09/03/2024 Phase-1_Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current;
CC-474
Electromagnetic Waves CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
Chemistry : Amines, Coordination Compounds, The d & f-Block Elements
Botany : Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Microbes in Human Welfare
Zoology : Evolution, Human Health & Disease

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. The work done in rotating a bar magnet of 3. In an AC circuit V and I are given by V = 50
magnetic moment M from its stable sin(100 πt) volt,
equilibrium position to a position θ = 90° in π
I = 100 sin[100πt + ]mA.
uniform magnetic field 3

(1) MB The power dissipated in the circuit is

(2) – MB (1) 2.5 W
(3) 2 MBCC-474 CC-474 (2) CC-474
5W CC-474
(4) – 2 MB (3) 0.5 W
(4) 1.25 W
2. An ideal transformer increases the input
current 4 A to 24 A at the secondary. If the 4. The magnetic flux linked with a coil varies
number of turns in the primary coil is 330, with time as ϕ= 3t2 + 4t + 9 in weber. What
the number of turns in the secondary coil is is the induced emf at t = 2 second?
(1) 60 (1) 13 V
(2) 65 (2) 19 V
(3) 55 (3) –16 V
(4) 45 (4) –12 V

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NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

5. A circular loop of area 2.4 cm2 , carrying 10. A charged particle of charge q and mass m
current 4 A is placed in a magnetic field of is moving with velocity v on a circular path in
0.1 T perpendicular to the plane of loop. The uniform magnetic field B. Its time period is
torque acting on the loop will be independent of
(1) Zero (1) m
(2) 9.6 × 10–4 N m (2) v
(3) 4.8 × 10–2 N m (3) q
(4) B
(4) 9.6 × 10–6 N m

11. The power factor of the circuit shown in

6. In an ac circuit I = 100 sin 200 πt. The time figure is
required for the current to achieve its peak
value from zero will be
(1) 1 sec
100

(2) 1
CC-474
sec CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
200

(3) 1
sec
300

(4) 1
sec
400

(1) 0.2
7. Lorentz force is given by
(2) 0.6
(1) → → → →
F = q [2 E + ( B × v )] (3) 0.8
(4) 0.4
(2) → → → →
F =q [E – ( v × B )]
12. Two long parallel straight wires A and B
(3) → → → → separated by distance 6 cm carry currents of
F =q [E – ( v · B )] I and 2I respectively in the same direction.
The distance from B at which net magnetic
(4) → → → field is zero, is
¯¯
¯
F = q [ E + ( v × B )] (1) 2 cm
(2) 1 cm
(3) 5 cm
8. The given rod AB is rotated with an angular
(4) 4 cm
speed of 20 rpm in a uniform transverse
magnetic field of magnitude 10 T, about its
centre O. The emf induced between points A 13. An ac circuit consists of an inductor of
and B is inductance 0.5 H and a capacitor of
capacitance 8 μF in series. The current in
the circuit is maximum when the angular
frequency of ac source is
(1) 500 rad/s
(2) 2 × 105 rad/s
(3) 4000 rad/s
(4) 5000 rad/s
(1) 40 π
V
3
14. A charged particle moves in a magnetic
(2)
CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
160 π
V →
ˆ
3
field B = 10 i with initial velocity
(3) 80 π →
ˆ ˆ
3
V u = 5 i + 4j . The path of the particle will
be
(4) Zero
(1) Straight line
(2) Circle
9. If a current of 5 A flowing in a coil of self
(3) Helical
inductance 2 mH is cut off in 10 ms, then
change in magnetic flux, is (4) None
(1) 10–2 Wb
(2) 1 Wb
(3) 100 Wb
(4) 0.1 Wb

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NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

15. Two wires of same length are shaped into a 21. A square loop of side l is placed at a
square and a circle. If they carry same separation a with a very long wire AB, in
current, then ratio of magnetic moment is same plane. If the current through BA is
(1) 4 : π increasing in the direction shown, the
induced current produced in the loop is
(2) π : 4

(3) π : 2

(4) 2 : π

16. A one meter long wire is lying at right angles

to the magnetic field. A force of 10 N is
acting on it in magnetic field of 1 T. The
current flowing in it will be
(1) 100 A
(2) 10 A
(3) 1 ACC-474 CC-474 (1) CC-474
Clockwise CC-474
(4) Zero (2) Anti-clockwise
(3) Zero
17. A coil of resistance 100 Ω is placed in a (4) First clockwise then anti-clockwise
magnetic field. If the magnetic flux ϕ (in Wb)
linked with the coil varies with time t(in s) as
ϕ = 40t2 + 8. The current in the coil at time t = 22. A 100 Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100 Ω
1 s is reactance are connected in series across a
220 V source. The peak value of the
(1) 0.8 A
displacement current is
(2) 1.6 A
(1) 2.2 A
(3) 2.4 A
(2) 11 A
(4) 1.0 A
(3) 4.4 A
–
(4) 11√2 A
18. Light with an energy flux of 18 W/cm2 falls
on a non-reflecting surface at normal
incidence. If the surface has an area of 20 23. Which of the following waves has the
longest wavelength?
cm2 , find the average force exerted on the
surface during a 30 minutes time span. (1) Television and FM radio
(1) 2.4 × 10–6 N (2) Infrared
(2) 1.2 × 10–6 N (3) X-rays
(4) Gamma rays
(3) 4.8 × 10–6 N
(4) 3.6 × 10–6 N
24. The electric and magnetic field of an
electromagnetic wave are
19. The rms value of electric field at a distance r (1) In phase and parallel to each other and
from a source of electromagnetic wave of also parallel to direction of propogation
power P is (Assuming source efficiency is of wave
100%) (2) In phase, parallel to each other and
(ԑ : Permittivity of free space) perpendicular to direction of
−−− − −
(1) P propagation of wave
√
(3) In phase and perpendicular to each
2
2πr cε

−−−−−
(2) P other and also perpendicular to
√
CC-474
4πr cε
2
CC-474 CC-474
direction of propagation of waveCC-474
−−−−−
(3) P (4) Out of phase, perpendicular to each
√
8πr cε
2 other and perpendicular to direction of
−−−− propagation of wave
(4) 2P
√
2
πr cε

20. Two coils have self inductances 4 mH and

16 mH respectively. The coefficient of mutual
inductance between the coils cannot be
(1) 8 mH
(2) 6 mH
(3) 4 mH
(4) 10 mH

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NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

25. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (χ) 28. If an electron enters into a uniform magnetic
with absolute temperature (T) for a field with its velocity pointing in the same
diamagnetic material is direction as the magnetic field, then--
(1) (1) The electron will turn to its right
(2) The electron will turn to its left
(3) The velocity of the electron will
increase
(4) The velocity of the electron will remain
unchanged
(2)
29. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is
placed in a uniform magnetic field B. The
area enclosed by the loop is A. If there are n
turns in the loop the torque on the loop is
given by
(3)
CC-474 CC-474 (1) CC-474
→ → CC-474
ni A × B

(2) → →
ni A · B

(3) 1
→ →

2
(i A × B )

(4) (4) 1
→ →

2
(i A · B )

30. Figure shows two concentric loops of radii R

and r (R >> r). A current i is passed through
the outer loop. Mutual inductance of the
arrangement is
26. The current carrying wire and the rod AB are
in the same plane. The rod moves parallel to
the wire with a velocity v. Which one of the
following statements is true about induced
emf in the rod?

(1) μ πr
0
2

(2) μ πR
2

(1) End A will be at lower potential with 0

2r
respect to B
(3) μ πr
2

(2) A and B will be at the same potential

0

2R

(3) There will be no induced emf in the rod (4) μ πR

2
0

(4) Potential at A will be higher than that at r

B
31. →

27.
CC-474 CC-474
The figure shows a given circuit. At the
TheCC-474
dot product of velocity ( c )CC-474
and
instant, the current i = 2 A and it is →
electric field vector E of an
decreasing at a rate 2 × 103 A/s, then Vx – electromagnetic wave is equal to
Vy is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) cE
(1) 11 V (4) c
E
(2) 21 V
(3) –11 V
(4) –21 V

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NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

32. The magnetism of a bar magnet is mainly 34. The magnetic susceptibility is positive for
due to (1) Diamagnetic material only
(1) Earth’s magnetism (2) Paramagnetic material only
(2) Earth’s magnet (3) Ferromagnetic material only
(3) Cosmic rays (4) Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic
(4) The spin motion of electron material

33. Two identical bar magnets each of magnetic 35. Magnetic flux due to a magnetic field ˆ
2 Tj ,
moment 8 A m2 are oriented as shown in ˆ ˆ
figure. The net magnetic moment is through an area 4 m
2
( i + j) is

(1) 16 Wb
(2) 8 Wb
(3) 4 Wb
(4) 2 Wb
CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474

(1) 8 A m2
(2) 4 A m2
–
(3) 8√3A m
2

–
(4) 4√3A m
2

SECTION-B

36. The ratio of displacement current and 39. A proton is revolving in a circular path with
conduction current in a circuit is equal to constant speed. Angle between angular
(1) ε0 momentum and magnetic dipole moment
associated with it is
(2) 1
ε0 (1) 0º
(3) 1 (2) 45º
(4) 1
(3) 90º
μ ε
√ 0 0
(4) 180º

37. Two long and parallel wires are at a distance

of 0.1 m and a current of 5 A is flowing in 40. Choose the wrong statement for
each of these wires. The force per unit electromagnetic wave. They
length due to these wires will be (1) Are transverse in nature
(1) 5 × 10–5 N/m (2) Travel in vacuum with the speed of
light
(2) 5 × 10–3 N/m
(3) Are produced by accelerated charges
(3) 2.5 × 10–5 N/m
(4) Travel with same speed in all mediums
(4) 2.5 × 10–4 N/m
41. An AC supply has RMS voltage 30 V which
38. In an LRCC-474 CC-474
circuit current at t = 0 is 20 A. After 2 CC-474
is fed in a pure resistance of 10 CC-474
Ω. The
second current in the circuit decreased by 2 average power dissipated in this is
A. Time constant of the circuit is (in second) (1) 99 watt
(1) 9 (2) 45 watt
ln[ ]
10
(3) 180 watt
(2) 2
(4) 90 watt
10
ln[ ]
9

(3) 9
2 ln[ ]
10

(4) 1
2 ln[ ]
10

5
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

42. A bar magnet has magnetic moment M. It is 47. A long straight wire is placed along the axis
bent into a semicircle. The new magnetic of a circular ring of radius R. The mutual
momentum will be inductance of this system is
(1) 2M (1) Zero
π
(2) μ R
(2)
0
M
2
2π

(3) M (3) μ πR
0

π 2

(4) M (4) μ0

43. The resonance frequency of L–C–R series 48. Relative permeability of iron is 5500, then its
10
circuit (when L = mH and C = 0.04 μF)
2 magnetic susceptibility will be
π

is approximately (1) 5500 × 107

(1) 25 kHz (2) 5500 × 10–7
(2) 250CC-474 CC-474 (3) CC-474 CC-474
kHz
5501
(3) 2.5 kHz
(4) 5499
(4) 25 MHz

49. A thin flexible wire loop carrying current I is

44. →
ˆ placed in a uniform magnetic field B pointing
There exist a magnetic field in
B = B0 tk
out of the plane of the coil as shown in
a circular region. A circular conducting loop
figure. The loop will tend to
of radius r and resistance R is placed with its
plane in xy plane. Determine the current
through the loop
(1) B πR 0
2

clockwise
r

(2) B0 π R
2

clockwise
2r

(3) B0 π r
2

clockwise
R

(4) B0 π r
2

R
anticlockwise (1) Move towards right
(2) Move towards left
(3) Contract
45. The resistance of galvanometer is 20 Ω and
the maximum current which can be passed (4) Expand
through it is 0.004 A. What shunt resistance
should be connected to it to convert it into an
50. A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5
ammeter of range 0–0.1 A
m carries a current of 2 A. It is suspended in
(1) 0.2 Ω mid-air by a uniform magnetic field B. The
(2) 0.02 Ω magnitude of B (in tesla) is
(3) 0.08 Ω (1) 2
(4) 0.8 Ω (2) 1.5
(3) 0.55
46. A current carrying wire is making a circular (4) 0.65
loop of single turn is producing a magnetic
field B at its centre. If same wire is converted
into three number of turns with same current
then magnetic field at its centre will be
(1) 9B CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
(2) 3B
(3) B
9

(4) B

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

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NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

51. In which of the following reactions, primary 57. Correct order of wavelengths of light
amines are formed? absorbed by the given complexes is
Br 2 +NaOH 3− 3− 3+
[CrF6 ] [Cr (CN) ] [Cr ( H2 O) ]
(i) CH3 CON H2 −−−−−→ 6 6
(i) (ii) (iii)

(ii) 3+
[Cr (en) ]
3
(iv)

(1) (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii)

(2) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(i) LiAlH4
(3) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
(iii) CH3 CON H2 −−−−−→ (4) (iii) > (i) > (iv) > (ii)
(ii) H2 O

(i) NH3

(iv) C2 H5 Cl −−−−−−−−−−→
58. The IUPAC name of [Ni(NH3 )4 ][NiCl4 ] is
(ii) C2 H5 Cl(excess)
(1) Tetrachloridonickel (II)
CC-474
(1) (i) and (ii) only CC-474 CC-474
tetraamminenickel (II) CC-474
(2) (i) and (iii) only (2) Tetraamminenickel (II)
tetrachloridonickel (II)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(3) Tetraamminenickel (II)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
tetrachloridonickelate (II)
(4) Tetraamminenickel (IV)
52. Jahn­-Teller effect is observed in high spin tetrachloridonickelate (IV)
octahedral complex of
(1) d3
59. Consider the following molecules
(2) d4
(3) d5
(4) d8

53. Aqueous solution of KCl.MgCl2 .6H2 O will

give the test of The correct order of their basic strength is
(1) Only Cl– (1) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(2) Only Mg2+ (2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) Mg2+ & K+ (3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv)
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
(4) K+, Cl– and Mg2+

60. Spin only magnetic moment of [Mn(CN)6 ]3–

54. Mischmetall contains maximum percent of
is
(1) Lanthanoid metal
(1) 4.2 BM
(2) Carbon
(2) 4.9 BM
(3) Calcium
(3) 2.8 BM
(4) Aluminium
(4) 1.7 BM

55. Hybridisation and magnetic moment of Cu in

61. Heteroleptic complex containing bidentate
[Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+ are ligand is
(1) dsp2 , 0 BM (1) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl
(2) sp3CC-474
,0M CC-474 (2) CC-474
[Co(H2 O)6 ]Cl3 CC-474
–
(3) sp3 , √3 BM (3) K[Co(H2 O)2 (Cl)(CN)3 ]
–
(4) dsp2 , √3 BM (4) [Co(en)2 ClBr]I

56. Which kind of isomerism is exhibited by the

octahedral complex, [Co(NH 3 )4 Br 2 ]Cl?
(1) Geometrical and Ionization
(2) Geometrical and Optical
(3) Optical and Ionization
(4) Only Geometrical

7
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

62. One mole of which octahedral complex of 69. Find out the product with maximum yield in
cobalt will give 2 moles of AgCl as the following reaction.
precipitate when reacts with excess of silver
nitrate solution?
(1) CoCl · 6NH
3 3
(2) CoCl · 4NH
3 3
(3) CoCl3 · 5NH3 (1)
(4) CoCl3 · 3NH3

63. Aniline and benzylamine can be chemically

distinguished by
(1) Benzenesulphonyl chloride
(2) Br2 /water (2)
CC-474
(3) aq.HCl CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
(4) CHCl3 /KOH/Δ

64. Consider the following statements about

interstitial compounds
(i) They are chemically inert
(3)
(ii) They are very hard
(iii) They retain metallic conductivity
The correct statements are
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

65. In the reaction,

The colour of the compound A is 70. Which of the following transition metals has
(1) Orange the highest melting point?
(2) Yellow (1) Pt
(3) Green (2) Os
(4) Blue (3) Ir
(4) W
66. Which of the following will exhibit maximum
ionic conductivity? 71. Number of Primary amines of the formula
(1) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] is
C4 H11 N

(2) K2 [Pt(en)2 Cl2 ] (1) 1

(2) 2
(3) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl
(3) 3
(4) [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3
(4) 4

67. CC-474
The nature CC-474
of CrO and Cr2 O3 is respectively CC-474 CC-474
72. Diamagnetic species among the following is
(1) Basic, Amphoteric (1) [Co (C2 O4 ) ] 3–
(2) Basic, Basic 3

(2) [Fe (CN) ]

3–

(3) Amphoteric, Acidic 6

(4) Acidic, Basic (3) [Mn (CN) ]

3–

(4) [FeF6 ]
3–

68. Correct order of ionic radii is

(1) La3+ > Ce3+ > Pr3+
(2) Ce3+ > La3+ > Pr2+
(3) Pr3+ > Ce3+ > La3+
(4) Pr3+ > La3+ > Ce3+

8
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

73. The correct statement among the following 77. Enthalpy of atomisation is least for
is (1) Mn
(1) All the lanthanoids are radioactive (2) Fe
elements
(3) Cr
(2) Lanthanoid contraction is the
accumulation of successive shrinkages (4) Ni
(3) Actinoids have +4 as most common
oxidation state 78. Find out the CFSE for high spin d4
(4) All lanthanoids are very hard metals octahedral complex
(1) – 0.6Δ0
74. Consider the following reaction. (2) – 1.2Δ0
Sn/HCl
NaNO2 /HCl (3) – 1.8Δ0
C6 H5 NO2 ⟶ A ∘
B
0−5 C
(4) – 2.0Δ0
HBF4
NaNO2
→ C D
CC-474
Cu,Δ
CC-474 79.
CC-474 CC-474
What is the product obtained in the following
Major product D of the reaction sequence is
(1) reaction:

(2)
(1)

(3)
(2)

(4)
(3)

(4)
75. Moles of oxalic acid requires to reduce 2
moles of acidified KMnO4 is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5 80. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic
number is 64. Which of the following is the
correct electronic configuration of
76. Which of the following amine will not react
gadolinium?
with Hinsberg’s reagent?
(1) [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2
(1)
(2) [Xe]4f6 5d2 6s2
(3) [Xe]4f8 6d2
CC-474 CC-474 (4) CC-474 CC-474
[Xe]4f9 5s1
(2)

(3)

(4)

9
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

81. In the given set of reactions 84. Brass is an alloy of copper and
(1) Zinc
(2) Tin
(3) Nickel
(4) Manganese

85. Given below are two statements, one is

D is labelled as Assertion and other is labelled
(1) CH3 NH2 as Reason.
(2) CH3 CH2 NH2 Assertion : Cis – [Co(en)2 Br2 ]+ is an
(3) CH3 CH2 NHCH3 optically active complex.
Reason : Cis – [Co(en)2 Br2 ]+ is an
(4) (CH3 )2 NH
octahedral complex.
In the light of above statements, choose the
82. CC-474
Activating effect of –NH2 in anilineCC-474
for CC-474
correct option. CC-474
electrophilic substitution reaction can be (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
controlled by the reason is the correct explanation of
(1) Acetylation the assertion
(2) Alkylation (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(3) Bromination explanation of the assertion
(4) Sulphonation (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
83. Correct order of basic strength of the given (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
lanthanoid hydroxides is statements
(1) Er(OH)3 > Gd(OH)3 > Ce(OH)3
(2) Ce(OH)3 > Gd(OH)3 > Er(OH)3
(3) Gd(OH)3 > Er(OH)3 > Ce(OH)3
(4) Ce(OH)3 > Er(OH)3 > Gd(OH)3

SECTION-B

86. Which of the following will give foul smell 88.

when reacts with chloroform in the presence
of ethanolic KOH
(1) N–methylethanamine
(2) Propan-1-amine
(3) N,N–dimethylmethanamine Major product P is
(4) 1–nitropropane (1) m-Nitroaniline
(2) p-Nitroaniline
87. The products obtained on heating potassium (3) Nitrobenzene
permanganate at 513 K are (4) Benzene
(1) MnO2 Only
(2) K2 MnO4 , MnO2 , O2
CC-474 CC-474 89. CC-474
Which of the following is colored? CC-474
(3) K2 MnO4 and MnO2 Only (1) Sc3+
(4) MnO2 and O2 Only (2) Ti4+
(3) Zn2+
(4) V2+

10
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

90. In reaction 94. Given below are two statements: One is

labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): [Fe(CN)6 ]3– and [FeF6 ]3–
both are octahedral complexes.
Reason (R): Both the complexes
P and S, respectively are [Fe(CN)6 ]3– and [FeF6 ]3– are formed by
(1) d2 sp3 hybridisation.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(2) explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
is false CC-474
(3) (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

(4) 95. Cu2+ in aqueous state is more stable than

Cu+ due to
(1) High heat of atomisation
(2) High heat of hydration
(3) High effective nuclear charge
(4) Low reduction potential
91. Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy of
the given metal atoms is
96. Which of the following ligands form chelate
(1) Mn > Cr > Sc with metal ion?
(2) Sc > Cr > Mn (1) Acetate
(3) Cr > Sc > Mn (2) Oxalate
(4) Mn > Sc > Cr (3) Cyanide
(4) Ammonia
92. Maximum number of coordination sites in
EDTA is
97. Consider the following sequence of
(1) 3 reactions
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

93. In which of the following carbonyls, the bond Product B is

length of CO is the highest? (1)
(1) [V(CO)6 ]–
(2) [Cr(CO)6 ]
(2)
(3) [Mn(CO)6 ]+
(4) [Fe(CO)4 ]2–
CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
(3)

(4)

11
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

98. Which of the following is not a transition 100. Given below are two statements: One is
element? labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(1) Sc labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Mo(VI) and W(VI) are found
(2) Zn
to be more stable than Cr(VI).
(3) Cu Reason (R): Cr(Vl) in the form of dichromate
(4) Mn in acidic medium is a strong reducing agent.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
99. Given below are two statements: One is below
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
labelled as Reason (R).
the reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A): Zwitter-ion in form of
the assertion
sulphanilic acid is
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
Reason (R): It contains strong acidic part (– explanation of the assertion
CC-474 +
CC-474 (3) CC-474 CC-474
Assertion is true statement but Reason
SO3 – ) and weak basic part (−NH3 ) is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and statements
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

BOTANY

SECTION-A
CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
101. The eukaryotic organism considered as 102. In mRNA, UTRs are
Biofertiliser is (1) Present only before the stop codon
(1) Azotobacter (2) Required for efficient transcription
(2) Glomus (3) present on both 5’ and 3’ end of the
(3) Oscillatoria sequence
(4) Nostoc (4) Present just after start codon and just
before stop codon

12
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

103. Choose the incorrect statement regarding 107. Choose the incorrect statement for the RNA
translation. polymerase.
(1) In its first phase itself amino acids are (1) In bacteria, only single type of RNA
activated in presence of ATP polymerase catalyses transcription of
(2) At first the large subunit of the ribosome all types of RNA
encounters an mRNA and the process (2) It polymerises in a template
of translation begins independent fashion following the rule
(3) The presence of catalyst enhances the of complementarity
rate of peptide bond formation (3) It also facilitates the opening of DNA
(4) The ribosome moves from codon to helix
codon along the mRNA (4) It binds to the promoter and initiates the
process of transcription
104. In a double stranded DNA, thymine is 35%
of the total nitrogenous bases, then what will 108. All of the following are stop codons, except
be percentage of cytosine?
(1) 35% CC-474 CC-474 (1) CC-474
UGA CC-474
(2) 15% (2) UAA
(3) 45% (3) UAG
(4) 20% (4) UUU

105. Match the list I with list II w.r.t. lac operon and 109. The largest known human gene
choose the correct option (1) Has 3000 bases
List I List II (2) Has 30000 base pairs
Associated to increase the (3) Is present on chromosome Y
z
a. (i) permeability of the cell to (4) Is dystrophin
gene
beta galactosides
It codes for the enzyme
y responsible for the 110. DNA, which is an acidic substance was first
b. (ii) identified by
gene hydrolysis of a
diasaccharide (1) Friedrich Meischer
c. i gene (iii) It encodes for transacetylase (2) Altmann
(3) Wilkins and Franklin
a
d. (iv) Constitutive gene (4) Watson and Crick
gene
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) 111. A molecule that can act as genetic material
must fulfill the following criteria, except
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(1) It should be chemically and structurally
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) stable
(2) It should be able to express itself in the
106. Arrange the following steps involved in DNA form of Mendelian characters
fingerprinting in the correct order and (3) It should be able to generate its replica
choose the option accordingly.
(4) It should provide the scope for rapid
P – Electrophoresis
mutation that are required for evolution
Q – Autoradiography
R – Hybridisation with VNTR probe
S – Blotting 112. Genetic code is degenerate, which means
T – Isolation of DNA (1) One codon codes for only one amino
(1) P → Q → S → T → R
CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
acid CC-474
(2) T → P → S → R → Q (2) Codon is read on mRNA in a
(3) T → S → P → Q → R contiguous fashion
(4) Q → R → S → T → P (3) Three codons do not code for any
amino acid
(4) Some amino acids are coded by more
than one codon

13
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

113. Adenosine differs from a nucleotide as the 119. RNA splicing

former lacks (1) Is removal of exons from mRNA
(1) Base (2) Is post translational modification in
(2) Sugar most of the bacteria
(3) N-glycosidic linkage (3) Represents the dominance of RNA
(4) Phosphate group world
(4) Occur at 3’ end in template
independent manner
114. All of the following form the basis of DNA
fingerprinting, except
(1) Degree of polymorphism 120. By a series of experiments performed by
Griffith on mice using Streptococcus
(2) VNTRs
pneumoniae , he concluded that
(3) Minisatellite (1) RNA can be synthesised from the DNA
(4) ESTs (2) Non-virulent bacteria were transformed
by heat killed virulent bacteria
CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
115. During transcription in eukaryotes (3) Protein digesting enzyme does not
(1) RNA polymerase I synthesises mRNA affect transformation
(2) RNA polymerase II synthesises rRNA (4) DNA is more stable genetic material
then the RNA
(3) RNA polymerase II synthesises hnRNA
(4) RNA polymerase III synthesises mRNA
121. The predominant site for control of gene
expression in prokaryotes is
116. The expressed sequences in processed
(1) Control of the rate of transcription
RNA are called
initiation
(1) hnRNA
(2) Splicing
(2) snRNA
(3) At translational level
(3) Introns
(4) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to
(4) Exons cytoplasm

117. Promoter in a transcription unit is located at 122. DNA replication in prokaryotes is mainly
(1) 5' end downstream of a non-template catalysed by
strand (1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(2) 5' end downstream non-coding strand (2) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) 3′ end downstream of the coding strand (3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) 5
'
end upstream of coding strand (4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

118. Severo Ochoa enzyme is helpful in 123. Which of the following sugars and
nitrogenous bases respectively are found
polymerising (a) with defined exclusively in RNA but not in DNA?
sequences in a template (1) Ribose and Thymine
(b) manner. (2) Deoxyribose and Uracil
(a) (b) (3) Ribose and Uracil
(1) RNA Dependent (4) Deoxyribose and Thymine
(2) DNA Dependent
(3) RNA Independent 124. Histone protein is rich in basic amino acids
like
(4) DNACC-474
Independent CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
(1) Tryptophan and tyrosine
(1) (1)
(2) Histidine and cysteine
(2) (2)
(3) Methionine and valine
(3) (3)
(4) Lysine and arginine
(4) (4)

14
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

125. Heterochromatin is 131. Biological sewage treatment is called

(a) Darkly stained region (1) Sequential filtration
(b) Loosely packed chromatin
(2) Primary treatment
(c) Transcriptionally inactive
The correct one(s) is/are (3) Secondary treatment
(1) Only (a) (4) Tertiary treatment
(2) Only (a) and (b)
(3) Only (b) and (c) 132. Read the following statements and select
(4) Only (a) and (c) the correct option.
Assertion (A) : Biogas plants are more often
built in rural areas.
126. The packaging of chromatin in eukaryotes at Reason (R) : Cattle dung is available in
higher level requires additional set of large quantities in rural areas.
proteins that are collectively referred to as (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(1) Histone proteins the reason is the correct explanation of
(2) Nucleosomes the assertion
CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(3) Non-Histone Chromosomal (NHC)
proteins the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(4) Chromatins
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
127. Number of base pairs in human genome is (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
approximately statements
(1) 3 × 106
(2) 3 × 109 133. Organism responsible for ethanol production
(3) 6 × 109 in brewing industries is
(1) Penicillium
(4) 6 × 106
(2) Streptococcus
(3) Saccharomyces
128. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the
(4) Bacillus
genetic material came from the experiments
of
(1) Frederick Griffith 134. a. (i) have species-specific, narrow
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
spectrum insecticidal applications.
(3) Wilkins and Franklin b. Bt is a microbial biocontrol agent that can
(4) Chargaff be introduced to control (ii) .
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(1) (i)- Trichoderma, (ii) - Butterfly
129. Which RNA plays a catalytic role during (2) (i)- Baculoviruses, (ii) - Butterfly
translation? caterpillars
(1) hnRNA (3) (i)- Dragonflies, (ii) - Aphids
(2) tRNA (4) (i)- NPV, (ii) - Mosquitoes
(3) rRNA
(4) mRNA 135. Biogas produced in anaerobic sludge
digesters is a mixture of
130. Swiss cheese and Roquefort cheese are (1) Methane and carbon dioxide only
ripened with the help of a (2) Hydrogen sulphide and methane only
(1) Fungus and a bacterium respectively (3) Methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen
CC-474
(2) Bacterium CC-474
and a fungus respectively CC-474
sulphide CC-474
(3) Cyanobacterium and fungus (4) Carbon dioxide, methane and oxygen
respectively
(4) Bacterium

SECTION-B

15
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

136. Which of the given is not commercially 142. A transcription unit is primarily defined by
produced by bacteria? three regions in DNA as
(1) Lactic acid (1) Promoter, terminator and inducer
(2) Butyric acid (2) Promoter, structural gene and
(3) Citric acid terminator
(4) Acetic acid (3) Inducer, structural gene and operator
(4) Promoter, operator and structural gene
137. A , a beetle with red and black markings,
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ 143. In eukaryotes, the first level of regulation of
is useful in controlling B . gene expression is
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Select the correct option and complete the (1) Transcription
above statement.
(2) Translation
(1) A–Ladybird, B–aphids
(3) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the
(2) A–Ladybird, B–mosquitoes cytoplasm
CC-474 B-aphids
(3) A–Dragonfly, CC-474 (4) CC-474
Regulation of splicing CC-474
(4) A–Dragonfly, B-mosquitoes
144. Read the given statements (A-D) stating true
138. All solids that settle during primary stage of (T) or false (F) and select the correct
waste water treatment forms option.
(1) Primary sludge A. Antibiotics are the chemical substances
which are produced by some microbes and
(2) Primary effluent
can kill or retard the growth of other
(3) Activated sludge microbes.
(4) Flocs B. Flocs are masses of bacteria associated
with fungal filaments.
C. Raising of crops through the use of
139. Which pyrimidine is common to both DNA chemical fertilizers is organic farming.
and RNA? D. IPM involves conservation of beneficial
(1) Uracil insects
(2) Cytosine A B C D
(3) Adenine (1) T F F F
(4) Thymine (2) T T T T
(3) T T F T
140. In which of the following aspects
(4) F F T T
transcription in prokaryotes is similar to that
of the eukaryotes? (1) (1)
(1) In having same types of RNA (2) (2)
polymerases (3) (3)
(2) Get coupled with the translation (4) (4)
(3) The direction of RNA polymerisation
(4) They require to process the primary
transcript

141. Read the given statements and select the

correct option.
Statement A: Ministry of Environment and
Forest has initiated Ganga Action Plan.
Statement B: Effluent from secondary
CC-474 CC-474
treatment cannot be released into water
CC-474 CC-474
bodies
(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A & B are correct
(4) Both A & B are incorrect

16
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

145. Which of the following correctly represents 148. Live S strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae
the pattern of replication of DNA? (1) Is non-virulent
(1) (2) Does not develop pneumonia in mice
(3) Lacks polysaccharide coat
(4) Produces smooth shiny colonies in
culture plate

149. Alexander Fleming discovered the first

antibiotic while working on
(2) (1) Staphylococci
(2) Lactobacillus
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Aspergillus

CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474

150. If a hybrid DNA is allowed to replicate for two
generations in N14 containing medium then
(3) the proportion of light, hybrid and heavy
DNA will be respectively
(1) 75%, 25% and 0%
(2) 25%, 25% and 50%
(3) 0%, 50% and 50%
(4) 25%, 0% and 75%

(4)

146. The blind approach of simply sequencing

the whole set of genome that contained all
coding and non-coding sequence and later
assigning different regions in the sequence
with functions is referred to as
(1) Expressed sequence tags
(2) Sequence annotation
(3) Bioinformatics
(4) Polymorphism

147. Which of the given rRNAs plays dual role as

structural RNA as well as catalyst in
bacteria?
(1) 18SCC-474
rRNA CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
(2) 5S rRNA
(3) 5.8S rRNA
(4) 23S rRNA

ZOOLOGY

17
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

SECTION-A

151. Which of the following are non-ionising 158. Arrange the following in increasing order of
radiations? their cranial capacities.
(1) Gamma rays (a) Homo habilis
(b) Neanderthal man
(2) Ultraviolet rays
(c) Homo erectus
(3) X-rays Select the correct option.
(4) Rays used in CT (1) a < b < c
(2) c < b < a
152. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. (3) a < c < b
evolution. (4) c < a < b
(1) Life probably appeared 500 million
CC-474
years after the formation of Earth. CC-474 CC-474 CC-474
159. The main concept of Darwinian theory is
(2) The first cellular form of life appeared
natural selection. It is possible that the work
on Earth about 2000 mya.
of ‘Thomas Malthus’ on ‘Populations’
(3) It is presumed that around 200 mya influenced Darwin.
Ichthyosaurs evolved from amphibians. Select the incorrect option w.r.t Malthusian
(4) About 65 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly theory.
disappeared from Earth. (1) The population remain stable in size
except for seasonal fluctuations.
153. Presence of all of the following factors can (2) Natural resources are limited in nature.
alter the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, (3) Nature keeps a control over the size of
except the population.
(1) Gene migration (4) Every population has an inherent
(2) Genetic drift capacity to increase its number
(3) Assortative mating logarithmically if every individual of that
population reproduced maximally.
(4) Random mating

160. In a hypothetical population of 1000 people,

154. The animals called lobefins which evolved tests of blood type genes show that 160
into the first amphibians were have genotype AA, 480 have the genotype
(1) Coelacanths AB and 360 have the genotype BB.
(2) Salamanders Calculate the frequency of allele B and
select the correct option.
(3) Modern day frogs
(1) 0.40
(4) Crocodiles
(2) 0.60
(3) 0.10
155. Select the odd one w.r.t. Australian
marsupials. (4) 0.02
(1) Numbat
(2) Tasmanian wolf 161. Choose the correct sequence w.r.t. plant
evolution.
(3) Spotted cuscus
(1) Psilophyton → Rhynia type plants
(4) Flying squirrel → Chlorophyte ancestors
→ Tracheophyte an cestors

156. For a long time it was believed that life came (2) Tracheophyte ancestors
CC-474
out of decaying and rotting matter like CC-474
straw, CC-474
→ Chlorophyte CC-474
ancestors
mud etc. This was the theory of → Rhynia type plants → Psilophyton

(1) Special creation (3) Rhynia type plants

→ Tracheophyte ancestors
(2) Catastrophism
→ Psilophyton → Chlorophyte
(3) Spontaneous generation ancestors
(4) Panspermia (4) Chlorophyte ancestors
→ Tracheophyte ancestors
157. Therapsids were the direct ancestors of → Rhynia type plants → Psilophyton

(1) Mammals
(2) Crocodiles
(3) Dinosaurs
(4) Birds

18
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

162. During industrial revolution in England, the 167. Read the following statements carefully.
dark-winged peppered moth became A) Studies suggest that first organisms that
dominant over the white-coloured moth. This invaded land were plants.
case is an example of B) Saltations are single step large mutations
(1) Anthropogenic action by artificial and Darwinian variations are small and
selection directional.
C) Sauropsids were common ancestors of
(2) Natural selection whereby melanised
therapsids and thecodonts.
forms were selected over non-
D) Homo habilis was the first hominid with
melanised forms.
brain capacity ranging between 650-800 cc
(3) Pollution generated feature of Choose the correct option w.r.t. True (T) and
melanism. False (F) statements.
(4) Occurrence of random mutation A B C D
leading to a decline of true black
melanic forms. (i) T F T F

(ii) F T F T
CC-474
163. As the female CC-474
Anopheles mosquito is related CC-474 CC-474
with malaria, Aedes mosquito is related with (iii) T T F T
(1) Typhoid (iv) T T F F
(2) Filariasis
(1) (i)
(3) Dengue fever
(2) (ii)
(4) Mumps
(3) (iii)
(4) (iv)
164. Select the features which are true for
Australopithecines.
(a) Walked bipedally 168. When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg
(b) Earliest fossils obtained from Australia equilibrium.
(c) Man-like primates walked in East-African (1) All of its recessive lethal genes are
grasslands wiped out, leaving only healthy
(d) Existed probably 2 mya dominant genes.
Choose the correct option.
(2) Mutations occur at five times the normal
(1) (a), (c) and (d) rate to balance the loss of genes by
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) way of natural selection
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (3) The frequencies of the alleles in the
(4) (a), (b) and (c) population change over time
(4) The frequencies of genotypes in the
population are stable over time
165. Choose the correct option w.r.t.
Brachiosaurus.
(1) They were a three-horned dinosaurs. 169. Assertion (A) : Vertebrate hearts are
considered as homologous organs.
(2) They can be described as bipedal,
Reason (R) : Hearts of fishes, amphibians,
carnivore with dagger-like teeth.
reptiles and birds show a similar basic
(3) They possibly shared common structure with varied degree of functional
ancestor with Pteranodon, Stegosaurus specialization.
and Archaeopteryx. In the light of above statements select the
(4) They were the direct ancestor of correct option.
Triceratops, Crocodile and (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
Tyrannosaurus. the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
166. Natural CC-474 (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
CC-474
selection where more individuals CC-474
the reason is not the correct
CC-474
acquire peripheral character value at both
ends of the distribution curve leads to explanation of the assertion.
(1) Stabilizing change (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(2) Balancing change is false.
(3) Disruptive change (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements.
(4) Directional change

19
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

170. Given are some techniques useful in 175. Secondary immune response is rapid than
detection of cancers of the internal organs. primary immune response because
(A) Radiography (1) Our body appears to have memory of
(B) MRI the pathogen's first encounter
(C) CT
(2) It is pathogen specific
(D) Biopsy
Select the option which uses X-ray (3) Our body encounters a pathogen for
radiations. the first time
(1) (A) and (B) (4) It is not pathogen specific
(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D) 176. The yellowish fluid produced during initial
(4) (A) and (C) days of lactation is rich in antibody that
(1) Can cross the placental barrier
(2) Is associated with allergic
171. Consider the following options w.r.t cocaine
manifestations
and select the incorrect one.
CC-474
(1) Often used for the treatment CC-474
of
(3) CC-474
Is largest in size CC-474
insomnia (4) Is also found in mucus secretions of
upper GIT
(2) Obtained from a plant native to South
America
(3) Similar to Atropa belladona in being 177. If a person is bitten by Vipera then, in such
hallucinogenic case which of the following should be given
(4) Interferes with the transport of immediately for quick immune response?
dopamine (1) An antitoxin
(2) A toxoid
172. Read the following statements and select (3) A vaccine
the correct option. (4) An antigenic polypeptide
Statement (A) : Agranulocytes such as
neutrophils and monocytes belong to the
non-specific type of immunity. 178. A 27-year old man had both of his kidneys
Statement (B) : Natural killer cells are a failed. Doctor advised him for kidney
type of lymphocytes that destroy microbes. transplantation. After diligence, a donor was
found and transplant was done after a
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct
proper tissue-matching and blood group
(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect matching. The body rejected the graft after a
(3) Only (A) is correct week of surgery. This rejection is caused
(4) Only (B) is correct mainly due to
(1) Cell-mediated immune response
(2) Humoral immune response
173. Which of the following species of
Plasmodium is responsible for causing (3) Antibody mediated response
malignant malaria? (4) B-lymphocytes mediated response
(1) vivax
(2) malariae 179. Infective stage of Plasmodium after entering
(3) falciparum in human blood first migrates to
(4) ovale (1) Kidney
(2) Heart
174. Mucous coating of the epithelium lining the (3) Liver
respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital (4) RBC
tracts help in trapping microbes entering our
body. ItCC-474
belong to which group of CC-474
innate CC-474 CC-474
immunity? 180. Smack is chemically
(1) Physical barriers (1) Cannabinoid
(2) Cellular barriers (2) Amino acid
(3) Cytokines barriers (3) Cocaine
(4) Physiological barriers (4) Diacetylmorphine

20
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

181. Which is/are correct about Amoebiasis? 184. Identify the compound given below and
a. Caused by Entamoeba histolytica. select the option with only correct
b. Stools with excess mucus and blood clots. statements.
c. Life cycle is completed in human and
housefly.
d. Transmission through faeco-oral route.
Select the corect option.
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d

182. A gland ‘X’ called the training school of T-

A. It is extracted from poppy plant.
lymphocytes is also responsible for the
B. They are known for their effects on central
maturation of T-lymphocytes. Identify the ‘X’
CC-474
and choose the correct option. CC-474 CC-474
nervous system and GIT. CC-474
C. Obtained from inflorescences of the plant.
(1) Thymus D. Generally taken by inhalation and
(2) Thyroid injection.
(3) Pancreas (1) A and C
(4) Hypothalamus (2) B and C
(3) C and D
183. Which of the following are phagocytic cells (4) A, B and D
derived from the largest cells of the blood
and also act as cellular barriers to provide
185. A novel approach for the treatment of cancer
immunity ?
is the use of biological response modifiers
(1) Neutrophils called _____ which activate the immune
(2) Basophils system and destroy the tumor. Choose the
(3) Macrophages option which fills the blank correctly
(4) Eosinophils (1) Vinblastin
(2) X-rays
(3) α-interferons
(4) Oncogenes

CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474

SECTION-B

186. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t Homo

erectus.
(1) Their fossil discovered in 1891
(2) They had a large brain in comparison
to the first human like being the
hominid.
(3) They probably ate meat.
(4) They arose during ice age, around
75,000-10,000 year ago.

21
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

187. In electric discharge experiment performed 193. Assertion (A) : Tobacco can raise blood
by S.L. Miller in 1953, the gases taken in pressure and increase heart rate.
spark discharge chamber were Reason (R) : Tobacco contains nicotine
(1) CH4 and NH3 only which stimulates adrenal cortex to release
epinephrine and nor epinephrine.
(2) CH4 , H2 , NH3 and water vapour at In the light of above statements, select the
800°C correct option.
(3) CH4 , H2 , NH3 and water vapour at (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
800°F correct explanation of (A)
(4) CH4 , O2 , NH3 and water vapour at (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
800°C the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
188. Select the set of structures that are (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
homologous to each other.
(1) A butterfly’s wing and a bat’s wing 194. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever,
CC-474
(2) A moth’s eyes and a cow’s eyes CC-474 CC-474
anemia and blockage of intestinalCC-474
passage
(3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are some of the symptoms of
(4) Forelimbs of cheetah and humans (1) Ascariasis
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Elephantiasis
189. Jawless fish probably evolved around
________ and sea weed existed probably (4) Typhoid fever
around ______.
Choose the option that correctly fills the
195. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed
blank respectively.
by
(1) 350 mya ; 320 mya (1) Variable regions of heavy chains only
(2) 350 bya ; 320 bya (2) Variable regions of light chain and
(3) 350 bya ; 320 mya heavy chain
(4) 35 mya ; 32 mya (3) Constant regions of light chains and
four heavy chain
190. What was the most significant trend in the (4) Constant regions of light chains only
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens)
during evolutionary lineage? 196. Read the following statements regarding
(1) Increasing cranial capacity cancer and select the correct option stating
(2) Erect posture and bipedalism which one is true(T) and which one is
(3) Opposable thumb false(F).
A. Cancer cells do not show contact
(4) Binocular and stereoscopic vision inhibition.
B. Metagenesis is the most feared property
191. Choose the incorrect match. of malignant tumor.
C. Depletion of ozone layer in atmosphere
(1) Hunted with stone weapons and ate
can lead to increased incidence of skin
meat – Australopithecines
cancer.
(2) Arose in Africa and moved across D. Immunotherapy can be used to treat
continents – Homo sapiens various forms of cancer.
(3) Buried his dead and lived in Central A B C D
Asia – Neanderthal man
(i) F F F T
(4) First one to use fire and fossils were
found in Java – Homo erectus (ii) T F T T

CC-474 CC-474 (iii)CC-474

T F T F CC-474
192. Which of the following is a connecting link (iv) F F T T
between apes and man?
(1) (i)
(1) Homo habilis
(2) (ii)
(2) Homo erectus
(3) (iii)
(3) Australopithecus
(4) (iv)
(4) Homo sapiens

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NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T06A

197. Select the autoimmune disease among the 199. Smoking increases ‘X’ content in blood and
following. reduces the concentration of ‘Y’.
(1) Ascariasis Identify the ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively and
choose the correct option.
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(1) Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) and haembound
(3) Filariasis
oxygen
(4) Amoebiasis
(2) Carbon monoxide (CO) and
haembound oxygen
198. Assertion (A) : Interferons belong to (3) Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) and haembound
phagocytic barriers of immunity. carbon
Reason (R) : Interferons are glycoproteins
produced by body cells infected by bacteria. (4) Carbon monoxide (CO) and
In the light of above statements select the haembound carbon
correct option.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and 200. Due to decrease in the number of helper T
the reason is the correct explanation of lymphocytes, a person starts suffering from
theCC-474
assertion CC-474 CC-474
infections CC-474
especially due to Mycobacterium,
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but viruses, fungi and even parasites like
the reason is not the correct Toxoplasma. Toxoplasma is a
explanation of the assertion (1) Bacteria
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (2) Fungus
is false (3) Protozoan
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4) Virus
statements

CC-474 CC-474 CC-474 CC-474

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