only
(b) b, c, and d only
(c) a, c, and d only
(d) All of the above

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (d) (c)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (d)
(b) (c) (a) (c)
3. 6.
9. (b)
(d) (c)
Previous Years’ Questions

1. Which constitutional amendment provided for the setting up of


Administrative Tribunals in India? (2017)
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 59th Amendment
(c) 42th Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment

2. In whose description Maulana Azad, Jawaharlal Nehru,


Vallabhbhai Patel and Rajendra Prasad formed ‘an oligarchy
within the (Constituent) Assembly’ ? (2017)
(a) Granville Austin
(b) Morris Jones
(c) V.P. Menon
(d) Richard Sisson

3. Which one of the following Acts has not been passed under
article 34 of the Indian Constitution? (2017)
(a) The Border Security Force Act
(b) The Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act
(c) Armed Forces Special Power Act
(d) The Army Act

4. Term of office of Governor is: (2017)


(a) 6 years
(b) 4 years
(c) During the pleasure of President
(d) 3 years

5. Given below are two statements labelled as (2017)


Assertion (A): India is a military state with subsidiary federal
features
Reason (R): India is a federal state with subsidiary unitary
features
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

6. When the first Lok Sabha was constituted? (2017)


(a) In 1950
(b) In 1957
(c) In 1952
(d) In 1949

7. Elections have been accorded constitutional recognition under


Article: (2017)
(a) 324
(b) 256
(c) 156
(d) 55

8. The ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine, as propounded by Supreme


Court Judges, limits the amending power of (2017)
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) Judiciary
9. Which of the following criteria is considered while creating a
Nagar Panchayat? (2017)
(a) the degree of urbanization
(b) proportion of employment in non-agricultural activities
(c) the degree of people’s participation
(d) infrastructure facilities

10. Which of the following statements about the proposals of the


Cabinet Mission is incorrect? (2018)
(a) There would be a Union of India comprising of both British I
and the States.
(b) The Union would have an executive and a legislature consistin
representatives of the provinces and the states.
(c) All residuary powers would belong to the Union of India.
(d) The provinces would be free to form groups with executives
legislatures.

11. By which Constitutional Amendment Act, protection of freedom


of expression was withdrawn from those who advocate
secession from the Union of India? (2018)
(a) 14th Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) 16th Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 18th Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) 20th Constitutional Amendment Act

12. Which of the following statements are true about the powers of
a Governor? (2018)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
I. Members of State Public Service Commission can be remove
the President on the report of the Governor.
II. Unlike the President, the Governor has no power to appoint jud
of the State High Court.
III. Like the President, the Governor can nominate two member
the Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly of
state.
IV. The Governor is to be consulted by the President in
appointment of the Chief Justice and the judges of the High C
of the state.
Codes:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) II and IV only
(d) III and IV only

13. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from
the codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
(Union Territory) (High Court Jurisdictio
(A)Lakshdeep (i)Bombay
(B)Andaman and Nicobar Islands (ii) Madras
(C)Dadra and Nagar Haveli (iii) Kerala
(D)Pondichery (iv) Calcutta

Codes:
(a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

14. Who among the following referred to the Constituent Assembly


of India as ‘Microcosm in action’? (2018)
(a) B . R. Ambedkar
(b) Granville Austin
(c) Rajni Kothari
(d) Rajendra Prasad
15. Which of the following are the exclusive powers of the Lok
Sabha? (2018)
(A) Introduction of the money bill
(B) Ratification of the declaration of emergency
(C) To pass a motion of no-confidence against the council of minist
(D) To impeach the President
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and C only
(c) A and D only
(d) A, B and C only

16. For which purpose was the Cabinet Mission sent to India?
(2018)
(A) To establish a national government
(B) To workout a constitutional arrangement for the transfer of pow
(C) To suppress the intensity of the national movement
(D) A Constituent Assembly to be elected by Provincial Assemb
through proportional representation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) A and D only

17. Match List I with List II (2018)

List I List II
(A)42nd Amendment I.1978
(B)44th Amendment II.1963
(C)15th Amendment III. 1975
(D)38th Amendment IV.1976

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(b) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
(c) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(d) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

18. Arrange the formation of the following Indian states in a


chronological order (2018)
(A) Haryana
(B) Telangana
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Jharkhand
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) C, B, D, A
(c) B, C, A, D
(d) A, C, D, B

19. Arrange the following in the ascending order of their


establishment (2018)
(A) 14th Finance Commission of India
(B) Union Public Service Commission
(C) Central Vigilance Commission
(D) NITI Aayog
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, C, A, D
(c) C, B, A, D
(d) D, B, C, A
20. Ashok Mehta Committee in 1977 recommended for the
establishment of (2018)
(a) Nagar Panchayat
(b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Maha Panchayat
(d) Mandal Panchayat

21. Which one of the following cannot be dissolved but can be


abolished? (2018)
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Council
(d) State Legislative Assembly

22. Any resolution passed by the Parliament for removing a Judge


of the Supreme Court has to be investigated by a Committee
comprising of: (2018)
(a) Two judges of Supreme Court
(b) Two Judges of Supreme Court and Attorney General of India
(c) Three Judges of Supreme Court and a legal luminary
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court and two-Judges of the Supr
Court

23. In which case the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot
amend the ‘basic structure1 of the constitution? (2018)
(a) Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
(b) A K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
(c) Romesh Thapper Vs. State of Madras
(d) Keshwanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala

24. Read the following: (2018)


Assertion (A): Judicial review means the power of courts to
declare laws and orders of the Government as invalid if they are
against the constitution.
Reason (R): The failure of the Executive and Legislative branches
in India has given rise to Judicial Activism.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

25. Provincial autonomy was granted under the Act of: (2018)
(a) 1919
(b) 1861
(c) 1935
(d) 1892

26. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from
the codes given below: (2019)

List I List II
(Articles (Provision)
)
(A)Article (i)Reservation of seats of SC
243 K and ST in panchayats
(B)Article (ii) Eligibility criterion for urba
243 Q government institutions
(C)Article (iii) Establishment of State
243 V Election Commission
(D)Article (iv) Formation of urban local
243 D government institutions

Codes:
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

27. Who among the following Prime Ministers served for the
longest tenure? (2019)
(a) V.P. Singh
(b) Chandra Shekar
(c) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(d) H.D . Deva Gowda

28. Which among the following statements regarding citizenship in


India is NOT correct? (2019)
(a) Citizenship provisions came into force on 26 November 1949.
(b) A person who voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a for
country ceases to be an Indian citizen.
(c) A citizen of India can simultaneously be the citizen of ano
country.
(d) The Parliament has the power to make provisions pertainin
acquisition and termination of citizenship.

29. Which one of the following functions is NOT the concern of the
local government? (2019)
(a) Public health
(b) Sanitation
(c) Public utility services
(d) Maintenance of public order

30. Which of the following statements are incorrect with regard to


the Finance Commission? (2019)
(A) The provision of Finance Commission has been mentione
Article -280 of the Constitution.
(B) Finance Commission shall consist of Chairman and two memb
(C) Finance Commission submits its recommendations to
Parliament.
(D) The Parliament is authorized to determine the qualifications
appointment as member of the commission.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

31. Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down that the
President cannot act without the aid and advice of the Council
of Ministers? (2019)
(a) Article 75
(b) Article 74 (1)
(c) Article 73
(d) Article 72

32. Match List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2019)

List I List II
(Name of (Directive Principle)
Philosophy)

(A)Welfarism 1. Promotion of cottage industry

(B)Socialism 2. Better health and living standard

(C)Gandhian
3. Promotion of international peace and
Philosophy
security

(D)Internationalism 4. Equal pay for equal work


Codes:
(a) (A)-1, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-4
(b) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-4
(c) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3
(d) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3

33. Who is the First Law Officer of the Government of India?


(2019)
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Law Secretary
(c) Solicitor – General of India
(d) Attorney – General of India

34. Which of the following statements are not true about the
process of constitutional Amendment in India? (2019)
(A) The Parliament can amend the Constitution with a special majo
(B) State Assemblies can propose amendment in the Constitution.
(C) A bill for Constitutional Amendment can eb introduced only in
Lower House of the Parliament.
(D) Deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a Bil
Constitutional Amendment can be removed by a joint sessio
the Parliament.
(E) The President of India enjoys the veto power over Constituti
Amendment Bills passed by the Parliament.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B), (C) and (e)
(c) (A), (D) and (E)
(d) (A), (B) (C) and (D)

35. Among the following, which is harmful to the rule of law(2019)


(a) Judicial Review
(b) Judicial Activism
(c) Due Process of Law
(d) Procedure establish by law

36. Read the following: (2019)


Assertion (A): The 73rdamendment to the constitution provides
constitutional status to the Gram Sabha
Reason (R): The Balwantray Mehta Committee made a formal
mention of the Gram Sabha in this regard
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

37. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President are part of _________
of India. (2019)
(a) Parliament
(b) Judiciary
(c) Executive
(d) Panchayati Raj

38. _________ was the Speaker of 16th Lok Sabha. (2019)


(a) Meera Kumar
(b) GMC Balyogi
(c) Sumitra Mahajan
(d) Nirmala Sitaraman

39. Among the following, who said in a speech, “Poor people who
wander about, find no work, no wages and starve, whose lives
are a continual round of sore affliction and pinching poverty, cannot
be proud of the Constitution or its law”. (2020)
(a) Dr. B R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. K.M. Munshi
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

40. Regarding a Money Bill, which of the following statement/s


is/are true ? (2020)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) The decision of the Speaker of the House of the People sha
final to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not.
(ii) The decision of the Speaker about a Bill being a Money B
open to question only in a Court of Law.
(iii) The decision of the Speaker about a Bill being a Money Bill s
not be open to question either by the President or even
Parliament.
(a) Only (i) is true
(b) Only (i) and (ii) are true.
(c) Only (i) and (iii) are true.
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.

41. Which of the following statements about the institution of the


Comptroller and Auditor General of India is correct ? (2020)
(a) The office is a legacy of the British rule.
(b) The office is an innovation of independent India.
(c) CAG has both auditing and accounting functions.
(d) CAG presents its report to Parliament.

42. Identify the correct chronological order of the former Prime


Ministers of India: (2020)
(a) Charan Singh, Chandra Shekhar, I.K. Gujral, V.P. Singh
(b) Chandra Shekhar, P.V. Narasimha Rao, H.D Deve Gowda,
Gujral
(c) I.K. Gujral, H.D Deve Gowda, A B Vajpayee, Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai, Indira Gandhi, Chandra Shekhar, V.P. Singh.
43. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
answer from the codes given below: (2020)
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court has emerged as that branch
of the state to which citizens are appealing on matters as diverse
as the primary school admissions and environment.
Reason (R): The breach created by legislative lassitude and
executive inertia, has however generated concerns about the
dangers of judicial overreach.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the co
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the co
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

44. Which among the following is not a recommendation of the


Dinesh Goswami Committee for electoral reforms ? (2020)
(a) Voting to be made compulsory
(b) Provision of referendum in Constitution on issues of p
importance
(c) Rotation of reserved constituencies for Scheduled C
candidates
(d) Ban on corporate donations to political parties

45. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
answer from the codes given below: (2020)
Assertion (A): Democratic decentralization stimulates increased
political participation.
Reason (R): Democratic decentralization has the capacity to
reduce poverty, inequality and social exclusion.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the co
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the co
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

46. Who among the following has suggested that the office of the
Comptroller and Auditor General should be abolished ? (2020)
(a) Asok Chanda
(b) Paul Appleby
(c) K.C Wheare
(d) A D Gorwala

47. Members of the Lokpal shall be appointed by the President on


the recommendation of a selection committee consisting of:
(2020)
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) The Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme C
nominated by him
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

48. A Central Information Commissioner can be removed: (2020)


(a) By an order of the Prime Minister of India
(b) By an order of the President of India after the Supreme Court,
reference to it made by the President, has on inquiry, reported
he/she may be removed.
(c) By an order of the Central Chief Information Commissioner
(d) By an order of the Chief Justice of India after an inquiry made
bench of the Supreme Court confirms that he/she may
removed.

49. By which Constitutional Amendment the word ‘Socialist,


Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ were incorporated in our Constitution?
(2020)
(a) 40th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 46th Amendment

50. The Supreme Court of India in its order dated 24th August
2017 in Justice. K.S. Pultaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India
declared that: (2020)
(A) The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the rig
life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of
freedoms.
(B) The Union government must amend the Constitution and ad
provision for the right to privacy.
(C) The right to privacy is protected by Article 14 (equality before
law), Article 19 (Right to freedom), Article 21 (Protection of life
personal liberty).
(D) Right to privacy is derived from Article 25 (Right to freedom
religion) and Article 14(Protection of interests of minorities)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) A and D only
(d) C and D only

51. Arrange the following in a chronological order (2020)


(A) Communal award
(B) Simon Commission
(C) First Round Table Conference
(D) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, C, D, A
(c) C, D, A, B
(d) D, A, B, C

52. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R: (2020)
Assertion A: India is illustrative of ‘holding together’ federation
due to circumstances in which centre agreed to ‘devolve’ power for
holding the federal units together
Reason R: This asymmetry of power division, along with era of
coalitions and weaker governments at centre, let to assertion for
demand of autonomy by states
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

53. Which of the following states of India have the same number of
representatives in the Lok Sabha? (2020)
(a) Chandigarh, Delhi and Puducherry
(b) Manipur, Meghalaya and Himachal Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Tripura
(d) Uttarakhand, Nagaland and Haryana

54. Which one of the following fundamental rights are provided, to


both citizens and non-citizens? (2020)
(a) Right to equal opportunities
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Cultural and educational rights
(d) Right to equality

55. Which one of the following is NOT a factor for reforms in the
Indian judicial system? (2020)
(a) The slowness and inaccessibility of the judicial process
(b) The antiquated nature of court procedure and managem
practices
(c) Flaws in procedural law
(d) Public Interest Litigation

56. Which of the following are provided for by the 74th


Constitutional Amendment in respect of Municipal
Corporation? (2020)
(A) Seats to be filled by direct elections on the basis of wards
(B) Reservation of seats for Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribe
(C) Reservation of seats for backward classes
(D) One-third reservation of seats for women
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) A, C and D only

57. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A


and the other is labelled as Reason R (2020)
Assertion A: The Mountbatten Plan was announced on May 13,
1947
Reason R: On July 18, 1947, the British Parliament ratified the
Mountbatten Plan as the ‘Independence of India Act, 1947’
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

58. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of


constitutionalism? (2021)
(a) Value based concept
(b) Culture based concept
(c) Party based concept
(d) Dynamic concept

59. How long can the Vice-President act as President, when the
office of President falls vacant? (2021)
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Two years
(d) Five years

60. The superintendence, direction and control of elections to be


vested in an Election Commission (Article 324 of the
Constitution of India) came into force on: (2021)
(a) 26 January 1950
(b) 15 August 1947
(c) 26 November 1949
(d) 25 January 1950

Answer Key

1. 10. 19. 28. 37. 46. 54.


(c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
1. 10. 19. 28. 37. 46. 54.
(c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
3. 12. 21. 30. 39. 48. 56.
(c) (c) (c) (b) (d) (b) (b)
4. 13. 22. 31. 40. 49. 57.
(c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (d)
5. 14. 23. 32. 41. 50. 58.
(d) (b) (d) (d) (a) (a) (c)
6. 15. 24. 33. 42. 51. 59.
(c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (b) (a)
7. 16. 25. 34. 43. 52. 60.
(a) (c) (c) (b) (a) (b) (c)
8. 17. 26. 35. 44.
53. (c)
(c) (c) (b) (b) (b)
9. 18. 27. 36.
45. (b)
(b) (d) (c) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

6. Constitution of India was came into the force of 26th January 1950
First Loksabha election was held in 1952 on 489 Loksabha seats
Congress won 264 seats, Communist Party of India won 16 seats
Socialist party (India) won 12 seats. Ganesh Vasudev Mavlanka
was the first speaker of the Loksabha.

9. 74th Amendment of 1993 of the Constitution of India provides law


related to Urban local government. 74th Amendment contains the
provisions for establishment of Nagar Panchayats or Notified Area
Council, which is settlement of an area in transition from rural to
urban. Nagar Panchayats classification also based on urban centre
where more than 11000 and less than 25000 inhabitants reside.
14. Granville Seward Austin was an American historian of the Indian
Constitution. Austin was the author of two seminal political histories
of the constitution of India, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of
a Nation and Working a Democratic Constitution: The Indian
Experience. Granville Austin referred to the Constituent Assembly
of India as ‘Microcosm in action’.

22. Chief Justice and other Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by
the President after the consultation of Collegium system. Article
124 (4) and the Judges inquiry ac 1968 deals with the procedure of
removal of judges. If Motion for removal of a judge passed by
parliament then it investigated by Committee of 3 judges of the
Supreme Court and a distinguished jurist.

23. Supreme Court in Keshvanand Bharati Case established the


doctrine of basic structure of the constitution. Basic structure of the
constitution was defined by Supreme Court in various cases the
basic elements or structures of constitution which cannot be
amendment by Parliament under article 368.

25. Government of India Act of 1935 abolished the diarchy in the


provinces and introduced diarchy at the centre and provincial
autonomy in its place. Provinces provide with powers to act as
autonomous units of administration. It also introduced responsible
government in provinces.

27. Among given options PV Narsimha Rao had the longest term as
Prime Minister. He served as PM of India for 4 years and 330 days
during 1991-96.
Hence, the correct answer will be C.

34. Process and procedure for constitutional amendment have given in


Article 368 in Part XX of the constitution. Power to amendment the
constitution lies with the Parliament. A bill for constitutional
amendment can only introduce in either of the parliament, bill must
be passed in each house by a special majority, each house must
pass the bill separately, and president cannot withhold his assent
or return the bill to the parliament for reconsideration.
36. 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 gave the constitutional status to gram
sabha which is the foundation of panchayati raj system in India. Act
added a new part IX to the constitution. Act achieved the purpose
of Article 40 of directive principles of state policy. Gram Sabha was
first introduced by LM Singhvi committee appointed by Rajiv
Gandhi government in 1986.

37. Part V and Article 79-122 of the Constitution of India deals the
Parliament. It provides organization, composition, duration, officers,
procedures, privileges, and powers of the Parliament. Indian
Parliamentary adopted from Westminster system from Britain.
Indian Parliament consists of three parts- president, Lok Sabha
and Rajya Sabha.

39. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan said in his speech, “Poor people who wander
about, find no work, no wages and starve, whose lives are a
continual round of sore affliction and pinching poverty, cannot be
proud of the Constitution or its law”.
Hence, the answer will be D.

44. Dinesh Goswami Committee on electoral reforms has


recommended following steps:

Voting to be made compulsory.


Rotation of reserved constituencies for Scheduled Caste
candidates.
Ban on corporate donations to political parties.

Hence, the answer will be B.


UNIT VIII
Political Processes in India

Chapter 1: State, Economy and Development


Chapter 2: Process of Globalization
Chapter 3: Identity Politics in India
Chapter 4: Social Movements in India
Chapter 5: Civil Society Groups in India
Chapter 6: Regionalization of Indian Politics
Chapter 7: Gender and Politics in India
Chapter 8: Ideology and Social Basis of Political Parties
Chapter 9: Electoral Politics in India
CHAPTER 1
State, Economy and Development

NATURE OF THE INDIAN STATE


Indian economic policy after independence was influenced by the colonial
experience which was seen by Indian leaders as exploitative in nature
and by those leaders’ exposure to the idea of Fabian socialism. Nehru,
and the other leaders of the independent India, sought an alternative to
the extreme variations of capitalism and socialism.
In this system, India would be a socialist society with a strong public
sector but also with private property and democracy. As part of it, India
adopted a centralised planning approach. Policy tended towards
protectionism, with a strong emphasis on import substitution,
industrialisation under state monitoring, state intervention at the micro
level in all businesses especially in labour and financial markets, a large
public sector, business regulation.

Planning in India
The goals of economic planning in India are: economic development,
increased employment, self-sufficiency, economic stability, social welfare,
regional development, economic inequality reduction.

History and Evolution of Planning in India


The concept of a planned economy emerged in the 1930s when our
national leaders were influenced by socialist theory.
1934: Sir M. Vishweshwaraiah formulated a ten-year plan for
economic development of the country in his book “Planned
Economy for India”. He is known as the Father of Indian
Economic Planning.
1934: FICCI Proposal by Prof. N.R. Sarkar
October 1938: National Planning Committee / Congress Plan:
Congress President Subhash Chandra Bose established a
National Planning Committee, which was chaired by Jawaharlal
Nehru.
1944: Bombay Plan – Titled as A Brief Memorandum Outlining a
Plan of Economic Development for India and the main theme was
Import Substitution Industrialisation (ISI) introduced by (1)
Purshottamdas Thakurdas, (2) JRD Tata, (3) GD Birla, (4) Ardeshir
Dalal, (5) Lala Shri Ram, (6) Kasturibhai Lalbhai, (7) Ardeshir
Darbshaw Shroff, (8) John Mathai
1944: The Gandhian Plan introduced by Sriman Narayan
Aggarwal and the main theme was ‘decentralised economic
structure’ for India with ‘self-contained villages’
Planning and Development Department: The British Indian
government established the “Planning and Development
Department” in August 1944, under the leadership of Ardeshir
Dalal. However, in 1946, this section was abolished.
1945: The People’s Plan by radical humanist M.N. Roy,
chairman, Post War Reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade
Union where the main theme was providing the people with basic
necessities of life.
1950: Sarvodaya Plan was introduced by socialist leader Jay
Prakash Narayan.

It emphasizes Gandhian techniques as well as Sarvodaya concept of


Acharya Vinoba Bhave.
March 1950: Planning Commission of India - Government of
India established by a Cabinet Resolution. Thus, it is an extra
constitutional body. Prime Minister was its ex- officio Chairman. It
is seated at ‘Yojana Bhavan’. It formulated Five Year Plans. Under
the socialist influence of first Prime Minister Pt. Jawahar Lal
Nehru, the idea of five-year economic planning was borrowed from
the Soviet Union.
January 1, 2015: The National Institution for
Transforming India (NITI Aayog) - The Government
abolished the Planning Commission and replaced it with the NITI
Aayog which was founded by a Union Cabinet decision. It is a non-
statutory, extra-constitutional advisory council. The Prime Minister
of India serves as the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog. The
Governing Council is made up of the Chief Ministers of all the
states as well as the Lieutenant Governors of the Union Territories.

Five Year Plans in India


The following are the long-term goals of India’s Five-Year Plans:
To raise the living standards of India’s citizens, a high growth rate
is required.
For prosperity, there must be economic stability—an economy that
is self-sufficient.Reducing inequality and promoting social justice

Five Year Target Actual Features


Plans Growt Growt
(FYP) h h
First FYP 2.1% 3.6%
1951–56 aka Harrod Domar Model
Community Development
Program launched in 1952 UGC
Agriculture—highest priority
Five Year Target Actual Features
Plans Growt Growt
(FYP) h h
Second 4.5% 4.27%
FYP 1956– aka Mahalanobis Model
61 Closed economy model
Rapid industrialisation with focus
on heavy industries and capital
growth
Due to consumption of closed
economy, shortage of food and
capital were felt during this
period
Based on Nehru Mahalanobis
strategy

Third FYP 5.6% 2.84%


1961–65 Main aim was balanced, regional
development and development
of agriculture
Challenges include: TWO
WARS, severe drought lead
famine in 1965–66.
Due to heavy drain and diversion
of funds, the plan failed to meet
it targets.
Political and Economic
Decentralization was initiated
Due to mass failure of 3rd Plan &
Unstablity of Politics
Five Year Target Actual Features
Plans Growt Growt
(FYP) h h
PLAN HOLIDAY (3 Annual Plan 1966–69)
All new agriculture strategy implemented: Widespread
distribution of HYV seeds (Green Revolution). Therefore,
growth in wheat production.
Fourth FYP 5.7% 3.3%
1969–74 Based on Gadgil strategy that is
determining the allocation of
Central assistance for state
plans with special focus: growth
with stability and self reliance
Challenges include Indo Pak war
1971 and various droughts.
Politicization of planning started
and populist designs in coming
plans.
Double digit inflations
Subsidy induced higher non-
plan expenditures
Greater control and regulation of
the economy
Nationalization of 14 banks and
green revolution
Five Year Target Actual Features
Plans Growt Growt
(FYP) h h
Fifth FYP 4.4% 4.8%
1974–79 By D D Dhar
Two objectives: Poverty
Alleviation (Garibi Hatao) and
Attainment of Self Reliance
Twenty Point Programme
(TPP)
Indian national highway system
was established
New function to RBI to stabilize
the inflation.

Emergency in 1975. Plan terminated. Rolling Plan (1978–


83). But abandoned due to change in government in 1980.
Sixth FYP 5.2% 5.66%
1980–85 Launched with the slogan Garibi
Hatao
Shift from industrialisation to
infrastructure
National Rural Employment
Programme and Integrated Rural
Development Programme were
launched to generate
employment.
Focus on market-based
economy.
End of Nehruvian socialism
Five Year Target Actual Features
Plans Growt Growt
(FYP) h h
Seventh 5% 6.1%
FYP 1985– Major emphasis was on rapid
90 food grain production and
increased employment creation
Jawahar Rojgar Yojana 1989 to
create wage employment for the
rural poors.
Challenges include fiscal
imbalances, BoP crisis, heavy
foreign loans.

Annual Plans (1990–-92) due to fast changing political


situation at Centre and sweeping economic reforms
around the world
1991–- New Econimic Policy (LPG reforms)
Eighth FYP 5.6% 6.8%
1992–-97 Redefinition of the State’s role in
economy
Market based development
Fiscal deficit to be checked
Subsidies need restructuring
Cooperative federalism
suggested
Planning needs to be
decentralised
Greater focus on agriculture and
other rural activities
Decreased trust on the social
sector
Five Year Target Actual Features
Plans Growt Growt
(FYP) h h
Ninth FYP 6.5% 5.35%
1997–-200 Seven identified Basic Minimum
2 Services (BMS) with additional
Central Assistance (South East
Asian Financial Crisis in 1996-
97)

Tenth FYP 8% 7.6%


2002–07 States role in planning to be
increased with greater
involvement of PRIs
Institutional reforms in each
sector
Agriculture sector as prime
moving force of economy.

Eleventh 9% 8%
FYP 2007– The growth is both rapid and
12 inclusive.
Gender inequality is being
reduced

Twelfth 8%
FYP 2012– Faster, sustainable and more
17 inclusive growth

MERITS AND DEMERITS OF PLANNING IN


INDIA

Merits Demerits
Merits Demerits

Higher Growth Rate: The Inadequate Growth Rate


overall rate of growth stands Concept of socialistic pattern
at 4.8 per cent for the whole of building a society has
planning period (1950–2007) been altogether discarded
compared with India’s own when new economic policy
past (1900– 1920) measures in mid-1991 was
Growth of economic introduced
infrastructure Unemployment although
Development of Basic and objective to reduce it but
Capital Goods Industries never received the priority it
Higher growth of agriculture deserved
The rise in the domestic
savings and investments

NEW ECONOMIC POLICY


The New Economic Policy (NEP) of India was launched in the year 1991
under the leadership of P. V. Narasimha Rao. This was in line with the
International Monetary Funds (IMF) regulations to lend to India. It is a set
of policy measures that emphasized liberalization, privatization, and its
outcome was globalization.
It included various policy measures such as stabilization
measures (to control inflation and the correct balance of payments) and
various structural reform measures (to improve the efficiency of
the economy and increase international competitiveness by removing
rigidity in various economic segments).
New economic policy was undertaken in view of the 1991 financial
crisis that arose due to reasons such as the gulf war that pushed up oil
prices and lower remittances from the gulf, foreign reserves at an all-time
low, hyperinflation occurring at the same time.
ECONOMIC CRISIS OF 1990S
In 1991 the Indian economy faced a severe balance of payments crisis
which is otherwise called as Economic crisis in 1991.

Factors leading to Crisis


The inflation rate was increased from 6.7% to 16.7%
The fiscal deficit was increased due to an increase in non-
development expenditure. This resulted in a rise in public debt and
interest.
Interest liabilities became 36.4% of total government expenditure.
Balance of payments increased from ₹2214 crore in 1980-81 to
₹17,367 crores in 1990–91. To fill this deficit, a large number of
foreign loans were taken.
Decrease in performance and profits of PSUs.
India’s foreign exchange reserves decreased in 1990–91 and
became insufficient to pay for an import bill for 2 weeks.

Impact of the Crisis


Collapse of the Soviet Union proved that socialism was not
suitable as a model to be followed by the Indian economy.
Gulf war of 1990–91, led to a rise in petrol prices. This reduced the
inflow of foreign currency from Gulf countries which further
aggravated the problem.
To bypass the Balance of Payment (BoP) issues, India borrowed
huge sums from the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
The Asian financial crisis of 1997–99 impacted the economic
growth of the Indian economy.
Import of technology was restricted and Foreign Direct Investment
(FDI) was discouraged.
Thus, various stabilising measures and economic reforms were
taken in 1990s.
FOREIGN AID FROM IMF AND WORLD BANK
There was huge crisis in Balance of Payment in India in 1990s.
Declassified documents from the World Bank show how it and the
International Monetary Fund ‘Inspired and pushed’ India into economic
liberalisation in the summer of 1991. Significantly, it blamed the poor
macroeconomic policies under the Congress regime of the 1980s for
India’s eventual external sector debacle. Thus when India moved for
financial aid towards these institutions, they agreed but on a condition to
open the Indian Economy for trade by exercising the Structural Reforms
in National Economy Policy. Consequently, LPG reforms were
undertaken.

STABILISING MEASURES
The prime objective of the macroeconomic policy is to bring and enhance
macroeconomic stability. Therefore, to control the economic crisis of
1990s, some stabilising measures were taken which are short-term
measures taken by the government to curb rising prices, unfavourable
balance of payments and falling foreign exchange reserves. In economic
context, stabilization plays an important role which includes:
Reduction in fiscal deficit so as to improve the budgetary balance
in the country.
Correction of adverse balance of payment along with increase in
the supply of foreign exchange to finance export needs.
Control of inflation in order to assist improvement in economic
growth as a whole. These stabilization measures are emergency
measures.

Structural Reforms (Liberalisation, Privatisation,


Globalization)

Liberalisation Privatisation Globalization


Liberalisation Privatisation Globalization
Definition The process or Transfer of Integration of a
means of removing ownership, nation’s
the state’s control property, or economy with
over economic business from that of the
activities the government world economy
to the private resulting in the
sector free flow of
capital,
knowledge,
humans,
businesses,
etc.
Liberalisation Privatisation Globalization
Characteristi
cs Deregulation Governme Free
of the nt movement
Industrial becomes of goods,
Sector either a services,
Industries minority and
reserved for stakehold technologi
the public er i.e. es across
sector was holding national
reduced from less than borders
17 to 8 50% (with
RBI’s role in equity some
the financial controls)
sector from Result of
“regulator” to liberalizati
“facilitator.” on and
Regulators privatizatio
and n policies
structures
such as SEBI,
BSE, NSE,
PFRDA, and
IRDA were
established.
Steady
reduction in
individual
income taxes
Import
licencing was
abolished

Benefits
Free inflow of Enables Greater
Liberalisation Privatisation Globalization
capital in the the investmen
country expansion ts, new
Enabled of private jobs
diversification enterprise Increase
of investor s in exports
portfolios Infuses a Increase
Improved the competitiv in
agricultural e technologi
sector by environme cal
resulting in nt in the developm
greater economy ent, trade
investments, resulting volume
diversification in fair will
of cropping pricing of ultimately
patterns goods and increase
services the world’s
Job GDP
creation Improved
Improves product
the quality quality
of goods while
and lowering
services prices
produced FPI and
FDI are
both
improving
significantl
y
Increase
in forex
reserves
Liberalisation Privatisation Globalization
Limitations
Economic Developm Increase
destabilizatio ent of a in the
n monopolis trade
Increased tic deficit
competition environme Widening
from large nt the
multinationals Being economic
threatened fragmente inequalitie
the existence d, with no s.
of several person Increased
smaller firms taking the
Increased responsibil disparity
potential for ity in their between
mergers and hands. rural and
acquisitions Certain urban
posed a strategic Indian
threat to the sectors joblessnes
employees of cannot be s
smaller firms privatized Certain
due to MSMEs
security were
and completely
strategic eliminated
concerns Only a few
May sectors
become attracted
politically investmen
motivated t

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. The Mahalanobis Model mainly emphasizes on
(a) Small scale industries
(b) Heavy Industrialisation
(c) Agricultural development
(d) Technological advancement

2. Anti-poverty programs such as IRDP and NREM were initiated


during
(a) Fourth Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(d) Third Five Year Plan

3. Human Development Index Report is released by which of the


following organisations?
(a) UNESCO
(b) WTO
(c) UNDP
(d) IMF

4. Who was the finance minister during the 1991 economic crisis?
(a) PV Narsimha Rao
(b) R Venkataraman
(c) RK Shanmukham Chetty
(d) Manmohan Singh

5. With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economi


liberalization, consider the following statements:
(1) Worker productivity increased in urban areas while it decrease
rural areas.
(2) The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce stea
increased.
(3) In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm economy increased.
(4) The growth rate in rural employment decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

6. Token privatization or deficit privatization of public sector unit


occurs when the government sells
(a) 5% of shares
(b) 10% of shares
(c) 49% of shares
(d) 51% of shares

7. Which of the following plan is known as Mahalanobis Model?


(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Third Five Year Plan
(d) Fourth Five Year Plan

8. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(a)Gandhian Plan 194


(b)Bombay Plan 194
(c)Sarvodaya Plan 195
(d)People’s Plan 194

9. When was NITI AAYOG established?


(a) January 1, 2015
(b) January 1,2016
(c) January 1,2017
(d) January 1 ,2018

10. Twenty Point Programme was established during which Five Year
Plan?
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (a) (c)
2. 4.
6. (a)
(c) (d)
CHAPTER 2
Process of Globalization

INTRODUCTION
The end of the Cold War and the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 are
credited with giving rise to the modern era of globalization. Liberalization
and privatization policies have led to globalization. Through a global
communication, transportation, and trade network, globalization links
different cultures, societies, and ways of life.
Typically, globalization is used as a simple method of disseminating
technologies, industry, and communication around the world. It also covers
how ideas and technologies flow. Regions are interacting more with one
another as a result of globalization. Globalization has an impact on people’s
physical comfort as well as the cultures, environments, political systems,
and economic advancements of all countries.

GLOBALIZATION IN INDIA
When Dr. Manmohan Singh, the country’s then-Finance Minister,
started the economic liberalization plan in the 1990s, India began to see the
effects of globalization. India has slowly evolved since then into one of the
world’s economic powerhouses. With an average growth rate of about 7to
8%, it has now established itself as one of the economies that are
expanding the fastest. The average income per person and the standard of
living have both increased significantly.
One of the best examples of globalization is found in India, where even
25 years ago it was unthinkable to purchase items such as Levi’s jeans or a
color television within the borders of the nation. All of our parents have told
us tales about how they would request these items when someone they
knew or someone else knew was traveling abroad. Now that we are a part
of globalization, all we have to do to get anything we could want is leave
our homes and go to the market; all we need is the cash to do so.

DIMENSIONS AND IMPLICATIONS OF


GLOBALIZATION
Depending on the area it affects, globalization can be divided into different
categories.

(i) Economic Dimensions: Economic globalization reduces nation-


states’ economic sovereignty by making monetary and fiscal policies
more heavily influenced by changes in global financial markets.
Because of globalization, marketing has improved and the world has
become one economic entity. Numerous unrestricted, open markets
promote trade with fewer regulatory barriers. Boundaries are broken
down by the economies, which results in market integration on a
global scale.
(ii) Social Dimensions: The social dimension of globalization refers
to how it affects people’s personal and professional lives, as well as
their families and societies. In particular, social globalization refers
to the simultaneous social transformations that are occurring now
across a large portion of the globe. These have to do with things
such as employment, education, religion, family, culture, and art.
This aspect of globalization is strongly tied to the other two, i.e.
economic and political, although being seen as a distinct category.
The way that people behave, think, and feel as a result of social
globalization is changing on a wide scale.
(iii) Cultural Dimensions: The two-fold impact that the global
network has on national cultures—namely, the good and negative
changes it causes—is often used to frame discussions of the
cultural dimensions of globalization. The adoption of the positive
aspects of other cultures to enhance local ones is linked to the
projected benefits of wealth and cultural expansion for developing
nations.
The actuality of cultural globalization—which is fueled by information
technology, accelerated by Americanization, and manifested—brings
greater drawbacks to national cultural identities. While the
standardized and homogenized global culture led by the US invades
ethnicities all over the world, traditional values are weakened and
neglected, and inequality and social insecurity increase.
(iv) Political Dimensions: Political globalization is the term used to
describe the extension and strengthening of political ties around the
world. “The political dimension of globalization” examines how these
processes bring up a significant range of political issues relating to
the concept of state sovereignty, the expanding influence of
intergovernmental organizations, the prospects for future regional
and global governance, global migration patterns, and
environmental policies that have an impact on our planet.
Modern globalization has caused nation-states’ traditional territorial
borders to become permeable and encouraged the expansion of
super territorial social spaces and institutions, which in turn have
shaken up long-standing political structures and cultural norms.
Will the creation of a “cosmopolitan democracy” be the ultimate result
of political globalization? in which it explores the application of norms
and values of democracy in the transnational and global sphere. It
argues that global governance of the people, by the people, for the
people is possible and needed.
(v) Technological Dimensions: Technology has the potential to be
an important tool for advancing globalization. Global borders have
been widened by technological advancement and application, which
has also accelerated economic, political, and cultural globalization.
Additionally, recent technological advancements have contributed to
the pace of world development. The modern world is becoming
more globally interconnected because of ongoing technological
advancements. With technical breakthroughs considerably enabling
globalization, technology is turning the world into a global
community. Consequently, globalization is a way to advance
technology.

Major Challenges Caused by Globalization in India


In order to be eligible for a loan or grant from the World Bank, the
Indian Government was left with little choice but to accept the
requirement of entering the globalization stream. It agreed to ease
the quantitative constraints put in place by the licensing system.
Furthermore, it promised to gradually lower customs fees to WTO-
acceptable levels.
Thus, we might conclude that globalization does not appear to have
benefited the Indian industry. At best, we can describe globalization
as a two-edged sword. Indian consumers can now enjoy all high-
quality international brands thanks to it. Enabling the Government of
India to obtain a loan from the World Bank, did help the country
temporarily overcome its significant foreign exchange issue.
However, it has come at the expense of local industry and a major
loss of the Indian government’s ability to oversee its economy.
Environmental Issues- The emergence of large-scale
manufacturing as a result of globalization may harm India’s
environment. Water and air pollution, such as that found in Delhi,
one of the world’s most polluted cities, have been brought on by it.
Exploitation of Local Employees
Despite the fact that foreign investments would immediately boost
the economy, company profits will eventually be transferred to other
nations. The foreigners will reap the benefits in the long run.
Investors often withdraw their money during recessions, which can
have a serious impact on the nation’s economy.
Multinational corporations may take use of human resources in
India. Additionally, they have the potential to waste and utilize
natural resources ineffectively. It is possible that foreign investors
believe it is not in their best interests to protect the nation’s
resources.
Foreign investments could improve the economy right away, but
gradually business earnings will be distributed to other countries.
The long-term winners will be the foreigners. During recessions,
investors frequently withdraw their funds, which can have a
significant negative influence on the economy of the country.
Human resources in India may be utilized by multinational
organizations. Additionally, they run the risk of wasting and
inefficiently using natural resources. Foreign investors might think
that preserving the nation’s natural resources is not in their best
interests.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. The process of rapid connectedness or integration between nation
brought on by increased foreign investment is referred to as:
(a) Integration of markets
(b) International Trade
(c) MNC
(d) Globalization

2. When did the Indian Government introduce a policy of Liberalisatio


known as ‘New Economic Policy’?
(a) 1980
(b) 2000
(c) 1990
(d) 1991

3. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Globalization in India:


i. Indian service sector has witnessed major boom.
ii. Globalization has made the banking sector more technological
well as operationally efficient
iii. Globalization has resulted in the reduction of markets for
domestic companies.
Code:
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) Only i,
(c) iii
(d) None

4. Which among the following cannot be considered as a demerit o


Globalization in India?
(a) Trade wars for oil and petroleum devaluations
(b) Depletion of natural resources
(c) Loss of traditional and native market business
(d) Increase in autonomy and sovereignty of state

5. Which organization publishes “Global financial report”?


(a) World bank
(b) IMF
(c) WTO
(d) UNDP

6. What forces are behind globalization?


A. Financial flows

B. Exporting

C. Assembly operations
D. Population mobility especially of labour
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) A and D
(b) B and A
(c) B and D
(d) C and D

7. Which among the following step is not taken from the perspective o
Globalization after 1991?
(a) Amendment of the Monopolies and the Restrictive Trade Prac
Act
(b) Introduction of phased Manufacturing Programme
(c) Liberalization of foreign technology import
(d) Establishment of private and foreign banks

8. Globalization results in:


(a) lesser competition among producers
(b) greater competition among producers
(c) no change in competition among producers
(d) none of the above

9. Globalization was stimulated by


(a) computer
(b) money
(c) population
(d) transportation

10. Fair globalization means


(a) job opportunities
(b) more support to small producers
(c) fair benefits for worker
(d) all of the above

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(d) (c) (b) (b) (c) (d) (d)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(d) (d)
CHAPTER 3
Identity Politics in India

INTRODUCTION
In a multicultural society like India, Identity is the building block of Political
mobilization, representation as well as communication. Indian society
deeply rooted in the cultural aspect and cultural background determine their
orientation towards politics. Identity politics is a political approach where the
identity of people such as race, nationality, religion, gender, sexual
orientation, social background, social class etc. are used as a political tool.
Political agendas and strategies are formed on the basis of these identities
to capture power.

RELIGION AND POLITICS IN INDIA


India is multi-diverse country with diverse religions living in it. The
population comprises mainly of Hindu, Muslim, Christian, Buddhist, Sikhs,
Jains and Parsees. Out of these religious groups, the chief being Hindu-
Muslim rift, which has been seen since long time and it has not yet been
restricted totally form the Indian society.
These two religious sections have been seen involved in most of the
communal riots, at the same time is also observed that the communal
tension also prevailed in India, amongst the sections of Hindu-Christians
and Hindu-Sikh.

Causes of Communalism
There are four main theories of the role of religion in politics. These include:

(a) Essentialist: Western scholars such as Louis Dumont and other


colonial writers forwarded this view. According to them Hindu and
Muslims are two antagonistic communities and hence,
conflict is natural. Jinnah’s Two Nation Theory is also based on
this approach. Jinnah, Sayed Ahmed Khan, Savarkar etc. supported
this view.
(b) Instrumentalist: According to Bipan Chandra, it is a
preference of elites to go for mobilization on the basis on ethnic
identities. And hence, people are not communal.
(c) Institutionalist: People such as Ashgar Ali Engineer argued
that when public policies are based on ethnic identities, it gives rise
to communal politics.
(d) Social Constructivist: Communities carry mental maps or
stereotypes about each other, and in the absence of proper
communication among them, elites use these mental divergences
for communal alignment.

Paul R Brass has studied communal riots in India. He has divided


the process of riots in three stagesnamely, preparatory, precipatory
and explanatory.
Dipankar Gupta has given the concept of Picnic Riots. This is
the time when after the end of every riot politicians across the parties
pay their visit to affected areas.
Jawaharlal Nehru was a strong advocate of secularism based
on strict separation between religion and politics.
MK Gandhi has spiritualized politics. He is opposed to separating
religion from politics.

TRIBAL POLITICS IN INDIA


The “tribal” peoples or adivasis of India, according to the 2001 census,
constitute roughly 8.1 percent of the country’s population, some 83.6 million
people, classified under 461 different communities. They occupy a belt
stretching from the Bhil regions of Western India through the Gond districts
of central India, to Jharkhand and Bengal, where the Mundas, Oraons, and
Santals predominate. There are also pockets of tribal communities in the
south such as the Chenchus, Todas, and Kurumbas, and very small
endangered communities in the Andamans, like the Jarawas, Onge, and
Sentinelese. Northeast India comprises another major portion of the tribal
population, including the different Naga subtribes, Khasis, Garos, Mizos,
Kukis, Bodos, and others.

THEORIES OF IMPORTANT THINKERS


Rajni Kothari in his book Politics in India associated Tribal and
Ethnic politics with modernisation. According to him, the rise of tribal
politics shows the strengthening of Indian democracy.
Atul Kohli in his book India’s Democracy: Analysis of Changing
State and Society argued that ethnic movements in India follow
inverted U curves. It means they rise and decline due to the
capacity of the state to manage.
James Manor in his book Ethnicity and Politics in India
concluded that ethnic and tribal politics do not possess any
challenge to territorial integrity, democracy or social cohesion
because in India there are many overlapping identities that exist at
one point of time.
Paul R Brass in his work Ethnicity and Nationalism talks about
the response of the Indian state to the ethnic politics. According to
him, secessionist politics is outrightly rejected whereas
developmental demands are agreed upon in a positive way.
Government agrees only when demands get broad support. While
accommodation, Government also includes various other affected
groups into the discussion process.

CASTE POLITICS IN INDIA


According to Christophe Jaffrelot, caste forms the mosaic of Indian
politics. It is a predominant feature of the social structure. The exact origin
of the caste system cannot be traced. The records of the Indo Aryan
Culture contain its first mention. Caste provides an extensive basis for the
organization of democratic politics. Caste identities and solidarities are the
primary channels through which electoral and political support is mobilized
in the political system.
The regional political parties in particular stand predominantly
influenced by the caste factor. Caste has influenced the policy making of
the government. For example, the policy of Reservation in favor of certain
castes. It plays a very important role in the elections and voting. It is used
more extensively in mobilizing support in the rural than urban areas.

THEORIES OF IMPORTANT THINKERS


VN Gadgil said In India, we do not cast our vote, we vote our caste.
Louis Dumont has explained the features of Caste by comparing
it with Class:
Class is a western system of stratification based on economic
criteria.
Caste is Indian system, based on the criteria of Purity and
Pollution.
In Caste, the status is based on birth, whereas in class it is based
on worth or merit
Caste is closed. It does not permit social mobility,
whereas class permits mobility
MN Srinivas claimed that in practice, caste and class do not differ
much.
Caste system is not entirely rigid.
He coined the term Sanskritization. Persons of lower caste
adopted the practices of Brahmins.
e.g. stop eating non-veg food.
He also gave the concept of Dominant Caste. It denotes the
caste holding economic, social and political power. In most of the
situations, upper castes such as the Brahmins and Kshatriyas are
not the dominant caste.
e.g. Yadav’s in UP, Jats in Haryana and Western UP, Marathas in
Maharashtra, Reddy and Kamma in Andhra Pradesh, Vokkaliga
and Lingayat in Karnataka etc.
Dominant caste has two features namely

♦ Land owners
♦ Numerical majority
As a result of these two, these dominant castes acquire
dominance in politics.
There is a lack of consensus among the scholars about the role
played by Caste in Indian Politics. Some believe that caste has
strengthened Indian democracy
Rajni Kothari
Yogendra Yadav
Christophe Jafferlot
Satish Deshpande
Others believe that Caste has weakened the Indian Democracy.
These includes
Andre Beteille
CP Bhambri
Ashutosh Varshney
Rajni Kothari has given the concept of “politicization of caste”. It
means not only caste has shaped politics but caste itself also got
shaped by politics.
He has talked about secularization, integration and consciousness
generation roles of Caste.
Yogendra Yadav has explained interaction between caste and
politics in India as democratic upsurge.
First Democratic Upsurge: 1960s (When OBCs came out of
Congress Rainbow)
Second Democratic Upsurge: 1990s (When Dalits came out of
Congress).

REGIONAL POLITICS IN INDIA


Regionalism can be defined as a phenomenon in which people’s political
loyalties become focused upon a region. In other words, it implies people’s
love of a particular region in preference to the country and in certain cases
in preference to the state of which the region is a part.
Regionalism is a multidimensional phenomenon. It could be based on
geographical, historical, cultural, economic and politico- administrative
factors. The politics of regionalism in India has both positive and negative
aspects:
Speaking in positive terms, it implies an intense desire for
concretizing an identity based on such interests as ethnic, language,
religion, etc. For example, the erstwhile Jharkhand movement which
covered wide regions of Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal and Madhya
Pradesh, had come together as a unified group to protect and
promote their socio-economic and political interests.
The negative aspects of regionalism are that it can threaten nation-
building efforts such as the demand for Khalistan in Punjab which is
giving rise to terrorism and violence within and outside Punjab.
Regional Politics has taken mainly four forms.

i) Demand for state autonomy: The important examples in


context are that of the Plebiscite Front (Kashmir), Mizo Nat
Front (Lushai Hills of Assam), Nagaland Socialist Conference (N
Hills District of Assam) etc.
ii) Supra-state regionalism: Idea of Dravida Nadu by Sout
States of India
iii) Inter-state regionalism: River water disputes, in general,
other issues like the Maharashtra-Karnataka border dispute
iv) Intra-state regionalism or Sub-regionalism: Vidarbh
Maharashtra, a Saurashtra in Gujarat, a Telangana in An
Pradesh, an East U.P. in Uttar Pradesh and Chhattisgarh in Mad
Pradesh.

LANGUAGE POLITICS IN INDIA


Language created a great problem in the post-independent era and
continues to be one of the heavy weights on a country’s political system.
During the days of freedom struggle, national leaders always promised the
masses that Indian languages will be fully developed in free India and even
states will be reorganized on the basis of languages, so that each language
got full opportunity to develop and grow. But when the Constituent
Assembly discussed the problem of national language for India, it found
that the task was not easy.
Dhar Commission (1948): When the Constituent Assembly was
still deliberating a Linguistic Provinces Commission was set up under
the Government. In its report submitted in 1948, the Commission
reported that immediate formation of linguistic states was not
desirable. In its opinion, the country was faced with such serious
problems as economic instability and foreign aggression, etc.
J V P Committee Report: In 1948, Congress party also
appointed a committee to consider the Dhar Commission report. It
consisted of: Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel and
Pattabhi Sitaramayya.

The Committee in its report came to the conclusion that there was need
for linguistic redistribution of provinces but recommended that in view of
economic and administrative reasons such reorganization should be
postponed for the time being.
It, however, made an exception in the case of Andhras,
where it favored the formation of a linguistic state.
Accordingly, the new state of Andhra Pradesh came into
existence on October 1, 1953.

States Reorganisation Commission: This three member


Commission headed by Fazel Ali, with H.N. Kunzru and K.M.
Panikar, as its members, was of the view that states should be
reorganized on the basis of language. The people speaking the
same language should be included in one state. Most of the
recommendations of the Commission were accepted and the
States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956, on the basis of
which states were reorganized.
India got her independence in 1947 and about 75 years have passed
but language problems still persist. It is still a heavy weight on the
Indian political system and the issue is so sensitive that it can be
exploited at any time by selfish politicians to serve their ends and
purposes. In fact, many politicians do not hesitate to make language
an issue as and when need arises. Southern states have not gone
much ahead in popularizing Hindi in schools and other educational
institutions. Most of the work in central government is being done in
English and all high ups in the society send their children and wards
in schools with English as medium of instruction.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who among the following was not a supporter of ‘Two Nation
Theory’?
(a) Savarkar
(b) Jinnah
(c) Iqbal
(d) Azad

2. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


Statement I: The term “Politicization of Caste” is associated with
Rajni Kothari.
Statement II: Caste associations did not play a role in the
“Politicization of Caste”.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

3. Match the following:

Scholar Idea

1. Rajni Kothari 1. Second Backward Class Commission

2. MN Srinivas 2. Second Democratic Upsurge

3. Yogendra Yadav c.Sanskritisation

4. BP Mandal d.Politicization of caste

(a) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a


(b) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(c) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
(d) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d

4. Choose the correct statement:


1. First Democratic Upsurge was in the 1960s when Dalits cam
Congress Rainbow.

2. Second Democratic Upsurge was in the 1990s when OBCs cam


Congress.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
(d) None

5. Who among the following was not a member of the Stat


Reorganization Commission (1956)?
(a) Fazel Ali
(b) H.N. Kunzru
(c) SK Dar
(d) K.M. Panikar

6. Identify the statements which suggest that it is not politics that get
caste-ridden, it is the caste that gets politicized.
a. When governments are formed, political parties take c
representatives of different castes find a place in it.

b. Each caste group incorporates neighboring castes which we


excluded.

c. Various caste groups enter into a coalition with other castes.


d. Political parties and candidates in elections make appeals to c
sentiments.
(a) a, b and d
(b) b, c and d
(c) b and c
(d) a and d
7. “Communalism is a social phenomenon characterized by the religio
of two communities, often leading to acrimony tension and even riotin
between them”
Who said it?
(a) Abdul Ahammed
(b) Marx
(c) M. N Roy
(d) JL Nehru

8. It means love of a particular region or state in preference to th


country as a whole.
(a) Nationalism
(b) Regionalism
(c) Ethnicism
(d) None of the above

9. Choose the correct statement:


1. Speaking in positive terms, Regionalism implies an intense d
concretising an identity based on such interests as ethnic,
religion, etc.

2. The negative aspects of regionalism is that it can threaten natio


efforts such as the demand for Khalistan in Punjab which is givi
terrorism and violence within and outside Punjab.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None

10. Choose the correct answer:


Assertion (A): Rajni Kothari gave the concept of dominant caste.
Reason (R): It denotes the caste holding economic, social and
political power. In most of the situations, upper castes such as the
Brahmins and Kshatriyas are not the dominant caste.
(a) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(d) R is correct but A is incorrect.

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. 4.
6. (d)
(c) (d)
CHAPTER 4
Social Movements in India

INTRODUCTION
A social movement is a mass movement and a concerted effort by people to
promote change or to fight change. In India, social changes were instigated
with the help of social movements of various kind. The issues of social and
economic inequalities were addressed and brought to the limelight with the
help of social movements in post and as well as pre-independence period in
India.

DALIT MOVEMENTS
The term Dalit was firstly used by Jyotirao Phule for the oppressed classes or
untouchable castes of the Hindu. Mahatma Gandhi used Harijan for the
oppressed or depressed or Dalit classes which means ‘Children of God’.

PRE INDEPENDENCE DALIT MOVEMENTS

Movement Year Founder Features


Nair 1861 CV Raman
Movement Pillai, K Against Brahminic dominion
Rama The Malayali Memorial was
Krishna Pillai formed by Raman Pillai in
and M. 1891 and Nair Service Society
Padmanabh
was set up by Padmanabha
a Pillai
Pillai in 1914.
Movement Year Founder Features
Satyashodha 1873 Jyotirao
k Movement Phule
For emancipation of low
castes, untouchables and
widows
Against Brahminic dominion

Aruvippuram 1888 Shri


Movement Narayan To counter the Brahminic,
Guru Narayan Guru consecrated a
Shiva idol in Temple.

Shri Narayan 1902 Shri


Dharma – Narayan Reform movement against the
Paripalana 1903 Guru, Dr injustice in the caste-ridden
Yogam or Palpu and society of Kerala in order to
SNDP Kumaran promote spiritual
Movement Asan
enlightenment and social
equality.

The 1906 Vithal Ramji


Depressed Shinde The mission aimed at working
Class against the evils of
Mission untouchability on the national
Society level and restoring the respect
and equality for all castes and
classes.
Movement Year Founder Features
Justice Party 1916 Dr. T.M Nair,
Movement P. Tyagaraja Against Brahminic dominion in
Chetti and government services,
C.N education and politics.
Mudalair The South Indian Liberation
Federation (SILF) was formed
in 1916.
The efforts yielded in the
passing of 1930 Government
Order providing reservations
to groups

Depressed 1924 BR
Classes Ambedkar For the upliftment of
Welfare depressed classes.
Institute, i.e. Against untouchability
Bahishkrit Depressed Classes Institution
Hitkarni
was founded in 1924.
Sabha
(Mahar Marathi fortnightly Bahiskrit
Movement) Bharat was started in 1927.
Establishment of Samaj Samta
Sangh in 1927.
Establishment of Scheduled
Caste Federation in 1942 that
propagated their views on
depressed classes.

Self-Respect 1925 EV
Movement Ramaswami Against caste system and
Naicker or biased approach of Brahmins.
Periyar Kudi Arasu journal was started
by Periyar in 1910.
Movement Year Founder Features
Dravida 1944 Conjeevara
Munnetra m Natarajan
Kazhagam Annadurai &
Ramaswami
Naicker

POST-INDEPENDENCE DALIT MOVEMENT

Movement Year Features


Dalit Buddhist 1956
Movement Nearly half a million Dalits – formerly
untouchables – joined him and
converted to Navayana Buddhism.

Dalit Panther 1972


In Maharashtra
Influenced by Marxism and
Ambedkarism
Leaders – Namdeo Dhasal, Raj
Bhosle, Ramdas Athavale

Bahujan Samaj 1984


Party (BSP) By Kanshi Ram

TRIBAL MOVEMENTS
Tribal Movements can be classified on the basis of their orientation into four
types:

Movements seeking political autonomy and formation of state (Nagas,


Mizos)
Agrarian Movements
Forest-Based Movements
Socio-religious or socio-cultural movements (The Bhagat Movement
among Bhils of Rajasthan)

TRIBAL MOVEMENT IN PRE INDEPENDENCE

Movement Year Features


Chuar 1776 Organised by aboriginal tribesmen of
Uprising Midnapore, against land revenue demands
and economic distress.
Pahariyas’ 1778 It was headed by Raja Jagganath who led
Rebellion Pahariyas of Raj Mahal Hills against British
expansion on their land.
Bhil Uprising 1818–31 In the Western Ghats against the
and 1913 Company’s rule formed Bhil Raj.
Reorganised again in 1913 under Govind
Guru to fight for Bhil Raj.
Ho and 1820–37 By Ho tribals led by Raja Parahat in
Munda Singhbhum and Chottanagpur region
Uprising against new farming revenue policy. This
later became the Munda rebellion.
Ramosi 1822–29 Western ghats, under Chittur Singh against
Uprising Britisher’s occupation of the region.
Koli Uprising 1829 The Tribals of Gujarat and Maharashtra
revolted against the Company’s control in
1829, 1839, and again in 1844–48
Kol 1832 Tribals of Chottanagpur under Buddho
Rebellion Bagat revolted against Britishers and
money lenders.
Khond 1837–56 Tribals of hills from Tamil Nadu to Bengal
Rebellion led by Chakra Bisoi revolted against
interference in tribal customs and the
imposition of new taxes.
Santhal 1855–56 Bihar led by Sido and Kanhu against
Rebellion moneylenders and zamindars.
Bhuyan & 1867 Tribes of Keonjhar, Odisha revolted twice in
Juang 1867 and 1891.
Rebellion
Movement Year Features
Naikada 1868 Tribals of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
Movement against British and caste Hindus to
establish Dharma Raj.
Kharwar 1870s Tribals of Bihar led by Bhagrit Majhi against
Rebellion revenue settlement activities.
Munda 1899–1900 Chotanagpur area revolted under Birsa
Rebellion Munda against the ‘Dikus’.
Koya 1879–80 Eastern Godavari region led by Tomma
Uprising Sora and Raja Annantyar revolted against
the police and moneylenders.
Munda 1899–1900 Birsa Munda-led this movement in the
Ulgulan region south of Ranchi
As a result, the government enacted the
Chotanagpur Tenancy Act 1908, recognized
Khuntkatti rights, banned Beth Begari
(forced labour)
Tana Bhagat 1914–19 Chottanagpur, led by Jatra Bhagat, and
Movement Balram Bhagat revolted against the
interference of outsiders.
Chenchus 1921–22 Nallamalla Hills led by K. Hanumanthu
Uprising revolted against the British forest laws.
Rampa 1922–24 Led by Alluri Sitaraman Raju of Koyas,
Rebellion Andhra Pradesh against British interference
North-Eastern Frontier Tribal Movements
Ahoms’ 1828–33 In Assam against non-fulfilment of
Revolt Britishers’ promise to leave their region after
the Burmese war.
Khasis 1830s Led by Tirath Singh in the hills of Jaintia and
Revolt Garo against the occupation of their region.
Singhpos 1830s Singhpos revolt took place against the
Rebellion Britisher in Assam and continued till 1839,
when it was suppressed by the British.
Kukis Revolt 1917–19 In Manipur, against British policies of
recruiting labour during World War
Movement Year Features
Zeliang song 1920 By tribes of Manipur against the failure of
Movement the British to protect them during Kuki
violence.
Naga 1905–31 By tribals of Manipur, led by Jadonang
Movement against British rule and to form Naga raj.

TRIBAL MOVEMENT IN POST-INDEPENDENCE

Movement Year Features


Girijan 1968-69 The leadership started organizing the mass
Rebellion / upheaval into an organized movement by
Srikakulam forming peasant guerrilla squads and a
Uprising more systemic resistance
Birsa Seva 1968-69 Birsa Seva Dal (BSD) is a political group in
Dal India. BSD demanded a separate
Movement Chhotanagpur state
Land Grab 1969-70 Tribes of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh,
Movement Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh

WOMEN MOVEMENTS
The beginning of the women’s movement in India can be traced back to the
nineteenth-century social change development. Unlike the Western feminist
movement, India’s feminist movement, according to Maitrayee Chaudhuri,
was started by males and later joined by women.

PRE-INDEPENDENCE

Movement / Year Features


Associatio
n
Arya Mahila 1882 Pandita Ramabai in Maharashtra
Samaj
Movement / Year Features
Associatio
n
Ladies 1904 In Bombay by Ramabai Ranade
Social
Conference /
Bharat
Mahila
Parishad
Bharat Stree 1910 In Allahabad by Sarla Devi Chaudharani
Mahamandal
National 1925 Branch of International Council of Women
Council of by Mehribai Tata
Women
All India 1927 By Margaret Cousins in order to improve
Women’s educational efforts for women and children
Conference
(AIWC)

Peasant women played an important role in the rural satyagrahas of


Borsad and Bardoli.
Under the leadership of Gandhi Ji, participated in Civil Disobedience
Movement and National Movements.
A large number of women including Sarojini Naidu, actively took part
in the Dandi March
Kamala Devi Chattopadhyaya was incharge of the women’s wing of
the Hindustan Seva Dal
Rani Jhansi Regiment was created for women in Indian National
Army.

Congress 1939 To prepare for defense against a Japanese


Mahila occupation of Bengal.
Sangha
Movement / Year Features
Associatio
n
Mahila Atma 1942 In the midst of the Second World War and
Raksha on the eve of the Great Bengal famine. Rani
Samiti / Mitra Dasgupta, Manikuntala Sen and Renu
Women’s Chakravartty and liberal women like Rani
Self-Defense Mahalanobis (wife of Prasanta Chandra
Association Mahalanobis) and Leela Mazumdar were
key leaders of MARS.

POST INDEPENDENCE

Movement / Year Features


Associations
National Federation 1954 The women’s wing of the
of Indian Women Communist Party of India.
Established by several leaders from
Mahila Atma Raksha Samiti
including Aruna Asaf Ali.
Chipko Movement 1974 By Sunderlal Bahuguna (Eco
Feminist Movement)
Women participated on a large
scale. Group of 28 women, led by
Gaura Devi in Uttarakhand’s
Garhwal region clung to trees to
prevent them from being felled.
Narmada Bachao 1985 Led by environmental activist
Andolan Medha Patkar against the
construction of a multi-crore project
involving dams over the Narmada
River.
Movement / Year Features
Associations
Anti-Arrack 1990 Tired of their domestic abuse and
Movement in Andhra their unemployed husbands
Pradesh spending all their money on locally
made alcohol (arrak), forced the
state and several private agencies
to bring complete prohibition against
country liquor

PEASANT MOVEMENTS
India has a long history of peasant or farmers’ movement, dating back to the
colonial period when farmers in different parts of India revolted against
Zamindars, landlords, British colonial masters or powers including feudal
lords. The Farmers movement is a social movement involved
with the agricultural policy. Peasants movement have a long history
that can be traced to the numerous peasant uprisings that occurred in various
regions of the world throughout the human history.

PRE INDEPENDENCE

Movement Year Features


Movement Year Features
Indigo Rebellion 1859–62
The peasants suffered at the
hands of the traders and the
middleman. Consequently,
they launched a movement for
non-cultivation of indigo in
Bengal.
Indigo Commission appointed
and it notified that it was illegal
to force the riots to cultivate
indigo. Thus, victory for the
peasants.
Dinabandhu Mitra, in his play
‘Nil Darpan’ (1860) depicted
the treatment of the Indian
peasantry by the indigo
planters.

Pabna Movement 1870s–80s


May 1873 an Agrarian League
was formed in the Yusufshahi
Pargana of Patna district,
Patna (East Bengal)
Against forcefully collection of
rents and land taxes and also
prevented from acquiring land.
Struggle was supported by
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee,
R.C. Dutt and the Indian
Association under
Surendranath Banerjee
Movement Year Features
Deccan Riots
Against the excesses of the
Marwari and Gujarati money
lenders
However, suppressed and
conciliatory measure, the
Deccan Agriculturists Relief
Act was passed in 1879.

Champaran 1917
Satyagraha Against Tinkathia System
Led by Gandhi Ji
Enactment of the Champaran
Agrarian Act, 1918 freed
peasants from special imposts
levied by planters

Kheda Satyagraha 1918


Against the Government
because crops failed but
government refused to remit
land revenue and insisted on
its full collection.
Led by Gandhi Ji and
supported by Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel

Kisan Sabha 1920s


Movement The United Provinces Kisan
Sabha was organised in 1918
by Gauri Shankar Mishra and
Indira Narayan Dwivedi and
gradually more such sabhas
Movement Year Features
Eka Movement 1921
Peasant discontent resurfaced
in some northern districts of
the United Provinces—Hardoi,
Bahraich, Sitapur from Madari
Pasi and other low-caste
leaders.

Moplah Rebellion 1921


Moplahs were the Muslim
tenants inhabiting the Malabar
region where most landlords
are Hindu
Merged with Khilafat
Movement
Communalisation isolated the
Moplah from the Khilafat and
Non-Cooperation Movement.

Bardoli Satyagraha 1928


Led by Sardar Vallabhbhai
Patel
Enhancement of land revenue
by 30% in the Bardoli district
of Gujarat by the British
government led to the
organisation of a ‘No-Revenue
Campaign’ by the Bardoli
peasants

All India Kisan 1936


Congress/Sabha Swami Sahjanand Saraswati
as the president and N.G.
Ranga as the General
Secretary
Movement Year Features
Tebhaga Movement 1946

In Tebhaga (Bengal) against


zamindars, rich farmers
(jotedars), money lenders

Telangana 1946-51
Movement In Hyderabad against Nizam
officials

POST INDEPENDENCE

Movement Year Features


Kagodu Satyagraha 1951 Shantaveri Gopala Gowda held
indefinite fast to provide justice to
the farmers of Karnataka.
Naxalbari Movement 1967 Led by tribals and the radical
communists leaders of Bengal and
further developed into the
Communist Party of India (Marxist–
Leninist) in 1969
Lalgarh movement 2009 Formed a committee named Police
Santras Birodhi Janosadharan
Committee (People’s Committee
against Police Atrocities) by CPI
(Maoist)

LABOUR MOVEMENTS
Labour movement can be defined as an organised effort on the part of
workers to improve their economic and social status by United action through
the medium of labour unions. It is a broad term for the development of a
collective organisation of working people, to campaign in their own interest for
better treatment from their employers and political organisation, through
implementation of specific loss governing labour relations.

PRE INDEPENDENCE

Pre-1918: The Genesis of the Labour Movement in India


After the setting up of textile and jute mills coupled with the laying of railways
in the 1850s, worker atrocities started to come to light.
The first labour agitation in the history of India occurred in Bombay,
1875. It was organised under the leadership of S.S Bengalee.
In 1890, M.N Lokhande established Bombay Mill Hands Association.
This was the first organised labour union in India.

1918 – 1924: The Early Trade Union Phase


It was organised along the lines of unions in the industrialised world. It can be
traced back to the days of industrialisation which gave rise to the problems of
capitalism.
Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association (1917) led by Smt.
Anasuyaben Sarabhai.
Madras Labour Union was founded in 1918 among textile workers of
Madras. It was led by BP Wadia. It can be seen as the foundation of
labour movement in India.
All India Postal and RMS Association
AITUC (All India Trade Union Congress), the oldest trade union
federation in India was set up in 1920. It was founded by Lala
Lajpat Rai, Joseph Baptista, N.M Joshi and Diwan Chaman Lall.
Lajpat Rai was elected the first president of AITUC.

1925 – 1934: Period of Left-wing Trade Unionism


It saw multiple split-ups in the movement. Leaders such as N.M Joshi and V.V
Giri was instrumental in moderating the movement and further integrating it
with the nationalist mainstream. AITUC split up multiple times paving way for
the formation of organisations such as National Trade Union Federation
(NTUF) and All India Red Trade Union Congress (AIRTUC). Legislations like
the Trade Unions Act, 1926 and the Trade Disputes Act, 1929 gave a fillip to
its growth. It bestowed many rights to the unions in return for certain
obligations. This period was marked by the dominance of the left.

1935 – 1938: The Congress Interregnum


In 1935, AIRTUC merged with AITUC. Reconciliation of labour with capital
was seen as an aim, with ministries working towards securing wage rise and
better living conditions. This phase was marked by greater unity between
different unions.

1939 – 1946: Period of Labour Activism


The Second World War lowered standard of living for the workers further and
this led to the strengthening of the movement and rift between the
communists and Congress. Legislations like Industrial Employment Act, 1946
and Bombay Industrial Relations Act, 1946 contributed to strengthening the
trade union movement.

POST INDEPENDENCE
Post-independence, India has also witnessed different unions coming
together to address a common issue. These include the crippling railway
strike of 1974 and the Great Bombay textile strike, 1982. However, such
strikes are seen to get less public support post-1991. There is also an
increased focus on informal labour. This is due to the particularly vulnerable
situation of unorganised labour.

Movement Year Features


Indian National 1947 Under the aegis of Sardar
Trade Union Vallabhbhai Patel.
Congress (INTUC)
Hind Mazdoor 1948 Under the banner of Praja Socialist
Sabha Party. Later on, it came under the
influence of Socialists.
Movement Year Features
United Trade Union 1949 The founding president was
Congress professor K.T. Shah, a member of
the Constituent Assembly from
Bombay, and the founding general
secretary was Mrinal Kanti Bose, a
former AITUC president from
Bengal.
Bharatiya Mazdoor 1955 Is currently affiliated to the BJP.
Sangh

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following is NOT correct?
(a) Bardoli Satyagraha – Gujarat
(b) Eka Movement – Madari Pasi
(c) Tebhaga Movement – Lucknow
(d) All India Kisan Congress – Lucknow

2. Which of the following is NOT correct?


(a) Santhals: Sidhu and Kanhu
(b) Oraons: Raja Jagannath
(c) Khasi: Tiruth Singh
(d) Munda Ulgulan: Birsa Munda

3. Consider the following statements about the Naga Uprising of 1905 – 31


1. Gaindinliu integrated the Tribal Movement with the Civil Diso
Movement.

2. The movement opposed the payment of house tax and other oppress

3. She was given the title of ‘Rani’ by Mahatma Gandhi.

Which of the statements given above are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of these

4. Match the following:

1. Naxalbari Movement 1. 1944

2. Hajung Movement 2. 1968 – 69

C. Girijan Rebellion 3. 1967

D. Birsa Dal Movement 4. 1968

(a) A- 3 B-1 C- 2 D-4


(b) A- 1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(c) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
(d) A- 1 B-2 C-4 D-3

5. Madras Labour Union was founded in


(a) 1916
(b) 1961
(c) 1918
(d) 1981

6. Bardoli Satyagraha was led by


(a) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

7. Consider the following about the Munda Ulgulan of late 19th century.
1. The uprising was concentrated in the region of Satpura forest.

2. The main cause of the uprising was the interference of Christian Mis
into the religious matters of Munda Tribes.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are true?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these

8. Which of the following movements was led by Alluri Sitaraman Raju?


(a) Munda Ulgulan
(b) Rampa Rebellion
(c) Moplah Rebellion
(d) Chenchus Uprising

9. Satyashodhak Movement was founded by


(a) Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jyotirao Phule
(d) Periyar

10. Kudi Arasu journal was started by


(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(c) Periyar
(d) Jyotirao Phule

11. Arrange the following Dalit movement of India in a sequence:


i. Justice Party
ii. Dalit Buddhist movement
iii. Satyasodhak Movement
iv. Dalit Panthers Iyyakkam
Code:
(a) iii, iv, ii, i
(b) i, iii, ii, iv
(c) iii, i, ii, iv
(d) iv, ii, iii, i

12. Arrange the following Tribal movement of India in a sequence:


i. Khond Uprising
ii. Tana Bhagat Movement
iii. Santhal Uprising
iv. Mizo Uprising
Code:
(a) iv, iii, ii, i
(b) i, iii, ii, iv
(c) i, iii, iv, ii
(d) iv, ii, iii, i

13. Match the Dalit Movement with their Leaders:

Dalit Movement Leaders

l.Dalit Panther Movement 1. M. Malalcha

II.Self-Respect Movement 2. Ambedkar

lll. Dalit Panthers Iyyakkam 3. Periyar

IV.Dalit Buddhist Movement


4. Namdeo Dh

(a) I-2, II-1, III-3, IV-4


(b) I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1
(c) l- 4, II-3, III-1, IV-2
(d) I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3

14. Match the following:

Peasant Movement State/Area

1. Deccan Riots i.Maharashtra

2. Moplah Uprisings ii.West Bengal

c.Eka Movement iii. Uttar Pradesh


d.Titu Mir Movement iv. Malabar

Code:
(a) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(b) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(c) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(d) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

15. Arrange the following activities related to working class movements in a


sequence:
i. Hind Mazdoor Sabha
ii. Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
iii. Bombay Mill Hands Association
iv. Indian National Trade Union Congress
Code:
(a) iv, ii, iii, i
(b) iii, ii, iv, i
(c) iii, i, ii, iv
(d) iv, ii, iii, i

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (c)
(b). (c) (b) (c)
3 6.
9. (c)
(a) (c)
CHAPTER 5
Civil Society Groups in India

INTRODUCTION
According to World Bank, Civil Society refers to a wide array of
organizations, community groups, non-governmental organizations
(NGOs), labor unions, indigenous groups, charitable organizations, faith-
based organizations, professional associations and foundations.
Civil Society is a broader concept that encompasses all those
institutions and associations that lie outside the realm of state or market.
Hence, it is often referred to as the third sector of the society. Globally,
the term ‘Civil Society’ became popular in 1980s when it started to be
identified with non-state movements defying authoritarian regime
especially in Eastern Europe and Latin America.
India too has a strong and vibrant history of civil society activism right
from Chipko Movement to campaign for Right to Information or Anna
Hazare movement.

IMPORTANCE OF CIVIL SOCIETY


ORGANIZATIONS
Acts as a critical link connecting the masses(citizens) with the
state. It holds the state accountable for its actions that have a
bearing on the lives of the citizens.
Arbiter of rights and defender of freedom and liberty of individuals
against the arbitrariness of state.
Fights for the poor and marginalized groups such as Dalits,
Adivasis and minorities and atrocities committed against them.
Documents the causes and triggers of communal and caste
violence and keeps an archive on the abuse of power by
governments.

NON-PARTY SOCIAL FORMATION IN INDIA

Pre Independence Phase


India has had a strong presence of civil society engagement with the
social realities of that time since the pre independence era. In the
nineteenth century social and religious reform movements (e.g: Brahmo
Samaj and Arya Samaj) worked for women’s education and widow
remarriage and fought various social evils such as caste-based
discrimination or Sati.
Later during the Gandhian phase of Indian National Movement,
various social groups and voluntary organizations came up around trade
unions in industrialized cities such as Bombay and Ahmedabad (e.g.:
Swadeshi Mitra Mandal, Friends of Labourers Society).
Also various organizations with overt political motives were formed to
cater to the interests of particular communities or groups such as the Self
Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu, the Hindu Mahasabha or the
Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS).

Post Independence phase


After independence as the leaders of the freedom struggle took over the
reins of state power, organizations in civil society more or less retreated
from engaging with the state.
Since the leadership was widely seen as legitimate, civil society
organizations did not feel the necessity to politically organize the people.
Since India had inhered a constitutional democratic polity with a sound
legal framework it was expected that the elected leaders would meet the
expectations of their citizens, deliver on their promises and strive to
safeguard the rights of is populace.
However, situation drastically altered by the beginning of 1970s.
Legitimacy of government at New Delhi was diminished in the eyes of
people in the backdrop of authoritarian and centralizing tendencies of
those in power, gross abuse of powers and imposition of draconian
measures such as Emergency, lack of state responsiveness towards
plight of common citizens suffering from economic distress and
governance failures.
This very crisis of representation that resulted from the failure of
political parties to perform its duties properly led to the emergence in the
words of Rajni Kothari and D.L. Seth, ‘non-party formations’. The
growing disenchantment and frustration of people was capitalized by
famous socialist leader J.P Narayan in Bihar in the name of JP Andolan
(Bihar Movement) that later spread across the country. Similarly in
Gujarat, Navnirman Movement was launched by students and middle
class people in 1974 against inflation and corruption in public institutions.
As a result many new groups emerged as a ‘new social force’ and
launched agitations against the state to press for their demands and
rights, leading to the emergence of ‘new social movements’ (NSM) in
India. The prominent movements that came up during this time included
the civil liberties movement, Dalit movement, Adivasi movement,
women’s movement and environment movement.
Chipko Movement (Sundar Lal Bahuguna)
Silent Valley Movement (a movement to protect Silent Valley, a
tropical evergreen forest in Kerala in 1973 which was under threat
due to a proposed hydroelectric project)
M.C. Mehta versus Union of India (Movement for protection of
environment and Pollution control measures)
NGOs such as Administrative and Democratic Reforms (ADR) and
People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) have played significant
contribution by filing PILs to improve election procedures in India.
Both PUCL and ADR played a significant role in inserting the
NOTA option in the EVM machines for the first time during the
2014 Lok Sabha elections (Supreme Court Judgement on NOTA in
September 2013)
Lok Prahari NGO’s efforts which led to the historic judgement by
Supreme Court on disqualification of convicted MPs/MLAs (2013).
Vishakha and Others vs State of Rajasthan – Sexual Harassment
of Women at Workplace 2013
Naz Foundation (LGBT Rights)
Anti-Arrack Movement (a mass uprising of women against Arrack,
i.e. liquor that had a deleterious impact on their lives in the state of
Andhra Pradesh in early 1990s)
Narmada Bachao Andolan (Medha Patekar and Baba Amte)

TOP NGOs OF INDIA

Name of Areas/Sectors associated with


the NGO
Samman To link the poor to the mainstream through education,
Foundatio training and financial support. Has notable contribution
in areas such as children education, health services and
n welfare of women.
Goonj Aimed at solving the clothing problems of the
downtrodden.
Provides relief during Rahat floods in West Bengal,
Assam and Bihar.
Akshay To restore human dignity; offers rehabilitation, healthy
Trust food and care to the street destitute.

Smile Rehabilitation of underprivileged by providing them


Foundatio education and health care, thereby converting them into
productive assets.
n
Pratham Provides education to children living in the slums of
Mumbai and even to the poor people unable to go to
school.
LEPRA Aims at prevention and control of diseases such as
Society AIDS, leprosy and tuberculosis in poor communities.

Uday Provides support to parents and families of children


Foundatio suffering from congenital disorders and other
syndromes. Protection of child rights and health projects
n for common people.
Name of Areas/Sectors associated with
the NGO
Helpage Provides resources to the elderly people of our country.
India The objective is to make aware the senior citizens of
their rights and protect their rights so that they can play
a key role in our society.
‘Child Works for child rights and strives to elevate the lives of
Rights thousands of underprivileged children who are denied of
basic rights.
and
You’(CRY)
Nanhi Started by Anand Mahindra, it supports education for
Kali underpriviledged girls in India.

Oxfam Ensures that Adivasis, Dalits, Muslims and women and


India girls have safe-violence-free lives with freedom to speak
their minds, equal opportunities to realize their rights
and a discrimination-free future.

IMPORTANT SOCIAL ACTION GROUPS IN


INDIA
Social action has been a part of the process of human society. There has
hardly been any time in social evolution when people have not organized
themselves and enjoined to protest against injustice, to seek redressal of
grievances or alterations in unjust social, economic and political
structures. Social action is a very powerful instrument in the hands of the
people to secure social justice and human rights. The foremost
practitioner of social action in our country was Mahatma Gandhi. Social
reformers, trade union leaders, public workers and political activists have
been involved in social action movements in one way or the other.

FEW IMPORTANT SOCIAL ACTION GROUPS IN


INDIA
Narmada Bachao Andolan (Medha Patekar and Baba Amte)
Right to Information – Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan
(MKSS) in Rajasthan (Auna Roy and Arvind Kejriwal)
Bachpan Bachao Andolan related to Child Trafficking
(Kailash Satyarthi who received Noble Peace Prize in 2014)
Self Employed Women’s Association (SEWA): A trade
union based in Ahmedabad that promotes the rights of low-
income, independently employed female workers. It was founded
by noted activist Ela Bhatt in 1972. With over 1.6 million
participating women, SEWA is the largest organization of informal
workers in the world.
Centre for Youth and Social Development (CYSD):
CYSD’s mission is to enable the marginalized to improve their
quality of life. The organization has been working with tribal
communities and rural poor in Odisha to eradicate extreme
poverty, ensuring social justice and inclusion.
India against Corruption (IAC): One of the largest civil
society movements in recent times, led by anti-corruption crusader
Anna Hazare in 2011 against the massive corruption and scams
that rocked the country then. It led to widespread discontentment
and disenchantment among the public and people from various
walks of life joined the agitation started in Delhi. Anna Hazare
demanded the legislation of Jan Lokpal Bill or the institution of
Citizen Ombudsman to look into the matters of corruption in public
institutions and ensure probity in governance. The draft of Jan
Lokpal was prepared by the activists spearheading the movement
and included within it provisions like protection to whistleblowers.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Assertion(A): While NGOs are part of Civil Society, they are no
synonymous with the term Civil Society.
Reason(A): Civil society encompasses a broader assemblage of
various institutions and organizations and NGOs are a part of it.
Options:
(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

2. Who among the following propounded the concept of ‘non-party


formation’ to describe the rise of Civil Society Movements in India?
(a) Neera Chandhoke
(b) Rajni Kothari
(c) Yogendra Yadav
(d) Ashutosh Varshney

3. Assertion (A): In the pre independence phase, civil society


engagement primarily revolved around social and religious reform
movements.
Reason (R): In the post independence phase, civil society
activism encapsulated a broader canvass of livelihood issues,
environment, women rights and rights of marginalized sections.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

4. Match the following:

Movements Place of Origin


1. JP Movement 1. Kerala

2. Navnirman Movement 2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Silent Valley Movement C. Bihar

4. Anti -Arrack Movement D. Gujarat

Options:
(a) 1(A)2(B)3(C)4(D)
(b) 1(C)2(B)3(D)4(A)
(c) 1(D)2(C)3(B)4(A)
(d) 1(C)2(D)3(A)4(B)

5. Which of the following NGOs is dedicated to the cause of senio


citizens?
(a) Helpage India
(b) Oxfam India
(c) Pratham
(d) Goonj

6. Match the following:

Name of the Key people


movement/association

1. Bachpan Bachao Andolan I.Anna Hazare

II.Kailash Satyarthi
2. India Against Corruption

C. Right to Information III. Ela B


D. SEWA IV.Arvind Kejriwal

Options:
(a) A(IV)B(III)C(II)D(I)
(b) A(I)B(II)C(III)D(IV)
(c) A(II)B(I)C(IV)D(III)
(d) A(III)B(I)C(II)D(IV)

7. Statement I: In the initial years of independence, civil society


activism remained subdued largely due to the perceived legitimacy
of the state.
Statement II: From 1980 onwards, mass civil society
movements emerged from different parts of the country due to the
failures and unresponsiveness of the state.
Options:
(a) Both I and II are correct.
(b) Both I and II are incorrect.
(c) I is correct but II is incorrect.
(d) I is incorrect but II is correct .

8. Match the following:

Organizations Known for

I.ADR 1. Disqualification of convicted


representatives

II.Naz
Foundation
2. Improvement in electoral procedures

III. PUCL C.LGBT Rights


IV.Lok Prahari D.NOTA

Options:
(a) I-(A), II-(B), III-(C), IV-(A)
(b) I-(D), II-(C), III-(B), IV-(A)
(c) I-(C), II-(D), III-(A), IV-(B)
(d) I-(B), II-(C), III-(A), IV-(D)

9. Name the organization popularly known for the demand for Citize
Ombudsman in India.
(a) PUCL
(b) ADR
(c) Swaraj Abhiyan
(d) India Against Corruption

10. Match the following:

NGO Objectives

I.Nanhi Kali 1. Girls education

II.Oxfam India 2. Rights of downtrodden sections

III. Pratham C. Education of slum children


IV.CRY D. Child Rights

Options:
(a) I-(A); II-(B); III-(C); IV-(D)
(b) I-(D); II-(C); III-(B); IV-(A)
(c) I-(C); II-(D); III-(A); IV-(B)
(d) I-(B); II-(A); III-(D); IV-(A)

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (a) (a) (c) (b) (d) (a)
2. 4.
6. (c)
(b) (d)
CHAPTER 6
Regionalization of Indian Politics

INTRODUCTION
A strong attachment to one’s own region is referred to as regionalism. It is
the expression of a shared sense of identity and purpose by people living in a
specific geographical region that is united by its own language, culture, and so
on. In a positive sense, it encourages people to cultivate a sense of
brotherhood and oneness while in a negative sense it means an excessive
attachment to one’s region, which poses a significant threat to the country’s
unity and integrity.

REGIONAL MOVEMENTS CAN BE OF DIFFERENT


TYPES
Secessionist Movement: To form a new sovereign state carved
out of India e.g., Khalistan Movement, Kashmir, etc.
Separatist Movement: The formation of a new state within India to
better serve the region’s linguistic and ethnic minorities, e.g.,
Gorkhaland, Bodoland, etc.
Movements for Greater Regional Autonomy: These demands
increase when parties are different at the center and the state.
Full Statehood: These demands have been accepted over the
course of time as many of the Union Territories have been granted full
statehood.

MAJOR CAUSES OF REGIONALISM IN INDIA


The following factors are responsible for regionalism in India:
Historical and geographical isolation, an insider-outsider complex that
fosters nativism and son-of-the-soil ideology.
The uneven development, continuous neglect of a region, and internal
colonialism have resulted in some regions remaining economically
underdeveloped despite being rich in natural resources. The ill-
conceived top-down approach to the development or survival of one
region at the expense of the other, e.g. Jharkhand.
Political parties have created an imaginary threat from outsiders and
promised their vote bank that they will secure their land and eliminate
outsiders. This agenda has been promoted by regional parties and
fringe elements in several states.
In India, regionalism has a religious component. Prior to its
independence, India was united with Pakistan. Religious differences
led to the establishment of Pakistan. After independence, the demand
of Khalistan is an example of it.
The imposition of an ideology that may be in conflict with the ideology
that people of a particular group have held for a long time.
Linguistic ambitions and ethnic expression have long been a
formidable foundation of regionalism. For example, Andhra Pradesh
and Nagaland
MAJOR THEORIES RELATED TO REGIONALISM

Theory Thinker Example


Modernization Rudolph and Rudolph Identity-based
theory mobilization

Culture of Poverty Marc Jurgensmear Regionalism in North


or Scarcity East

Culture of Thomas Jannuzzi Khalistan Movement


affluence
Uneven Robert Hardgrave Jharkhand, Vidarbha
development
theory
Theory Thinker Example
Son of Soil theory Myron Weiner Maharashtra
(Shivsena)
Politics of Iqbal Narain Just for the sake of the
Opposition opposition

REORGANIZATION OF STATES IN INDIA

Indian State Structure Before 1956


During Independence, India was divided into two types of political units:
British Provinces, which were directly ruled by the British Government, and
Princely States, which were ruled by native princes but subjected to the British
Crown. However, the Indian Independence Act of 1947 resulted in the
creation of two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, and gave princely
states the following options:

1. Join Indian Dominion


2. Join Pakistan Dominion
3. Become independent

The Indian Constitution was enacted in 1950, and it divided the constituent
units of the Indian Union into four parts, which are as follows:

1. Part A states – Former British India’s provinces, ruled by a


elected Governor and State Legislature ruled over these states.
includes - Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Utta
Pradesh, Madras, Odisha, and West Bengal.
2. Part B states–Former princely states or groups of
princely states, Rajpramukh (appointed by India’s President) is the
ruler of a constituent state with a democratically elected legislature. It
includes Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU), Hyderabad,
Jammu and Kashmir, Travancore-Cochin, Madhya Bharat, Mysore,
Rajasthan, and Saurashtra and Vindhya Pradesh.
3. Part C States - Former small provinces and princely
states governed by a chief commissioner. The President of India
appointed the chief commissioner. It includes Ajmer, Bhopal, Bilaspur,
Coorg, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Cutch, Manipur, Tripura, and ‘Cooch
- Behar’.
4. Part D states – The central government appointed a lieutenant
governor to govern this state. It includes only the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.

COMMISSION FOR LINGUISTIC


REORGANIZATION

Commissio Members Recommendations


n/
Committee
Dhar SK Dhar The commission recommended that “the
Commission: (Chairman), formation of Provinces on Linguistic
1948 Jagat consideration is not in the larger interests of
Narain, the Indian Nation.”
Panna Lal It proposed reorganizing the provinces of
Madras, Bombay, and Central Provinces
based on administrative conveniences such
as geographical proximity, financial self-
sufficiency, and administrative ease.
JVP Jawahar Lal The Committee submitted its report in 1949
Committee: Nehru, and formally rejected language as the basis
1948 Vallabhbhai for state reorganization.
Patel,
Pattabhi
Sitaramayya
Commissio Members Recommendations
n/
Committee
Fazl Ali Fazl Ali The Commission submitted its report in
Commission: (Chairman), 1955. It rejected the idea theory of “one
1953 K.M. language one state” but broadly accepted
It is the state Panikkar, language as the basis of the reorganization
re- H.N. Kunzru of States with due regard to the Unity of
organization India.
commission
It recommended four factors to consider
when reorganizing states:
1. Preservation and Strengthening of the
Country’s Unity and Security.
2. Linguistic and cultural uniformity
3. Financial, economic, and
administrative factors
4. Planning and promotion of people’s
welfare in each state as well as the
welfare of the nation as a whole.
The Commission proposed the elimination
of the four-fold classification of states and
the creation of 16 states and 3
centrally-administered territories.

LINGUISTIC REORGANIZATION IN 1956


State Reorganisation Act 1956: The government of India accepted the
recommendations of the State Reorganisation Commission with the 7th
Constitutional Amendment Act and went for a reorganization of states on 1
November 1956. It created 14 states and 6 Union Territories.
States - Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Jammu and Kashmir,
Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Madras, Mysore, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar
Pradesh and West Bengal.
# Note: The government of India established the first Linguistic State
known as Andhra Pradesh in 1953 by separating the Telugu-speaking area
from the Madras State.
Union Territories - Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Delhi, Himachal
Pradesh, Laccadive, Manipur, Tripura.

TIMELINE OF REORGANIZATION AFTER 1956


The reorganization of states continued even after 1956 due to the reasons
mentioned above. The new states were carved out of existing states; several
union territories made full states; new states were added and recently a state
was bifurcated into two union territories. The timeline is as follows:

Year State and UT Details


1960 Maharashtra & The state of Bombay was divided
Gujarat into two separate states,
Maharashtra for Marathi speakers
and Gujarat for Gujarati speakers.
1961 Dadra and Nagar It was made a Union Territory by the
Haveli (D&N) 10th Constitutional Amendment Act.

1962 Daman & Diu UT They were admitted to the Indian


and Goa UT Union under the 12th Constitutional
Amendment Act. In 1961, India
obtained three territories from the
Portuguese, including Goa, Daman,
and Diu through police action. Goa
was granted statehood in 1967.
1962 Puducherry It was designated as a Union
territory by the 14th Constitutional
Amendment Act.
1966 Haryana state The state of Punjab was divided,
and Chandigarh creating Haryana as a state and
Chandigarh as a Union territory.
UT
1971 Himachal Himachal Pradesh was elevated to
Pradesh the status of state.
Year State and UT Details
1972 Meghalaya, All three states got statehood.
Tripura, and Earlier Meghalaya was a state
within the state of Assam in 1969.
Manipur Tripura and Manipur were union
territories.
1975 Sikkim Sikkim was made a full-fledged
state of India by the 36th
Constitutional Amendment Act and
this amendment added a new
Article 371-F to provide special
provisions for Sikkim’s
administration. Earlier it was given
the status of Associate State (34th
Constitutional Amendment Act
1974).
1987 Goa Goa was granted statehood.
1987 Arunachal The 55th Amendment Constitution
Pradesh Act granted statehood to Arunachal
Pradesh. Earlier, it was a Union
Territory since 1972.
2000 Chhattisgarh, Chhattisgarh was created out of the
Uttarakhand, territory of Madhya Pradesh.
Uttarakhand was created out of the
and Jharkhand territory of Uttar Pradesh.
Jharkhand was created out of the
territory of Bihar.
2014 Telangana Andhra Pradesh was divided into
two separate states: Andhra
Pradesh and Telangana, with
Hyderabad serving as the joint
capital for both.
Year State and UT Details
2019 Jammu & The Jammu and Kashmir
Kashmir UT and Reorganisation Act, 2019, passed
by the Indian Parliament, divided
Ladakh UT the state of Jammu and Kashmir
into two parts:
1. The Union Territory of Jammu
and Kashmir (with Legislative
Assembly)
2. The Union Territory of Ladakh
(without Legislative Assembly)
2020 Dadra and Nagar It was created through the merger of
Haveli and the former union territories of Dadra
and Nagar Haveli UT and Daman
Daman and Diu and Diu UT. All four areas were part
UT (DNHDD) of Portuguese India with the capital
in Velha Goa. They came under
Indian administration in the mid-20th
century.
# Note - Currently, India has 28 States and 8 Union Territories

NEW STATEHOOD DEMANDS IN INDIA

Demand of Region Other details


State
Bodoland Northern The Bodos are northern Assam’s largest
Assam ethnic and linguistic community. The
Government of India, the Assam state
government, and the Bodo Liberation
Tigers Force reached an agreement in
2003 to create a separate Bodoland state.
The agreement established the Bodoland
Territorial Council (BTC) within the state of
Assam under the Sixth Schedule.
Demand of Region Other details
State
Vidarbha Eastern It includes the eastern Maharashtra
Maharashtra divisions of Amravati and Nagpur. SRC
also recommended the creation of
Vidarbha. The demands for the creation of
a separate state are based on allegations
of neglect by the Maharashtra state
government.
Purvanchal Eastern It will be bounded to the north by Nepal, to
Uttar the east by Bihar state, to the south by the
Pradesh Bagelkhand region of Madhya Pradesh
state, and to the west by the Awadh region
of Uttar Pradesh. Purvanchal is divided into
three regions: Awadhi in the west, Bhojpuri
in the east, and Baghelkhand in the south.
Bundelkha Central & It will include parts of Uttar Pradesh and
nd North India Madhya Pradesh. The voices for a
separate state have been raised by the
former CM of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar
Pradesh, Uma Bharti and Mayawati
respectively.
Saurashtra Southern Ratilal Tanna launched the movement for a
Gujarat separate Saurashtra state in 1972. The
region’s lack of better water supply, job
opportunities, and subsequent youth
migration have been cited as major
reasons for the demand for statehood.
Saurashtra also has a distinct linguistic
identity from the rest of the state.
Delhi The demand for statehood arose as a
result of the report of the Committee on
Reorganisation of Delhi Set-Up, also
known as the Balakrishnan Committee, in
1987. The demand for full Statehood is
made as it will give complete administrative
control to the hands of the state
government.
Demand of Region Other details
State
Gorkhaland Northern Gorkhaland is a proposed state in northern
West Bengal West Bengal that would encompass areas
inhabited by the ethnic Gorkha (Nepali)
people, namely the Darjeeling hills and
Dooars. The Gorkhaland movement has
gained traction in response to the
ethnolinguistic cultural sentiments of
people who wish to identify as Gorkha.
Awadh Agra & It was a kingdom during Mughal era and a
Awadh State During British era. Central part of UP
Region – Agra and Awadh Region
Barak Assam In Assam, Cachar, Karimganj, Hailakandi
State districts, Bengali language area

Bhojpur In Bihar and Bhojpuri speaking community


UP
Karbi In Assam In Assam, Karbi Anglong, West Karbi
Anglong Anglong Region. In1996, Karbi Anglong
Autonomous Council in Assam.
Kodagu Karnataka , Before 1956, known as Coorg State
Coorg
Region
Rayalasee In Andhra It comprises eight southwestern districts of
ma Pradesh the State, namely Kurnool, Nandyal,
Anantapur, Sri Sathya Sai, YSR,
Annamayya, Tirupati and Chittoor districts

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Telangana was carved out of which state in 2014?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Assam

2. The first state created on the basis of language was


(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Assam

3. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the cod
given below:

List-1-State List-2-Chief Minister


(a)Uttar Pradesh (i)Jairam Thakur
(b)Assam (ii) Himanta Biswa Sarma
(c)Kerala (iii) Yogi Adityanath
(d)Himachal Pradesh (iv) Pinarayi Vijayan

Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iii) (iv) ((i) (ii)
(b) (iii) (ii) ((iv) (i)
(c) (ii) (iii) ((iv) (i)
(d) (iv) (i) ((iii) (ii)

4. The present number of States and Union territories in India is


(a) 28 States and 8 Union Territories
(b) 28 States and 7 Union Territories
(c) 27 States and 8 Union Territories
(d) 29 States and 8 Union Territories

5. The demand for ‘Harit Pradesh’ is related to which one of the followin
regions in India?
(a) Western Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Uttaranchal
(d) Vidharbha

6. The concept of Union Territories was first introduced in India in whic


year?
(a) 1954
(b) 1955
(c) 1956
(d) 1957

7. The Fazl Ali Commission recommended


(a) 14 States and 7 Union Territories
(b) 16 States and 3 Union Territories
(c) 16 States and 6 Union Territories
(d) 14 States and 6 Union Territories

8. Arrange the formation of following states in chronological order:


(A) Sikkim
(B) Goa
(C) Gujarat
(D) Telangana
Choose the correct option:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (D), (B), (C) and (A)
(c) (B), (C), (A) and (D)
(d) (C), (A), (B) and (D)

9. Which state was carved out of the state of Bihar in the year 2000?
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) None
10. How many states were formed after the State Reorganisation Act,
1956?
(a) 14 States and 7 Union Territories
(b) 16 States and 3 Union Territories
(c) 16 States and 6 Union Territories
(d) 14 States and 6 Union Territories

11. In which year the four-fold classification of Indian states was


established?
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1953
(d) 1956

12. Arrange the following details regarding state reorganization in a


sequence:
i. Sikkim became a State of India.
ii. Jharkhand , Chhattisgarh , and Uttarakhand became State.
iii. Haryana and Punjab as State after bifurcation of old Punjab.
iv. Nagaland became a State.
Code:
(a) iv, iii, ii, i
(b) iv, iii, i, ii
(c) i, iii, ii, iv
(d) iv, ii, iii, i

13. Arrange the following details regarding state reorganization in a reverse


sequence:
i. Dhar Commission
ii. Appointment of States Reorganisation Commission.
iii. Linguistic Provinces Committee to evaluate the recommendatio
Dhar committee
iv. State Reorganisation Act
Code:
(a) iv, ii, iii, i
(b) i, iii, ii, iv
(c) i, iii, ii, iv
(d) iv, ii, iii, i

14. Which among the following statements is correct about Reorganisation


of Indian States?
1. Idea of reorganisation of state was originated after independence.

2. The basis for reorganisation was proposed to be on Languages of


will replace Caste and Religion-based identities.

3. Dhar committee recommended the reorganisation of the province


basis of the Administrative convenience.

4. JVP committee formally rejected language as the basis for the reorg
of States.

Choose the correct option:


(a) 1, 2 ,3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 3, 4
(d) 2 ,3 and 4

15. Match the following:

Statehood Demand State/Area

1. Malwa i.Maharashtra

2. Konkan ii.Rajasthan

c.Maru Pradesh iii. Uttar Pradesh


d.Awadh Pradesh iv. Madhya Pradesh
Code:
(a) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(b) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(c) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(d) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(b) (a) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (a)
(c) (a) (d) (d)
3. 6.
9. (b)
(b) (c)
CHAPTER 7
Gender and Politics in India

INTRODUCTION
The gender divide is commonly perceived as found in social expectations and
preconceptions. In most nations, women have a minor role in public life,
particularly politics, and India is not an exception. Equality and representation
for women have been drawing more serious attention in India since
independence. One should ask why women’s rights are needed to be
recognized by law in India where people have a habit of worshipping them as
goddesses. The answer lies in the patriarchal and socio-political and cultural
characteristics of Indian society which are supported by unexamined and
illogical social conventions and customs. Gradually, the question of gender
became more prominent in politics. It advocated for women’s political, legal
status, and educational and career prospects to be improved.

GENDER AND POLITICS IN INDIA


Gender equity is interdisciplinary and cross-national in nature. India is
included in the world’s largest democratic country, where participation in the
politics of women and men is a positive effort. In the Indian Constitution
(Article 15), there is a right to equality but there is also a society that is neither
male nor female, which is called the third category i.e., transgender. In India,
transgender is understood through different means by so-called societies. In
this situation, it becomes difficult for the individuals of this society.
To reduce this gender discrimination, a landmark decision was made by
the Supreme Court on 15 April 2014 in the National Legal Services
Authority of India, which declared transgender to be in the category of
third gender which gives fundamental rights conferred by the Constitution
of India, has been made equally available to them.
Before Independence, India has a history of marginalization and
exploitation of women framed by patriarchal social structures. The beginning
of social reforms and participation in the Freedom struggle (swadeshi in
Bengal 1905–08) also witnessed the impressive participation of women, who
organized political demonstrations and mobilized resources, as well as
occupied leadership positions in those movements.
After India got independence, its Constitution guaranteed equal status for
men and women in all political, social, and economic spheres. Part III of the
Constitution guarantees the fundamental rights of men and women. The
Directive Principles of State Policy ensure economic empowerment by
providing forequal pay for equal work. by both men and women,
humane conditions of work, maternity relief, etc. The reservation for women in
local bodies in the year 1992, through the 73rd and 74th amendments to the
Constitution, provided for the reservation of one-third (33%) of the total
number of seats for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and
municipal bodies.

WOMEN AND POLITICAL REPRESENTATION


1. Women as Voters: In the last Lok Sabha election of 2019, almost
as many women voted as men a watershed in India’s progress
towards gender equality in politics which has been called a “silent
revolution of self-empowerment”.
2. Women as Candidates: Overall, however, while women
candidates in parliamentary elections have increased over time, their
proportion compared to male candidates remains low. In the 2019 Lok
Sabha elections, of the total of 8,049 candidates in the fray, less than
9 percent were women.
3. Women’s Representation in Parliament: Although women’s
participation as voters in elections has increased significantly, the data
on women’s representation in both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
suggest that the proportion of women representatives has remained
low in comparison to their male counterparts.

GENDER DISCRIMINATION IN INDIA


In Indian culture, women are seen with respect but still, there is a difference
between a woman and a man due to physical reasons which are natural and it
can also be called a natural gender distinction.
1. Religious reasons: Religion is the main reason for gende
discrimination in India. Because of the patriarchal system in society, the
gap of gender discrimination between women and men has arisen. Me
believe that women should stay within the boundary of the house, due t
religious reasons, women must face gender discrimination and they ar
unable to enter politics.
2. Social reasons: Society has been trying to impose various types of
restrictions on women. Child marriage, widow life, house cleaner
service, dynasty tradition, estranged wealth, and illiteracy are some of
the important factors that prevent the participation of women in politics
and creates gender discrimination.
3. Political reasons: The Indian constitution has given constitutionally
many rights to a woman considered weak in the court. Some parties of
Indian politics do not invite women to enter politics because male-
dominated society and politics view women with gender discrimination.
On the other hand, men believe that if women enter politics, then they
should abdicate, therefore, due to Indian politics being male-
dominated, there is a gender bias in politics

ISSUES OF EQUALITY AND REPRESENTATION


Sexual Violence/Violence Against Women: The issue of sexual
violence is raised by both autonomous women’s groups as well as women’s
wings of political parties in terms of the fundamental rights of women, the
failure by the state to contain sexual violence because of its lack of political
will and the need to have better laws which recognize sexual violence as a
crime.
Health: The women’s movement is aware that it must break out of the
framework limiting women’s health to reproductive issues alone. The
resolution passed at the sixth national conference of the women’s movement
in 1997 defined health as the ‘socio-cultural and economic well-being of the
individual,’ not just as the absence of disease, and noted that there have been
active campaigns against gender discrimination which results in the lower
health status of women.
Work The Equal Wages Act was passed in 1975, assuring ‘equal pay
for equal work.’ This law is nowhere effective, because whenever there is
a struggle to implement the Act; employers respond by reclassifying the jobs
done by women to show it is not ‘work of a similar nature.’ In this case, a
tradition exists of women’s work and men’s work, which determines skill
training. So already women are segregated into specific jobs which can be
defined as differentially paid because it is different work, not because women
are doing it. The issue for women struggling in the area of work and equal
wages is, therefore, how to break the equation between women, inferior work,
and low wages.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. In which year the Supreme court of India made a landmark decisio
concerning the “third gender”?
(a) 13th April, 2013
(b) 15th April, 2014
(c) 13th April, 2015
(d) 15th April, 2016

2. By which phrase the 2019 Lok Sabha election was known regardin
gender politics in India?
(a) Great revolution of women’s empowerment
(b) Silent revolution of women empowerment
(c) Great revolution of self-empowerment
(d) Silent revolution of self-empowerment

3. Consider the following statements regarding gender and politics in India


A. To ensure equal status of men and women, the constitution has
equal pay for equal work under the fundamental rights.

B. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Act has provided the re
of 1/3rd of the total number of seats for women in local bodies.

C. The gender divide is perceived as found in social expectations


preconceptions.
Choose the correct answer from the following;
(a) Only A and B
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only A and C
(d) All are correct.

4. Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and th
other as Reason (R)
Assertion: Religion is one of the reasons in India for gender
discrimination.
Reason: Patriarchal system in society, the gap of gender
discrimination between men and women has arisen.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct.

5. In which year Equal Wages Act was passed?


(a) 1955
(b) 1965
(c) 1975
(d) 1985

6. Restrictions on women such as child marriage, widow life, dynast


tradition, and estranged wealth are the major source of gende
discrimination and are backed by-
(a) Economic reasons
(b) Political reasons
(c) Financial reasons
(d) Societal reasons.

7. Which of the following is not among the issues regarding equality an


discrimination in gender politics in India?
(a) Health
(b) Economy
(c) Sexual violence
(d) Work

8. Which National conference of women defined health as the socio-cultura


and economic well-being of the individual?
(a) 4th
(b) 5th
(c) 6th
(d) 7th

9. Choose the correct answer from the following:


Statement I: The 74th Constitutional Amendment act has provided
33% of seats for women in Panchayats.
Statement II: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment act has provided
1/3rd of the seats for women in Municipal bodies.
(a) Both statements are correct.
(b) Both statements are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

10. Which article of the Indian constitution provides equal pay for equal
work for both men and women?
(a) Article 38(a)
(b) Article 39(a)
(c) Article 38(d)
(d) Article 39(d)

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (b) (c) (b) (c) (b) (d)
2. 4.
6. (d)
(d) (a)
CHAPTER 8
Ideology and Social Basis of
Political Parties

INTRODUCTION
India has a multi-party system. The Election Commission of India (ECI)
accords recognition to the national level and the state level political
parties based upon objective criteria. A recognised political party enjoys
privileges like a reserved party symbol, free broadcast time on state-run
television and radio, consultation in the setting of election dates, and
giving input in setting electoral rules and regulations. Other political
parties that wish to contest local, state or national elections are required
to be registered by the Election Commission of India. Registered Parties
are upgraded as recognised National Party or State Party by
the ECI if they meet the relevant criteria after a Lok-Sabha or State
Legislative Assembly election.
Before the amendment in 2016 (came into force with effect from 1
January 2014), if a political party failed to fulfil the criteria in the
subsequent Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly election, they lost
their status as a recognised Party. In 2016, the ECI announced that such
a review would take place after two consecutive elections instead of
every election.

NATIONAL POLITICAL PARTIES


National Party has a nationwide presence as opposed to a regional party
that is restricted to only a particular state or region. A certain stature is
sometimes associated with being a national party, but this does not
necessarily translate into having a lot of national political influence.

CONDITIONS FOR DECLARING A PARTY


‘NATIONAL’
As per the ECI’s Political Parties and Election Symbols, 2019 handbook,
a political party would be considered a national party if:
It is ‘recognised’ as State Party in four or more states; or
If its candidates have secured at least 6% of total valid votes in at
least 4 states (in latest Lok Sabha or Assembly elections) and the
party has at least 4 MPs in the last LS polls;
If it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the LS from at least 3
states.

S. Party Important Ideology


No. Features
1. Communist Party # Emerged from a # It is characterised
of India (Marxist) split in the as a radical
(Symbol – hammer, Communist Party democratic party
sickle and Star) of India (CPI) on 7 as it emphasises
November 1964. on the preservation
of democratic
institutions.
S. Party Important Ideology
No. Features
2. Bharatiya Janata # Founded on 6 # Initial ideology in
Party April 1980, 1980 was
(Lotus) preceded by Gandhian
Bharatiya Jana Socialism. # In
Sangh (1951–77) 1985, adopted
and Janata Party Integral
(1977–80) Humanism
# Various Wings- formulated by
Bharatiya Janata Deendayal
Yuva Morcha, BJP
Upadhyaya as
Mahila Morcha, official ideology.
Bharatiya Mazdoor # In 1889, adopted
Sangh, Bharatiya
Kisan Sangh. Hindutva by
# It is the current Savarkar as part of
ruling political party Political ideology.
of the Republic of # Right Wing
India and is the (Socialism)
largest political # Political
party in the country Philosophy -
in terms of Cultural
representation in Nationalism,
the National Integral Humanism,
Parliament and the Social
State Assemblies. Traditionalism
S. Party Important Ideology
No. Features
3. Bahujan Samaj # Founded by The party seeks to
Party Kanshi Ram in 14 represent and
(Symbol – April, 1984. secure power for
Elephant) # Its President is the Bahujan Samaj
Mayawati and the which includes the
Party has a main Schedule Castes,
base in Uttar Schedule Tribes,
Pradesh where it other backward
was the Second castes and
largest party in religious minorities.
2019 in Indian
General Election.
4. National People’s # Founded by P. A. # Believed only
Party Sangma after his literacy and
(Symbol – book,.) expulsion from the education can
NCP on 6 January empower the
2013. weaker sections.
First political party # Political Position
from Northeastern - Center
India to be National # Political
Party status Philosophy -
(Mainly in Regionalism,
Meghalaya). Ethnocentrism etc.
# Recognised as
National Party in
2019.
S. Party Important Ideology
No. Features
5. Aam Aadmi Party # The AAP was # Political Position-
founded in Centre
November 2012 by # Political
Arvind Kejriwal and Philosophy –
his then- Liberal Socialism,
companions, Civic Nationalism.
following the 2011
Indian anti-
corruption
movement,
popularly known as
Anna Andolan.
# Aam Aadmi
Party became the
9th National Party
of India after the
result of Gujarat
elections (
December 2022)
**At the time of the first General Elections (1952), there were 14
national parties in India

STATE PARTY IN INDIA


A party is recognised as a state party in a state if any of the following
conditions is fulfilled:
If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the state at a general
election to the respective state Legislative Assembly (state LA)
and also, it wins 2 seats in the same state Legislative Assembly.
If it secures 6% of the total valid votes in the state at a general
election to the LS; and also, it wins 1 seat in the LS from the same
state.
If it wins 3% of seats in the LA at a general election to the
Legislative Assembly of the state concerned or 3 seats in the
assembly (whichever is more).
If it wins 1 seat in the LS for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof
allotted to the state at a general election to the LS from the state
concerned.
If it secures 8% of the total valid votes polled in the state at a
General Election to the LS from the state or to the State LA.

State Party State Leader Year


All India Anna Tamil Nadu, Edappadi K. 1972
Dravida Puducherry Palaniswami
Munnetra
Kazhagam
All India West Bengal Debabrata Biswas 1939
Forward Bloc
All India Majlis- Telangana Asaduddin Owaisi 1958
e-Ittehadul
Muslimeen
All India United Assam Badruddin Ajmal 2005
Democratic
Front
All India NR Puducherry N. Rangaswamy 2011
Congress
All Jharkhand Jharkhand Sudesh Mahto 1986
Students Union
Asom Gana Assam Atul Bora 1985
Parishad
Biju Janata Dal Odisha Naveen Patnaik 1997
Bodoland Assam Hagrama Mohilary 2005
People’s Front
State Party State Leader Year
Desiya Tamil Nadu Vijaykanth 2005
Murpokku
Dravidar
Kazhagam
Dravida Tamil Nadu, M. K. Stalin 1949
Munnetra Puducherry
Kazhagam
Indian Union Kerala Hyderali Shihab 1948
Muslim League Thangal

Indian National Haryana Om Prakash 1996


Lok Dal Chautala

Jammu & Jammu and Farooq Abdullah 1932


Kashmir Kashmir
National
Conference
Jammu and Jammu and Bhim Singh 1982
Kashmir Kashmir
National
Panthers Party
Jammu and Jammu and Mehbooba Mufti 1999
Kashmir Kashmir
People’s
Democratic
Party
Janata Dal Arunachal H. D. Devegowda 1999
(Secular) Pradesh,
Karnataka, Kerala
Janata Dal Arunachal Nitish Kumar 2003
(United) Pradesh, Bihar,
Manipur
State Party State Leader Year
Jharkhand Jharkhand Shibhu Soren, 1972
Mukti Morcha Hemant Soren

People’s
Democratic
Front
Kerala Kerala Jose K. Mani 1979
Congress (M)
Lok Janshakti Bihar Chirag Paswan 2000
Party
Maharashtra Maharashtra Raj Thackeray 2006
Navnirman
Sena
Maharashtrawa Goa Deepak Dhavalikar 1963
di Gomantak
Party
United People’s Assam Urkhao Gwra 2015
Party Liberal Brahma

Mizo National Mizoram Zoramthanga 1961


Front
Mizoram Mizoram Lalhmangaiha 1975
People’s Sailo
Conference
Naga People’s Manipur, Nagaland T. R. Zeliang 2002
Front
Nationalist Nagaland Neiphiu Rio 2017
Democratic
Progressive
Party
State Party State Leader Year
Pattali Makkal Puducherry S. Ramadoss 1989
Katchi
People’s Party Arunachal Pradesh Kamen Ringu 1977
of Arunachal
Rashtriya Bihar, Jharkhand Lalu Prasad Yadav, 1997
Janata Dal Tejaswi Yadav

Rashtriya Rajasthan Hanuman Beniwal 2020


Loktantrik
Party
Zoram Mizoram Lalduhoma 1997
Nationalist
Party
Revolutionary Kerala, West Manoj 1940
Socialist Party Bengal Bhattacharya

Samajwadi Uttar Pradesh Akhilesh Yadav 1992


Party
Shiromani Akali Punjab Sukhbir Singh 1920
Dal Badal

Shiv Sena Maharashtra Uddhav Thackeray 1966


Sikkim Sikkim Pawan Kumar 1993
Democratic Chamling
Front
Sikkim Sikkim Prem Singh 2013
Krantikari Tamang
Morcha
Telangana
Rashtra
Samithi
State Party State Leader Year
Telugu Desam Andhra Pradesh, N. Chandrababu 1982
Party Telangana Naidu

United Meghalaya Metbah Lyngdoh 1997


Democratic
Party
YSR Congress Andhra Pradesh Y. S. Jagan Mohan 2011
Party Reddy

Samajwadi
Janata Party
(Rashtriya)
Communist Bihar Dipankar 1974
Party of India Bhattacharyya
(Marxist –
Leninist)
Liberation
Goa Forward Goa Vijai Sardesai 2016
Party
Indigenous Tripura N. C. Debbarama 2009
People’s Front
of Tripura
Janta Congress Chhattisgarh Renu Jogi 2016
Chhattisgarh
Jan Nayak Haryana Dushyant Chautala 2018
Janta Party

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. ‘Two flowers with grass’ is a party symbol of :
(a) All India Trinamool Congress
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) India National Congress
(d) Nationalist Congress Party

2. Recently which party has gained status of National Party?


(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Aam Aadmi Party
(c) Telugu Desam Party
(d) Rashtriya Janata Dal

3. Which of the following is NOT correct?


(a) Jan Nayak Janta Party – Haryana
(b) Rashtriya Janata Dal – Bihar
(c) Shiromani Akali Dal – Jharkhand
(d) Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party- Nagaland

4. Which of the following conditions required to be a National Party i


NOT correct?
(a) It is ‘recognised’ in four or more states.
(b) If its candidates have secured at least 6% of total valid vo
Mamata Banerjee has at least 4 states (in latest Lok Sabh
Assembly elections) and the party has at least 4 MPs in the las
polls
(c) If it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the LS from at lea
states.
(d) None of the above

5. When was Indian National Lok Dal established?


(a) 1996
(b) 1997
(c) 1998
(d) 1999

6. Who established Asom Gana Parishad?


(a) Atul Bora
(b) Akhilesh Yadav
(c) Sukhbir Singh Badal
(d) Naveen Patnaik

7. All India Forward Bloc is in which state?


(a) Telangana
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) West Bengal

8. Who established National People’s Party?


(a) P. A. Sangma
(b) Mamata Banerjee
(c) Kanshi Ram
(d) Sharad Pawar

9. Who is the leader of Janata Dal (United)?


(a) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(b) Nitish Kumar
(c) T. R. Zeliang
(d) M. K. Stalin

10. Which of the following is NOT correct?


(a) India National Congress – Hand
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party – Lotus
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party – Elephant
(d) Nationalist Congress Party - Book

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(a) (c) (a) (d) (a) (b) (d)
2. 4.
6. (a)
(b) (c)
CHAPTER 9
Electoral Politics in India

INTRODUCTION
Electoral Politics can be understood as the politics which is related to
Elections and Electoral processes. Elections are an important aspect of
democracy. Elections is the process by which people choose their
representative to act on their behalf in a legislative body. Electoral politics
involves not only the occurrence of elections but also patterns of
mobilisation by political parties and leaders for voting in the elections. The
conduct of elections in a free and fair manner, and extent of participation of
people from various social groups is considered as a way to measure the
success of democracy. PSEPHOLOGY stands for studying elections.

PARTICIPATION
Electoral Participation rates depend on many factors including the type of
electoral system, the social groupings to which voters belong, the voter’s
personality and beliefs. The rate of electoral participation is impacted by the
level and type of the election. For instance, if electoral turn out is
considered, it is greater in the national level elections than in the state
elections and similarly it will be greater in the state elections than in local
elections. Person who support any political party would vote more often
those without a partisan identification. It can be seen that the extent of
polarization of ideology between the candidates all parties can affect the
competitiveness of the election and therefore it also affect the electoral turn
out.
In recent times, the Election Commission of India has signed
Memorandum of Understanding (MoUs) with over 1000 corporate houses to
monitor their electoral participation of their workforce and to publish them
on their websites and notice boards about those who do not vote. However
there is no provision of compulsory voting election.
Different provisions related to right to vote in India
Under section 171A(b) of IPC provided the “electoral right” which
defines it as the right of a person to stand, or not to stand as, all to
withdraw from being, a candidate or to vote or refrain from voting at
an election.
Article 326 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to vote on
the basis of Adult Suffrage i.e., citizen of India who are 18 years or
above enjoys the right to vote until disqualified as said under article
326. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act 1989 lower the voting
age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies
of States from 21 years to 18 years.
Under section 62 of the RPA 1951, it is ensured that every person
who is in the electoral roll of that constituency is entitled to vote.

If a person is in prison whether under sentence of imprisonment or


transportation, then he is not eligible for voting. But if it is the case of
preventive custody, he or she can vote.
In People’s Union of Civil Liberties versus Union of India 2013 case:
Voters enjoy “Right to Negative Vote” in the election process and
directed the ECI to include the choice of “NOTA” in the ballot paper.

MEASURE TO ENHANCE VOTER


PARTICIPATION:
SVEEP( Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral
Participation Program) flagship program of the Election
Commission of India for voter education, spreading voter awareness
and promoting voter literacy in India.

TYPES OF ELECTORAL SYSTEMS IN INDIA:


First Past The Post (FPTP) System
This is used in the majority of the elections held across India such
as electing members of the State Assembly, Lok Sabha and
Panchayats.
One voter can cast only one vote for any contesting candidate or
choose None Of The Above (NOTA).

In this Electoral system, the candidate who will secure the highest number
of votes will win the elections.
Proportional Representation with means of Single Transferable Vote:
In India, the PR with STV electoral system is used in the elections
of the President, the Vice President, Members of the Rajya Sabha
and Members of the State Legislative Council.
Generally proportional Representation with Single Transferable
Vote can be both a single as well as multi member constituency.
The candidate is declared winner only if he or she secures the
minimum number of votes and it is decided by a formula.

The formula to determine the number of votes required to win in this


type of election is:

CONTESTATION
Contestation is a major component of a democratic system. It involves
issues with the position of incumbent and outgoing leaders of the
government of the day at the national, state and the local levels.
Participation by the citizens in election signifies their role in the future of the
country.
There is immense popular participation in the elections in India. The
candidates in elections in India try to seak support of the people by
promising greater social economic equity, better governance, poverty
alleviation etc.
In Union of India versus Association of Democratic Reforms 2002
case: Contesting candidates need to disclose all their assets
and liabilities, criminal convictions, etc. while filling their nomination
paper.
Following qualifications for contesting elections has been laid down by
the Parliament in the RPA, 1951:
Must be an elector in the constituency.
Must be a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in any
state/UTs if he/she wants to contest a seat reserved for them.
Minimum age for becoming an MLA/MP (Lok Sabha) = 25 years
At the panchayat and municipality levels, the minimum age limit for
contesting elections is 21 years.

REPRESENTATION
After independence in 1947, it was felt that there is a need to hold general
elections to elect a representative government which should be on the
basis of universal adult suffrage. Article 325 of the Constitution of India
ensures the universal suffrage which stated that no person shall be in
eligible on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or any of them. Holding
of free and fair elections is the sine qua non of the democratic country.
Consequently the constituent assembly incorporated Part XV that is article
324–329 in the Constitution of India and empowered the Parliament to
make lose to regulate the process of elections. Therefore, the Parliament
has enacted the Representation of People Act, 1950 and the
Representation of People Act, 1951.
Some of the features of these Representation of the People Acts:
Generally every state gets its representation in the Lok Sabha in
proportion to its population as per census figures. The
Representation of People Act 1950 provides for delimitation.
A CEO either nominated or designated by the ECI in consultation
with the state government should be there in each state to supervise
the election work in the state and union territories.
There is ERO who is responsible for the preparation of the electoral
roll for each constituency.
There is a Returning Officer who is responsible for the conduct of the
election in a constituency and returns an elected candidate.

EMERGING TRENDS
In 2019 general elections, men and women voted in nearly equal
numbers while till 2010 the number of women voters was less than
men. ( Book – Women Voters in Indian Elections –
Changing Trends and Emerging Patterns, edited by Prof.
Sanjay Kumar)
Politicians are using social media as their medium to get their
messages out. As it is easy to message out in a tweet or Facebook
post than to conduct press conference. Does there are official
handles of government ministries and departments on Twitter,
Instagram etc.
There has been an increase in the participation of weaker sections
especially scheduled caste and Scheduled Tribes in Electoral
processes.
Right to education, Right to Information, Panchayati Raj Act have
empowered the common people.
According to the data compiled by the Inter Parliamentary Union
(IPU), of which India is a member, women represent 14.44% of the
total members of the Lok Sabha. In recent times, the representation
of women in the parliament of New Zealand has closed the 50%
mark. It is to be noted that New Zealand became the first nation to
allow women to vote in 1893.
There is an increase in participation of Regional Parties.
Recently Aam Aadmi Party will be declared a National Party.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. When is National Voters Day observed in India?
(a) January 24
(b) January 25
(c) January 26
(d) January 27

2. Match the following:


1. Japan 1. Semi Proportional Representation

2. America 2. Slate System

C. Switzerland 3. List System

D. Ireland 4. STV system

(a) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4


(b) A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
(c) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(d) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

3. Which Constitutional Amendment Act reduces the age of Universa


Adult Franchise from 21 to 18?
(a) 59th
(b) 60th
(c) 61st
(d) 81st

4. Presidential election in India are held by which system?


(a) FPTP
(b) Semi PR
(c) PR with STV
(d) List System

5. SVEEP is an initiative for:


(a) spreading voter awareness and promoting voter literacy in India
(b) calculating criminal record of politicians
(c) calculating voter turnout in panchayat elections
(d) None of the above

6. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?


(a) In the case of preventive custody, person can vote in India.
(b) If a person is confined in a prison, whether under a sentenc
imprisonment or transportation, then he is not eligible for voting.
(c) At the panchayat and municipality levels, the minimum age lim
contesting elections is 21 years.
(d) There is a provision of Compulsory Voting in India.

7. Which electoral system is used in Maldives?


(a) Block Vote
(b) FPTP
(c) PR with STV
(d) List System

8. Which of the following is correct?


1. Electoral Participation is influenced through the intensity of
campaign

2. There is 33% reservation of women in Indian Parliament

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Single Transferable Vote System is a method that can be used when


(a) There is a multiple member constituency
(b) There is a single member constituency
(c) There is dual member constituency
(d) None of the above

10. Which of the following does not ensure representation to minorities?


(a) Proportional Representation
(b) Cumulative Vote System
(c) Limited Vote System
(d) Relative Majority System

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (c) (a) (a) (a) (a) (d)
2. 4.
6. (d)
(c) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

2. A slate is a group of candidates that run in multi-seat or multi-positio


elections on a common platform.

10. Cumulative voting (also accumulation voting, weighted voting or


multi-voting) is a multiple-winner method intended to promote more
proportional representation than winner-take-all elections such as
block voting or first past the post. Cumulative voting is used
frequently in corporate governance, where it is mandated by some
U.S. states helps strengthen the ability of minority shareholders to
elect.
Previous Years’ Questions

1. Indian political parties has the image of: (2017)


(a) Good organization
(b) Well-functional organization
(c) Not-well functional organization
(d) Unity in the party

2. Which one of the following is NOT a function of political parties?


(2017)
(a) Formation of public opinion
(b) Formation of government and alternate government
(c) Political education to public
(d) To control the judiciary

3. Which of the following statements about regionalization of


Indian politics is/are correct ? Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)
(i) Regionalization of Indian politics refers to the increasing rol
regional political parties in national politics.
(ii) Regional political parties remain indifferent to national pol
parties.
(iii) Regional political parties are a challenge to national unity.
(iv) Regional political parties prefer getting financial benefits for
states, in exchange for political support to the Union Governme
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (i) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) (i) and (iv) only
4. Which of the following is/are feature/s of federalization of politics
in India? (2018)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) The end of one party dominance
(ii) Shrinking of number of political parties
(iii) Territorialisation of political parties
(iv) Growth of multi-party system
(a) (ii) and (iii) only
(b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

5. Which of the following is not an outcome of coalition


governments in India? Consider the statements and select the
correct answer from the codes given below: (2018)
I. Coalition government has led to federalization of the pol
system.
II. Coalition government has made the Parliament more elitist
urban-centric.
III. Coalition government has weakend the office of the Speake
Lok Sabha.
IV. Coalition government has made the Parliament more powerfu
a vis the executive.
(a) I and II are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) I and IV are correct
(d) II and IV are correct

6. The study of state politics as an autonomous discipline has


been primarily an outcome of (2018)
(a) Rise of regional parties
(b) Rise of voter’s turn out
(c) New local governance system
(d) Non-party political movements

7. In Maharashtra, how many departments of the government find


mention? (2018)
(a) 32
(b) 33
(c) 34
(d) 35

8. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
Movements Leader

1. India Against Corruption 1. Aruna Roy

2. Narmada Bachao Andolan 2. Mahendra Singh Tikait

C.Right to Information Movement 3. Anna Hazare

D.Bhartiya Kisan Union 4. Medha Patkar

Code:
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
(Leaders) (Political Parties)
(A)Ram Vilas Paswan (i)Samajwadi Party
(B)H.D. Kumarswamy (ii) Nationalist Congress Pa
(C)Praful Patel (iii) Janata Dal (Secular)
(D)Akhilesh Yadav (iv) Lok Janshakti Party

Codes:
(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

10. Read the following: (2018)


Assertion (A): Indian polity has multiparty system.
Reason (R): Initially Indian polity was dominated by one-party
dominance system.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanatio
(A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

11. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
(A)Morris-Jones (1)The dominant Caste and Other Essays
(B)Srinivas M.N. (2)Government and Politics in India
(C)Rajni Kothari (3)State Politics in India
(D)Weiner Myron (ed.) (4)Politics in India

Codes:
(a) (A)-(2) (B)-(1) (C)-(4) (D)-(3)
(b) (A)-(3) (B)-(2) (C)-(1) (D)-(4)
(c) (A)-(4) (B)-(3) (C)-(2) (D)-(1)
(d) (A)-(1) (B)-(2) (C)-(3) (D)-(4)

12. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched (After


1990) ? (2018)
(a) Two party — Gujarat system
(b) One party — Maharashtra system
(c) One party — Kerala dominance
(d) One party — Rajasthan system

13. Government of Maharashtra appointed the following committee


to study regional imbalance: (2018)
(a) Vijay Kelkar Committee
(b) Anil Kakodkar Committee
(c) D N. Dhanagare Committee
(d) Raghunath Mashelkar Committee

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2018)

List I List II
(Authors) (Argument)
(A)Rob (i)Growing political clout of
Jenkins the ‘bullock capitalists’
(B)Atul Kohli (ii) Interplay between capitalists
rich farmers and the
bureaucracy
(C)Rudolphs (iii) An all-round crisis of
governability
(D)Pranab (iv) Economic reforms by ‘stealt
Bardhan

(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)


(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

15. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
answer from the codes given below: (2018)
Assertion (A): Regional or self-determination movements in
India are said to have followed an inverse ‘U’ curve.
Reason (R): Heightened mobilization of group identities are
followed by negotiations, and eventually such movements decline
‘as exhaustion sets in…’
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, and (R) is the co
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the co
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

16. Which of the following are the issues of debate in electoral


politics? (2018)
(A) Electronic voting machine
(B) One nation, one election
(C) Single-member election commission
(D) Introduction of the two-children norm for eligibility to contest
elections
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) B, C and D only

17. Which of the following statements are correct ? (2018)


(A) Between 1950 and 1967, there was congress dominant at
centre level.
(B) After the fourth general election of 1967, in six states coa
government was formed.
(C) Between 1950 and 1967, there was not congress dominant at
state level.
Select the correct option from the following codes:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (B)
(d) (A), (B) and (C)

18. Identify the incorrect pair. (2019)

List I List II
(Name of State) (Demand for New State)
Saurashtra
1. Gujarat

Gorkhaland
2. Uttar Pradesh

C. Rajasthan Marupradesh
D. Maharashtra Vidarbha

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2019)

List I List II
(Author) (PUblications)
(A)Aseema (i)The puzzle of Indian
Sinha democracy: A
consociational
interpretation
(B)Selig (ii) The politics of India since
Harrson independence
(C)Arendt (iii) The regional roots of
Lijphant developmental politics in In
A divided Leviathan
(D)Paul R. (iv) India: The most dangerous
Brass decades

(a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)


(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

20. Who is the author of ‘Beyond the Lines’? (2019)


(a) Kuldeep Nayar
(b) L.K. Advani
(c) Manish Tiwari
(d) Durga Das

21. ‘Towards Equality’ Report (1974-75) dealt with the questions of


(2019)
(a) Caste
(b) Women
(c) Class
(d) Ecology

22. Sagar Mala project is related to (2019)


(a) Modernisation of ports
(b) Oil extraction
(c) Sea-route development
(d) None of the above

23. The author(s) of the book In Pursuit of Lakshmi : Political


Economy of Indian State is/are (2019)
(a) Rudolph and Rudolph
(b) Francine Frankel
(c) Pranab Bardhan
(d) Rob Jenkins

24. Which of the following was the initial ideology of the Bhartiya
Janata Party (BJP)? (2019)
(a) Radical Humanism
(b) Fabian Socialism
(c) Gandhian Socialism
(d) Hindutva

25. Given below are two statements: (2019)


Statement I: Chaudhary Charan Singh was the only Prime
Minister in India who did not face the Parliament.
Statement II: Passage of a no — confidence motion in Lok
Sabha leads to the ouster of a government from office.
In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement III are false
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II 1s false
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

26. Which incident made Periyar an Atheist? (2019)


(a) Self Respect Movement
(b) Kashi Pilgrimage Incident
(c) Dravida National Movement
(d) Discrimination in society

27. In the two lists given below, List I provide the list of names of
newspaper, while List II indicates Editors-in-chief, as of July,
2018. Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the
given below: (2019)

List I List II
(Name of Newspaper) (Editor-in-Chief)
(A)The Hindu (i)Jaideep Bose
(B)The Times of India (ii) Raj Kamal Jha
(C)The Hindustan Times (iii) N. Ravi
(D)The Indian Express (iv) Sukumar Ranganatha

(a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)


(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

28. Which of the following taxes are levied by the Union but are
collected and appropriated by the States? (2019)
(A) Stamp duties
(B) Excise duties on medical and toilet materials
(C) Sales tax
(D) Land Revenue
Select the correct answer from the given options:
(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (B) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (C) and (D) only

29. Match List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2019)

List I List II
(Demand for new State) (Existing State)
(A)Mithilanchal (i)Uttar Pradesh
(B)Coorg (ii) Rajastha
(C)Purvanchal (iii) Bihar
(D)Maru Pradesh (iv) Karnatak
(v)West Bengal

(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)


(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(v), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

30. Who among the following provide the structural — functional


perspective on the nature of Indian State? (2020)
(A) W.H. Morris Jones
(B) Rajni Kothari
(C) Francine Frankel
(D) Llyod Rudolph
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A, B, C, D

31. In the two lists given below, List I provide the list of
Perspectives, while List II indicates Criticisms of Indian
Democracy, as of July, 2018. Match the two lists and choose the
correct answer from the given below: (2020)

List I List II
(Perspective (Criticism of Indian Democracy)
)
(A)Hindu (i)Very limited space
Nationalist for direct and local
democracy
(B)Gandhian (ii) Not succeeded in ensuring
individual dignity and freedom
(C)Marxist (iii) Imitation of western democra
ignoring indigenous democrat
traditions
(D)Liberal (iv) Sham because it perpetuates
Democratic powers and privileges of the
dominant interests

(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)


(b) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

32. Who among the following emphasized the emergence of a


‘market polity’ in India? (2020)
(a) Stanley A Kochanek
(b) Morris Jones
(c) Paul Brass
(d) James Mauor

33. The author of the book Democracy and Discontent: India’s


Growing Crisis of Governability is (2020)
(a) Ashutosh Varchney
(b) Atul Kohli
(c) Partha Chatterjee
(d) Rob Jenkins

34. Match the books with respective authors: (2020)

Books Authors

1. Poverty and Famine (i)Jeffrey Sachs

2. Poor Economics (ii) Jagadish Bhagw

C.The End of Poverty (iii) Amartya Sen


D.In Defence of Globalizations (iv) Abhijit V. Banerje

Codes:
(a) (A)-(ii) (B)-(iii) (C)-(iv) (D)-(i)
(b) (A)-(iii) (B)-(ii) (C)-(i) (D)-(iv)
(c) (A)-(iii) (B)-(iv) (C)-(i) (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(i) (B)-(ii) (C)-(iii) (D)-(iv)

35. Which of the following patterns of representation is not


provided for in the Indian Constitution? (2020)
(a) Teachers’ constituency
(b) Graduates constituency
(c) Nominated members
(d) Religious constituency

36. Who among the following was not a member of the ‘Syndicate’
group of the Congress party? (2020)
(a) MLN. Nijalingappa
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) K. Kamaraj
(d) Y.V. Chauhan

37. Which of the following are civil society organizations? (2020)


(A) Bachpan Bachao Andolan
(B) India Against Corruption
(C) Vigyan Prasar
(D) Majdoor Kisan Sangharsh Samiti
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) A and B only
(c) A, B, C and D only
(d) A, B and D only

38. Which of the following statements regardingwomen’s


movement in India are true? (2020)
(A) Arya Samaj was not concerned about women’s issues at all.
(B) All India Women’s Conference was set up in 1924
(C) Sarojini Naidu and Annie Besant raised the issue of right ta
for women.
(D) Tilak’s ‘Ganesh Utsavas’ were mainly aimed at drawing wo
into national movement.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

39. Labour movements in India suffers from (2021)


(A) Low membership
(B) Weak finances
(C) Multiplicity of union
(D) Presence of differentiated organizational structures for diffe
classes of labor
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D only
(b) B and C only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) A, B, C and D only

40. Match List I with List II (2021)

List I List II
(Author) (Books)
(A)Rabindra I.The Naxalites and their
Ray Ideology
(B)Ashish II.The Spring Thunder
Kumar Roy and After
(C)Carole III. Gender, Development an
Spary the State in India
(D)Sanjay IV.Indian Youth and
Kumar (ed) Educational Politics

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(b) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(c) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(d) A - IV, B - ||I, C - I, D - II

41. Arrange the following labour unions according to the year of


their formation in descending order (2021)
(A) INTUC
(B) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
(C) Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh
(D) Bombay Mill Hands Association
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) C, A, B, D
(b) A, B, D, C
(c) D, A, C, B
(d) B, D, A, C

42. Which one of the following tribal movements took place in post-
independence India? (2021)
(a) The Santhal Rebellion
(b) The Bodo Movement
(c) The Birsa Munda Rebellion
(d) The Kol Rebellion

43. When did the first labour agitation occur in India? (2021)
(a) 1875
(b) 1890
(c) 1900
(d) 1921

44. The economic implications of globalization, liberalization and


privatization in India are: (2021)
(A) Substantial reduction in government spending
(B) Transformation of the whole process of planning
(C) Introduction of a pattern of indicative planning
(D) Retention of traditional sectoral planning
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) C and D only

45. Given below are two statements: (2021)


Statement I: Social structure, values and attitudes have been
impacted by the process of globalization
Statement II: Globalization has noticeably impacted cultural
identity and social harmony among various social groups
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

46. Match List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from the
codes given below. (2021)

List I List II
(Approach to study (Name of Book and Author
Indian Politics)

1. Historical Approach 1. Parliament in India, Morris Jone

2. Institutional Approach 2. The Integration of Indian States


V.P. Menon

C. Legal Approach
3. The modernity of Tradition,
Rudolphand Rudolph

D. Politico-sociological
4. The Republic of India, Allen
Approach
Gledhill

Codes:
(a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

47. For the First time the communist party of India came into
power in the state of (2021)
(a) West Bengal
(b) Tripura
(c) Kerala
(d) Goa

48. “India has a hallowed place in discussions of


democracy_________But it has become less tolerant, less
secular, less law-abiding, less liberal. And these two trends -
democratization and illiberalism- are directly related”. Who writes
this ? (2021)
(a) Atul Kohli
(b) Sunil Khilnani
(c) Fareed Zakaria
(d) Paul R. Brass

49. Match the pairs using the codes given below: (2021)

List I List II
(A)Political party (i)All India Kisan
Sabha
(B)Civil society (ii) Save the Smile Foundatio
campaign
(C)NGO (iii) Trinamool Congress
(D)Interest group (iv) Anna Hazare’s agitation f
Lokpal

Codes:
(a) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
(b) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii)
(c) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)
(d) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)

50. Civil Society Group that launched campaign in Delhi in the year
2011 under the leadership of Anna Hajare in 2011 is
_________ . (2021)
(a) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(b) India Against Corruption
(c) Lokpal
(d) Delhi Against Corruption

Answer Key

1. 9. 17. 25. 33. 40. 46.


(c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b)
2. 10. 18. 26. 34. 41. 47.
(d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (a) (c)
3. 11. 19. 27. 35. 42. 48.
(d) (a) (d) (c) (d) (b) (c)
4. 12. 20. 28. 36. 43. 49.
(d) (a) (a) (a) (d) (a) (a)
5. 13. 21. 29. 37. 44. 50.
(c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (a) (b)
6. 14. 22. 30. 38.
45. (a)
(a) (c) (a) (a) (c)
7. 15. 23. 31.
39. (c)
(c) (a) (a) (d)
8. 16. 24.
32. (b)
(b) (c) (c)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Indian polity has multiple systems of parties since its independence


Initially Indian polity was dominated by one-party dominance system
also described as congress system under congress but it got spl
into various factions. Era of multiparty system also highlighted the
power functional organization of political party i.e fall of janata part
government in 1979 and National front in 1990. There has been
problem of defections in every national party as well state party.

3. Regionalization of Indian politics refers to the increasing role o


regional political parties in national politics. These regional politica
parties often prefer getting financial benefits for their states, i
exchange for political support to the Union Government. However
regional political parties are not a challenge to national unity bu
they strengthen the unity and integrity.
Hence, the answer will be D.

5. Emergence of coalition governments in Indian Politics has led to the


following outcomes:
Due to their diversity and multiplicity, coalition government has
led to federalization of the political system.
Coalition government has made the Parliament more common
man friendly and rural-centric.
Coalition government has made the Parliament more powerful
vis a vis the executive.

Hence, the answer will be C.

7. Maharashtra is second highest populous state in India. Maharashtra


state formed on 1st May, 1960 from splitting of Bombay state into
two states- Marathi speaking Maharashtra and Gujarati speaking
Gujarat. Maharashtra has bicameral legislature. In Loksabha it has
48 seats and in rajyasabha it has 19 seats.

12. After 1990 Politics in Gujarat is dominated by BJP and Congress.


So politics in the state can be called as two party system. Whereas
Maharashtra has four main dominant political parties. Kerala has
two main political blocs LDF and UDF. Rajasthan also has two
party dominants system.

13. Vijay Kelkar committee was appointed in 2011 by Congress-NCP


government in Maharashtra to study and recommend ways for
balanced regional development. Committee submitted its report in
2013 and had suggested the reworking of development paradigm
and resources allocation in radical manner.

15. Regional or self-determination movements in India are said to have


followed an inverse ‘U’ curve. Because, heightened mobilization of
group identities is followed by negotiations, and eventually such
movements decline ‘as exhaustion sets in…’
Hence, the correct answer will be A.

17. Congress was the only national party at the time of Independence
which was spread at the pan India level. Most of the popular
leaders were in Congress party. All of these factors played the key
role in congress dominance in India Polity from 1950-1967. After
the 1967 congress split and era of coalition governments began at
the state level, but congress was dominant at the state level. Rajni
Kothari conceptualized this era of Congress dominance as
‘Congress System’.

21. Towards Equality Report of the Committee on the status of women


in India was submitted under the stewardship of Vina Mazumdar in
1974. After the United Nations declared International women’s
year. Toward equality report provides a fresh insights on the issues
of gender equality.

24. Bhartiya Janata Party which emerged after Jan Sangh in 1980s
incorporated Gandhian Socialism as its ideology for the party. Atal
Bihari Vajpayee, a founding member of BJP also reiterated that
BJP should now broaden its ideological horizon. Gandhian
socialism based on Gandhi’s interpretation of society and his work
Hind Swaraj.

31. Gandhian perspective of Indian democracy based on local self-


government and decentralization of economy. Marxist perspective
criticizes Indian democracy because it fails to address the
grievances of the ‘last man’ who was sent to the periphery of the
decision-making structures. Liberal democratic perspective
criticizes Indian democracy because it fails to protect individual
dignity and freedom. So, option D is the correct answer.

33. Atul Kohli authored Democracy and Discontent: India’s Growing


Crisis of Governability published in 1991. Kohli in this book
analyzed political change that had taken place in the late 1960’s to
late 1980s. Role of dominant congress decline, demands from
newly organized social groups and defeat of Rajiv Gandhi is
witnessed in the book.

36. K Kamaraj, the former Chief Minister of Madras, Sanjiva Reddy, an


Andhra leader, Nijalingappa, the Chief Minister of Mysore and
Atulya Ghosh, the president of Bengal Congress Committee and
Morarji Desai were members of syndicate group of the congress
party.

37. Vigyan Prasar (VP) is an autonomous organization under the


Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of
India. This is with special emphasis on developments in science
and technology and the open-endedness and continual evolution of
science and related knowledge systems.

47. Kerala was the first state where first communist party of India
government was elected. Under the leadership of EMS
Namboodiripad, communist party of India formed government in
first kerala legislative assembly in 1957.

48. Fareed Zakaria in his book ‘The Future of Freedom: Illiberal


Democracy at home and abroad (2003)’ made a argument that
democracy doesn’t necessarily bring freedom. Elected
governments of world are breaching constitutional limits and
deniying basic rights to citizens which he termed illiberal
democracy.
UNIT IX
Public Administration

Chapter 1: Public Administration: Evolution and Theories


Chapter 2: Theories of Public Administration and Concepts
Chapter 3: Theories and Principles of Organization
Chapter 4: Managing the Organization
Chapter 5: Organizational Communication
Chapter 6: Management of Conflicts and Objectives
CHAPTER 1
Public Administration: Evolution
and Theories

INTRODUCTION
As a subject of study, Public Administration might seem like new and recently-
developed discipline of 20th century, but as a practice it is prevalent since time
immemorial. With the rise of civilization, the requirement of administration
originated and it excited in different forms and patterns since ancient times.
L D White said, “Public administration consists of all those operations
having for their purpose the fulfillment or enforcement of public policy.”
Academicians argue that all executive aspect of government functioning
comprises public administration. Woodrow Wilson claimed that public
administration is a detailed and systematic application of law. One can also
say that public administration is nothing but the policies, practices, rules and
regulation etc., in action.

EVOLUTION OF PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION


Public Administration is an activity as old as human civilization. But social
science theorization on public administration is very recent. The evolution of
even the changing nature of public administration can be understood with the
help of the following timeline:
Figure 1.1 Stages of Evolution of Public Administration

The Era of Politics- Administration Dichotomy (1887–


1926)
Woodrow Wilson’s essay ‘The Study of Administration’ published in
1887 is considered to be the first breakthrough in the conceptualization
of the discipline. Wilson argued for a ‘science of administration’.
Frank J Goodnow in his book ‘Politics and Administration (1900)
‘draws a functional distinction between politics and administration
wherein politics had to do with the expression of the state’s will and the
later with the evolution of policies.
Leonard D. White’s ‘Introduction to the Study of Public
Administration (1926) ’ was the first textbook exclusively devoted to
PA. It characterized the field as ‘non – partisan’. Public Administration
was supposed to be a ‘value –free’ science and the mission of
administration would be economy and efficiency.
It may be seen that the dominant feature of the first period was a
passionate belief in politics - administration dichotomy.

Phase 2 – Principles of Administration (1927–1937)


W.F. Willoughby’s book ‘Principles of Public Administration (1927)
’ laid thrust upon scientific principles of administration and stressed
that administrators would be expert in their work if they learned how to
apply these principles.
This era reached its zenith with Luther Gulick and Urwick coining
‘POSDCORB’ (Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating,
Reporting and Budgeting) in their essay ‘The Science of
Administration’.
This period witnessed publication of a number of important works on
this subject.

1. Mary Parker Folleft’s “Creative Experience”

2. Henri Fayol’s “Industrial and General Mangement.”

3. Mooney’s “Principles of Organisation”.

4. Luther Gulick “Science of Administration.”

Thus, the dominant theme of this period was to keep administration


distinct from politics so as to ensure efficiency.

Phase 3 – Behavioral Challenges (1938–1947)


Following the World Wars, the dichotomy of politics and administration
came under criticism.
In 1938, Chester Barnad’s ‘The Functions of the Executive’
challenged the politics – administration dichotomy.
Dwight Waldo questioned the validity of principles drawn from the fields
of business and management and urged the development of a
philosophy or a theory of administration.
Herbert Simon, in 1947 published his book “Administrative
Behaviour”. In that he said there is no such thing as principles of
administration. He called the ‘classical principles’ of Public
Administration as ‘merely proverbs’ and unscientific.
Robert Dahl in his seminal work ‘The Science of Public
Administration: Three Problems’ (1947) emphasizes the need to
take into account normative considerations, human behaviour and
sociological factors while defining the parameters of public
administration. He brought behaviouralism in Public Administration.
Hence this period is called as era of challange to Public Administration.
Phase 4 – Crisis of Identity (1948 –1970)
Due to the challenge posed by the behaviouralist, the discipline of
Public Administration passed through the crisis of identity.
The Pre 1947 viewpoint upheld the politics – administration dichotomy
and the post 1947 view point advocated their fusion.
Paul Appleby, Kingsley Pfiffner supported the view that politics and
administration are so intermingled. Waldo in his Administrative State
(1948) widened the orientation of Public Administration to include
policy issues and decision-making processes.
This period witnessed the spectacle which led to the twin development
of Public Administration being viewed as political science an also as an
Administration science.

Phase 5 – New Public Administration (1971 onwards)


Public Policy Perspective (value orientation)
The writings of scholars such as Ferrel Heady, F.W. Riggs and Edward
Weidner influenced the cross –structural and cross-national
administrative studies which further led to the emergence of New
Public Administration (NPA) and later New Public Management (NPM).
Concern for public policy analysis.
PA showing interest in the related fields of policy science, political
economy, policy making, policy analysis and so on
New trends emerged in the subject of Public Administration, i.e.

i) Comparative Administration

ii) Development Administration

iii) Market orientation - State and Market

PUBLIC AND PRIVATE ADMINISTRATION


Although both forms of administration are involved in with managing affairs of
their respective organizations, there are few similarities and dissimilarities that
can be found between public and private administration. Paul H. Appleby,
Herbert Simon and Peter Drucker have made a distinction between public and
private administration.
Public Administration Private Administration
Main objective is to serve the public Mainly directed towards
interest by ensuring welfare and serving private interest
betterment of citizens
Obligated to deliver social goods Profit-oriented and follows
and services such as health, steps like cost cutting,
education at subsidized rates owing
to its welfare orientation downsizing, etc to reduce
expenses and improve
efficiency.
Bound by rule of law No such compulsion
Warrants transparency and Not subjected to such
accountability and scrutiny from civil intense scrutiny due to
society owing to public nature of its
work private nature of its work
Subject to political direction and Governed by market forces
control
Much wider in scope Comparatively narrower in
scope

APPROACHES TO PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

Systems Theory
Systems Theory comprehends society as a system consisting of various
subsystems within it. It sees society as an open system in which the agenda
of public administration gets infleucned by the environment within which it is
located. It rejects the closed system phenomena propagated by the classical
theory of organization.

Main proponent
David Easton in his book ‘The Political System’ (1953) and later ‘A Framework
of Policy Analysis’(1965) and ‘A system Analysis of Political Life’ asserted that
political system is part of the society which is engaged in ‘authoritative
allocation of values’.
Figure 1.2 Diagram of Eastonȉs System Approach

Easton through his model explains that the decision-making at the


governmental level is influenced by inputs (demands from the society) and
also internal and external factors of environment. Decisions are taken up by
the institutions and public administration present within the political system, ie.
black box based on the inputs received and then converted into outputs, ie.
laws, rules, regulations,etc. The feedback from the output then starts a new
cycle of decision making as it generates new demands and support amongst
the people in the environment. It is criticized for too simplistic and it does not
cater to the infleunce and dominance of power, personnel and institutions in
policy making, and envisages policy as value neutral which is a false notion.

Decision-Making Theory
Decision-making is intricately interlinked with public adminitration. However,
decision- making is a conscious effort involving rational choices between
available options and involves complex processes such as identifying the
problem, looking for solutions, weighing on their desirability, examining its
efficiency, etc.

HERBERT SIMON’S DECISION-MAKING


APPROACH
According to Herbert Simon, decisions are made at every level of organization
and is not a specific task of a particular part of an organization. Decision-
making takes place at three phases:
i. Intelligence Activity (identification of problem)- The head of
organisation tries to understand organisational environment in w
decisions have to be taken. Intelligence activity is finding occasion
take decisions.
ii. Design Activity (search for options)- A head of the organisation
to identify all possible options before making a final decision.
iii. Choice Activity (final decisions made from available options)- Fin
a head chooses one of the selected options, which become
decision.
Decision-making is thus, a choice between alternative plans of action and
choice in turn, involves facts and values. To him, every decision consists of a
logical combination of fact and value propositions.
Bounded Rationality: Bounded rationality is a concept proposed by
Herbert A. Simon, in his 1957 book “Models of Man.” It states that humans
base their decisions on their limited knowledge and cognitive capacity. Human
opts for those decisions that give most satisfaction (satisfying, i.e. satisafction
plus sufficing) as attaining total satisfaction is not possible.

Figure 1.3 Phases of Decision Making


Simon’s views on Types of Rationality
He also Distinguished various types of rationality:
1. objectively rational: correct behaviour for maximizing given
values
2. subjectively rational: maximizes attainment relative to the actual
knowledge
3. Consciously rational: adjustment of means to ends
4. deliberately rational: adjustments of means to ends has been
deliberately brought about individual
5. organizationally rationally: oriented to the organization’s goals
6. personally rational: oriented to the individual’s goals

Public-Choice Theory
Public-choice theory is based on methodological individualism and rational
choice. It derives ideological support from the New Right philosophy. It
became famous in 1960s in the writings of Vincent Ostrom. Important
Thinkers: James Buchanan, Gordon Tullock, William A. Niskanen and William
C. Mitchell.
Public-choice theory envisages the role of citizen as a consumer with
emphasis on the element of choice. Vincent Ostrom aserts that public-choice
is the most apprpriate approach to study public administration. This school
argues that bureaucracy is a self-seeking agency which does more harm than
good to public welfare. Hence, Niskanen suggested measures such as stricter
control on bureucrats, competition, privatization and contracting out,
dissemination of information for public benefit, etc.

Bargaining Approach
Charles E. Lindblom is the main advocate. He suggested that decision-
making in public administration is value laden and conflcit –prone. In his
essay ‘The Science of Muddling Through’ (1959) , he came out with a
perspective called incremental approach of decision-making. Decision-making
is comprised of two varieties:
Lindblom argues that the second method reflects the administrative reality.
POSTULATES OF DECISION-MAKING
i. Decision-making is incremental in nature and decisions are not made
in single go but through small and calibrated steps.
ii. It is always incomprehensive. Administrators cannot take into account
whole range of options at their disposal.
iii. Policy is never made forever but is made and remade continuously
through small chains of comparisons.
iv. It rests on pluralist conception of public sector meaning competing
interest groups exert significant influence over policy decisions.

ECOLOGICAL APPROACH
Fred W. Riggs is the chief advocate of ecological approach. It incorporates the
socio-cultural, political and economic environment within which an
administrative apparatus is situated.
Famous works of Fred Riggs includes The Ecology of Public
Administration (1961) and Administration in Developing Countries: The
Theory of Prismatic Society (1964).
Rigg’s approach relies upon a structural-functionalism and attempts to
understand societies as typologies such as Fused, Prismatic and Diffracted
charcterizing underdeveloped, developing and developed societies,
respectively. Riggs analyzed the relationship between administrative systems
and ecological factors- history, social structures, traditions, customs,
economic situation, political symbols, technology and communication, etc., in
a larger perspective.
His models of ‘Agraria’, Industria,’ ‘Fused’, ‘Prismatic,’ and ‘Diffracted’
societies and their respective administrative systems are rooted in the
ecological approach.

Figure 1.4 Riggs Prismatic Society Model

Fused Model- In traditional societies various social functions and social


structures are highly diffused. These societies had no classification of
functions and a single structure carried out number of functions. Highly
agrarian economies with scant industrialization and modernization. Economy
is based on barter system. Cultural identities and values (Ascriptive values)
are very important for people. Example,Imperial China , pre-revolutiorary
Siamese Thailand.
Diffracted Model - This includes industrial societies which have proper
division of function and structure of administration. Cultural identities and
values (Ascriptive values) are not too important for people. Riggs called it
marketized society. Governments would be responsive to the needs of people
and protect human rights. It includes rules of law and respect for values such
as justice, equality, liberty, etc
Example – American Society
Prismatic Model -Prismatic model explains the nature and
administration in the post-colonial developing nations. It represent the phase
of transition from a traditional society (fused model) to Industrial Society
(diffracted model). Thailand and Philppines resemble Prismatic model
according to the studies of Riggs. Prismatic society has:
Heterogeneity -Combination of traditional and modern structure
Formalism – Standardization of Law and constitution , but practical
application is weak.
Functional overlapping - Similar functions are performed by different
institutions.
Prismatic model is further divided into subsystem as:

Sala Model Bazar-Canteen Model


# Administrative subsystem of # Economic subsystem of
prismatic society. prismatic society.
# Family politics, nepotism and
favouritism play a dominant role. # Instead of market
# ‘Sala officer’ gives priority to dynamics, price of a
personal aggrandizement of power commodity is dependent
and wealth rather than social upon family,contacts,
welfare.
bargaining power and
# Complete disregard for merit and
legal propriety in decision- making. politics.
# Institutionalized corruption and # A small number of
inefficiency influential people control all
economic institutions and
exploit the vast majority.
# Exploitation, poverty and
social injustice plague the
economic aspects of
prismatic society
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Match the following:

Scholars Books

I.Woodrow Wilson 1. Principles of Public Administration

II.L.D. White 2. Functions of Executive

III.Chester C.Introduction to the study of Public Administration


Barnard
IV.W.F. Willoughby D.The Study of Administration

Options:
(a) I(A) II(B) III(C) IV(D)
(b) I(D) II(C) III(B) IV(A)
(c) I(B) II(D) III(A) IV(B)
(d) I(C) II(A) III (B) IV(D)

2. The book “Administration in Developing Countries: The Theory o


Prismatic Society” was written by Fred Riggs in which year?
(a) 1961
(b) 1962
(c) 1964
(d) 1965

3. Assertion (A): Public administration is subject to extensive and critica


scrutiny by civil society and various organs of government unlike privat
administration.
Reason (R): The fact that public administration impacts the lives of so
many people directly and indirectly and directed towards social welfare
necessitates the need for it.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.D. A is incorrect but R is correct.

4. Who among the following distinguished between public and privat


administration?
I. Herbert Simon
II. Henry Fayol
III. Peter Drucker
IV. M.P. Follet
Options:
(a) II and IV
(b) I and II
(c) III and IV
(d) I and III

5. The ‘output’ in the David Easton’s system theory are


(a) Laws
(b) Public Policies
(c) Rules and Regulation
(d) All the above

6. What does Bounded Rationality talk about?


(a) Satisfying Man
(b) Maximising Man
(c) Attainment of total rationality
(d) Attainment of no rationality

7. Who among the following propounded the idea of incremental approac


of decision making?
(a) Dwight Waldo
(b) Charles Lindblom
(c) David Easton
(d) Fred Riggs

8. Which among the following are the characteristics of prismatic society o


F.W. Riggs?
A. Formalism

B. Heterogenity

C. Overlapping
D. Attainment values
(a) C and D
(b) A and B
(c) A, B and C
(d) All the above

9. Assertion (A): According to Simon, decisions are taken based o


logical assumptions, ie. based on rationality.
Reason (R): Simon views organization as a structure concerned
solely with decision- making.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Statement I: Public Choice theory is based on methodological


individualism and derives its ideological support from New Right
Philosophy.
Statement II: It emphaszes on the element of choice of citizens as
consumers.
Codes:
(a) Both I and II are correct.
(b) I is correct.
(c) II is correct.
(d) Both I and II are incorrect.

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (a) (d) (b) (c) (b) (a)
2. 4.
6. (a)
(c) (d)
CHAPTER 2
Theories of Public Administration
and Concepts

SCIENTIFIC MANAGEMENT THEORY


The origin of Scientific Management Theory is considered to be the high
watermark of Classical Organization Theory in Public Administration.
Frederick W. Taylor is considered to be the Father of scientific management.
The term ‘scientific management’ was coined later by Louis Bandies in 1910
based on the ideas of Taylor.
Frederick Taylor was an engineer and he always viewed each and every
thing and its aspects scientifically. He was working into the production field,
where he was concerned about increasing worker’s efficiency. His objective
was to increase production within the least possible time with the least
possible resources. The principles as well as the organization structure
suggested by Taylor will be discussed in the next chapter, i.e. Theories and
Principles of Organization.

COMPARATIVE PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION


Comparative Public Administration refers to understanding, analyzing or
comparing different administrative structures across the world so as to identify
patterns and structures of administrative action or behaviour. Primary unit of
analysis is sociocultural environment as it seeks to probe and explains how
administrative systems of different geographies operate in a given cultural
space and whether applicability of universal administrative models holds
ground or not.
Comparative Public Administration (CPA) is significant in the sense that it
respects the uniqueness existing in different administrative set-ups and
attempts to study the ecological domain underlying them.
In 1947, Robert Dahl in one of his seminal works, ‘The Science of
Public Administration: Three Problems’ (the three problems being
values, behaviour and culture) emphasized the utility of comparative public
administration to develop a science of administration. He said “as long as the
study of public administration is not comparative, claim for a science of a
public administration sound rather hollow”.
CPA became popular post World War II as many newly independent
nations emerged in Latin America, Asia and Africa. These nations were facing
unique challenges in terms of building institutions of governance and igniting
socioeconomic and technological development. Two important figures
emerged during this phase wereFerrel Heady and Fred Riggs.

F W Riggs Contribution in Comparative Public


Administration
Fred Riggs is the Father of Comparative Public Administration. In 1962, Fred
Riggs in his article ‘Trends in comparative study of Public
Administration’, discussed the important aspect of Comparative Public
Administration.
To emphasize on the need to study politico-administrative institutions in
their social settings.
Comparative Public Administration means cross-cultural and cross
national study of Public Administration.
To understand impact of Comparative Public Administration is
necessary.

In 1967, during one of the meetings of the group, Riggs outlined three broad
trends in CPA:

1. Shift from normative towards empirical approaches


2. From ideographic (individualistic) towards Nomothetic (universal)
3. From non- ecological to ecological

COMPARATIVE ADMINISTRATIVE GROUP


Comparative Administrative Group (CAG) was set up by American Society for
Public Administration in 1960 under the chairmanship of Fred Riggs to study
the administrative problems of developing countries with respect to its
political, social, cultural, economic environment. The future of CPA was
discussed in 1968 under the First Minnowbrook Conference under the
chairmanship of Dwight Waldo.
The eminent scholars associated with the CAG were Fred Riggs, Alfred
Diamant, Ferrel Heady, Dwight Waldo, Wallaca Sayre, Martin Landau, William
Saffin, John Montgomary, Ralph Braibanti, Bertram Gross and others.

DEVELOPMENT ADMINISTRATION
It was originated in the 1950s as a vehicle to usher in speedy ‘development’ in
the post-colonial Third World. The term ‘development administration’ was
coined by an Indian Civil Servant, U.L. Goswami in his article ‘The
Structure of Development Administration in India’ in 1955 in the
context of community development programmes.
However, its conceptual elaboration was done by Western scholars.
George Gant is known as the Father of Development Administration (DA).
Other prominent names associated with this school were F.W. Riggs, Edward
Weidner, John Montegomery and Alfred Diamant. Comparative Administrative
Group provided the intellectual substratum to DA.
Edward Weidner defined DA as ‘an action-oriented, goal-oriented
administrative system guiding an organization towards the achievement of
progressive political, economic and social objectives.

MAIN OBJECTIVES OF DEVELOPMENT


ADMINISTRATION
1. To aid and accelerate the process of nation building in the developin
countries
2. To provide financial assistance to newly independent post colonial
nations to help them transform their colonial bureaucracies into
responsible instruments of social change.
3. Modernization of government machinery, transfer of technology,
training by foreign experts and establishing institutions of public
administration in the developing world.
4. Most implicit goal however, was to counter the ideological appeals of
Communism in these newly independent territories.
Bureaucratization was considered to be a functional pre-requisite for
maintaining stability and legitimacy in political order.
Key characteristics of Development Administration:
a. Change Orientation
b. Result and Goal Orientation
c. Citizen participation
d. Commitment to work
However, due to increasing inefficiency of state institutions and bureaucracy,
Development Administration began losing its popularity and with the onset of
neo-liberal market-based reforms post 1970s (Liberalization, Privatization and
Globalization), the whole concept of public sector management underwent a
radical transformation.

NEW PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (NPA)


NPA is defined as the stage in public administration where a new outlook
where a new outlook for the discipline infused with political values such as
social justice, change, equity and commitment was searched for.

Context of Origin
‘Crisis of identity’ haunting public administration in the backdrop of turbulence
that had gripped American society amid a plethora of issues ranging from
Vietnam war to ethic skirmishes and campus clashes.
The Honey Report on Higher Education for Public Service was released in
the year 1967 which stimulated the need for developing a new vocabulary of
public administration. The Minnowbrook Conference I in 1968 at Syracuse
University was attended by young intellectuals from different branches of
social science. It was held under the chairmanship of Dwight Waldo. Waldo is
also known as the Father of New Public Administration.
In 1971, Frank Marini published a book ‘Towards a new Public
Administration’ . This book emphasizes on the following themes: -

1. Rejected the value neutral view


2. Less generic and more public
3. Stress on social equity
4. Anti-bureaucratic, anti-hierarchical, anti-technical.
Socially conscious and client oriented view.
5.
6. Stress on Decentralization of administrative process.
7. Stress on qualitative transformation.

Figure 2.1 Characteristics of New Public Administration

GOALS OF NPA
a. Relevance
b. Value based
c. Social Equity
d. Change
e. Client Focused

NEW PUBLIC MANAGEMENT


New Public Management (NPM) can be defined as a new set of practices and
experiments in public sector management infused with the market principles
of efficiency and economy to revive the ailing public sector, i.e. to reinvent
governance in the public sector. The term ‘New Public Management was
coined by Christopher Hood in his article ‘A Public Management for
all Seasons?’ published in 1991. NPM promoted 3Es in public
administration and governance, i.e. Efficiency, Effectiveness and Economy.

CONTEXT OF ORIGIN
NPM was the outcome of Minnowbrook Conference II in 1988. It was held
under the chairmanship of H George Frederickson. Its proceedings were
published by Richard T. Mayor and Timmy Bailey under the title – ‘Public
Management in the Inter-Connected World: Essays in the
Minnow Brook Tradition’ (1990).

MAIN FEATURES OF NPM


a. Organizational revamping, i.e. flattening of hierarchy
b. Empowerment of citizens, i.e. recognizing citizens as active customers
and not as passive recipients
c. Autonomy to public sector managers
d. Performance appraisal techniques and indicators
e. Cost-cutting in public sector
f. User-pay basis of delivery of services
g. Outsourcing and contracting out of services
h. Decentralization of governance
From 1990s onwards, there was a surge witnessed in the popularity of
NPM principles as Western nations aspired to improve the efficiency and
quality of services provided to the public by the government. It paved the way
for replacing a wooden, inflexible and inept bureaucracy with an efficient,
responsible, reliable, transparent and accountable service provider. Osborne
and Gaebler argued in favour of an ‘entrepreneurial government’ in their
article ‘Reinventing Government’ published in 1992.

FACTORS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE RISE OF NPM:


a. Diminishing credibility of StateMassive discontentment against state
inefficiency since 1970s onwards
b. New Right Philosophy– Ideologically inspired by free market
economics. radical right, thatcherism, reganomics, libertarianism,
rolling back of state, etc. This gave primacy to private sector delivery
of goods and services.
c. Emergence of Post – Wilsonian and Post – Weberian concept of
Public Administration- Focus on making PA democratic, flexible and
accountable to citizens rather than emphasizing on rigid hierarchy and
economics.
d. Shift in the approach of Western countries from a statist governance
mechanism to a more dynamic, professional and flexible market based
form of public management.

NPA NPM
Citizen as client Citizen as customer
Focuses on socio economic Focuses on competition and market
development
Follows blue-print approach → Learning process aproach →
bureaucratic empowerment for plan peoples’ empowerment in plan
formulation (professional public implementation (empowerment of
service dedicated to both efficiency individual customers to make their
& social equity) own choices)
State interventionism State minimalism
Social equity as a goal Market equity as a goal
State choice dominates upon public Public choice dominates upon state
choice choice
Leads to welfare government Leads to entrepreneurial
government
Values: Humanistic values, Values of: Individual choice,
institution building and professional provision of incentives, use of
competence, matters of justice & competition and market as a model
fairness broadly under the label of for govt.
social equity
Expenditure oriented government Revenue generation oriented
government
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION IN THE ERA OF
LIBERALIZATION AND GLOBALIZATION
Globalization has brought a paradigm shift in the nature and scope of public
administration as it paved way for a more flexible, less hierarchical and
accommodative kind of discipline informed by networks and collaboration.
With the advent of globalization and gradual retreat of state from many
core areas, public administration has become more proactive and assertive
rather than taking the backseat. Globalization has rejuvenated the role of PA
from being an enabler to a facilitator. It has recalibrated itself and welcome the
help of civil society (such as NGOs) and market, i.e. private sector in
dispensing delivery of public goods and services.

MINNOWBROOK CONFERENCE III (2008)


Held under the chairmanship of Rosemary O’ Leary against the backdrop of a
receding American economy and the rising threat of global terrorism. The
deliberations centered around global concerns such as international terrorism,
fledgling economy, ecological imbalances and environmental degradation,
role of various stakeholders and interest groups in decision-making,
significance of e-governance and benefits of new age technological
interventions such as Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in
improving efficiency and effectiveness of PA, etc.
The participants realized the inter-disciplinary nature of PA and how in the
wake of globalization it is no longer a nation-centric study or structure but a
more nuanced approach towards cross -national enquiry was the need of the
hour to acclimatize to the changing dynamics of PA in the face of sweeping
forces of globalization. They felt the need to conceptualize PA on similar lines
of Comparative Public Administration.
They realized that reforming PA is not a one-time phenomenon but a
continuous process.
The Minnowbrook Conference III emphasized the importance of
‘collaborative governance’ as perhaps the best shield against ‘government
slackening’ or bureaucratic delay meaning that the key to an effective
decision-making is a meaningful coordination among various institutions
involved in making and also implementing decisions.
Its proceedings were published in ‘The Future of Public
Administration Around the World: The Minnowbrook
Perspective’ by Rosemary O’Leary, David Van Slyke and Soonhee Kim.
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Arrange the following books written by Frederick Taylor in chronologica
order.
I. The Art of Cutting Metals
II. A Piece Rate System
III. Shop Management
IV. The Principles of Management
Options:
(a) I II III IV
(b) II III I IV
(c) IV III II I
(d) III II I IV

2. Assertion (A): Mental Revolution is related to Scientific Management.


Reason (R): Mental Revolution is related to the attitude and of
managers and workers to their duties.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false but R is true.
(d) A is true but R is false.

3. The concept of Functional Foremanship is associated with


(a) Herbert Simon
(b) Elton Mayo
(c) Frederick Taylor
(da) Luther Gulick

4. Which of the following statements about development administration ar


incorrect?
I. In the 1940s, development administration emerged as a vehic
usher in speedy ‘development’ in the post-colonial Third World.
II. Development Administration is change-oriented, dynamic and flexi
III. Fred Riggs defined development administration as ‘an action-orien
goal-oriented administrative system
IV. U.L Goswami is known as the Father of development administratio
Options:
(a) II III and IV only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I and IV only

5. Identify the themes of New Public Management


A. Flattening of hierarchy

B. Autonomy to public sector managers

C. Performance management techniques


D. Free cost delivery of services to citizens
Options:
(a) A, B
(b) A, B, C
(c) B, C, D
(d) C, D

6. The Anti-goals of NPA are:


A. Anti-Hierarchical

B. Anti-Capitalist

C. Anti-Technical
D. Anti-Scientific
Options:
(a) A and C
(b) B and D
(c) A and D
(d) B and C

7. Match the following:

Theories of Public Administration Ideas


I.Development
Administration 1. Privatization

II.New Public
Management 2. Change oriented

III. New Public C.Ecological basis of pub


Administration administration
IV.Comparative Public D.Values
Administration

Codes:
(a) I A, II C, III B, IV D
(b) I B, II A, III D, IV C
(c) I B, II C, III D, IV A
(d) I C, II D, III A, IV B

8. Who among the following is regarded as the Father of New Publi


Administration?
(a) Fred Riggs
(b) Edward Weidner
(c) George Gant
(d) Dwight Waldo

9. Which of the following statements is true regarding Comparative Publi


Administration?
(a) The comparative approach to public administration became po
after First World War.
(b) Two important figures in the field are Henry Fayol and Luther Gulic
(c) It refers to understanding, analyzing, or comparing the diffe
administrative structures present across the globe.
(d) Comparative Public Administration was discussed during Minnowb
Conference II.

10. Consider the following statements regarding public administration


under era of Globalization and choose the correct option:
I. Globalization brought a paradigm shift in the nature and scop
public administration as it paved the way for a more flexible,
hierarchical and accommodative kind of discipline.
II. It supported state-controlled welfare delivery.
III. Public Administration became more proactive and collaborative
readjusted itself and welcomed the help of non-state actors.
IV. It has increased the scope of administration.
Options:
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I,II,III and IV

11. The book ‘Reinventing Government’ deals with


(a) Entrepreneurial Government
(b) Welfare Government
(c) Following rigid hierarchy
(d) Enhancing role of the state

12. Choose the correct statement(s):


Statement I: Minnowbrook Conference II was chaired by Rosemary
O’ Leary.
Statement II: The concept of ‘Collaborative Governance’ was
advocated during Minnowbrook Conference III.
Options:
(a) Both are correct.
(b) Both are incorrect.
(c) Only I is correct.
(d) Only II is correct.

13. Which of the following goals was not prescribed by the New Public
Management Theory?
(a) Contracting out
(b) Maximum government
(c) Cost-Cutting in public services
(d) De-bureaucratization

14. The New Public Administration advocated


(a) Management Science Approach
(b) Efficiency and economy
(c) Social relevance-based approach
(d) Value neutrality

15. The book ‘Public Management in the Inter-Connected World: Essays in


the Minnow Brook Tradition’ is related to which Minnobrook
Conference?
(a) Minnowbrook Conference II
(b) Minnowbrook Conference III
(c) Minnowbrook Conference I
(d) None of the above

Answer Key

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(b) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (b)
(a) (b) (d) (a)
3. 6.
9. (c)
(c) (a)
CHAPTER 3
Theories and Principles of
Organization

INTRODUCTION
The principles of organisation are guidelines for planning an efficient
organisation structure. The old theories of organisations are classified as
classical theories of organisation. The origin of classical theories can be
traced back to the writings of F.W. Taylor, Max Weber, James Moorey, E.F.L.
Beach and Lois Allen. On the other hand, the modern organisation theory
considers the dynamic conditions at micro and macro levels. It recognizes the
dramatic changes taking place in the society. The Modern Organisation
Theory is a collection of views of different thinkers of organisation.

SCIENTIFIC MANAGEMENT THEORY


Frederick W. Taylor has been considered the father of scientific management
theory, though the term ‘scientific management’ was coined much later by
Louis Brandeis in 1910. Scientific management is also known as “Taylorism”.
According to Taylor, management is a true science as it rests on clearly fixed
laws, rules, and principles which have a universal applicability in all types of
organisations.
Scientific management was concerned with application of scientific
methods to managerial practices and production processes in industrial
organisations. It focussed on the lowest level (shop floor) of the organisation.
It aimed at studying the relationship between the physical nature of work and
the physiological nature of workmen.
The major works of Taylor include ‘A Piece-rate System’ (1895), ‘Shop
Management’ (1903), ‘The Art of Cutting Metals’ (1906), and ‘The Principles
of Management’ (1911).
Principles of Scientific Management
1. The development of a true science of work
2. The scientific selection, training, and progressive development of the
workman
3. The close coordination between the science of work and the
scientifically selected and trained men
4. The division of work and responsibility between the management and
workers
In ‘The Principles of Scientific Management (1911)’, Taylor states
that scientific management is ‘no single element’, but a combination
summarized as:

1. Science, not rule of thumb


2. Harmony, not discord
3. Cooperation, not individualism
4. Maximum output, in place of restricted output
5. Development of each man to his greatest efficiency and prosperity
These characteristics constitute the philosophy of scientific management.
Scientific management, according to Taylor, involves a complete mental
revolution. The ‘mental revolution’ (or new outlook) requires the realisation
on part of both the parties (workers and managers) that their mutual interest is
not contradictory and both can prosper only through cooperation, not conflict.
This is the essence of scientific management.
According to Taylor, the principal object of management should be to
secure the maximum prosperity for the employer, coupled with the maximum
prosperity for each employee.
Taylor employs a number of techniques to facilitate the application of
the principles of scientific management. These include functional
foremanship, motion study, time study, piece-rate plan, exceptional principle,
and so on.

Functional Foremanship
Taylor advocated the concept of functional foremanship under which a worker
is supervised and guided by eight functional foremen (i.e., specialised
supervisors). Thus, he rejected the system of single foremanship.

Figure 3.1 Taylor’s structure of Functional Foremanship

Motion Study
It is a technique of standardisation of work methods. It is meant for finding out
the ‘one best way’ to do a work.

Time Study
Time Study It is used to determine the standard time for completion of work. It
facilitates planning of a large daily tasks and follows the motion study.

Piece-Rate Plan
Under this plan, workers are paid a low piece rate up to a standard, a large
bonus at the standard and a higher piece rate above the standard. He
suggested that a worker who is unable or unwilling to produce the standard
should be removed.
Exceptional Principle
It involves setting up a large daily task by the management, with reward for
achieving targets and penalty for not meeting it.
Taylor also developed others techniques as well to serve his principles of
scientific management, the prominent being are mentioned above.

Criticism
1. It was criticised as a mechanistic theory of organisation as it neglected
the human side of the organisation. It was opposed by the workers.
2. It underestimated and oversimplified human motivation. It explained
human motivation mainly in terms of economic factors and hence
came to be known as the ‘monistic theory’ of motivation.
3. It was described as the ‘physiological organisation theory’ by March
and Simon due to its concern with only that range of worker’s
behaviour which pertained to production.
4. It received the greatest opposition from the trade unions. The basic
ideals of scientific management and labour unionism were not
compatible. It was also opposed by the managers.

BUREAUCRATIC THEORY
The term “bureaucracy” was first coined by Vincent de Gourney, a French
economist in 1745. Thomas Carlyle described the spread of the term as “the
continental nuisance’. The systematic study of bureaucracy began with Max
Weber, the German sociologist.
Max Weber called his formulation of bureaucracy as ideal type. The
ideal type is a mental map (or mental construct). In its conceptual purity this
mental construct cannot be found empirically anywhere in reality. Thus, it is a
utopia. A few features are important to know about Weberian Model:

1. Weber had neither defined bureaucracy in a clear-cut manner, nor eve


considered it as a part of the language of social sciences.
2. Weber did not include all officials within his notion of bureaucracy.
3. Despite the systematic treatment of bureaucracy, Weber’s notion of
bureaucracy is largely scattered in his writings. There is an apparent
inconsistency in Weber’s treatment of bureaucracy.
Weber’s theory of ideal-type bureaucracy will become more comprehensible if
it is placed in the backdrop of his theory of domination or ‘Herrschaft’.
According to Weber, domination is what is easily obeyed rather than a
command structure that evokes obedience. His three pure types of legitimate
authority are based respectively on his three bases of legitimacy” namely,
traditional, charismatic, and rational–legal.

Of the three types of authority, Weber preferred the legal type of authority
because it inherits rationality. He states ‘legal authority’ is suitable for the
modern governments.
Weber designed his ‘ideal type of bureaucracy’ keeping the ‘legal-
rationality’ in mind.
His model of bureaucracy is also known as ‘Weberian Model of
Bureaucracy’.
Weber provided Six Principles of Bureaucracy.
Principle Explanation
Authority Hierarchy A bureaucratic organization has two fundamental
components:
Chains of command and Positional roles or
functions in an organization
Formal Rules and Guidelines that dictate how things should be done.
Regulations
Division of Labour Jobs are divided into simple, routine, and well-
defined tasks.
Impersonality The relationship between employees must be
professional. Controls and rules and regulations are
applied to all uniformly, irrespective of the members’
personalities, positions, and preferences.
Principle Explanation
Career Orientation Employees should be given career paths where
they can grow into different roles over time, while
still getting opportunities to try new things
Formal Selection Members required by the organization are selected
Process on the basis of specific qualification as
demonstrated by their formal examination,
education, and training.

CRITICISM
Weber’s bureaucratic model was criticised by subsequent social scientists on
various grounds. They are:

1. It was characterised as ‘machine theory’ due to its over concern wit


the formal structure of the organisation to the neglect of huma
dimension.
2. It was described as a ‘closed system model’ as it did not take into
account in detail the interaction between organisation and its
environment.
3. It cannot function in an unstable environment (i.e., in changing
environmental conditions).
4. It is suitable for routine and repetitive jobs but not for jobs involving
creativity and innovation.

HUMAN RELATIONS THEORY


The Human Relations Theory of organisation came into existence in 1930s,
gives primacy to the human factor over institutional factors as popularized by
the classical schools of public administration. The classical school took a
mechanistic view of the organisation and under-emphasised the sociological
and psychological aspects of individual’s behaviour in the organisation. It is
this critical failure on the part of the classical approach which gave rise to the
human relations approach. Human relations theory is also known as
Humanistic Theory, Socio-Economic Theory and Neo-classical
Theory.
Elton Mayo is regarded as the Father of Human Relations Theory. He
called this approach as “clinical method”. He undertook the first research
programme in 1923 in a textile mill near Philadelphia and named it “The First
Enquiry”. His major works are: The Human Problems of an Industrial
Civilization (1933), The Social Problems of an Industrial Civilization (1945),
and The Political Problems of an Industrial Civilization (1947).
The theory is based on a simple premise that the ‘human problem requires
a human solution’. Unlike the traditional approach, which glorifies ‘Economic
Man’, the human relations theory enthrones the ‘Social Man’. This theory
underscores four key elements of organization, which the classical theorists
seem to have overlooked. These are:

1. Organization is to be viewed as a social system;


2. Workers are human beings with all humanly attributes;
3. Informal elements also play an important role in the overall
organizational output
4. Organization has a social ethics instead of individual ethics.
The Hawthorne studies (1924–32) formed the basis for the rise of human
relations theory. These studies were conducted in the Western Electric
Company at Hawthorne at Chicago, US by the Harvard Business School
under the leadership of Elton Mayo to understand the reasons behind
moderate productivity and output even after providing liberal incentives to the
workers and ensuring a cordial work environment. The studies were
conducted in the following four phases:

1. Illumination Experiment (1924–27)


2. Relay Assembly Test Room Experiment (1927)
3. Mass Interviewing programme (1928–31)
4. Bank Wiring Experiment (1931–32)

Conclusions of Hawthorne Studies


1. The social and psychological factors at the workplace, and not the
physical conditions of work, determine the employees’ morale and
output. This is the most important finding.
2. Workers are not inert or isolated, unrelated individuals; they are social
animals.
3. Division of labour strictly on specialisation is not necessarily the most
efficient approach.
4. The workers have a tendency to form small social groups (informal
organisations). The production norms and behavioural patterns are set
by such groups. The researchers discovered that the workers were
members of a small, closely knit group, governed by a code that
rejected the ‘ratebuster’ (who does too much work), the ‘chiseler’
(who does too little), and the ‘squealer’ (who communicates
detrimental information about others to the supervisor).
5. Leadership, style of supervision, communication, and participation play
a central role in workers’ behaviour, satisfaction, and productivity.
The Human Relations Theory of organisation has three elements:

1. The Individual: The theory recognises the importance of emotion


and perceptions of individuals. The level of workers’ production an
organisational output is determined by the human relations at wor
rather than the physical and economic conditions of work.
2. Informal Organisation: The human relations theory emphasises
the informal organisation.
3. Participative Management: This theory advocates the style of
participative management,i.e. the participation of workers in decision-
making with regard to their work conditions.

Criticism
Mayo and his Human Relations Theory were criticised on the following
grounds:

1. Alex Carey criticised the Hawthorne experiments for their lack o


scientific base as well as for selecting an unreliable small sample of fiv
or six girls to generalise.
2. The critics say that the behaviour of workers during the experiments
was not natural but was influenced by their feelings of importance,
attention and publicity they received in the research setting.
3. Loren Baritz criticised them as pro-management and anti-union.
4. Peter F. Drucker criticised them for not being aware of economic
dimensions.
Most Expected Practice Questions
1. Arrange the experiment conducted by Elton Mayo in chronological order
A. Illumination Experiment

B. Bank Wiring Experiment

C. Relay Assembly Test Room Experiment


D. Mass Interviewing programme
(a) A, C, D, B
(b) A, D, C, B
(c) A, B, C, D
(d) A, B, D, C

2. Which of the following are the main features of scientific management?


A. A single administrative science whose principles were applicable n
business but also to government, religious and other organisations

B. Functional foremanship

C. Separation of planning and execution


D. Differential piecework plan
Select the most suitable answer from the given options:
(a) B, C and D
(b) A, B and D
(c) A, B, C and D
(d) B and D

3. Which of the following work is not of Fredrick Taylor?


(a) A Piece-rate System
(b) Shop Management
(c) The Social Problems of an Industrial Civilization
(D) The Principles of Management
4. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Max Weber’
theory of bureaucracy?
A. It is an iron cage of rule-based rational control.

B. It is a key part of the “rational-legal authority.”

C. Bureaucracy means “domination through knowledge” in the for


merit.
D. It enjoys popular acceptability in a democracy.
Choose the correct answer from the below:
(a) A and D
(b) A, B and C
(c) B and D
(d) B, C and D

5. Which statement is incorrect regarding human relations theory?


(a) Organization is to be viewed as a social system
(b) Workers are human beings with all humanly attributes
(c) Informal elements not play an important role in the ov
organizational output
(d) Organization has a social ethics, instead of individual ethics

6. Which one of the following is the goal of Scientific Management?


(a) Generating employment
(b) Maximising social welfare
(c) Higher industrial efficiency
(d) Welfare of the workers

7. In which country we can find Max Weber’s Ideal Type Bureaucrac


Model?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) None
8. Which of the following factors did not contribute to the evolution of th
Scientific Management Theory?
(a) Lack of effective standards of work
(b) Lack of clear understanding of worker-management responsibilities
(c) Rule-of-thumb based decisions by the management
(d) Proper job design and economic incentives to workers

9. Which of the following is the work of Elton Mayo?


(a) The Political System
(b) Shop Management
(c) The Science of Muddling Through
(d) The Political Problems of an Industrial Civilization

10. The concept of ‘traditional’ authority involves


(a) Use of authority by virtue of their inherited status by persons
(b) The exercise of power subject to rules and regulations
(c) The use of power based on the basis of magical qualities by a pers
(d) The use of power/authority as per inherited status as wel
extraordinary contribution to the history of advanced busi
organisation

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(a) (c) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a)
2. 4.
6. (c)
(a) (b)
CHAPTER 4
Managing the Organization

INTRODUCTION
A person who is motivated works in a particular way to accomplish desired
goals because they are in a state of mind that is energized and enthusiastic.
Motivation is a factor that encourages someone to work harder and be more
committed even when the odds are stacked against them. Human activity
frequently takes the form of sustained motivation. Many motivation theories
have been proposed by many psychologists after extensive research and
observation of human behavior. These theories fall into one of two categories:

1. Content-based theories
2. Process-based theories

Theories of motivation based on content: Content theories focus on


the wants and objectives of the individual and discuss “what” motivates
people. Maslow, Alderfer, Herzberg, McClelland, and other proponents of
content-based theories looked at motivation from a “content” perspective.
Theories of motivation that focus on the “process” of
motivation: Process theories are interested in the “how” of motivation.
Vroom, Porter & Lawler, Adams, and Locke were proponents of process-
based theories who looked at motivation from a “process” perspective.

IMPORTANT THEORIES OF MOTIVATION

Traditional theories of motivation


The Fear and Punishment Theory: This theory calls for the use
of force and threat, as well as close monitoring and strict behavior
control. This theory’s fundamental tenet is that people labor primarily
for financial gain and will do so to keep their jobs. Individuals were
forced to “walk the line or leave the job” because the theory had an
authoritarian, militaristic tone.
This theory is inappropriate in the current situation
Reward Theory: According to Reward theory, providing rewards
and providing favorable working conditions encourage people to do
better and harder so that their needs are met and harmony is attained.
It is predicated on the idea that people are driven to work to the degree
of their reward. According to legend, Frederick Taylor, who once
claimed, “Give a man more money and he will produce more,” is the
inventor of this philosophy. However, contentment can occasionally
result in subpar performance. According to Peter Drucker, “Satisfaction
with financial rewards is not a sufficient motive.”
Carrot and Stick Theory: According to this theory, incentive can
either be given or delayed to encourage the behaviour. Effective
performance is a requirement for the awards and is made a condition.
When someone performs above a predetermined minimum standard,
they are rewarded; yet, they are penalized when they perform below
that standard.

MODERN THEORIES OF MOTIVATION


As the relevancy of tradition motivational theory reduced. Modern Theories of
motivation were evolved while considering the changes in social structure as
well as in the human orientation.

Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory


It is possible to organize a person’s motivating needs hierarchically. Maslow’s
hierarchy of needs included five stages. In brief, they are as follows.
Biological requirements: The biological demands of humans such as
food, thirst, and sleep, may be referred to as physiological needs. These are
the fundamental requirements for maintaining human existence.
Security demands are equal to the second category of wants, which is
safety. Maslow emphasized both physical and mental safety. These are
necessary to be free from physical danger and the worry of losing one’s
home, work, possessions, or food.
Social needs: Because man is a social animal, once his physiological
and safety needs are met, he looks to other people for affection, love, and a
sense of belonging. Whether they are aware of it or not, these desires drive
their actions.
Esteem needs: The higher human requirements are represented by the
esteem level. This level might be seen as including the need for prestige,
power, and accomplishment. Maslow emphasized that the esteem level
includes both one’s own opinion of oneself and the opinions of others. Maslow
believes that the highest need in his hierarchy is self-actualization. It is the
drive to fulfill one’s potential and achieve something to become whatever one
is capable of becoming. This urge reflects the desire for self-actualization,
fulfillment, and leaving a meaningful life.

Figure 4.1 Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

MOTIVATION-HYGIENE THEORY OR TWO


FACTOR THEORY
Frederick Herzberg conducted a study into motivational theories to develop
his Two-Factor Theory, and he held the view that motivation is multifaceted
regarding the aim. People have two sets of needs, in his opinion. Motivation-
hygiene theory suggests that people want to avoid suffering first and then
developmentally mentally. Two elements—dissatisfiers and satisfierswere
named in his theory.

Hygiene Factors Motivation (Satisfiers)


(Dissatisfiers)
Organization policy and Achievement, recognition,
administration, supervision, working challenging work, advancement,
conditions, interpersonal relations, and growth in the job.
salary, status, job security, and
personal life.
They are deficit and extrinsic They are intrinsic factors.
factors.
They are finite and limited. They are infinite and referred to as
growth factors.
They are only dissatisfiers and not They are found to be the real
motivators. motivators.

He saw that the effects of each component were different. Even though
eliminating sources of unhappiness is important, sources of enjoyment can
increase people’s motivation. He developed the “Dual Unipolar Trait
Theory,” which argued that the satisfiers and dissatisfiers did not represent
the two extremes of a single continuum, but rather belonged to independent
continuums.

IMPORTANT THEORIES OF LEADERSHIP


The development of management studies brought the leadership role in
limelight. Various leadership theories were developed to identify the traits of
leadership in an organization for efficiency an effectiveness of staff.

Rensis Likert I-IV Model


Rensis Likert was born in America in 1903. He is also regarded as the primary
proponent of Motivation. Rensis Likert-type Scale’s main ideas are as follows:
Supervisory Personnel - Rensis Likert is widely regarded as the
founder of the employee-centric theory of motivation. This principle provides
knowledge of supervision styles. According to Likert, supervision has a
significant impact on the employee. Productivity rises when an employee is
assigned a good supervisor. In fact, supervision theory works better on
groups.
According to Likert, supervisors and bosses should be more concerned
with their employees than with their jobs.
“The employee-centered supervisor not only trains employees to do their
current job well but also to do the next higher job. He is friendly and
supportive, not intimidating and punishing. Therefore, Likert believes that the
attitude of supervisor towards employees should be benevolent and friendly.

THOUGHT CONCERNING MANAGEMENT


SYSTEM
Likert has divided the leadership behavior of managers into four basic
methods:

Leadershi Characteristics Advantages Disadvantage


p Style s
Leadershi Characteristics Advantages Disadvantage
p Style s
Exploitative
authoritative One-way Excellent Employee
Based on threat employee s are
and fear performa highly
Low concern for nce short unmotivat
people term ed
Decision making is
centralized
Does not trust
employees
More concerned
about tasks

Benevolent
authoritative One-way Employee Competiti
Based on rewards s more on can
Decision making in motivated cause
centralized team
Master-servant conflict
relationship Only
motivated
by
rewards
Leadershi Characteristics Advantages Disadvantage
p Style s
Consultative
Two-way Employee Decision
communication but s feel Making
upward more process
communicationn is freedom can take
limited to longer
Lower level communi
employees are cate and
seen as make
consultants company
The decision decisions
making is limited Lower
and decentralized level
Managers talk to employee
their subordinates s are
about problems more
and action plans likely to
before they set accept
organizational change
goals because
of their
involveme
nt in
decisions.
Leadershi Characteristics Advantages Disadvantage
p Style s
Participative
Two-way Creativity Decision
communication Team Making
Leadership based commitm process
on group ent and can take
participation acceptan longer
The decision ce of
making is goals
decentralized Higher
Open minded productio
High trust n from
Values employee
relationships s
Team
members
hold each
other
accounta
ble

Organizational Reforms: He emphasized on making the organization


more participative and democratic and focused on establishing cordial
relations.
Conflict Management: They believe that if the conflict is to be
resolved then strong communication and participatory management should be
emphasized. Human resources should be used in the organization in such a
way that they never come into conflict situations.
Likert proposed a new approach using behavioural science in his
research. Under the employee-centered supervision principle, he paid more
attention to the human side than money. In place of control and autocratic
administration, he gave more emphasis on participatory management.
DOUGLAS MCGREGOR’S THEORY X AND
THEORY Y
On the basis of theories pertaining to human behaviour, McGregor has
constructed a theory of motivation. ‘In the book: “The Human side of the
Enterprise”. He claims that certain presumptions about human nature play a
role in the function of inspiring people. Two theories that make assumptions
about human nature are Theory X and Theory Y.

Figure 4.2 McGregor’s theory X & theory Y

THEORY X
According to McGregor, the following traditional assumptions about human
nature are included in Theory X:
The majority of people despise work and will try to avoid it at all costs.
Because most people dislike work, they must be coerced, controlled, directed,
and threatened with punishment in order to put forth adequate effort towards
the achievement of organizational objectives. Average people prefer to be
directed, avoid responsibility, have little ambition, and value security above all
else. Workers must be convinced and pushed to perform based on these
assumptions. External control is thought to be appropriate when dealing with
untrustworthy, irresponsible, and immature individuals.
According to McGregor, an organization based on Theory ‘X’ concepts will
have close supervision and control of subordinates, as well as a high level of
centralization of authority. Leadership in such organizations is likely to be
autocratic, with workers having little influence over decisions that affect them.
The climate in a Theory X organization would be impersonal. This theory
suggests using the ‘Carrot and Stick Approach.’

THEORY Y
He advanced Theory Y, which he claimed would better represent human
behavior. Work requires both physical and mental effort, and it is as natural as
play or rest. External control and the threat of punishment are not the only
ways to motivate employees to work towards organizational goals. People will
exercise self-direction and self-control in the service of goals to which they are
dedicated. The level of commitment to goals is proportional to the size of the
rewards associated with their achievement. Under the right conditions,
average people learn not only to accept but also to seek responsibility.
The central principle implicit in Theory Y’s assumptions is that behavior
integration is the key process in management because it results in the
creation of conditions conducive for members to achieve their own goals best
by directing their efforts towards the success of the enterprise.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following is an example of a lower-order need in Maslow’
hierarchy of needs?
(a) Esteem needs
(b) Self-actualization needs
(c) Physiological needs
(d) Love and belongingness needs

2. Rearrange Maslow’s hierarchy of needs logically.


1. physiological needs

2. security needs
3. esteem needs

4. social needs

5. self-actualization needs

(a) a, b, d, c, e
(b) a, d, b, c, e
(c) b, a, d, c, e
(d) b, d, a, c, e

3. Second stage of Maslow’s hierarchal needs is


(a) love and belonging needs
(b) safety needs
(c) esteem needs
(d) physiological needs

4. According to the MotivationalHygiene Theory, which of the followin


would have the strongest positive effect on employee satisfaction?
(a) Quarterly bonus
(b) Increased responsibility
(c) Improved working condition
(d) Annual employment contract

5. The two factors that can influence motivation are:


(a) Motivating factors
(b) Economic factors
(c) Cultural factors
(d) Hygiene factors

6. Which of the following is not one of the assumptions of theory?


(a) An average employee needs formal direction
(b) An average worker does not escape responsibility rather he seeks
(c) The employees usually like work
(d) All of the above are assumptions of theory Y.

7. Which of the following is a feature of McGregor’s theory X?


(a) Workers enjoy responsibility.
(b) Workers view physical and mental effort as a natural part of work.
(c) Workers like to show initiative.
(d) Workers like to be directed.

8. According to theory X, greatest reliance should be placed on


(a) internal control
(b) external control
(c) all-round control
(d) complete delegation

9. Rensis Likert proposed ____________ leadership styles.


(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6

10. The leadership styles given by Rensis Likert include


(a) democratic, participative, benevolent, and exploitation styles
(b) autocratic, democratic, laissez fair and paternalistic styles
(c) telling, selling, participative and delegating styles
(d) directive, supportive, participative, and achievement-oriented styles

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (b) (d) (d) (a) (a) (a)
2. 4. 6. (a)
(a) (c)
CHAPTER 5
Organizational Communication

INTRODUCTION
Man is a sociable animal and communication comes naturally to him. His
basic tendency is to share his emotions and ideas. In the same way that
food is where we get nourishment for our bodies, communication is
where we get nourishment for our social systems. Human growth in both
the physical and mental realms is inextricably related to communication.
The conversation keeps people connected from conception to death. One
matures and learns to comprehend the other. Human relationships can
be said to be built on communication.

MEANING OF COMMUNICATION
The Latin term communism, which means to convey or make common, is
where the word communication first appeared. Communication is the act
of exchanging ideas and emotions with another person, or of bringing
thoughts into general use and sharing them with others. Sanchar is the
translation of the English term into Hindi, which is a word that was
created from the word commune.
This implies that to exchange is to give. Ideas are exchanged in
communication, which is a two-way process. Without communication, it is
impossible to mobilize human resources. Albin Dye acknowledges the
significance of communication in management and claims that
“Communication is the basic difficulty of management.” According to
Theo Hymen, effective communication is essential for managerial duties
to succeed. According to Terry, communication serves as the lubricant
that keeps the management process flowing smoothly.

IMPORTANT THEORIES AND PRINCIPLES OF


COMMUNICATION
Organization and communication: Establishing rights and
obligations and informing employees of them fall under the
umbrella of organization, but these duties are also impossible
without communication. According to Barnard, the organizer›s first
responsibility is to establish a clear method of communication.
Motivation and interaction: Employees are motivated by
their managers, which requires communication. Information is a
unique managerial tool, according to Peter Drucker. The manager
doesn’t advertise to individuals; instead, he organizes and inspires
them. The spoken word, written word, or the language of numbers
is its only tool for doing all of these tasks.
Communication and coordination- These are important for
providing a clear direction for a group’s work. Newman asserts that
coordination is aided by effective communication. Communication,
in the words of Barnard, “is the technique by which individuals in
an organization can be brought together to achieve a single goal.”
Communication and decision-making: The managers
have access to the appropriate information at the appropriate time
to help them make wise judgments.
Effectiveness: The open exchange of ideas and thoughts
amongst staff members is crucial for delivering good services. The
amount of communication and mutual understanding between
employees inside a company determines how productive it is.
Maximum production at minimal expense: All wise
managers strive to create as much as possible while keeping costs
to a minimum. It is essential that organizational distinctions be
made in order to boost production.
CHESTER BARNARD’S PRINCIPLES OF
COMMUNICATION
Chester Barnard, a proponent of systematic thinking, advanced this idea.
‘In his book: “The Functions of Executive” 1938’. By focusing on human
behaviour, he attempted to overcome the drawbacks of Elton Mayo’s
human relations theory. As the first “full behaviourist,” he is also regarded
as such. Chester Barnard was the one who first applied the organic unity
of biology to public administration, thus creating the groundwork for the
systems approach. He is known as the “Social Order School’s” spiritual
father.
The socio-psychological study of organizations was stressed by
Barnard, who also saw administration as a social system as Follet did. As
a “social cooperative structure,” Barnard described the organization.
Herzberg does not distinguish between individual and collective
behaviour, much like Chester Bernard-Maslow. Riggs, Chris Argireris,
and Douglas McGregor are a few behavioralists who dispute the idea that
the two are invariably the same. “Organization and Management” and
“The Functions of the Executive,” both published in 1938, are Barnard’s
two most notable publications (1948).

FORMAL AND INFORMAL ORGANIZATION


According to Barnard, every formal organization also have informal
organizational values and structure. Effective functioning of an
organization is possible when formal and informal organization works in
coordination.

Formal Informal Organization


Organization
A structure of It represent the personal and social
well-defined jobs relation among people.
and function Barnard said “Informal organization
Definite brings cohesiveness to a formal
measure of organization. It brings the members of
authority, a formal organization, a feeling of
responsibility belonging, of status, of self-respect
and and gregarious satisfaction.”
accountability. Informal group and their beliefs and
Four pillars of values set the organizational culture
formal and it help in acceptance of authority.
organization are:

(i) Division
of
Labour
(ii) Scalar and
functional
Processes
(iii) Structure
(iv) Span of
Control

Formal
organization is a
result of
planning,
structure is
determined by
top
management.

STEPS IN COMMUNICATION
1. The message is composed by the sender, who also chooses the
best delivery method.
2. In the second phase, the message is sent, and the sender makes
every effort to ensure that there is no interference during
transmission and that the message can be understood by the
recipient without any interruption.
3. The receiver decodes the message and seeks to verify it if
necessary.
4. After comprehending the communication they have just received,
the receiver provides feedback to the sender.

PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION
Barnard suggested seven principles of communication which are
important in establishing and maintaining objective authority in an
organization.

1. The channels of communication should be definite.


2. Everyone in the organization must have a definite formal channel
of communication.
3. The line of communication must be as direct and short as
possible.
4. The competence of persons serving as communication centers
should be adequate.
5. The complete formal line of communication must usually be used.
6. The line of communication must not be interrupted while
organization is functioning.
7. Every communication must be authenticated.

ACCEPTANCE THEORY OF AUTHORITY


According to Barnard, the basis of legitimacy of authority is the
acceptance of it by the subordinate. Thus, the superior can exercise
authority only when it is accepted by the subordinate.
Barnard defines authority as the character of a communication in
formal organization by virtue of which it is accepted by contributor or
member of organization.
Barnard stated that a subordinate will accept a communication as
authoritative only when the four conditions are simultaneously satisfied.
When he understands the communication
When the communication is not inconsistent with purpose of the
organization.
When the communication is compatible with his personal interest
as a whole.
When he is able to mentally and physically comply with
communication

As a result, Barnard’s power ideology’s primary objective is:


In an organization, authority or power moves from the bottom to
the top.
The exercise of power or its presence is not an authority in and of
itself, but rather the submission to it.
ower is a concept that pertains to function rather than location; as
such, it is concerned with function.

ZONE OF INDIFFERENCE
Barnard identified the “zone of indifference” in accordance with the
accepted philosophy of authority. According to Barnard, the staff either
agrees or disagrees with the decisions, or they accept them partially or
wholeheartedly. Uncontested choices or commands are followed without
complaint since the workforce never loses hope. They frequently don’t
care about (or don’t respond to) such commands or judgments. An area
of indifference can only be produced by these. Here, the manager and
the employees can agree on the rules and directives. It is obvious that
the zone of indifference controls how authority is regarded.
Figure depicting zone of indifference

Therefore, only such commands that pertain to this sector should be


given by higher officials. According to Barnard, the ratio of “satisfaction-
contribution” determines the zone of indifference. It is obvious that
extending this region is the only way to satisfy increasing numbers of
orders, and if this area is to grow, satisfaction and contribution levels
must rise as well. Only when pleasure rises will contribution rise as well.
Therefore, managers need to pay close attention to employee
satisfaction.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. “The function of the executive” was written by
(a) Urwick
(b) Robert dahl
(c) Chester Bernard
(d) Herbert Simon

2. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with


(a) Decision-Making
(b) Leadership
(c) Authority
(d) Motivation

3. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of


(a) Terry
(b) Barnard
(c) L. D. White
(d) Henry Fayol

4. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?


(a) Scientific management- Chester Bernard
(b) The managerial grid – Simon
(c) Hierarchy of needs- Maslow
(d) Bureaucratic theory- Max Weber

5. Bureaucracy is a form of:


(a) Political Organization.
(b) Social Organization
(c) Community Organization
(d) Private organization

6. The process of transmitting the idea or thought into meaningfu


symbols is called:
(a) Decoding
(b) Feedback
(c) Reception
(d) Encoding

7. An organization that successfully achieves the goals will be


considered as:
(a) Efficient
(b) Systemic
(c) Effective
(d) Reasonable

8. An organization using its resources wisely and, in a cost, effective


way is considered:
(a) Conservative
(b) Modern
(c) Effective
(d) Efficient

9. Power that has been legitimized by the state is:


(a) Political authority
(b) Charismatic authority
(c) Traditional authority
(d) Legal authority

10. According to Chester Barnard, for many managerial requests or


directives, there is a zone of indifference. A zone of indifference
(a) requires few resources.
(b) can create apathy.
(c) appears when the acceptance of managerial authority
automatic.
(d) derives from the concept of personal space.

Answer Key

1. 4. 7.
10. (c)
(c) (a) (c)
2. 5. 8. (d)
(c) (b)
3. 6.
9. (d)
(b) (d)
CHAPTER 6
Management of Conflicts and
Objectives

MARY PARKER FOLLETT-CONFLICT


MANAGEMENT
Mary Parker Follet is the first lady in the field of administrative theory. She is
regarded as a bridge between the classical approach and the behavioural-
human relations approach to organisation. The majority of her work was
devoted to the issue of conflict and integration.
Her major works include:

1. The Speaker of the House of Representatives (1896)


2. The New State (1920)
3. Creative Experience (1924)
4. Dynamic Administration (1941). It is a set of Follett’s papers edited by
L. Urwick and H. Metcalf.

CONFLICT AND INTEGRATION


In her work Creative Experience, she explained that conflicts in organisations
are inevitable due to individual differences. Conflict is not warfare but is only
an appearance of difference of opinions and interests among different
categories of people in the organisation. Hence, conflicts should be conceived
as not wasteful and harmful but as a normal process and should be handled
in a constructive way.
Follet says that an organisation is a social system and not a social
cooperative system and hence conflicts arise. Since conflict is unavoidable,
instead of criticizing it as something bad, one should try to capitalize on it, and
make use of it to do something good. Follet propounded the concept of
‘constructive conflict’. To overcome the conflict in a constructive way in
an organisation, Follet has suggested three methods,

1. Domination: Victory of one side over the other. Domination seems t


be an easy way to overcome conflict. However, it is not a sustainabl
one, as the person who has lost the argument would feel deprived an
might enter into conflict with others
2. Compromise: Both sides surrendering some part of what they want.
According to Follett, “compromise is too temporary and futile”. Through
compromise, though conflict might get resolved, it creates suppression
in individuals and a suppressed individual will give up his/her desire to
resolve the conflict. However, it will bring more disastrous results later.
3. Integration: Finding a new solution which satisfies the ‘real needs’
of both sides and neither side sacrifices anything. However, integration
requires high intelligence and the leadership needs to have a sufficient
knowledge base to deal with the conflicts. The advantage of
integration is that, it goes to the roots of the problem and solve it.

Follett considered integration as the best way of resolving conflict due to


its merits, viz.,

1. It resolves once and for all the original conflict as it goes to the root o
the problem.
2. It makes use of better techniques and saves time and resources.
3. It leads to the emergence of new values and develops a new situation.

STEPS TO ACHIEVE INTEGRATION


Follett also suggested the various steps in the achievement of integration.
They are:

1. According to Follet, each side should recognise for itself what its rea
needs are and bring the differences into the open instead o
suppressing them.
2. Breaking down whole demands into their constituent
parts, to consider the demands of both sides involved in the conflict,
and to break them into their constituent parts involves the examination
of symbols, the use of which are unavoidable in organizational work.
3. Anticipation of the conflict, does not mean the avoidance of
conflict but responding to it differently. There is a need for preparation
for response as well.

OBSTACLES IN THE INTEGRATION


It requires a high degree of intelligence, keen perception and
discrimination and a brilliant inventiveness which are rare among
administrators,
Most people are habituated to enjoy domination over others,
People theorize instead of suggesting active steps,
Obsession of managers with power and most of them try to get power-
over,
Language used which arouses antagonism, and
People are not trained in making integrations the most important
obstacle to integration.

M.P. Follet was a specialist in the field of administrative theory with a special
focus on individuals in organisation. Overcoming and managing conflicts was
a major part of her research.

MANAGEMENT BY OBJECTIVES: PETER


DRUCKER
The term Management by Objectives (MBO) was coined by Peter Drucker. He
is widely regarded as the founding father of modern corporate management.
In his book, ‘The Practice of Management,’ (1954) he established a
Management by Objectives (MBO) approach to match individuals’ goals with
those of the organisation. MBO is also known as management by results and
goals-setting approach.
Management by Objectives (MBO) is a result-centred, non-specialist,
operational managerial process for the effective utilisation of the material,
physical and human resources of the organisation by integrating the individual
with the organisation and the organisation with the environment.
MBO is an approach that uses objectives as a focal point to improve
managerial performance and managerial effectiveness, both at the individual
and at the organisational level. MBO deals with the collaborative engagement
of an employee and its manager. In the MBO approach, while the objectives
provide the focal point, the emphasis is on improving performance and
providing better results. This is because MBO is concerned with achieving the
objectives as well as the process by which they are achieved.
The key concepts in MBO are:

1. emphasis on results rather than activities,


2. objectives for specific managerial positions,
3. participatory or joint objective setting,
4. identification of key result areas, and
5. establishment of periodic review system.
Managers are given the opportunity to focus on new ideas and
innovations that contribute to the development and objectives of organisations
through enhancing commitment. However, Peter Drucker establishes a
number of prerequisites:

1. Employees or team members help to determine goals.


2. Objectives are set at both the quantitative and qualitative levels.
3. Goals must be both challenging and motivating.
4. Instead of static management reports, provide daily feedback on the
state of things and key results at the level of coaching and growth.
5. Rewards (recognition, gratitude, and/or performance-related
remuneration) for meeting the goals are required.
6. The fundamental premise is growth and development rather than
punishments.

FIVE STEPS OF MBO


The process of management by objectives is a never-ending process. The
process of MBO is continuous in nature therefore it only ensures the
concentration of efforts towards organisational objectives. It is a continual
cycle of development that begins with organisational objectives and must be
translated to an individual level.
Figure 6.1 Steps of Management by Objective

1. Determine or revise the organizational objectives: The firs


step is to establish verifiable objectives for the organisation and fo
various positions at various levels. This broad overview should be base
on the company’s mission and vision.
2. Translating the organizational objectives to employees:
Employees should be informed of the organization’s goals. The job
descriptions of various jobs must indicate and fix their objectives,
responsibilities, and authority. They must lay down expressly and
clearly the relationships with other job positions in the organisation. To
convey the concept, Peter Drucker uses the acronym coined by
George T. Doran SMART (Specific, Measurable, Acceptable,
Realistic, Time-bound) in 1981.
3. Stimulate the participation of employees in determining
the objectives: Encourage staff participation in setting individual
goals. After the organization’s objectives have been discussed with
employees from the top down, people should be encouraged to help
create their own goals in order to attain the bigger corporate goals.
Employees are more motivated as a result of increased
empowerment.
4. Monitoring of the performance: Employee progress should be
tracked. An important component of the objectives in step two was that
they are measurable so that employees and management can judge
how well they are met.
5. Evaluate and reward achievements: In the absence of a
review system, the MBO system cannot function. Employee progress
should be evaluated and rewarded. This phase entails providing each
employee with honest feedback on what was and was not
accomplished.

ADVANTAGES OF MBO
Employees take joy in their work and are given goals that they know
they can attain based on their abilities, skills, and educational
background.
Assigning personalised goals gives employees a sense of importance,
increasing their performance and commitment to the organisation.
Management and staff communication is improved and can set goals
that will lead to the company’s success.

DISADVANTAGES OF MBO
Because MBO is focused on goals and targets, it frequently overlooks
other aspects of a firm, such as conduct culture, a healthy work ethos,
and opportunities for involvement and contribution.
Employees are under additional pressure to accomplish targets within
a given time window.
If management relies only on MBO for all management obligations, it
can be difficult in areas where MBO does not apply.

Most Expected Practice Questions


Which work of Mary Parker Follet was published posthumously?
1.
(a) The Speaker of the House of Representatives
(b) Dynamic Administration
(c) Creative Experience
(d) The New State

2. Which of the following ways are suggested by Mary Parker Follett fo


resolving conflict in an organization?
A. Domination

B. Compromise

C. Surrender
D. Integration
Select the most suitable answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C
(b) A, B and D
(c) B, C and D
(d) A, B, C and D

3. Who is considered as the Father of modern corporate management?


(a) Fayol
(b) George T. Doran
(c) Chester Bernard
(d) Peter Drucker

4. Who coined the acronym SMART?


(a) George T. Doran
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Mary Parker Follet
(d) Neumann

5. In which book Peter Drucker formulated his Management by Objective


(MBO)?
(a) Democracy, Bureaucracy and Public Choice
(b) The Human Side of the Enterprise
(c) The Practice of Management
(d) The Bureaucratic Phenomenon

6. According to Follet, which is the best way to resolve the conflict?


(a) Domination
(b) Integration
(c) Compromise
(d) Resignation

7. Which of the following is not a key concept of MBO?


(a) Emphasis on results rather than activities
(b) Objectives for specific managerial positions
(c) Decisions taken by management only
(d) Establishment of periodic review system

8. The Management by Results concept was developed by


(a) Peter Drucker
(b) George T. Doran
(c) Chester Bernard
(d) Fayol

9. Who among the following was the first to advance the idea of worke
participation in management?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Herbert Simon
(c) F.W. Taylor
(d) Mary Parker Follet

10. Arrange the works of M.P Follet in chronological order:


A. The Speaker of the House of Representatives

B. Creative Experience
C. The New State
D. Dynamic Administration
(a) A, C, B, D
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) D, C, B, A
(D) A, D, C, B

Answer Key

1. 4. 7.
10. (a)
(b) (a) (c)
2. 5.
8. (a)
(b) (c)
3. 6.
9. (d)
(d) (b)
Previous Years’ Questions

1. Which of the following basic types of organisations is not derived on


the basis of the principle of cui bono or who benefits, formulated by
Blau and Scott? (2016)
(a) Mutual benefit association
(b) Business concern
(c) Reciprocal monetary benefits
(d) Service organization

2. Which among the following terms were added by UNDP to Klitgaard


Formula for corruption, who presented it in the form of an equation –
Corruption, Economic Rent, Discretionary Powers and Accountability (C
= R + D – A) ? (2016)
(A) Integrity
(B) Responsiveness
(C) Transparency
(D) Equity
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (A) and (D)

3. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: (2017)
Assertion (A): Weberian claim of bureaucracy representing highest
extent of rationality did not fit in with the real-life situation in public
administration.
Reason (R): Rationality maximisation is not what is intended in the
actual process of administering.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below: (2017)

List I List II
(Author) (Books)
(A)Jayartanuja (i)Engaging the
Bandyopadhyay World
(B)J.N. Dixit (ii) Continuity and Change: India’
Foreign Policy
(C)I.K. Gujral (iii) Indian Foreign Policy and its
Neighbours
(D)Rajan Harshe and (iv) The Making of India’s Forein
K.M. Sethi Policy

(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)


(b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

5. At which stage of the evolution of public administration, the ‘public’


aspect of public administration was virtually dropped and the focus
shifted to ‘efficiency’? (2017)
(a) First stage
(b) Second stage
(c) Third stage
(d) Fourth stage
6. “Budget is a document containing a preliminary approval plan of
public revenue and expenditure”. Whose definition is this? (2018)
(a) Leroy Beaulieu
(b) Robert walpole
(c) Reno Storm
(d) Willoughby

7. Mc Gregor in his celebrated text, The Human Side of the Enterprise


has given his famous “theoretical assumptions”. Which of the
following are the correct assumptions? (2018)
(A) The average human being, with relatively little ambition, prefers t
directed and wishes to avoid responsibility. Security is the
concern
(B) The average human being learns under proper conditions not on
accept but to seek responsibility
(C) The average human being has an innate antipathy to work, whic
will avoid, if he can
(D) “Best management is a true science”
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) C and D only
(c) A and D only
(d) A, B and C only

8. Match List I with List II (2018)

List I List II
(A)Decision Making I.Fred Riggs
(B)Ecological Approach II.Edward Weidner
(C)New Public Administration III. Herbert
Simon
(D)Development IV.Minnowbrook Conference
Administration 1968

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(b) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
(c) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(d) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

9. Frederick Herzberg is famous for which one of the following


theories? (2018)
(a) Human Relations Theory
(b) Bureaucratic Theory
(c) Leadership Theory
(d) Motivation Theory

10. Who has analyzed leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?


(2018)
(a) L. Urwick
(b) H. Simon
(c) C . I. Barnard
(d) M. P. Follett

11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer using the
codes given below (2018)
Assertion (A): “Henri Fayol identified five elements as the primary
functions of management activity. “
Reason (R): According to Henri Fayol, “knowledge of administration is
needed at higher levels of an organisation, rather than technical
knowledge. “
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

12. Which one among the following is the correct ascending order of
Commission / Committees appointed in the USA? (2018)
(a) Hoover Commission, Taft Commission, The Grace Commis
Brownlow Committee.
(b) The Grace Commission, Hoover Commission Taft Commis
Brownlow Committee.
(c) Taft Commission, Brownlow Committee, Hoover Commission,
Grace Commission.
(d) Brownlow Committee, Taft Commission The Grace Commis
Hoover Commission.

13. The ‘one best way’ in scientific management means: (2018)


(a) Equal division of work
(b) Intensive analysis of work processes
(c) Mental revolution on the part of workers and management
(d) Standardisation of work methods

14. Who wrote Reinventing Government (1992)? (2019)


(a) Robert Denhardt
(b) Pfiffner and Presthus
(c) Osborne and Gaebler
(d) Gordon Tullock

15. Performance budget reflects how well a government entity is


meeting its goals and objectives. Which of the following are the
central point of Performance Budgeting? (2019)
(A) It requires the establishment of performance levels and the colle
of information
(B) The amount of work that is done is measured
(C) The quality or the results of that work is measured
(D) This impacts how much money a department will receive in the futu
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) A, B, C and D only
(d) C and D only
16. Which one of the following orders falls under the “zone of
indifference” propounded by Chester Barnard? (2019)
(a) Those which will be clearly unacceptable
(b) Those which are unquestionably acceptable
(c) Those which are on neutral line i.e. either just acceptable or
unacceptable
(d) Order that fails intentionally in an obligation

17. “Conflict is not warfare, but is only an appearance of difference -


difference of opinions, of interests not only between employer and
employee but also between managers, between directors or wherever
differences appear”. Who made this statement? (2019)
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) Rensis Likert
(c) Mary P. Follett
(d) Douglas McGregor

18. According to Nicolas Henry which of the following are the


fundamental A’s of New Public Management? (2019)
(A) Agility
(B) Alertness, Accountability
(C) Alignment, Adaptability
(D) Authority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D only
(b) B and C only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) A and C only

19. Who among the following has coined the terms ‘The stick’, ‘The
deal’, ‘The kiss’, for influencing the decisions? (2019)
(a) E . E . Schattschneider
(b) Keith Boulding
(c) Robert Dahl
(d) Kate Millet
20. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer by using the
codes given below: (2019)

List I List II

(A)M.P. Follett 1. Garbage can Model

(B)Herbert Simon 2. Mixed scanning

(C)Michael D. Cohen 3. Psychological approach

(D)Amitai Etzioni 4. Rational approach

Code:
(a) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-1, (D)-4
(b) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-3, (D)-1
(c) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2
(d) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-1

21. Who called bureaucrats as ‘ruling servants’? (2019)


(a) F.M. Marx
(b) Martin Krygier
(c) Robert K. Merton
(d) Joseph La Palombara

22. Match List I with List II: (2019)

List I List II
Books Authors
(A)Policy Science (I)Robert
Dahl
(B)Principles of Public Administration (II) Herbert
Simon
(C)Administrative Behaviour: A Study of Decision (III) D. Lerner
Making Processes in Administrative Herald
Organisations Larswele
(D)The Science of Public Administration: Three (IV) W.F.
Problems Willoughb

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

23. The sequencing of communication process in organisation is:


(2019)
(a) Sender, message, receiver, encoding
(b) Message, channel, feedback, encoding
(c) Sender, encoding, decoding, receiver
(d) Sender, encoding, message, channel

24. In the two lists given below, List I provide the list of Approaches,
while List II indicates Characteristics. Match the two lists and
choose the correct answer from the given below: (2019)

List I List II
(Approach) (Characteristic)
(A)Ecological (i)Legal-Rational
(B)Decision-making (ii) Negative Feedback
(C)Bureaucratic (iii) Agraria-Industria
(D)General system (iv) Fact-value Propositio9n

(a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)


(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

25. L.D.White defines O & M as the ‘improvement of all aspects of


transacting business with special emphasis on: (2020)
(a) Organisation and efficiency
(b) Procedures and flow of business
(c) Organisation and command
(d) Procedures and relationships

26. Participatory management became popular during and after the


advent of: (2020)
(a) Scientific Management Theory
(b) Bureaucratic Theory
(c) Human Relations Theory
(d) Systems Theory

27. Which of the following factors impact on the extent of span of


control of a supervisor? (2020)
(A) Size of the organisation
(B) Diversification of functions
(C) Number of supervisors
(D) Personality of the supervisor
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)

28. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below: (2020)

List I List II
(Articles) (Provision)
(A)Edward (i)Comparative Administration
Weidner Group
(B)Martin Landau (ii) Mixed Scanning
(C)Amitai Etzioni (iii) Development
Administration
(D)Herbert Simon (iv) Rational Approach

Codes:
(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

29. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from
the codes given below: (2020)
Assertion (A): The traditional theory of motivation complements the
‘economic man’ concept given by F.W. Taylor.
Reason (R): Material rewards are incentives for members of
organizations to work harder for more material benefits.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

30. Who coined the famous acronym “POSDCORB”? (2020)


(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Mary P. Follett
(c) Gulick and Urwick
(d) Frederick Taylor

31. Who is called the father of ‘Comparative Public Administration’?


(2020)
(a) Edward Wiedner
(b) Fred Riggs
(c) Ferrel Heady
(d) Chester Barnard

32. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the “Human


Relations Theory”? (2020)
(a) Organization is to be viewed as a social system
(b) Workers are human beings with all humanly attributes
(c) Informal elements do not play an important role in the ov
organizational output
(d) Organization has social ethics, instead of individual ethics

33. Who said that “Public Administration is the accomplishment of


politically determined objectives”? (2020)
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) L. D . White
(c) Carson and Harris
(d) Dimock and Dimock

34. Which of the following are the advanced ideas of Mary Follett?
(2020)
(A) Functional Foremanship
(B) Constructive Conflict
(C) Zone of Acceptance
(D) Integration
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) B and D only

35. Patrick Dunleavy has enumerated which of the three key


components of New Public Management (NPM)? (2020)
(a) Disaggregation, competition and incentivisation
(b) Centralization, power and authority
(c) Bureaucratisation, rigidity and timidity
(d) Conservation, displacement of goals and conflict

36. Which of the following are the seminal works of Frederick W.


Taylor? (2020)
(A) Piece-Rate System
(B) On the Art of Cutting Metals
(C) Constructive conflict
(D) Shop Management
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) C and D only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) B, C and D only

37. Match List I with List II: (2020)

List I List II
(A)Frederick Taylor I.Functions of the
Executive
(B)Peter Drucker II.Mental Revolution
(C)Chester Bernard III. Management by
Objectives
(D)Abraham IV.Motivation
Maslow

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(b) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(c) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(d) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

38. Arrange the ‘Evolutionary Phases of Public Administration’ in


ascending order (2020)
(A) Principles of Administration
(B) Politics-Administration Dichotomy
(C) Era of Challenge
(D) Crisis of Identity
(E) Public Policy Perspective
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, A, C, D, E
(c) C, A, B, E, D
(d) D, B, E, A, C

39. In his ‘Principles of administration’, Pfiffner did not include (2020)


(a) Material and supply
(b) Functions and powers of local authorities
(c) Methods and procedure
(d) Administrative accountability

40. ‘Public Choice Approach’ to public administration came into


existence in the: (2020)
(a) 1890s
(b) 1920s
(c) 1940s
(d) 1960s

41. What was the name of the section which replaced Comparative
Administration Group of the American Society of Public
Administration? (2020)
(a) Section of American Public Administration (SAP)
(b) Section on Comparative Administration (SCA)
(c) Section on International Public Administration (SIP)
(d) Section on International and Comparative Public Administration (S

42. Domicile qualification for public appointments was first used in:
(2020)
(a) the U.K.
(b) the U.S.A .
(c) India
(d) Australia

43. The behaviour characteristic of SALA official is: (2020)


(a) Efficiency
(b) Self-aggrondizement
(c) Social welfare
(d) Interest towards clients

44. Which one of the following is not included in the elements of Public
Policy by Austin Rammey ? (2020)
(a) A set of objectives
(b) A selected line of action
(c) An implementation of intent
(d) Reconsideration of objectives

45. The main focus of Comparative Public Administration is: (2020)


(a) Administrative hierarchy
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) People-centric administration
(d) Leadership styles

46. Rensis Likert has identified four systems of management on the


basis of nature of authority and control of organization. Arrange in
ascending order of efficiency (2021)
(A) Benevolent-Authority
(B) Consultative Leadership
(C) Participative
(D) Exploitative Authoritative
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) D, A, B, C
(c) C, B, A, D
(d) B, A, C, D

47. The essence of the “Hawthorne Experiments” conducted by Elton


Mayo, lies in which of the following? (2021)
(A) Great Illumination Experiment
(B) Art of Cutting Metals
(C) Human Attitudes and Sentiments
(D) Bank Wiring Experiment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A and C only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) Band D only

48. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer by
using the codes given below: (2021)
Assertion (A): “Both staff and auxiliary agencies assist the line
agencies but are distinct from each other”.
Reason (R): “Auxiliary agencies have no operating responsibilities”.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

49. Assheton committee (1944) did not include one of the following in
the objects of training of civil servants: (2021)
(a) To produce reliable work-skill
(b) Flexibility
(c) To broaden the mind of the trainee
(d) To develop leadership qualities
50. Which one of the following is not a feature of new public
management ? (2021)
(a) Focus on policy
(b) Cost-cutting
(c) Emphasis on output targets and limited term contracts.
(d) Focus on management.

Answer Key

1. 9. 17. 25. 33. 41. 49.


(c) (d) (c) (d) (a) (d) (d)
2. 10. 18. 26. 34. 42. 50.
(b) (d) (c) (c) (d) (b) (a)
3. 11. 19. 27. 35.
43. (b)
(a) (b) (b) (d) (a)
4. 12. 20. 28. 36.
44. (d)
(a) (c) (c) (c) (c)
5. 13. 21. 29. 37.
45. (b)
(b) (d) (c) (c) (c)
6. 14. 22. 30. 38.
46. (b)
(c) (c) (b) (c) (b)
7. 15. 23. 31. 39.
47. (c)
(d) (c) (d) (b) (b)
8. 16. 24. 32. 40.
48. (c)
(b) (b) (b) (c) (d)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. According to Blau and Scott, there are four types of organisations based
on cui bono or ‹who benefits› model. These are:
1. Mutual Benefit Association

2. Business Organization

3. Service Organization

4. Commonweal

Hence, the answer will be C.

2. UNDP added the terms integrity and transparency to the Klitgaar


Formula for corruption. The Klitgaard Formula is an equation to define
corruption.
Hence, the answer will be B.

9. Herzberg’s Motivation Theory model, or Two Factor Theory, provides tw


factors that affect motivation in the workplace. These factors are hygien
factors and motivating factors. Hygiene factors will cause an employee t
work less if not present. Motivating factors will encourage an employe
to work harder if present.
Hence, the correct answer will be D.

10. Circular response rests upon the theory that the unit of social analysis
is the pattern of relations between actors, conceived as a single
situation produced by a union of their interests.

19. Keith Boulding coined the term ‘The stick’, ‘The deal’, ‘The kiss’ to
describe the decision making process. Boulding describes decision-
making requires or influenced by three ways- the stick (coercion), the
deal (negotiations and mutual agreements), and the kiss (loyalty or
commitment to individual).

21. Bureaucrats sometimes regarded as power managers of the


government. JS mill called bureaucracy as ruling class of elites. Robert
King Merton called bureaucrats as ruling servants as they provided with
tasks on the behalf of the clients that is citizens.

24.

Weber identified in bureaucracies a rational-legal authority


Herbert Simon’s decision-making model proposed a choice between
alternative plans of action & choice in turn, involves facts & values.
Fred Riggs’s ecological approach described Agraria-Industria Model

Thus, option B is the correct answer.

26. Participatory management is the practice of empowering members of a


group, such as employees of a company or citizens of a community, to
participate in organizational decision making. This practice became
popular during and after the advent of Human Relations Theory.
Hence, the correct answer will be C.

39. Piffner defined administration as the ‘organization and direction of


human and material resources to achieve desired ends. Thus, it
becomes clear that administration is essentially a group activity which
involves cooperation and co-ordination to achieve desired goals’.

41. Comparative administration group was established in 1960 as a section


of the American Society of Public administration to encourage research
and teaching in Comparative public administration. In 1973
Comparative administration group was replaced by a new section on
International and Comparative Public Administration.

42. Domicile qualification for public appointments was first used by USA to
maintain federal structure of the US polity. Domicile means a person
record of his current residence. When countries are federating or
divided into states which follows two legal systems then citizenship will
be different. For example, one is citizen of India and domicile in Delhi.

43. In Riggs, prismatic society model administrative sub-system is called


‘Sala Model’. In which family welfare, nepotism, and favouritism play a
important role in making appointments to various administrative
positions and in performances of various administrative functions. In
prismatic society there is disregard to universalization of law.

45. The main focus of Comparative Public Administration is understanding


and researching about functioning of bureaucracy and administrative
systems in different socio-economic set-ups.
Hence, the answer will be B.

49. Assheton Committee was formed in UK on the Training of civil servants


in 1944. The objects of training civil servants includes producing civil
servants with precision and clarity, impart abilities to be flexible in the
changing world, and explaining civil servants national objectives to
broaden their visions and broadens their outlooks.
UNIT X
Governance and Public Policy in
India

Chapter 1: Governance and Good Governance


Chapter 2: Accountability and Control in India
Chapter 3: Institutional Mechanisms for Good Governance
Chapter 4: Grassroots Governance in India
Chapter 5: Planning and Development in India
Chapter 6: Public Policy as an Instrument of Socio–Economic
Development
Chapter 7: Monitoring and Evaluation of Public Policy in India
CHAPTER 1
Governance and Good Governance

INTRODUCTION
Governance is defined as the creation and administration of formal and
informal rules that govern the public realm, which is the arena in which state,
economic, and societal actors interact to make decisions.
Governance is more than just rule or administration. It has a broader
connotation because it also emphasises the purpose. That is, unlike public
administration, governance focuses not only on the structure and activities of
the organisation, but also on its goals, aims, and purpose of formation.
Governance as a whole is supported by ‘participatory democracy’ and
‘neoliberal reforms’ that brought about a shift in public administration. In the
age of globalisation, the transition from government to governance shows a
shift from coordinated hierarchical institutions and processes of social steering
to a network-based process of interchange and negotiation.

GOOD GOVERNANCE
In 1989, the concept of ‘Governance’ was first highlighted in the World Bank
document on Sub-Saharan Africa titled “Sub-Saharan Africa: From Crises to
Sustainable Growth”. Good Governance was meant, at that time, sound
development management.
In the 1992 report entitled “Governance and Development”, the World
Bank defined Good Governance. It defined Good Governance as “the manner
in which power is exercised in the management of a country’s economic and
social resources for development”.
According to the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), there
are eight core characteristics of good governance:
1. Participation: Participation of all sections of society is essential to
good governance; participatory governance allows citizens to
participate in government decision-making, implementation, and
monitoring.
2. Consensus-driven: Good governance necessitates the mediation
of many societal interests in order to create a wide consensus on what
is in the best interests of the entire society and how to achieve it. It
also demands a wide and long-term view of what is required for long-
term human development and how to achieve such goals.
3. Rule of Law: Fair legal frameworks that are impartially applied are
required for good governance. It also necessitates complete protection
of human rights, especially those of minorities and vulnerable people
in society.
4. Transparency:

Transparency implies that decisions are made and enforced in


compliance with laws and regulations, and that information is
publicly available in clearly intelligible formats to people who will be
influenced by such decisions and their implementation.
It also entails that sufficient information is presented in easily
understood formats and mediums.
In India, for example, the Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a
significant instrument in the hands of citizens to ensure transparency
in the executive decision-making process.

5. Accountable: Accountability is the acknowledgment and admission


of responsibility for one’s behavior, products, decisions, and policies.
Accountability encompasses answerability, redress, and system
improvement. Accountability cannot be implemented without
transparency and the rule of law.
6. Responsive: Institutions and procedures must aim to serve all
stakeholders in a timely manner in order to be considered good
governance.
Citizen grievance resolution, citizen orientation, citizen
friendliness, and timely service delivery are all important
aspects of responsive governance.
7. Efficient and effective: Processes and institutions that produce
results that make the best use of the resources at their disposal are
examples of good governance. As a result, it also concerns natural
resource sustainability and environmental conservation.
8. Inclusive and equitable: A society’s well-being is based on all of
its members believing they have a stake in it and do not feel excluded
from society’s mainstream. This entails giving all groups, particularly
the most disadvantaged, an opportunity to enhance or preserve their
well-being.

GOOD GOVERNANCE IN INDIA


The traces of governance and particularly good governance can be found in
ancient India. The Bhagavad Gita has several indications for effective
government, leadership, dutifulness, and self-realization that have been re-
interpreted for the present environment. Even during Chanakya’s time, the
concept of good governance existed. He elaborated on it in Arthashastra that
the citizens-centered administration is the bedrock of successful governance.
While Su-raj, or good government, was emphasized by Mahatma Gandhi.
The term governance gained popularity in India with the liberalization of
the Indian economy in 1991. The Ninth Five Year Plan (1997–2002)
document, which was launched in April 1999, includes a Chapter on
“Implementation, Delivery Mechanism, and Institutional Development.” This
was followed by a more explicit chapter in the Tenth Five Year Plan titled
“Governance and Implementation” (2002–2007).
The Eleventh Plan (2007–2012) lays out six criteria for Governance:

1. Elections to all spheres of political authority must be free, fair, and o


time.
2. Transparency and accountability of all state institutions to citizens
3. Delivery of socioeconomic public services that is efficient and
effective.
4. Devolution of authority, resources, and capabilities to PRIs and
municipalities that is effective.
5. Rule of law means that legal rights are clear and understood, and that
legal compliance and enforcement of those rights is time-bound and
swift.
6. Needs and interests of previously excluded sections of society are
privileged and included in a dignified manner.
Good governance was defined as a vital component of any well-
functioning society in the twelfth five-year plan (2012–2017).

ROLE OF STATE IN GOOD GOVERNANCE


The state is made up of various government organs (Legislature, Judiciary,
and Executive) as well as their instruments, independent accountability
mechanisms, and so on. It also comprises a wide range of actors (elective
representatives, political executives, bureaucracies/civil authorities of various
levels, and so on).
Initiatives for Good Governance in India
1. Decentralization and People’s Participation: 73rd and 74th
Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. Developing programs for weaker sections and backward
areas: Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (86th Amendment Act), Mid-day meal
scheme, MGNREGA, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, Ayushman
Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Awas
Yojana, etc
3. Simplification of procedures and processes: The Central
Government has scrapped nearly 1,500 obsolete rules and laws with
an aim to bring about transparency and improve efficiency.
4. Citizen’s Charters: In India, the concept of citizen’s charter was
first adopted at a ‘Conference of Chief Ministers of various States and
Union Territories’ held in May 1997 in the national capital.
5. Sevottam Model: Sevottam Model is a model proposed by 2nd
ARC (Administrative Reforms Commission) for Public Service
Delivery.
6. Redress of Citizen’s Grievances: Ombudsman, Lokpal and
Lokayukta, Department of Administrative Reforms and Public
Grievances, E-Nivaran, etc
7. E-Governance and use of ICT tools: Programs launched under
e-Governance such as Pro-active Governance and Timely
Implementation (PRAGATI), Digital India Program, MCA21, Passport
Seva Kendra (PSK), online Income tax return, etc. Focus on ‘Minimum
Government, Maximum Governance’.
8. Public service morale and anti-corruption measures:
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, The Prevention of Money
Laundering Act, 2002, The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act,
2010, Model Police Act of 2015, etc
9. Right to Information: RTI Act, 2005 marks a significant shift in
Indian democracy. The right to information promotes openness,
transparency, and accountability in administration by making the
government more open to public scrutiny.
10. Social Audits: Social Audit is the audit of a scheme jointly by the
Government and the people, especially by those who are affected by
the scheme or its beneficiaries. MGREGA was the first Act to mandate
Social Audit by the Gram Sabha and in other programs, including
National Social Assistance Programme, Mid-day Meal Scheme, The
Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 Distribution System, etc.
11. Good Governance Index - It launched on Good Governance day
on 25 dec, 2019: a platform that is provided where by various states
compete with each other that who has implemented or estb. principles
of good governance in their administration better

ROLE OF CIVIL SOCIETY IN GOOD GOVERNANCE


Civil society is considered the third sector of society and the most diversified
and according to the World Economic Forum, civil society is the “region
outside the family, market, and state”. Civil Society refers to a wide array of
organizations, community groups, non-governmental organizations (NGOs),
labour unions, indigenous groups, charitable organizations, faith-based
organizations, professional associations and foundations.
Citizens all around the world had migrated away from political parties and
trade unions and towards ‘newer’ ways of expression such as social
movements, informal citizen groups, and non-governmental organisations.
Many classical liberal theorists such as Hegel, Marx, Alexis de
Tocqueville, Ferdinand Tonnies, and others promoted the role of civil society
in society. Robert Putnam emphasised the role of such non-political
organisations essential for democracy. On the contrary, Partha Chatterjee
believes that the scope of ‘civil society is demographically limited’.
By the late 1970s, the fall of all institutions in India had given rise to a
number of mass-based political movements and grassroots action. Here are
the few civil society led initiative in India:

1. Chipko Movement: It was started by Sunderlal Bahuguna in th


Garhwal forests, Uttarakhand in 1973.
2. Narmada Bachao Andolan: Medha Patkar and Baba Amte got
the Right Livelihood Award in 1991 for their contributions.
3. Right to Information: The Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan
(MKSS) spearheaded the right to information movement in Rajasthan.
4. LGBT Rights: Supreme Court declared Section 377 of IPC null and
void. Several organisations, including the Naz Foundation, Ondede,
the National AIDS Control Organization, and others made important
contributions.
5. Child trafficking: Bachpan Bachao Andolan founded by Kailash
Satyarthi received Noble Peace Prize in 2014.
6. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace 2013:
Vishakha and others versus State of Rajasthan
7. Disclosure of Candidate Background (Criminal,
Educational, and Financial) to Election Commission
2003: ADR’s December 1999 petition culminated in a momentous
Supreme Court decision.
8. The Supreme Court’s NOTA Decision 2013: Both PUCL and
ADR were instrumental in adding the NOTA button into EVM machines
for the first time during the 2014 Lok Sabha elections.
9. VVPAT (Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail): People’s Union for Civil
Liberties vs. Union of India lawsuit 2013.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Arrange the following in an ascending chronological order:
A. Right to Education Act

B. Consumer Protection (Amendment) Act

C. Food Security Act


D. Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (B), (C), (D) and (A)
(b) (B), (A), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (C), (D) and (B)
(d) (C), (A), (D) and (B)

2. In which report World Bank defined Good Governance?


(a) Good Governance Report
(b) Governance and Development Report
(c) Government and Governance Report
(d) Governance Report

3. Which of the following is not a core characteristic of Good Governance?


(a) Exclusive and equitable
(b) Consensus-driven
(c) Responsive
(d) Transparency

4. The report ‘Right to Information: Master key to Good Governance’ wa


submitted by:
(a) The Sarkaria Commission
(b) Punchhi Commission
(c) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

5. Consider the following statement regarding the Civil Societies an


choose the wrong one.
(a) Civil society forms the backbone of democracy.
(b) Civil society is the region outside the family, market, and state.
(c) Civil society is considered as the third sector of society.
(d) Civil society includes bureaucracy, civil authorities, corporations etc

6. The VVPAT (Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail) was used for election the
first in India in?
(a) Bye election in Noksen Assembly Seat, Nagaland
(b) State Elections in Goa
(c) Lok Sabha Election in 2014
(d) Indian President Election in 2012

7. Which of the following statements are true about the concept o


governance?
A. It does not simply mean ‘rule’ or ‘administration’.

B. It has a specific meaning in the context of globalisation.


C. It is the manner in which power is exercised.
D. Governance and government are the same thing.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A, B and c only
(c) A, B, C, D
(d) B, C, D only

8. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and th
other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The idea of ‘governance’ gained in prominence by
connoting a plurality of rules in place of the states’ monopoly.
Reasons (R): The idea of governance owes its origin to the World
Bank.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

9. The Good Governance Index is prepared by?


(a) NITI Aayog
(b) United Nations Development Programme
(c) Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

10. Match the following

1. VVPAT 1. Association of Democratic


Reforms
2. Disclosure of Candidate 2. Naz Foundation
Background

3. LGBT Rights c.People’s Union for Civil Libertie

4. Chipko Movement d.Sunder Lal Bahuguna

(a) 1c, 2a, 3b, 4d


(b) 1b, 2a, 3c, 4d
(c) 1a, 2b, 3c, 4d
(d) 1b, 2c, 3a, 4d

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (c) (a)
2. 4.
6. (a)
(b) (d)
CHAPTER 2
Accountability and Control in
India

INTRODUCTION
Accountability may refer to the legal and hierarchical views of
responsibility. It denotes specifically as the process of checking
whether actions are being taken as planned.

Vertical vs Horizontal Accountability


Vertical Accountability refers to the ability of a state’s population to hold
its government accountable through elections and political parties.
Horizontal accountability refers to the intra-governmental control
mechanism between the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary and
different sub-entities of the executive including cabinet, ministries and
lower level administrative departments.

ROLE OF CHECK AND BALANCE FOR GOOD


GOVERNANCE
Checks and balances refer to a system of government in which power
is divided between different branches, or parts, of the government. The
idea is that the branches will then be able to check and balance each
other so that no part of the government can become too powerful.
The Indian Constitution has no explicit provision for separation of
powers of organs: Legislative, Executive, and Judiciary. To avoid
supremacy of any organ and prevent abuse of power by it, there exists
a scheme of checks and balances.

CHECKS AND BALANCES –


CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS
The Constitution of India does not accept the principle of strict
separation of powers, rather it is based on the principle of ‘checks and
balance’.

Table 2.1 Articles related to Check and Balance

Article Provision
Article 13(2) Judiciary can review any legislative law made
by the Parliament.
Article 32 and 226 The Supreme Court and the High Court’s issue
writs to hold the executive and legislature
accountable.
Article 61 Impeachment of President.
Article 75 and 164 Council of Ministers responsible to Lok Sabha
and State Legislative Assembly, respectively.
Article 81 Disqualification of Members of Parliament.
Article 124 and Lay down the procedure for impeachment of
218 judges of the Supreme Court and High Court.
Article 148 Comptroller and Auditor General of India
appointed by the President is responsible for
auditing the finances made by the executive to
Parliament.

LEGISLATIVE CONTROL OVER EXECUTIVE


IN INDIA (ART. 61, 75, 148)
Executive accountability is enforced by means of various controls. The
purpose of control is to ensure that public servants exercise their
discretion and power in accordance with laws and regulations. Public
opinion, professional standards, ethics and the nature of the society all
influence administration in varying ways, capacities and exercise
control over it.

Administrative and Budgetary Control


When a law is enacted in Parliament, the government must
explain all of its provisions and respond to queries from MPs. As
a result, it prohibits the executive from taking arbitrary actions.
Legislature outsource the law-making work (partially) to the
executives (Bureaucrats), this is known as Delegated Legislation
/ Subordinate legislation.
In effect of this, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha advocated the
idea of Legislative Impact Assessment which is the study of the
impact of a law (being made and enforced) on the society over a
period of time.
Article 75 clearly states that the Council of Ministers is
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Article 75 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It
states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the
President, which means that the President can remove a
minister even at a time when the COM enjoys the confidence of
the Lok Sabha.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) on behalf of
the Parliament audits the accounts of government and submits
an annual report about the financial transactions of the
government.

Executive Control Over Administration:

Budgetary Control: Executive formulates the budget, gets


it enacted by the Parliament and allocates the fund for the
administration agencies to meet their expenditure. However,
Ministry of Finance exercises financial control over
administration in following ways:
Approval of policies and programmes in principle
Acceptance of provision in the budget estimates
Sanctioning expenditure subject to the power which are
delegated
Providing financial advice through the integrated financial
advisor.
Re-appropriation of grants
Internal audit system
Policy Making
Appointments and Removal
Delegated Legislation: Also known as Executive
Legislations
Ordinances: The Constitution authorises the top executive
President to issue an ordinance which is as powerful as an
act of Parliament.

Budgetary Control
This is the most important technique of parliamentary control over
administration by which the Parliament controls the revenues and
expenditure of the Government funds. It can criticise the policies and
actions of the government and point out the lapse and failures of
administration during the process of enactment of the budget. Unless
the Appropriation Bill and the Financial Bill are passed, the executive
can’t incur expenditures and collect taxes respectively.

Control Through Parliamentary Committees


A parliamentary committee is appointed or elected by the house or
nominated by the Speaker or Chairman. It works under the direction of
the speaker or chairman. It presents its report to the house or to the
speaker or chairman.
Public Accounts Committee: It examines the
government’s yearly reports and the Comptroller and Auditor
General’s reports, which are brought before parliament by the
President. It was set up in 1921. It consists of 22 members (15
from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha)
Estimates Committee: It evaluates the government’s
planned expenditure estimates in the budget and offers
“economies” in government spending. All the 30 members are
from Lok sabha only.
Committee on Public Undertakings: It evaluates public
undertakings’ reports and accounts. It consists of 22 members
(15 from Lok Sabha 7 from Rajya Sabha )
Committee on Government Assurance: When a minister
makes a promise, assures or takes an undertaking in the Lok
Sabha, this committee investigates the extent to which those
promises, assurances, and undertakings were carried out. It has
15 Lok Sabha members and 10 Rajya Sabha members.
Committee on Subordinate Legislation: It examines
whether the executive branch is properly exercising its rights to
make regulations, rules, sub-rules, and bye-laws that have been
delegated by Parliament or bestowed by the Constitution. The
committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.
Committee on Papers Laid on the Table: When
ministers place any paper on the table, this committee examines
it for credibility and to see if it complies with the constitution’s
provisions. It has 15 Lok Sabha members and 10 Rajya Sabha
members.

JUDICIAL CONTROL OVER LEGISLATURE


Judicial Review: Judiciary can strike down legislation which
are ultra vires of the constitution using the doctrine of judicial
review For example, Section 66 A of the IT Act was struck down
to protect its misuse.
The constitution bars legislators to discuss the conduct of the
judges in parliament and assembly.

JUDICIAL CONTROL OVER EXECUTIVE


Control through writs : The Constitution provides for Article
13, 32, and 226 which implicitly mention the doctrine of judicial
review allowing the Supreme Court to strike any delegated
legislation by the executive.
The executive actions must remain within the framework of the
constitution and the Judiciary ensures that the rights of
individuals are protected.
Suits against public officials: In India, the President and
Governors are immune from legal liability for their official
actions. Under the Judicial Officer Protection Act of 1850, the
judicial can’t be sued. The Civil Servants are conferred personal
immunity from legal liability for their official contracts actions by
Article 299 of the Constitution.
Suits against Government: Article 300, the State is
suable in contracts.

ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMS IN INDIA


The Secretariat Reorganization Committee, 1947:
Sir Girja Shankar Bajpai – Head
To investigate the question of personal shortage, better
utilisation of the available manpower and improvements of
methods of work in the Central Secretariat.
The Economic Committee, 1948
Kasturibhai Lalbhai – Head
To review the increase in the Civil expenditure of the central
government since 1938–39.
Recommended the setting up of a Planning Commission of not
more than three persons for advising the government on
coordination of effort and relative priority.
Emphasized the need for training of public servants to improve
efficiency.
The Ayyangar Committee, 1949
N Gopalswami Ayyangar – Head
To reorganise the ministries grouped in four bureax and please
a limit on the number of departments in the ministries.
Each ministry have three categories of ministers – a Cabinet
Minister, a Minister of State, a Deputy Minister.
Gorwala Report, 1951
AD Gorwala – Head
Submitted two reports – Report on public administration that
was general in nature and report on efficient conduct of state
enterprises.
The Appleby Report, 1953 and 1956
Paul Appleby
Recommended structural changes through the creation of
middle level functionaries, personal development training
programs and O and M (Organisation and Methods) in the
Government of India.
The Administrative Reform Commission,1966 and
2005

ARC Report is published by the Administrative Reforms Commission


for public administration, effective governance. Mainly there are two
ARC reports, the first ARC report (published by the 1st ARC started in
1966) and the second ARC report (published by the 2nd ARC set up in
2005).

1ST ARC (5TH JAN, 1966)


In the beginning, in 1st ARC, Morarji Desai managed the ARC,
but after he got appointed as India’s Deputy Prime Minister, K.
Hanumanthaiah managed it as the chairperson.
Tasked with looking at the need to ensure the efficiency of the
government’s administrative structure.
Instructed to make public administration a fundamental
component of implementing the country’s socio-economic
policies and goals for growth.
The key areas which were asked to be looked upon by the first
ARC are
Centre-State Relation
Financial, Personnel, District, Agricultural and Economic
administration
Government machinery, and its procedure
Planning system at every level
State-level administration
Citizen grievances redressal problems

MAJOR RECOMMENDATIONS OF 1ST ARC


The ARC recommended that the maximum number of ministers
in the Union Cabinet should be 16 including the Prime Minister.
The strength of the Council of Ministers should normally be 40,
and should not exceed 45 in any case. Each department should
be represented in the cabinet by one or other Cabinet Minister.
The Prime Minister should be given institutional support in the
form of Deputy Prime Minister for ensuring efficient and effective
functioning of the governmental machinery.
The role of Cabinet Secretary is of a coordinator, principal staff
adviser of the Prime Minister sub-committees on important
policy matter. The Cabinet Secretary should have a tenure of 3
to 4 years.
There should be only two levels of consideration below the
Ministry, i.e. under secretary and joint secretary, additional
secretary. Work should be assigned to each of these two levels
on the basis of Desk Officer System.
Each ministry or major administrative department should be
assisted by Policy Advisory Committee changed with the
responsibility of considering all important issue of long-term
policy.
The commission recommended for a unified grading structure,
for purpose of pay.
The ARC held that in making appointment into State Public
Service Commission, the Governor should consult the Chairman
of the UPSC as well as the Chairman of the State Public Service
Commission.
The ARC viewed training as an investment in human resources
and stressed the need for enunciating a national policy on civil
service training.
The ARC recommended the establishment of Civil Service
Tribunal for hearing appeals from government employees
against major punishments.
It looked at the Indian Administrative Service as an
indispensable one.

2ND ARC (31 AUG, 2005)


Initially, Veerappa Moily managed the commission as the
chairperson. However, after his resignation in 2009, V.
Ramachandran took responsibility as the new chairperson.
Tasked with recommending methods to achieve a responsible,
powerful, capable, and productive administration at all levels of
government for India.
The key areas which were asked to be looked upon by the
second ARC are
Enhancing financial management system
Modernizing personnel administration
Measures to ensure powerful State and District administration
Disaster Management
Supporting E-Governance
Good conduct in the administration
The regulatory structure of the Indian Government, etc.

MAJOR RECOMMENDATIONS OF 2ND ARC


On the reports it produced, the commission offered about 1500
recommendations. The majority of the suggestions were aimed
at state governments.
The second ARC presented the following 15 Reports to the
Government for consideration:

Table 2.2 List of Reports by 2nd ARC

Report Topic Key highlights


First Report Right to Information Master key to good
governance
Second Unlocking human capital Entitlements and
Report governance- a case study
Third Crisis Management From despair to hope
Report
Fourth Ethics in Governance
Report
Fifth Report Public Order Justice for all, Peace for
all
Sixth Local Governance
Report
Seventh Capacity Building for Friction to fusion
Report Conflict Resolution
Eighth Combatting Terrorism Protecting by
Report righteousness
Ninth Social Capital A shared destiny
Report
Tenth Refurbishing of Personnel Scaling new heights
Report Adminstration
Report Topic Key highlights
Eleventh Promoting e Governance
Report
Twelfth Citizen Centric The heart of governance
Report Administration
Thirteenth Organisational Structure
Report of Government of India
Fourteenth Strengthening Financial
Report Management Systems
Fifteenth State and District
Report Administration

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following
Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the house
whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws
etc. delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised b
the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee

2. The power of judicial review means:


(a) The power of the courts to define and interpret the constitutio
(b) The power of the courts to declare null and void any legislativ
executive act, which is against the provisions of the Constitut
(c) The power of the judiciary to define and interpret laws
(d) The power of the courts to legislate when there is no statu
provision
3. Which of the following is NOT correct?
(a) The Secretariat Reorganization Committee, 1947: Sir G
Shankar Bajpai
(b) The Economic Committee, 1948: Kasturibhai Lalbhai
(c) The Ayyangar Committee, 1949: N Gopalswami Ayyangar
(d) Gorwala Report, 1951: Paul Appleby

4. Which of the following is NOT a technique of judicial control i


India?
(a) Judicial Review
(b) Writs
(c) Suing under article 299 and 300
(d) Budgetary Control

5. Which of the following is/are among the 15 reports presented b


2nd ARC?
(a) Ethics in Governance
(b) Local Governance
(c) Citizen Centric Administration
(d) All of the above

6. Which commission recommended that the maximum number o


ministers in the Union Cabinet should be 16 including the Prime
Minister?
(a) First ARC
(b) Second ARC
(c) Appleby Report
(d) Gorwala Report

7. The Writs can be issued by the Supreme Court under


(a) Article 13
(b) Article 32
(c) Article 226
(d) Article 300

8. How many members are there in Estimates Committee?


(a) 25
(b) 27
(c) 30
(d) 22

9. Intra-governmental control mechanism between the Legislature


Executive and Judiciary is :
(a) Vertical Accountability
(b) Horizontal Accountability
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

10. Which of the following is correct?


Statement I: Unless the Appropriation Bill and the Financial
Bill are passed, the executive can’t incur expenditures and collect
taxes respectively.
Statement II: Budgetary Control is the most important
technique of parliamentary control over administration
(a) Both Statements are correct and Statement I is the co
explanation of Statement II.
(b) Both Statements are correct and Statement I is not the co
explanation of Statement II.
(c) Statement II is true but Statement I is not correct.
(d) Both Statements are not correct.

11. Public Accounts Committee was set up in


(a) 1920
(b) 1921
(c) 1947
(d) 1950

12. Judicial Review is considered in Article?


(a) 32
(b) 226
(c) 13
(d) 300

13. Which among the following has NOT 15 members from Lok
Sabha?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Committee on Government Assurances

14. Initially, who was the chairperson of 2nd ARC?


(a) Morarji Desai
(b) K Hanumanthai
(c) Veerappa Moily
(d) V Ramchandran

15. Who submits the annual report of government transactions?


(a) Comptroller and Auditor General
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Financial Secretary
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.
(b) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11. 13.
(b) (d) (c) (b) (b)
3. 6.
9. (b)
(d) (a)
CHAPTER 3
Institutional Mechanisms for Good
Governance

INTRODUCTION
In a volatile and competitive international environment, good governance
reflects competent administration and the protection of public resources.
The link between inputs and outputs is the key to effective and efficient
resource utilization. To maximize organizational performance in terms of
good governance, the best institutional processes, such as accountability,
leadership, the establishment of defined operational principles, and the
standard of control systems, should be improved.

RIGHT TO INFORMATION
According to the Indian Constitution, every individual has the right to share
his or her personal opinions with others and to express their own opinions
on any topic. Large democracies such as India are strengthened and
developed in a citizen-centered manner through the provision of right to
information.
Meaning of Right to Information: According to Right to Information, or
RTI, any Indian citizen may ask for any information from State or Central
Government agencies and departments that is regarded as public
information.
The Right to Information Act of 2005 was put into effect by the Indian
Parliament in response to this idea, strengthening Indian democracy and
bringing openness to government.

Evolution of RTI in India


The first indication of the change in this area was the case of “State of Uttar
Pradesh vs. Raj Narayan” in early 1975. The case was heard in the
Supreme Court, and the court made arrangements in its order to make
public the details of public works done by public authorities.
The movement in India to pass such legislation began in 1987 when
some labourers in Rajasthan were denied wages due to poor performance.
The recommendation was later upheld by the “Second Administrative
Commission,” which was established in 2006 under the leadership of
Veerappa Molly.
2002 saw the passage of the “Freedom of Information Bill” by
Parliament,which was eventually transformed into the Right to Information
Act in 2005. The Right to Information has been added to the scope of
freedom of expression granted to citizens under Article 19-1 (a) of the
Indian Constitution.

Important Information About RTI Act


Any Indian citizen may seek information from any government agency in
accordance with the requirements of this Act, and provisions have been
established to deliver this information within 30 days. There is a clause that
states that the requested information must be provided within 48 hours, if it
pertains to life and personal liberty.
By virtue of this Act, the Supreme Court, High Court, Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG), Election Commission, and their connected
positions, as well as the President, Vice President, Prime Minister,
Parliament, and State Legislatures, are also subject to the provisions of the
Constitution.
A provision has been created in this Act for the appointment of a Central
Chief Information Commissioner and a Central Information Commission
with a membership of 10 or fewer Information Commissioners. Additionally,
the state will establish a State Information Commission.

Act of 2019 to Amend the Right to Information


According to the Act, the Central Government shall choose the Chief
Information Commissioner and the other Information Commissioners’ terms
of office. Before this modification, he served for five years.

CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION


The Central Government has established the CIC in 2005 under the
provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). It is not a constitutionally
mandated body. Members include a Chief Information Commissioner and
up to ten Information Commissioners.
Appointment: They are appointed by the President based on the
recommendations of a committee chaired by the Prime Minister, the Leader
of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister
nominated by the Prime Minister.
Jurisdiction: The Commission has jurisdiction over all Central Public
Authorities.
Tenure: The Chief Information Commissioner and each Information
Commissioner shall serve for the term prescribed by the Central
Government or until they reach the age of 65, whichever comes first. They
are not eligible for reappointment.
CIC’s Authority and Functions: To receive and investigate any
complaint regarding information requested under RTI, 2005. If there are
reasonable grounds, it may order an investigation into any matter (suo-
moto power). During an investigation, the Commission has the authority of
a civil court in terms of summoning witnesses, requiring documents, and so
on.

CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT


Anyone who purchases products or services for their personal use falls
under the definition of a consumer under this act. The Consumer Act of
1986, whose primary provisions were designed to safeguard the rights and
interests of the populace, was put into effect by the Government of India to
safeguard citizens from consumer problems, i.e., business and industrialist
abuse.
To address consumer issues and associated ones, it stipulates the
creation of a consumer council. Within the context of consumer protection,
this is known as Megnacarta. This Act established Consumer Forum
(Consumer Forum Appellate Courts) in India.

Established CCPA: Central Consumer Protection Authority

an executive body under GOI


comes under section 10(1) of CPA 2019
Aims to protect consumer by - cracking down on unfair trade
practices and misleading advertisements
CCPA powers: to investigate or inquire, right to impose penalty
and reimbursement of price paid

2019 Consumer Protection Act


The new Consumer Protection Act 2019 went into effect on July 20, 2020,
and through its numerous declared rules and provisions, it will give
consumers more authority and assist them in protecting their rights. In
comparison to the outdated Consumer Protection Act of 1986, the new Act
will handle the actions more quickly and in a shorter amount of time.

CITIZEN’S CHARTER
Although John Major created the Citizen’s Charter in the UK for the first
time in 1991, the original ideas behind it date back to Margaret Thatcher’s
era (1979–1990).
Programs like Efficiency Scrutinizer (1979), Financial Management
Initiative (1982), and Next Steps Program were created by Margaret
Thatcher (1988). It was said regarding the Citizen’s Charter in the report of
the Second Administrative Reforms Commission that it is one of these
documents. Making any organization open, accountable, and citizen-
friendly is the goal of Citizen’s Charter.

CITIZEN’S CHARTER IN INDIA


The concept of citizen’s charter was first adopted at a ‘Conference of
Chief Ministers of various States and Union Territories’ held in May
1997 in Delhi.
The principle of citizen’s charter in India is borrowed from Britain.
The Right of Citizens for Time Bound Delivery of Goods and
Services and Redressal of their Grievances Bill, 2011 (Citizens
Charter) was introduced in the Lok Sabha in December 2011. This
bill never became an Act and lapsed due to the dissolution of the Lok
Sabha in 2014.
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
(DARPG) of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and
Pensions is nodal agency for Citizen Charter in India.
Principles of Citizen’s Charter
Six principles of the Citizen’s Charter movement as originally framed, were:

Figure 3.1 Principles of Citizen Charter

Quality - Improving the quality of services


Choice - For the users wherever possible
Standards - Specifying what to expect within a time frame
Value - For the taxpayers’ money
Accountability - Of the service provider (individual as well as
Organization)
Transparency - In rules, procedures, schemes and grievance
redressal
Participative- Consult and involve
2nd ARC recommendation for Citizen’s Charter
Recommendation for reforms in Citizen’s Charter in India.

i. One size does not fit all

ii. Citizen’s Charter should be prepared for each independent unit


under the overall umbrella of the organization’s charter
iii. Wide consultation which include civil society in the process
iv. Internal process and structure should be reformed to meet the
commitments given in the Charter.
v. Periodic evaluation of Citizen’s Charters
vi. Benchmark using end-user feedback
vii. Hold officers accountable for results

SEVOTTAM MODEL
Sevottam is a framework for achieving excellence in public service
delivery and was proposed by the 2nd Administrative Reforms
Commission (ARC).
Introduced by Department of Administrative Reforms and Public
Grievances (DARPG) in 2006.
Three component of Sevottam model :
Citizen’s Charter –Citizen input collection and setting the targets
according to requirement.
Grievance Redressal Mechanism – For satisfactory experience with
complaints’ response from the organisation.
Excellence in Service Delivery – Managing and improving
capabilities for service delivery.
Figure 3.2 Component of Sevottam Model

GRIEVANCE REDRESS SYSTEM IN INDIA


There are such entities in the government that look into and take action on
complaints of widespread wrongdoing in the way it runs.
For this reason, the Central Government also established the Public
Grievances Division, which is in charge of formulating policy directives,
coordinating, and overseeing public and staff grievances, particularly in
regard to matters pertaining to the redress of grievances within the Central
Government.

EVOLUTION OF THE LOKPAL SYSTEM IN INDIA


In 1809, the Institution of Ombudsman was inaugurated officially in
Sweden. In India, the concept of constitutional Ombudsman was first
proposed by the then law minister Ashok Kumar Sen in parliament in the
early 1960s. The term Lokpal and Lokayukta were coined by Dr. L. M.
Singhvi.
In 1966, the First ARC recommended the setting up of two
independent authorities.
In 1968, Lokpal bill was passed in Lok Sabha but lapsed with the
dissolution of Lok Sabha and since then it has lapsed in the Lok
Sabha many times.
In 2005, the Second ARC chaired by Veerappa Moily recommended
that the office of Lokpal should be established without delay.
In 2011, the government formed a Group of Ministers, chaired by
Pranab Mukherjee to suggest measures to tackle corruption and
examine the proposal of a Lokpal Bill.

“India Against Corruption movement” led by Anna Hazare put pressure


on the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government at the Centre and
resulted in the passing of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill, 2013, in both the
Houses of Parliament. It received assent from President on 1 January 2014
and came into force on 16 January 2014.

Structure of Lokpal (Section 3)


Lokpal is a multi-member body, that consists of one chairperson and a
maximum of 8 members. The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and
Members is 5 years or till the age of 70 years. The members are appointed
by the president on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.
The selection committee Lokpal is composed of the Prime Minister who
is the Chairperson, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition in Lok
Sabha, Chief Justice of India or a Judge nominated by him/her and one
eminent jurist.

Power of Lokpal (Section 14)


Investigations into corruption cases involving public officials are conducted
by Lokpal and Lokayukta. Its scope includes ministers, lawmakers, group A,
B, C, and D officers, as well as central government officers.
The Lokpal’s authority over the Prime Minister will be restricted to
claims of corruption unrelated to international relations, security, law, and
order, atomic energy, or space.
The Chief Minister has been retained under the Lokayukta’s scope in
the states of Himachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and
Gujarat, but not in those of Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
or Odisha.
Lokayukta in State
Section 63 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 states: “Every state
shall establish a body to be known as the Lokayukta for the State, if not so
established, constituted or appointed, by a law made by the State
Legislature”.
In 1971, Maharashtra passed the Lokayukta bill in its assembly
successfully. In 1972, Maharashtra became the first ever government in
India to establish the Lokayukta.
Lokpal and Lokayukta Act (2013) contains a mandate for setting up of
the institutions of Lokayukta through enactment of law by the State
Legislature within a period of 365 days from the date of commencement of
this Act.
Given that states have the authority to create their own laws, the
Lokayukta’s powers vary by state in terms of tenure and the need for
sanction to prosecute officials.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which among the following is not a part of selection committee fo
Lokayukta?
(a) Speaker of the Lower House
(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) Leaders of the Opposition
(d) Chief Minister

2. RTI Act 2005 came into force on


(a) 12 October 2005
(b) 10 October 2015
(c) 15 August 2005
(d) 15 June 2005.

3. How many types of Public Authorities are there under the RT


Regime?
(a) Central Authorities
(b) State Authorities
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

4. Right to Information is a facet of:


(a) Article 19(1) (a)
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 32
(d) None of the above

5. When was the consumer protection act 2019 ratified?


(a) August 9th, 2019
(b) August 7th, 2019
(c) August 10th, 2019
(d) August 9th, 2018

6. Which consumer right is not guaranteed under the consume


protection Act, of 2019?
(a) Right to choose
(b) Right to exploitation
(c) Right to be heard
(d) Right to seek redressal

7. Consider the following statement regarding the Lokpal:


A. Term of office for Lokpal Chairman and Members is 5 years.

B. Lokpal is appointed by President.

C. Other member of Lokpal are appointed by Prime Minister.


D. Lokpal body can only have judicial members.
Choose the incorrect answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D only
(b) C and D only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) All of the above

8. Name the committee which has investigated and submitted the repor
on the nexus of politicians and criminals.
(a) Gyan Prakash Committee
(b) Vohra Committee
(c) Goswami Committee
(d) Rajamannar Committee

9. The first Lokpal Bill was presented in the Parliament in __________.


(a) 1967
(b) 1971
(c) 1968
(d) 1972

10. The Lokayukta of the state submits its report to ___________.


(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chief Justice of the High Court
(c) Governor
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (c) (c)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(a) (a)
CHAPTER 4
Grassroots Governance in India

INTRODUCTION
Grassroot Governance is the essence of democracy. It is on
empowerment of people at the grassroot level. Grassroot democracy
aims at empowering the powerless and giving voice to voiceless. It is the
instrument for participatory democracy and decentralization at the
grassroots level. It acts as a vehicle of socio-economic transformation. As
a result, it is critical that these bodies be effective and act meaningfully. A
bottom-up strategy is required, rather than one in which individuals are
merely observers and total dependents.
The idea of Swaraj given by Gandhi; Radical Democracy given by M.
N. Roy and Antodaya given by Deendayal Upadhyaya are Indian
versions of Grassroot Democracy.

Advantages of Grassroot Governance:

Figure 4.1 Dimensions of Grassroot Governance


PANCHAYATI RAJ INSTITUTIONS IN INDIA
In the Indian context, the grassroots level is called the Panchayati Raj
System. Article 40 mentioned panchayats, and Article 246 authorises the
state assembly to legislate on any topic relevant to local self-government.
The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of rural local
self-government. It is entrusted with rural development. It was
constitutionalised through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of
1992.
There were a number of committees appointed by the Government of
India to study the implementation of self-government at the rural level and
also recommend steps in achieving this goal.
The following committees have been formed:
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957): It was established to
investigate the operation of the Community Development Programme
(1952) and the National Extension Service (1953).
It recommended the establishment of an organically linked three-
tier Panchayati raj system via an indirect election device

1. Village Panchayats: Directly elected


2. Panchayat Samiti: Indirectly elected
3. Zilla Parishad: Indirectly elected
These bodies should be given adequate resources to enable them
to carry out their activities and fulfill their responsibilities.
The executive body should be Panchayat Samiti, while the
advisory and supervisory body should be Zila Parishad.
The District Collector will be appointed as Chairman of the Zila
Parishad.
Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj.
The scheme was inaugurated by prime minister Jawaharlal Nehru
on October 2, 1959, in the Nagaur district.

Ashok Mehta Committee (1977): The Janata Government


established the Ashok Mehta Committee in 1977 to identify methods to
strengthen and revitalise the country’s ailing Panchayati Raj system. The
following were the key suggestions:
The three-tier Panchayati raj system should be replaced by a two-
tier structure of Zila Parishads (district level) and Mandal
Panchayats (a group of villages).
District as the first point for decentralisation under popular
supervision below the state level.
Nyaya panchayats should be treated separately from
development panchayats. A qualified judge should preside over
them.
Reservation of seats for SCs and STs based on population.
The PRIs should be granted constitutional legitimacy; this
will ensure their holiness and stature, as well as their continued
operation.

GVK Rao Committee (1985): The planning commission


appointed the committee in 1985. It acknowledged that bureaucratization
had prevented growth from reaching the grassroots level, leading people
to refer to Panchayat Raj institutions as “grass without roots.” Therefore,
it made the following important suggestions:
The committee was constituted to review the existing
“Administrative Arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty
Alleviation Programmes”.
The Zilla Parishad (District level body) should play a critical role in
the democratic decentralisation programme.
A District Development Commissioner position should be
established. He should serve as the Zilla Parishad’s main
executive officer and be in charge of all district-level development
divisions.
Elections to Panchayati Raj institutions are held on a regular basis.

L M Singhvi Committee (1986): The committee was established


in 1986 by the Indian government with the primary goal of making
recommendations for ‘revitalizing the Panchayati Raj systems for
democracy and development’. The committee recommended the
following things:
Constitutional recognition for the PRI with the inclusion of a new
chapter in the Indian Constitution.
Nyaya Panchayats should be established for a cluster of villages.
The importance of the Gram Sabha was emphasised by the
committee, which referred to it as the embodiment of direct
democracy.
The Village Panchayats should be given additional funding.
Judicial tribunals should be formed in each state to resolve
disputes over elections to Panchayati Raj institutions, their
dissolution, and other issues concerning their operation.

Thungon Committee (1988): In 1988, a sub-committee of the


Consultative Committee of Parliament was constituted under the
chairmanship of P.K Thungon to examine the political and administrative
structure in the district for the purpose of district planning. The committee
recommended the following things:
Panchayati Raj bodies should be constitutionally recognised.
PRIs should be organised in three levels, with panchayats at the
village, block, and district levels.
The Zilla Parishad should serve as the district’s planning and
development agency.
PRIs have a fixed tenure of five years.
A body’s super session should last no more than six months.
A thorough list of Panchayati Raj subjects should be compiled and
inserted into the Constitution.
Seats are reserved in all three divisions - SC, ST, and Women.
Each state should establish a state financial commission.
The Zilla Parishad’s chief executive officer is the district collector.

Gadgil Committee (1988): The committee on Policy and


Programmes was constituted by the Congress party under the
chairmanship of V.N. Gadgil to analyse the “how best Panchayati Raj
institution could be made effective”. The committee recommended the
following things:
Panchayati Raj institutions should be granted constitutional
legitimacy.
Panchayati Raj is a three-tiered structure with panchayats at the
village, block, and district levels.
Panchayati Raj institutions have a five-year term.
Direct elections for Panchayat members at all three levels.
Reservation in proportion to the population for SCs, STs, and
women.
Responsibility for developing and implementing socioeconomic
development strategies on PRIs.
PRIs should be given the authority to levy, collect, and appropriate
taxes and charges.
Establishment of a State Finance Commission to oversee the
distribution of funds to Panchayats.
Establishment of a State Election Commission for the conduct of
panchayat elections.

The above recommendation becomes the basis for drafting and


amending the bill.

STRUCTURE OF THE PANCHAYATI RAJ


SYSTEM
The structure of the Panchayat is developed as per the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. The Act adds Part IX, “The
Panchayats,” to the Constitution, as well as the Eleventh Schedule, which
contains the 29 functional items of the panchayats. Articles 243 to Article
243 O of the Constitution are found in Part IX.
The Act brings Panchayati Raj systems under the ambit of the
Constitution’s justiciable part and requires governments to implement the
system. The Act is divided into two sections: mandatory provisions and
voluntary provisions.
Gram Sabha: It is the basic unit of the democratic system. It will
consist of all the registered voters within the area of the panchayat.
Three-tier system: The Act provides for the establishment of the
three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in the states (village, intermediate,
and district level). States with a population of less than 20 lakhs may not
constitute the intermediate level.
Elections: The members to all the levels of the Panchayati Raj are
elected directly and the chairperson to the intermediate and the district
level is elected indirectly from the elected members. Seats at all levels to
be filled by direct elections.
Reservation: Seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and
Scheduled Tribes (STs) and the chairpersons of the Panchayats at all
levels also shall be reserved for SCs and STs in proportion to their
population.
One-third of the total number of seats to be reserved for women. One
third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs also reserved for women.
One-third offices of chairpersons at all levels reserved for women.
Term: Uniform five-year term and elections to constitute new bodies
to be completed before the expiry of the term. In the event of dissolution,
elections are compulsorily held within six months.
State Election Commission: Independent Election Commission
in each State for superintendence, direction, and control of the electoral
rolls.

POWERS AND FUNCTIONS


The state legislature may endow the Panchayats with such powers and
authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions
of self-government. Such a scheme may contain provisions related to
Gram Panchayat work with respect to:

1. the preparation of plans for economic development and socia


justice.
2. the implementation of schemes for economic development and
social justice as may be entrusted to them, including those in
relation to the 29 matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
GOVERNANCE INITIATIVES AND
DEVELOPMENT
Rashtriya Gram SwarajAbhiyaan (RGSA): Ministry’s umbrella
scheme towards developing and strengthening the capacities of
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for rural local governance to become
more responsive towards local development needs.
E-Gram Swaraj:

1. Physical Progress reports


2. Panchayat Accounting and Financial progress reports
3. Panchayat Development Plan reports

National Panchayat Awards: Incentivizing the best performing


Panchayats recommended by the State Governments/ UT
Administrations each year.
Vibrant Gram Sabha: Making Gram Sabha meetings more
participatory, transparent and vibrant

e-Panchayat Mission Mode Project:


Automation of internal workflow processes of Panchayats
Improving delivery of services to citizens
Capacity building of Panchayat Representatives and Officials
Social Audit
Transparency, Accountability, Efficiency and RTI compliance of I
Improving Governance of local self-government

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. How many posts are reserved for women at all levels in the
Panchayati raj system?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/2
(c) 2/3
(d) 1/4

2. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Systems) List-II (Articles


(a)Electoral system (i)243–243(O)
(b)Services under the Union and States (ii) 124–1
(c)Panchayats (iii) 324–3
(d)Judicial system at Union level (iv) 308–3

Choose the correct option from those given below:


(a) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
(b) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)
(c) (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv) ;(d)-(ii)
(d) (a)-(i);(b)-(ii);(c)-(iii);(d)-(iv)

3. The Three tier system of Panchayati raj was adopted by which state
for the first time?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Karnataka

4. Consider the following statements regarding the duration o


Panchayat:
i. The term of a Panchayat shall be for five years from the date o
being elected.
Ii. If it is dissolved earlier, than the elections must take place w
six months of its dissolution
Iii. A panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall ha
fresh term
Iv. It shall not be necessary to hold elections if the remainder of
period in less than six months.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only (i) is correct.
(b) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(c) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(d) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct.

5. Which amendment was the first move to constitutionalise the


Panchayati raj institution in India?
(a) 61st Constitutional Amendment Bill
(b) 64th Constitutional Amendment Bill
(c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Bill
(d) 74th Constitutional Amendment Bill

6. Which of the following systems is established on the basis of the


direct election?
(a) Gram Panchayat
(b) Block Committee
(c) Zila Parishad
(d) Both b and c

7. Who is considered a Father or Architect of Panchayati Raj in India?


(a) V.N. Gadgil
(b) P.V Narshimha Rao
(c) M.K Gandhi
(d) Balwant Rai Mehta

8. What was the main purpose behind bringing the Panchayati Ra


system to India?
(a) To prevent criminalization of politics
(b) Development of villages
(c) Decentralisation of the political power to the general peoples
(d) To reduce election expenses

9. Which schedule was added to the constitution by the 73rd


Constitutional Amendment?
(a) 6th
(b) 7th
(c) 9th
(d) 11th

10. The Panchayati Raj System under the Part IX of the constitution of
India does not apply to the states of?
(a) Assam, Nagaland and Mizoram
(b) Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram
(c) Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya
(d) None

11. Which committee recommended the two-tier structure for


Panchayati Raj in India?
(a) L M Singhvi Committee
(b) Thungon Committee
(c) Gadgil Committee
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee

12. A three-tier Panchayat is envisaged for states having a population


above?
(a) 10 lakhs
(b) 15 lakhs
(c) 20 lakhs
(d) 25 lakhs
13. Which committee was the first to recommend the constitutional
status to Panchayats?
(a) L M Singhvi Committee
(b) Thungon Committee
(c) Gadgil Committee
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee

14. Which of the following statements is not correct?


(a) Panchayati Raj was established in India by Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Madhya Pradesh was the first state which implemented
Panchayati Raj system in India.
(c) 73rd Constitutional amendment was implemented in 1992.
(d) Tamil Nadu has adopted the bicameral method.

15. Match the following:

1. L M Singhvi Committee 1. 1986

2. Gadgil Committee 2. 1977

C.Ashok Mehta Committee 3.1957

D.Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 4. 1988

(a) A 1, B 4, C 2, D 3
(b) A 1, B3, C 2, D 4
(c) A 1, B 2, C 4, D 3
(d) A 1, B 2, C 3, D 4

Answer Key
1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.
(a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (a)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3. 6.
9. (d)
(a) (a)
CHAPTER 5
Planning and Development in
India

INTRODUCTION
Keynesian economics is the foundation of development planning. By
clarifying roles, removing overlapping between sectors, and establishing
necessary linkages for set output levels, development planning is
expected to make the implementation process easier. India underwent a
transition in its developmental planning from macro policy planning to
neo-liberal policies in the 1990s. There has also been a gradual shift
towards Multi Level Planning in recent times.

DECENTRALIZED PLANNING STRUCTURE IN


INDIA
India is a very diverse country both geographically and culturally; one
plan at the national level cannot be suitable for all over India, hence
multi-level planning is very much needed for India.
Figure 5.1 Decentralized planning structure

In India, following five stages of multi-level planning has been


recognized. These include:

1. National Level-sectored Cum Inter-state / Inter-regiona


Planning: At national level, Niti Aayog (replacing the Planning
Commission in 2015) is the nodal agency responsible for the
countries planning which is established with the aim to achieve
sustainable development goals and to enhance cooperative
federalism by fostering the involvement of state governments o
India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up
approach.
2. State Level-sectored Cum Inter-district / Inter-
regional Planning: The state Planning Board acts like national
Planning Commission and coordinates the development plans. It
also has the responsibility of the formulation, implementation and
monitoring of state plan. State governments have powers to
legislate on the subjects given in the State List. Also, the fund is
devolved as per recommendations of the Finance Commission
submitted to the President.
3. District/Metropolitan Level-regional Planning: There are
generally three levels below the State level, namely district, block
and village. The district administration is under the overall charge
of the collector, also known as deputy commissioner in some
states). He is responsible for maintaining law and order in the
district, Local level planning, Success of the planning needs
greater mobilization and utilization of local resources. Presently
District Planning is supervised through Zila Parishad and its
Chairman. Its formulation and implementation are looked after by
the District Planning Officer or District Magistrate
4. Block Level-area Planning: Block is an important unit of
micro-level planning. The general supervision of blocks was made
by the Block Samiti or Panchayat Samiti under the chairmanship
of the Block Pramukh or Sabhapati and elected representatives.
The main objective of this planning was to absorb local labour
surpluses and greater involvement of people in the formulation
and implementation of development plans.
5. Panchayat Level-village Planning: The directive principles
of state policy mention the village Panchayat which is an elected
body at village level. Village, here, roughly corresponds to a
revenue village (or a group of revenue villages). The Panchayati
Raj System involves a three- tier structure: village-level, block-
level and district level. The implementation of the plan at the
Panchayat-level is the responsibility of the Village
Development Officer (VDO) and the secretary and is
supervised by the Gram Sabha which is headed by the Gram
Pradhan. Under the existing provisions, funds for the Gram Sabha
(Village Panchayat) are directly being allocated from the centre to
execute rural development programmes.
Decentralization planning has four components:

1. Functional Decentralization
2. Financial Decentralization
3. Administrative Decentralization
4. Political Decentralization
Steps taken for better decentralisation planning:
E-Gram Swaraj portal: Launched by the Ministry of
Panchayati raj, aim to bring better transparency in planning and
program implementation.
Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA): To address the
challenges faced by the rural local bodies and increased fund flow
to Village Panchayati.
Panchayati empowerment and accountability
incentives: It is a central sector scheme aimed at incentivization
states for devolving funds, functions and functionaries

SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT POLICIES IN


INDIA
Sustainable development was defined in the 1987 Brundtland Report as
“Development that meets the needs of the present generation without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs”.
Sustainable development was first institutionalized with the Rio Process
initiated at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro. In 2015, the United
Nations General Assembly adopted the Sustainable Development Goals
(2015 to 2030) integrating three aspects: the environment, economy and
society.
Figure 5.2 UN’s Sustainable development Goals

Various Government Initiatives:


The SDG India Index 1.0 (SDGII 1.0), launched in December
2018, preceded the finalisation of the National Indicator
Framework.
SDGII 2.0 is the second edition of the Index which builds upon its
first version. It is constructed using 100 indicators, covers 54
targets across 16 goals, barring Goal 17, which primarily focuses
on partnerships.
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna–Urban (PMAY–U) focused on building
1.12 crore affordable pucca houses by 2022
Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)
focused on upgrading urban centres and providing public utility
services like waste and water management
Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban (SBM–U) focused on building
toilets to make cities Open Defecation Free (ODF) and building
solid waste management facilities
Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana–National Urban Livelihoods Mission
(DAY–NULM) addresses Decent Work and Economic Growth
(SDG 8 targets)
Smart Cities Mission launched in 2015 is another urban
development scheme focused on turning Indian cities into
technologically–forward, ‘high growth centres’
Beti Bachao Beti Padhao: Launched in January 2015 with the aim
to address sex selective abortion and the declining child sex ratio.
It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child
Development, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry
of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education)
Namami Gange Mission
National Clean Air Programme in 2019
Ayushman Bharat Scheme: National Health Protection Scheme,
which will cover over 10 crore poor and vulnerable families
(approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) providing coverage up to 5
lakh rupees per family per year for secondary and tertiary care
hospitalization
Samagra Shiksha, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya
Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)
Gender Budgeting, the Janani Suraksha Yojana, One Stop
scheme, the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
Start-up India, Skill India, Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(MGNREGA)
National Action Plan for Climate Change (NAPCC) is a programme
to prevent and adapt to the negative effects of climate change.

PARTICIPATORY DEVELOPMENT POLICIES IN


INDIA
Participative governance is the involvement of citizens in their own
governance. It puts emphasis on democratic engagement, in particular
through deliberative practices. It aims at self-reliant, sustainable
development through active participation of citizens in development
activities.

Figure 5.3 Public Participation Spectrum

MyGov: It is an innovative platform launched to ensure citizens’


engagement in decision-making by the Government so that the
ultimate goal of “Good Governance” for building India is achieved.
NITI Aayog has launched the Grand Innovation Challenge to
seek citizens inputs on the key developmental challenges facing
India aiming at involving citizens at the very first stage in
innovating for India’s development
Right to Information Act: Institutionalization of participation
can be done through the recent legislations like RTI.
National Capacity Building Framework, Ministry of
Panchayati Raj (MoPR): MoPR has designed a National Capability
Building Framework (NCBF), which outlines a comprehensive
approach towards building the capabilities of Panchayats.
Various Social Media platforms of Government and Departments
for feedbacks and engagement.

DEVELOPMENT AND E-GOVERNANCE


POLICIES
e-Governance can be defined as the application of information and
communication technology (ICT) for providing government services,
exchange of information, transactions, integration of previously existing
services and information portals.
Establishment of Department of Electronics in 1970 was the
first major steps towards e-governance in India as it brought ‘information’
and its communication to focus. National Informatics Centre
(NIC) established in 1977, launched the District Information System
programme to computerize all district offices in the country. The main
thrust for e-governance was provided by the launching of NICNET in
1987 – the national satellite-based computer network.
Objectives of e-governance
Better service delivery to citizens, ushering in transparency and
accountability, empowering people through information, improved
efficiency within Government i.e between centre-state or inter-states.
Types of interactions in e-governance:
G2G i.e. Government to Government
G2C i.e. Government to Citizen
G2B i.e. Government to Business
G2E i.e. Government to Employees

Recent Government Initiatives to Promote e-Governance in India:


MyGov Initiative: Citizen-centric platform of the Government of
India to connect with the Government actively and facilitates their
engagement towards the nation’s development.
National Scholarships Portal (NSP): A “one-stop” solution
through which various services, starting from student application,
application receipt, verification, processing, and disbursal of
various scholarships to students are facilitated and taken as
Mission Mode Project (MMP) under Digital India.
Darpan Portal: To electronically maintain data and transparency
regarding NGOs/VOs in the country.
DigiLocker: Flagship initiative of MeitY under ‘Digital India’
programme to create an electronic version of documents, which
can be easily verified and stored in printable format.
National Center of Geo-informatics: Under this project,
Geographic Information System (GIS) platform for sharing,
collaboration, location based analytics and decision support
system for Departments has been developed.
National e-Governance Plan: Takes a holistic view of e-
Governance initiatives across the country, integrating them into a
collective vision and a shared cause. It comprises 31 Mission
Mode Projects, approved in 2006, but later it was integrated into
Digital India Program.
e-Kranti: National e-Governance Plan 2.0: It is an
essential pillar of the Digital India initiative.
It was approved in 2015 with the vision of “Transforming e-
Governance for Transforming Governance”.
PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and Timely
Implementation): It has been aimed at starting a culture of
Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation. It was
launched in 2015.

NITI AAYOG
Planning Commission was replaced by a new institution – NITI Aayog on
January 1, 2015 with emphasis on ‘Bottom-Up’ approach to envisage the
vision of Maximum Governance, Minimum Government, echoing the spirit
of ‘Cooperative Federalism’. NITI stands for National Institution for
Transforming India
Neither Constitutional nor statutory body - created by resolution of
Union cabinet.
Think-Tank of GOI
A staff agency - Advisory in nature

COMPOSITION OF NITI AAYOG


Chairperson: Prime Minister
Vice-Chairperson: To be appointed by the Prime-Minister
Governing Council: Chief Ministers of all states and Lt. Governors
of Union Territories.
Regional Council: To address specific regional issues comprising
Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors chaired by Prime Minister or his
nominee.
Ad hoc Membership: Two member in ex-officio capacity from
leading Research institutions on rotational basis.
Ex-Officio membership: Maximum four from Union council of
ministers to be nominated by Prime minister.
Chief Executive Officer: Appointed by Prime-minister for a fixed
tenure, in rank of Secretary to Government of India.
Special Invitees: Experts, Specialists with domain knowledge
nominated by Prime-minister.

MAJOR INITIATIVES TAKEN BY NITI AAYOG


SDG India Index
Composite Water Management Index
Atal Innovation Mission
SATH Project
School Education Quality Index
District Hospital Index
Health Index
Agriculture Marketing And Farmer Friendly reform Index
India Innovation Index
Women Transforming India Awards
Good Governance Index
Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP)
Strategy for New India at 75
‘Methanol Economy’ programme
e-AMRIT Portal
ASPIRATIONAL DISTRICTS PROGRAM: Aspirational Districts are
those districts in India that are affected by poor socio-economic
indicators. ADP focuses on outcomes that enable local
experimentation based on a firm appreciation of ground realities,
thus, leading to decentralised development.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled
Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is no
identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation

2. Which Committee recommended that Local government should be


three tiers and it should be constitutionally recognized?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) L M Singhvi Committee
(c) Ashok Mehta Committee
(d) None of the above

3. Which of the following reports is published by NITI AAYOG?


[PYQ 2022]
(a) National Multidimensional Poverty Index
(b) Economic Survey
(c) Unemployment Rate
(d) National Sample Survey

4. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about NIT


AAYOG?
(a) It replaced Planning Commission.
(b) It was established on January 1, 2016.
(c) Prime Minister of India is the chairperson of NITI AAYOG.
(d) NITI stands for National Institution for Transforming India.

5. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?


(a) SDG 2 – Zero Hunger
(b) SDG 3 – Good Health and well being
(c) SDG 1 – No Poverty
(d) SDG 5 – Quality Education.

6. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and


the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): MyGov is a tool of Participatory Development
Reason (R): MyGov is a citizen-centric platform of the
Government of India to connect with the Government actively and
facilitates their engagement towards the nation’s development.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanatio
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explana
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

7. Development that meets the needs of the present generation


without compromising the ability of future generations to meet thei
own needs is:
(a) Sustainable Development
(b) E Governance
(c) Multi-Level Development
(d) Economic Development

8. The idea of Five Year Plan was borrowed from:


(a) USA
(b) USSR
(c) Germany
(d) UK

9. Good Governance Index is published by:


(a) Ministry of Education
(b) NITI AAYOG
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) UNDP

10. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao was launched in


(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(a) (a) (d) (a) (b) (b) (b)
2. 4.
6. (a)
(b) (b)
CHAPTER 6
Public Policy as an Instrument of
Socio–Economic Development

INTRODUCTION
Essentially, public policy is a set of laws, guidelines, and actions decided and
taken by governments in order to work in favor of the public. Public policy can
dictate things such as which laws are passed, where funding goes, and which
topics concern the general public. The greatest development of the post
second world war is that the two most dominant disciplines Political Science
and Economics have shifted their focus towards Policy Sciences. Harold
Laswell introduced the concept of public policy in his book ‘The Policy
Science’ co-edited by Daniel Lerner in the year 1952.
Policy has three ingredients:

1. Goals
2. A Process to achieve the goals
3. A Value Framework within which it functions

Thomas R. Dye defines public policy as ‘whatever governments


choose to do or not to do”.
David Easton defines it as an “authoritative allocation of values for
the whole society”.
Lasswell and Kaplan define public policy as “a projected programme
of goals, values and practices.”

STAGES OF POLICY MAKING


Figure 6.1 Stages of Public Making

Father of Public policy- Harold Laswell- divided the policy process


into 7 stages:
1. intelligence
2. Promotion
3. Prescription
4. Invocation
5. Application
6. Termination
7. Appraisal
Incremental model of public policy: by Charles. E. Lindblom- in
his article: “Science of Muddling through”
Feature of PP
1. Goal-oriented Action
2. Bound by law
3. PP are whatever choose to do or not to do
Types of Public Policies:
1. Regulatory
2. Distributive
3. Redistributive

PUBLIC POLICY IN INDIA


India being a welfare state lays enormous priority on a sound public policy
architecture to realize the constitutional ideals of equality and welfare. As any
other country, India too caters to the needs and priorities of various sections
of the society, particularly the poor and vulnerable to ensure equity and
inclusivity.

Important Public Policy of Housing in India


1. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin)

It was previously known as Indira Awas Yojana.


It is a social welfare programme launched by the Government of
India in 1985 to provide housing for the rural poor in India.
Launched by Ministry of Rural Development to construct houses for
BPL population in the villages.
The PMAY-G scheme’s main objective is to give pucca housing with
some essential amenities to individuals who do not own a house and
live in kutcha houses or houses that have been seriously damaged.
Recently, the Government of India the PMAY-G scheme from March
2021 to March 2024 to achieve the total target of 2.95 lakh core rural
houses.
2. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban)

Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) was launched in 2015 which


intends to provide housing for all in urban areas by the year 2022.
The Mission provides Central Assistance to the implementing
agencies through States/Union Territories (UTs) and Central Nodal
Agencies (CNAs) for providing houses to all eligible
families/beneficiaries.
PMAY-U seeks to address the housing requirement of urban poor
including slum dwellers by:

i. Slum Rehabilitation of Slum Dwellers with private participation


Slum Redevelopment)
ii. Promotion of Affordable Housing for weaker section through
Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS)
3. Smart Cities Mission

Launched in 2015 by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs


(MoHUA) with an initial target of developing 100 smart cities across
India.
A Smart City basically refers to development of a modern, viable,
technology driven, efficient and resilient urban ecosystem to meet
the aspiration and demands of people, to improve the standard and
quality of living and attract more investments in the city.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme(CSS). Recently, the government
has extended the timeline for the implementation of the mission till
January 2023.

Main features of Smart City


i. Adequate water upply

ii. Assured electricity supply

iii. Sanitation, including solid waste management

iv. Robust network of urban transportation and mobility

v. Affordable housing for its poor

vi. IT –infrastructure and E- governance


vii. Quality health care, security of its citizens, law and order, g
governance and citizen participation
4. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)

Launched by PM Narendra Modi in June 2015 with the focus to


establish infrastructure that could ensure adequate robust sewerage
networks and water supply for urban transformation by implementing
urban revival projects.
This includes laying down sewerage lines, tap water supply,
greening of cities to reduce pollution and enhance its ease of living,
storm water drainage to reduce urban flooding, switching to public
transport, encouraging green energy, etc.
AMRUT 2.0 launched in October 2021 extends coverage from 500
cities under AMRUT to 4700 cities and towns.

5. Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban 2.0

All statutory towns expected to become at least ODF+ and all cities
with less than 1 lakh population ODF++.
Focus on sanitation and solid waste management with special
emphasis on source segregation and sustainable solid waste
management.
Focuses on well- being of sanitation and informal waste workers.

IMPORTANT PUBLIC POLICY OF HEALTH IN


INDIA

National Health Policy, 2017


The primary aim of the National Health Policy,2017 is to inform, clarify,
strengthen and prioritize the role of the Government in shaping health
systems in terms of investments in health, organization of healthcare
services and promotion of good health through developing human
resources, encouraging medical pluralism, building knowledge base
and strengthening regulation and health assurance.
Its key policy principles include professionalism, integrity and ethics,
equity, affordability, universality accountability, inclusive partnerships,
decentralization, dynamism and adaptiveness.

Key Targets
i. To achieve universal access to good quality health care services

ii. Intends to gradually increase public health expenditure to 2.5% of the


GDP
iii. Allocate two-thirds of resources to primary care
iv. Two beds per 1000 of the population
v. To reduce morbidity and preventable mortality of non –communicable
diseases (NCDs) by advocating pre-screening
vi. Increase life expectancy at birth from 67.5 to 70 by 2025
vii. Reduce Fertility Rate to 2.1 by 2025
viii. Reduce Infant Mortality Rate to 28 by 2019
ix. Achieve the global 2020 HIV Target (90:90:90 global target)
x. Reduce the disease burden by one-third from the current levels
xi. Promoting AYUSH and Yoga to promote good health
xii. Reforming medical education and achieving the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs)

AYUSHMAN BHARAT
Launched in September 2018 as per the recommendations of National
Health Policy, 2017 to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage
(UHC) at all levels – primary, secondary and tertiary.

i. Under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW),it has two


components:
a. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), earlier known as
National Health Protection Scheme (NHPS) – Largest health insur
in the world which aims at providing a health cover of ₹ 5 lakhs
family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization to
10.74 crores poor and vulnerable families that form the bottom 40
the Indian population.
b. Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) – 1,50,000 Health and Well
Centres (HWCs) have been established by transforming the exi
Primary Health Centres. These centres are to deliver Comprehen
Primary Health Care (CPHC) bringing health care closer to pe
They cover both, maternal and child health care and NCDs, inclu
free essential drugs and diagnostic services.

MAIN FEATURES OF PM –JAY


1. World’ largest health insurance scheme fully financed by the
government.
2. Provides cashless access to health care services for the beneficiary at
the hospital.
3. Covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization and 15 days of post-
hospitalization expenses such as diagnostics and medicines.
4. No restriction on the family size, age or gender.
5. All pre-existing conditions are covered from day one.
6. Benefits of the scheme are portable across the country, i.e.a
beneficiary can visit any empanelled public or private hospital in India
to avail cashless treatment.
7. Public hospitals are reimbursed for the healthcare services at par with
the private hospitals.

AYUSHMAN BHARAT HEALTH


INFRASTRUCTURE MISSION (ABHIM)
Launched in October 2021 to improve the public health infrastructure in
urban as well as rural areas.
India’s largest scheme launched to scale up health infrastructure worth
₹ 5000 crore.
Will work in addition to the National Health Mission.
Requisite infrastructure will be developed under the mission for the
diagnosis and monitoring of diseases.
NATIONAL HEALTH MISSION
The National Health Mission (NHM) was launched by the Government
of India in 2013 subsuming the National Rural Health Mission and
National Urban Health Mission.
Its main objectives are strengthening Reproductive – Maternal –
Neonatal –Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A) in rural and urban
areas.

KEY TARGETS:
1. Reduce Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to 1/1000 live births
2. Reduce Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to 25/1000 live births
3. Reduce Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to 2.1.
4. Prevention and reduction of anaemia in women aged 15 to49 years
5. Reduce household out-of-pocket expenditure on total health care
expenditure

MAJOR INITIATIVE UNDER NHM


a. Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) for establishing a link
between the community and the health system.
b. Rogi Kalyan Samiti (Patient Welfare Committee)
c. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) : Safe motherhood intervention scheme
implemented by the Government of India. It was launched in 2005 to
promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women and reduce
neo –natal mortality and maternal mortality.

IMPORTANT PUBLIC POLICY OF DRINKING


WATER IN INDIA

Jal Jeevan Mission


Launched in 2019, it envisages supply of 55 litres of water per person
per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap
Connections (FHTC) by 2024.

JJM comes under Ministry of Jal Shakti.


It looks to create a jan andolan for water, thereby making it everyone’s
priority.
Aims:

a. Ensures functionality of existing water supply systems and w


connections, water quality monitoring and testing as wel
sustainable agriculture.
b. It also ensures conjunctive use of conserved water, drinking w
source augmentation, drinking water supply system, grey w
treatment and its reuse.
Achievements:

1. Around 9.65 crore households (50.38%) have water connections hav


tap water connections across the nation as of 10th June, 2022.
2. Gujarat. Goa, Telangana and Haryana have achieved 100 percent
piped water supply under JJM.

JAL JEEVAN MISSION (URBAN)


Announced in the Budget 2021–22, JJM (Urban) has been announced
under the MoHUA to provide universal coverage of water supply to all
households through functional taps in all statutory towns in accordance
with Sustainable Development Goal 6.
Objectives of JJM(Urban):

i. Securing tap and sewer connections

ii. Rejuvenation of water bodies

iii. Creating circular water economy


IMPORTANT PUBLIC POLICY OF FOOD
SECURITY IN INDIA

National Food Security Act


The NFSA was enacted on 5th July 2013 which marked a paradigm shift in
the approach to food security from welfare to rights-based approach.
The Act entitles up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban
population to receive subsidized food grains under Targeted Public
Distribution System implying two thirds of the population (67%) is
covered under the Act to receive highly subsidized food grains.
The Act is in line with the aim to end hunger in all its form by 2030 and
provide food security to all – one of the SDGs set by UNGA.
The Act converts facilities and subsidies given to people into legal
entitlements with respect to existing food security progammes initiated
by Govt of India like Mid-Day Meal Scheme (MDM) and Integrated
Child Development Scheme (ICDS).
The Act ensures nutritional support to women and children. Maternity
benefits such as an allowance of Rs 6000 are provided to pregnant
woman and lactating women and also empowers women by identifying
the eldest woman of the household (18 years and above) for issuance
of ration cards.

Beneficiaries:

i. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households - Poorest of the poor, heade


by widows or disabled persons or persons above 60 years of age with n
assured means of societal support are entitled to 35 kg of food grain
per family per month.
ii. Priority Households (PHH): Entitled to 5kg food grains per person per
month(wheat, rice and other coarse grains).

PRADHAN MANTRI GARIB KALYAN ANNA


YOJANA (PM-GKAY)
Launched in 2020 during the initial phases of COVID-19.
This scheme intended to provide every individual covered under the
NFSA with an additional 5kg of grains (rice or wheat) free of cost along
with the 5kg of subsidized food grain already being provided through
the Public Distribution System (PDS).

LATEST DEVELOPMENT
On 23rd December 2022, the Union Government announced free food
grains to beneficiaries under the NFSA for a year commencing in
January 2023, combining economic prudence and the need for a safety
net. However, PM-GKAY has been discontinued, merging it with NFSA.
As a result, more than 81.35 crore people will be provided 5 kg free
wheat/rice per person per month along with 1 kg free whole chana to
each family per month. This would incur an expenditure of ₹ 2 lakh
crore on food subsidy for the Union Government.

ONE NATION ONE RATION CARD (ONORC)


SCHEME
Launched in August 2019 to enable migrant workers and their family
members to buy subsidized ration from any fair price shop anywhere in
the country under NFSA.
ONORC is based on technology that involves details of beneficiaries’
ration card, Aadhar number and electronic Points of Sale (ePoS).
Beneficiaries are identified through biometric authentication on ePoS
devices at fair price shops. The system runs with the support of two
portals – Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IM-
PDS) and Annavitran.

MGNREGA
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(MGNREGA) is one of the largest employment guarantee programmes
in the world.
The NREGA Act was passed in the year 2005 and came into effect in
2006. It comes under Ministry of Rural Development.
The Act was first started in Anantapur district of Andhra Pradesh on
2nd February 2006 and initially covered 200 most impoverished
districts across India.

FEATURES OF MGNREGA
i. Primary objective of MGNREGA is to guarantee 100 days of unskilled
manual work to adult members of any rural household in a given
financial year.
ii. Adopts a rights-based approach by making right to employment a
legal entitlement.
iii. At least one-third of beneficiaries must be women.
iv. Wages to agricultural labourers must be paid according to Minimum
Wages Act, 1948.
v. Emphasis on decentralization by placing a significant role on
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in planning and implementing these
works.
vi. The Act mandates Gram Sabhas to recommend the works that are to
be undertaken and at least 50% of the work must be executed by
them.
vii. MGNREGA is a bottom –up, people oriented, demand driven, self
selecting and rights based programme. It is thus crucial for resource
management and livelihood.

RIGHT TO EDUCATION
The Right to Education (RTE) Act was enacted by the Indian
Parliament in 2009 and brought into effect from 1st April 2010.
The Act contains provisions to implement compulsory and free
education for all the children in the age group of 6 to 14 years old,
which was made a fundamental right under Article 21A in 2002 by 86th
Constitutional Amendment Act.

Features of RTE Act, 2009


i. Aims to provide primary education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.

ii. Enforces Education as a Fundamental Right (Article 21A).

iii. Requires all private schools to reserve 25% of seats for children
belonging to disadvantaged sections of the society like SCs and STs,
socially backward class and differently based.
iv. Makes provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age
appropriate class.

RTE AMENDMENT ACT 2019


Passed in January 2019
Removed the no-detention policy. Under the previous RTE Act 2009,
no student till Class VIII can be detained.
As per the amendment, it would be left to the states to decide whether
to continue the no-detention policy.
Provides for regular examination in classes V and VIII and if a child
fails, the amendment act grants a provision to give her or him
additional opportunity to take a re –examination within two months.
Such children will be provided with two-month remedial teaching to
perform better in the re-examination and if the students still do not pass
the exam, the state government may decide to detain them.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Who among the following introduced the concept of public policy for th
first time?
(a) David Easton
(b) Harold Lasswell
(c) Daniel Learner
(d) Herbert Simon

2. Who said ‘public policy is whatever governments choose to do or not t


do’?
(a) Robert Presthus
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Harold Lasswell
(d) Thomas R. Dye

3. Which of the following stages includes assessment of the effectivenes


of a public policy?
(a) Policy Formulation
(b) Policy Implementation
(c) Policy Evaluation
(d) All the above

4. Assertion(A): National Food Security Act 2013 was passed to figh


against hunger.
Reason (R): 75 percent of the rural population and 50 percent of
urban population are entitled to receive subsidized food grains under
NFSA.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

5. Choose the incorrect statement about Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojan


(Urban):
(a) It ensures that all individuals/families living in urban areas ha
shelter
(b) It was launched in the year 2015
(c) Aims to cover its mission by the year 2022
(d) One of the methods is to provide affordable housing via the c
linked subsidy scheme

6. What is the aim of AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urba
Transformation)?
(a) Ensure adequate robust sewage networks and water supply for u
households
(b) Ensure transformation of educational infrastructure in urban areas
(c) Ensure adequate robust sewage networks and water supply for
households
(d) Ensure transformation of educational infrastructure in rural areas

7. Which of the following is not a feature of Ayushman Bharat – PMJAY?


(a) It is inspired by the National Health Policy, 2017.
(b) It would be a cashless and Aadhar-enabled scheme for better targ
of beneficiary.
(c) It aims to provide medical cover up to ₹ 7 lakh per year per house
for secondary and tertiary health care
(d) It will be portable across the country.

8. Which of the following statements are true about One Nation One Ratio
card scheme?
1. The scheme was launched in 2019.

2. It aims to benefit migrant workers and their family members to buy s


ration from any fair price shop anywhere in the country.

3. The scheme comes under MGNREGA.

4. The system runs with the support of two portals – Integrated Manag
Public Distribution System and Annavitran.

Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

9. Identify the policies that are related to present Central Government.


1. Jan Arogya Yojana

2. Chiranjeevi Yojana

3. Har ghar jal


4. Godhan Nyay Yojana

Codes:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3

10. Which among the following are features of Jal Jeevan Mission?
(a) It is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water in
and urban areas.
(b) Based on a community approach to water.
(c) Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) was announced by Finance Minister in
Union Budget 2021 – 22.
(d) Jal Jeevan Mission (Rural) was launched in August 2020.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

11. What change was brought by RTE(Amendment) Act 2019?


(a) It allowed private tuitions from teachers.
(b) It introduced the no–detention policy.
(c) It removed the no–detention policy.
(d) States have to compulsory follow detention policy.

12. Choose the correct statements:


Statement I: Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana was
launched in 2020 during the initial phase of COVID -19.
Statement II: Recently, the scheme has been extended till December
2023.
Codes:
(a) Both I and II are correct.
(b) Only I is correct.
(c) Only II is correct.
(d) Both I and II are incorrect.

13. Assertion (A): MGNREGA was a landmark policy to provide


employment in rural and urban India.
Reason (R): It provides 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to
unskilled labour.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

14. Which of the following is incorrect regarding MGNREGA?


(a) It makes right to employment a fundamental right.
(b) It was started on 2nd February 2006.
(c) It comes under Ministry of Rural Development.
(d) It accords priority to Panchayati Raj Institutions.

15. Assertion(A): RTE Act 2009 has revolutionized the access to


education by making it free and compulsory along with ensuing
inclusion and social justice.
Reason(R): Along with laying down norms for quality education, it
mandates reservation of seats for backward sections in private schools.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer Key
y

1. 4. 7. 10. 12. 14. 15.


(b) (b) (c) (b) (b) (a) (a)
2. 5. 8. 11.
13. (d)
(d) (a) (a) (c)
3. 6.
9. (d)
(c) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

5. PMAY(U) intends to provide households to urban poor only and not a


urban individuals.

8. One Nation One Ration Card comes under NFSA and not MGNREGA.

9. Chiranjeevi Yojana is the health policy of Rajasthan governmen


whereas Godhan Nyay Yojana is related to Chhattisgarh government.
CHAPTER 7
Monitoring and Evaluation of Public
Policy in India

INTRODUCTION
Monitoring is a continuous process of gathering and evaluating data to
evaluate a program’s effectiveness. Program planning, monitoring, and
improvement all involve the utilization of this data. India has not yet set
minimal requirements for evaluating public programs. It becomes difficult to
compare the same program across states and time because of the
considerable variance in quality and frequency of evaluations caused by their
absence. Additionally, this makes it simpler to challenge results, particularly
when they don’t live up to expectations.
There needs to be a shift in how evaluations are used in India from
primarily being used to confirm program performance to also be used for
budget and policy planning.

ACCOUNTABLE GOVERNANCE IN INDIA


Accountability is ensured through public hearings or accountability. In order to
assess whether government programs are accomplishing their stated goals, it
is also necessary to examine the decisions and actions performed by public
authorities. Whether or not they are helping the community they intend to
help, whether they are improving governance, and whether they are making a
difference in reducing poverty. One of the fundamental components of good
governance is accountability and public hearings. Currently, at the federal
level, the Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), a division
of NITI Aayog, is in-charge of promoting evidence-based policy-making by
keeping track of and analyzing government initiatives.
JANSUNWAI
Such a medium is a public hearing, which is used to hold the law of
governance accountable at any level of governance accountable. They have
their opinions about the law relating to broad public governance solicited
during this procedure.
Regarding their governance, the general public may also file complaints,
and decisions are made in response to those complaints after open hearings.

THE IMPORTANCE OF PUBLIC HEARINGS


Public hearings are held to gather residents’ complaints and
recommendations.
A committee that is led by the district collector and includes personnel
from the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB), as well as representatives
from the taluka and gram sabha, organizes it. The committee then writes a
report and submits it to the Ministry. Responsibility and accountability are
guaranteed from there.
The senior officials are responsible for directing complaints from the
general public regarding various government departments in the context of
integrated monitoring and their resolution, which includes the following:
The issue is rapidly resolved in this way.
Increased public participation and confidence in democracy can be
achieved through public hearings.
For improved public grievance redress in the contemporary information
technology era, the Jansunwai portal has been created.

A distinctive identifying number is sent to the complainant on the mobile


number that he registered to track the issue when the complaint is recorded
on the Jansunwai portal, allowing for effective complaint tracking.

SOCIAL AUDIT
An organization or government uses the process of social audits to report to
its constituents on its social performance and work toward enhancing it in the
future. In 1972, Charles Medawar was a pioneer in the field.
A social audit aids in bridging the gaps between efficiency and
effectiveness as well as between the vision or aim and the real world. The
social performance of any government initiative or institution can be
measured, verified, reported on, and improved.
The Government of India and other national and international
organizations have invested a significant amount of money in human
resources since India’s independence, but the influence they have had on
social development initiatives has not been sufficient to justify their
expenditure.

PERFORMING SOCIAL AUDITS


The Gram Sabha will evaluate and discuss the work done by Panchayats and
the money they spent to reduce corruption and uphold openness in the
Panchayati Raj. This process is known as a social audit. The cost associated
with conducting this study and discussion will also be posted on the notice
board. The discussion will be conducted in the local language by ordinary
people.
The social audit will be attended by every member and employee of the
panchayat, and the gram Sabha will have informed the laborers and residents
of the countryside in advance so that they may attend this meeting.
In this, the receipts and other records of the money spent by the
Panchayats will be provided to the Gram Sabha along with an examination of
the cash book, bank records, and other people’s records of the expenditures
made by the Panchayats.
The Gram Sabha will appropriately verify the names of the villages listed
on the muster roll, the amount of money granted to them, and the employment
statistics.
On-site inspections will be conducted to evaluate the work that the
panchayats have completed, as well as its quality.

Most Expected Practice Questions


1. Which of the following characteristics does’not reperesents goo
Governance?
(a) Accountability
(b) Transparency
(c) Rule of law
(d) Red-tapism

2. The ‘Welfare State’s objective is to-


(a) Ensure the well-being of the greatest number of people possible.
(b) Welfare of the weaker parts is managed
(c) Make healthcare facilities available
(d) None of them

3. At which stage of the public policy cycle does the government’


consideration of possible policy solutions occur?
(a) Agenda setting
(b) Policy formulation
(c) Policy implementation
(d) Decision-making

4. What is it known as when a relevant minister conducts a pres


conference to announce the government’s intention to implement a new
policy?
(a) Decision-making
(b) Policy evaluation
(c) Policy implementation
(d) Policy change

5. The establishment of administrative accountability in government entitie


is
(a) Executive
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) All these

6. Which of the following is the concept of ‘software ‘of the state?


(a) Capacity
(b) Accountability
(c) Vitality
(d) Responsiveness

7. Following independence, the District Magistrate’s position underwen


significant alteration, mostly because of:
(a) Political awakening
(b) The role of mass media
(c) Democratic decentralization
(d) Periodical elections

8. The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts have resulted in:


A. Transparency in the governance

B. Accountability in governance

C. Gender empowerment
D. Deepening of democracy
Select the correct answer from the below code
(a) a and d
(b) a and c
(c) b, c, d
(d) a, b, c and d.

9. Evaluation measure:
(a) The timeliness of a project‘s activities.
(b) The outcomes and impact of a project ‘s activities
(c) How closely a project kept to its budget
(d) How well the project was implemented.

10. Statement 1 - The objective of a social audit is -To assess the


physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for
local development.
Statement 2- The social audit will be attended by every member and
employee of the panchayat.
Choose the correct code:
(a) Both Statements are correct.
(b) Both Statements are incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct.

Answer Key

1. 3. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (b) (a)
2. 4.
6. (b)
(a) (c)
Previous Years’ Questions

1. Satish Chandra Committee was appointed to (2018)


(a) review in service training of IAS officers
(b) review and evaluate the system of selection to the higher
services
(c) review the Centre State relations
(d) review the working of the Indian Constitution

2. Indian Institute of Public Administration was set up to serve as a


“Think Tank” to the Government of India, in which year? (2018)
(a) January, 1950
(b) February, 1951
(c) April, 1953
(d) March, 1954

3. Which of the following years was celebrated by India as the ‘E-


governance year? (2018)
(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2004

4. Going beyond Paul Appleby’s advocacy of the virtues of


honesty and loyalty in Public Administration, Stephen Bailey
added three more: (2018)
(A) Optimism
(B) Courage
(C) Commitment
(D) Fairness
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)

5. The civil services examination based on the recommendations


of Kothari Committee Report of 1976, was first conducted in:
(2018)
(a) 1977
(b) 1978
(c) 1979
(d) 1982

6. Which of the following were/are wage development and


infrastructure development Programmes? (2018)
(A) Crash Scheme of Rural Employment
(B) National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme
(C) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
(D) Changes in Agronomic Practices
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) B and C only

7. Match List I with List II: (2018)

List I List I
(A)Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act I.1988
(B)Reserve Bank of India Act II.2003
(C)Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act III. 1
(D)Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act IV.1934

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(b) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(c) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(d) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

8. Arrange the following books according to the years of their


publication (2018)
(A) Dror, Yehezkel, Public Policy Making Re-examined
(B) Dye, Thomas R. Understanding Public Policy
(C) Bhattacharya, Mohit. New Horizons of Public Administration
(D) Anderson, James Public Policy Making
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, D, C, A
(c) B, A, D, C
(d) D, C, A, B

9. Match List I with List II : (2018)

List I List II
(A)E-Governance I.73rd Amendment Act
(B)Panchayati Raj II.NeGP
(C)Redressal of Grievances III. 20
(D)Right to Education IV.Ombudsman

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(b) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(c) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(d) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

10. Of the following, committees which have considered the issue


of proper relationship between a minister and secretary are:
(2018)
(i) Maxwell Committee
(ii) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(iii) Chagle Commission
(iv) Hota Committee
(a) (i), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (ii), (iv)

11. Legislative control over Indian public administration is in form


of : (2018)
(a) External control
(b) Internal control
(c) Popular control
(d) Direct control

12. The Institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by
which state? (2018)
(a) Punjab
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Maharashtra

13. Which of the following statements about the ‘Consumer


Protection Act 2019° is NOT true? (2018)
(a) It has widened the definition of consumer
(b) It provides for E-filing of complaints
(c) It establishes Central Consumer Protection Authority
(d) It ignores mediation as an alternate disputes resolu
mechanism

14. “Consumer Protection Bill 2019 was passed by the Indian


Parliament on: (2018)
(a) 13 July 2019
(b) 25 July 2019
(c) 6 August 2019
(d) 9 August 2019

15. National Rural Health Mission (2005) is mandated to


strengthen public health systems in the States and Union
Territories by : (2018)
(A) augmentation of health infrastructure
(B) increasing human resources
(C) mainstreaming of AYUSH
(D) providing mobile medical units
Codes:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (C) and (D)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

16. Credit linked subsidy for economically weaker section on the


housing loans is provided under : (2018)
(a) Indira Awas Yojna
(b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna
(c) Rajiv Awas Yojna
(d) Atal Mission
17. E-governance is an instrument of achieving good governance
because it : (2019)
(A) improves efficiency and economy
(B) enhances citizens government interface
(C) improves decision-making
(D) increases transparency in government operations
Codes:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

18. Which of the following are the components of training


programme for IAS? (2019)
(A) Foundation training
(B) Professional training
(C) Peer training
(D) District training
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (D)

19. Which one of the following committees was appointed to


review the civil service examination system ? (2019)
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Satish Chandra Committee
(d) L. M. Singhvi Committee
20. Who was the chairman of the ‘Health Survey and Development
Committee’ appointed in 1943 in India? (2019)
(a) Sir Walpole
(b) Sir Joseph Bhore
(c) Lord Macaulay
(d) Veerappa Moily

21. Which of the following institutes and bodies have an important


role to play in policy planning ? (2019)
(A) Indian Statistical Institute
(B) National Council of Applied Economic Research
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and D only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) B and D only

22. MGNREGA 2009 aimed at improving the purchasing power of


rural people. The ‘focus of the scheme’ is enumerated in which
of the following areas? (2019)
(A) Water conservation; Water harvesting
(B) Renovation of the traditional water bodies
(C) Land development; Flood control
(D) Rural connectivity to provide all-weather access
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, B, C and D
(c) A and B only
(d) B and C only
23. Arrange the following administrative reforms Committees/
Commissions in a chronological order : (2019)
(A) First Administrative Reform Commission
(B) Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee
(C) Gorwala Committee
(D) Satish Chandra Committee
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) B, C, A, D
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) D, A, B, C
(d) C, D, A, B

24. Given below are two statements: (2019)


Statement I: The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission in its
Seventh Report entitled “Capacity Building for Conflict Resolution”
dealt with illegal immigration into the North East and drew attention
towards having a multi-purpose national identity card for citizens
Statement II: Lokvani is a public-private partnership project at
Sitapur District in Uttar Pradesh which was initiated in December,
2009
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

25. The Committee/Commission which has outrightly rejected


Macaulay’s philosophy that ‘Generalists are able
administrators’ is: (2019)
(a) Gorwala Report 1951
(b) Ayangar Committee Report 1949
(c) Administrative Reforms Commission 1969
(d) Sarkaric Commission (1987)

26. In which year, Government of India decided to observe the


birthday of Swami Vivekananda as the National Youth Day?
(2019)
(a) 1984
(b) 1985
(c) 1986
(d) 1987

27. On which date Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was lunched? (2019)


(a) 2nd October, 2014
(b) 15th August, 2016
(c) 26th January, 2015
(d) 14th April, 2018

28. Which is the nodal agency to secure India’s critical information


infrastructure and enhance its cyber security? (2019)
(a) National Cyber Security Agency
(b) National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre
(c) Indian Institute for Critical Information and Cyber Protection
(d) Internet Governance Forum

29. Judiciary ensures accountability of administration through:


(2019)
(A) Curbing arbitrariness of administrative agencies
(B) Safeguarding the rights and liberty of the citizens
(C) Declaring ultra vires, the acts of administration if they exceed
jurisdiction
Codes:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (B) and (C)

30. Arrange the following four reports of Second Administrative


Reforms Commission in their sequential order: (2019)
(A) Right to Information
(B) Unlocking Human capital
(C) Crisis Management
(D) Ethics in Governance
Choose the correct option:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (D), (C), (B), (A)
(c) (A), (D), (B), (C)
(d) (C), (A), (D), (B)

31. Which of the following are the salient features of Draft National
Water Policy 2012? (2019)
(A) Setting up of Water Regulatory Authority
(B) Incentivisation of recycle and re-use
(C) Community participation in managing the water resources proje
(D) Water user’s association should be given statutory powers
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (B),(C) and (D)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)

32. Which of the following statements about the significance of


public policy is correct? (2019)
(A) Public policies help in achieving socio-economic development
(B) Public policies help maintain national unity and integrity
(C) Its basic purpose is to serve individual interest and solve p
problems
(D) Public policy aims at shaping the society for its betterment
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (C)

33. Which of the following are the main problems of nation building
in India? Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(2019)
(A) Poverty
(B) Illiteracy
(C) Trade Unions
(D) Corruption
(E) Regional Political Parties
(F) Terrorism
(a) (A), (B), (E), (F)
(b) (A), (C), (D), (E), (F)
(c) (A), (B), (D), (F)
(d) (B), (D), (E), (F)

34. Arrange the introduction of the following development


programmes in an ascending order: (2019)
(A) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(B) Indira Awas Yojana
(C) Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gram Jyoti Yojana
(D) Atal Pension Yojana
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (B), (A), (D) and (C)
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (B), (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (D)and (C)

35. Which of the following are the detrimental effects of corruption


on development? (2019)
(A) Lower level of social services
(B) Lower economic growth
(C) Higher tax burden and fewer services
(D) Lower opportunities for farmers to sell their product
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (B) and (D) only
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

36. Which one of the following is a redressal mechanism of


grievances? (2020)
(a) Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Right to Information
(c) Management of Resources
(d) Right to Education

37. Functional specialization in the Indian Administrative service


was recommended by (2020)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Satish Chandra Committee
(c) Appleby Report
(d) Sarkaria Commission

38. Which of the following terms is referred to as the ‘software’ of


the state? (2020)
(a) Capacity
(b) Accountability
(c) Resilience
(d) Responsiveness

39. The Joint Consultative Machinery in India was established on


the recommendation of: (2020)
(a) First Pay Commission
(b) Second Pay Commission
(c) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(d) Paul Appleby Report

40. The Right to Free and Compulsory Education Policy of 2009


does not provide for : (2020)
(a) Non-justiciable right to all children between the ages of 6-14 ye
(b) Free and compulsory education
(c) Education of equitable quality
(d) Maintaining pupil teacher ratio norms and standards

41. Which of the following indicates the nature of planning in India


in Contemporary times? (2020)
(a) Annual Planning
(b) Centralised Planning
(c) Perspective Planning
(d) Five year Planning

42. The aim of E-Government is to make the interaction between


government and citizens. (2020)
(A) more friendly
(B) convenient
(C) transparent
(D) inexpensive
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

43. Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan was launched on (2021)


(a) 12th May 2020
(b) 12th October 2020
(c) 12th November 2020
(d) 12th December 2020

44. Performance Budgeting was introduced in India on the


recommendation of : (2021)
(a) Paul Appleby Report
(b) Gorwala Report
(c) First Administrative Reforms Commission Report
(d) Santhanam Committee Report

45. Which one of the following is not a theory or model of


representation? (2021)
(a) Trusteeship
(b) Delegation
(c) The Mandate
(d) Consensus

46. Through which of the following is judicial control over


administration in India is exercised? (2021)
(i) Adjudication
(ii) Judicial Review
(iii) Writs
(iv) Public Interest Litigation
Which of the following answer is correct ?
(a) i and iv
(b) ii and iii
(c) i, ii, iii, iv
(d) ii, iii and iv

47. The function of Central Vigilance Commission of India is:


(2021)
(a) To supervise investigating agencies in the country
(b) To expedite decisions on pending criminal cases in the court of
(c) To scrutinize utilization of expenditure on developmental sche
of the government
(d) To investigate cases against’ public servants

48. Central Vigilance Commission in India was set up on the


recommendation of : (2021)
(a) Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Gorwala Report
(c) Kriplani Committee
(d) Santhanam Committee

49. Which one of the following indicators is identified by the United


Nations as the governance indicator for sustainable
development? (2021)
(a) Drinking water
(b) Corruption
(c) Literacy
(d) Mortality

50. Which one of the following is not a means of popular control


over public administration in India? (2021)
(a) Election
(b) Public hearings
(c) Public opinion
(d) Financial audit

Answer Key
1 9 17 25 33 41 49
(b) (b) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b)
2 10 18 26 34 42 50
(d) (d) (b) (a) (a) (d) (d)
3 11 19 27 35
43 (a)
(a) (a) (c) (a) (d)
4 12 20 28 36
44 (c)
(d) (d) (b) (b) (b)
5 13 21 29 37
45 (d)
(c) (d) (a) (c) (a)
6 14 22 30 38
46 (c)
(c) (c) (b) (a) (b)
7 15 23 31 39
47 (d)
(a) (d) (a) (b) (b)
8 16 24 32 40
48 (d)
(a) (b) (c) (c) (a)

Explanation for Selected Questions

1. Satish Chandra Committee was appointed in 1989 to review and


evaluate the system of selection to the higher civil services. This
committee recommended the introduction of an essay paper in the
civil services examination.
Hence, the answer will be B.

7. Paul Appleby advocated the virtues of honesty and loyalty in Publi


Administration. Stephen Bailey added three more, Optimism
Courage and Fairness to these virtues.
Hence, the answer will be D.
10. The civil services examination based on the recommendations of
Kothari Committee Report of 1976, was first conducted in 1979.
Hence, the correct answer will be C.

11. Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan is the mission started by the


Government of India on 12th May 2020, towards making India Self-
reliant. The Hon’ble Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi announced
an economic package of INR 20 lakh crore as aid to support the
country in the times of pandemic. The aim is to make the country
and its citizens independent and self-reliant in all senses. He
further outlined five pillars of Aatma Nirbhar Bharat – Economy,
Infrastructure, System, Vibrant Demography and Demand.

14. Administrative Reforms commission of India was appointed to


improve public administarion functioning, first in 1966 and second
in 2006. First Administrative commission addressed the issue of
relationship between a minister and secretary in chapter III of the
report. However, Hota Committee on civil services report 2004
clearly states the issue of proper relationship between a minister
and secretary.

15. Generalists can be defined as public servants without specialized


background and can be tranfered to any department whereas
Specialists are equipped with special knowledge or skill in specific
field. First Administrative commission 1969 rejected the Macaulays
philosophy that generalists are able administrators as its narrow
minded understanding.

19. Sustainable Development Goals was adopted in September 2015


by the member states of United Nations setting 2030 agenda for
sustainable development. Sustainable development goals consist
of 17 broad goals and 169 targets. Their achievement depends
upon effective governance arrangements and control on corruption.

23. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was lauched on 2nd October 2014 by


NDA-II government. Swachh Bharat is set achieve universal
sanitation coverage, to improve sanitation infrastructure and to
achieve a clean and open defecation free (ODF) India. Swachh
Bharat is iimplemented by the Ministry of Drinking Water and
Sanitation.

27. Willoughby had expressed legislature exercise power with


‘direction, supervision and control of Public administration’.
External control over public administration in India is maintained
through executive control over administration through political
direction, budgetary allocations, recruitment, and delegated
legislation. Legislature exercise power through control on law-
making process, audit & report, committees and finally through
judicial control.

30. The Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 was introduced in the Upper
House of Parliament by the Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and
Public Distribution, Ram Vilas Paswan, on July 8, 2019. It was
passed by the Lok Sabha on July 30, 2019 and Rajya Sabha on
August 6, 2019.

31. Public policies are mainly framed by government to satisfy public


needs and demands. It is a significant component of any political
system. It plays a major role in making way for society’s progress
and betterment. Well-planned policies helped in the socio-
economic development of a nation.
Thus, C is the correct answer.

33. Trade unions and regional political parties are part of the vibrant
political culture in India. So, they cannot be count as the problem
for nation building. Poverty, Illiteracy, corruption and terrorism are
big hindrance to the social and economic development of India.
Thus, the Correct answer is C.

39. The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Programme launched by the


Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA), in to
provide Housing for All by 2022 when India completes 75 years of
its Independence. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana seeks to address
the housing requirement of urban poor including slum dwellers by
providing credit linked subsidy on loans.

41. The Health Survey and Development Committee was appointed by


the Government of India in October 1943 to make a broad survey
of health conditions and services in British India. Its chairman was
Joseph William Bhore, an Indian Civil Service officer.
Hence, the correct answer will be B.

48. Central Vigilance commission is a agency of corruption prevention


set up in 1968 by executive order on the recommendation of
Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption. However, in
2003 parliament enacted a law that gave Central Vigilance
commission a statutory status.
Disclaimer
The maps published in this book are copyrights by Govt. of India
2021 is made on the basis of maps provided by SOI on its website
(URL) under tab Maps and Data_ External Boundaries
with all reasonable care and diligence.

Dedicated to all my lovely students, whose dreams don’t let


me sleep and motivates me to work hard every day to let them
come true.

Copyright © 2024 Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd

Published by Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd, CIN:


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