IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

Jr.NEET – WEEKEND TEST - 02

Date : 09-07-2023 Time : 3hrs
STD : XI NEET CODE-A Max. Marks :720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the
answer sheet.
Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry , Botany &
Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.
Part – A (Physics): Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT.
Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
Part – C (Botany & Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has
four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
Marking Scheme : For each question in every part you will be awarded
4 Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct and zero
mark if no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect
answer.
******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

SUBJECT SYLLABUS PAPER SETTER

T-1:MOTION IN 1D: EQUATION OF MOTION,EQUATIONS OF Mr.SAKSHI SURESH
PHYSICS MOTION FREELY FALLING BODY ONLY
Mr..HARIKUMAR
T-2: THERMAL EXPANSION OF SOLIDS ( TOTAL)
T-1: ATOMIC STRUCTURE (LAST WEEK SYLLABUS + Dr.RB
PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT HYDROGEN SPECTRUM + BOHR’S
Mr.SRUJAN
CHEMISTRY MODEL ONLY POSTULATES
T-2: PERIODIC TABLE (LAST WEEK SYLLABUS +ATOMIC RADIUS
+ IONISATION ENERGY
BOTANY BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION UPTO FUNGI. Mr LOKESH
ANIMAL KINGDOM UPTO PLATYHEMINTHES PLUS CUM LIVING
ZOOLOGY WORLD COMPLETE Mr.SAMBASIVA RAO
(ACCORDING TO NEW SYLLABUS)
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
PHYSICS
1. When a metal bar is cooled, then which one of these statements is correct?
1) Length, density and mass remain same
2) Length decreases, density increases but mass remains same.
3) Length and mass decreases but density remains the same
4) Length and density decrease but mass remains the same
2. Two bodies of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a tower.
If air resistnace is proportional to the mass of the body.
1) the heavier body reaches the ground earlier
2) the lighter body reaches the ground earlier
3) both reach the gorund simultaneously
4) cannot be decided
3. A ring shaped piece of a metal is heated, if the material expand, the hole will
1) Contract 2)Expand 3)Remain same
4)Expand or contract depending on the width
4. A bullet fired into a fixed targent loses half of its velocity in penetrating 15 cm.
How much further it will penetrate before coming to rest?
1) 5 cm 2) 15 cm 3) 7.5 cm 4) 10 cm
5. The coefficient of linear expansion of a metal rod is 12 106 / 0 C , its value in per 0F
20 15
1)  106 / 0 F 2) 10 6 / 0 F 3) 21.6 106 / 0 F 4) 12 106 / 0 F
3 4
6. A body falls freely from a height ‘h’ its average velocity when it reaches earth is
gh
1) gh 2) 3) 2gh 4) g h
2
7. Thermostat is based on the principle of
1) Equal expansion of two rods of different lengths
2) Different expansion of two rods of different lengths
3) Different expansion of two rods of same length
4) Eqal expansion of two rods of same length
8. For a moving body at any instant of time
1) If the body is not moving, the acceleration is necessarily zero
2) If the body is slowing, the retardation is negative
3) If the body is slowing, the distance is negative
4) If displacement, velocity and acceleration at that instant are known, we can find
the displacement at any given time in future
9. The diameter of a mteal ring is D and the coefficient of linear expansion is  . If the
temperature of the ring is increased by 10C, the circumference and the area of the
ring will increase by
 D  D 2
1)  D , 2 D 2) 2 D ,  D 2 3)  D , 4)  D ,
2 2
10. A body falls freely from a height ‘h’ after two seconds if acceleration due to gravity
is reversed the body
1) continues to fall down
2) falls down with retardation & goes up again with acceleration after some time
3) falls down with uniform velocity
4) raises up with acceleration
11. The coefficeit of linear expansion of a metal is 1 105 / 0 C . The percentage increase
in area of a square plate of that metal when it is heated through 1000C is
1) 0.02% 2) 0.1% 3)0.001% 4) 0.2%
12. In the case of a body freely falling from small height.
1) the changes of position are equal in equal intervals of time
2) the changes of velocity are equal in unequal intervals of time
3) the changes of acceleration is zero in equal or unequal intervals of time
4) None
13. A ring shaped piece of a metal is heated, if the material expands, the hole will
1) Contact 2) Expand 3) Remain same
4) Expand or contact depending on the width

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
14. A hydrogen balloon released on the moon from a height will
1) move up with acceleration 9.8 m/s 2
2) move down with acceleration 9.8 m/s 2
9.8
3) move down with acceleration m/s 2
6
4) neither move up nor move down
15. The length of a metal rod at 00C is 0.5m. When it is heated, its length increases by
2.7mm. The final temperature of rod is (coeff. Oflinear expansion of metal
= 90  106 / 0 C )
1) 200C 2) 300C 3) 400C 4) 600C
16. A freely falling body traveled xm in nth second distance travelled in (n-1)th second is
1) x 2) x + g 3) x – g 4) 2x + 3g
17. A crystal has linear coefficients 0.00004/ C, 0.00005/ C, 0.00006/0C. The
0 0

coefficient of cubical expansion of the crystal is

1) 0.000015/0C 2) 0.00015/0C 3)0.0012/0C 4) 00018/0C
18. If the particle is moving along a straight line given by the relation x = 2 – 3t + 4t3
where s is in cms., and t in sec. Its average velocity during the third sec is
1) 73 cm/s 2) 80 cm/s 3) 85 cm/s 4) 90 cm/s
19. A wire of length 60cm is bent into a circle with a gap of 1cm. At its ends, on
heating it by 1000C, the length of the gap increases to 1.02cm,  of material of
wire is
1) 2 104 / 0 C 2) 4 104 / 0 C 3) 6  104 / 0 C 4) 1 104 / 0 C
20. For a body travelling with uniform acceleration, its final velocity is v  180  7 x ,
where x is the distance traveled by the body. Then the acceleration is
1) 8 m/s 2 2) 3.5 m/s 2 3) 7 m/s 2 4) 180 m/s 2
21. When a rod is heated from 250C to 750C, it expands by 1mm. When a rod ofsame
material but with 4times the length is heated from250C to 500C, the increase in
length is
1)1mm 2)1.5mm 3)1.6mm 4) 2mm
22. A bus starts from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m/s2. At the same time a
car travelling with a constant velocity 50 m/s overtakes and passes the bus. How
fast is the bus travelling when they are side by side?
1) 10 m/s 2) 50 m/s 3) 100 m/s 4) None
23. Two metal rods have coefficients of linear expansion 1.1 105 / 0 C and
1.65  105 / 0 C respectively. The difference in length is 10cm at all temperatures.
Their initial lengths must be respectively.
1) 40 cm and 50 cm 2) 40 cm and 30 cm
3) 50 cm and 60 cm 4) 30 cm and 20 cm
24. A body falls from 80m. Its time of descent is  g  10ms 2 
1) 3s 2) 4s 3) 5s 4) 6s

25. If coefficient of cubical expansion is x times coefficient of superficial expansion,

then the value of x is
1) 1.5 2)2 3) 2.5 4) 3
26. A body falls for 5s from rest. If the acceleration due to gravity of earth ceases to
act, the distance it travels in the next 3s is
1) 73.5 m 2) 294 m 3) 147 m 4) 49 m
27. A rubber ball does not pass through a copper ring at room temperature. The same
ball, after heatime, passes through the same ring. If shows due to heating, the ball.
1) Expands 2) Contracts 3) Does not change 4) Both 1 or 2
7h
28. A body freely faling from a height h describes in the last second of its fall. The
16
height h is  g  10ms 2 
1) 80m 2) 45m 3) 160m 4) 40m
29. The ratio of lengths of two rods is 1 : 2 and the ratio of coefficient of expansions is
2 :3. The first rod is heated through 600C . Find the temperature thorught which
the second rod is to be heated so that its expansion is twicethat of first, is
1)600C 2) 400C 3) 300C 4)100C

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
30. The ratio of times taken by freely falling body to cover first metre, second metre,
…is
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 1 : 2  1 : 3  2
3) 2 : 4 : 8 4) 2 : 3 : 4
31. A brass sheet is 25cm long and 8 cm breadth at 00C. Its area at 1000C is
  18 106 / 0 C 
1) 207.2cm2 2) 200.72cm2 3) 272cm2 4) 2000.72cm2
32. A body is droped from a height 122.5m. If its stopped after 3 seconds and again
released the further time of descent is  g  9.8ms 2 
1) 2s 2) 3s 3) 4s 4) 5s
33. The variation of density of a solid with temperature is given by the formula
d1 d1 d1 d1
1) d 2  2) d 2  3) d 2  4) d 2 
1    t2  t1  1    t2  t1  1  2  t2  t1  1  2  t2  t1 
34. A freely falling body travels_________of total distance in 5 second. th

1) 8% 2) 12% 3) 25% 4) 36%

35. If  c and  f denote the numerical values of coefficient of linear expansion of a
solit, expressed per 0C and per 0F respectively, then
1)  c   f 2)  f   c 3)  f   c 4)  f   c  0
36. If the distance travelled by a freely falling body in the last second of its journey is
equal to the distance travelled in the first 2s, the time of descent of the body is
1) 5s 2) 1.5s 3) 2.5s 4) 3s
37. Distance between two places is 200km.  of metals is 2.5  105 / 0 C . Total space
that must be left between steel rails to allow a change of temperature from 360F tp
1170F is
1) 2.25 km 2) 0.225 km 3) 22.5 km 4) 0.0225 km
38. A splash is heard 3.12s after a stone is dropped into a well 45m deep. The speed of
sound in air is  g  10ms 2 
1) 330 ms 1 2) 375 ms 1 3) 340 ms 1 4) 346 ms 1
39. When a thin rod of length ‘/’ is heated from t10C to t20C length increases by 1%. If
plate of length 2l and breadth ‘l’ made of same material is heated form t10C to t20C ,
percentage increase in area is
1) 1 2)2 3) 3 4) 4
40. The position x of a particle varies with time t as x  at  bt . The acceleration of the
2 3

particle will be zero at time t equal to

a 2a a
1) 2) 3) 4) Zero
b 3b 3b
41. A thick glass tumbler gets cracks when boiling water is poured into it, because of
1) Poor quality 2) Unequal expansions
3) A of glass iszero 4) A of glass is maximum
42. An electron starting from rest has a velocity that increases linearly with the time
that is v = kt, where k  2 m/sec2 . The distance travelled in the first 3 seconds will
be
1) 9m 2) 16m 3) 27m 4) 36m
43. The diameter of iron wheel is 1cm. If its temperature is increased by 7000C. whatis

the increase in circumference fo the wheel?   12  106 / 0 C 
1) 0.0264 cm 2) 0.264 cm 3) 2.64cm 4) 26.4cm
44. A car moving with a speed of 50 km/hr can be stopped by brakes after at least 6m.
If the same car is moving at a speed of 100 km/hr the minium stopping distance is
1) 12 m 2) 18 m 3) 24 m 4) 6 m
45. When a metal bar is heated, the increase is length is greater, if
1) The bar has large diameter 2) The bar is long
3) The temperature rise small 4) Small diameter

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is correct order of threshould energy of metals?
A) Li > Na > K B) K > Cu > Ag C) Cu > Ag > Mg D) Mg > Ag > K
1) A and B only 2) A and C only
3) A, B and C only 4) A and D only
47. The element having electronic configuration  Kr  4d10 4f 14 ,5s 2 5p6 , 6s 2 belong to:
1) s-block 2) p-block 3) d-block 4) f-block
48. In a photoelectric effect experiment, when the given metal is exposed to a radiation
of 3.2 1015 Hz , then the KE of ejected electrons is found to be triple the value of KE
of electrons emitted when a radiation of 1.2 1015 Hz is used. Then the threshold
frequency of the metal is _______
1) 2 1015 Hz 2) 4 1015 Hz 3) 4 1014 Hz 4) 2 1014 Hz
49. The period number and group number of ‘’Tantalum’’ (Z=73) are respectively.
1) 5, 7 2) 6,13 3) 6,5 4) None of these
50. The angular momentum of the electron revolving in N-shell is
2h h 4h h
1) 2) 3) 4)
   2
51. Choose the correct statement regarding transition elements?
1) Transition element has low melting points
2) Transition element do not have catalytic activity
3) Trnasition elements exhibit variable oxidation states
4) Transition elements exhibit inert pair effect
52. Regarding Bohr’s model, among the following statements.
A) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in stationary orbits.
B) As the number of the orbit increases, then energy of the electron revolving in
that orbit increases.
C) When electrons jump from lower orbit to higher orbit then energy is emitted.
D) Both angular momentum and energy of the electron between the orbits are
quantized.
The correct statements are :
1) All A, B, C and D 2) Only A and D
3) Only A, B and D 4) Only B and C
53. The atomic numbers of the metallic and non-metallic elements which are liquid at
room temperature respectively are:
1) 55,87 2) 33,87 3) 35,80 4) 80,35
54. Which of the following electromagnetic radiation has relatively lower wavelength?
1) Visible 2) IR 3) UV 4) Gamma rays
 2 3
55. The ionic radii of Li , Be and B follow the order
1) Be2   B3  Li  2) Li   B3  Be2  3) B3  Be 2  Li  4) Li   Be2   B3
56. The set of atoms 14 Si 30 , 15 P 31 & 16 S 32 is an example of
1) Isotopes 2) Isobars 3) Isotones 4) Isodiaphers
57. The single covalent radius of P is 0.11nm. The single covalent radius of Chlorine
will be
1) Smaller than P 2) Greater than P 3) Same as P 4) Twice of P
58. The species containing 18 electrons, 16 protons and 16 neutrons is correctly
represeted as
34 32 32 32 2 
1) 18 Ar 2) 16 S 3) 18 Ar 4) 16 S
59. The correct order of increasing radius of the elements Si, Al, Na and P is:
1) Si<Al<P<Pa 2) P<Si<Al<Na 3) Al<Si<P<Na 4) Al<P<Si<Na
1
60. The wave number of 3 line of Lyman series is x cm . Then the wave number of
rd

similar line of Li 2 ion is ________

1) 4x 2) x/4 3) x/9 4) 9x

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
61. The first, second and third ionisation energies  E1 , E 2 and E 3  for an element are
7eV, 12.5 eV and 42.5 eV respectively. The most stable oxidation state of the
element will be:
1) +1 2) +4 3) +3 4) +2
62. Assertion (A): The specific charge of cathode rays is always same and does not
depend upon the nature of the gas taken in discharge tube.
Reason (R) : Irrespective of the nature of the gas taken in the discharge tube,
cathode rays are always a stream of electrons.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false
63. Element having highest I.P value is:
1) Ne 2) He 3) Be 4) N
64. The Vividh Bharati station of All Indian Radio, Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of
1,368 kHz (kilo hertz). Calculate the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
emitted by transmitter.
1) 219.2 m 2) 312.3 m 3) 219.3 m 4) 236.4 m
65. Which of the following isoelectronic ion has the lowest ionization energy?
1) K+ 2) Cl- 3) Ca2+ 4) S2-
66. The wave number of electromagnetic radiation with wave length 6000 Ao is _____
cm1 .
1) 1.667 104 2) 1.667 106 3) 1.724 106 4) 1.724 104
67. The ionization potentials of Li and K are 5.4 and 4.3 eV respectively. The ionization
potential of Na will be:
1) 9.7 eV 2) 1.1 eV 3) 4.9 eV 4) Cannot be calculated
68. The threshold frequency 0 for a metal is 7.0 ×10 s . Calculate the kinetic energy
14 –1

of an electron emitted when radiation of frequency =1.0 ×1015 s–1 hits the metal.
1) 6.24  1019 J 2) 1.988 1019 J 3) 4.75  1019 J 4) 9.62  1019 J
69. An element has successive ionization enthalpies as 940 (first), 2820, 3090, 4140,
7030, 7870, 16000 and 19500 kJ mol-1. To which group of periodic table does this
element belong?
1) 14 2) 15 3) 16 4) 17
70. Which of the following has same units of Rydberg constant?
1) Frequency 2) Energy 3) Wavelength 4) Wave number
71. The second ionization energy is maximum for:
1) Boron 2) Beryllium 3) Magnesium 4) Aluminium
72. The wave number of 2 line of Lyman series of H-spectrum is _______
nd

21R 8R 3R 21R
1) 2) 3) 4)
100 9 4 25
73. Which of the following has largest radius?
1) Iron 2) Scandium 3) Cesium 4) Nickel
74. The wavelength of 3rd line of Paschen series of H-sepctrum is ________
R 36 12 9
1) 2) 3) 4)
12 5R R 5R
75. First ionization energy is the lowest for:
1) Germanium 2) Carbon 3) Silicon 4) Tin

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
76. The correct matching from the following is
List – I List – II
(Name of the series) (Region in which that series of
lines are found)
A) Lyman P) IR
B) Brackett Q) Visible
C) Balmer R) UV
D) Paschen S) Microwave
1) AR, BP, CQ, DP 2) AR, BP, CQ, DS
3) AR, BS, CQ, DP 4) AR, BQ, CS, DP
77. The correct values of ionization enthalpies of (in kJ mol-1) of Si, P, Cl and S
respectively are:
1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256 2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999 4) 786, 786, 999, 1256
78. The metals generally used in photoelectric cells are
1) Cu, Ag 2) Ag, Au 3) K, Cs 4) Ca, Cu
79. Which of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals increase from
Be to Ba?
i) Atomic radius ii) Ionisation energy iii) Nuclear charge

1) i and ii 2) i and iii 3) ii and iii 4) i, ii and iii

80. Rainbow is an example of
1) Discontinuous spectrum 2) Continuous spectrum
3) Absorption spectrum 4) Band spectrum
81. La (Lanthanum) having atomic number 57 is member of:
1) s-block elements 2) p-block elements
3) d-block elements 4) f-block elements
82. The ratio of minium frequencies of spectral lines of Lyman and Balmer series of
H-spectrum is _______
1) 5.4 2) 4.6 3) 3.6 4) 4.8
83. The ionization energy will be higher when the electron is removed from:
1) s-orbitals 2) p-orbitals 3) d-orbitals 4) f-orbitals
84. What is the number of photons of light with a wavelength of 4000 pm that provide
1J of energy?
1) 2.012 1016 2) 2.012 1017 3) 2.012 1014 4) 2.012 1013
85. The correct order of atomic/ionic radii is:
1) Sc>Ti>V>Cr 2) Co>Ni>Cu>Zn 3) Na>K>Rb>Cs 4) None of these
86. A 25 watt bulb emits a radiation of 300 nm. Then the number of photons emitted
by bulb in one second is ________
1) 2.773 1021 2) 3.173 1020 3) 4.243 1019 4) 3.773 1019
87. Which of the following is radio active element ?
1) Na 2) Pm 3) K 4) Rb
88. The atoms with same difference between number of neutrons and number of
protons are called
1) Isotopes 2) Isobars 3) Isotones 4) Isodiaphers
89. Element having highest I.P. value of
1) Ne 2) He 3) Be 4) N
90. Which of the following property of spectral lines increases from Lyman series to
Pfund series of H-spectrum?
1) Wave number 2) Wave length 3) Frequency 4) Both 1 and 3

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
BIOLOGY
91. Match the following Columns correctly.
Column – I Column - II
(I) Aristotle (A) Two kingdom Classification
(II) Linneaus (B) Five Kingdom Classification
(III) R.H. Whittaker (C) Classify plants in to Herbs,
Shrubs, Trees & animals into that
.
with RBCs and without RBC’s
(I) (II) (III) (I) (II) (III)
.

1) A B C 2) B C A
3) C A B 4) A C B
92. Assertion (A) : Deuteromycetes are commonly known as imperfect fungi.
Reason (R) : Only sexual phase of Deuteromycetes is known.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not correct explanation of
the Assertion
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4) Assertion is false and Reason is true
93. From the given below examples, how many of them belongs to Sac fungi.
Yeast, Rhizopus, Aspergillus, Alternaria, Agaricus.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
94. What is the correct sequence of stages in sexual cycle of fungi.
1) Plasmogamy   Meiosis in zygote   Karyogamy.
2) Karyogamy 
 Meiosis in Zygote 
 Plasmogamy
3) Plasmogamy 
 Karyogamy 
 Meiosis in Zygote
4) Meiosis in Zygote   Plasmogamy   Karyogamy
95. Two nuclei per cell ( n + n ) condition is not seen in
1) Aspergillus 2) Agaricus 3) Claviceps 4) Albugo
96. Choose the incorrect match
1) Yeast – used to make bread & beer 2) Penicillium – source of Vitamins
3) Puccinia – Cause wheat rust 4) Albugo – Parasite on mustard
97. Match the Column – I with Column – II
Column – I Column - II
(I) Hyphae (A) Multinucleated cytoplasm
(II) Mycelium (B) Fusion of protoplasms
(III) Plasmogamy (C) Long slender thread like structures
(IV) Karyogamy (D) Fusion of nuclei
(V) Coenocytic (E) Network of hyphae
(F) Two nuclei per cell
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V) (I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
1) C E B A F 2) C E B D A
3) C B E D F 4) C E D A B

98. Statement I : Zoospores ( non-motile), aplanospores (motile) are asexual spores

produced endogenously inside sporangium.
Statement II : Conidia ( sexual spores ) produced exogenously on the special
mycelium called conidiophores.
1) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
99. All of the following belongs to bracket fungi except.
1) Agaricus 2) Alternaria 3) Ustilago 4) Puccinia
100. Kingdom Fungi is divided into various classes, based on
a) Morphology of mycelium b) Mode of nutrition
c) Mode of spore formation d) Fruiting body
e) Habitat f) Mode of Reproduction
1) a,b,c,d only 2) a,c,d only 3) a,b,c,e only 4) a,c,f only

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
101. Cell wall of Fungi is composed of
1) Chitin & polypeptides 2) Chitin & polysaccharides
3) Polysaccharide & Cellulose 4) Polynucleotide & Cellulose
102. Read the following statements and identify whether, they are True (T) or False (F).
A) Mycelium of phycomycetes fungi is septate & coenocytic
B) Ascomycetes Fungi posses Aseptate & branched mycelium
C) Fungi belonging to Basidiomycetes posses septate & branched mycelium.
D) Mycelium of Imperfect fungi is septate & branched.
1) A – F B – F C – T D - T 2) A – F B – F C – F D – T
3) A – F B – T C – F D – T 4) A – T B – T C – F D – F
103. Kingdom with chemoautotrophic nutrition is?
1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Fungi 4) Animalia
104. Protista having pigments similar to higher plants are
1) Dinoflagellates 2) Euglenoids 3) Diatoms 4) Protozooans
105. Identify the incorrectly matched:
1) Heterocysts – Algal bloom formation
2) Dinoflagellates – Photosynthetic
3) Diatom – planktonic
4) Slime moulds – Saprophytic protista
106. Fungi shows
I) Great diversity in morphology & Habitat
II) Prefer to grow in cool, damp, shady places
III) Most of them are Heterotrophic
The correct options is / are
1) I only 2) I & III only 3) I, II only 4) I, II & III
107. Consider the following statements
A) All Fungi are filamentous, including yeast
B) Members of Deuteromycetes fungi are decomposes of litter & help in mineral
cycling.
C) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common in Basidiomycetes
D) Morels & Truffles are edible & are considered delicacies
E) Isogamous, Anisogamous type of reproduction is found in Mucor.
Mark the correct statement
1) A,C,D,E 2) B,C,D 3) B,C,D,E 4) C,D,E
108. Find the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. fungi & their sexual spores.
1) Penicillium – Ascospore 2) Alternaria – Zoospore
3) Ustilago – Basidiospore 4) Rhizopus – Zygospore
109. Which one is correct about reproduction in bacteria?
1) Mainly by binary fission
2) Spores are formed under unfavorable condition
3) Sexual reproduction by transfer of DNA from one to another
4) All of these
110. Bacterial structure & behaviour are respectively
1) Simple, Simple 2) Complex, Simple
3) Simple, Complex 4) Complex, Complex
111. In which of the following plasmogamy is followed by Karyogamy immediately?
1) Aspergillus 2) Puccinia 3) Albugo 4) Claviceps
112. Identify around structure ‘A’ in this diagram

1) dsDNA 2) Plasmid 3) Spore 4) Cosmid

113. How many of the following list of organism lacks cellulose cell wall?
Dinoflagellates, Cyanobacteria, Diatoms, Spirogyra, Nostoc, Anabaena, Gonyaulax,
Euglena
1) 3 2) 5 3) 6 4) 4
______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
114. Assertion (A) : Diatomaceous earth is used in polishing, filtering of oils & Syrups.
Reason (R) : Diatomaceous earth is gritty due to presence of silica.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not correct explanation of
the Assertion
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false 4) Assertion is false and Reason is true
115. Reason for the formation of blooms in water bodies such as rivers, lakes etc is
1) Blue algae 2) Blue green algae 3) Protista 4) Protozoa
116. Mycorrhiza is a ___(A)___ relationship between __B__ & ___C___ . Identify A,B,C ?
1) A – Parasitic, B – Fungi, C – Plant roots
2) A – Symbiontic, B – Algae, C – Plant roots
3) A – Symbiontic, B – Fungi, C – Algae
4) A – Symbiontic, B – Fungi, C – higher plant roots
117. Given below are all the bacterial diseases caused in ( animals ) humans except
1) Typhoid 2) Tetanus 3) Cholera 4) Citrus canker
118. Match the following Column – I with Column – II
Column – I Column - II
(I) Diatoms (A) Spore with true walls
(II) Dinoflagellates (B) Protein rich layer – Pellicle
(III) Euglenoids (C) Cell wall with stiff cellulose plates
.
(IV) Slime moulds (D) Cell wall with Silica
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
.

1) A B C D 2) D C B A
3) D B C A 4) D A B C
119. Yeast comes under
1) Phycomycetes 2) Basidiomyccetes
3) Ascomycetes 4) Deuteromycetes
120. All the following can be applicable in Protozoans except
a) They are single celled
b) They belong to kingdom Protista
c) They are believed to be primitive relatives of animals
d) They are all heterotrophs and live as parasites or predators
e) There are six major groups of Protozoans
1) d only 2) e only 3) b only 4) a only
121. The mycelium in fungi may be septate or aseptate. In which of the following
classes the mycelium is septate & branched.
a) Phycomycetes b) Ascomycetes c) Basidiomycetes d) Deutromycetes
1) a only 2) b,c only 3) a,b,c only 4) b,c,d only
122. What indicates A in this figure?

1) Heterocyst 2) Mucilaginous sheath

3) Cyanobacteria 4) ATP
123. Match the following :
Column – I Column - II
(I) Rhizopus (A) Smut disease
(II) Agaricus (B) Biochemical & genetic work
(III) Neurospora (C) Yeast
(IV) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (D) Bread mould
(V) Ustilago (E) Mineral cycling
(VI) Trichoderma (F) Edible mushroom
(G) Rust disease
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V) (VI) (I) (II) (III) (IV) (V) (VI)
1) D B F C A G 2) D F B C A E
3) D F B A C G 4) A B C D E F

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
124. Heterotrophic bacteria helps in
1) Curding of milk 2) Production of antibiotic
3) Nitrogen fixation in leguminous plant 4) All of these
125. Consider the following statements about Ascomycetes
I) They are saprophytic, decomposers, coprophilous & parasitic
II) Include unicellular & multicellular forms
III) Penicilliium, Aspergillus, Claviceps, etc., are examples of Ascomycetes
IV) Sexual spores called Ascospores, produced exogenously inside Asci.
Which of the above statements is / are false?
1) III only 2) II only 3) I only 4) IV only
126. In earlier classification (like two kingdoms), the following are included in plantae
a) Bacteria, blue green algae, fungus
b) Mosses and fern
c) Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
1) (a) only 2) (b) and (c) only 3) (c) only 4) All of these
127. Which of the following is incorrect about protista?
1) All are single cell eukaryotes
2) Some have flagella or cilia
3) Sexually reproduce by cell fusion and zygote formation
4) Members of protista are primarily terrestrial
128. In _______ cell wall forms two thin overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap
box.
1) Dinoflagellates 2) Diatoms 3) Euglenoids 4) None of these
129. Select the correct matching:
A. Fungi depend on dead substrate   Saprophytic
B. Fungi depend on living plants and animals 
 Parasite
C. Fungi as symbiont with algae 
 Lichens
D. Fungi as symbiont with root of higher plant 
 Mycorrhiza
1) A and B only 2) B and C only 3) C and D only 4) All of these
130. Most extensive metabolic diversity is found in
1) Fungi 2) Protista 3) Bacteria 4) Mycoplasma
131. Karyogamy and meiosis occurs in basidium produces ______ basidiospores.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
132. Identify the A, B and C in this figure.

1) A–Agaricus, B–Mucor, C–Aspergillus 2) A–Mucor, B–Agaricus, C–Aspergillus

3) A–Aspergillus, B–Mucor, C–Agaricus 4) A–Agaricus, B–Aspergillus, D–Mucor
133. Statement A : Bacteria are prokaryotic.
Statement B : Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell
organelles.
1) Both Statements-A and B are correct
2) Both Statements-A and B are incorrect
3) Statement-A is correct, but B is incorrect
4) Statement- A is incorrect and B is correct

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
134. Match the following :
Column – I Column - II
(I) Red tide (A) Slime moulds
(II) Chief producers of ocean (B) Euglena
(III) Connecting link between plants (C) Gonyaulax
and animals
(IV) Plasmodium formed during (D) Trypanasoma
favourable conditions
(V) Sleeping sickness (E) Plasmodium
(VI) Malarial parasite (F) Diatoms
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V) (VI) (I) (II) (III) (IV) (V) (VI)
1) C F B A D E 2) C B F D A E
3) A B C D E F 4) F E D A C B
135. Assertion: Classification system has undergone several changes over a period of
time.
Reason: This is because the criteria for classification gradually get changed.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not correct explanation of
the Assertion
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4) Assertion is false and Reason is true
136. Taxonomy deals with
1) Characterisation 2) Identification 3) Nomenclature 4)All of these
137. Which of the following animals exhibits both polyp and medusa?
1) Hydra 2) Obelia 3) Adamsia 4) Planaria
138. The similar word to phylum used in classifying plants
1) Grade 2) Domain 3)Order 4) Division
139. Select the freshwater sponge from the following.
1) Sycon 2) Euspongia 3)Spongilla 4) Hyalonema
140. Which of the not a function of Water canal system?
1) Respiration 2) Excretion 3) Locomotion 4) Food gathering
141. Match the scientific names in column – I with common names in column – II and
select the correct option given below:
Column – I Column - II
(A) Panther leo (I) Potato
(B) Pantheratigris (II) Leopard
(C) Pantherapardus (III) Tiger
.
(D) Solanumtuberosum (IV) Lion
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) IV III II I 2) II IV I III
3) III I IV II 4) I III II IV
142. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Physalia (I) Sea anemone
(B) Adamsia (II) Sea fan
(C) Pennatula (III) Sea pen
(D)
.
Gorgonia (IV) Portuguese man-of-war
.

Select the correct option.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) IV I II III 2) IV II I III
3) IV I III II 4) I IV III II
143. Planaria possesses high capacity of
1) Metamorphosis 2) Regeneration
3) Alternation of generation 4) Bioluminescence
144. The species like nigram and melongena included in the genus
1) Felis 2) Panthera 3) Petunia 4) Solanum

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
145. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct
option.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Flatworms (I) Spicules
(B) Sponges (II) Corals
(C) Comb jellies (III) Only sexual Reproduction
(D)
.
Coelenterates (IV) Acoelomates
.

Select the correct option.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) IV I III II 2) I IV III II
3) IV III I II 4) III II I IV
146. The body of ctenophores bears
1) Four external rows of ciliated comb plates
2) Four external rows of non-ciliated comb plates
3) Eight external rows of ciliated comb plates
4) Eight external rows of non-ciliated comb plates
147. Match the animals given in column – I with their level of organization given in
column II ad select the correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Organ level (I) Sponges
(B) Water canal system (II) Coelenterates
(C) Organ system level (III) Platyhelminthes
(D)
.
Tissue level (IV) Aschelminthes
.

Select the correct option.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) III I IV II 2) IV III II I
3) I III IV II 4) II III IV I
148. Which of the following exhibits the lowest level of organization?
1) Gorgonia 2) Sycon 3) Fasciola 4) Ctenoplana
149. Statement – I: Annelids and arthropods are bilaterally symmetrical.
Statement – II: Their body can be divided into identical left and right halves in two
planes.
1) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
2) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
3) Both statements-I and II are true
4) Both statements-I and II are false
150. Select the correct match.
1) Polyp : Free-swimming 2) Medusa : Free-swimming
3) Polyp : Umbrella shaped 4) Medusa : Cylindrical
151. Which one of the following statements regarding coelom of given animals
isincorrect?
1) Aschelminthesare pseudocoelomates
2) Molluscs are coelomates
3) Sponges are pseudocoelomates
4) Flatworms are acoelomates
152. Which of the following characteristic is shared by Cnidarians and Ctenophores?
1) Tissue level of organization 2) Metagenesis
3) Cnidocytes 4) Comb plates
153. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are included under
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Aschelminthes
3) Annelida 4) Ctenophora
154. Cnidoblasts are present in
1) Pila 2) Hydra 3)Scypha 4)Salpa
155. Which of the following represents the correct combination of a taxonomic group
with its characteristics, without any exception?
1) Cnidaria – Diploblastic,Radially symmetrical animals with polyp, medusa and
cnidocytes
2) Ctenophora-Diploblastic radially symmetrical animals with comb plates and
reproducing only by sexual method
3) Platyhelminthes-Triploblastic bilaterally symmetrical and ectoparasites
4) Porifera- Diploblastic, external fertilization.
______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
156. Which of the following is not a character of Sponges?
1) Multicellular nature 2) Canal system
3) Cellular level of organization 4) Radial symmetry
157. Which naming system is practiced by biologist all over the world?
1) Binomial system 2) Trinomial system
3) Artificial system 4) All of the above
158. Which taxon has least number of similar characters?
1) Order 2) Family 3) Division 4) Class
159. Which of the following exhibits by Obelia
1) Medusa form 2) Metastasis 3) Metagenesis 4) Metamerism
160. Unit of classication is
1)Taxon 2) Rank 3) Category 4) All of the above
161. Wheat and mango belongs to same?
1) Order 2) Class 3) Division 4) Both 1 and 3
162. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories
1) Species →Phylum →Class → Kingdom
2) Genus → Species → Order → Kingdom
3) Species → Genus → Order → Class
4) Division → Family → Order →Genus
163. Mango belongs to this order
1) Anacardiales 2) Poales 3) Sapindales 4) Polymoniales
164. Lowest and highest taxonomic categories are respectivley
1) Division, species 2) Species, Division
2) Species, kingdom 4) Phylym, genus
165. Select the correct statements from the given below:
a) As we go higher to lower categories common characters increases
b) As we go lower to higher categories common characters decreases
c) As we go higher tolower categories common characters decreases
d) As we go lower to higher categories common characters increases
1) a, b 2) b, c 3) c, d 4) a, d
166. The families like felidae and Canidae included in the order
1) Rodentis 2) Carnivora 3) Cetacea 4) Primates
167. Which among the following animals are sedentary (i.e., attached forms)
1) Aurelia 2) Sea anemone 3) Sycon 4) Both 2 & 3
168. Incomplete digestive system found in
1) Porifera 2)Coelenterata 3)Ctenophora 4)Platyhelminthes
169. Select the correct statement
1) Solanceae is plant order 2) Carnivora is plant order
3) Mammalia is animal order 4) Felidae is animal family
170. Which of the following present in Sponges?
1) Water canal sytem 2) Water vascular system
3) Water Transport system 4) Both 1& 3
171. Match the biological names in column – I with their order in column-ii and select
correct option given below
Column – I Column - II
(A) Homo sapiens (I) Diptera
(B) Musca domestica (II) Primata
(C) Triticumaestivum (III) Sapindales
(D)
.
Mangiferaindica (IV) Poales
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) II I IV III 2) III IV I II
3) IV II I III 4) I IV III II
172. Function of flame cells and phylum
1) Respiration, excretion – Platyhelminthes
2) Osmoregulation, excretion –Platyhelminthes
3) Osmoregulation, excretion – Ctenophora
4) Respiration, excretion –Cnedaria
173. Name of the family to which man belongs to
1) Homo 2) Homonoidae 3) Huminuidea 4)Hominidae
174. Which of the following are present in Coelenterates?
1) Nematodes 2) Conidophores 3) Cnidocytes 4) Non of the above

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
WEEKEND EXAM – 02 CODE-A ____ Jr._NEET _09.07.2023
175. In some organisms the body is found divided into compartments with serial
repetition of at least some organs is reffered as.
1) Metastasis 2) Metamerism 3) Metagenesis 4) Metamorphosis
176. Which of the following comes under solanaceae family?
1) Solanum 2) Datura 3) Petunia 4)All the above
177. In coelenterates noncellular layer present between ectoderm and endoderm is
called
1)Mesoderm 2) Mesenchyme 3) Mesoglea 4) Mesohyl
178. Flat worms are
a) Bilaterally symmetrical b) Triploblastic
c) Pseudo coelomate d) Organ level organization
1) All are true 2) a, b, c are true 3) Only b and d are true 4) a, b and d are true
179. Examine the figures A, B and C.

In which one of the four options all the animals (Poriferans) are correct?
1) A – Sycon, B – Euspontia, C-Bath sponge
2) A – Scypha, B – Euspongia, C-Spongin
3) A –Spongilla, B – Sycon, C –Euspongia
4) A – Sycon, B- Euspongia, C-Spongilla
180. Here two basic body forms of cnidarians are given .

1) A and B are false swimming forms

2) A and B are sessile form
3) A produces B asexually and B produces ‘A’ sexually.
4) A produces B sexually and B produces ‘A’ asexually.

***********

______________________________________________________________________________________
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY