1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

Exam Preview questions English

Number
Discipline of
questions

PSYCHIATRY AND PEDIATRIC PSYCHIATRY 400 Preview

EPIDEMIOLOGY 0

DERMATOLOGY 274 Preview

OBSTETRICS - GYNECOLOGY 300 Preview

FORENSIC MEDICINE 303 Preview

Regarding autoimmune bullous dermatoses, the following statements are true:

A. Pemphigus vulgaris usually begins at the level of the mucous membranes
B. Bullous pemphigoid is also called Lever's disease
C. Pemphigus vulgaris usually occurs in the elderly
D. In bullous pemphigoid, the lesions are small, flaccid bullae
E. Pemphigus vulgaris is also called Lever's disease
F. Bullous pemphigoid occurs more frequently in children
G. In pemphigus vulgaris, the lesions are small, flaccid bullae
H. Bullous pemphigoid usually occurs in the elderly
I. Itching and pain may precede the development of bullous lesions in bullous pemphigoid
J. Bullous pemphigoid usually begins in the mucous membranes

Changes in autoimmune bullous dermatoses are characterized by:

A. In pemphigus with Ig A, the bulla is subepidermal
B. Vegetative pemphigus is a variant of pemphigus vulgaris
C. Nikolsky's sign is: easy detachment of the epidermis when pressure is applied to the bulla
D. Vegetative pemphigus is exclusively characterized by vegetative type lesions
E. In bullous pemphigoid, the disease can begin with urticaria-like erythemato-edematous plaques
F. In pemphigus vulgaris, the disease can begin with urticaria-like erythemato-edematous plaques
G. In pemphigus with Ig A, the bulla is intraepidermal
H. Nikolsky's sign is: easy detachment of the epidermis when pressure is applied to the normal skin at
the periphery of the lesion
I. Cytodiagnostic Tzanck highlights epidermal, acantholytic cells in pemphigus vulgaris

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 1/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

J. The Tzanck cytodiagnostic shows epidermal, acantholytic cells in bullous pemphigoid

Regarding autoimmune bullous dermatoses, the following statements are true:

A. Dermatitis herpetiformis is an intensely itchy condition
B. Direct immunofluorescence from pemphigus vulgaris shows IgG and/or C3 deposits at the level of
the dermoepidermal junction
C. Cytodiagnostic Tzanck highlights eosinophils, acantholytic cells in bullous pemphigoid
D. Indirect immunofluorescence in bullous pemphigoid shows anti-intercellular substance antibodies
E. Direct immunofluorescence from pemphigus vulgaris shows IgG and/or C3 deposits in the
intercellular area of the epidemis
F. Biopsy in bullous pemphigoid shows an intraepidermal bulla
G. Dermatitis herpetiformis is also called Lever's disease
H. Direct immunofluorescence in bullous pemphigoid shows IgG and/or C3 deposits in the intercellular
area of the epidermis
I. Biopsy in bullous pemphigoid shows a subepidermal bulla
J. Direct immunofluorescence from bullous pemphigoid shows IgG and/or C3 deposits at the level of
the dermoepidermal junction

Regarding autoimmune bullous dermatoses, the following statements are true:

A. Gluten sensitive enteropathy is associated with Duhring-Brocq disease
B. Direct immunofluorescence from dermatitis herpetiformis shows deposits of Ig A in the tip of the
dermal papillae
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a specific childhood condition
D. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the bullae are large
E. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the bullae are small
F. Gluten-sensitive enteropathy is associated with bullous pemphigoid
G. Gluten sensitive enteropathy is associated with Pemphigus vulgaris
H. Histology of a blister from dermatitis herpetiformis highlights eosinophils at the tip of the dermal
papillae
I. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a condition that can appear at any age
J. Direct immunofluorescence from dermatitis herpetiformis shows deposits of Ig A at the base of the
dermal papillae

Regarding autoimmune bullous dermatoses, the following statements are true:

A. Systemic corticosteroids are not the standard treatment in pemphigus
B. The differential diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid also includes linear dermatosis with Ig A
C. Systemic corticosteroids are the standard treatment in pemphigus
D. The differential diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid also includes urticaria
E. Linear dermatosis with Ig A is a chronic disease of childhood
F. The differential diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris also includes urticaria
G. Untreated pemphigus vulgaris is fatal

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 2/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

H. The differential diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid does not include linear dermatosis with Ig A
I. In pemphigus vulgaris, the vital prognosis without treatment is good
J. Linear dermatosis with Ig A is a chronic disease of the elderly patient

Regarding autoimmune bullous dermatoses, the following statements are true:

A. Bullae are common on the mucous membranes in the case of pemphigus vulgaris
B. In seborrheic pemphigus, the lesions dry quickly and vegetative type lesions appear
C. ELISA is positive for desmoglein 3 and desmoglein 1 in the case of dermatitis herpetiformis
D. Erosions at the lining of the mucous membranes precede the appearance of bullous pemphigoid
bullae
E. ELISA is positive for desmoglein 3 and desmoglein 1 in the case of pemphigus vulgaris
F. In seborrheic pemphigus, the lesions dry quickly and form crusts and scales
G. Indirect immunofluorescence highlights the antibodies from the skin that was biopsied
H. Systemic immunosuppressants are part of the therapeutic options for autoimmune bullous
dermatoses
I. Indirect immunofluorescence highlights the antibodies from the skin that was biopsied
J. Bullae are rarely visible on the mucous membranes in the case of pemphigus vulgaris

Regarding autoimmune bullous dermatoses, the following statements are true:

A. In pemphigus vulgaris, most patients present villous atrophy, malabsorption, steatorrhea
B. In localized bullous pemphigoid, systemic antibiotics can be effective as a single therapy
C. In epidermolysis bullosa the appearance of the lesions resembles porphyria cutanea tarda
D. Pemphigoid gestationis is also called herpes gestationis
E. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a viral condition caused by the herpes simplex virus
F. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the lesions are symmetrically distributed on the flexion surfaces
G. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the lesions are symmetrically distributed on the extension surfaces
H. In pemphigus vulgaris, the appearance of the lesions resembles porphyria cutanea tarda
I. In dermatitis herpetiformis, most patients present villous atrophy, malabsorption, steatorrhea
J. In localized bullous pemphigoid, high-potency topical corticosteroids can be effective as a single
therapy

From the point of view of symptomatology, the following statements are true regarding bullous
dermatoses:
A. In pemphigus vulgaris, the oral mucosa is rarely affected
B. In vegetative pemphigus, the lesions are located in intertriginous areas
C. In pemphigus with Ig A, the lesions tend to coalesce and give a ringed appearance
D. In pemphigus with Ig A, the lesions are "target-like" and resemble erythema multiforme
E. In seborrheic pemphigus, the lesions are located in intertriginous areas
F. When the pemphigus vulgaris lesions are extensive, we can have hyperalbuminemia
G. The subepidermal bulla is found in Duhring Brocq's disease
H. The intraepidermal bulla is found in Duhring Brocq's disease
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 3/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

I. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the oral mucosa is rarely affected

J. When the pemphigus vulgaris lesions are extensive, we can see a severe hydroelectrolytic imbalance

From the point of view of symptoms, the following statements are true regarding bullous
dermatoses:
A. Dermatitis herpetiformis is an acute condition
B. The distribution of lesions "in a bouquet" is specific for Duhring Brocq's disease
C. Lesions from bullous pemphigoid are localized with predilection at the level of the flexural area
D. Lesions from bullous pemphigoid are localized with a predilection at the level of the extension areas
E. Among the therapeutic options for pemphigus are plasmapheresis or biological agents
F. The distribution of lesions "in a bouquet" is specific for pemphigus vulgaris
G. In paraneoplastic pemphigus, the lesions are "target-like" and resemble erythema multiforme
H. The therapeutic options for pemphigus do not include plasmapheresis or biological agents
I. Pemphigus with Ig A is a genodermatosis
J. Duhring Brocq's disease is a subepidermal, chronic, intensely pruritus condition

The following statements are true regarding bullous dermatoses:

A. The bulla from bullous pemphigoid leaves residual hyperpigmentation
B. Bulla is an elementary lesion that is considered skin waste
C. Pemphigus vulgaris is part of the class of collagenoses and is characterized by the degradation of
collagen fibers
D. The bulla is a small elemental lesion, less than 0.5 cm
E. A bulla is an elementary lesion larger than 0.5 cm
F. Mucous pemphigoid cannot cause blindness
G. The pemphigus vulgaris bulla is an acantholytic type lesion
H. Mucous pemphigoid can cause blindness
I. Bullous pemphigoid bullous is a flaccid fluid lesion
J. Cicatricial pemphigoid is also called benign mucosal pemphigoid

From the point of view of diagnosis, the following statements are true regarding bullous
dermatoses:
A. Vulgar warts are included in the differential diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid
B. Pemphigus vulgaris is produced by auto-antibodies directed against desmoglein 3
C. The cohesion of the dermis is ensured mainly by desmosomes
D. The circulating antibody titer in pemphigus vulgaris always correlates with the activity of the disease
E. The circulating antibodies titer in pemphigus vulgaris correlates with disease activity, but not always
F. Indirect immunofluorescence in pemphigus vulgaris shows anti-intercellular substance antibodies
G. Bullous epidermolysis is included in the differential diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid
H. Medicines cannot induce bullous pemphigoid
I. The cohesion of the dermis is secondarily ensured by desmosomes
J. Pemphigus vulgaris is produced by auto-antibodies directed against desmoglein 13

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 4/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

From the point of view of diagnosis, the following statements are true regarding bullous
dermatoses:
A. Corticosteroids are the standard treatment in pemphigus
B. Indirect immunofluorescence highlights circulating serum Antibodies in autoimmune bullous
dermatoses
C. In dermatitis herpetiformis we can meet urticaria-like plaques
D. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the lesions are symmetrically distributed on the extension areas
E. Indirect immunofluorescence highlights Antibodies from lesional skin in autoimmune bullous
dermatoses
F. In dermatitis herpetiformis we find small bullae
G. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the lesions are symmetrically distributed on the felxia areas
H. Antibiotics are the standard treatment in pemphigus
I. In pemphigus vulgaris we can find urticaria-like plaques
J. In bullous pemphigoid we can find urticaria-like plaques

From the point of view of diagnosis, the following statements are true regarding bullous
dermatoses:
A. Pemphigus is a chronic condition
B. Cytodiagnosis can reveal autoantibodies
C. Untreated pemphigus vulgaris is fatal in 1-2 years
D. Cytodiagnostic can reveal acantholytic cells of the Tzanck type
E. In linear dermatosis with Ig A, the onset is the most common autoimmune bullous dermatosis
F. Untreated pemphigus vulgaris is marked by repeated bouts of lesions
G. In linear dermatosis with Ig A, the onset is usually after 40 years
H. Pemphigus is an acute condition
I. In vegetative pemphigus, the characteristic lesion is the vesicle
J. Linear dermatosis with Ig A is a rare autoimmune bullous dermatosis

From the point of view of diagnosis, the following statements are true regarding bullous
dermatoses:
A. Cicatricial pemphigoid mainly affects the elderly
B. Sulfones are not used in the treatment of dermatitis herpetiformis
C. In Duhring-Brocq disease, the vital prognosis is good
D. In Duhring-Brocq disease, the vital prognosis is reserved
E. Cicatricial pemphigoid never touches the mucous membranes
F. Cicatricial pemphigoid preferentially affects mucous membranes
G. Sulfones are used in the treatment of dermatitis herpetiformis
H. The autoimmune mechanism is not incriminated in bullous pemphigoid
I. Autoimmune mechanism is suggested in bullous pemphigoid
J. Cicatricial pemphigoid mainly affects children

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 5/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

The following statements are true regarding bullous dermatoses:

A. Bullous pemphigoid leaves scars
B. In bullous pemphigoid, eosinophils accumulate in the epidermis
C. Ig G-type Auto Antibodies in bullous pemphigoid are pathognomonic
D. Medicines can induce bullous pemphigoid
E. Post-drug bullous eruptions are not part of the differential diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid
F. Post-drug bullous eruptions are part of the differential diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid
G. Medicines cannot induce bullous pemphigoid
H. Ig E type Auto Antibodies in bullous pemphigoid are pathognomonic
I. In bullous pemphigoid, eosinophils accumulate in the dermis
J. Bullous pemphigoid does not leave scars

The following statements are true regarding bullous dermatoses:

A. Bullous impetigo is not part of the differential diagnosis of pemphigus
B. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the rash has a polymorphic character
C. IV immunoglobulins are not part of the therapeutic options for bullous pemphigoid
D. IV immunoglobulins are part of the therapeutic options for bullous pemphigoid
E. Plasmapheresis is part of the therapeutic options for pemphigus vulgaris
F. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a subepidermal bullous condition
G. Bullous impetigo is part of the differential diagnosis of pemphigus
H. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the eruption never has a polymorphic character
I. Plasmapheresis is not part of the therapeutic options for pemphigus vulgaris
J. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a supraepidermal bullous condition

The following statements are true regarding bullous dermatoses:

A. Under treatment, in bullous pemphigoid the response appears in only 10% of cases
B. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the subjective symptoms usually precede the appearance of the lesions
C. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the oral mucosa is rarely affected
D. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the oral mucosa is often affected
E. The prognosis of paraneolasic pemphigus never depends on the treatment of the associated
neoplasia
F. Under treatment, in bullous pemphigoid the response is complete
G. In dermatitis herpetiformis, subjective symptoms are never encountered
H. In linear dermatosis with Ig A, we see deposits of Ig A at the level of the dermo-epidermal basement
membrane
I. The prognosis of paraneolasic pemphigus depends on the treatment of the associated neoplasia
J. Linear dermatosis with Ig A is also called chronic bullous disease of childhood

The following statements are true regarding bullous dermatoses:

A. A rash similar to dermatitis herpetiformis can develop in patients with lichen planus
B. In pemphigus vulgaris under treatment we can obtain remissions for a few days
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 6/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. A rash similar to bullous pemphigoid can develop in patients with lichen planus
D. Rituximab (Antibodies anti CD-20) can be used in the treatment of pemphigus vulgaris
E. In bullous pemphigoid, eosinophils are not present in the liquid in the bulla
F. Rituximab (anti CD-20 antibody) is contraindicated in the treatment of pemphigus vulgaris
G. In pemphigus vulgaris under treatment we can obtain lasting remissions
H. In bullous pemphigoid, neutrophils are present in the fluid in the bulla
I. In bullous pemphigoid, eosinophils are present in the fluid in the bulla
J. In bullous pemphigoid, neutrophils are present in the infiltrate

The following statements are true regarding bullous dermatoses:

A. Dermatitis herpetiformis is considered to be more common in Jews and the Mediterranean
population
B. ELISA is a non-specific immunodiagnostic method in pemphigus
C. Pemphigus vulgaris is considered to be more common in Jews and the Mediterranean population
D. Paraneoplastic pemphigus is associated only with malignant manifestations
E. In pemphigus vulgaris, mucosal lesions appear early
F. Lichen planus is included in the group of autoimmune bullous dermatoses
G. ELISA is a sensitive and specific immunodiagnostic method in pemphigus
H. Paraneoplastic pemphigus is associated with a benign or malignant proliferative manifestation
I. In pemphigus vulgaris, mucosal lesions appear late
J. In the group of autoimmune bullous dermatoses, there are chronic skin diseases in which we can
also touch the mucous membranes

Regarding treatment and paraclinical diagnosis, the following statements are true for bullous
dermatoses:
A. Mycophenolate mofetil is not a therapeutic option for pemphigus vulgaris
B. In bullous pemphigoid, mast cell degranulation near the basement membrane is excluded
C. In pemphigus vulgaris with only mucosal involvement, the ELISA test is positive for desmoglein 7
D. Mycophenolate mofetil is a therapeutic option for pemphigus vulgaris
E. Prolonged daily baths are contraindicated in pemphigus vulgaris
F. The decision to stop treatment in pemphigus is a strictly clinical one
G. Prolonged daily baths are helpful in removing crusts from pemphigus vulgaris
H. In bullous pemphigoid, mast cell degranulation is noted near the basement membrane
I. In pemphigus vulgaris with only mucosal involvement, the ELISA test is positive for desmoglein 3
J. The decision to stop treatment in pemphigus is clinical and histological

The following statements are true regarding bullous dermatoses:

A. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the gluten-free diet can increase the daily dose of dapsone
B. Erythema multiforme is not included in the differential diagnosis of dermatitis herpetiformis
C. The differential diagnosis of dermatitis herpetiformis does not include eczema
D. Erythema multiforme is included in the differential diagnosis of dermatitis herpetiformis
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 7/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

E. In dermatitis herpetiformis, the gluten-free diet can reduce the daily dose of dapsone
F. Bullous pemphigoid lesions tend to spread through the periphery
G. Bullous pemphigoid is a genodermatosis
H. Thyroid disorders are not found in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis
I. Thyroid disorders are more common in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis
J. In the differential diagnosis of dermatitis herpetiformis enters eczema

The following statements regarding bullous dermatoses are True:

A. Lesions from pemphigus vegetans appear with a predilection at the level of the intertriginous areas
B. Vegetative pemphigus begins with erosions at the level of which vegetations appear
C. The lesions in vegetative pemphigus respect the intertriginous areas
D. In pemphigus vegetans, the evolution is relatively more serious than in pemphigus vulgaris
E. Lesions from vegetative pemphigus appear with a predilection at the level of extension areas
F. In dermatitis herpetiformis, immunosuppressants can be used as a single therapy
G. Lesions from vegetative pemphigus can appear on the scalp and face
H. In pemphigus vulgaris, immunosuppressants can be used as a single therapy only in case of limited
disease
I. In pemphigus vegetans, the evolution is relatively more benign than in pemphigus vulgaris
J. Vegetative pemphigus begins with bullae that leave erosions at the level of which vegetations
appear

The following statements regarding bullous dermatoses are True:

A. Secondary bacterial infections can occur when the lesions are extensive in pemphigus vulgaris
B. Erythematous pemphigus is also called seborrheic
C. Erythematous pemphigus is also called Brazilian endemic
D. In bullous pemphigoid, IV immunoglobulins can only be used as monotherapy
E. In bullous pemphigoid, IV immunoglobulins can be used alone or in combination
F. The Nikolsky sign is positive in pemphigus vulgaris
G. Dermatitis herpetiformis cannot start at any age
H. Dermatitis herpetiformis can start at any age
I. The lesions in pemphigus vulgaris respect the mucous membranes
J. Secondary viral infections are common in pemphigus vulgaris

From a paraclinical point of view, the following statements are True regarding autoimmune
bullous dermatoses:
A. In bullous pemphigoid, the C3 fraction can be detected in almost all patients
B. Tzanck cytodiagnosis is an immunofluorescence method
C. The Tzanck cytodiagnostic shows acantholytic cells in pemphigus vulgaris
D. Cytology or Tzanck cytodiagnosis is done by scraping the bottom of a bulla
E. Complications of systemic corticosteroid therapy in the elderly are very rare and insignificant
F. Complications of systemic corticosteroid therapy in the elderly can be severe
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 8/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

G. In bullous pemphigoid, indirect immunofluorescence highlights in most patients auto-antibodies of

the Ig G type
H. Cytology or Tzanck cytodiagnosis is done by scraping the bottom of an erosion
I. In bullous pemphigoid the C3 fraction is not present
J. In bullous pemphigoid, indirect immunofluorescence highlights in a small part of patients auto-
Antibodies type Ig G

From a paraclinical point of view, the following statements are True regarding autoimmune
bullous dermatoses:
A. In Duhring-Brocq disease, the lesions are generally asymmetrical
B. Under treatment, relapses of bullous pemphigoid occur rarely
C. In Duhring-Brocq disease, the lesions are generally symmetrical
D. In bullous pemphigoid, Azathioprin is the most used drug after corticosteroids
E. Duhring-Brocq disease lesions are generally intensely asymptomatic
F. Plasmapheresis can be effective in bullous pemphigoid
G. Under treatment, relapses of bullous pemphigoid are common
H. Histology in bullous pemphigoid shows epidermal necrosis
I. The Tzanck cytodiagnostic shows epidermal acatolytic cells in bullous pemphigoid
J. Duhring-Brocq disease lesions are generally intensely itchy

1 Choose the true statements about erythema nodosum:

A. Skin lesions are usually located at the pretibial level
B. It can affect the trunk and other areas of the extremities
C. It represents inflammation of the dermis and adipose tissue
D. The skin lesions are most frequently located at the posterior tibial level
E. Clinically it is manifested by painful nodules
F. Clinically it is characterized by painful tubercles
G. The disease has a chronic evolution
H. Arthralgias are not part of the clinical picture
I. The disease is self-limited
J. It represents infection of the dermis and adipose tissue

In the clinical examination, erythema nodosum is characterized by:

A. Erythematous tubercles painful to the touch
B. Skin lesions are usually located pretibially
C. Erythematous nodules painful to touch
D. Absence of arthralgias
E. Arthralgias
F. Altered general condition
G. Afebrile state
H. Fever

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 9/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

I. The skin lesions are predominantly located on the anterior thorax

J. Good overall condition
All of the following characterize erythema nodosum except:
A. May be caused by a delayed-type immunological reaction to infections
B. Laboratory data indicate elevated ESR
C. It can be caused by drugs
D. Treatment excludes NSAIDs
E. It can be caused by an immediate type immunological reaction to infections
F. Laboratory data indicate decreased ESR
G. May be caused by autoimmune connective tissue diseases
H. Treatment excludes potassium iodide
I. Skin biopsy shows no elements of panniculitis
J. It can be caused by inflammatory bowel diseases

About erythema nodosum we can say that:

A. Represents infection of the dermis and adipose tissue
B. Laboratory data indicate decreased ESR
C. Skin lesions are usually located at the pretibial level
D. Clinically it is characterized by painful tubercles
E. It is caused by an immediate type immunological reaction to infections
F. It is characterized by erythematous nodules that are painful to the touch
G. The disease has a chronic evolution
H. Treatment includes NSAIDs
I. The disease is self-limiting
J. It can be caused by autoimmune connective tissue diseases

Choose the false information about erythema nodosum:

A. Laboratory data indicate elevated ESR
B. Treatment includes NSAIDs
C. The skin lesions are mainly located on the anterior thorax
D. It represents infection of the epidermis and adipose tissue
E. Treatment includes potassium iodide
F. Skin lesions are usually located at the posterior tibial level
G. It can be caused by drugs
H. It is characterized by good general condition
I. Skin biopsy shows elements of panniculitis
J. Arthralgias are not part of the clinical picture

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 10/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

During the clinical examination of erythema nodosum, we encounter the following except:
A. Hypothermia
B. The location of the skin lesions is usually pretibial
C. Painless erythematous nodules
D. Fever
E. Arthralgias
F. Painful erythematous papules
G. Altered general condition
H. Painful erythematous nodules
I. Itching
J. Good overall condition

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 11/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

Which of the following characterizes erythema nodosum?:

A. Painless erythematous tubercles
B. Painful erythematous tubercles
C. Tubercles usually on the posttibial area
D. Nodules usually on the pretibial area
E. Nodules usually on the posttibial area
F. Inflammation in subcutaneous adipose tissue
G. Caused by delayed type immunological reaction to infections
H. Self-limited evolution
I. Painful erythematous nodules
J. Painless erythematous nodules

The following information about erythema nodosum is false:

A. Elevated antistreptolysin O (ASLO) titer when associated with a staphylococcal infection
B. Decreased ESR
C. Inflammation of the dermis and adipose tissue causes painful erythematous nodules
D. Increase in ESR
E. Panniculitis
F. Infection of the dermis and adipose tissue causes painful erythematous nodules
G. Elevated antistreptolysin O (ASLO) titer when associated with a streptococcal infection
H. Low antistreptolysin O (ASLO) titer when associated with a streptococcal infection
I. Inflammation of the dermis and adipose tissue causes painless erythematous nodules
J. Treatment with NSAIDs and Potassium Iodide

Which of the following statements characterize erythema nodosum?:

A. Arthralgias are not part of the clinical picture
B. Clinically it is manifested by painful nodules
C. May be caused by autoimmune connective tissue diseases
D. Panniculitis
E. Represents the infection of the dermis and adipose tissue
F. Itching
G. It can be caused by medication

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 12/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

H. Decreased ESR
I. The disease has a chronic evolution
J. Altered general condition

Laboratory tests in erythema nodosum may reveal:

A. Decreased ESR
B. Positivity of the ASLO titer
C. Skin biopsy showing acantholysis
D. Skin biopsy indicates inflammation in the dermis
E. Decrease in ASLO titer
F. Skin biopsy showing infection in subcutaneous fat
G. Inflammatory syndrome
H. Skin biopsy showing inflammation in the subcutaneous fat tissue
I. Skin biopsy showing panniculitis
J. Increase in ESR

They are features of sarcoidosis:

A. Sarcoidosis is a multisystemic granulomatous disease
B. Sarcoidosis has a known etiology
C. It is a strictly cutaneous granulomatous disease
D. Skin lesions occur in 20-30% of cases
E. There may be widespread involvement of the nose called lupus pernio
F. In acute sarcoidosis, erythema nodosum lesions can sometimes be observed
G. Skin lesions occur in 100% of cases
H. Not all patients should also be investigated for systemic involvement
I. Skin lesions respond to topical antibiotics
J. Looks like red-brown papules, nodules or plaques

Pyoderma gangrenosum:
A. May be associated with systemic inflammatory diseases, especially inflammatory bowel diseases
B. On histopathological examination, the skin lesions are rich in neutrophils
C. Requires topical and systemic corticosteroid treatment
D. It is a common skin condition
E. Requires topical and systemic antibiotic treatment
F. Clinical evolution depends on the activity of the associated inflammatory bowel disease
G. Ulcers heal without scarring
H. On histopathological examination, the skin lesions are rich in eosinophils
I. It is a rare skin condition
J. Clinically, it presents as inflammatory nodules and purulent ulcers with purple edges

Which of the following statements characterizes lupus erythematosus? :

A. In chronic discoid lupus erythematosus, scalp involvement causes non-scarring alopecia
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 13/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

B. All forms of lupus are more common in men

C. In chronic discoid lupus erythematosus, direct immunofluorescence can highlight granular deposits
of IgM and C3 at the level of the dermo-epidermal junction (lupus band)
D. Chronic discoid lupus erythematosus is characterized by erythematous, scaly, atrophic plaques, with
telangiectasias on the surface located in photoexposed areas
E. In chronic discoid lupus erythematosus, the treatment consists of photoprotective creams with high
protective factor and potent dermatocorticoids
F. In systemic lupus erythematosus clinical signs such as palmar erythema, dilated capillary may be
present at the level of the nail fold, hemorrhages in the splinter, purpura or livedo reticularis
G. Subacute lupus erythematosus cannot be drug induced
H. Antinuclear anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies are usually negative in subacute lupus erythematosus
I. The etiology of the disease is unknown, but genetic factors, UV exposure, and medications may be
involved
J. In systemic lupus erythematosus organ involvement is usually not predominant

Dermatomyositis is characterized by, except:

A. In adults, some cases are associated with neoplasia or other connective tissue diseases
B. The rash often has a "in the" distribution on the photoexposed areas
C. The clinical examination shows a prominent periocular edema, as well as type changespoikilodermic
(reticulate pigmentation, atrophy and telangiectasias)
D. Investigations include serum levels of muscle enzymes, myositis-specific antibodies, MRI
examination, muscle biopsy and electromyography
E. Skin involvement may respond to photoprotection and antimalarials such as hydroxychloroquine
F. Myositis-specific antibodies exclude anti-Mi-2 antibodies
G. Myositis usually requires low doses of corticosteroids
H. The histopathological examination of skin lesions is specific
I. At the level of the nail folds and the cuticle, dilated capillaries are not observed
J. Juvenile dermatomyositis usually begins after the age of 10 years

Which of the following statements characterizes scleroderma?:

A. In childhood, the linear form of morphea can cause atrophy of the underlying deep tissues
B. The term scleroderma refers to thickening or stiffening of the skin caused by abnormal dermal
collagen fibers
C. Sclerodermiform skin changes can occur in chronic Borrelia infection
D. Clinically, morphea appears as red-violet indurated plaques with a bright white, indurated oratrophic
center
E. Morphea represents a form of systemic scleroderma
F. Morphea is not more common in women
G. Severe forms of linear morphea can cause non-scarring alopecia
H. Morphea is not limited to the skin or subcutaneous cellular tissue

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 14/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

I. Potent topical corticosteroids, systemic corticosteroids, methotrexate and phototherapy are

indicated in the treatment of scleroderma
J. CREST syndrome is not a form of systemic scleroderma

SWEET syndrome:
A. It is characterized by hypothermia
B. Causes an acute rash with erythematous-violet plaques on the head, neck and upper trunk
C. The histopathological examination shows that the skin lesions contain numerous lymphocytes
D. It is also called acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis
E. The histopathological examination shows that the skin lesions contain numerous neutrophils
F. It is also called acute febrile lymphocytic dermatosis
G. It is also called acute afebrile neutrophilic dermatosis
H. It is characterized by fever
I. It is a frequent condition
J. It is a rare condition

Behcet's disease :
A. It cannot affect multiple organs
B. It is an inflammatory condition
C. May cause cutaneous pathergy
D. Does not indicate treatment with colchicine or dapsone for skin lesions
E. Cannot cause cutaneous pathergy
F. It is characterized by recurrent oral vegetations, eye lesions and genital vegetations
G. Does indicate treatment with colchicine or dapsone for skin lesions
H. It is an infectious disease
I. May have skin manifestations such as erythema nodosum, acneiform lesions, thrombophlebitis
J. It is characterized by recurrent oral ulcers, eye lesions and genital ulcers

In the clinical examination, dermatomyositis is characterized by, except :

A. Atrophy
B. Gotron papules on the dorsal surface of the hands and extensor surfaces
C. Prominent periocular edema
D. The distribution of lesions is frequently on non-sun-exposed areas
E. Periungial dilated capillaries
F. No aspects of poikiloderma are noted
G. The rash is always nonpruritic
H. Prominent perioral edema
I. Macules and hyperpigmented plaques
J. Gotron papules on the dorsal surface of the hands and flexor surfaces

The following statements about lupus erythematosus are true except :

A. Forms of chronic discoid lupus erythematosus cannot progress to systemic lupus erythematosus
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 15/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

B. In systemic lupus erythematosus organ damage is usually predominant

C. In chronic discoid lupus erythematosus, scalp damage causes cicatricial alopecia
D. Antinuclear anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies are usually positive in subacute lupus erythematosus
E. Antinuclear anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies are usually negative in subacute lupus erythematosus
F. Genetic factors, exposure to ultraviolet radiation and drugs are involved in the etiopathogenesis of
the disease
G. Forms of chronic discoid lupus erythematosus can progress to systemic lupus erythematosus
H. The etiology of the disease is known
I. Skin biopsy reveals a dense perifollicular eosinophilic infiltrate
J. In chronic discoid lupus erythematosus Direct immunofluorescence can highlight the lack of
granular deposits of IgM and C3 at the level of the dermo-epidermal junction

The following statements characterize scleroderma except:

A. Morphea is a form of systemic scleroderma
B. CREST syndrome is not a form of systemic scleroderma
C. Potent topical corticosteroids, systemic corticosteroids, methotrexate and phototherapy are not
indicated in the treatment of scleroderma
D. Clinically, morphea appears as red-violet indurated plaques, with a bright white, indurated
oratrophic center
E. Morphea is more common in women
F. Severe forms of linear morphea can cause cicatricial alopecia
G. Sclerodermiform skin changes can occur in chronic Borrelia infection
H. Morphea is not limited to the skin or subcutaneous cellular tissue
I. Systemic scleroderma has only cutaneous manifestations with thickening or stiffening of the skin
caused by normal dermal collagen fibers
J. In childhood, the linear form of morphea can cause atrophy of the underlying deep tissues

Regarding the etiopathogenesis of sexually transmitted infections, the following are True:
A. Population groups at risk can be defined in the transmission of syphilis
B. In the transmission of syphilis, we can have the open lesions of other dermatoses as a method
C. Treponema pallidum is very sensitive, survival outside the body is reduced
D. In the transmission of syphilis, we cannot have the open lesions of other dermatoses as a method
E. Syphilis is an infectious disease from the group of dermatophytoses
F. Syphilis transmission is influenced by socioeconomic factors
G. The transmission of syphilis cannot be influenced by socioeconomic factors
H. Treponema pallidum is very resistant, survival outside the body being very frequent
I. In the transmission of syphilis, population groups at risk cannot be defined
J. Syphilis is an infectious disease from the group of treponematoses

From a clinical point of view, we can say the following about sexually transmitted infections:
A. The evolution of syphilis is chronic, undulating

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 16/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

B. Recent syphilis is classified into: primary, secondary and recent latent

C. Syphilis may not affect offspring
D. Acquired syphilis is divided into recent and late
E. Secondary syphilis is a form of congenital syphilis
F. The evolution of syphilis is acute
G. Secondary syphilis is a form of acquired syphilis
H. Acquired syphilis is divided into recent and early
I. Syphilis can affect offspring
J. Recent syphilis is classified into: primary, secondary and tertiary

From a clinical point of view, we can say the following about sexually transmitted infections:
A. In primary syphilis, the incubation period is on average 10-90 weeks
B. Syphilitic chancre is also called hard chancre
C. Syphilitic chancre is painful in most cases
D. Syphilitic chancre is also called inoculation chancre
E. Syphilitic chancre is in most cases painless
F. Syphilitic chancre is also called soft chancre
G. In primary syphilis, the incubation period is on average 3 months
H. In primary syphilis, the incubation period is on average 3 weeks
I. Syphilitic chancre is also called incubation chancre
J. In primary syphilis, the incubation period is on average 10-90 days

The following statements are True about sexually transmitted infections:

A. Regional lymphadenopathy from primary syphilis appears on average 7-10 weeks after the
formation of the chancre
B. Aphtae are not included in the differential diagnosis of syphilitic chancre
C. The differential diagnosis of syphilitic chancre also includes aphthae
D. Syphilitic chancre cannot be in the form of a fissure
E. Genital lesions from primary syphilis are accompanied by unilateral, monoganglionic adenopathy
F. Regional lymphadenopathy from primary syphilis appears on average 7-10 days after the formation
of the chancre
G. Genital lesions from primary syphilis are accompanied by bilateral, polyganglionic adenopathy
H. Syphilitic chancre can be giant or dwarf
I. Genital lesions from primary syphilis are accompanied by bilateral, polyganglionic adenopathy
J. Genital lesions from primary syphilis are accompanied by monoganglionic adenopathy

The following statements are True about sexually transmitted infections:

A. Secondary syphilis begins 6-8 months after the appearance of chancre
B. The lymph nodes in primary syphilis are non-adherent to the deep planes
C. The lymph nodes in primary syphilis are enlarged, painless
D. Secondary syphilis is characterized by localized genital eruptions

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 17/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

E. The lymph nodes in primary syphilis are adherent to the deep planes
F. Lymph nodes from primary syphilis tend to persist for 2-3 years
G. Secondary syphilis is characterized by generalized eruptions
H. Secondary syphilis begins 6-8 weeks after the appearance of chancre
I. Lymph nodes in primary syphilis are small and painful
J. Lymph nodes from primary syphilis should persist for 2-3 months

We can say the following about sexually transmitted infections:

A. Secondary syphilis is characterized by disseminated, symmetrical, nonpruritic eruptions
B. Secondary syphilis is characterized by eruptions of several weeks interrupted by asymptomatic
periods
C. Secondary syphilis is characterized by exclusively mucous eruptions
D. Secondary syphilis is characterized by eruptions lasting several years, interrupted by asymptomatic
periods
E. Chancres can heal spontaneously in 3-6 months
F. Constitutional symptoms may precede or accompany secondary syphilis lesions
G. Secondary syphilis is characterized by asymmetric, itchy eruptions
H. Constitutional symptoms can precede but cannot accompany secondary syphilis lesions
I. The chancre can heal spontaneously in 3-6 weeks
J. Secondary syphilis is characterized by skin and mucous eruptions

We can say the following about sexually transmitted infections:

A. Skin lesions from secondary syphilis are called eczematids
B. Papular syphilides never spread
C. Papular syphilides are purple in color and covered by a fine scale
D. Mucous lesions are present in 1/3 of patients with secondary syphilis
E. Papular syphilides tend to spread
F. Skin lesions from secondary syphilis are called syphilides
G. Mucous lesions are not present in patients with secondary syphilis, only skin lesions
H. In the late stages of secondary syphilis, the lesions are usually located palmo-plantar
I. Papular syphilides are red-copper in color, covered by a fine scale
J. In the early stages of secondary syphilis, the lesions are usually located palmo-plantar

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Latent syphilis precedes secondary syphilis
B. Latent syphilis is divided into: recent latent and early latent
C. Syphilitic alopecia is also called "sword strike"
D. Syphilitic alopecia can appear as small areas of alopecia or as a diffuse alopecia
E. Latent syphilis is called like this because it is a stage of apparent silence from a clinical point of view
F. Latent syphilis is divided into: recent latent and late latent
G. In secondary syphilis, organ manifestations such as: hepatitis or splenomegaly can also occur
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 18/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

H. In primary syphilis, organ manifestations such as: hepatitis or splenomegaly appear

I. Nail lesions from syphilis can have the appearance of onyxis and perionyxis
J. Nail lesions from syphilis can have the appearance of "nail pitting"

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Nodular syphilides are also called gumma- syphilides
B. Late syphilis is an obligatory evolutionary period that follows the latent one
C. Syphilitic gummas are subcutaneous nodules
D. Tertiary syphilis is also called late syphilis
E. Syphilitic gummas are subcutaneous papules
F. Neurosyphilis is always symptomatic
G. Late syphilis is not a mandatory evolutionary period
H. Secondary syphilis is also called late syphilis
I. Nodular syphilides are also called tuberculous syphilides
J. Neurosyphilis can be asymptomatic

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Early congenital syphilis appears at birth or in the first 2 years of life
B. Prenatal syphilis is syphilis transmitted from the mother to the product of conception
C. Congenital syphilis is symptomatic in most cases, the diagnosis being a clinical one
D. VDRL and RPR are treponemal tests
E. Congenital syphilis remains completely asymptomatic in most cases, the diagnosis being only
serological
F. Transplacental transmission of Treponema occurs in the first weeks of pregnancy
G. Prenatal syphilis is syphilis transmitted from the product of conception to the mother
H. Early congenital syphilis generally appears after the first 2 years of life
I. VDRL and RPR are non-treponemal tests
J. Transplacental transmission of Treponema occurs in the first weeks of pregnancy

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. In Gonorrhea, the etiological agent is a Gram negative coccus
B. In Gonorrhea, the etiological agent is a Gram-negative coccus of the genus Neisseria
C. Acute gonococcal infection in men has an incubation period of 3 weeks
D. In Gonorrhea, the etiological agent is a Gram-negative coccus of the genus Chlamydia
E. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted fungal infection
F. Acute gonococcal infection in men has an incubation period of 3-5 days
G. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection
H. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection that can cause sterility
I. In Gonorrhea, the etiological agent is a Gram-positive coccus
J. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection found only in females

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 19/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Extragenital gonococcal infection can be ocular
B. Acute gonococcal infection is the most common form in women
C. Gonococcal infection in men can be symptomatic or asymptomatic
D. Gonococcal infection in men is only asymptomatic
E. Gonococcal infection in girls is an acute urethro-vulvo-vaginitis
F. Previous gonococcal urethritis can progress to spontaneous healing
G. Extragenital gonococcal infection can affect nails
H. Gonococcal infection in girls is a chronic urethro-vulvo-vaginitis
I. Chronic gonococcal infection is the most common form in women
J. Previous gonococcal urethritis cannot heal spontaneously

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Extragenital gonococcal infection can be anorectal
B. Complications of gonococcal infection include in men: phimosis, balanitis
C. Complications of gonococcal infection include in women: phimosis, balanitis
D. Extragenital gonococcal infection cannot be oropharyngeal
E. Disseminated gonococcal infection is also called gonococcemia
F. Complications of gonococcal infection include in men: prostatitis, funiculitis, epididymitis
G. Extragenital gonococcal infection can be oropharyngeal
H. Complications of gonococcal infection include in men: prostatitis, funiculitis, epididymitis
I. Disseminated gonococcal infection is also called lues
J. Extragenital gonococcal infection cannot be anorectal

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Direct microscopic examination in gonococcal infection highlights Gram-negative diplococci in the
cytoplasm of neutrophils
B. The definitive diagnosis of gonococcal infection is made paraclinically
C. Direct microscopic examination in gonococcal infection is not usually performed
D. Thayer Martin is a special culture medium for the diagnosis of gonorrhea
E. The culture also does not allow performing the antibiogram in gonococcal infection
F. The culture also allows performing the antibiogram in gonococcal infection
G. PCR is a special culture medium for the diagnosis of gonorrhea
H. Direct microscopic examination in gonococcal infection reveals Gram diplococci
I. Direct microscopic examination in gonococcal infection highlights Gram-negative diplococci in the
cytoplasm of eosinophils
J. The definitive diagnosis of gonococcal infection is made clinically

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. For Ducrey's disease, the differential diagnosis must also include tertiary syphilis
B. Soft chancre is also called Dupuytren's disease
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 20/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. Soft chancre is also called Ducrey's disease

D. Soft chancre is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Haemophilus Ducreyi
E. Ducrey's disease is self-limiting
F. Soft gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
G. Soft chancre is an acute, sexually transmitted infectious disease
H. Ducrey's disease is never self-limiting
I. Soft chancre is an acute infectious disease, with airborne transmission
J. For Ducrey's disease, the differential diagnosis must also include primary syphilis

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 21/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women is symptomatic in a proportion of 75%
B. In Chlamydia trachomatis infection, the incubation period is on average 1-4 months
C. Urogenital infections with Chlamydia trachomatis are the most common sexual infection of bacterial
etiology in both women and men
D. Urogenital infections with Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes A and B are the most common sexual
infection of bacterial etiology
E. Urogenital infections with Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K are the most common sexual
infection of bacterial etiology
F. In Chlamydia trachomatis infection, the incubation period is on average 1-4 weeks
G. In cutaneous gonococcal infection, the lesions are pustular, ulcerative
H. In cutaneous gonococcal infection, the lesions are papules, flat, polygonal, itchy and purple in color
I. Chlamydia trachomatis infection in men is symptomatic in a proportion of 75%
J. Urogenital infections with Chlamydia trachomatis D-K serotypes are the most common viral sexual
infection

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. The differential diagnosis for Chlamydia trachomatis infection includes gonococcal urethritis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women, the most important manifestation is cervicitis
C. Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women, the most important manifestation is urethritis
D. Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women can be complicated by epididymitis
E. The differential diagnosis for Chlamydia trachomatis infection includes meningoencephalitis
F. In Chlamydia trachomatis infection, the positive diagnosis is often one of exclusion
G. In Chlamydia trachomatis infection, the positive diagnosis is often one of inclusion
H. Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women complicated with salpingitis, the main consequence is
infertility
I. Chlamydia infection does not occur in newborns
J. Chlamydia infection in newborns is manifested by pneumonia or conjunctivitis

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellate parasite
B. Uro-genital trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted mycotic condition
C. In uro-genital trichomoniasis, the causative agent is Gardnerella vaginalis

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 22/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

D. Trichomoniasis is the most common sexually transmitted disease

E. In uro-genital trichomoniasis, the causative agent is Trichomonas vaginalis
F. The main treatment option in uro-genital Trichomoniasis is Penicillin
G. Trichomoniasis is the rarest sexually transmitted disease
H. The main treatment option in uro-genital Trichomoniasis is Metronidazole
I. Uro-genital trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted parasitic disease
J. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellate protozoan

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Gonorrhea can cause infertility
B. The main treatment options for Chlamydia trachomatis infection are: doxycycline and azithromycin
C. The main treatment option in Chlamydia trachomatis infection is metronidazole
D. Gonococcus is very resistant in the external environment
E. Ceftriaxone is among the therapeutic options for gonococcal urethritis
F. The main treatment option in syphilis is Penicillin
G. Terbinafine is among the therapeutic options for gonococcal urethritis
H. The main treatment option in syphilis is Metronidazole
I. Gonorrhea can cause infertility
J. Gonococcus is fragile in the external environment

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. In genital herpes, we can find vesicles grouped in bouquets that can give the appearance of
pseudobullae
B. Lesions from secondary syphilis are called syphilides
C. In genital herpes, we can find bullae grouped in a bouquet
D. Tertiary syphilis is also called late syphilis
E. Lesions from primary syphilis are called syphilides
F. In early congenital syphilis, the lesions are similar to those in secondary syphilis
G. Congenital syphilis is characterized by the presence of chancre
H. Hard chancre is the characteristic lesion for late syphilis
I. Congenital syphilis can have mucous manifestations such as rhinitis or laryngitis
J. In early congenital syphilis, the lesions are similar to those in primary syphilis

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Neurosyphilis is always symptomatic
B. Syphilitic gumma can ulcerate
C. Syphilitic gumm is a painful lesion
D. Syphilitic gumm appears 3 days after infection
E. Neurosyphilis can be asymptomatic
F. Syphilitic gumma is a painless lesion
G. Syphilitic gumma appear in late syphilis
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 23/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

H. The syphilitic gum is a papule centered by a vesicle

I. Syphilitic gumma is a liquid-type lesion
J. The syphilitic gumma is a nodule with staged evolution

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Erythematous syphilides are also called syphilitic roseolae
B. In secondary syphilis, the lesions are localized
C. Papular syphilides are nonpruritic
D. Erythematous syphilides are also called gummas
E. Erythematous syphilides are papule-type lesions
F. Papular syphilides are covered by a multi-layered, adherent scale
G. Erythematous syphilides are macular lesions
H. Papular syphilides are covered by a fine scale
I. Papular syphilides are itchy
J. In secondary syphilis, the lesions are disseminated

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Erythromycin is an option for the treatment of syphilis
B. In primary syphilis, the lesion is also called the inoculation chancre
C. Topical erythromycin is an option for the treatment of syphilis
D. Penicillin also has a treponemicidal effect
E. In the case of all patients with syphilis, an epidemiological investigation must be carried out
F. In syphilitic chancre, the differential diagnosis must also be made with SCC
G. In syphilitic chancre, the differential diagnosis must also be made with Urticaria
H. In the case of papular syphilides, the lesions are approximately 3 cm
I. Penicillin has a treponemicidal effect
J. In the case of non-syphilis patients, an epidemiological investigation must be carried out

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. A 4-fold decrease in the titer of non-specific syphilis tests suggests relapse/reinfection
B. Among the mucous lesions in patients with secondary syphilis, the most common are the
pharyngeal and laryngeal ones.
C. The incidence of sexually transmitted infections is decreasing
D. Gonococci are fixed with the help of pili at the level of mucous membranes
E. In general, in the case of a sexually transmitted infection diagnosis, other associated diagnoses from
the same category of diseases are also sought
F. Among the mucosal lesions in patients with secondary syphilis, the most common are the
esophageal ones
G. A 4-fold increase in the titer of non-specific syphilis tests suggests relapse/reinfection
H. Mucous lesions are present in 1/3 of patients with secondary syphilis
I. Mucous lesions are present in 90% of patients with secondary syphilis
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 24/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

J. Gonococci cannot attach to mucous membranes

The following statements are True regarding sexually transmitted infections:

A. Gonococcal infection is characterized by a serous secretion
B. Anorectal gonococcal infection is often symptomatic
C. Today, the resistance of the gonococcus to antibiotics is noticeable
D. Oropharyngeal gonococcal infection is often asymptomatic
E. Secondary syphilis cannot associate appendage involvement
F. Oropharyngeal gonococcal infection is often symptomatic
G. Gonococcal infection is characterized by purulent yellow-green exudate
H. Secondary syphilis can associate appendage involvement
I. Today, gonococcus resistance to antibiotics is very rare
J. Anorectal gonococcal infection is often asymptomatic

The following statements are true about actinic keratosis:

A. The biopsy shows anaplastic epidermal cells that extend deep into the dermis
B. Mohs excision is a treatment method
C. It is a precancerous skin lesion
D. Cryotherapy
E. Sun exposure is a risk factor
F. The risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma is 1%/year
G. The biopsy shows dysplastic epithelium (the cells in the deep layersof the epidermis have a
polymorphic appearance, with hyperchromic nuclei)
H. Topical 5-fluorouracil or imiquimod
I. It is a skin cancer originating in the squamous cells of the epithelium
J. As the lesions progress, they may bleed, ulcerate or become painful

The following statements are true about basal cell carcinoma:

A. It can be superficially spreading, nodular, acral lentiginous, lentigo malign
B. The large number of nevi (moles) is a risk factor
C. It is a painless, erythematous, scaly plaque in sun-exposed areas
D. It is a skin cancer originating in the squamous cells of the epithelium
E. Sun exposure is a risk factor
F. The biopsy shows anaplastic epidermal cells that extend deep into the dermis
G. It is a pearly papule with fine vascularization on the surface (telangiectasias) and central ulceration
H. The biopsy highlights the basophilic staining of the basal epidermal cells arranged in palisades
I. These tumors rarely metastasize
J. It is a skin cancer that develops from the basal epidermal cells

There are risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma:

A. Fair complexion
B. Large number of nevi (moles)
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 25/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. Scar
D. Chronic wounds
E. Actinic keratosis
F. Estrogen treatment
G. Smoking
H. Sun exposure (especially UVB radiation)
I. Family history of melanoma
J. Hepatitis C

The following are true about melanoma:

A. The nodular type is the most common
B. It is a malignant melanocytic tumor that spreads rapidly
C. 5-10% of cases metastasize
D. Painless, pigmented lesion with recent changes in appearance
E. The superficially spreading type initially expands on the surface before the invasion occurs in depth
F. The acral lentiginous type remains in situ for a long time before growth occursvertically
G. lentiginous type affects the palms, soles and nail beds
H. Lentigo malign type initially spreads on the surface before the invasion occurs in depth
I. The superficially spreading type is difficult to detect, it frequently ulcerates
J. The nodular type grows only vertically and quickly becomes invasive

Melanoma treatment includes:

A. Chemotherapy and radiotherapy if there are metastases
B. Surgical excision with 1 cm margin if melanoma >2 mm thick
C. Lymph node dissection
D. Surgical excision with 0.5 cm margin if melanoma <2 mm thick
E. Surgical excision with 1 cm margin if melanoma < 2 mm thick
F. Surgical excision with 0.5 cm margin if melanoma is in situ
G. Surgical excision with 2 cm margin if melanoma > 2 mm thick
H. Avoiding sun exposure
I. Topical 5-fluorouracil or imiquimod
J. Radiotherapy or cryotherapy

ABCDE (USA) clinical criteria for the diagnosis of malignant melanoma include:
A. Tumor diameter > 2 cm
B. Color variation
C. Inflammation
D. Nevus asymmetry
E. Irregular border
F. Altered sensation
G. Diameter > 6 mm
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 26/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

H. Elevation
I. Mild itching
J. Bleeding

The following are true about Bowen's Disease:

A. It can affect the genital, penile or anal mucosa
B. It regresses spontaneously after 3 months, leaving a punctate scar
C. They are fast-growing epidermal tumors
D. It is more common in immunosuppressed people, including those with HIV
E. There is an important pathogenic link with HPV-16 and HPV-18
F. They are common in elderly people, with light skin, on areas exposed to the sun, especially on the
area of androgenetic alopecia
G. It can occur on pre-existing solar keratoses
H. It is caused by chronic UV exposure
I. It has more metastatic potential than BCC
J. It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma intraepidermal (in situ)

The following are true about melanocytic nevi:

A. Atypical nevi are larger than common nevi
B. Atypical nevi can present dysplastic features on histopathological examination
C. Congenital melanocytic nevi are present from birth in 5-7% of newborns
D. Atypical nevi are associated with a low risk for melanoma
E. They are the most common benign neoplasms
F. Atypical nevi without features of melanoma can be reevaluated at 6-month intervals
G. Atypical nevi have irregular pigmentation
H. Benign nevi usually have regular borders
I. Acquired melanocytic nevi appear only in the young adult
J. Blue nevus caused by proliferation of melanocytes in the deep dermis

The following statements about Bowen's disease are false:

A. A variant of Bowen's disease can affect the genital mucosa
B. Genital Bowen's disease is pathogenically linked to HPV 6 infection
C. It often progresses to incurable disease
D. Genital Bowen's disease is rare in immunosuppressed individuals
E. The lesions are similar to psoriasis
F. It is caused by chronic UV exposure
G. It typically affects the upper limbs in fair-skinned women
H. It is an indolent form of intraepidermal squamous cell carcinoma
I. The lesions appear as well-defined erythematous-edematous macules or patches
J. It typically affects the trunk in men

Basal cell carcinoma (BSCC):

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 27/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

A. Older people with dark skin who live in sunny areas are at the highest risk
B. BSCC have minimal metastatic potential
C. Genetic factors are also not involved
D. The exact etiology of BSCC is unknown
E. BSCC typically appear as a rapidly growing pearly or shiny nodule
F. Its incidence is increasing worldwide every year by 15%
G. BSCC arise from cells in the pluripotent cells of the basal epidermis
H. The locations of BSCC are at the level of the cephalic extremity and the upper limbs
I. It is the most common form of skin cancer
J. Mutations in PTCH1 have been detected in sporadic BSCC

The following statements about lentigo maligna are true:

A. Mohs excision may provide better margin control
B. Lentigo maligna is a slow-growing intraepidermal form of melanoma
C. The invasive form, melanoma on lentigo maligna can also appear on smaller lesions
D. Malignant cells grow radially without dermal invasion
E. Complete excision with wide margins may produce disfigurement
F. Clinically, it is easy to define the edges of the tumor
G. Imiquimod is not an alternative treatment
H. Pigmented spots appear on areas protected from the sun
I. Treatment consists of surgical excision
J. The cure rate is high

The following statements about malignant melanoma are true:

A. Nodular malignant melanoma presents as a rapidly growing pigmented nodule that bleeds or
ulcerates
B. Malignant acral lentiginous melanoma usually appears late
C. Nodular malignant melanoma presents as a rapidly growing pigmented tumor
D. Superficially spreading malignant melanoma is a large, irregular, pigmented lesion that initially
grows vertically
E. Nodular malignant melanoma is the most aggressive type
F. Five clinical types are described
G. Melanoma on lentigo maligna is an invasive tumor that develops on a pre-existing lentigo maligna
H. Malignant acral lentiginous melanoma appears as a pigmented lesion located on the palm, sole, or
subungual
I. Dermatoscope examination does not help the clinical diagnosis
J. Malignant acral lentiginous melanoma appears as a pigmented lesion located on the cephalic
extremity

The following are true about melanocytic nevi:

A. Benign melanocytic nevi have regular borders.
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 28/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

B. Smaller but multiple nevi are associated with neurological complications but no increased risk of
melanoma.
C. Blue nevus is a blue-gray congenital nevus caused by deeper proliferation of melanocytes in the
deep dermis.
D. Atypical nevi are acquired, have regular pigmentation and are larger than common nevi.
E. The risk of malignant transformation of benign nevi is very low.
F. Acquired melanocytic nevi appear at birth, increasing in number and size during childhood and
adolescence.
G. The presence of more than 100 common nevi is associated with a 7-fold increase in the risk of
melanoma.
H. In newborns, congenital melanocytic nevi are present at birth in a percentage of 3-5%
I. Atypical nevi are associated with an increased risk of melanoma.
J. They are the most common benign neoplasms in the human species

The following can be said about Keratoses/ Seborrheic Warts:

A. They are benign lesions, very common.
B. The lesions have a rough, warty surface and may contain small keratin cysts.
C. Therapeutic methods include curettage, cryotherapy, electrocoagulation.
D. They are also called squamous cell papillomas.
E. The lesions range from pale pink to dark red.
F. Seborrheic keratoses can only be treated by curettage, under local anesthesia.
G. Lesions appear attached to the skin.
H. It affects children and adults.
I. The lesions have a risk of malignant transformation over time.
J. They are caused by an overgrowth of basal keratinocytes.

Which of the following statements are true:

A. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer with minimal metastatic potential.
B. Squamous cell carcinoma is the second most common skin cancer and derives from keratinocytes
just like basal cell carcinoma, having a higher metastatic potential than it.
C. Actinic keratoses can transform malignantly into squamous cell carcinomas in a small percentage
<1%.
D. Cherry angiomas are benign lesions that do not require treatment.
E. Pyogenic granuloma is a malignant vascular proliferation with the appearance of a friable red
nodule.
F. Keratoacanthoma appears on skin exposed to the sun, in adults, frequently reaching a diameter of
4-5cm.
G. Lentigo maligna is a rapidly growing intraepidermal form of melanoma similar to melanoma in situ.
H. Malignant melanoma has an incidence that increases with age, but it can also affect young people.
I. Bowen's disease is an indolent form of basal cell carcinoma that rarely progresses to invasive
disease.
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 29/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

J. Dermatofibroma is frequently located on the upper limbs, being more frequent in women.

Malignant melanoma:
A. Risk factors for malignant melanoma include sun exposure, fair skin, multiple melanocytic nevi,
family history of melanoma, and immunosuppression.
B. Superficially spreading malignant melanoma is a pigmented, large, irregular, flat lesion that initially
grows vertically and later develops laterally.
C. Treatment of metastatic melanoma includes oral tyrosine kinase inhibitors – Vemurafenib, Trametinib
and the MEK inhibitor – Dabrafenib.
D. Malignant acral lentiginous melanoma is always linked to sun exposure.
E. About 75% of cutaneous melanomas occur on pre-existing nevi, the rest occur de novo on normal
skin.
F. Although it accounts for only 4% of skin cancer cases, it is the cause of 80% of skin cancer deaths.
G. It is the most serious form of skin cancer.
H. Melanoma on lentigo maligna usually appears as a new nodule.
I. Nodular malignant melanoma is the most aggressive type, presenting as a pigmented, slow-
growing nodule that bleeds or ulcers.
J. Nodular malignant melanoma is rarely amelanotic (non-pigmented) and may mimic pyogenic
granuloma.

Kaposi's sarcoma:
A. In some African countries the seroprevalence of HHV-8 can reach up to 80%.
B. HHV-8 seroprevalence is 10% in the US.
C. The classic or sporadic form presents with fast-growing macules, plaques or nodules, localized on
the upper limbs.
D. The 3 types of Kaposi's sarcoma have an important association with human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8).
E. In the form associated with immunosuppression, the lesions are extensive, involving the oral cavity,
genital and intestinal mucosa.
F. The endemic form has a greater cutaneous extension, with involvement of the lymph nodes.
G. The form associated with immunosuppression is more severe and occurs more frequently in HIV-
positive homosexual men.
H. An important feature of the endemic form is edema.
I. The endemic form occurs in elderly males, especially in Eastern European Jews.
J. It is a tumor of the vascular and lymphatic endothelium that presents itself as nodules and
erythematous plaques.

Which of the following statements is false:

A. The exact etiology of basal cell carcinomas is known, they are formed from pluripotent cells of the
basal epidermis or follicular structures.
B. Basal cell carcinomas frequently metastasize
C. Basal cell carcinomas bleed easily after minor trauma and do not tend to heal.

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 30/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

D. Topical Imiquimod therapy remains a treatment option in patients with BSCC who do not tolerate
surgery.
E. The recommended treatment for most basal cell carcinomas is wide excision, without requiring
histological examination, if the tumor has been removed with adequate margins.
F. Superficial BSCC can be treated non-surgically with cryotherapy, photodynamic therapy, and topical
Imiquimod.
G. Basal cell carcinomas typically appear as a pearly or shiny nodule, rapidly increasing in size, located
on the head or neck.
H. Basal cell carcinomas have minimal metastatic potential.
I. Mutations in PTCH1, the human counterpart of the Patched gene that regulates the Hedgehog
intracellular signaling pathway, have been detected in sporadic BSCC and Gorlin syndrome.
J. Elderly, fair-skinned people who live in sunny areas have the highest risk of developing basal cell
carcinomas.

The following can be said about squamous cell carcinoma (SCC):

A. The risk of developing SCC does not correlate with sun exposure.
B. SCC is a skin cancer that derives from keratinocytes just like BCC.
C. SCC treatment consists of complete surgical excision with wide margins (>/=5mm).
D. Clinically, it presents itself in the form of nodules, inflamed, keratotic or verrucous plaques, well-
defined, small in size.
E. It only occurs on pre-existing solar keratoses or Bowen's disease.
F. It is of particular interest to the sun-exposed areas of the elderly, with fair skin.
G. Areas of chronic skin inflammation, such as lupus vulgaris, may not be complicated by SCC.
H. The risk of lymph node metastasis increases in high-risk SCC, necessitating long-term follow-up.
I. Radiotherapy is not a treatment option for SCC.
J. It is the second most common skin cancer, with a higher metastatic potential than BCC.

Melanocytic nevi:
A. The risk of malignant transformation of benign nevus is very low
B. Benign melanocytic nevi have regular borders
C. Atypical nevi have regular pigmentation
D. Malignant melanocytic nevi have regular borders
E. Congenital melanocytic nevi are present at birth in 5-7% of newborns.
F. They are the rarest benign neoplasms.
G. They are the most common benign neoplasms
H. Congenital melanocytic nevi are present at birth in 1-2% of newborns.
I. The presence of more than 50 common nevi is associated with a 5-fold increase in the risk of
malignant melanoma.
J. Acquired melanocytic nevi appear in childhood, adolescence and young adulthood

About benign skin tumors:

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 31/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

A. Atypical nevi are associated with an increased risk of melanoma.

B. Atypical nevi are acquired
C. Dermatofibromas are frequently located on the legs, being more common in women.
D. The presence of more than 50 common nevi is associated with a 5-fold increase in the risk of
malignant melanoma
E. The blue nevus is an acquired blue-gray nevus, caused by the deep proliferation of melanocytes in
the middle dermis.
F. Congenital melanocytic nevi are present at birth in 5-7% of newborns.
G. Atypical nevi are congenital.
H. People with familial atypical nevi syndrome have a large number of atypical nevi
I. The blue nevus is an acquired blue-gray nevus, caused by the superficial proliferation of
melanocytes in the middle dermis.
J. Dermatofibromas are frequently located on the legs, being more common in men.

Bowen's disease:
A. Genital Bowen's disease is more common in immunosuppressed people.
B. It typically affects the lower limbs in fair-skinned men.
C. It represents an indolent form of intraepidermal squamous cell carcinoma.
D. Genital Bowen's disease is rare in immunosuppressed people.
E. It represents an intraepithelial carcinoma.
F. A variant of Bowen's disease can affect the oral mucosa.
G. It represents an aggressive form of intraepidermal squamous cell carcinoma.
H. It typically affects the lower limbs in fair-skinned women.
I. A variant of Bowen's disease can affect the genital mucosa.
J. The therapeutic options are similar to those for seborrheic keratosis.

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC):

A. It can appear on Bowen's Disease.
B. Clinically, SCC presents as warty infected nodules or plaques.
C. It can appear on pre-existing solar keratoses.
D. It can appear on pre-existing seborrheic keratoses.
E. It is the second most common skin cancer.
F. Multiple tumors can often appear due to the ingestion of arsenic at an advanced age.
G. The risk of lymph node metastasis increases in low-risk SCC.
H. It has a higher metastatic potential than basal cell carcinoma.
I. SCC is of particular interest to the sun-exposed areas of elderly people with fair skin.
J. SCC is of particular interest to the sun-exposed areas of elderly people with dark skin.

Clinical criteria for the diagnosis of malignant melanoma:

A. Nevus symmetry
B. Elevation
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 32/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. Regular border
D. Nevus asymmetry
E. Flat nevi
F. Color variations
G. Irregular border
H. Diameter > 6mm
I. Uniform color
J. Diameter >1cm

Glasgow 7-point screening score for malignant melanoma:

A. Major criterion: change in size
B. Major criterion: change of. color
C. Major criterion: shapeshifting
D. Minor criterion: intense itching or altered sensation
E. Minor criterion: diameter > 6 mm
F. Major criterion: diameter >6 mm
G. Minor criterion: change of. color
H. Major criterion: inflammation
I. Minor criterion: change in size
J. Bleeding

Acne vulgaris:
A. It is represented by papules, pustules or erythematous nodules
B. It is associated with the infection produced by Propionibacterium acnes
C. Soaps have a significant effect on the condition
D. It represents the inflammation of hair follicles and sweat glands
E. There is a proven association between acne vulgaris and the consumption of certain foods
F. Acne can cause permanent scarring
G. The severity of acne increases at the end of adolescence
H. It is predominantly located on the face, neck, anterior and posterior chest
I. It is associated with androgenic hormones and follicular obstruction caused by skin exfoliation or
cosmetic products
J. Antibiotics (oral or topical) are recommended as the first line of treatment

The following can be said about the treatment of acne vulgaris:

A. Topical benzoyl peroxide is a second-line therapy, often used in combination with a topical retinoid
and an antibiotic
B. Topical retinoids are recommended as the first line of treatment
C. Topical antibiotics cannot inhibit bacterial growth
D. Oral isotretinoin is used in severe cases
E. Soaps have a major effect on the condition
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 33/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

F. Before starting treatment with oral isotretinoin, women must have at least one negative pregnancy
test
G. Oral antibiotics can inhibit bacterial growth (second-line therapy, used in combination with a topical
retinoid)
H. Oral isotretinoin requires careful monitoring of liver enzymes and contraception through monthly
hCG testing
I. Oral contraceptives are not useful in the treatment of acne vulgaris
J. Topical benzoyl peroxide has no antimicrobial properties

The following are true about acne vulgaris:

A. Frequent causes of acne in adults are the use of corticosteroids and diseases in which there is an
excess of androgens
B. Soaps have little effect on the condition
C. There is no proven association between acne vulgaris and the consumption of certain foods
D. The lesions are predominantly located on the face, neck, posterior chest and upper limbs
E. Acne can cause permanent scarring
F. It is represented by papules, vesicles or erythematous nodules
G. Oral isotretinoin requires close monitoring of liver enzymes (risk of hepatotoxicity)
H. Oral isotretinoin can be used in mild and moderate cases
I. Topical retinoids are recommended as second-line therapy
J. Treatment with oral isotretinoin does not present a risk of fetal malformations

The following statements about acne vulgaris are true:

A. Topical retinoids, azelaic acid, salicylic acid and benzoyl peroxide are keratolytic and help unclog
pores
B. The non-inflammatory lesions that can appear in acne are represented by papules and pustules
C. The combination of low doses of spironolactone is useful
D. Lesions are classified into non-inflammatory, inflammatory and scarring
E. Treatment with low-intensity light (blue light, intensely pulsed light) can have beneficial effects on
inflammatory lesions
F. Tetracycline and Erythromycin are recommended for long-term systemic treatment of acne
G. The lesions begin at the level of the pilosebaceous follicle, which is blocked due to infundibular
hyperkeratosis and the excessive production of altered sebum
H. One of the most common sequelae encountered in patients with fair skin is post-inflammatory
hyperpigmentation
I. Acne treatment must target the primary lesion: the microcomedon and associated inflammatory
lesions
J. Severe acne can be associated with various autoimmune syndromes characterized by fever and
aseptic inflammation

Acne treatment:

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 34/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

A. Topical retinoids, azelaic acid, salicylic acid and BPO are: Keratolytic; it blocks the pores, causes skin
dryness, skin peeling
B. Topical isotretinoin is recommended for severe inflammatory acne with scarring
C. Tetracycline and Benzoyl Peroxide are used for the systemic treatment of acne
D. In women, the combination of oral contraceptives and a formula containing Cyproterone acetate
reduces sebum excretion
E. In men, the combination of oral contraceptives and a formula containing Cyproterone acetate
reduces sebum excretion
F. The treatment must target the primary lesion, the vesicle and the associated inflammatory lesions
G. Topical retinoids, azelaic acid, salicylic acid and BPO are: Keratolytic; Helps to unblock pores.
Determines skin dryness, skin flaking
H. The treatment must target the primary lesion, the microcomedone and the associated inflammatory
lesions
I. Systemic isotretinoin is recommended for severe inflammatory acne with scarring
J. Tetracycline and erythromycin are used for the systemic treatment of acne

It is true of grafts and flaps that:

A. are techniques by which wounds are covered
B. autografts are obtained from the same patient's healthy tissue
C. allografts come from donors from different species
D. flaps are of 3 types - "split skin", composite or full thickness
E. xenografts come from a donor from a different species
F. flaps can be free (left partially attached to the donor site) or translational (completely detached from
the donor site)
G. xenografts are taken from the same patient
H. loose flaps are rotated or stretched to cover the wound
I. allografts come from a donor
J. it is the transfer of skin and soft tissues from one area of the body to another

The following statements about grafts and flaps are true:

A. the split skin graft is frequently used for defects on the face and hands
B. the split skin graft is composed of the epidermis and part of the dermis
C. the fascio-cutaneous flap does not contain the vasculature
D. full thickness graft contains other tissues (cartilage, nail bed)
E. split skin graft is composed of epidermis and all dermis
F. the muscle flap is frequently obtained from the tensor fascia lata, latissimus dorsi, gluteal muscles
G. the muscle flap is indicated in facial defects
H. the full-thickness graft encompasses all of the epidermis and dermis
I. the usual donor sites for the composite graft are the finger and the ear
J. the split skin graft contracts over time

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 35/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

The following are true about the anatomy of the skin:

A. from surface to depth, skin consists of epidermis, dermo-epidermal junction, dermis, hypodermis
B. the epidermis consists of 5 layers
C. the skin has a surface of about 3-4 m 2
D. the greatest skin thickness is found in the palmar and plantar regions
E. the epidermis consists of 10 layers
F. the majority population of the epidermis is represented by keratinocytes
G. the dermis is the most superficial layer of the skin
H. the surface of the skin is between 1.5-2 m 2
I. lamina densa is found in the hypodermis
J. the majority of cells in the epidermis are adipocytes

What are the false statements about skin structure?:

A. skin appendages include glands, hair, and nails
B. the dermis comprises 5 layers
C. the epidermis is well vascularized
D. the smallest skin thickness is found at the level of the eyelids and the foreskin
E. melanocytes are found in the hypodermis
F. from the surface to the depth, the skin consists of hypodermis, dermis, epidermis
G. The epidermis is a pluristratified squamous epithelium
H. depending on the presence of pilosity, the skin can be glabrous (hairless) or hairy (covered with hair)
I. toenails grow at a slower rate than fingernails
J. the thinnest skin is found on the palms and soles

The following statements about the anatomy of the skin are true:
A. hair and nails are not appendages of the skin
B. nails grow about 1 cm/day
C. from the depth to the surface, the epidermis is made up of a basal, spinous, granular, lucid,
corneous layer
D. the dermis has 2 areas - a superficial one (papillary dermis) and a deep one (reticulate dermis)
E. the surface of the skin is about 1.5-2 cm 2
F. the hypodermis consists of fat cells
G. melanocytes are located in the epidermis
H. epidermal turnover is achieved in approximately 26-28 days
I. the dermis is the most superficial layer of the skin
J. at palmar and plantar level we find numerous sebaceous glands

Tinea versicolor has the following characteristics:

A. The etiological agent is Malassezia furfur.
B. Classic treatment with topical antibiotic administration.
C. Skin lesions are brown papules covered with fine scales.
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 36/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

D. The etiological agent is Candida Albicans.

E. It is also called pityriasis versicolor.
F. Direct mycological examination by performing the preparation on the slide with potassium chloride
confirms the diagnosis.
G. It is a fungal skin infection
H. The skin lesions are light brown spots covered with scales.
I. Skin lesions are most located on the anterior and posterior thorax.
J. It is a bacterial skin infection.

The following statements are true:

A. Tinea corporis is caused by Malassezia furfur.
B. Systemic treatment in Tinea capitis is recommended for cases resistant to topical treatment
C. Tinea cruris is characterized by the presence of erythematous plaques, located on the scalp.
D. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by a fungus.
E. Treatment in Tinea manum consists of topical antiviral applications
F. In tinea versicolor, KOH (potassium hydroxide) slide preparation shows short hyphae and spores.
G. Tinea pedis is located at the level of the sole.
H. Malassezia furfur is the bacterial agent involved in the pathogenesis of pityriasis versicolor.
I. In tinea versicolor the skin lesions do not tan in the sun like the rest of the skin.
J. Tinea corporis is a viral skin infection characterized by a scaly rash on the body with a clear center
and raised edges.

The following statements are false, except:

A. In tinea versicolor, topical antifungal treatment is recommended for several weeks.
B. Treatment in tinea pedis consists of topical antibiotic applications.
C. At the skin level, tinea versicolor is characterized by the presence of salmon-colored, light brown or
hypopigmented macules.
D. Candida albicans cannot be involved in the occurrence of intertrigo.
E. Tinea corporis is a common viral infection.
F. In tinea versicolor, topical antibiotic treatment is recommended for several weeks.
G. The skin lesions of tinea versicolor show adherent scales.
H. Candida albicans can be the fungal agent involved in the occurrence of intertrigo.
I. The paraclinical diagnosis in frequent fungal skin infections is the direct mycological examination by
KOH (potassium hydroxide) slide preparation.
J. Tinea corporis is a common fungal skin infection.

Which statements about fungal skin infections are false?:

A. Psoriasis vulgaris is a fungal skin infection.
B. Tinea cruris is characterized by the presence of erythematous-scaly plaques, located on the scalp.
C. Skin lesions in intertrigo caused by Candida albicans are erythematous, painful plaques with
peripheral pustules.
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 37/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

D. Diabetes mellitus is frequently associated with skin fungal infections.

E. Treatment in Tinea manum consists of topical antiviral applications.
F. A KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination guides the diagnosis in intertrigo.
G. Candida albicans can be the bacterial agent involved in the occurrence of intertrigo
H. Microsporum, Tricophyton and Epidermophyton are dermatophytes involved in the pathogenesis of
frequent fungal skin infections.
I. After recent use of antibiotics, patients may develop fungal infections.
J. They are frequently associated with cold or low humidity environment.

A 5-year-old child presents to the doctor for the appearance of an erythematous, scaly plaque,
with an active edge and an attenuated center, on the face for approximately 3 days. Report that
the lesion is pruritic. Vital signs are within normal limits. What is the next step in the management
of this patient?:
A. Systemic corticosteroid.
B. Systemic antibiotic.
C. KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination will show hyphae.
D. The KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination will look like "spaghetti and meatballs".
E. Topical antifungal for several weeks.
F. Topical corticosteroid for several weeks.
G. Oral antifungal for treatment-resistant cases
H. KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination
I. It is most likely a bacterial infection.
J. Systemic antihistamine to relieve symptoms.

Fungal skin infections:

A. Often associated with cold environment.
B. Patients with diabetes mellitus present higher risk of developing fungal infections.
C. Patients with cardiovascular disease are at higher risk of developing fungal infections.
D. Following recent antibiotic use, patients may develop fungal infections.
E. Underweight patients are at higher risk of developing fungal infections.
F. Obese patients present higher risk of developing fungal infections.
G. Often associated with increased humidity.
H. Patients with digestive pathology are at higher risk of developing fungal infections.
I. Often associated with warm environment.
J. Following recent antiviral use, patients may develop fungal infections.

Tinea pedis:
A. The KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination will look like "spaghetti and meatballs".
B. It is very common in underweight patients.
C. Treatment consists of topical corticosteroid administration for several weeks.
D. KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination shows hyphae.
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 38/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

E. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Epidermophyton class

F. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Microsporum class
G. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Tricophyton class
H. The patient needs to be treated in the intensive care unit.
I. The treatment consists of topical antifungal administration for several weeks.
J. It can have Staphylococcus aureus as an etiological agent.

Tinea corporis:
A. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Epidermophyton class
B. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Tricophyton class
C. Treatment consists of topical corticosteroid administration for several weeks.
D. Malassezia furfur may be the etiological agent.
E. It affects the skin of the palms and soles.
F. The skin lesions are flat violet papules.
G. Patients with diabetes frequently associate this infection.
H. The treatment consists of topical antifungal administration for several weeks.
I. Skin lesions are flaccid blisters.
J. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Microsporum class.

Tinea cruris:
A. In case of resistance to topical treatment, an oral antifungal may be recommended.
B. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Microsporum class
C. It can have Staphylococcus aureus as an etiological agent.
D. It affects the skin of the palms and soles.
E. Treatment consists of topical antibiotic administration for several weeks.
F. Skin lesions are bubbles under tension.
G. Patients suffering from obesity frequently associate this infection.
H. The lesions are parenchymal vesicles, arranged on an urticaria-like plaque.
I. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Tricophyton class.
J. Skin lesions are erythematous, scaly, pruritic plaques with active rim .and central attenuation.

The following statements about candidal intertrigo are true, except:

A. The skin lesions are arranged at the palmar and plantar level.
B. Skin lesions are most frequently located in the folds.
C. The fungal agent involved is Malassezia furfur.
D. The skin lesions are erythematous, pruritic papules with peripheral pustules.
E. The skin lesions are erythematous, pruritic plaques with peripheral pustules.
F. KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination shows pseudohyphae.
G. The fungal agent involved is Candida albicans.
H. The treatment consists in the administration of oral corticotherapy.
I. It is a bacterial infection.
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 39/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

J. The treatment consists of administration of topical antifungal and topical corticosteroid.

Microsporia:
A. It's pilomycosis.
B. It is a bacterial infection.
C. Patients require hospitalization in the intensive care unit.
D. It mainly affects adults.
E. It mainly affects children
F. It is a viral infection.
G. The pathogen most involved is Candida albicans
H. It is contagious.
I. The hairs located on the surface of the plaques are broken 1-3 mm from emergence.
J. The lesions are large, discreetly erythematous plaques, and fine pityriaziform scales are present on
the surface.

The following statements about dry scalp trichophytosis are true:

A. It is common in adults.
B. The etiological agent involved is Streptococcus pyogenes
C. It is common in childhood.
D. The hairs are broken at unequal distances from the emergence.
E. The lesions are small, numerous plaques
F. It is a bacterial infection.
G. The treatment is antifungal
H. Treatment consists of oral antibiotic administration.
I. It's pilomycosis.
J. The lesions are large, discreetly erythematous plaques, and fine pityriaziform scales are present on
the surface

The following statements about trichophytosis are true:

A. It is not a contagious pathology.
B. Clinically, inflammatory plaques are present, with a pseudotumoral appearance.
C. It is a viral infection.
D. Skin lesions are located on the scalp in children.
E. The fungal agent involved is Candida albicans.
F. Hair removal from skin lesions is painful.
G. Prophylactic treatment aims to administer oral antivirals.
H. Skin lesions are called Kerion celsi.
I. It is an inflammatory mycosis.
J. Skin lesions in adults are localized in the beard and mustache.

The following statements about favus are true, except:

A. The favus with wells is represented by the favic well.
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 40/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

B. The evolution of favus is not towards cicatricial alopecia.

C. The hairs may retain their normal length but lack luster.
D. General treatment involves oral antibiotic administration only.
E. It is favored by poor hygiene, malnutrition.
F. Culture on Sabouraud medium is not useful for the diagnosis of the mycological species.
G. It's pilomycosis.
H. The fungal agent involved is Candida albicans.
I. The skin lesions have an unpleasant odor, compared to that of mouse urine.
J. It is not a contagious pathology.

The following statements about pilomycosis are true:

A. Kerion celsi is an inflammatory plaque with a pseudotumoral appearance, present in inflammatory
trichophytosis.
B. It affects the hair.
C. Dry trichophytosis is an inflammatory pilomycosis.
D. It mainly affects the nails.
E. Microsporia is a contagious pilomycosis.
F. Microsporia occurs most frequently in children.
G. Tinea capitis predominantly affects adults.
H. The treatment consists in the administration of antibiotics for 4-6 weeks.
I. In dry trichophytosis of the scalp, the hairs are broken at unequal distances, some right from the
emergence, and others 1-3 mm from it.
J. Microsporia is an inflammatory pilomycosis.

Onychomycosis (tinea unguium):

A. The initial lesion is a small, triangular, yellowish-white, lackluster spot.
B. Fungal agents produce them.
C. Antifungal treatment lasts about 7 days.
D. The condition begins at the distal end or lateral edge of the nail.
E. The positive diagnosis is supported by KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination.
F. The positive diagnosis is supported by the bacteriological examination.
G. Systemic antifungal treatment lasts 2-3 years.
H. Frequently encountered in underweight patients.
I. The nail thickens, becomes dull and brittle.
J. The general treatment is oral antibiotics.

A 33-year-old patient presents to the doctor for approximately 2 months of the appearance of a
rash consisting of salmon-colored, light brown or hypopigmented macules, which present easily
removable scales on the surface, located at the level of the posterior chest. The patient states that
the lesions do not tan in the sun like the rest of the skin. What is the next step in the management
of this patient?:
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 41/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

A. KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination does not guide the diagnosis.

B. We recommend PUVA therapy to the patient.
C. The patient has tinea versicolor.
D. The patient has a sexually transmitted disease.
E. We recommend systemic corticosteroid therapy to the patient.
F. We perform a skin biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.
G. The fungal agent is Malassezia furfur.
H. KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination to confirm the diagnosis.
I. We recommend oral Ketoconazole to the patient for 1-5 days.
J. We recommend topical antifungal treatment to the patient for several weeks.

A 77-year-old patient, known to have type 2 diabetes and obesity, presents to the doctor for the
appearance of approximately 2 weeks of erythematous plaques, with fine scales on the surface,
with active edge and attenuated center, located at the level of the inguinal folds. The patient
reports that the lesions are itchy. What is the next step in the management of this patient?:
A. The pacient has a fungal infection.
B. Direct mycological examination by KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination does not help.
C. We recommend the patient topical treatment with Aciclovir.
D. Mandatory skin biopsy.
E. Oral antibiotic treatment.
F. Oral antifungal in case of resistance to topical therapy.
G. Topical antifungal for several weeks.
H. KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination confirms the diagnosis.
I. The patient has a viral pathology.
J. The patient has tinea cruris.

The following statements about fungal infections are true, except:

A. Microsporum, Tricophyton and Epidermophyton are fungi involved in the pathogenesis of frequent
fungal skin infections.
B. Following recent antibiotic use, patients may develop fungal infections.
C. Patients with digestive pathology are at higher risk of developing fungal infections.
D. It mainly affects adults.
E. They are associated with obesity and diabetes.
F. In tinea versicolor, KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination shows short hyphae and spores.
G. Treatment consists of topical corticosteroid administration for several weeks.
H. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by a fungus.
I. Tinea cruris is characterized by the presence of erythematous-scaly plaques, located at the plantar
level.
J. They are common in underweight patients.

The following statements are false:

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 42/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

A. Tinea corporis is a viral skin infection characterized by a scaly rash on the body with a clear center
and raised edges.
B. The bacterial agent involved in the pathogenesis of pityriasis versicolor is Malassezia furfur.
C. Tinea cruris is characterized by the presence of erythematous plaques, located on the scalp.
D. Skin lesions from tinea pedis are located at the plantar level.
E. Skin lesions do not tan in the sun like the rest of the skin in patients with tinea versicolor.
F. Tinea manum is caused by Malassezia furfur.
G. Systemic treatment in Tinea capitis is recommended for cases resistant to topical treatment.
H. In pityriasis versicolor, KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination shows short hyphae and spores.
I. Treatment in Tinea corporis consists of topical antiviral applications.
J. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by a fungus.

The following statements about Tinea versicolor are false, except:

A. It is caused by Malassezia furfur.
B. It is a viral skin infection.
C. It is caused by Candida albicans.
D. Skin lesions are salmon-colored macules covered with scales.
E. It is also called pityriasis versicolor.
F. The treatment consisted of topical antibiotic administration.
G. Skin lesions are most commonly located on the anterior and posterior thorax.
H. Direct mycological examination by performing the potassium chloride examination confirms the
diagnosis.
I. Skin lesions are salmon-colored papules covered with fine scales.
J. It is a common fungal skin infection.

The following statements about trichophytosis are true, except:

A. Prophylactic treatment aims to administer oral antivirals.
B. It is not a contagious pathology.
C. Skin lesions are located on the scalp in children.
D. In kerion celsi hair removal is painful.
E. Skin lesions are called Kerion celsi.
F. In adults, kerion celsi is in the beard and mustache.
G. It is an inflammatory mycosis.
H. The skin lesions are inflammatory plaques, with a pseudotumoral appearance.
I. It is a bacterial infection.
J. The fungal agent involved is Staphylococcus aureus.

A 67-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with onychomycosis (tinea unguium) on the
toenails. Which statements are true?:
A. We recommend topical antifungal treatment to the patient for approximately 7 days.
B. The patient has a fungal infection.

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 43/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. We recommend general antibiotic treatment to the patient.

D. Tinea unguium is common in underweight patients.
E. We recommend systemic antifungal treatment to the patient for a period of 2-3 years.
F. Diabetes mellitus could be a contributing factor.
G. The positive diagnosis is supported by the bacteriological examination.
H. The initial lesion is a small, triangular, yellowish-white, lackluster spot.
I. The condition started at the distal end or lateral edge of the nail.
J. The positive diagnosis is supported by the direct mycological examination using KOH (potassium
hydroxde) examination.

The following statements about microsporia are false, except:

A. It is pilomycosis.
B. The lesions on the scalp are large, discretely erythematous plaques, and fine pityriaziform scales are
present on the surface.
C. Microsporia is a viral infection.
D. Microsporia is a bacterial infection.
E. It occurs most frequently in children.
F. The pathogen most involved is Malassezia furfur.
G. It affects adults.
H. Patients require hospitalization in the intensive care unit.
I. It presents a contagious risk.
J. The hairs located on the surface of the skin lesions lack luster, but with preserved tonicity.

A 5-year-old boy who goes to kindergarten presents to the doctor with multiple small plaques on
the scalp, covered with little scales, slightly adherent. The hairs are broken at different distances
from the emergence and have diminished tone. Vital signs are within normal limits. What is the
best treatment option?:
A. It is recommended to depilate the hairs before applying topical antifungal treatment.
B. Topical and oral antifungal therapy
C. The patient has an autoimmune condition.
D. The etiological agent involved is Streptococcus pyogenes.
E. The patient has dry scalp trichophytosis.
F. Treatment consists of oral antibiotic administration.
G. The patient has a pilomycosis.
H. It is a bacterial infection.
I. Microscopic examination of hairs confirms the diagnosis.
J. It is recommended to shave the hair before applying topical antifungal treatment.

The following statements about tinea pedis are true, except:

A. The diagnosis is confirmed by KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination.
B. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Microsporum class.

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 44/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. It is common in patients with normal body weight.

D. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Tricophyton class.
E. It can have as an etiological agent a fungus from the Epidermophyton class.
F. The KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination will look like "spaghetti and meatballs".
G. The treatment consists of topical antifungal administration for several weeks.
H. Treatment consists of oral corticosteroid administration for several weeks.
I. The patient needs to be treated in the intensive care unit.
J. It can have Staphylococcus aureus as an etiological agent.

A 4-year-old girl who goes to kindergarten presents herself to the doctor for the appearance of
large, discreetly erythematous plaques located on the scalp for approximately 2 weeks. Fine
pityriaziform scales are present on the surface of the lesions. The hairs located on the surface of
the plates are broken 1-3 mm from emergence. What is the best management?:
A. Microscopic examination of hairs confirms the diagnosis.
B. The patient has a viral infection.
C. The patient has a bacterial infection.
D. The girl has a contagious pathology.
E. The patient has pilomycosis.
F. It is recommended to depilate the hairs before applying topical antifungal treatment.
G. We recommend topical and oral antifungal treatment.
H. It is recommended to shave the hair before applying topical antifungal treatment.
I. We recommend oral antibiotic treatment.
J. The pathogen most involved is Candida albicans.

The following statements about tinea versicolor are false:

A. It is an autoimmune disease.
B. The treatment consisted of administration of oral immunosuppressants.
C. It is a common fungal skin infection.
D. Direct mycological examination with potassium chloride confirms the diagnosis.
E. The etiological agent is Candida Albicans.
F. The skin lesions are light brown spots covered with scales.
G. Skin lesions are brown nodules covered with fine scales.
H. It is also called pityriasis versicolor.
I. It is caused by Malassezia furfur.
J. Skin lesions are most located on the anterior and posterior thorax.

The following statements are true, except:

A. Tinea corporis is a viral skin infection characterized by a scaly rash on the body with a clear center
and raised edges.
B. In tinea versicolor, KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination shows short hyphae and spores.
C. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by a fungus.

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 45/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

D. Tinea pedis has plantar localization.

E. In tinea versicolor the skin lesions do not tan in the sun like the rest of the skin.
F. Tinea cruris is characterized by the presence of erythematous plaques, located on the scalp.
G. Tinea corporis is caused by Malassezia furfur.
H. Systemic treatment in Tinea capitis is recommended for cases resistant to topical treatment.
I. Malassezia furfur is the bacterial agent involved in the pathogenesis of pityriasis versicolor.
J. Treatment in Tinea manum consists of topical immunomodulator applications.

The following information is false about fungal skin infections:

A. Following recent antiviral use, patients may develop fungal infections.
B. Often associated with increased humidity.
C. Patients with cardiovascular disease present higher risk of developing fungal infections.
D. Often associated with warm environment.
E. Often associated with cold environment.
F. Patients with digestive pathology are at higher risk of developing fungal infections.
G. Underweight patients are at higher risk of developing fungal infections.
H. Patients with DM (diabetes mellitus) are at higher risk of developing fungal infections.
I. Patients with DM (diabetes mellitus) are at higher risk of developing fungal infections.
J. Obese patients are at higher risk of developing fungal infections.

They are bacterial skin infections:

A. gangrene
B. cellulitis
C. necrotizing fasciitis
D. psoriasis
E. verruca vulgaris
F. impetigo
G. shingles
H. tinea
I. skin abscesses
J. eczema

The following statements about cellulitis are true:

A. It is caused by type A streptococcus
B. The skin lesions are located near the entrance gate
C. It is a bacterial infection
D. Patients have chills
E. It is a viral infection
F. It shows leukocytosis
G. He has leukopenia
H. It is caused by streptococcus type Z

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 46/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

I. The skin lesions are located away from the entrance gate
J. Patients are afebrile

Risk factors for cellulitis are:

A. Venous or lymphatic insufficiency
B. Intravenous drug use
C. Tachycardia
D. Cycling
E. Previous episodes of cellulitis
F. Crowds
G. Aspirin consumption
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Meat consumption
J. Immunosuppression

Cellulitis patients have:

A. increased ESR and CRP
B. eosinophilia
C. fever
D. shiver
E. leukocytosis
F. increased Ig E
G. generalized pruritus
H. nocturnal itching
I. pruritic polygonal papules
J. erythema, edema and local pain

The following statements about cellulitis treatment are true:

A. The treatment lasts 10-14 days
B. Those at risk for MRSA are given cotrimoxazole/azathioprine or vancomycin
C. It is treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D. It is treated with systemic corticotherapy
E. It is treated with antifungals
F. It is treated with penicillinase-resistant beta-lactams
G. Those at risk for MRSA are given cotrimoxazole/linezolid or vancomycin
H. IV antibiotics are used in severe cases
I. It is treated with dermatocorticoids
J. It is treated with oral cephalosporins

The following statements about cellulitis are false:

A. Eosinophilia, ESR and CRP are elevated
B. It presents leukocytosis, elevated ESR and CRP
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 47/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. It is an acute bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue

D. It is a chronic bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue
E. It is caused by Clostridium perfringens
F. It is caused by type A streptococcus
G. Patients present with fever, chills, myalgias
H. It shows hemolytic anemia
I. The skin lesions are located near the entrance gate
J. Patients present with arthralgias and abdominal pain

The following statements about skin abscesses are true:

A. Gluteal abscess can lead to cavernous sinus thrombosis
B. They are subcutaneous collections of pus
C. Microbiological examination is not recommended in complicated or recurrent cases
D. They are subcutaneous collections of lipids
E. Microbiological examination is recommended in complicated or recurrent cases
F. It can appear as a conglomeration of several infected hair follicles
G. They are intramuscular collections of pus
H. They are caused by staphylococci, usually MRSA
I. Sepsis can be a complication
J. They are caused by dermatophytes

The following statements about hidradenitis suppurativa are true:

A. treatment also requires antibiotics
B. chronic follicular occlusion and inflammation of the apocrine glands cause hidradenitis suppurativa
C. treatment also requires surgical excision
D. treatment requires antivirals
E. acute follicular occlusion and inflammation of the apocrine glands cause hidradenitis suppurativa
F. chronic follicular occlusion and inflammation of the eccrine glands cause hidradenitis suppurativa
G. acute infection leads to scarring
H. chronic infection leads to scarring
I. it is manifested by the appearance of recurrent abscesses in the armpit, inguinal and perineal area
J. chronic follicular occlusion and inflammation of the sweat glands cause hidradenitis suppurativa

The following statements about skin abscesses are true:

A. Treatment consists of incision and drainage + antifungals
B. It shows fluctuation in the central portion
C. Treatment consists of incision and drainage + antibiotic
D. They are urticarial lesions
E. Penicillin covers the MRSA spectrum
F. The pain is accentuated when the abscess is drained
G. They are edematous and erythematous lesions

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 48/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

H. The pain is usually relieved when the abscess is drained

I. Cotrimoxazole covers the MRSA spectrum
J. No fluctuation in the central area

The following statements about hidradenitis suppurativa are false:

A. treatment also requires antibiotics
B. treatment also requires surgical excision
C. treatment requires antihistamines
D. chronic follicular occlusion and inflammation of the apocrine glands cause hidradenitis suppurativa
E. it is manifested by the appearance of tumors in the armpit, inguinal and perineal area
F. it is manifested by the appearance of bullae in the armpit, inguinal and perineal area
G. it is manifested by the appearance of recurrent abscesses in the armpit, inguinal and perineal area
H. it is manifested by the appearance of vegetations in the armpit, inguinal and perineal area
I. chronic infection leads to scarring
J. treatment requires antifungals

The following statements about skin abscesses are false:

A. It can appear as a conglomeration of several infected hair follicles
B. They are caused by staphylococci, usually MRSA
C. Scabies can be a complication
D. They are caused by gonococci
E. They are subcutaneous collections of pus
F. Microbiological examination is recommended in complicated or recurrent cases
G. Sepsis can be a complication
H. Eczema can be a complication
I. Mycological examination is recommended in complicated or recurrent cases
J. They are subcutaneous collections of lipids

They are not bacterial skin infections:

A. gangrene
B. melanoma
C. candidiasis
D. impetigo
E. tinea
F. skin abscesses
G. scabies
H. cellulitis
I. necrotizing fascia
J. psoriasis

Necrotizing fasciitis:
A. It is a viral infection
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 49/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

B. It leads to systemic infection

C. It is rapidly progressive
D. It develops at the level of the fascial planes
E. It rapidly leads to extensive soft tissue necrosis
F. It leads to the development of hives
G. It evolves slowly and progressively
H. It develops in the epidermis
I. It is a polymicrobial infection
J. It slowly leads to tissue necrosis

The following statements about necrotizing fasciitis are false:

A. It is a viral infection
B. It leads to the development of hives
C. It develops in the epidermis
D. It leads to systemic infection
E. It develops at the level of the fascial planes
F. It rapidly leads to extensive soft tissue necrosis
G. It is a polymicrobial infection
H. It evolves slowly and progressively
I. It slowly leads to tissue necrosis
J. It is rapidly progressive

Clinically Necrotizing fasciitis presents:

A. Intense pain
B. Fever
C. Local heat
D. Predominantly nocturnal itching
E. Suppurative nodules
F. Atrophic scars
G. Loss of sensation in the involved tissue
H. Erythema and edema
I. Sterile pustules
J. Generalized pruritus

Clinically, necrotizing fasciitis does NOT present:

A. Sterile pustules
B. Predominantly nocturnal itching
C. Local heat
D. Generalized pruritus
E. Fever
F. Intense pain
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 50/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

G. Loss of sensation in the involved tissue

H. Atrophic scars
I. Suppurative nodules
J. Erythema and edema

The following statements about necrotizing fasciitis are true:

A. Treatment = major surgical debridement, incision and drainage; broad-spectrum iv antibiotics
B. The EKG detects the accumulation of subcutaneous air
C. High mortality (25% of patients)
D. Sepsis can be a complication
E. Shingles can be a complication
F. CT detects subcutaneous air accumulation
G. Rx detects subcutaneous air accumulation
H. Treatment = major surgical debridement, incision and drainage; narrow-spectrum oral antibiotics
I. Low mortality (0.25% of patients)
J. Contrast angiography detects subcutaneous air accumulation

Laboratory data in Necrotizing Fasciitis show:

A. hypernatremia
B. low ESR
C. microbiological culture is not useful
D. hyponatremia
E. ESR increased
F. elevated CRP
G. leukopenia
H. leukocytosis
I. Microbiological culture is useful
J. low CRP

The following statements about gangrene are true:

A. Described as erythematous or nodular
B. Determined by ischemia
C. Always determined by Clostridium perfringens
D. Described as wet or dry
E. Determined by severe infections
F. It represents tissue necrosis
G. Determined by itching
H. Occasionally caused by Clostridium perfringens
I. Determined by parasitosis
J. It represents bone necrosis

The following statements about gangrene are true:

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 51/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

A. It does not develop local pain

B. Requires a previous skin infection
C. It develops hypotension
D. It does not require a previous skin infection
E. Requires a penetrating wound
F. It develops high blood pressure
G. No fever
H. It develops fever
I. Does not require a penetrating wound
J. It develops intense local pain

The following statements about gangrene are true:

A. Wet gangrene is caused by acute vascular occlusion or infection
B. Dry gangrene is caused by arterial insufficiency
C. Wet gangrene is caused by acantholysis
D. It develops high blood pressure
E. Laboratory = fungal cultures from the wound
F. Dry gangrene is caused by scabies
G. It presents putrid-smelling skin
H. Laboratory = microbiological cultures from the wound
I. No fever
J. It shows skin crepitations

The following statements about gangrene are true:

A. Amputation is often necessary
B. X-ray may reveal ischemia
C. Amputation is not necessary
D. The presence of subcutaneous air can be seen on CT in wet gangrene
E. Treatment with systemic antifungals
F. Angiography may reveal ischemia
G. Treatment with systemic corticotherapy in high doses
H. Magnetic resonance angiography can reveal ischemia
I. Laboratory = fungal cultures from the wound
J. The presence of subcutaneous air can be seen on X-ray in wet gangrene

The following statements about gangrene are false:

A. Determined by parasitosis
B. Dry gangrene is caused by arterial insufficiency
C. It presents putrid-smelling skin
D. Wet gangrene is caused by acute vascular occlusion or infection
E. Determined by itching

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 52/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

F. Always determined by Clostridium perfringens

G. Amputation is not necessary
H. It shows skin crepitations
I. No fever
J. Laboratory = microbiological cultures from the wound

Impetigo:
A. It is a fungal infection of the skin
B. It is a contagious skin infection
C. Has facial itching
D. It has golden-yellow crusts
E. It occurs most frequently in children
F. It is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus
G. It is more common in adults
H. It is a viral skin infection
I. It is often caused by Treponema pallidum
J. It is more common in the elderly

Impetigo:
A. It shows erythema
B. It shows bullae
C. It shows necrotic crusts
D. No facial itching
E. Presents petechiae
F. It shows vegetation
G. Has facial itching
H. It is located around mucocutaneous surfaces
I. It has honey-colored crusts
J. It shows lichenification

Impetigo:
A. Linezolid or vancomycin
B. Treatment with oral antibiotics if the evolution is severe
C. Acyclovir treatment
D. Treatment with topical antibiotics
E. Treatment with oral antibiotics if outbreaks occur
F. Treatment with mupirocin
G. Antiviral treatment
H. Dicloxacillin or cephalexin
I. Always treat with oral antibiotics
J. Treatment with oral antibiotics if the patient requests this

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 53/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

7-year-old patient with sudden onset 3 days ago of erythematous lesions and fragile facial
periorificial blisters that open and become covered with myeliceric crusts.:
A. It is a fungal infection of the skin
B. The diagnosis is impetigo
C. Treatment with oral antibiotics if outbreaks occur
D. Treatment with topical antibiotics
E. It is often caused by HPV
F. It is a contagious skin infection
G. The diagnosis is herpes simplex
H. The diagnosis is gangrene
I. Acyclovir treatment
J. It is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus

55- year-old patient presents for 3 days pain, erythema, edema and a collection, fluctuating in the
central area, located on the upper lip:
A. The diagnosis is gangrene
B. Treatment consists of proper hygiene
C. It can lead to cavernous sinus thrombosis
D. It has high mortality (75% of patients)
E. Cotrimoxazole covers the MRSA spectrum
F. Generalized pruritus is a common complication
G. The diagnosis is skin abscess
H. The pain is usually relieved when the abscess is drained
I. The diagnosis is necrotizing fasciitis
J. Treatment consists of incision and drainage + antibiotic

A 66-year-old patient presents for 3 days of fever, chills, erythema, edema and pain in the left leg,
accompanied by leukocytosis and elevated CRP and ESR.:
A. The diagnosis is tinea corporis
B. It is a bacterial infection
C. The diagnosis is psoriasis
D. The diagnosis is impetigo
E. The treatment lasts 10-14 days
F. It is treated with penicillinase-resistant beta-lactams
G. The diagnosis is scabies
H. It is treated with oral cephalosporins
I. It is a fungal infection
J. The diagnosis is cellulitis

A 71-year-old patient with diabetes presents for 2 days of fever, chills, erythema, edema and
localized pain in the face, accompanied by leukocytosis and elevated CRP and ESR.:

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 54/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

A. The disease is caused by Malassezia furfur

B. IV antibiotics are used in severe cases
C. Treatment lasts 10-14 weeks
D. The diagnosis is pemphigus vulgaris
E. The treatment lasts 3-5 days
F. The disease is caused by type A streptococcus
G. The diagnosis is cellulitis
H. The treatment lasts 10-14 days
I. Topical antibiotics are used in severe cases
J. Those at risk for MRSA are given cotrimoxazole/linezolid or vancomycin

What are the risk factors for scabies?:

A. female sex
B. poor hygiene
C. sleeping in separate rooms
D. frequent washing of clothes
E. shared use of towels
F. sleeping in the same bed
G. small communities
H. compliance with hygiene measures
I. large communities
J. close contact with other people

In scabies we find the following:

A. intense itching
B. lesions predominantly on the scalp
C. mite burrows in the superficial layer of the epidermis
D. exacerbation of itching in the morning
E. discrete itching
F. furrows in the deep layer of the epidermis
G. increased itching on contact with cold
H. papules (pearly vesicles)
I. post-scratching excoriations
J. increased itching after hot baths

In scabies we do NOT encounter the following:

A. lesions predominantly on the face
B. exacerbation of itching in the cold
C. large papules (over 5 cm)
D. localization in the interdigital spaces
E. discrete itching

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 55/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

F. mite tunnels of several mm

G. furrows in the superficial layer of the epidermis
H. papules in the vicinity of the furrows
I. post-scratching excoriations
J. mite burrows of several cm

The following statements are true about scabies:

A. it is a bacterial infection
B. it is favored by interpersonal contact
C. the condition is highly contagious
D. it is a fungal infection
E. the characteristic lesion is the macula
F. it occurs especially in people with poor hygiene
G. it is not transmitted in communities
H. the condition has a low degree of contagiousness
I. the causative agent is Sarcoptes scabiei
J. it is a parasitic infection

The following statements about scabies are true:

A. clothes and linen should be washed at low temperatures
B. the symptoms are accentuated at night
C. itching is absent
D. deep scraping of the skin is needed for microscopic examination
E. for the microscopic examination, the skin at the level of the furrows is scraped superficially
F. parasites cannot be identified by optical microscopy
G. parasites and their eggs can be seen on microscopic examination
H. lesions are frequently located in the interdigital spaces
I. the lesions are frequently located on the scalp
J. patients have severe pruritus

Scabies treatment includes:

A. sanitizing clothes at high temperatures
B. applying permethrin cream
C. avoiding antihistamines
D. oral ivermectin administration
E. oral administration of permethrin
F. washing clothes in cold water
G. administration of antihistamines
H. intimate contact with other people
I. avoiding collectivities
J. application of ivermectin cream

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 56/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

The following are false about scabies treatment:

A. first line: apply permethrin cream
B. the clothes will be washed at low temperatures
C. diphenhydramine can be given
D. antihistamines are recommended
E. the administration of diphenhydramine is avoided
F. interpersonal contacts will be avoided
G. no antihistamines are administered
H. it is necessary to sanitize clothes, towels, bed linen in hot water
I. oral permethrin is administered as an option
J. ivermectin cream is applied

Symptoms and clinical signs present in scabies are:

A. the presence of papules
B. mite burrows in the interdigital spaces of the feet
C. severe itching in the affected area
D. mite burrows in the interdigital spaces of the hands
E. aggravation of symptoms after cold baths
F. aggravation of symptoms after hot baths
G. intense pain at the level of the lesions
H. severe itching away from the lesions
I. absence of itching
J. mite burrows on the scalp

We can say the following about scabies:

A. infection of close contacts is rare
B. it is easily transmitted in communities
C. it is not a pruritic condition
D. is a parasitic infection caused by Pediculus humanus
E. is a parasitic infection caused by Sarcoptes scabiei
F. is a bacterial infection caused by Sarcoptes scabiei
G. the characteristic lesion is the mite trench
H. it is a viral infection
I. clothes must be sanitized at high temperatures
J. infestation of close contacts is common

The following principles of treatment in scabies are not True:

A. oral ivermectin is a treatment option
B. antihistamines are given to reduce itching
C. clothes will be washed at high temperatures
D. washing of clothes, towels and linen is done once a week

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 57/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

E. systemic administration of permethrin is the treatment of choice

F. antihistamines are contraindicated
G. interpersonal contact will be avoided
H. permethrin cream is one of the treatment options
I. excessive hygiene is not necessary
J. diphenhydramine is administered to kill the parasites and their eggs

In scabies the diagnosis is based on:

A. exacerbation of symptoms in the morning, upon awakening
B. the presence of severe itching
C. the presence of mite burrows at the facies level
D. the presence of parasites on microscopic examination
E. the presence of mite burrows on the scalp
F. superficial scraping of the papules and microscopic examination
G. the presence of mite burrows in the interdigital spaces
H. absence of itching
I. deep skin scraping and microscopic examination
J. exacerbation of symptoms at night, "warm in bed"

The following are risk factors in the transmission of scabies, except:

A. shared use of personal hygiene items
B. numerous communities
C. proper hygiene
D. poor hygiene
E. intimate contact with other people
F. washing clothes at high temperatures
G. social distancing
H. unprotected sex
I. small, restricted communities
J. sleeping in separate rooms

The following statements about scabies are true:

A. the itching is severe, exacerbated by cold
B. it is a highly contagious infection
C. mite burrows are observed clinically
D. the lesions are located deep, at the level of the dermis
E. does not present specific clinical signs
F. the treatment consists of applying permethrin cream
G. it is frequently located in the interdigital spaces
H. it is not transmitted through close contact between people
I. is a parasitic infection caused by Sarcoptes scabiei

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 58/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

J. eggs and parasites are only identified by skin biopsy

Scabies treatment consists of:

A. treating all family members
B. washing clothes and linen in hot water
C. washing clothes and linen in cold water
D. systemic administration of ivermectin
E. topical application of diphenhydramine
F. creams with dermatocorticoids
G. taking antihistamines to reduce itching
H. administration of antihistamines, with an antiparasitic role
I. oral administration of permethrin
J. systemic antiparasitic administration

Which of the following statements about scabies is false?:

A. scabies is not a contagious condition
B. papules may appear clinically
C. the treatment consists in the systemic administration of antifungals
D. mite burrows are tunnels dug into the superficial layer of the epidermis
E. itching worsens after a hot bath
F. mite burrows are tunnels dug into the deep layer of the epidermis
G. mite burrows are tunnels dug into the dermis
H. parasites and eggs can be seen under optical microscopy
I. scabies is a skin infestation caused by Sarcoptes scabiei
J. infestation of close contacts is rare

It is true about scabies:

A. the itching is severe
B. is a skin condition
C. it is not transmitted in communities
D. the characteristic lesion is the mite groove
E. it is a parasitic infection
F. the diagnosis is made only after a skin biopsy
G. the interdigital spaces are frequently affected
H. is a systemic condition
I. it is of autoimmune cause
J. topical applications with ivermectin are of choice

The clinical and laboratory diagnosis of scabies is made by:

A. the presence of mite burrows
B. electron microscopy
C. localization of lesions predominantly at the level of the interdigital spaces of the hands and feet
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 59/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

D. skin ultrasound
E. the presence of severe itching
F. microscopic examination after superficial scraping of the epidermis
G. intense pain at the level of the lesions
H. identification of parasites by optical microscopy
I. absence of itching
J. microscopic examination after deep scraping of the skin

The following can be said about scabies:

A. the diagnosis can be established by the clinical appearance
B. topically applied ivermectin has increased effectiveness
C. the treatment consists of applying permethrin cream
D. is a systemic parasitic infection
E. drug treatment is sufficient
F. has a high risk of transmission in communities
G. represents a skin infestation with Sarcoptes scabiei
H. patients present with post-scratching excoriations
I. antihistamines are not recommended
J. sanitizing clothes and linen does not bring additional benefits

In scabies the following statements are true:

A. Pediculus scabiei is the causative agent
B. poor hygiene is not a risk factor
C. it is not a skin infection
D. Sarcoptes scabiei is a virus
E. is highly contagios
F. we encounter the mite burrow as a characteristic lesion
G. is a skin infestation caused by a mite parasite
H. severe itching can cause insomnia
I. is an infection caused by a bacteria
J. post-scratching lesions appear in the form of excoriations covered by hematic crusts

Choose the True statements about scabies:

A. symptoms are exacerbated by cold
B. patients are often recalcitrant due to pruritus
C. there is no risk of bacterial superinfection
D. papules appear in the vicinity of the mite burrows
E. mite burrows are located deeper, in the dermis
F. lesions occur predominantly in the interdigital spaces of the hands and feet
G. the tunnels dug by mites are superficial
H. prolonged scratching can lead to secondary bacterial superinfection

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 60/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

I. the itching is not severe

J. scabies is not a contagious condition

What is NOT true about scabies?:

A. the diagnosis can only be made clinically
B. symptoms worsen after hot baths
C. small groups are a risk factor in disease transmission
D. mite burrows cannot be seen with the naked eye
E. the diagnosis is based on electron microscopy
F. eggs and parasites cannot be seen under optical microscopy
G. the infection is easily transmitted in large communities
H. clinically we can observe mite burrows and papules in their vicinity
I. the material to be examined under the microscope is obtained by scraping the dermis
J. itching worsens at night, when "the bed is warm"

Choose the true statements regarding the principles of treatment in scabies:

A. antihistamines are not indicated
B. permethrin cream is the ideal treatment option
C. it is recommended to sanitize clothes in water with a temperature ≤ 40 o C
D. in refractory forms, oral ivermectin is associated
E. Sarcoptes scabiei can be killed by applying specific creams
F. relief of itching is not possible with medicinal methods
G. sometimes systemic treatment may be necessary
H. sanitizing clothes, linens and towels at high temperatures is essential
I. parasites and their eggs can only be destroyed by systemic treatment
J. oral permethrin leads to a complete cure

In the treatment of scabies, the following are True:

A. diphenhydramine is used to reduce itching
B. there is no curative treatment for scabies
C. permethrin cream is administered
D. oral ivermectin is associated in difficult-to-treat cases
E. permethrin kills the bacteria that cause scabies
F. treatment of other family members is necessary
G. antihistamines do not improve symptoms
H. the first choice is topical antibiotic preparations
I. topical acyclovir can be applied to destroy parasite eggs
J. consists in the association of topical with systemic treatment

The clinical presentation in scabies includes the following:

A. discreet itching
B. the presence of pearly papules/vesicles in the vicinity of the mite burrows
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 61/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. thick, adherent scales on the lesions

D. mite tunnels in the interdigital spaces
E. the presence of post-scratching excoriations
F. exacerbation of symptoms after hot baths
G. lesions located predominantly at the level of the cephalic extremity
H. severe itching
I. the presence of hemorrhagic bullae produced as a result of scratching
J. deep mite burrows in the subcutaneous tissue

Which of the following statements regarding the general principles of treatment in scabies are
True?:
A. limiting interpersonal contact
B. avoiding large groups
C. correct washing of clothes, towels, linen at high temperatures (≈60 o C)
D. close contact with other family members
E. participation in community activities
F. shared use of personal items
G. encouraging prolonged scratching to reduce itching
H. washing clothes and linen at low temperatures
I. sleeping in separate rooms
J. avoiding the shared use of personal items

Seborrheic dermatitis is:

A. Associated with Malassezia
B. Chronic hyperproliferation of the epidermis
C. Frequently located on palms and soles
D. Often found in the elderly
E. Most frequently located on the scalp or face
F. Associated with Staphylococcus
G. Often found in adolescents and infants
H. Hyperproliferation of the hypodermis
I. Associated with pain
J. Associated with itching

Seborrheic dermatitis presents:

A. Pain
B. Pruritus
C. Located on palms
D. Located on soles
E. Erythematous plaques
F. Erosion

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 62/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

G. Ulceration
H. Frequent recurrences
I. Yellow, greasy scales
J. Frequently located on the scalp

Treatment of seborrheic dermatitis includes:

A. Systemic antivirals
B. Systemic antibiotics
C. Topical antifungals
D. Topical antibiotics
E. Topical antivirals
F. Shampoo with ketoconazole for the scalp
G. Phototherapy
H. Emollients for newborns
I. Topical corticosteroids
J. Shampoo with selenium for the scalp

About seborrheic dermatitis it can be stated that:

A. It is frequently located on the scalp or face
B. It has pearly-white scales
C. It shows erythematous plaques, with greasy yellow scales
D. It does not present recurrent episodes
E. It has frequent recurrences
F. It is frequently located on the trunk
G. In newborns it is called "milk crust"
H. It is itchy
I. In adults it is called "milk crust"
J. It has a stinging sensation, pain

Atopic dermatitis is characterized by:

A. Location on the scalp
B. Location on the dorsal surface of the hands and feet
C. Location on mucous membranes
D. Location on flexion surfaces
E. Erythematous plaques with skin xerosis
F. Blisters, sometimes
G. Vegetations
H. Pain
I. Pruritus
J. Burn

Atopic dermatitis is:

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 63/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

A. Acute mucous eruption

B. Characterized by nodules
C. Characterized by ulcers
D. Characterized by plaques and areas of dry skin (xerosis) with papules
E. Chronic skin rash
F. Characterized by infantile forms
G. Acute inflammatory condition
H. Chronic inflammatory eruption
I. Characterized by vegetation
J. Characterized by forms that appear in adults

Atopic dermatitis presents:

A. Lesions frequently located on the scalp in newborns
B. Lesions located on mucous membranes
C. Infantile forms
D. Neurological abnormalities
E. Lesions frequently located on the face in newborns
F. Cardio-vascular abnormalities
G. Lesions located on the flexion surfaces
H. Renal abnormalities
I. Forms of the elderly
J. Forms that appear in adults

About atopic dermatitis it can be stated that:

A. Chronic otitis is a risk factor
B. Allergic rhinitis is a risk factor
C. Family history is a risk factor
D. Eczema herpeticum is a complication
E. It is a chronic inflammatory skin rash
F. Asthma is a risk factor
G. Dyslipidemia is a risk factor
H. It is an acute mucous eruption
I. Hemorrhagic rectocolitis is a risk factor
J. Neoplastic transformation is a complication

Skin lesions in atopic dermatitis:

A. They are located on the anterior and posterior thorax
B. They are accompanied by burning, pain
C. They are located on the dorsal aspect of the hands and feet
D. They are located on the flexion surfaces
E. They are fleeting, transitory

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 64/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

F. They are flat, violet papules

G. It sometimes presents nodules
H. They are located on mucous membranes
I. It sometimes presents vesicles
J. They are erythematous plaques with skin xerosis

Treatment in atopic dermatitis includes:

A. The use of systemic corticosteroids in severe cases
B. The use of systemic antifungals
C. Use of systemic antibiotics
D. Use of topical antivirals
E. Avoiding aggravating factors
F. Use of antihistamines
G. Use of topical antibiotics
H. Use of topical antifungals
I. Use of emollient creams
J. Use of topical corticosteroids

The lesions found in atopic dermatitis are:

A. Tumour
B. Papule
C. Xerosis
D. Tubercle
E. Vesicle
F. Nodule
G. Vegetation
H. Ulceration
I. Erythema
J. Scale

Atopic dermatitis in adults is characterized by:

A. Risk factors – asthma
B. Violaceous, edematous plaques
C. Association with renal manifestations
D. Erythematous, scaly plaques
E. Pruritus
F. Association with neurological manifestations
G. Risk factors - allergic rhinitis
H. Risk factors – family history
I. Lesions located on the extension surfaces
J. Association with cardiovascular manifestations

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 65/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

Characteristic for atopic dermatitis is:

A. Pruritus
B. Lesions located at the skin folds
C. Association with rheumatological diseases
D. Association with asthma
E. Family history
F. Association with allergic rhinitis
G. Association with inflammatory bowel diseases
H. Association with neurological abnormalities
I. Association with pulmonary tuberculosis
J. Lack of family history

Skin lesions in seborrheic dermatitis are:

A. Located on the scalp
B. Located on the face
C. Located on palms and soles
D. Yellow, greasy scales
E. Vegetations
F. Painful
G. Itchy
H. Located on mucous membranes
I. Nodules
J. Erythematous plaques

Infantile atopic dermatitis has the following characteristics:

A. It resolves in the first years of life
B. Associates family history
C. Lesions appear more frequently on the face
D. Is it an acute condition
E. Lesions occur more frequently on the elbows and knees, the extension areas
F. It associates asthma, allergic rhinitis as risk factors
G. The lesions appear more frequently on the mucous membranes
H. Lesions frequently appear on palms and soles
I. Lesions occur more frequently in the lumbosacral region
J. The lesions appear more frequently on the scalp

Common causes of contact dermatitis include:

A. Plants - cherry
B. Latex
C. Gold
D. Titanium

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 66/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

E. Plants – poison oak

F. Plants - wheat
G. Soaps
H. Nickel
I. Plants – oats
J. Plants – poison ivy

Skin hypersensitivity reactions are:

A. Characterized by type I hypersensitivity reaction
B. Bullous eruptions with distinct appearence
C. Irritative mucosal reaction triggered by contact with a substance
D. Allergic skin reaction triggered by the ingestion of a certain allergen
E. Skin irritant reaction triggered by skin contact with a substance
F. Erythematous eruptions with distinct appearance
G. Allergic skin reaction triggered by skin contact with an allergen
H. Characterized by type IV hypersensitivity reaction
I. Characterized by type II hypersensitivity reaction
J. Characterized by type III hypersensitivity reaction

Type I skin hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by:

A. Appears shortly after exposure
B. Appears a few days after exposure
C. Diffuse rash (hives)
D. Localized eruption
E. Severe rash
F. It lasts a few days
G. It only lasts a few hours
H. Determined by mast cell degranulation
I. Mild rash
J. Determined by the degranulation of eosinophils

Type IV cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by:

A. Morbilliform eruption
B. Determined by the activity of eosinophils
C. It appears a few days after the second exposure to the allergen
D. Measles-like rash
E. Vesicular eruption
F. Appears immediately after exposure
G. Determined by the activity of lymphocytes
H. Bullous eruption
I. Maculopapular rash

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 67/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

J. Chickenpox-like rash

Contact dermatitis is characterized by:

A. Appears on first contact with the allergen
B. Burn
C. Disseminated eruption
D. Asymptomatic
E. Pruritus
F. Identification in the anamnesis of contact with the allergen
G. It appears a few days after the second exposure to the allergen
H. Pain
I. Erythematous eruption with distinct appearance (lines, various shapes)
J. Identification of a previous similar reaction in the anamnesis

The characteristics of hypersensitivity reactions (hives) are:

A. Bullous eruption
B. Asymptomatic
C. Appearance a few days after exposure
D. Erythematous rash
E. Appearing shortly after exposure
F. Pain
G. Pruritus
H. Anamnesis for food ingestion
I. History of drug use
J. Burn

The characteristics of hypersensitivity rashes are:

A. Imprecisely delimited, diffuse distribution - external cause
B. Well-defined form – external cause
C. Pruritus
D. Duration of several hours (hives)
E. Burn
F. Imprecisely delimited, diffuse distribution - internal cause
G. The well-defined form – the internal cause
H. Asymptomatic
I. Linear appearance of the eruption - external cause
J. Pain

Treatment of hypersensitivity reactions includes:

A. Topical antibiotics
B. Systemic antibiotics
C. Systemic antimycotics
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 68/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

D. Topical corticosteroids
E. Topical antifungals
F. Removal of the triggering agent
G. Topical antivirals
H. Stopping contact with the allergen
I. Antihistamines
J. Systemic corticosteroids in severe cases

Treatment of allergic contact dermatitis includes:

A. Topical corticosteroids
B. Epinephrine
C. Identification of the triggering agent
D. Oral corticosteroids in more severe cases
E. Phototherapy
F. Stopping contact with the allergen
G. Antivirals
H. Antibiotics
I. Antifungals
J. Antihistamines

The evolution phases of eczema are:

A. Vesiculation
B. Papular
C. Crusting
D. Exudative
E. Desquamation
F. Ulcerated
G. Lichenification
H. Erythematous
I. Vegetation
J. Tumoral

Allergic contact dermatitis is characterized by:

A. Interstitial vesicles
B. Onset at the first contact with the substance
C. Lesions that exceed the area of contact with the allergen
D. Extremely well-defined erythematous plaques
E. Burning, pain
F. Erythematous plaques, imprecisely delimited
G. The onset after the second exposure to the allergen
H. Deep bullae under tension

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 69/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

I. Injuries located strictly on the area of contact with the substance

J. Pruritus

Acute irritant contact dermatitis is characterized by:

A. Onset at the first contact with the substance
B. Pruritus
C. Burning, pain
D. The onset after the second exposure to the allergen
E. Lesions that exceed the area of contact with the allergen
F. Injuries located strictly on the area of contact with the substance
G. Deep bullae, under tension
H. Interstitial vesicles
I. Erythematous plaques, imprecisely delimited
J. Extremely well-defined erythematous plaques

Diagnostic criteria in atopic dermatitis include:

A. Imprecisely defined erythematous lesions
B. Location on palms and soles
C. Association with allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, asthma
D. Asymptomatic lesions
E. Family history
F. Erythematous “target-like” lesions
G. Location at the folds, symmetrically and bilaterally, on the extension areas
H. Absence of family history
I. Location at the folds, symmetrically and bilaterally, on the flexion areas
J. Chronic evolution, with repeated bouts of exacerbation

In the etiology of allergic contact dermatitis, the following are frequently involved:
A. Parfumes
B. Plants
C. Strong acids
D. Topical NSAIDs
E. Heavy metals
F. Topical antibiotics
G. Nickel
H. Topical corticosteroids
I. Gold
J. Strong bases

Eczema classification includes:

A. Polymorphic erythema
B. Acromial pityriasis
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 70/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. Allergic contact dermatitis

D. Pityriasis rosea
E. Parasitic eczema
F. Atopic dermatitis
G. Drug rash
H. Microbial eczema
I. Mycotic eczema
J. Neurodermitis

Erythema multiforme is:

A. Caused by vaccination
B. Contact reaction
C. Caused by food
D. Irritant type reaction
E. Severe reaction
F. Caused by infections
G. Severe hypersensitivity reaction
H. Caused by the cold
I. Caused by medication
J. Caused by aeroallergens

Erythema multiforme is characterized by:

A. Necrotic crusts
B. Vesicles
C. Onset with altered general condition, myalgias
D. Macules (small non-palpable lesions)
E. Ulceration
F. Vegetations
G. Pruritus
H. Nodules
I. Locoregional adenopathy
J. Patches (large non-palpable lesions)

The following can be said about erythema multiforme:

A. It caused by medication
B. It is an autoimmune disease
C. It presents with “target-like” lesions
D. It is a more severe hypersensitivity skin reaction
E. It presents with nodular lesions
F. The onset is with an altered general condition, myalgias
G. It is itchy

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 71/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

H. It has a burning sensation, pain

I. It is a fungal skin infection
J. It is a streptococcal skin infection

Erythema multiforme is clinically characterized by:

A. Vegetations
B. Location on the thighs
C. Nodules
D. Location on the extremities (especially palmo-plantar)
E. Macules (small non-palpable lesions)
F. Location on the trunk
G. Patches (large non-palpable lesions)
H. “Target-like” lesions
I. Linear lesions
J. Vesicles

Among the diagnostic criteria of erythema multiforme are:

A. Distribution on the extremities (especially palmo-plantar)
B. Target lesions
C. Skin biopsy showing amyloid deposits
D. Pain, burning
E. Thrombocytopenia
F. Distribution on the trunk and root of the limbs
G. Linear lesions
H. Skin biopsy showing an increased number of lymphocytes and necrotic keratinocytes
I. Eosinophilia
J. Pruritus

Stevens-Johnson syndrome:
A. It affects the mucous membranes
B. There is no skin fragility and skin detachment
C. It does not affect the mucous membranes
D. The peeling of the skin can be quite extensive
E. There is no risk of dehydration
F. It is a light form of polymorphic erhythma
G. It presents an increased risk of dehydration
H. The lesions are limited to the palms and soles
I. It is a severe form of erythema multiforme
J. Patches appear that affect < 10% of the skin surface (BSA)

Clinical manifestations of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome include:

A. Monomorphic eruption
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 72/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

B. Absence of general clinical manifestations

C. Purpuric lesions
D. Nodular lesions
E. Polymorphic rash
F. Ulcerated lesions
G. The peeling of the skin can be quite extensive
H. Positive Nikolsky sign
I. Prodrome: altered general condition, muscle pain, fever
J. Macules, target lesions, erythema, blisters, exfoliation of the skin

The following statements about Stevens-Johnson Syndrome are correct:

A. It affects the mucous membranes
B. It does not require special care
C. It is a light form of erythema multiforme
D. The Nikolsky sign is negative
E. The disease is frequently treated in burn units
F. Nikolsky's sign is positive
G. It is a severe form of erythema multiforme
H. Treatment involves the administration of systemic antibiotics
I. It does not affect the mucous membranes
J. Treatment involves stopping the trigger, IV fluids

Clinical diagnostic criteria for Stevens-Johnson Syndrome include:

A. Only skin abnormalities
B. Polymorphic eruption
C. Palmo-plantar localised eruption
D. Positive Nikolsky sign
E. Patches affecting < 10% of the skin surface (BSA)
F. Normal general condition, no changes
G. Prodrome: altered general condition, muscle pain, fever
H. Absence of the Nikolsky sign
I. Monomorphic, papular eruption
J. Affecting the mucous membranes

Medication that are frequently associated with erythema multiforme are:

A. Antiepileptics
B. Proton pump inhibitors
C. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D. Antiemetics
E. Sulfonamides
F. Penicillins

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 73/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

G. Antifungals
H. Oral contraceptives
I. Corticosteroids
J. Antivirals

Among the etiological agents of erythema multiforme are:

A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Pediculus corporis
C. HPV
D. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
E. Sarcoptes Scabiae
F. Dermatophytes
G. Antiepileptics
H. Treponema pallidum
I. HSV
J. Antibiotics (penicillins, sulfonamides)

Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is characterized by:

A. Generalized erythematous rash
B. The most severe form of hypersensitivity reaction
C. Affecting more than 30% of the body surface area (BSA)
D. Necrosis of the entire thickness of the epidermis
E. Plaques affecting < 10% of the skin surface (BSA)
F. Absence of skin detachment
G. The skin biopsy shows an increased number of necrotic lymphocytes and keratinocytes
H. Mild form of skin hypersensitivity
I. Palmo-plantar erythematous rash
J. Extensive peeling of the skin

Toxic epidermal necrolysis presents:

A. Decreased hematocrit
B. Increase in hemoglobin
C. Decreased alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
D. Decrease in the number of leukocytes
E. Increase in the number of leukocytes
F. Increased aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
G. Increased alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
H. Decreased aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
I. Decreased hemoglobin
J. Hematocrit increase

The treatment of toxic epidermal necrolysis involves:

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 74/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

A. Antifungals
B. Pain-killers
C. Systemic antibiotics
D. IV immunoglobulins
E. Treatment in burn wards
F. Chemotherapy
G. Systemic antithermics
H. Stopping the causative agent
I. Hydration IV
J. Aciclovir can be useful in cases caused by HSV

Clinical manifestations of skin hypersensitivity reactions include:

A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B. Contact dermatitis
C. Psoriasis
D. Lichen planus
E. Erysipelas
F. Erythema multiforme
G. Tinea corporis
H. Hives
I. Cellulitis
J. Toxic epidermal necrolysis

Treatment of erythema multiforme includes:

A. Topical corticosteroids
B. Antibiotics
C. Antifungals
D. Stopping the causative agent
E. Antiparasitics
F. Analgesics
G. The disease can be self-limiting
H. Systemic corticosteroids
I. Antivirals
J. Phototherapy

Urticaria is characterized by:

A. Papules and erythematous plaques
B. Vesicles
C. Pain
D. Dermographism
E. Transient lesions

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 75/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

F. Burn
G. Nodules
H. Fugitive lesions
I. Bullae
J. Pruritus

Etiological factors frequently encountered in urticaria are:

A. Systemic antibiotics
B. Disinfectants
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Topical corticosteroids
E. Phototherapy
F. Antiepileptics
G. Pain-killers
H. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
I. Antiseptics
J. Systemic corticosteroids

Treatment for urticaria and angioedema includes:

A. Epinephrine in severe cases
B. Antihistamines
C. Antifungals
D. Stopping the causative agent
E. Systemic corticosteroids
F. Non-specific desensitizers
G. Antivirals
H. Antiparasitic
I. Antimycotics
J. Systemic antibiotics

Angioedema is characterized by:

A. Pale / normal colored
B. Scales
C. Nodules
D. Imprecisely defined lesions
E. Insidious onset
F. Crusts
G. Edema
H. Sudden onset
I. Pruritus
J. Sensation of tension / pain

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 76/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

Anaphylaxis is characterized by:

A. Pain
B. Bullae
C. Angioedema and urticarial lesions
D. Pruritus
E. Positive Nikolsky sign
F. Vesicles
G. Fissures
H. Diffuse erythema
I. Hypotension
J. Respiratory failure

The differential diagnosis in urticaria includes:

A. Erythema multiforme
B. Psoriasis
C. Exanthema
D. Mastocytosis (urticaria pigmentosa)
E. Cellulitis
F. Erysipelas
G. Herpes simplex
H. Herpes zoster
I. Insect sting
J. Urticarial lesions - bullous pemphigoid

The differential diagnosis of angioedema includes:

A. Lupus erythematosus
B. Tinea facies
C. Cellulitis
D. Lymphangitis
E. Herpes simplex
F. Psoriasis
G. Contact dermatitis
H. Edema of other etiologies
I. Shingles
J. Erysipelas

Paraclinical investigations used in the diagnosis of hypersensitivity reactions include:

A. IgE
B. X-ray
C. Epicutaneous tests
D. Skin biopsy

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 77/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

E. MRI
F. Serum complement
G. CT
H. CBC
I. AngioCT
J. PET CT

Prurigos are characterized by:

A. Burn
B. Papules or papulo-vesicles
C. Acute or chronic evolution
D. Nodyules
E. Hypersensitivity reaction
F. Erythemato-scaly patches
G. Treatment with antihistamines, corticosteroids
H. Imprecisely delimited edema
I. Pain
J. Pruritus

The following statements about psoriasis are true :

A. Psoriasis is an inflammatory skin disease
B. Psoriasis has a self-limiting evolution
C. Psoriasis is characterized by well-defined erythematous plaques
D. Psoriasis is characterized by ill-defined erythematous plaques
E. Psoriasis is characterized by hypodermal hyperproliferation
F. Psoriasis has a chronic course
G. Psoriasis can cause psoriatic arthritis
H. Psoriasis cannot cause psoriatic arthritis
I. Psoriasis is an infectious skin disease
J. Psoriasis is characterized by epidermal hyperproliferation

During the clinical examination, psoriasis is characterized by :

A. Slight bleeding occurs when the scale is removed
B. Skin lesions are sometimes itchy
C. Slight bleeding occurs when the crust is removed
D. Skin lesions show silver scales
E. Well-demarcated erythematous plaques
F. It is characterized by ill-defined erythematous plaques
G. From the point of view of localization, the skin lesions are located on the extensor areas
H. Skin lesions are always asymptomatic
I. Skin lesions show greasy yellowish scales

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 78/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

J. From the point of view of localization, the skin lesions are located on the flexor areas

Regarding the laboratory examination of psoriasis, the following statements are correct :
A. Biopsy of skin lesions shows absence of basal layer
B. Biopsy of skin lesions shows epidermal thickening
C. Skin biopsy shows thickening of the hypodermis
D. Laboratory tests are not necessary for diagnosis
E. Biopsy of skin lesions shows thinning of the epidermis
F. Biopsy of skin lesions shows hyperplasia of the granular layer
G. Skin lesions can be biopsied
H. Biopsy of skin lesions shows absence of granular layer
I. Biopsy of skin lesions shows the presence of nucleated cells in the stratum corneum
J. Biopsy of skin lesions shows absence of nucleated cells in the stratum corneum

The following treatment methods are used in the treatment of vulgar psoriasis:
A. Ciclosporin in mild forms of disease
B. Phototherapy
C. Topical antibiotics as first-line therapy
D. Methotrexate in severe forms of disease
E. Systemic antibiotics as first-line therapy
F. Methotrexate in mild forms of disease
G. Emollients
H. Cyclosporine in severe forms of disease
I. Systemic corticosteroids
J. Topical corticosteroids

Psoriasis can be characterized by :

A. Possible small pustules
B. Lack of nail pitting
C. Erythematous plaques with silvery scales sometimes with itching
D. Erythematous plaques with silver scales located on flexural areas
E. Psoriatic arthritis in 80-100% of cases
F. Absence of the Auspitz sign
G. Nail pitting
H. Possible small vesicles
I. Psoriatic arthritis in 10-20% of cases
J. Detachment of the nail plate from the nail bed

The following statements about psoriasis are false :

A. Skin lesions are sometimes itchy
B. Erythematous plaques have silvery scales
C. Auspitz's sign shows that the skin lesions bleed easily when the scale is removed
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 79/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

D. Erythematous plaques are poorly demarcated

E. The erythematous plaques are well demarcated
F. Erythematous plaques have silvery crusts
G. Nail pitting is the presence of punctate depressions of the nail plate
H. Auspitz's sign shows that the skin lesions do not bleed easily when the scale is removed
I. Skin lesions are always itchy
J. Nail pitting is the absence of punctate depressions of the nail plate

About psoriasis it is true, except:

A. It is an infectious skin disease
B. 10-20% of patients with psoriasis do not have psoriatic arthritis
C. 10-20% of patients with psoriasis have psoriatic arthritis
D. It is an inflammatory skin disease
E. It is characterized by epidermal atrophy
F. It is characterized by epidermal hyperproliferation
G. Skin lesions do not affect the extensor surfaces
H. Auspitz's sign is negative
I. Skin lesions are located on the extensor surfaces
J. Auspitz's sign is positive

Which of the following statements does not describe psoriasis?:

A. Psoriasis is an inflammatory skin disease
B. Skin biopsy shows thinning of the epidermis
C. Skin biopsy shows epidermal thickening
D. Skin biopsy shows absence of nucleated cells in the stratum corneum
E. Psoriasis is characterized by epidermal proliferation
F. Skin biopsy reveals absence of stratum granulosum
G. Skin biopsy shows the presence of nucleated cells in the stratum corneum
H. Psoriasis is characterized by epidermal atrophy
I. Skin biopsy shows thinning of the hypodermis
J. Skin biopsy reveals the presence of the stratum granulosum

Choose the true information about psoriasis vulgaris :

A. Treatment includes drying agents
B. Treatment does not exclude ciclosporin in severe forms
C. Treatment excludes topical corticosteroids
D. Treatment includes methotrexate in severe forms
E. Treatment excludes emollient agents
F. Treatment includes phototherapy
G. Treatment includes emollients
H. Treatment includes topical corticosteroids

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 80/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

I. Treatment includes systemic corticosteroids

J. Treatment excludes phototherapy
About psoriasis we can say that:
A. Skin lesions with erythematous plaques are poorly demarcated
B. Psoriatic arthritis is possible
C. Nail pitting consists of the presence of punctate depressions at the level of the nail plates
D. Auspitz's sign represents the appearance of bleeding when the scale is removed
E. Skin lesions with erythematous plaques are well demarcated
F. It cannot be accompanied by psoriatic arthritis
G. Auspitz's sign represents the absence of bleeding on removal of the scale
H. Erythematous plaques have silvery scales on the surface
I. Erythematous plaques do not have silver scales on the surface
J. Nail pitting is the separation of the nail plate from the nail bed

The following elementary dermatological lesions are found in psoriasis :

A. Possible small blisters
B. Well-demarcated erythematous plaques
C. Erythematous plaques with silvery crusts
D. Nail pitting (punctate depressions of the nail plate)
E. Erythematous plaques covered with silver scales
F. Possible small vegetation
G. Detachment of the nail plate from the nail bed
H. Erythematous plaques covered with yellow crusts
I. Possible small pustules
J. Poorly-demarcated erythematous plaques

The following statements are true :

A. Pityriasis rosea has a possible viral association
B. Psoriasis is characterized by epidermal hyperproliferation
C. Psoriasis is an infectious skin disease
D. Psoriasis is characterized by hypodermal hyperproliferation
E. Pityriasis rosea is a chronic disease
F. 10-20% of patients with psoriasis have psoriatic arthritis
G. Pityriasis rosea occurs in the elderly
H. Psoriasis has a self-limiting evolution
I. Pityriasis rosea is an inflammatory skin disease
J. Psoriasis is an inflammatory skin disease

The following statements are false:

A. Treatment in psoriasis vulgaris includes systemic corticosteroids
B. Methotrexate is administered in severe forms of psoriasis

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 81/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

C. Treatment in pityriasis rosea is based on systemic antibiotics

D. Topical corticosteroids are not recommended in pityriasis rosea
E. Antihistamines are used in the treatment of pityriasis rosea
F. Topical corticosteroids are recommended in psoriasis
G. Treatment in psoriasis excludes topical corticosteroids
H. Topical corticosteroids are recommended in pityriasis rosea
I. Treatment in severe forms of psoriasis includes ciclosporin
J. Treatment in psoriasis excludes emollients

The Auspitz sign has the following characteristics:

A. It is present in pityriasis rosea
B. Auspitz's sign represents the appearance of bleeding when the crust is removed
C. Auspitz's sign appears at the level of erythematous plaques covered with silvery scales
D. It is present in psoriasis
E. It is negative in psoriasis
F. It is negative in pityriasis rosea
G. The sign of Auspitz represents the appearance of the heraldic plaque in pityriasis rosea
H. The Auspitz sign is accompanied by the characteristic Christmas tree-shaped distribution of lesions
I. The sign of Auspitz does not represent the heraldic plaque appearance in pityriasis rosea
J. Auspitz's sign represents the appearance of bleeding when the scale is removed

The following are true about the Auspitz sign, except:

A. It is present in psoriasis
B. It is negative in pityriasis rosea
C. It is negative in psoriasis
D. The sign of Auspitz does not represent the disappearance of the heraldic plaque in pityriasis rosea
E. Auspitz's sign appears at the level of erythematous plaques covered with silvery scales
F. Auspitz's sign represents the appearance of bleeding when the crust is removed
G. Auspitz's sign represents the appearance of bleeding when the scale is removed
H. It is present in pityriasis rosea
I. The Auspitz sign is accompanied by the characteristic Christmas tree-shaped distribution of lesions
J. The sign of Auspitz represents the disappearance of the heraldic plaque in pityriasis rosea

During the clinical examination of pityriasis rosea we meet:

A. Pruritus
B. White scales
C. Oval erythematous papules
D. Oval erythematous tumors
E. Eruption beginning with a heraldic plaque
F. Eruption which finishes with a heraldic plaque
G. Local pain

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 82/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

H. Oval brown papules

I. Yellowish scales
J. The distribution of lesions is characteristically Christmas tree-shaped

Which of the following statements describe pityriasis rosea?:

A. It rules out a possible viral association
B. Shows a possible viral association
C. Skin lesions are located on the trunk and extremities
D. It occurs in the elderly
E. It is characterized by vesicular lesions
F. It is characterized by papular lesions
G. Skin lesions are localized strictly on mucous membranes
H. It occurs in young adults and children
I. It is an autoimmune skin disease
J. It is an inflammatory skin disease

Which of the following characterizes pityriasis rosea?:

A. The disease has a chronic evolution
B. Treatment does not include systemic antibiotics
C. Patients complain of itching at the level of skin lesions
D. Treatment is based on systemic antibiotics
E. Treatment includes antihistamines
F. The disease is self-limiting
G. Treatment excludes antihistamines
H. Topical steroids are not recommended
I. Patients complain of pain of increased intensity at the level of skin lesions
J. Topical steroids are recommended

Choose the false statements about pityriasis rosea:

A. The heraldic plaque consists of a single lesion, up to 5 cm in diameter
B. The lesions are located mainly on the mucous membranes
C. The generalized rash is represented by multiple blisters covered with yellow crusts
D. The eruption begins with the appearance of the heraldic plaque
E. Lesions are mainly located on the chest and extremities
F. The heraldic plaque consists of multiple lesions, greater than 5 cm in diameter
G. The heraldic plaque appears a few months after the generalized eruption
H. The generalized rash is represented by multiple erythematous papules covered with white scales
I. The heraldic plaque appears a few days before the generalized eruption
J. The eruption ends with the appearance of the heraldic plaque

About pityriasis rosea it is false that:

A. The disease occurs in children and young adults
https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 83/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

B. The scaly papules are arranged with the long axis parallel to the rib line
C. The skin lesions are arranged on the anterior and posterior thorax, producing the overall Christmas
tree appearance
D. The papules are erythematous
E. Squamous papule lesions cause itching
F. The disease does not occur in children and young adults
G. The scaly papules are arranged with the long axis perpendicular to the line of the ribs
H. Blistering lesions cause itching
I. The papules are brownish
J. Skin lesions do not affect the anterior and posterior thorax

Choose the true statements:

A. In pityriasis rosea, blister-like lesions cause itching
B. Pityriasis rosea is an inflammatory skin disease
C. The herald plaque in pityriasis rosea appears a few days after the generalized rash
D. Skin lesions in pityriasis rosea do not affect the anterior and posterior thorax
E. In pityriasis rosea the generalized rash is formed by multiple erythematous papules covered with
white scales
F. In pityriasis rosea, the scaly papules are arranged with their long axis parallel to the rib line
G. Topical corticosteroids are not recommended for the treatment of pityriasis rosea
H. Pityriasis rosea begins with heraldic plaque which consists of a single lesion up to 5 cm in diameter
I. In pityriasis rosea the lesions are mainly located on the chest and extremities
J. In pityriasis rosea, patients complain of pain of increased intensity at the level of skin lesions

The following statements about pityriasis rosea are false:

A. The disease has a chronic evolution
B. The distribution of lesions in the Christmas tree is characteristic
C. Papular lesions are covered with white scale
D. Skin lesions are located on the trunk and extremities
E. Antihistamines and topical corticosteroids can be used as treatment
F. A few hours before the onset of the generalized eruption, the heraldic plaque appears
G. Antibiotics and systemic corticosteroids can be used as treatment
H. Shows a possible viral association
I. The distribution of lesions in the Christmas tree is uncharacteristic
J. It represents a severe inflammatory disease

We can say about inflammatory skin conditions:

A. From the point of view of localization, skin lesions from psoriasis are arranged on the flexor areas
B. In pityriasis rosea the generalized rash is formed by multiple blisters covered with yellow crusts
C. Auspitz's sign in psoriasis is the appearance of bleeding when the scale is removed
D. Pityriasis rosea has a possible viral association

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 84/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

E. In pityriasis rosea the skin lesions do not affect the anterior and posterior thorax
F. In psoriasis, biopsy of skin lesions indicates the absence of the basal layer
G. In pityriasis rosea, the scaly papules are arranged with their long axis parallel to the rib line
H. Pityriasis rosea begins with heraldic plaque which consists of a single lesion up to 5 cm in diameter
I. From the point of view of localization, skin lesions from psoriasis are arranged on the extensor areas
J. In psoriasis, biopsy of skin lesions indicates the absence of nucleated cells in the stratum corneum

Choose the false statements:

A. From the point of view of localization, skin lesions from psoriasis are arranged on the extension
surfaces
B. Psoriasis can cause psoriatic arthritis
C. In pityriasis rosea the generalized rash is formed by multiple blisters covered with yellow crusts
D. Pityriasis rosea does not have a possible viral association
E. Psoriasis cannot cause psoriatic arthritis
F. Psoriasis does not have a chronic but self-limiting evolution
G. Pityriasis rosea is a mild inflammatory disease
H. In pityriasis rosea the skin lesions do not affect the anterior and posterior thorax
I. Psoriasis can be characterized by possible small pustules
J. Psoriasis is an inflammatory skin disease

The following statements related to histopathological changes are found in psoriasis:

A. Absence of the granular layer
B. Laboratory results are not necessary for diagnosis
C. Epidermal hyperproliferation
D. Thickening of the epidermis
E. Absence of nucleated cells in the stratum corneum
F. Hyperplasia of the granulosa layer
G. Thinning of the epidermis
H. Absence of the basal layer
I. The presence of nucleated cells in the stratum corneum
J. Thickening of the hypodermis

Which of the following statements characterizes lichen planus?:

A. Hypertrophic and mucous clinical forms are less persistent
B. Severe forms of erosive lichen may not affect the vulva and vagina in women
C. Skin and mucosal lesions usually do not respond to potent and superpotent corticosteroids
D. It usually heals in 1-2 years but can recur
E. May cause cutaneous and mucosal lesions
F. It presents strictly cutaneous damage
G. It is a chronic infectious skin-mucosal dermatosis
H. It is a chronic inflammatory dermatosis

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 85/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

I. Clinically on the skin, it manifests as pinkish-violet polygonal papules, intensely itchy, with whitish
streaks on the surface
J. Potential triggers include hepatitis B virus and hepatitis C virus

The following statements about granuloma annulare are true:

A. Treatment consists of intralesional antibiotics
B. Evolution is self-limiting
C. It represents a dermatosis with annular lesions with a pale center consisting of pink vegetations
D. Skin lesions are typically located on the dorsal surface of the hands and feet
E. The development is chronic and does not heal after several years
F. It usually affects the elderly
G. It usually affects children and young adults
H. The etiology is not known
I. It represents a dermatosis with annular lesions with a pale center consisting of pink papules
J. It represents a vesiculo-bullous dermatosis

Choose the true statements about lichen sclerosus:

A. The lesions are not usually located on the vulvar area or on the glans, foreskin or penis.
B. The lesions are free of itching or pain
C. It is an inflammatory dermatosis of the genital area
D. Short courses of potent and superpotent topical corticosteroids do not improve signs and
symptoms
E. Clinically, it is characterized by bright white plaques with fisures on the surface
F. The lesions are intensely itchy or painful
G. Males can develop lichen sclerosus only at puberty
H. Diagnosis is usually clinical
I. Histological examination shows hypertrophic epidermis and thinned collagen in the dermis
J. In women, it usually starts before puberty or after menopause

Polymorphic light eruption is characterized by:

A. Skin lesions appear on areas exposed to the sun, especially on the neck, shoulders and arms
B. Patients with severe forms can be desensitized by short courses of UVB phototherapy
C. Erythematous papules, vesicles, or erythematous plaques typically appear several months after sun
exposure
D. Skin lesions occur in covered areas on the trunk and folds
E. Erythematous papules, vesicles, or erythematous plaques typically appear a few hours after sun
exposure
F. Onset triggered by intense sun exposure
G. Lesion remission is triggered by intense sun exposure
H. Short courses of prednisolone are not recommended for prophylaxis and treatment
I. It is rarely seen in young women

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 86/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

I. Clinically on the skin, it manifests as pinkish-violet polygonal papules, intensely itchy, with whitish
streaks on the surface
J. Potential triggers include hepatitis B virus and hepatitis C virus

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 87/85
1/4/23, 3:19 PM UmApi

J. Short courses of prednisolone may be given for prophylaxis and treatment

https://examen.umfiasi.ro/questionPreview 88/85