1. A nurse is preparing to perform a Mantoux skin test. Which interventions apply in relation to this test?

t? Select all that apply.

A. Explain the procedure to the client.
B. Obtain a 3-mL syringe with a ½-inch needle for the injection.
C. Mark the test area to locate it for reading 48 to 72 hours after injection.
D. Bunch up the skin and insert the needle with the needle bevel facing downward.
E. Ask the client about a previous history of a positive purified protein derivative
(PPD) reaction.
F. Cleanse the injection site on the lower dorsal surface of the forearm with alcohol and allow it to dry.

2. A client with neutropenia has an absolute neutrophil count of 900. What is the client’s risk of infection?
A. Normal risk.
B. Moderate risk.
C. High risk.
D. Extremely high risk.

3. A client with toxic shock has been receiving ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin), 1 g every 12 hours. In addition to culture and
sensitivity studies, which other laboratory fi ndings does the nurse monitor?
A. Serum creatinine.
B. Spinal fluid analysis.
C. Arterial blood gases.
D. Serum osmolality.

4. Which of the following examples relate to medical asepsis to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms? Select all
that apply.
A. Practicing hand hygiene
B. Reapplying a sterile dressing
C. Sterilizing contaminated items
D. Applying a sterile gown and gloves
E. Routinely cleaning the hospital environment
F. Wearing clean gloves to prevent direct contact with blood or body fluids

5. A client has been admitted with draining foot lesions. The nurse should do which of the following?
Select all that apply.
A. Place the client in a room with negative air pressure.
B. Admit the client to a semi-private room.
C. Admit the client to a private room.
D. Post a “contact isolation” sign on the door.
E. Wear a protective gown when in the client’s room.
F. Wear latex-free gloves when providing direct care.

6. A 4-month-old child is brought to the clinic forthe next set of immunizations. Which of thefollowing would contraindicate
receiving immunizations at this time?
A. Delayed development.
B. Weight loss.
C. Anorexia.
D. Active infection.

7. The client is given the hepatitis B immune globulin serum, which will provide passive immunity. What is an advantage of
passive immunity?
A. It has effects that last a long time.
B. It is highly effective in treatment of disease.
C. It offers immediate protection.
D. It encourages the body to produce antibodies.

8. What common adverse effects will the nurse tell the client may be experienced after being given hepatitis B immune
globulin?
A. Tachycardia and chest tightness.
B. Heartburn and diarrhea.
C. Dyspnea and upper respiratory infection.
D. Pain and tenderness at the injection site.

9. Which of the following is normal for a clientduring the icteric phase of viral hepatitis?
A. Tarry stools.
B. Yellowed sclera.
C. Shortness of breath.
D. Light, frothy urine.
10. What is most important for the nurse to teach a client newly diagnosed with genital herpes?
A. Use condoms at all times during sexual intercourse.
B. A urologist should be seen only when lesions occur.
C. Oral sex is permissible without a barrier.
D. Determine if your partner has received a vaccine against herpes.

11. A nurse is planning care for a 25-year-old female client who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV) infection. The client asks the nurse, “How could this have happened?” The nurse responds to the question based on
the most frequent mode of HIV transmission, which is:
A. Hugging an HIV-positive sexual partner without using barrier precautions.
B. Inhaling cocaine.
C. Sharing food utensils with an HIV-positive person without proper cleaning of the utensils.
D. Having sexual intercourse with an HIV-positive person without using a condom.

12. The typical chancre of syphilis appears as:

A. A grouping of small, tender pimples.
B. An elevated wart.
C. A painless, moist ulcer.
D. An itching, crusted area.

13. The nurse is interviewing a client with newly diagnosed syphilis. In order to prevent the spread of the disease, the nurse
should focus the interview by:
A. Motivating the client to undergo treatment.
B. Obtaining a list of the client’s sexual contacts.
C. Increasing the client’s knowledge of the disease.
D. Reassuring the client that records are confidential.

14. When educating a female client with gonorrhea, the nurse should emphasize that for women gonorrhea:
A. Is often marked by symptoms of dysuria or vaginal bleeding.
B. Does not lead to serious complications.
C. Can be treated but not cured.
D. May not cause symptoms until serious complications occur.

15. The parents of an 18-year-old preparing to enter college ask if their daughter should have the meningococcal (MCV4)
vaccine. The nurse should tell the parents:
A. “It is only necessary to have the vaccine if your daughter will be living in a dormitory.”
B. “Yes, we recommend the vaccine, but it needs to be given as a series of three injections.”
C. “Let’s review your records. The vaccine may have already been given a few years ago.”
D. “We highly recommend this vaccine, but we will need to do a pregnancy screening first.”

16. During the acute stage of meningitis, a 3-year-old child is restless and irritable. Which of the following would be most
appropriate to institute?
A. Limiting conversation with the child.
B. Keeping extraneous noise to a minimum.
C. Allowing the child to play in the bathtub.
D. Performing treatments quickly.

17. Which sign should lead the nurse to suspect that a child with meningitis has developed disseminated intravascular
coagulation?
A. Hemorrhagic skin rash.
B. Edema.
C. Cyanosis.
D. Dyspnea on exertion.

18. The nurse should dispose of a used needle and syringe by:
A. Cutting the needle at the hilt in a needle cutter before disposing of it in the universal precaution container in the client’s
room.
B. Placing uncapped, used needles and syringes immediately in the universal precaution container in the client’s room.
C. Recapping the needle and placing the needle and syringe in the universal precaution container in the client’s room.
D. Separating the needle and syringe and placing both in the universal precaution container in the client’s room.
19. Another client in the Maternal Clinic was Ms.Celbong. Her doctor
examined Ms.Celbong’s vaginal secretions and found out that she has a
Trichomoniasis infection. Trichomoniasis is diagnosed through which of
the following method?
A. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide that has been
treated with potassium hydroxide.
B. Vaginal speculum is used to obtain secretions from the cervix.
C. A lithmus paper is used to test if the vaginal secretions are
infected with trichomoniasis.
D. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide treated with
zephiran solution.

20. Daphne who is on her first trimester of pregnancy is also infected

with trichomoniasis. You know that the drug of choice for Daphne is:
A. Flagyl C. Monistat
B. Clotrimazole (topical) D. Zovirax

21. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may be experienced by the client with

syphilis after therapy with benzathine penicillin G. The
characteristic manifestations of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction are:
A. Rashes, itchiness, hives and pruritus
B. Confusion, drowsiness and numbness of extremities
C. sudden episode of hypotension, fever, tachycardia, and muscle aches
D. Episodes of nausea and vomiting, with bradypnea and bradycardia

22. A pregnant woman is in the clinic for consultation with regards to

STD’s. She inquires about Venereal warts and asks you about its
specific lesion appearance. Which of the following is your correct
response to the client?
A. Why are you asking about it? You might be a prostitute woman.
B. The lesions appear as cauliflower like lesions.
C. It appears as pinpoint vesicles surrounded by erythema.
D. The lesions can possibly obstruct the birth canal.

23. Based on your past learnings in communicable diseases, you know

that the causative agent of venereal warts is:
A. Chlamydia Trachomatis
B. Candida Moniliasis
C. Human Papilloma Virus
D. Staphylococcus Aureus

24. As a nurse in charge for this woman, you anticipate that the
doctor will prescribe what medication for this type of infection?
A. Podophyllum (Podofin) C. Monistat
B. Flagyl D. Trichloroacetic acid

25. In order to prevent acquiring sexually transmitted diseases, what

is the BEST way to consider?
A. Condom use C. vasectomy
B. Withdrawal D. Abstinence

26. The most common cause of diarrhea globally is:

a. E. coli
b. Compylobacter
c. Rotavirus
d. V. cholera

27. The animal linked to Ebola virus is the:

a. Bat
b. Rabbit
c. Ferret
d. Guinea pig

28. A category A emerging infectious disease must:

a. Be easily disseminated
b. Potentially cause public panic and social disruption
c. Result in moderate morbidity and low mortality
d. a. and b

29. Which of the following diseases can be categorized as Category B

emerging infectious disease?
Anthrax
Botulism
Cholera
Ebola

30. Which of the following is not a preventive measures are WHO

recommendations to prevent spread of Ebola?
A. Do no touch or eat raw meat from bats and non human primates.
B. Supportive care of the members of the family during Ebola symptoms
can hasten recovery.
C. Do not touch the body of a person who has died from Ebola.
D. Avoid going to Epidemic Areas like Sierra Leone and Liberia.

31. A client from Saudi Arabia arrived in the Philippines complained

of not feeling well and feverish. She was rushed to the nearest
hospital and was suspected to have contracted MERS-CoV. What is the
causative agent of MERS-Cov?
A. Alpha – Corona virus
B. Beta – Corona virus
C. H5N1
D. KHU5 virus

32. The client’s symptoms progresses producing other signs and

symptoms, The nurse knows that SARS and MERS share a lot of common
symptoms EXCEPT:
A. Flu like symptoms
B. Diarrhea
C. Renal Complications
D. Pneumonia like symptoms.
33. Which of the following would the nurse include in the plan of care for a child with a fracture in skeletal traction to prevent
osteomyelitis?
a. Encouraging the child to eat nutritious foods.
b. Administering prophylactic antibiotics as ordered.
c. Maintaining the child in reverse isolation.
d. Protecting the child from visitors with colds.

34. Which of the following would the nurse expect to include in a community health program designed to control sexually
transmitted diseases (STDs)?
a. Mass screening of all individuals.
b. Location of the possible sources of infection.
c. Treatment of those with the disease.
d. Isolation of those suspected of having STDs.

35. The nurse understands that as the client ages:

A. The cells of the immune system are able to proliferate as they would in the younger client.
B. The total number of T cells is decreased.
C. The body is able to respond to infections with previously produced remembered antibodies.
D. The immune system is able to respond to antigenic stimulation as it does in the younger client.

36. Which of the following infections can be acquired by the neonate during labor and delivery?
A. Tuberculosis.
B. Rubella.
C. Group B streptococci.
D. Syphilis.

37. The nurse is assessing a newborn. Before placing him on the scales to determine his weight, what would be important for the
nurse to do?
a. Place a waterproof protective barrier drape across the scales.
b. Thoroughly wipe the scales clean with alcohol and cotton.
c. Take no specific measures because the scales were cleaned after the last infant was weighed.
d. Place a warm blanket on the scale to prevent excessive heat loss.

38. The nurse is performing a dressing change on a client who has a Staphylococcus infection in an abdominal incision. What
infection control precautions will the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
A. Wear clean gloves to remove the old dressing.
B. Put on a gown when entering the room.
C. Wear a face shield.
D. Dispose of the gown and mask in container outside the client's door.
E. Leave all extra dressing supplies in the room.
F. Carefully cleanse the stethoscope and scissors that came in contact with the client.

39. Efforts by the nursing staff to reduce the nosocomial infection rate in a unit would include understanding which of the
following major sites and causes? Select all that apply.
A. Nasal cannula hanging on oxygen delivery unit in the client’s room.
B. Closed dirty linen hamper in the client’s room.
C. Needleless IV piggyback (IVPB) set hanging next to primary IV.
D. Opened 4 × 4 dressing that has been secured with tape for next dressing change.
E. Nasogastric irrigation set that has syringe lying on bedside table uncapped.
F. Nearly full needle disposal unit on the wall next to the client’s bed.

40. For which communicable disease(s) would the nurse anticipate a child would require respiratory isolation? Select all that
apply.
A. Varicella.
B. Rubella.
C. Scarlet fever.
D. Pertussis.
E. Rubella.
F. Mumps.
41. Which type of skin problem would require the addition of contact precautions to the practice of standard precautions?
a. Atopic dermatitis.
b. Psoriasis.
c. Fungal infections.
d. Impetigo.

42. The measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine is not administered to infants younger than 12 months. Why is this
vaccination not recommended for this group of children?
A. Children younger than 12 months have a greater risk for an adverse reaction.
B. This group of children is not at high risk for contact with diseases.
C. The child’s immune response is not mature enough to respond to the vaccination.
D. The immune system of the child will not respond effectively to the vaccination.

43. What is important information that a nurse should know about administration of a measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine to
an adult? Select all that apply.
A. It should never be administered to an adult, because most adults are immune to the diseases.
B. Adults born during or after 1957 should receive >1 dose of MMR vaccine unless they have a medical contraindication,
documentation of >1 dose, or other acceptable evidence of immunity.
C. A second dose of MMR vaccine is never recommended for adults, because it is only recommended for children.
D. Administer one dose of MMR vaccine to women whose rubella vaccination history is unreliable and counsel women to avoid
becoming pregnant for 4 weeks after vaccination.
E. Do not vaccinate pregnant women or those planning to become pregnant during the 12 -week period after receiving the
vaccination.
F. Administer a booster dose of MMR vaccine if the adult was born before 1957.

44. When administering varicella vaccination, the nurse understands that which of the following individuals would be appropriate
candidates to receive the vaccine? Select all that apply.
A. Health care workers.
B. Child care employees.
C. College students.
D. Prison inmates.
E. Pregnant mother in early weeks of the first trimester.

45. Which of the following statements would indicate that the parents of a child being treated with antibiotics for an ear infection
understand the reason for a follow-up visit after the child completes the course of therapy?
a. Her hearing needs to be checked to see if the infection has done any damage.
b. The doctor wants to make certain she has taken all the antibiotics.
c.We need to make sure that her ear infection has completely cleared.
d. She needs to get another prescription for second course of antibiotics.

46. On discharge, a child is ordered to receive ampicillin (Omnipen) four times a day. Which of the following instructions to the
mother would be most appropriate?
a. Administer the drug at 9 AM, 1 PM, 5 PM, and 9 PM.
b. Give the drug during mealtime and with an evening snack.
c. Make sure that you give each dose about 4 hours apart.
d. Administer the drug every 6 hours around the clock.

47. A client has been diagnosed with hepatitis C and begins receiving ribavirin therapy. The nurse would:
a. Instruct the client to take Tylenol 30 minutes before each treatment.
b. Caution the client about the necessity of not fathering children during therapy or 6 months afterward.
c. Encourage the client to use herbal therapy with ginkgo to decrease feelings of depression.
d. Instruct the client to eat three well-balanced high-calorie meals daily.

48. A woman is being treated with miconazole (Monistat) for her vaginal candidiasis. What would be important to teach the
woman regarding her medication?
a. Discontinue the use of the medication during menstrual periods.
b. Do not use a tampon when using the medication.
c. Douche before applying the topical medication.
d. Discontinue when symptoms subside.

49. A natural chemical defense found in the body, which works as a part of the body's immune system, is found in:
a. The liver.
b. Pancreatic enzymes.
c. Gastric secretions.
d. The mucosa of the large bowel.

50. An infant has an acquired active immunity. Which statement best describes this immunity?
a. Infant has received immunizations.
b. Immunity was transferred from the mother to the infant.
c. The infant is recovering from a childhood disease that conferred immunity.
d. Gamma globulin was administered after exposure to hepatitis.

51. A child has chicken pox. What type of immunity will this child have on his recovery?
a. Actively acquired immunity.
b. Artificially acquired immunity.
c. Natural passive immunity.
d. Naturally acquired active immunity.

52. A nurse at the clinic experiences a needle stick from a client with known hepatitis. What immunoglobulin (Ig) should be
administered to provide passive immunity?
a. IgE.
b. IgA.
c. IgG.
d. IgC.

53. The following are considered early or initial signs of SARS except: A. Fever B. Myalgia
C. diarrhea D. Shortness of

54. Until now, there is no specific treatment for SARS. If a patient is suspected with SARS, management are purely symptomatic
which would not include:
A. Antipyretics B. Prednisone
C. Ventilatory Support D. Antibiotics

55. Which of the following is not true about SARS?

A. A disease caused by RNA corona virus.
B. A common disease which causes severe lower respiratory tract infection. C. Suspected cases are isolated
and placed in a negative air pressure room D. A viral disease which common starts with fever of more
than 38 degree centigrade

56. A diagnostic test for SARS which is considered as very specific and very sensitive?
A. ELISA B. IFA
C. PCR D. Chest X - ray

57. A new employee learning to administer ribavirin (Rebetol) is taught to avoid exposure to the aerosolized drug, which most
frequently results in:
a. Fever and chills.
b. Dizziness and ataxia.
c. Eye irritation and headache.
d. Vomiting and diarrhea.

58. The reported symptoms of avian influenza in humans have range from typical influenza-like symptoms, which include
except:
a. fever, cough
b. sore throat
c. muscle aches to eye infections
d. none of the above

59. Which of the following is considered as the primary source of possible human transmission for Avian Influenza?
A. Infected Human B. Infected Birds
C. Infected Rats D. Infected cat

60. The nurse is reviewing with a certified nursing assistant (CNA) the care for a child with AIDS. Which of the following
precautions would the nurse review with the CNA?
A. Strict hand washing.
B. Airborne precautions.
C. Protective isolation.
D. Standard precautions.

61. A client is worried he may have been exposed to AIDS. What will be important for the nurse to explain to this client?
a. Symptoms of AIDS will develop immediately in sexually active individuals.
b. Clients may remain asymptomatic for an indefinite period of time.
c. Symptoms of AIDS are usually seen before the client is found to be HIV positive.
d. After exposure to the virus, symptoms may develop within 6 to 12 weeks or as late as 6 months.

62. A client with a diagnosis of AIDS has developed Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). What will be important for the
nurse to include in the nursing care plan?
a. Put a mask on the client whenever he has visitors in his room.
b. Explain to the client why he cannot go outside his room.
c. Wear a mask and gown when providing direct care to the client.
d. Wear a gown and gloves when assisting client with personal hygiene.

63. A client with AIDS has several cutaneous lesions identified as Kaposi's sarcoma. How will the nurse care for these areas?
a. Gently cleanse the areas, keeping them dry and free of abrasions.
b. Place sterile, saline-soaked gauze over the areas.
c. Apply a topical corticosteroid cream.
d. Decrease infection by applying an antibiotic ointment.

64. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of this medication and would note:
a. A sudden gain in body weight and improved appetite.
b. Improving activity tolerance and oxygen exchange.
c. Whitening of lung fields on the chest x-ray film.
d. Afebrile body temperature and development of leukopenia.

65. A client with AIDS develops Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for
this client?
a. Altered gas exchange.
b. Ineffective individual coping.
c. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements.
d. Activity tolerance.

66. After a repeat HIV antibody test, a client continues have a positive test result but is asymptomatic. The nurse understands
which of the following about possible transmission of the virus by the client?
a. The client is infectious when symptoms are active.
b. The client is infectious for life.
c. The dormant virus is not infectious while the client is asymptomatic and the T-cell count is high.
d. Laboratory tests should be done monthly to identify the infectious periods of the disease process.

67. The nurse understands that the following signs and symptoms can be used to identify a client who is at an increased risk for
HIV infection:
a. Night sweats.
b. Malaise and fatigue.
c. Frequent sexually transmitted diseases.
d. Swollen glands and diarrhea.

68. The nurse is speaking with a group of male teenagers. They are most concerned about symptoms associated with gonorrhea.
The nurse would make which of the following statements to them?
a. There may be reddish lesions on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
b. Men may observe a rash over the body of the penis.
c. Urinary dribbling may occur because of irritation of the urinary tract.
d. Painful urination occurs because of the inflammation of the urethra.

69. When instructing a pregnant client diagnosed with a chlamydial infection at 28 weeks' gestation, which of the following
would the nurse include about this infection during pregnancy?
a. Possible central nervous systems disorders in the fetus.
b. Usual treatment with a 10-day course of erythromycin.
c. Cesarean delivery most likely necessary.
d. Possible fetal death before delivery.

70. A client with hepatitis B has a headache. Which analgesic(s) would be appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.
1. Ibuprofen.
2. Naproxen.
3. Aspirin.
4. Acetaminophen.
5. Morphine.
6. Demerol.

71. When teaching a client with hepatitis C who is receiving interferon and ribavirin therapy, the nurse would encourage the
client to eat:
a. Small frequent meals, high in carbohydrates
b. Small frequent meals, high in proteins
c. Three well-balanced meals daily, high in calories
d. Three well-balanced meals daily, but with minimal fluid intake.

72. The nurse is assessing a client for risk factors associated with a potential diagnosis of hepatitis. Which information obtained
from the client’s history would indicate the highest risk factor for the development of hepatitis C?
a. Recent travel to a third world country.
b. Eating raw oysters.
c. Intravenous drug abuse.
d. Contact with person who was jaundiced.

73. Which of the following statements by the client with hepatitis B in the icteric phase would alert the nurse that the client needs
more information?
a. I will need to eat small but frequent meals.
b. I will be sure to use plastic eating utensils.
c. I can be intimate with my husband, as soon as my lab test result is normal.
d. I'll keep towels and personal hygiene items separate from the family.

74. A client is diagnosed with hepatitis, type A. Nursing measures essential to prevent transmission of the hepatitis A virus
include:
a. Initiating procedures to implement contact precautions.
b. Isolating the client's food tray when removing it from the room.
c. Wearing a mask and gown when in the room.
d. Not discarding the needles and syringes in the container in the room.

75. A child is diagnosed with rubella. What is important for the mother to understand regarding the implications of this disease?
A. Any woman in the first trimester of pregnancy should not be in contact with the child.
B. A pregnant woman who comes in contact with the child should receive a rubella vaccination.
C. The child will run a high fever and may experience photophobia and respiratory complications.
D. The child should receive a rubella vaccination as soon as he or she recovers.

76. When administering acyclovir, which of the following is appropriate?

a. Administer IV acyclovir slowly, over at least 1 hour.
b. Administer IV acyclovir by rapid IV bolus.
c. Acyclovir is compatible with most other IV solutions.
d. Oral fluids should be restricted while the client is receiving IV acyclovir.

77. Herpes zoster has been diagnosed in an elderly client. What will the nursing management include?
a. Apply antifungal cream to the areas daily.
b. Place client on contact precautions.
c. Administer a herpes zoster immunization.
d. Expect to find lesions in the perineal area.

78. The nurse understands that the skin lesions evident in herpes zoster are similar to those seen in:
a. Syphilis.
b. Impetigo.
c. Varicella.
d. Rubella.
79. An older client is diagnosed with postherpetic neuralgia. Which of the following medications would the nurse anticipate
being ordered to treat the neuralgia pain? Select all that apply.
1. Anticonvulsants.
2. Tricyclic antidepressants.
3. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
4. Opioids.
5. Vitamins.
6. Aspirin.

80. The nurse is talking with a young woman who has been diagnosed with herpes simplex II (genital herpes). In discussing her
care, it would be important for the nurse to include what information?
a. The initial lesions are usually worse than lesions that occur with outbreaks at a later time.
b. Her sexual partner will not contract herpes if she does not have sex when the lesions are present.
c. This condition can be treated and cured, if she takes all of the antibiotics for 2 weeks.
d. If, in the future, she becomes pregnant, she will have to have a cesarean delivery.

81. An 18 month old has been diagnosed with scabies. Which assessment findings would the nurse note?
a. Spreading, ring-like rash in the groin, buttocks, and axilla.
b. Severe pruritus, especially at night.
c. Wheal surrounded by a vivid flare with pruritus.
d. Red, hive-like papules and plaques in exposed areas.

82. A child is diagnosed with an infestation of scabies. What will be important for the nurse to teach the parents regarding
treatment of this problem?
a. Permethrin 5% (Elimite) cream should be massaged into the skin from the from neck to the soles of the feet.
b. Benadryl anti-itch cream can be used to treat the itching as well as assist in destroying the skin mite.
c. Permethrin 1% (Nix) should be applied to the body and left on for 1-2 hours then thoroughly washed off.
d. The prescribed cream should be massaged only into the areas where it is evident the skin mites are located.

83. A nurse is teaching the mother of a child how to control and treat a problem with pediculosis capitis (head lice). What is the
most important information the nurse should give to the mother?
A. 1% permethrin (Nix) should be applied to the scalp daily for a week.
B. The clothing and bed linens should be thoroughly washed.
C. The 1% permethrin (Nix) rinse should not be used again for 7 to 10 days.
D. Other children in the family will not need to be treated with 1% permethrin (Nix).

84. A child is diagnosed with head lice, and the mother asks how she should get the nits out of her child's hair. The nurse should
instruct the mother about which of the following concerning head lice treatment?
a. After the hair shampoo treatment with permethrin (Nix), the mother should use a fine-tooth comb to remove the remaining nits.
b. Apply the treatment to the scalp and leave it on for 8 to 14 hours, then wash off and repeat in 48 hours.
c. Hair shampoo treatment should be repeated every day for 7 days.
d. Apply the antiviral topical agent directly to the hair shaft, then shampoo normally.

85. A client receiving oral antifungal therapy for fingernail fungus should be aware of which of the following?
a. A single dose of an oral antifungal agent is usually sufficient.
b. Oral therapy is not effective in completely eradicating fungal nail infections.
c. The medication should be taken twice daily for only 1 week.
d. Nail fungal infections are difficult to eradicate and require prolonged therapy.

86. The client presents to the emergency room with a bull’s eye rash. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to
ask the client?
A. Have you found ant ticks on your body?
B. Have you had any nausea in the last 24 hours?
C. Have you been outside the country in the last 6 months?
D. Have you had any fever for the past few days?

87. Which person is at greatest risk for developing Lyme disease?

A. Computer Programmer
B. Elementary Teacher
C. Veterinarian
D. Landscaper
88. Prevention and early treatment of Lyme disease are crucial because which of the following complications can occur late in the
disease?
A. Neurological Complications
B. Lung Abscess
C. Renal Failure
D. Sterility

89. Nursing care of patients with influenza calls for prevention of complication. Chills should be avoided. You must instruct
your patient to do which of the following?
a. Keep warm and quiet
b. Enemas of saline
c. Quick bath
d. Change clothes when perspiring

90. For which of the following symptoms will the nurse assess a neonate diagnosed with Bacterial Meningitis?
A. Hypothermia, Irritability and Poor Feeding
B. Positive Babinski reflex, mottling, Pallor
C. Headache, Nuchal Rigidity, and developmental delays
D. Positive Moro’s embrace reflex, hyperthermia, and sunken fontanel

91. A client has been placed on isoniazid (INH) as prophylactic treatment against tuberculosis. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse plan to include in the client's teaching plan about taking isoniazid?
a. Isoniazid should be taken with antacids to decrease gastric distress.
b. Fluid intake should be increased to 3000 mL/day.
c. The client can double the dosage if he forgets a drug dose.19.
d. The client should limit tyramine-rich foods in his diet.

92. Tetanus in newborns is a serious condition that warrants immediate intervention. As part of your nursing instructions you
educate would be mothers to observe and report S/S of tetanus neonatorum which include except:
a. hands are flaccid b. child cries continuously
c. baby sucks poorly d. facial muscle twist and lock jaw

93. How is COVID-19 passed on?

A. Through droplets that come from your mouth and nose when you cough or breathe out
B. In sexual fluids, including semen, vaginal fluids or anal mucous
C. Bite of culex mosquitoes
D. Bite of Tsetse fly

94. Which of the following people is COVID-19 more dangerous for? (select all correct responses)

A. Children
B. Older people – especially those aged 70 and above
C. People with certain underlying health conditions
D. European people

95. Are people living with HIV always more at risk?

A. Yes – people with HIV have weaker immune systems

B. No – people who adhere to antiretroviral treatment (ART) and have a high CD4 count aren’t more at risk
C. It depends on a individual luck to see the virus
D. No- people with HIV who adhere to handwashing and physical distancing have lower risk of acquiring covid-19 than
noninfected individual.

96. Which of the following has been recognized as a significant risk factor for the development of acute respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS) and death in patients with COVID-19?
A. Decreased lactate dehydrogenase levels
B. Elevated D-dimer levels
C. Neutropenia
D. Lymphocytosis
97. Which of the following most accurately reflects the estimated incubation period of COVID-19?
A. Within 24 hours
B. 3-4 weeks
C. 2 days to 2 weeks
D. Longer than a month

98. Which of the following is the most commonly reported clinical finding in patients with COVID-19?

A. Sneezing
B. Hypotension
C. Diarrhea
D. Fever

99. Of the following, which diagnostic test has been more commonly used in the diagnosis of COVID-19?

A. Immunofluorescent assay (IFA)

B. Real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (rRT-PCR) assay
C. Virus isolation in cell culture
D. Viral antigen detection test

100. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the treatment and prevention of COVID-19?

A. All individuals should use contact, airborne, and droplet precautions before entering a room with a patient who has
confirmed or suspected COVID-19
B. Interleukin inhibitors are contraindicated in patients with serious COVID-19 infection
C. Alcohol-based sanitizers are wholly ineffective in the prevention of COVID-19
D. A combination of zanamivir and peramivir is recommended in older patients with severe COVID-19 infection