GFR Questions
GFR Questions
GFR Questions
Rule ____ of GFR 2017 refers to the set of rules and practices to be followed by the authorities for
e cient and prudent management and utilization of public funds
I. 24
II. 21
III. 22
IV. 23
Rule _____ of GFR 2017 elaborates the duties and responsibilities of the “Controlling O cer” who
has been entrusted by a Department of the Central Government with the responsibility of
controlling the expenditure as well as collection of revenue.
I. 23
II. 24
III. 26
IV. 25
As per Rule _____ of GFR 2017, all the Government accounts will be maintained only in Indian
Rupees. All the foreign currency transactions will be converted into Indian Rupees.
I. 77
II. 76
III. 72
IV. 74
1
ffi
fi
ffi
ffi
fi
fi
ffi
As per GFR 2017, the validity period mentioned in the Sanction Order will lapse on ________
I. On the expiry of the validity period mentioned in the Sanction Order
II. If any speci c provision is made regarding expenditure will be met out of the budget of the
speci c year, then up to the close of the Financial Year
III. 24 Months from the Date of issue of Sanction Order
IV. Either (I) or (II)
Accounts of the Union Government shall be prepared every year by the Controller General of
Accounts, certi ed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and along with the report of
the Comptroller and Auditor General of India will be submitted before each house of the
parliament within ____ months from the close of the nancial year
I. 2 Months
II. 3 Months
III. 1 Month
IV. 6 Months
PFMS (Public Financial Management System) Software application can be utilized for
I. Bill Processing and payment
II. Direct Bene t Fund Transfer
III. Tracking Funds
IV. Both (I) and (II)
As per Rule ____ of GFR 2017, the annual accounts of the Central Government shall be recorded
from 1st April to 31st March every year.
I. 75
II. 76
III. 77
IV. 78
As per Rule ____ of GFR 2017, any loss of Government property due to re, theft or fraud above
the value of Rs.______ shall be reported to the police for investigation
I. Rule 24, Rs.50,000
II. Rule 34, Rs.50,000
III. Rule 24, Rs.25,000
IV. Rule 34, Rs.25,000
Rule _______ of GFR 2017 explain about the procedure for execution of Works.
I. 132
II. 133
III. 139
IV. 140
As per Rule ______ of GFR 2017, repair works upto Rs.__________ can be undertaken by the
Ministry / Department at its own discretion
I. 133(1), Rs.30,00,000/-
II. 132(1), Rs.25,00,000/-
III. 139, Rs.30,00,000/-
IV. 140, Rs.25,00,000/-
2
fi
fi
fi
fi
fi
fi
fi
All new constructions, site preparation, additions to existing buildings or works will be classi ed
as __________
I. Minor Works
II. Repair Works
III. Original Work
IV. Major Work
Rule _____ of GFR 2017 deals with the details of the authorities who can delegate their powers to
various subordinate authorities to give administrative and further sanctions.
I. 131
II. 132
III. 133
IV. 134
Which type of tender is required for execution of repair works costing less than Rs. 5 lakhs?
I. Open tender enquiry
II. Two bid system
III. Advertised tender enquiry
IV. Limited tender enquiry
Procurement of Goods worth Rs._______ can be directly purchased from GeM Portal.
I. Rs.25,000
II. Rs.50,000
III. Rs.75,000
IV. Rs.1,00,000
As per Rule 149 of GFR 2017, all the Ministry / Departments should mandatorily make their
purchases through ____________
I. Central Public Procurement Portal (CPPP)
II. Government e-Market Place Portal (GeM)
III. National Informatics Centre Portal
IV. All Portals authorized by DGS&D
In GeM Portal, online bidding has to be resorted to in case of procurement of Goods are above
_____________
I. Rs.15 Lakhs
II. Rs.20 Lakhs
III. Rs.25 Lakhs
IV. Rs.30 Lakhs
3
fi
fi
fi
Which of the following Department has taken the responsibility of registration of suppliers in GeM
Portal ?
I. Department of Supplies
II. Department of Goods
III. Director General of Supplies & Disposal
IV. National Informatics Centre
As per GFR 2017, in the Advertised Tender Enquiry, the minimum period for submission of
response by Indian Suppliers is ______ and _______ for foreign suppliers
I. 2 Weeks, 4 Weeks
II. 3 Weeks, 4 Weeks
III. 4 Weeks, 4 Weeks
IV. 4 Weeks, 5 Weeks
When the value of Goods is more than Rs.25 Lakhs, which method is prescribed for
procurement ?
I. Limited Tender Enquiry
II. Electronic Reverse Auction
III. Advertised Tender Enquiry
IV. Open Auction Mode
As per Rule ____ of GFR 2017, it is mandatory for all the Ministry / Departments to publish (e-
Publishing) their Tender Enquiries, Request for Proposals in Central Public Procurement Portal /
GeM Portal ?
I. 159
II. 160
III. 161
IV. 162
As per GFR 2017 under 158, which of the following methods have been prescribed for
purchases?
I. Advertised Tender Enquiry
II. Limited Tender Enquiry
III. Open Auction Mode
IV. Either (I) or (II)
As per Rule 163 of GFR 2017, two-bid system can be resorted to in respect of purchases of
_________
I. Library Books
II. High Value Plant and Machinery
III. Highly sophisticated goods
IV. Goods worth more than Rs.10 Lakhs
As per GFR 2017, the Limited Tender Enquiry system should be resorted to in respect of purchase
of Goods _________
I. Above 2.5 Lakhs and Upto Rs.25 Lakhs
II. Above 5 Lakhs and Upto Rs.20 Lakhs
III. Above 1 Lakhs and Upto Rs.10 Lakhs
IV. Above 2 Lakhs and Upto Rs.25 Lakhs
4
As per GFR 2017, for procurement of all non-consultancy services upto ________, a minimum of
________ bids are to be obtained through Limited Tender Enquiry.
I. Rs.5 Lakhs, 3
II. Rs.7.5 Lakhs, 5
III. Rs.10 Lakhs, 3
IV. Rs.25 Lakhs, 4
Which of the following methods are being used for selection of evaluation of Consultants ?
I. Quality and Cost Based Selection
II. Least Cost Selection
III. Open Bid Selection
IV. Either (I) or (II)
“Expression of Interest” should be obtained from the Consultants where the estimated cost of
Consultancy Service is more than ________
I. Rs.10 Lakhs
II. Rs.15 Lakhs
III. Rs.25 Lakhs
IV. Rs.50 Lakhs
As per GFR 2017, while procuring consultancy services, a minimum of ____ consultants should be
shortlisted.
I. 5
II. 3
III. 4
IV. 6
The Request for Proposal (RFP) issued to the shortlisted Consultants will invariably contain
I. Terms of Reference
II. Terms and Conditions
III. Rules and Regulations
IV. Technical and Financial Details
As per GFR 2017, physical veri cation of library books in respect of libraries having volumes more
than 20000 and up to 50000 is done ______
I. Once in 3 years
II. Once in 2 years
III. Sample physical veri cation at regular intervals
IV. At the discretion of the library in-charge
As per GFR 2017, physical veri cation of xed assets should be done _________
I. Once in two years
II. Once a year
III. Once in three years
IV. Twice in a year
5
fi
fi
fi
fi
As per GFR 2017, the basic records of Goods should be generally recorded in
I. Goods Register
II. Stock Register
III. Goods Movement Register
IV. Materials Register
The whole process of “Inventory Management” deals with the maintenance of records in respect
of
I. Purchase and Sales of Goods
II. Purchases, Sales and Disposal of Goods
III. Purchases, Sales, Goods Return and Wastages
IV. Purchases, Sales, Receipts and Payments
Distribution of Goods to various divisions is based on the _________ received from the respective
division
I. Goods Request letter
II. Indent
III. Requisition Form
IV. Goods Movement Form
As per GFR, 2017 there is no need for entering in to a Contract with the vendor if the purchases is
up to _____
I. 1 Lakh
II. 2.5 Lakhs
III. 5 Lakhs
IV. 10 Lakhs
In General, a contract document should be executed within ___ Days of the issue of letter of
acceptance.
I. 15 Days
II. 30 Days
III. 21 Days
IV. 10 Days
As per GFR 2017, every Contract documents should invariably contain a provision ____
I. Regarding details of jurisdiction
II. Regarding details of material, technology & manpower to be used
III. Details of outcome of the project
IV. Regarding payment of applicable taxes
6
As per GFR, 2017 it is mandatory to enter in to a Contract with the vendor if the purchases is
more than _____
I. 5 Lakhs
II. 7.5 Lakhs
III. 15 Lakhs
IV. 10 Lakhs
All the Government Contracts are executed for and on behalf of _______________
I. The O ce / Department concerned
II. The Ministry to which it is attached
III. The Highest O cer in the respective O ce / Department concerned
IV. The President of India
7
ffi
ffi
ffi
Match the following:
Which of the followings is not a function of the Controlling O cer in respect of Budget allocation?
I. Expenditure does not exceed the budget allocation
II. Expenditure is incurred for the purpose for which funds have been provided
III. To ensure that expenditure incurred is bare minimum
IV. Adequate control mechanism for detection of errors and irregularities is available
8
fi
ffi
ffi
fi
fi
ffi
Match the following:
Which of the following actions should initially be taken, in case it is suspected that loss of public
money has been occurred?
I. An initial report should be made by a responsible authoty where it is suspected that loss of
public money has occurred
II. A FIR in the nearest police station
III. To be reported to higher authority without any delay
IV. To be reported to the Audit o cer concerned
What is the monetary ceiling above which, loss of Govt. property due to suspected re, theft,
fraud, etc. should be reported to police for investigation?
I. 10000
II. 50000
III. 100000
IV. 500000
9
fi
ff
fi
ffi
fi
ffi
fi
What is GeM?
I. It is a platform hosted by Ministry of Commerce for selling of Goods Produced by PSUs
II. It is a platform for procurement of common Goods and Services under Govt. of India
III. It is an agency by which procurement of common Goods and Services under Govt. of India
are done
IV. It is a platform for procurement of common Goods and Services under Govt. of India for which
no separate nancial sanction is required
What is the the nancial limit (Rupess- ) up to which procurement can be done through
Committee constituted by the Competent Authority?
I. 2,50,000
II. 25,000
III. 25,00,000
IV. No limit is there
What is the nancial bench mark up to which, Goods/Services can be procured by using GeM
through comparison of rates, without oating tender?
I. 25,000
II. 2,50,000
III. 5,00,000
IV. 10,00,000
Which of the followings is not considered as Goods in terms of the provisions of GFR?
I. Plants & Machinery
II. Furniture & Fixture
III. Software & Technology Transfer
IV. Books & Periodicals
10
fi
fi
fi
fi
fi
fi
fi
fl
fi
Match the following :
11
Q1 of 30
What do you mean by AoN?
I. Acceptance of Need
II. Appreciation of Need
III. Acceptance of Necessity
IV. Authorization of Necessity
Q2 of 30
AON stage involves vetting of which of the followings?
I. Request for Proposal (RFP)
II. Request for Report (RFR)
III. Request for Demand (RFD)
IV. Request for Approval (RFA)
Q3 of 30
What does not constitute lack of competition in terms of DPM 2009 provisions?
I. The product of only one manufacturer has been o ered by all the tenderers irrespective of the
number of quotations.
II. The number of acceptable o ers is less than two.
III. Ring prices have been quoted by all tenderers (Cartel formation).
IV. Store under purchase is chronically in short supply against which the number of acceptable
o ers never exceeds three.
Q4 of 30
What is the maximum Liquidated Damages recoverable from a defaulted Firm/Supplier/
Contractor who has failed to deliver the stores within the speci ed delivery period in terms of
contract wherein the clauses were framed based on DPM 2009 provisions.
I. 10 per cent of contract value of delayed stores
II. 05 per cent of contract value of delayed stores
III. 10 per cent of contract value
IV. 100 per cent of value of performance security deposit
Q5 of 30
What does OEM stand for?
I. Original Enquiry of Manpower
II. Optimum Equipment Management
III. Organisation Endorsing Machinery
IV. Original Equipment Manufacturer
Q6 of 30
The term goods as mentioned in GFR excludes __________________
I. Books and periodicals for library
II. Intangible products like patents, licenses, Intellectual Properties etc.,
III. Livestock
IV. Both (b) and (c)
Q7 of 30
Determination of L-1 o er as per the DPM 2009 provisions is the function of the ________.
I. CNC
II. Tender Opening Board
III. CFA
IV. IFA
12
ff
ff
ff
ff
fi
Q8 of 30
Purchase of goods upto the value of Rs. ___________ can be done without inviting quotations or
bids provided a certi cate is recorded by Competent Authority in terms of GFR provisions.
I. 15000
II. 25000
III. 50000
IV. 100000
Q9 of 30
The description of the subject matter of procurement to the extent practicable should not indicate
a requirement for a particular ________
I. speci cation
II. item
III. quantity
IV. trade mark, trade name or brand
Q10 of 30
As per DPM 2009 provisions, the repeat order can be placed within ________ from the date of
completion of the supply against the original order.
I. Seven days
II. Thirty days
III. Fifteen days
IV. Six months
Q11 of 30
What is Consequential damage?
I. Consequential damage is imposed over and above LD in case of time critical Turn-key
Projects
II. Consequential damage is similar to LD
III. Consequential damage is penalty for not paying statutory levies
IV. Consequential damage is charged to rms who have evaded GST
Q12 of 30
When is Benchmarking of prices done?
I. Before placing of the Supply Order
II. At AON stage
III. At RFP Stage
IV. Before opening of Price Bids
Q13 of 30
What do you mean by CNC as per DPM 2009 provisions
I. Commercial Negotiations Committee
II. Committee for Negotiating Contract
III. Contract Not Concluded
IV. Convention for Negotiations Committee
Q14 of 30
Regularization of loss as per the DFPDS-2021 falls under the category of ____
I. Emergency Powers
II. Procurement Powers
III. Non-Procurement Powers
IV. Special Powers
13
fi
fi
fi
Q15 of 30
If L1 may not have the capacity to supply the entire requisite quantity, the order may be placed on
L2, L3 and so on for the balance quantity ____________, provided this is acceptable to them and
such a clause was there in the RFP.
I. at tendered rates
II. at Last Purchase rates
III. at L-1 rates
IV. at best negotiated rates
Q16 of 30
A major step forward in the direction of delegation of enhanced nancial powers was taken by the
________________ constituted in 1990.
I. Committee on Defence Expenditure
II. Committee on Defence Preparedness
III. Estimates Committee of Parliament
IV. Standing Committee of the Parliament
Q17 of 30
What do you mean by NIV stores?
I. Not in Vocabulary
II. New in Vocabulary
III. New item Vocabulary
IV. New item Value
Q18 of 30
AON stage involves vetting of ______
I. quality
II. benchmark price
III. quantity to be procured
IV. last contract price
Q19 of 30
In case of procurement through the GeM portal, the ___________ will certify the reasonability of
rates.
I. Procuring Authorities.
II. GeM system.
III. Business Analytics tools on GeM portal.
IV. IFA.
Q20 of 30
As per Rule 149 of GFR, bids have to be mandatorily obtained through bids or online reverse
auction for value of purchase exceeding Rs. ______.
I. 25,000
II. 50,000
III. 5,00,000
IV. 30,00,000
Q21 of 30
What do you mean by PPP in the context of DPM 2009?
I. Public Private Partnership
II. Public Procurement Parameters.
III. Purchase Preference Policy
IV. Priority Procurement Plan.
14
fi
Q22 of 30
What does EAS stand for in the context of procurement & DPM provisions?
I. Expenditure Angle Sanction
II. Expenditure Account Sanction
III. Expense According Sanction
IV. Expenditure Approval Sanction
Q23 of 30
The value for purchase of goods through Local Purchase Committee in terms of Rule 155 of GFR
2017 is _____________
I. above Rs. 25000 and upto Rs. 250000
II. upto Rs. 25000
III. above Rs. 100000 and upto Rs. 250000
IV. upto Rs. 250000
Q24 of 30
What happens in a two-bid system as per GFR provisions?
I. simultaneous receipt of technical and nancial bids
II. receipt of technical bids rst and nancial bids later
III. receipt of techno-commercial bids
IV. simultaneous receipt of separate technical and nancial bids
Q25 of 30
Advance payments to private rms in terms of GFR provisions should not exceed
_________________
I. Thirty percent of the contract value
II. Fifteen percent of the contract value.
III. Ten percent of the contract value.
IV. Five percent of the contract value.
Q26 of 30
As per DPM provisions, the TEC report is required to be approved by the ______
I. TEC
II. CNC
III. CFA
IV. IFA
Q27 of 30
As per DPM 2009 provisions, a maximum of _______ can be placed under the repeat order.
I. 50 % of the original ordered quantity
II. 30 % of the original ordered quantity
III. 25 % of the original ordered quantity
IV. 20 % of the original ordered quantity
Q28 of 30
What does LC stand for?
I. Letter of Communication
II. Letter of Conformity
III. Letter of Credit
IV. Letter of Con rmation
15
fi
fi
fi
fi
fi
fi
Q29 of 30
As per DPM 2009, the standard RFP is divided into _________ parts ?
I. Three
II. Two
III. Five
IV. Six
Q30 of 30
Negotiations can be undertaken with ________
I. L-1 rm only
II. Both L-1 rm and L-2
III. L-2 rm only
IV. None of the above
16
fi
fi
fi