POST TEST in MATERNITY NURSING 2024

Prepared by : Asst Prof. Trinidad Silva-Ignacio, RM,RN,MAN

Name _______________________________________Block____________Score/Rating_______________

1. The patient is transported to the delivery room and is prepared for cesarean delivery. The client is transferred to the delivery
room table, and the nurse places her in:
A. Trendelenburg’s position with the legs on stirrups
B. Semi Fowler’s position with a pillow under the knees
C. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated
D. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip
2. Which of the following conditions is not diagnosed by abdominal ultrasound during prenatal period?
A. Fetal presentation B. Fetal heart activity C.Maternal diabetes DAmniotic fluid volume
3. When measuring fundal height in a primiparous client during her 24-week check up, which measurement should the nurse
expect?
A. 30 cm B.20 cm C. 24 cm D.16 cm
4. Which of the following terms is used to describe the thinning and shortening of the cervix that occurs just before and during
labor?
A. Ballottement B. Dilation C. Effacement DMultiparous
5. Which of the following fetal presentation is most favorable for birth?
A. Vertex presentation C. Frank breech presentation
B. Transverse lie D. Posterior position of the fetal head
6. Which of the following Leopold's maneuver assesses the descent of the presenting part into the pelvis?
A. First B. Second C.Third D. Fourth
7. Which of the following descriptions best fits Braxton Hicks contractions?
A. Contractions beginning irregularly, becoming regular and predictable
B. Contractions causing cervical effacement and dilation
C. Contraction felt initially in the lower back and radiating to the abdomen in a wave-like motion
D. Contractions that begin and remain irregular
8. Which type of contractions signal true labor?
A. Contractions that achieve cervical dilation
B. Contractions that are felt abdominally
C. Contractions that may be irregular
D. Contractions that may disappear with ambulation
9. The first day of a client’s LMP was October 10. Using Nagele’s rule, what is the EDD?
A. July 10 B. July 17 C. August 10 D. August 17
10. Which fetal lie is the most common and best suited for delivery?
A. Transverse B. Longitudinal C. Oblique D. Compound
11. Following ovulation, the ovum is normally viable for how many hours?
A. 8
B. 24
C. 10
D. 12
12. Within the female reproductive tract, the sperm remain viable for how many days?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
13. Each mature ovum and sperm contain:
A. 23 chromosomes
B. 24 chromosomes
C. 46 chromosomes
D. 48 chromosomes
14. The distance between the lower margin of the symphysis pubis and the sacral promontory is called:
A. Diagonal conjugate
B. True conjugate
C. Obstetrical conjugate
D. External conjugate
 15. The secretory phase in the menstrual cycle is controlled by:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone
16. A woman is scheduled for Pap smear. Which nursing instruction prior to the test is incorrect?
A. Do not douche at least 24 hours before the test
B. Avoid intercourse
C. Do not use spermicidal gels
D. Avoid genital washing before the specimen is obtained
17. Pap smear is done to detect abnormal cervical cytology. It is recommended at:
1. Age 18
2. 3 years after the woman had sex
3. Age 21
4. Puberty
A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3
C. 2 & 4
D. 1 & 2
18. Breast self-examination is done regularly and is recommended even during menopause. What is the schedule of BSE for
menopausal women?
A. Same date every month
B. Once a month for 5 years
C. Not necessary after menopause
D. Same day of the week of month
19. Best position for breast inspection:
1. Both arms relaxed at the sides
2. Arms stretched above the head
3. Both hands on hips while leaning forward
4. Arms across the chest
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. 2, 3 & 4
20. Before the placenta functions, the corpus luteum is the primary source for synthesis of which of the following hormones?
A. Cortisol and thyroxine
B. Estrogen and progesterone
C. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle
D. Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)
SITUATION
21. A nursing instructor is reviewing the menstrual cycle with a nursing student who will be conducting a prenatal teaching session.
The instructor asks the student to describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH). The student
accurately responds by stating that
A. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
B. FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary.
C. FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands.
D. FSH and LH stimulate the information of milk during pregnancy
22. Using Leopold’s maneuvers to determine fetal position, the nurse finds that the fetus is in a vertex position with the back on the
left side. Where is the best place for the nurse to listen for fetal heart tones?
A. In the right upper right quadrant of the mother’s abdomen
B. In the left upper right quadrant of the mother’s abdomen
C. In the right lower right quadrant of the mother’s abdomen
D. In the left lower quadrant of the mother’s abdomen
23. Where is the female gamete produce?
A. Fallopian tube
B. Seminiferous vesicles
C. Endometrium
D. Graafian follicle
24. What is the endometrium called after implantation of the blastocyst?
A. Blastocyte
B. Decidua
 C. Blastomere
D. Morula
25. A nurse is reviewing true and false labor signs with a multiparous client. The nurse determines that the client understands the
signs of true labor if she makes which statement?
A. “I won’t be in labor until the baby engages.”
B, “My contractions will be felt in the abdominal area.”
C. “My contractions will not be as painful if I walk around.”
D, “My contractions will increase in duration and intensity.”

26. A nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client who delivered a healthy newborn infant by cesarean delivery. Which
statement, if made by the client, indicates a need for further instructions?
A. “I will begin abdominal exercises immediately.”
B. “I will notify the physician if I develop a fever.”
C. “I will turn on my side and push up with my arms to get out of bed.”
D. “I will lift nothing heavier than the newborn infant for at least 2 weeks.”
27. What are the two fetal membranes?
A. Chorion and amnion
B. Ectoderm and mesoderm
C. Chorion and endoderm
D. Amnion and mesoderm
28. Which factors affect placental function?
A. Oxygen consumption and maternal circulation
B. Oxygen consumption and fetal circulation
C. Amount of amniotic fluid
D. Position of the fetus
29. Fetal development starts by the union of the ovum, and spermatozoon. This process is called:
A. Fertilization
B. Implantation
C. Mitosis
D. Fecundation
30. The fertilization of the human being takes place normally in the:
A. Fallopian tube
B. Ovary
C. Fundus
D. Lower uterine segments
31. The amniotic fluid serves the following functions except:
A. Maintenance of body temperature of the fetus
B. Allow the fetus to move about the lost inside the uterus
C. Protects the fetus from shock and injury
D. Contains immune bodes to protect the fetus from infection
32. The nurse is caring for a client during the prenatal period. The client tells her that she wants to know the sex of the fetus as
soon as it can be determined. She responds to the client, knowing that the sex of the fetus can be visually recognizable as early
as week:
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
33. The nurse prepares to assess the fetal heartbeat. The nurse uses the fetoscope knowing that the fetal heartbeat first can be
heard with a regular (non electronic) fetoscope at gestational week:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 16
D. 20
34. A pregnant client asks the nurse in the clinic when she will be able to start feeling the fetus move. The nurse responds by telling
the mother that fetal movements will be noted between:
A. 6 and 8 weeks of gestation
B. 8 and 10 weeks of gestation
C. 10 and 12 weeks of gestation
D. 14 and 16 weeks of gestation
35. If the embryo is to differentiate as a female, what hormonal situation must occur?
A. An increase in maternal estrogen secretion
 B. A decrease in maternal androgen secretion
C. Secretion of androgen by the fetal gonad
D. Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad
36. Maturation and discharge of an ovum is called:
A. Ovulation
B. Menstruation
C. Fertilization
D. Conception
37. It is the cream cheese-like substance produced by the sebaceous glands that serves as a protective skin covering during
intrauterine life.
A. Lanugo
B. Brown fat
C. Vernix caseosa
D. Meconium
38. The nurse instructor asks a nursing student who is preparing to assist with the assessment of a pregnant client to describe the
process of quickening. Which of the following statements is made by the student indicates understanding of this term?
A. “It is the irregular, painless contractions that occur throughout pregnancy.”
B. “It is the soft blowing sound that can be heard when the uterus is auscultated.”
C. “It is the fetal movement that is felt by the mother.”
D. “It is the thinning of the lower uterine segment.”
The clinic nurse is instructing a pregnant client regarding dietary measures to promote a healthy pregnancy. She instructs the client to
have an adequate intake of fluid daily.
39. Which statement of the mother indicates an understanding of the fluid requirements?
A. “I should drink at least 8 to 10 glasses of fluid each day, of which 4 to 6 glasses are water.”
B. “I should drink 12 glasses of fruit juices or milk everyday.”
C. “I should drink 8 to 10 glasses of fluid a day, and I can count all of the diet soft drinks that I consumed.”
D. “I should drink 12 glasses of fluid a day, and I can include the coffee or tea that I drink in the count.”
40. A gravid client asks the nurse about the types of exercises that are allowable during the pregnancy. The nurse would instruct her
that the safest exercise to engage in is which of the following?
A. Bicycling with legs in the air
B. Swimming
C. Scuba diving
D. Low-weight gymnastics
41. A pregnant client who reports painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with placenta previa. The placental
edge reaches the internal os. This type of placenta previa is known as which of the following types?
A. Low-lying placenta previa
B. Marginal placenta previa
C. Partial placenta previa
D. Total placenta previa
42. The antagonist for magnesium sulfate should be readily available to any client receiving I.V. magnesium. Which of the following
drugs is the antidote?
A. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
B. Hydralazine (Apresoline)
C. Naloxone (Narcan)
D. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
43. Which of the following rationales best explains why a pregnant client should lie on her left side when resting or sleeping in the
later stages of pregnancy?
A. To facilitate digestion
B. To facilitate bladder emptying
C. To prevent compression of the vena cava
D. To avoid the development of fetal anomalies
44. A nurse is reviewing a nutritional plan of care with a pregnant client and is identifying the food items that are highest in folic acid.
The nurse determines that the client understands which foods supply the highest amounts of foil acid if the client states that she
will include which of the following in the daily diet?
A. A banana
B. Leafy green vegetables
C. Milk
D. Yogurt
45. Which is the classic sign of premature rupture of the amniotic membranes (PROM)?
A. Contractions with leakage of clear fluid from the vagina
B. Contractions alone
 C. Leakage of clear fluid from the vagina
D. Decreased fetal movement
46. As the fetus passes through the birth canal, it makes various positional changes, called the cardinal movements of labor. Which
is the first cardinal movement?
A. Descent
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. Internal rotation
47. A nurse explains the purpose of effleurage to a client in early labor. The nurse tells the client that effleurage is
A. A form of biofeedback to enhance bearing down efforts during delivery.
B. Light stroking of the abdomen to facilitate relaxation during labor and provides tactile stimulation to the fetus.
C. The application of pressure to the sacrum to relieve a backache.
D. Performed to stimulate uterine activity by contracting a specific muscle group while other parts of the body rest.
48. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client in the second trimester of pregnancy who was admitted to the maternity unit with a
suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to note if this
condition is present?
A. Absence of abdominal pain
B. A soft abdomen
C. Uterine tenderness
D. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
49. Which of the following groups of symptoms is most associated with preeclampsia?
A. Edema, hyporeflexia, and Glycosuria
B. Hypotension, hyporeflexia, and proteinuria
C. Hypertension, Hyperreflexia, and proteinuria
D. Hyperglycemia, Hyperreflexia, and Glycosuria
Situation: Miriam, 34-year-old multigravida at 32 weeks’ gestation is admitted to the hospital with an admission diagnosis of preterm
labor.
50. On admission to the antenatal unit, the nurse determines that the fetal heart rate is 140 beats/minute. The nurse should:
a. Administer oxygen by mask at 8 L/minute
b. Notify the client’s physician.
c. Continue to monitor the client and fetus
d. Check the fetal heart rate again in 10 minutes.
51. Which drug would you least expect the doctor would prescribe or Miriam’s condition?
a. Magnesium SO4 c. Ritodrine
b. Pitocin d. Nifedipine
52. Self-care measures to prevent pre-term delivery include:
1. Hydrate with 2-3 quarts of water per day
2. Emptying of bladder at least every 2 hours during waking time
3. Avoid sexual intercourse
4. Perform nipple rolling or rubbing for prenatal breast preparation
a 1, 2 b. 2 ,3 c. 1,2,3 d. 1,2,3,4
Situation: Mrs. R.M.,24 years old, gravida 2, para 1 was scheduled for fetal evaluation procedures. The following questions pertain to
this situation.
53. Mrs. R.M. was anxious about the transvaginal ultrasound test and asked the nurse if this would cause injuries to her baby. The
best response of the nurse for this question would be:
a. Do not worry about this test; your doctor is an expert.
b. The procedure will hurt your baby, if you are very anxious.
c. The test is routinely done so there is no danger to you or your baby.
d. The test will help the doctor see your baby and his environment, only high frequency sound waves will be used to create
that image on the screen and this will not hurt your baby.
54. Ultrasound testing can be beneficial in the following ways:
1. Observation of the fetal heartbeat a. 1, 2, 3
2. Identification of more than one embryo or fetus b. 1, 3, 4
3. Location of the placenta c. 2, 3, 4
4. Determination of fetal position and presentation d. 1, 2, 3, 4
55. What is your nursing assessment after the Ultrasound procedure is completed?
a. Check the patient’s Vital signs.
b. Check the fetal heart rate
c. Assess the mother’s level of anxiety.
d. All of the above
Situation: Nurse Doris is going to perform Leopold’s maneuver on Mrs.Lapid who is currently on her 7th month of pregnancy. The
following questions relate to this situation.
56. Which of the following procedures is correct in performing LM?
1. Nurse Doris must warm her hands first prior to palpation of the abdomen.
2. Ensure that the fetal heart tone is normal prior to the palpation of the abdomen.
3. Fundic measurement must be taken first before performing Leopold’s maneuver.
4. Mrs. Lapid should void prior to the palpation
a. 1.2 b. 1,2,3 c. 1, 2 4 d. 1, 4
57. Nurse Doris palpated a soft, none moveable mass at the fundus, based on this finding, what is the presenting part?
A. Buttocks C. Shoulder
B. Cephalic D. Feet
58. On LM2, a hard, plane surface is palpated at the right side of Mrs. Lapid’s abdomen. On what quadrant of the mother’s
abdomen will the fetal heart tone be heard?
A. RUQ C. LUQ
B. LLQ D. RLQ
59. On the fourth palpation, Nurse Doris tried to move the presenting part to determine _______
a. Engagement c. Station

b. Position d. Ballotment

Situation: Nurse Eva is assigned in the post-partum unit of the hospital. She is busy attending to Mrs. HA, G2P2 who was re admitted
because she was bleeding again after being discharged 5 days ago. She was diagnosed as having retained placental tissues. Her
uterus is located at the level of her umbilicus, her VS arev as follows: Temp. 38.5 degrees Celsius, RR: 28 PR: 98 BP; 100/60
The following questions are related to this situation.

60. Uterine involution begins immediately after delivery and continues until the uterus is as close to its prep regnant size as
possible. At this time, Mrs HA’s uterine fundus should be at which level?
a. Above the symphysis pubis
b. At the umbilicus
c. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
d. 5- 6 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus
61. Which changes occurs in a client during the immediate postpartum period that are considered normal?
1. Increased Hematocrit
2. Decreased urine output
3. Increased progesterone production
4. Decreased blood volume
a 1,2 b. 1,3 c. 2,3 d. 1,4
62. Nurse Eva is reviewing infection control policies with a nursing student. Eva knows that the teaching has been effective when
the student states, “The best way to prevent postpartum infection starts:
a. In the recovery room with strict use of sterile technique when palpating the fundus.”
b. On the postpartum unit by teaching the client the principles of perineal care.”
c. In the labor room by limiting the number of sterile vaginal exams.”
d. When the client goes home by avoiding tub baths until the lochia stops.
63. Health teachings for a woman during the postpartal period which are helpful in preventing infection includes the following:
1. importance of perineal care
2. adequate fluid intake
3. importance of douches which is part of good hygiene practices
4. importance of taking the entire course of prescribed antibiotics
a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 4 d. All
64. When palpating for fundal height on a postpartal woman, which technique is preferable?
a. Placing one hand at the base of the uterus, one on the fundus.
b. Placing one hand on the fundus, one on the perineum.
c. Resting both hands on the fundus.
d. Palpating the fundus with only fingertip pressure.
65. You assess a postpartal woman’s fundal height every 15 minutes during the first hour postpartum. At which of the following
locations would you expect to assess the height of her fundus?
a. Two fingerbreadths under the umbilicus.
b. One fingerbreadth under the umbilicus.
c. At the umbilicus.
 d. Two fingerbreadths above the symphysis pubis.
66. A postpartum woman tells you that her room must be too warm because she has been perspiring excessively since delivery.
Which of the following is your best response?
a. “You should ask for a cooler room.”
b. “Breastfeeding will decrease the problem.”
c. “I’ll take your temperature before you feed your baby.”
d. “You should maintain a good fluid intake.”
Situation: Professor Timbol was reviewing labor process with her sophomore students. Their discussion described several theories
affecting labor. Among the theories selected she asked the students to recall the answers to the following questions:
67. Which theory described “The surge of this hormone affects cervical os, where it allows the cervix to “ripen” and facilitate the
dilation”?
a. oxytocin Theory of labor
b. Prostaglandin Cascade theory
c. Progesterone Deprivation Theory
d. Uterine stretch Theory
e. placental aging Theory
68. On the other hand, which theory described that the “decreased availability of this hormone to myometrium stimulates
contraction of the uterine muscle” ?
a. oxytocin Theory of labor
b. Prostaglandin Cascade theory
c. Progesterone Deprivation Theory
d. Uterine stretch Theory
e. placental agingTheory
69. While reviewing the differences between False and True Labor pain , Professor Timbol asked her students to choose the signs
of TRUE labor which should include:
1. Pain is felt only in the abdomen
2. Pain is described as radiating to the sacrum.
3. “Show” of labor noted on assessment.
4. Rhythm of contractions improve with ambulation
5. Unaffected by emptying of bowels.
a. 1, 3,4 b. 2,3,4,5 c. 2.3.5 d. 1,2,3,4,5
Situation: Professor Timbol asked her students to answer the following questions pertaining the “ three P’s” of labor. The following
items pertain to this.
70. Cervical effacement is all of the following except:
1. Cervical thinning
2. Obliteration of the cervical canal
3. Widening of the os
4. Opening of the cervis
a. 1 only b. 1,2 c. 1,2,3 d. 1,2 4
67. What is the position of the fetus if the presentation is cephalic, and the denominator is felt on the left side of the
maternal pelvis facing the sacral bone, it described as:
a. Left occiput anterior c. Right occiput anterior
b. Left occiput posterior d. Right occiput posterior
72. The fetus descends the birth canal and enters the ischial spine at :
a. Station Negative One c. Station Negative Two
b. Station Positive One d. Station Zero
73. Cervical changes are noted during labor; which one best describes the sequence of events for a primipara?
a. True labor pains, cervical dilation, show, cervical effacement
b. True labor pains, cervical effacement, show, cervical dilation
c. False Labor pains, cervical dilation, show, cervical effacement
d. False Labor pains, cervical effacement, show, cervical dilation
74. The most important power of labor in the first stage is |
a. Involuntary, uterine contraction only
b. Voluntary, involves the abdominal muscles.
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
75. The denominator of the vertex presentation is the :
a. Occiput c. mentum
b. Sinciput d. face
Situation: Mrs. Zeus who is 48 years old, G2P0, married, and works as a call center agent. She is seen in the clinic for her routine
prenatal visit at 28 weeks AOG. On examination, you note that she gained 10 lbs. since her last visit, her BP is 160/90 and on urine
dipstick method, the result is +3
76. What is the most likely diagnosis of RRK?
a. Transient hypertension c. Pre- eclampsia- Mild features
b. Gestational hypertension d. Pre- eclampsia- Severe features
77. Mrs. Zeus condition progressed and signs of fetal problems were noted; hence, her subsequent admission to the hospital.
What nursing diagnosis would be the nurse’s priority for Mrs. Zeus?
a. Risk for fetal distress related to hypertension
b. Risk for convulsion
c. Alteration in fluid volume
d. Alteration in tissue perfusion.
78. The assessment of deep tendon reflex showed a + 4 response. This is interpreted as:
a. Active, expected c. brisk, hyperactive
b. brisker than expected d. Transient clonus
75. Magnesium sulfate was ordered. Which nursing interventions are essential for Mrs.Zeus?
1. Assess maternal condition a. 1,2,3
2. Assess fetal condition b. 1,3
3. Check her urine output every hour c. 2,3, 4
4. Have calcium gluconate available at the bedside. d. 1, 2,3, 4
80. Serum drug levels (MgSO4 levels) are ordered from 1 hour from the bolus, then every 6 hours. Which one of the following
is considered the therapeutic “magnesium level”?
a. 4 – 8 mg/dLb. 1 – 3 mg/dL c. 13-17 mg/dL d. 9-12 mg/dL
81. Nurse KC monitors for complications associated with the diagnosis and assesses Mrs.Zeus for:
a. Any bleeding, such as in the gums, petechiae, and purpura.
b. Periods of fetal movement followed by quiet periods
c. Complaints of feeling hot when the room is cool
d. Enlargement of the breasts
82. Which of the following should be the priority nursing action during seizure?
a. Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart rate
b. Clean and maintain an open airway
c. Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously
d. Administer oxygen by face mask
83. Current researches have shown a trend towards health promotion and disease prevention. Certain intervention can help
prevent pre-eclampsia except :
a. Calcium b. magnesium c. Coumadin d. Zinc
84. Mrs. Zeus wants to know if her problem of hypertension will be resolved after childbirth. You know that the hypertension in
PIH will?
a. Remain elevated even after childbirth
b. Get worse after childbirth
c. Be resolved after childbirth
d. Need lifetime medical treatment after childbirth

Situation: Kathy, a 37-year-old, G5P5, was noted to have profuse vaginal bleeding after childbirth..
85. The nurse would probably suspect that her patient’s condition is primarily associated with:
a. retained placental fragments c. unrepaired lacerated part
b. uterine atony d. vulvar hematoma
86. Which factors predispose Kathy to such condition?
1. Overdistention of the uterus 3. Age
2. Multiparity 4. General anesthesia
a. 1 2 3 b. 2 3 4 c. 1 3 4 d. 2 3 e. 1 4
87. The nurse knows that the following are clinical manifestations of hemorrhage which would include:
1. Decrease blood pressure 3. Thirst 5. Decrease urine output
2. Increase pulse rate 4. Restlessness
a. 1 2 3 b. 2 3 4 5 c. 1 2 3 4 5 d. 1 3 4
88. Which nursing diagnosis would be the nurse’s priority for Kathy?
a. Deficient Fluid volume related to blood loss secondary to uterine relaxation
b. Risk for impaired parenting related to separation from newborn
c. Risk for infection related to anemia
d. Acute pain related to perineal trauma
89. Appropriate nursing care for Kathy would include the following:
1. Bimanual uterine massage 3. Encourage breastfeeding
2. Administer uterotonic agent as ordered 4. Encourage voiding PRN
a. 1 2 3 b234 c. 1 3 4 d. 1 2 3 4
90. The nurse explains the importance of keeping the uterus contracted. Which rationale would be the most appropriate?
a. To allow the open sinuses to deliver more blood to the uterus
b. To occlude the open sinuses that brought blood into the placenta intrauterine.
c. To facilitate dilation of uterine blood vessels for early healing
d. To promote better uterine perfusion
91. Pharmacologic management for Katy’s condition would include:
1.Oxytocin 2. Ampicillin 3. Terbutaline 4. Methergine
a. 1 only b. 1,2 c.1 4 d. 1,2,3
Situation: Every nurse caring for a female client within the reproductive age group must be knowledgeable about the female
reproductive cycle, menstrual disorders and appropriate management.

92. The female reproductive cycle is driven by a feedback loop between the
A. Hypothalamus and cervix C. Pituitary and adrenal
B. Uterus and cervix D. Anterior pituitary and ovaries
93. At the end of which of the phase of the uterine cycle, does the endometrium reach its maximum thickness of 5 to 6 mm that will
serve as a suitable protective nutritive bed for a fertilized ovum?
A. Menstrual B. Proliferative C. Secretory D. Ischemic
94. Just before ovulation, cervical mucus becomes thin, clear and elastic to promote passage of sperm into the uterus and fallopian
tube, where they can fertilize the ovum. Elasticity of the cervical mucus is known as:
A. Spinnbarkeit B. Bloody show C. Morula D. Mittelschmerz
95. A woman has a nursing diagnosis of “Excess fluid volume related to cyclic hormonal influences as evidenced by weight gain
“before start of menstrual period. Which of the following nursing measures would be most effective when caring for this patient?
A. Encouraging ambulation C. Monitoring patient’s urine output
B. Limit intake of salt- and sodium-containing foods D. Elevating the foot part of the bed
96. The nurse should instruct a patient with menorrhagia to increase intake of which of the following foods?
A. Fish C. Dairy products
B. Milk D. Green leafy vegetables
97. Which of the following would increase the patient’s risk for amenorrhea?
A. Patient with low body weight for height C. Patient with anorexia nervosa
B. Patient with hypothyroidism D. All of the above

Situation: Professor Timbol asked her students to answer the following questions pertaining the “three P’s” of labor. The following items
pertain to this.
98. Cervical effacement is all of the following
1. Cervical thinning A. 1 only
2. Obliteration of the cervical canal B. 1, 2
3. Widening of the os C. 1, 2, 3
4. Opening of the cervix D. 1, 2, 4

99. The fetus descends the birth canal and enters the ischial spine at:
a. Station Negative One c. Station Negative Two
b. Station Positive One d. Station Zero
100. Cervical changes are noted during labor; which one best describes the sequence of events for a primipara?
a. True labor pains, cervical dilation, show, cervical effacement
b. True labor pains, cervical effacement, show, cervical dilation
c. False Labor pains, cervical dilation, show, cervical effacement
d. False Labor pains, cervical effacement, show, cervical dilation