Subject

DEMOCRACY ELECTION &

GOVERNANCE
MCQ QUESTIONS
1. What is the date of adoption of the Indian Constitution?
A) January 26, 1950
B) August 15, 1947
C) November 26, 1949
D) December 15, 1950
2. Which part of the Indian Constitution outlines the fundamental rights of citizens?
A) Part III
B) Part II
C) Part IV
D) Part V
3. Who is the head of state in India according to the Constitution?
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Chief Justice
D) Governor
4. How many houses does the Indian Parliament consist of?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
5. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
A) Ninth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
6. Which of the following is not a fundamental right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
A) Right to Equality
B) Right to Education
C) Right to Property
D) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
7. Which part of the Indian Constitution outlines the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part VI
D) Part V
8. The Supreme Court of India is responsible for interpreting and enforcing the Constitution. True or
False?
A) True
B) False
9. India follows a federal system of governance with no unitary features. True or False?
A) True
B) False
10. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
A) 22
B) 24
C) 25
D) 26
11. What does the Preamble of the Indian Constitution declare India to be?
A) Socialist and Democratic Republic
B) Monarchy
C) Oligarchy
D) Autocracy
12. Which amendment procedure requires a special majority for approval?
A) Simple Majority
B) Absolute Majority
C) Special Majority
D) Two-thirds Majority
13. Who appoints the Prime Minister in India?
A) President
B) Chief Justice
C) Lok Sabha
D) Rajya Sabha
14. Which emergency provision is declared in case of a war or external aggression?
A) National Emergency
B) State Emergency
C) Financial Emergency
D) Constitutional Emergency
15. Which of the following is not one of the objectives outlined in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution?
A) Justice
B) Liberty
C) Fraternity
D) Autocracy
16. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable in courts. True or False?
A) True
B) False
17. Who is the head of government in India according to the Constitution?
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Chief Justice
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
18. India is declared as a secular state, ensuring equal treatment of all religions. True or False?
A) True
B) False
19. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the amendment procedure?
A) Part XV B) Part XIV C) Part XVI D) Part XVIII
20. How many fundamental rights are guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven

21. Which act served as the foundational blueprint for the Indian Constitution?
A) Government of India Act, 1947
B) Indian Independence Act, 1947
 C) Government of India Act, 1935
D) Indian Councils Act, 1909

22. The Indian Constitution was adopted on:

A) August 15, 1947
B) January 26, 1950
C) November 26, 1949
D) March 23, 1931

23. Which country's parliamentary system greatly influenced the Indian Constitution?
A) United States
B) United Kingdom
C) France
D) Australia

24. The Indian Constitution came into effect on:

A) August 15, 1947
B) January 26, 1950
C) November 26, 1949
D) March 23, 1931
25. The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy is borrowed from which country's constitution?
A) United States
B) United Kingdom
C) Ireland
D) France
26. The Indian Constitution is divided into how many parts?
A) 20
B) 22
C) 25
D) 28
27. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part V
D) Part VI
28. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Rajendra Prasad

29.How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?

A) 10
B) 12
C) 22
D) 25
30. Which amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' into the
Preamble?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 61st Amendment
31. Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice in any
form?
 A) Article 14
B) Article 17
C) Article 19
D) Article 21
32. The concept of judicial review in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from which country?
A) United States
B) United Kingdom
C) France
D) Canada
33. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
A) Members of Parliament
B) Members of Legislative Assemblies
C) Members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
D) Members of State Legislative Assemblies and State Legislative Councils
34. Who has the power to declare Emergency under the Indian Constitution?
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
35. The Supreme Court of India can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under
which article?
A) Article 32
B) Article 226
C) Article 136
D) Article 143
36. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the organization, independence, and jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court?
A) Part IV
B) Part V
C) Part VI
D) Part VII
37. How many fundamental duties are there in the Indian Constitution?
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 15
38. Who has the power to amend the Indian Constitution?
A) Parliament
B) President
C) Supreme Court
D) Prime Minister
39. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the list of recognized languages?
A) Eighth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Twelfth Schedule
D) Fourteenth Schedule
40. Who appoints the Governor of a state in India?
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Chief Minister
D) Chief Justice of India
41. Which of the following terms refers to the characteristic of the Indian Constitution allowing for changes to
be made based on evolving societal needs?
A) Rigidity
B) Flexibility
 C) Stability
D) Inflexibility
42. Which provision of the Indian Constitution requires a special majority of both houses of Parliament for
certain amendments?
A) Article 356
B) Article 370
C) Article 368
D) Article 360
43. Which of the following is true regarding the process of amending the Indian Constitution?
A) All amendments require ratification by all state legislatures.
B) Some amendments require a special majority of both houses of Parliament.
C) Amendments can be made by a simple majority of the Lok Sabha alone.
D) Amendments can only be initiated by the President of India

44. How does the Indian Constitution achieve a balance between rigidity and flexibility?
A) By allowing amendments only by a two-thirds majority of the states.
B) By making all amendments subject to the approval of the Supreme Court.
C) By allowing amendments through a special majority but also by a simpler majority for certain provisions.
D) By requiring unanimous consent of all state legislatures for any change.

45. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the procedure for its amendment?
A) Part II
B) Part IV
C) Part XI
D) Part XX
46. Which amendment procedure requires ratification by at least half of the state legislatures?
A) Simple majority
B) Special majority
C) Double majority
D) Triple majority
47. What aspect of the Indian Constitution ensures that fundamental aspects are not altered easily?
A) Parliamentary sovereignty
B) Presidential veto power
C) Judicial review
D) Rigid amendment process
48. Which provision of the Indian Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of both houses of
Parliament?
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Directive Principles of State Policy
C) Federal structure of government
D) Citizenship provisions
49. What is required for an amendment to the Indian Constitution to become law?
A) Approval by a majority of the Rajya Sabha alone
B) Approval by the President of India
C) Ratification by all state legislatures
D) Assent by the Prime Minister
50. The flexibility in the Indian Constitution allows for amendments to be made without:
A) Approval of the President
B) Ratification by the Supreme Court
C) A special majority of both houses of Parliament
D) A two-thirds majority of the states
51. What does the Universal Adult Franchise mean in the Indian Constitution?
A) Only adults with a certain level of education can vote.
B) Every adult citizen above the age of 18 has the right to vote.
C) Only citizens belonging to certain castes and religions can vote.
D) Only citizens with high social status are allowed to vote.
52. Which of the following is NOT a factor considered under Universal Adult Franchise?
A) Gender
B) Age
 C) Occupation
D) Religion
53. Who is eligible to exercise their voting rights under the Universal Adult Franchise in India?
A) Citizens aged 16 and above
B) Citizens aged 21 and above
C) Citizens aged 18 and above
D) Citizens aged 25 and above
54. What is the main purpose of Universal Adult Franchise in the Indian Constitution?
A) To restrict voting rights based on caste and religion
B) To empower every eligible adult citizen with the right to vote
C) To grant voting rights only to the wealthy and educated citizens
D) To limit voting rights to certain regions of the country
55. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the concept of citizenship?
a) Article 6
b) Article 5
c) Article 9
d) Article 11
56. What is the term used to describe the citizenship principle followed by India, where every citizen is
considered a part of the nation as a whole?
a) Dual citizenship
b) Federal citizenship
c) Single citizenship
d) State citizenship
57. Which country follows the principle of single citizenship similar to India?
a) United States
b) Canada
c) Australia
d) United Kingdom
58. What does the concept of single citizenship in India aim to promote?
a) Regionalism
b) Division of citizens
c) National unity
d) State autonomy
59. Which part of the Indian Constitution addresses the provisions related to citizenship?
a) Part I
b) Part II
c) Part III
d) Part IV
60. Who is empowered to regulate the right of citizenship by law in India?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Parliament
d) Supreme Court
61. In which year was the concept of single citizenship incorporated into the Indian Constitution?
a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1952
d) 1956.
62. Which of the following is NOT a reason for India adopting the principle of single citizenship?
a) To promote national integration
b) To discourage regionalism
c) To ensure state autonomy
d) To strengthen national identity
63. What is the primary purpose of the provision of single citizenship in the Indian Constitution?
a) To grant additional privileges to certain states
b) To provide equal rights to all citizens irrespective of their state of residence
c) To allow states to have their own citizenship laws
d) To promote international relations
64. Which article empowers the Parliament to amend the provisions related to citizenship in India?
a) Article 9
b) Article 10
c) Article 11
d) Article 12
65. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
 A) Part II
 B) Part III
 C) Part IV
 D) Part V
66. Which amendment introduced the Fundamental Duties into the Indian Constitution?
 A) 42nd Amendment
 B) 44th Amendment
 C) 52nd Amendment
 D) 50th Amendment
67. How many Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to citizens in the Indian Constitution?
 A) 6
 B) 10
 C) 22
 D) 15
68. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Right to Equality?
 A) Article 12
 B) Article 19
 C) Article 14
 D) Article 21
69. Which Fundamental Right prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex,
or place of birth?
 A) Right to Equality
 B) Right to Freedom
 C) Right against Exploitation
 D) Right to Freedom of Religion
70. What is the Fundamental Right provided under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?
 A) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
 B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
 C) Right against Exploitation
 D) Right to Equality before Law
71. Which Fundamental Right guarantees protection of life and personal liberty?
 A) Right to Equality
 B) Right to Freedom of Religion
 C) Right against Exploitation
 D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
72. Which Fundamental Right prohibits employment of children in hazardous industries?
 A) Right to Equality
 B) Right to Freedom
 C) Right against Exploitation
 D) Cultural and Educational Rights
73. What is the purpose of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
 A) Legally enforceable obligations
 B) Moral and civic obligations
 C) Religious obligations
 D) Political obligations
74. How many Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution?
 A) 8
 B) 10
 C) 11
  D) 12
75. Which Fundamental Duty emphasizes promoting the spirit of common brotherhood among
all citizens?
 A) To uphold and protect the sovereignty of India
 B) To cherish and follow the ideals of the freedom struggle
 C) To promote the spirit of common brotherhood
 D) To develop scientific temper
76. Which Fundamental Duty relates to protecting and improving the natural environment?
 A) To abide by the Constitution
 B) To defend the country
 C) To develop scientific temper
 D) To protect and improve the natural environment
77. What is the primary focus of the Fundamental Right to Freedom of Religion?
 A) Freedom of speech and expression
 B) Freedom to manage religious affairs
 C) Freedom from paying taxes for the promotion of religion
 D) Freedom of conscience and propagation of religion
78. Which Fundamental Right guarantees protection against conviction for offenses?
 A) Right to Equality
 B) Right to Freedom of Religion
 C) Right against Exploitation
 D) Right to Freedom
79. What is the purpose of providing Constitutional Remedies in the Indian Constitution?
 A) To provide opportunities for education
 B) To uphold and protect the sovereignty of India
 C) To ensure enforcement of Fundamental Rights
 D) To develop scientific temper
80. Which Fundamental Right prohibits untouchability?
 A) Right to Equality
 B) Right to Freedom
 C) Right against Exploitation
 D) Cultural and Educational Rights
81. Which Fundamental Duty emphasizes the development of scientific temper and humanism?
 A) To abide by the Constitution
 B) To cherish and follow the ideals of the freedom struggle
 C) To develop scientific temper
 D) To safeguard public property
82. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
 A) Article 32
 B) Article 14
 C) Article 21
 D) Article 19
83. Which Fundamental Duty pertains to providing opportunities for education to children
between the ages of 6 and 14?
 A) To uphold and protect the sovereignty of India
 B) To defend the country
 C) To strive towards excellence in all spheres
 D) To provide opportunities for education to children
84. Which Fundamental Right guarantees the right to practice any profession or to carry on any
occupation, trade, or business?
 A) Right to Equality
 B) Right to Freedom
 C) Right against Exploitation
 D) Right to Cultural and Educational Rights
85. Which term refers to the concept of a unified system of courts in India?
a) Segregated Judiciary
b) Divided Judiciary
c) Integrated Judiciary
d) Fragmented Judiciary

86. What is the highest judicial authority in India?

a) Supreme Court
b) High Court
c) District Court
d) Constitutional Court
87. Which feature ensures uniformity in the interpretation and application of laws across India's
judicial system?
a) Independent Judiciary
b) Federal Judiciary
c) Integrated Judiciary
d) Segregated Judiciary
88. The independence of the judiciary in India is primarily aimed at:
a) Ensuring executive dominance
b) Upholding the rule of law
c) Strengthening the legislative authority
d) Promoting political interference
89. Who has the authority to impeach judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts in India?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Parliament
d) Chief Justice
90. Which of the following is not a safeguard ensuring the independence of the judiciary in India?
a) Security of Tenure
b) Immunity from Prosecution
c) Direct Election of Judges
d) Fixed Salary and Allowances

91. The salaries and allowances of judges in India are charged to which fund?
a) Judicial Fund
b) Public Fund
c) Consolidated Fund of India
d) Revenue Fund
92. What is the process for the removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts in India?
a) Simple majority vote in Parliament
b) Two-thirds majority vote in Parliament
c) Impeachment by Parliament
d) Appointment by the President
93. Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are immune from being sued or prosecuted for
their:
a) Judicial acts
b) Legislative acts
c) Executive acts
d) Administrative acts

94. The concept of an integrated judiciary ensures:

a) Separation of powers
b) Hierarchical structure of courts
c) Regional autonomy in legal matters
d) Uniformity in judicial administration
95. Which branch of government is responsible for the enforcement of court orders and
judgments in India?
a) Legislative
b) Executive
c) Judiciary
d) Constitutional

96. The term "Dependent Judiciary" implies reliance on the:

a) Legislature for appointments
b) Executive for enforcement
c) Judiciary for interpretation
d) Public for support

97. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an independent judiciary?

a) Security of Tenure
b) Immunity from Prosecution
c) Direct control by the Executive
d) Freedom in Judicial Function

98. What role does the executive branch play in the functioning of the judiciary in India?
a) Interpretation of laws
b) Enforcement of court decisions
c) Adjudication of disputes
d) Appointment of judges

99. Which fund is responsible for the payment of salaries and allowances of judges in India?
a) National Fund
b) Judicial Fund
c) Consolidated Fund of India
d) Reserve Fund

100. Which body has the authority to make laws regarding the organization and functioning of the
judiciary in India?
a) Supreme Court
b) High Court
c) Parliament
d) President

101. The independence of the judiciary ensures:

a) Uniformity in judicial decisions
b) Control by the executive
c) Political interference
d) Fair and impartial justice

102. The concept of security of tenure ensures that judges can be removed:
a) Only through impeachment
b) By the President's order
c) By a majority vote in Parliament
d) At the discretion of the Executive

103. The judiciary in India is organized into a pyramid-like structure, with the ____________ at the
top.
a) District Courts
b) Supreme Court
c) High Courts
d) Sessions Courts

104. Which of the following is a characteristic of an integrated judiciary?

a) Diverse interpretation of laws
b) Fragmented court system
c) Uniform application of laws
d) Limited jurisdictional control

105. What is the significance of secularism in the Indian Constitution?

a) It establishes Hinduism as the state religion.
b) It maintains a separation between religion and the state.
c) It promotes a specific religion over others.
d) It restricts religious practices.

106. Which amendment added the term "secular" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
a) 44th Amendment Act
b) 42nd Amendment Act
c) 50th Amendment Act
d) 52nd Amendment Act

107. Article 15 of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on the basis of:
a) Religion
b) Race
c) Caste
d) All of the above

108. Article 25-28 of the Indian Constitution guarantee the freedom of:
a) Speech
b) Religion
c) Assembly
d) Education

109. Which article of the Indian Constitution recommends a uniform civil code?
a) Article 15
b) Article 25
c) Article 44
d) Article 51A

110. What is the fundamental duty mentioned in Article 51A (h) of the Indian Constitution?
a) To promote secularism
b) To develop scientific temper
c) To support a particular religion
d) To establish religious institutions

111. According to the Indian Constitution, secularism ensures:

a) Dominance of a single religion
b) Equal treatment of all religions by the state
c) State control over religious institutions
d) Preference for certain religious practices
112. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
a) Sovereign
b) Socialist
c) Hindu
d) Secular
113. The concept of secularism primarily aims to:
a) Promote atheism
b) Establish a theocratic state
c) Ensure religious harmony and equality
d) Enforce religious rituals
114. Which Directive Principle of State Policy recommends a uniform civil code?
a) Article 15
b) Article 25
c) Article 44
d) Article 51A
115. Secularism in the Indian Constitution implies:
a) State support for all religions equally
b) Separation of religion and state affairs
c) Promotion of a single religion
d) Exclusive state support for Hinduism
116. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution grants individuals the right to:
a) Practice any religion
b) Practice only Hinduism
c) Convert others to their religion forcefully
d) Practice religion only in private
117. Which amendment act added the word "secular" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
a) 42nd Amendment Act
b) 44th Amendment Act
c) 52nd Amendment Act
d) 50th Amendment Act
118. The primary objective of secularism in India is to:
a) Promote one dominant religion
b) Ensure equal treatment of all religions
c) Establish a theocratic state
d) Abolish all religious practices
119. According to Article 15 of the Indian Constitution, discrimination based on religion is:
a) Permissible
b) Prohibited
c) Encouraged
d) Optional
120. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of religion?
a) Article 15
b) Article 25-28
c) Article 44
d) Article 51A

121. The Indian Constitution recommends a uniform civil code to:

a) Promote religious diversity
b) Ensure equality and justice
c) Establish a theocratic state
d) Encourage religious discrimination
122. The concept of secularism in the Indian Constitution emphasizes:
a) State control over religious practices
b) Preferential treatment for a particular religion
c) Equal treatment of all religions by the state
d) Exclusion of religious freedom
123. Which fundamental duty in the Indian Constitution promotes scientific temper?
a) Article 15
b) Article 25
c) Article 44
d) Article 51A
124. The inclusion of "secular" in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution signifies the state's commitment
to:
a) Promoting religious intolerance
b) Establishing a theocratic state
c) Maintaining a neutral stance on religion
d) Suppressing religious freedom

125. What system of government does India follow?

 A) Presidential
  B) Parliamentary
 C) Federal
 D) Monarchical
126. Which of the following is NOT a house of the Indian Parliament?
 A) Lok Sabha
 B) Rajya Sabha
 C) Vidhan Sabha
 D) None of the above
127. The distribution of powers between the Union and the States in India is outlined in which
schedule of the Constitution?
 A) Third Schedule
 B) Fifth Schedule
 C) Seventh Schedule
 D) Ninth Schedule

128. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?
 A) Part II
 B) Part III
 C) Part IV
 D) Part V
129. What electoral system does India use?
 A) Proportional representation
 B) Preferential voting
 C) First-past-the-post
 D) Mixed-member proportional
130. The reservation system in India aims to address the historical injustices faced by which
groups?
 A) Scheduled Castes (SCs)
 B) Scheduled Tribes (STs)
 C) Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
 D) All of the above

131. Which amendment introduced the concept of Panchayati Raj Institutions in India?
 A) 73rd Amendment
 B) 74th Amendment
 C) 75th Amendment
 D) 76th Amendment
132. Which institution is responsible for administering election processes in India?
 A) Parliament
 B) Supreme Court
 C) Election Commission
 D) President
133. What power allows the judiciary to interpret the Constitution and protect fundamental
rights?
 A) Executive Review
 B) Legislative Review
 C) Judicial Review
 D) Presidential Review

134. Which feature of the Indian Constitution cannot be altered through amendments?
 A) Fundamental Rights
 B) Directive Principles of State Policy
  C) Federal Structure
 D) All of the above
135. India's federal structure aims to achieve a balance between:
 A) Centralization and Decentralization
 B) Authoritarianism and Democracy
 C) Capitalism and Socialism
 D) None of the above
136. The Prime Minister of India is typically the leader of which house of Parliament?
 A) Lok Sabha
 B) Rajya Sabha
 C) Vidhan Sabha
 D) None of the above
137. The concept of 'social justice' in the Indian democratic model primarily emphasizes:
 A) Economic equality
 B) Political representation
 C) Religious freedom
 D) Environmental sustainability
138. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the provision for judicial review?
 A) 40th Amendment
 B) 44th Amendment
 C) 42nd Amendment
 D) 46th Amendment
139. Which institution in India is responsible for interpreting the Constitution and resolving
disputes between the Union and States?
 A) President
 B) Parliament
 C) Supreme Court
 D) Election Commission

140. What is the term used for the lower house of the Indian Parliament?
 A) Senate
 B) Lok Sabha
 C) House of Commons
 D) Rajya Sabha
141. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty of Indian citizens as per the Constitution?
 A) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
 B) To safeguard public property
 C) To criticize the government's policies openly
 D) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
142. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
 A) Members of Parliament only
 B) Members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
 C) Members of Parliament and State Governors
 D) Members of Parliament and State Legislative Councils
143. The concept of "checks and balances" in the Indian democratic system refers to:
 A) The President's power to veto legislation
 B) The Parliament's power to impeach the President
 C) The division of powers between different branches of government
 D) The Prime Minister's authority over the Council of Ministers
144. Which amendment of the Indian Constitution made education a fundamental right for
children between the ages of 6 and 14?
 A) 84th Amendment
 B) 86th Amendment
 C) 88th Amendment
 D) 92nd Amendment

145. What is a prominent characteristic of India's social landscape?

1. Cultural homogeneity
2. Linguistic uniformity
3. Religious diversity
4. Ethnic exclusivity
146. Which of the following is a significant challenge in India's economic dimension?
1. Universal access to basic amenities
2. Equal distribution of wealth
3. Elimination of poverty
4. Economic disparities
147. What type of political system does India have?
1. Presidential system
2. Parliamentary system
3. Dictatorship
4. Monarchy
148. Which document serves as the guiding framework for Indian democracy?
1. Magna Carta
2. Indian Independence Act
3. Indian Constitution
4. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
149. How has technology influenced Indian democracy?
1. Reduced political awareness
2. Decreased citizen engagement
3. Enhanced political discourse and activism
4. Limited access to information
150. What role does education play in Indian democracy?
1. Decreases political awareness
2. Hinders citizen engagement
3. Promotes informed and engaged citizenship
4. Increases social disparities
151. Which aspect of India's social fabric remains influential despite efforts to promote social
equality?
1. Linguistic diversity
2. Religious harmony
3. Caste system
4. Gender equality
152. What sector forms a significant portion of India's economy and is crucial for millions of
livelihoods?
1. Manufacturing
2. Agriculture
3. Services
4. Information technology
153. How are elections typically conducted in India?
1. Proportional representation
 2. First Past the Post system
3. Ranked-choice voting
4. Electoral college
154. Which institution interprets the Indian Constitution and safeguards citizens' rights?
1. Parliament
2. President
3. Supreme Court
4. Prime Minister
155. What role does social media play in Indian democracy?
1. Decreases political awareness
2. Limits political discourse
3. Facilitates information sharing and activism
4. Suppresses citizen engagement
156. How does literacy impact political participation in India?
1. Reduces political engagement
2. Hinders access to information
3. Promotes informed voting and civic engagement
4. Increases social inequality
157. What aspect of India's social fabric contributes to its cultural richness and diversity?
1. Religious homogeneity
2. Linguistic uniformity
3. Caste system
4. Ethnic exclusivity
158. Which term describes the economic divide between the rich and the poor in India?
1. Economic equilibrium
2. Wealth equality
3. Economic disparity
4. Poverty eradication
159. What type of party system characterizes Indian politics?
1. Single-party system
2. Bipartisan system
3. Multi-party system
4. Authoritarian system
160. What is the highest judicial body in India?
1. High Court
2. Supreme Court
3. District Court
4. International Court of Justice
161. How has technology affected the spread of information in Indian democracy?
1. Hindered access to information
2. Promoted misinformation
3. Facilitated access to information
4. Restricted political discourse
162. What role does education play in reducing social disparities in India?
1. Increases social inequality
2. Hinders social mobility
3. Promotes equal opportunities and social mobility
4. Decreases political awareness
163. Which aspect of India's social fabric reflects its unity in diversity?
 1. Linguistic diversity
2. Religious exclusivity
3. Cultural homogeneity
4. Ethnic diversity
164. What sector of the economy employs the majority of India's workforce?
1. Manufacturing
2. Information technology
3. Services
4. Agriculture
165. What is the meaning of "Panchayati Raj"?
 A) Rule of the State Government
 B) Rule of the Central Government
 C) Rule of the Village Councils
 D) Rule of the Federal Government
166. Which amendment to the Indian Constitution formalized the Panchayati Raj system?
 A) 42nd Amendment
 B) 73rd Amendment
 C) 86th Amendment
 D) 91st Amendment
167. What is the primary purpose of a Gram Sabha in the Panchayati Raj system?
 A) To elect the Village Head
 B) To implement national policies
 C) To provide a platform for local decision-making
 D) To oversee urban development projects
168. Which traditional Indian institution is known for mediating disputes at the village level?
 A) Gram Sabha
 B) Caste Panchayat
 C) Municipal Corporation
 D) State Legislature
169. What role do community-based justice systems play in traditional Indian society?
 A) Enforcing national laws
 B) Arbitrating disputes at the state level
 C) Resolving conflicts at the village level
 D) Implementing international treaties
170. In which sector do cooperative movements historically have a significant presence in India?
 A) Education
 B) Healthcare
 C) Agriculture
 D) Technology
171. Which of the following is NOT a common pool resource traditionally managed by local
communities in India?
 A) Water bodies
 B) Forests
 C) Factories
 D) Grazing lands

172. What is the purpose of caste-based Panchayats in certain regions of India?

 A) Promoting social equality
 B) Resolving inter-caste conflicts
 C) Preserving traditional customs
  D) Implementing national policies
173. Which Indian festival often involves decentralized planning and execution at the
community level?
 A) Diwali
 B) Holi
 C) Eid
 D) Christmas

174. What is the overall objective of decentralization in the Indian context?

 A) Strengthening central control
 B) Empowering local communities
 C) Expanding federal authority
 D) Limiting state autonomy

175. When did the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommend the establishment of a three-tier
Panchayati Raj system?
a) 1947
b) 1957
c) 1978
d) 1992

176. Which constitutional amendment introduced provisions for Panchayats in India?

a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 73rd Amendment
d) 74th Amendment

177. What is the highest level of the three-tier Panchayati Raj system?
a) Village Panchayat
b) Block Panchayat
c) District Panchayat
d) State Panchayat
178. Who chaired the committee that recommended the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Balwant Rai Mehta
d) Ashok Mehta
179. Which committee suggested strengthening and expanding the powers of Panchayats in India?
a) Rajamannar Committee
b) Ashok Mehta Committee
c) Rajinder Sachar Committee
d) Mandal Commission

180. The Panchayati Raj system in India has its roots in which ancient governing body?
a) Gram Sabha
b) Zila Parishad
c) State Legislative Assembly
d) Rajya Sabha

181. What is the term used for the council of elders in a traditional Indian village?
a) Gram Panchayat
b) Panchayat Samiti
c) Gram Sabha
d) Nyaya Panchayat

182. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 is related to which aspect of governance?
a) Local self-government
b) State reorganization
c) Language policy
d) Economic planning

183. Who has the authority to elect members of the Panchayati Raj institutions?
a) President of India
b) Governor of the state
c) Local residents
d) Prime Minister

184. Which level of Panchayat is responsible for overseeing multiple villages?

a) Village Panchayat
b) Block Panchayat
c) District Panchayat
d) State Panchayat

185. Which committee recommended the establishment of Municipalities in India?

a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
b) Ashok Mehta Committee
c) L.M. Singhvi Committee
d) Jawaharlal Nehru Committee

186. What is the term used for the village-level assembly in the Panchayati Raj system?
a) Lok Sabha
b) Gram Sabha
c) Panchayat Samiti
d) Vidhan Sabha

187. Who is the head of a Gram Panchayat?

a) Sarpanch
b) Mukhiya
c) Pradhan
d) Panchayat President

188. Which of the following is not a function of the Panchayati Raj institutions?
a) Implementing rural development programs
b) Collecting income tax
c) Promoting local economic development
d) Maintaining village-level infrastructure
189. Which state was the first to implement the Panchayati Raj system?
a) Kerala
b) West Bengal
c) Rajasthan
d) Maharashtra

190. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 is related to which aspect of governance?
a) Local self-government
b) State reorganization
c) Language policy
d) Economic planning

191. Who has the authority to dissolve a Panchayat in India?

a) Prime Minister
b) President of India
c) Governor of the state
d) Chief Minister

192. Which constitutional amendment granted constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 73rd Amendment
d) 74th Amendment

193. The term 'Panchayat Raj' literally translates to:

a) Rule of the people
b) Rule of the village council
c) Rule of the elders
d) Rule of the monarch

194. What is the primary aim of the Panchayati Raj institutions in India?
a) To centralize power
b) To promote local self-governance
c) To reduce democracy
d) To eliminate rural development

195. When did the concept of Panchayati Raj in India find its roots?
A) British Period
B) Mughal Period
C) Ancient Times
D) Post-Independence Period

196. Who chaired the committee that recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj
system in India?
A) Balwant Rai Mehta
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) B.R. Ambedkar

197. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed in which year?

A) 1947
B) 1957
C) 1978
D) 1992
198. Which constitutional amendment introduced provisions for Panchayats in India?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 73rd Amendment
C) 74th Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
199. Which level of government is not part of the three-tier Panchayati Raj system?
A) Village
B) State
C) Block/Intermediate
D) District

200. Who was the chairman of the committee appointed to review the working of Panchayati Raj
institutions in 1978?
A) Balwant Rai Mehta
B) Ashok Mehta
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) B.R. Ambedkar
201. Which constitutional amendment introduced provisions for Municipalities in India?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 73rd Amendment
C) 74th Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
202. The term "Panchayat" refers to:
A) A council of five elders
B) A council of ten leaders
C) A council of religious leaders
D) A council of tribal chiefs
203. Which British reforms introduced some provisions for local self-governance in India?
A) Simon Commission
B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
C) Government of India Act, 1935
D) Rowlatt Act
204. Who emphasized the need for establishing Panchayats as institutions of self-governance in the Indian
Constitution?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
205. Which of the following is not a tier of the Panchayati Raj system?
A) Gram Panchayat
B) Mandal Panchayat
C) Zila Parishad
D) Nagar Nigam
206. The Panchayati Raj system is primarily concerned with governance at which level?
A) National
B) State
C) Local
D) Regional
207. The Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed in which year?
A) 1957
B) 1978
C) 1989
D) 1992
208. Which committee recommended strengthening the Panchayats and expanding their powers?
A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
B) Simon Commission
C) Nehru Committee
D) Sarkaria Commission
209. Which of the following is not a feature of the Panchayati Raj system?
A) Three-tier structure
B) Elected representatives
C) Appointment by the central government
D) Decentralization of power
210. The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 pertains to which aspect of governance?
A) Panchayati Raj Institutions
B) Municipalities
C) Judiciary
D) Education
211. The Panchayati Raj system aims to promote:
A) Centralization of power
B) Economic inequality
C) Grassroots democracy
 D) Urbanization
212. The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 introduced provisions for governance at which level?
A) Village
B) Block/Intermediate
C) District
D) Urban Local Bodies
213. Who is responsible for implementing various government programs at the grassroots level through
Panchayati Raj institutions?
A) State Government
B) District Collector
C) Central Government
D) Elected Representatives
214. The Panchayati Raj system in India was significantly influenced by the principles of:
A) Autocracy
B) Feudalism
C) Democracy
D) Monarchy

215. What does "government" primarily refer to?

 A) Processes and structures in a society

 B) Decision-making in a society
 C) Formal structures and institutions ruling a society
 D) Collaboration between public and private entities

216. Which branch of government is responsible for making laws?

 A) Executive
 B) Legislative
 C) Judicial
 D) Administrative

217. What does "governance" encompass beyond formal government institutions?

 A) Only political processes

 B) Both public and private sector entities
 C) Only civil society organizations
 D) Only international organizations

218. Which is a key component of good governance?

 A) Secrecy
 B) Accountability
 C) Exclusivity
 D) Centralization

219. What is the primary function of the judicial branch of government?

 A) Law enforcement
 B) Law interpretation and enforcement
 C) Lawmaking
 D) Public administration

220. In the context of governance, what does "transparency" imply?

 A) Openness and clarity in decision-making

 B) Limited information access
 C) Confidential decision-making
 D) No public involvement

221. Which term is broader and more encompassing – government or governance?

 A) Government
 B) Governance

222. What does the concept of "Panchayati Raj" relate to in India?

 A) Urban governance
 B) Rural governance
 C) State governance
 D) Central government

223. Who is the head of the executive branch in India?

 A) President
 B) Prime Minister
 C) Chief Justice
 D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

224. What is the highest judicial authority in India?

 A) High Court
 B) District Court
 C) Supreme Court
 D) Constitutional Court

225. What does "rule of law" signify in the context of governance?

 A) Arbitrary rule by the government

 B) Adherence to established laws
 C) Lawlessness
 D) Limited legal framework

226. In a democracy, who elects the members of the legislative branch?

 A) Executive
 B) Judiciary
 C) People
 D) Administrative agencies

227. Which is a key feature of good governance related to citizens?

 A) Exclusion
 B) Participation
 C) Secrecy
 D) Centralization

228. What does the term "bicameral" refer to in the context of government?

 A) Two-headed executive
 B) Two branches of government
 C) Two legislative chambers
 D) Two-tier judiciary

229. What is the primary purpose of local governance structures like Panchayati Raj?

 A) Centralized decision-making
 B) Decentralized governance
 C) Exclusion of local communities
 D) Urban planning only

230. What does the Election Commission of India oversee?

 A) Executive decisions
 B) Legislative sessions
 C) Judicial appointments
 D) Electoral processes

231. What is the role of civil society in governance?

 A) Solely economic activities

 B) Limited advocacy
 C) Public engagement and advocacy
 D) Administrative functions

232. What term is often associated with the concept of good governance?

 A) Secrecy
 B) Autocracy
 C) Democracy
 D) Oligarchy

233. Who is the ceremonial head of state in India?

 A) Prime Minister
 B) President
 C) Chief Justice
 D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
 234. What is the fundamental law of India that establishes the country's political principles?

 A) Magna Carta
 B) Constitution of India
 C) Charter of Rights
 D) Parliamentary Act

235. Inclusive governance aims to:

A) Concentrate power within certain communities

B) Exclude marginalized groups from decision-making

C) Promote fair representation and participation of diverse groups

D) Limit access to resources for disadvantaged communities

236. Reservation policies in India are intended to:

A) Exclude certain groups from educational institutions

B) Promote inclusion of historically marginalized communities

C) Favor economically advantaged individuals

D) Limit access to government jobs

237. Which institution in India is responsible for implementing decentralized governance?

A) Parliament

B) State Assemblies

C) Panchayati Raj institutions

D) Supreme Court

238. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims to:

A) Promote unemployment among rural populations

B) Provide food security to urban populations

C) Ensure employment for rural households

D) Exclude rural populations from welfare schemes

239. Exclusion in governance may occur due to:

A) Economic disparities

B) Fair representation of diverse groups

C) Gender equality
 D) Effective implementation of social welfare schemes

240. Which factor does NOT contribute to exclusion in governance?

A) Caste and religion-based discrimination

B) Economic disparities

C) Digital divide

D) Gender equality

241. Decentralization in governance involves:

A) Concentrating power at the national level

B) Giving local communities a say in their own development

C) Eliminating local government structures

D) Excluding marginalized groups from decision-making

242. The digital divide refers to:

A) Differences in access to technology and internet services

B) Equal access to digital resources for all communities

C) Limiting technology usage to certain age groups

D) Ensuring fair representation in online forums

243. Which social welfare scheme aims to provide food security to vulnerable populations?

A) MGNREGA

B) Public Distribution System (PDS)

C) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)

D) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

244. Political nepotism may lead to:

A) Fair representation of diverse groups
B) Exclusion of certain families or communities from power
C) Strengthening of democratic institutions
D) Enhanced transparency in governance

245. Which group is NOT typically included in reservation policies in India?

A) Scheduled Castes (SCs)

B) Scheduled Tribes (STs)
C) Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
D) Upper caste Hindus

246. Inclusive governance aims to address:

A) Linguistic and regional disparities
B) Political monopolization by certain groups
C) Corruption in government
D) Digital equality among citizens

247. Economic inequalities can contribute to:

A) Promotion of social welfare schemes
B) Inclusion of disadvantaged groups in governance
C) Exclusion of certain communities from resources and opportunities
D) Strengthening of democratic institutions

248. Panchayati Raj institutions are responsible for:

A) Centralizing power at the state level
B) Excluding rural populations from decision-making
C) Promoting local self-governance
D) Limiting access to resources for rural communities

249. Exclusion in governance may NOT occur due to:

A) Economic disparities
B) Gender equality
C) Caste and religion-based discrimination
D) Lack of education

250. Corruption in governance can lead to:

A) Strengthening of democratic institutions
B) Fair distribution of resources
C) Exclusion of marginalized groups from benefits
D) Promotion of transparency and accountability

251. The Public Distribution System (PDS) aims to provide:

A) Employment opportunities in rural areas
B) Educational subsidies for economically disadvantaged students
 C) Food security to vulnerable populations
D) Healthcare facilities to urban populations

252. Which factor is NOT a challenge to inclusive governance in India?

A) Corruption
B) Lack of education
C) Fair representation of diverse groups
D) Political nepotism

253. Gender disparities in governance may result in:

A) Fair representation of women in decision-making roles

B) Exclusion of women from political participation

C) Equal access to resources for men and women

D) Elimination of gender-based discrimination

254. Which policy is aimed at promoting the inclusion of historically marginalized communities in
educational institutions and government jobs?
A) Reservation policies
B) Economic liberalization
C) Privatization of public services
D) Digitalization initiatives
255. What is the primary focus of governance in India?
A) Economic development
B) Social welfare
C) Political stability
D) All of the above
256. Which document serves as the supreme law guiding governance in India?
A) Magna Carta
B) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
C) Constitution of India
D) Geneva Conventions
257. India is known for being the world's largest _____.
A) Monarchy
B) Republic
C) Oligarchy
D) Autocracy
258. Which level of government is responsible for the formulation of policies and laws at the national level
in India?
A) Local government
B) State government
C) Central government
D) Municipal government
259. The division of powers between the central and state governments in India reflects a _____ structure.
A) Unitary
B) Confederal
C) Federal
D) Parliamentary
260. What plays a crucial role in implementing government policies and programs in India?
A) Military
B) Civil society organizations
C) Judiciary
D) Bureaucracy
261. Which of the following ensures that individuals and institutions are subject to the law in India?
A) Parliament
B) Bureaucracy
C) Rule of Law
D) Judiciary

262. Good governance emphasizes all of the following except _____.

A) Transparency
B) Accountability
C) Autocracy
D) Responsiveness

263. Which act promotes transparency and accountability in governance by providing citizens the right to
access information held by public authorities?
A) Right to Education Act
B) Right to Information Act
C) Right to Health Act
D) Right to Employment Act

264. What is considered essential for good governance in India?

A) Citizen participation
B) Authoritarianism
C) Secrecy
D) Nepotism

265. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 25
266. The Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression is guaranteed under which article?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19(1)(a)
c) Article 21
d) Article 25
267. Which of the following rights is NOT included in Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?
a) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
b) Right to Assemble Peacefully
c) Right to Bear Arms
d) Right to Form Associations or Unions
268. Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides protection against:
a) Discrimination on the grounds of religion
b) Double jeopardy and self-incrimination
c) Arbitrary arrest and detention
d) Forced labor
269. The Right to Freedom of Religion is enshrined in which article?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 25
270. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to:
a) Equality before law
b) Protection of life and personal liberty
c) Practice any profession
d) Freedom of religion
271. Which article of the Indian Constitution protects individuals from being discriminated against on the
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 15

272. Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides safeguards against:

a) Discrimination on the basis of religion
b) Untouchability
c) Arrest and detention
d) Right to property
273. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is guaranteed under which article?
a) Article 32
b) Article 35
c) Article 38
d) Article 40
274. Which article of the Indian Constitution ensures the right to education?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21A
d) Article 25
275. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 25
276. The Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression can be restricted on grounds of:
a) Religion
b) Race
c) Sovereignty and integrity of India
d) Language

277. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Assemble Peacefully and Without
Arms?
a) Article 19(1)(a)
b) Article 19(1)(b)
c) Article 19(1)(c)
d) Article 19(1)(d)

278. Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides protection against:

a) Discrimination on the grounds of religion
 b) Double jeopardy and self-incrimination
c) Arbitrary arrest and detention
d) Forced labor

279. The Right to Freedom of Religion is enshrined in which article?

a) Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 25
d) Article 29

280. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Practice any Profession, or to Carry on
any Occupation, Trade, or Business?
a) Article 19(1)(a)
b) Article 19(1)(b)
c) Article 19(1)(c)
d) Article 19(1)(g)

281. Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides safeguards against:

a) Discrimination on the basis of religion
b) Untouchability
c) Arrest and detention
d) Right to property

282. The Right to Education is guaranteed under which article?

a) Article 21
b) Article 23
c) Article 24
d) Article 21A

283. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees Protection in Respect of Conviction for Offences?
a) Article 20
b) Article 22
c) Article 23
d) Article 24

284. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Right against Exploitation?
a) Article 21
b) Article 22
c) Article 23
d) Article 24

285. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Freedom of:

a) Speech
b) Religion
c) Movement
d) Association

286. The Right to Life and Personal Liberty is guaranteed under which article?
a) Article 19
b) Article 20
c) Article 21
d) Article 22

287. Article 26 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Freedom to:

a) Speech and expression
b) Religion and conscience
c) Assemble peacefully
d) Bear arms

288. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Protection of Interests of Minorities?
a) Article 27
b) Article 28
c) Article 29
d) Article 30

289. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is guaranteed under which article?

a) Article 31
b) Article 32
c) Article 33
d) Article 34

290. Article 28 of the Indian Constitution deals with:

a) Right to Freedom of Religion
b) Right to Education
c) Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in educational institutions
d) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.

291. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right of Property?
a) Article 29
b) Article 30
c) Article 31
d) Article 32

292. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right of:
a) Protection against arrest and detention
b) Protection of interests of minorities
c) Education
d) Property

293. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Protection of Interests of Minorities?
a) Article 27
b) Article 28
c) Article 29
d) Article 30

294. Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right of:
a) Protection against arrest and detention
b) Protection of interests of minorities
c) Education
d) Property

295. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Fundamental Duties?
a) Part III
b) Part IV
c) Part IVA
d) Part I

296. How many Fundamental Duties are enshrined in the Indian Constitution?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11

297. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the duty to abide by the Constitution and respect its
ideals and institutions?
a) Article 50A
b) Article 51A
c) Article 52A
d) Article 53A

298. Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by which amendment?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 73rd Amendment
d) 86th Amendment

299. Which Fundamental Duty emphasizes the obligation to protect and improve the natural environment?
a) To safeguard public property
b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom
c) To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform
d) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife

300. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution?
a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions
b) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
d) To promote untouchability and caste-based discrimination

301. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the duty of parents or guardians to provide
opportunities for education to their children?
a) Article 45A
b) Article 49A
c) Article 50A
d) Article 51A

302. Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are enforceable by:

a) The President
b) The Supreme Court
c) The Prime Minister
d) The Election Commission

303. Which Fundamental Duty emphasizes the promotion of harmony and the spirit of common
brotherhood amongst all the people of India?
a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions
b) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
c) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities
d) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife

304. The Fundamental Duties were recommended by which committee?

a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
b) Ashok Mehta Committee
c) Swaran Singh Committee
d) K. Santhanam Committee

305. What is the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha, the Upper House of the Indian Parliament?
a) 250
b) 552
c) 245
d) 545

306. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha, the Lower House
of Parliament?
a) Article 80
b) Article 81
c) Article 82
d) Article 83

307. The Rajya Sabha represents the interests of:

a) The President
b) The Union Territories
c) The states and union territories
d) The armed forces

308. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?

a) President
b) Vice President
c) Speaker
d) Prime Minister

309. What is the minimum age requirement to become a member of the Lok Sabha?
a) 25 years
b) 30 years
c) 35 years
d) 21 years

310. Which house of Parliament has the power to introduce a Money Bill?
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
d) Neither Lok Sabha nor Rajya Sabha

311. Who appoints the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
d) Leader of the Opposition

312. How many Anglo-Indians can be nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 12
d) None

313. Which parliamentary house has the power to initiate the impeachment of the President of India?
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
d) Neither Lok Sabha nor Rajya Sabha

314. The term of a member of the Rajya Sabha is:

a) 2 years
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 3 years

315. Which challenge related to caste may hinder the effective implementation of decentralization
in India?
 A) Dominant caste monopolization
 B) Gender-based budgeting
 C) Economic disparities
 D) Political interference
316. What is a primary obstacle to women's active participation in local governance in India?
  A) Patriarchal norms
 B) Lack of economic disparities
 C) Political interference
 D) Access to education
317. In decentralized systems, which factor may lead to uneven development due to the influence
of wealthier sections?
 A) Economic disparities
 B) Gender-based budgeting
 C) Political interference
 D) Access to information

318. What challenge may arise due to political interference at the local level in decentralized
governance?
 A) Lack of economic disparities
 B) Dominant caste monopolization
 C) Unequal access to information
 D) Undermining principles of democracy

319. In areas with ethnic diversity, what may be a consequence of identity-based politics at the
local level?
 A) Promotion of inclusive policies
 B) Economic disparities
 C) Neglect of broader developmental issues
 D) Lack of political awareness

320. What challenge might hinder the representation of historically disadvantaged groups in
decentralized governance?
 A) Political interference
 B) Dominant caste monopolization
 C) Lack of economic disparities
 D) Access to education

321. Which factor contributes to the perpetuation of patriarchal norms in local governance?
 A) Lack of political awareness
 B) Access to education
 C) Resistance to women holding leadership positions
 D) Promotion of inclusive policies

322. Which aspect may widen the gap between the privileged and marginalized in decentralized
governance?
 A) Economic disparities
 B) Dominant caste monopolization
 C) Political interference
 D) Access to information

323. What may be a consequence of lack of political awareness among the local population in
decentralized governance?
 A) Promotion of inclusive policies
 B) Undermining principles of democracy
 C) Access to education
 D) Economic disparities

324. What challenge may arise in areas with ethnic diversity due to narrow ethnic interests
dominating local governance?
  A) Neglect of broader developmental issues
 B) Promotion of inclusive policies
 C) Access to education
 D) Lack of political awareness

325. Which challenge might result in the marginalization of historically disadvantaged groups in
decentralized governance?
 A) Economic disparities
 B) Lack of political awareness
 C) Dominant caste monopolization
 D) Access to education

326. What obstacle may hinder the effective implementation of gender-based budgeting in local
governance?
 A) Patriarchal norms
 B) Economic disparities
 C) Access to education
 D) Promotion of inclusive policies

327. Which factor may contribute to the neglect of the needs of economically weaker sections in
decentralized governance?
 A) Economic disparities
 B) Dominant caste monopolization
 C) Political interference
 D) Access to information

328. What challenge may arise due to political interference at the local level in decentralized
governance?
 A) Lack of economic disparities
 B) Undermining principles of democracy
 C) Gender-based budgeting
 D) Access to education

329. In areas with ethnic diversity, what may be a consequence of identity-based politics at the
local level?
 A) Neglect of broader developmental issues
 B) Promotion of inclusive policies
 C) Access to education
 D) Lack of political awareness

330. What do the 73rd and 74th Amendments to the Indian Constitution pertain to?
A) Education reforms
B) Electoral reforms
C) Local self-government
D) Judicial reforms

331. Which of the following amendments is also known as the Panchayati Raj Act?
A) 73rd Amendment
B) 74th Amendment
C) 75th Amendment
D) 72nd Amendment

332. The 73rd Amendment to the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of Panchayati Raj
institutions at how many levels?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

333. Which tier of government does the 73rd Amendment focus on?
A) National
B) State
C) Local
D) Regional

334. The 74th Amendment to the Indian Constitution is also known as:
A) Panchayati Raj Act
B) Nagarpalika Act
C) Gram Panchayat Act
D) Urban Development Act

335. Which of the following is NOT one of the urban local bodies established under the 74th Amendment?
A) Municipalities
B) Municipal Corporations
C) Nagar Panchayats
D) Gram Panchayats

336. What is the objective of the 73rd and 74th Amendments?

A) Centralization of power
B) Decentralization of power
C) Privatization of government services
D) Limiting democratic participation

337. Which of the following is mandated by both the 73rd and 74th Amendments?
A) Reservation of seats for women
B) Reservation of seats for religious minorities
C) Reservation of seats for upper castes
D) Reservation of seats for industrialists

338. In which year were the 73rd and 74th Amendments to the Indian Constitution passed?
A) 1990
B) 1992
C) 1995
D) 1998

339. The 74th Amendment primarily focuses on governance in:

A) Rural areas
B) Urban areas
C) Tribal areas
D) Coastal areas

340. What is the purpose of the Preamble in the Constitution of India?

a) To list the fundamental rights of citizens
b) To outline the powers of the President
c) To introduce the key objectives and values of the Constitution
d) To define the electoral process
341. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the Preamble as an objective of the Indian state?
a) Liberty
b) Fraternity
c) Equality
d) Prosperity

342. The term "Sovereign" in the Preamble implies:

a) Rule by a monarch
b) Independence from external control
c) Religious freedom
d) Equal rights for all citizens

343. Which word in the Preamble emphasizes social harmony and unity among citizens?
a) Justice
b) Liberty
c) Fraternity
d) Equality

344. The Preamble declares India to be a:

a) Monarchy
b) Republic
c) Federal State
d) Totalitarian state

345. Which of the following principles is emphasized in the Preamble?

a) Autocracy
b) Meritocracy
c) Democracy
d) Plutocracy.
346. What does the term "Secular" in the Preamble signify?
a) The dominance of one religion over others
b) The absence of religious beliefs
c) Equality of all religions
d) The separation of religion from the state
347. Which part of the Constitution derives its authority from the Preamble?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Duties
d) President's powers

348. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was adopted on:

a) January 26, 1949
b) January 26, 1950
c) August 15, 1947
d) November 26, 1949

349. The Preamble of the Constitution serves as a guiding principle for:

a) Law enforcement agencies
b) Political parties
c) The judiciary
d) All citizens and institutions of the country

350. Which term in the Preamble signifies the assurance of justice, whether social, economic, or
political?
a) Socialist
b) Secular
c) Democratic
d) Republic