B1 ASSESSMENT FINAL GUIDE

LEGISLATION:
1) What is A/B1.1/B2/C license
A - (Line Maintenance Certifying Mechanic) this license permits the holder to issue CRS following minor line
maintenance and simple defect rectifications that he has personally performed in a CAR145 organization. 5.
The certification privileges shall be restricted to work that the license holder has personally performed in the
Maintenance organization that issued the certification authorization. Different companies have different
procedures so he may be certified in some organizations but not in others.

B1: (gas turbine engine and base maintenance mechanical engineer). B1 license permit the holder to issue
CRS and act as B1 support staff following maintenance carried out on airframe, structure, power plant,
mechanical and electrical systems. He can replace LRUs which require simple BITE test to prove their
serviceability and not requiring troubleshooting. The scope of certification and limitations are listed by the
authority.

B2: Base Maintenance Avionics engineer. B2 license permits the holder to issue CRS and act as B2 support
staff following maintenance carried out on electrical and avionics systems. He can work on avionics and
electrical tasks in power plant and mechanical systems requiring only simple test to prove serviceability. He
can issue CRS following minor line maintenance or simple defect rectification that he personally carried out
limited to tasks stated by the organization that authorized him and the ratings endorsed on his B2 license.

C: it permits the holder to issue CRS for the whole aircraft following base maintenance in a CAR145
Organization

2) Can you sign for task after you get B1.1?

No, you cannot. You need to be approved by the quality department in your organization.

3) What is CAR 66
CAR66 defines the Aircraft Maintenance Engineers Licenses for certifying maintenance carried out and issue
CRS following maintenance that was carried out and establishes the requirements for application, issue, and
continuation of its validity

4) What modules do you need to pass to qualify for issuing of GCAA Basic License?
MODULE 1: MATHEMATICS,
MODULE 2: PHYSICS,
MODULE 3: ELECTRICAL FUNDAMENTALS,
MODULE 4: ELECTRONIC FUNDAMENTALS,
MODULE 5: DIGITAL TECHNIQUES AND ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
MODULE 6: MATERIALS AND HARDWARE
MODULE 7: MAINTENANCE PRACTICES
MODULE 8: AERODYNAMICS
MODULE 9: HUMAN FACTORS
 MODULE 10: AVIATION LEGISLATION
MODULE 11: AIRCRAFT AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURE AND SYSTEMS
MODULE 15: GAS TURBINE ENGINES
MODULE 17: PROPELLOR SYSTEMS

5) What is 145/147 organization

CAR-145 is an organization approval allowing the organization to perform maintenance and certify aircraft.
Combination of both MRO and CAMO.
CAR-147 specifies the requirements to be met by organizations seeking approval to conduct aircraft
maintenance training and examination and issue training certificates as specified in CAR 66.
PART M or CAR M is an organization approval which is dedicated to the management of Continuing
Airworthiness. It is mandatory for all Commercial Air Transport organizations (CAT) as well as large aircraft
(over 5700 kg).

6) What can a full B1.1 Type rated engineer can sign

He can certify all the tasks within the scope of limitations of his license that he personally or B1 support staff
has completed for the aircraft type that has been endorsed on his license.

AIRCRAFT DOCUMENTS:
1) What is AMM/IPC/SRM/TSM/FIM/ESPM
AMM: the aircraft maintenance manual provides information and procedures on how to perform
maintenance on the aircraft
IPC: illustrated parts catalogue provides an exploded view of an item or component
SRM: structure repair manual lists structure damage limitations and provides information on structural
damage assessment and repair
TSM: (Airbus) the troubleshooting manual provides a logical flowchart to assist the engineer in
troubleshooting a system.
FIM: (Boeing) the fault isolation manual works in the same way as the troubleshooting manual.
ESPM: Electrical standard practices manual covers the description, p/n, and installation procedures of
electrical equipment installed on aircraft including how to route them, materials and tools needed to install
them, repairing and cleaning circuits.

Q. What is technical notice?

It's a method for notifying the field of potential problems or pending modifications. In our system, we have
different types of technical notices based on the level of severity. We refer to such technical directives as
service letters, service bulletins, alert service bulletins, and airworthiness directives.

2) What is MEL /CDL? Where is this document?

MEL – minimum equipment list defines aircraft operation limitations in case of a system being inoperative
CDL – component deviation list defines aircraft operation limitations when an external item is inoperative or
missing.
ETOPS downgrading is mentioned in the MEL and CDL are carried onboard the aircraft and are also available
in the maintenance data.
3) What is AD / EO
AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVE is issued by manufacturer’s local authority and gives mandatory instructions to
be carried out on an aircraft type within a specified period as decided by the operator’s local authority
ENGINEERING ORDER is when an AD/SB/IB is taken in by the organization and converted into a work package
fitting for the aircraft effectivity so that it can be signed and certified.

4) What is effectivity of aircraft

Effectivity defines the compatibility of a part for aircraft or component.
That has Fleet SN, Manufacturer SN, ACN Aircraft Registration, Engine Type and Version Rank.
• Before you open the AMM. Manufacturer Serial Number (MSN) is the effectivity.
• Plate on ML1
• PMAT lock password is effectivity number.

5) What logbook use in aircraft

AIRCRAFT LOGBOOK, ENGINE LOGBOOK, CABIN LOG AND AIRCRAFT TECHNICAL LOG.
The aircraft type and registration mark, the date, together with total flight time and/or flight cycles and/or
landings, as appropriate, shall be entered in the aircraft logbooks.
The engine logbook contains the AW FORM1 of any parts fitted on the engine. Along with its P/N, S/N, aircraft
registration and total flight cycles/calendar days accumulated.
The tech log contains information on each flight for safety, the current CRS. Next planned maintenance,
outstanding deferred defects, and necessary guidance instructions for maintenance support arrangement.
Cabin Log is used by flight crew to record any defects encountered during flight

6) What is a Deferred Defect?

An identified aircraft defect which has been assessed as being within the requirements of the Minimum
Equipment List (MEL) or Configuration Deviation List and has had rectification deferred within a specified
limit. The details of the defect in its entirety along with its category must be recorded in the DD pages in the
tech log.
There are 4 categories:
A - There is no specified time limit however it should be repaired I.A.W. conditions stated in the MEL
B - Rectified in 3 consecutive days excluding the day of discovery
C – Rectified within 10 consecutive days excluding the day of discovery
D – Rectified within 120 consecutive days excluding day of discovery

7) Where is aircraft document folder and example of items in the folder

the document folder is kept in the cockpit and includes:
• Certificate of registration (C of R).
• Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A).
• Copy of certificate of insurance.
• Aircraft radio license.
• Noise certificate.
• Journey logbook, technical logbook, engine log and cabin log.
• Air operator certificate (AOC).
• Weight and balance sheet
• Flight manual / operations handbook
 8) GRN/Form 1 – what is it and who issue it
A goods receipt note is created to record the delivery of items from your suppliers. A GRN is created against
an issued purchase order. When a GRN is created for an item, any pending item quantity for an approved
indent request will be automatically issued. It is issued by the store for traceability purposes. In case of one
item being inop or faulty, all other items with the same GRN can be removed or tracked.

9) What is intermediate work package? Is it Schedule maintenance check?

intermediate work package is an unscheduled work package that is done when EOs come in or manpower or
items for which the package got delayed are now available. Since it’s an unscheduled package it cannot be
incorporated into a scheduled package and is often turned into its own package and added to scheduled
package.

GENERAL SUBJECTS:
1) What is ATA and how is it arranged
ATA stands for the Air Transport Association. The ATA numbering system is a common referencing standard
for commercial aircraft documentation extracted from the ATA ispec 2200 for ease of learning and
documentation for both pilots and engineers.

2) Forces acting on aircraft

4 Forces continuously work on the aircraft to maintain stable flight. These work in opposite direction to
maintain equilibrium. Thrust and drag balance the aircraft longitudinally and weight and lift balance it
vertically. Along with that we have shear, tension, compression, torsion, and flexing forces acting on all parts
of the aircraft.

3) Principle of wing creating lift

Lift is created when sufficient speed in the form of thrust created by the engines produces a proper airflow
around the wings. Lift on the wing is generated using Bernoulli’s principle. Air divides into two paths, one over
the wing and one under. The one has to travel a longer distance and thus travels at a higher velocity and
reduced pressure while the one on the lower surface travels a shorter route having a higher pressure. This
pressure difference pushes the aero foil up, creating lift

4) Principle of Axial flow jet engine

An Axial flow jet engine works on Newton’s third law of motion. “Every action has an equal and opposite
reaction”. Axial flow compressors produce a continuous flow of compressed gas parallel to the flow direction,
thus called axial flow, and have the benefits of high efficiency and large mass flow rate, particularly in relation
to their size and cross-section. They do, however, require several rows of airfoils to achieve a large pressure
rise, making them complex and expensive relative to other designs. The air is then combusted to produce a
large volume and pressure increase and part of this energy is transferred onto the turbines and the rest is
exhausted outwards, pushing the aircraft forwards, generating thrust.

5) Aft looking fwd. - What is in meaning of this statement

It means looking from the back/aft/tail of the aircraft towards the nose. This is commonly used when locating
items on the engine aft looking forward in a clockwise direction. It is also used to identify the location of
components or items more clearly on the aircraft.
ATA 05:
1. What is prefight check and who can sign it?
This is performed on the ramp before every flight. It is intended to ensure continued airworthiness by
checking for major defects and deficiencies. It is signed by A license holder line maintenance engineer or in
special circumstances by the flight crew provided they have authorization from the organization and only
limited to functional tests from cabin, visual tasks, and tripping CBs.

2. What is ETOPS check and who can sign for it?

An extended ‘ETOPS Transit’ check is required for Extended-range Twin-engine Operation Sectors. Special
considerations must be followed to operate an aircraft along a route with enough options and fuel to safely
complete the flight as dispatched or make a diversion (in the case of an engine failure). MEL (Minimum
Equipment Lists) for ETOPS certified aircraft must be developed which assure that the aircraft has adequate
redundancy to continually perform on extended range routes. These back-up systems should include
electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic, flight instruments, fuel, flight control, ice protection, engine start and
ignition, propulsion system instruments, navigation, communications, and auxiliary power units (APU). An
organization must first apply for an ETOPS approval from the authority and only ETOPS certified staff can sign
for these checks

3. How long a daily check valid?

daily checks are valid from 24-48hrs. 48hrs for long routes and outstations so the aircraft can fly back to base.

4. What is in daily check, service check and intermediate check?

daily check is done at the beginning of each day or every 2 days and is more thorough than a preflight check.
This check focuses on general condition by means of walk around inspections for an aircraft and is valid for
24hours, but not exceeding 48 hours. The aircraft log is reviewed for discrepancies and corrective action.
(CRS)
Service checks are scheduled checks and are more detailed than daily checks. This check is accomplished
along with a daily check and requires carrying out general visual inspection and operational check of aircraft
systems. This check also requires lubrication to be performed on components.
Intermediate checks are unscheduled inspections and are done when introducing new modifications or
bridging tasks or any abnormal inspections.

5. Why there is no B-check in your logbook?

The B checks are incorporated into Successive A checks.

6. Lightning strike / heavy landing check- where can you fine info on what inspection to do?
ATA 5

7. Engine bird strike or foreign object damage - where can I fine info on what to do? Give simple description
what type if inspection required.
ATA 5.

8. Why you need to do Borescope inspection for volcanic ash inspection?

Volcanic ash can make burn holes in the compressor and turbine blades and volcanic soot can accumulate
on the tips and lining, blocking them.
ATA 06:
1. What is fuselage station?
these are used as a longitudinal reference point for aircraft components. The length is measured in station
(a certain number of inches) from a reference datum point.

2. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on?

on the vertical axis from a datum point.

3. Where is the wing stations are measured from (starting point)?

from the center of the fuselage/ fuselage station line.

4. How do you identify and describe a dent location in aircraft?

using fuselage station and water station lines and using the dent and buckle chart index which has aircraft
drawings to pinpoint exact location.

5. If you have 15 belly fairing removed. How do you know which one go where?
Using the ID label, access panel number and the access panel chart.

6. Please give the aircraft zones.

100 Lower fuselage
200 Upper fuselage
300 Empennage
400 Nacelle and pylons
500 Left wing
600 Right wing
700 Landing gear
800 Doors

7. Where is zone 323?

on the vertical stabilizer

8. Zone 320 - which ATA system is at?

ATA. 55 - Stabilizers

ATA 07:
1. What are Primary Jacking Points B777 and A380?
B777 – tail 1 and wing root 2
A380 – Nose and two on wings

2. Can the aircraft be jacked from other location?

Yes, on support and stress jacks.

3. How do you know the jack is serviceable to use?

Calibration date
 4. What do you know about nose steady/ tail steady jack?
Support jacks

5. How to safely jack an aircraft and number of people required?

Make sure AMM and EPM are followed strictly, the aircraft is level, the CoG is determined and maintained,
and the jack sleeve should be positioned at 2-3in so that the jack doesn’t collapse. There should be two
mechanics and one engineer per jack and one LAE to oversee the entire operation. If a LAE is required in the
cockpit there should be additional personnel on ground for communication.

6. Can you jack the aircraft only from LH wing and tail/nose? – no RH jack
Yes, you can. It’s called precision stress jacking. It is performed based on directives from manufacturer,
including CG restrictions, load and pitch/roll limits.

ATA 08:
1) How do you level an aircraft?
By using plumb bobs and inclinometer. 777 has a plumb bob grid on the right wheel well and two
inclinometers on the NLG. Inclinometers and aircraft real time roll and pitch measurement from cockpit is
used in 380 with the inclinometer often being placed in the cabin.

2) How/why do aircraft weighing done

Aircraft weighing is done by using either mechanical jack cells or electrical load ramp cells. The aircraft is
moved onto ramps with the load cell underneath and the measurement is taken. Or moved onto jacks with
the cell being in between, mechanical is used for small aircraft and allow for attitude adjustment also.
Aircraft are weighed after a certain amount of time in years or cycles to re-establish the cg due to
accumulation of oil, grease, or other foreign materials or after any modification or painting is done on the
aircraft.

3) What is max take of weight/ empty weight/ max landing weight

MAX TAKE-OFF: is the maximum weight at which the pilot is allowed to attempt to take off.
EMPTY WEIGHT: The term basic empty weight includes the weight of the standard aircraft plus the weight of
the following:
• Any optional or special equipment
• fixed ballast
• Unusable fuel
It also includes and full operating fluids such as:
• Engine oil
• Hydraulic fluid, and
• Other fluids required for normal operation of aircraft systems
It DOES NOT include potable water, lavatory pre-charge water, and water intended for injection in the
engines, nor does it include passengers, cargo or usable fuel.
MAX LANDING WEIGHT: is the maximum aircraft gross weight due to design or operational limitations at
which an aircraft is permitted to land.
 Q. What is inside the weight and balance report?
The Weight and Balance Report is intended to record the essential loading data to enable a particular aircraft
to be correctly loaded, and to include sufficient information for an operator to produce written loading
instructions in accordance with the provisions of the regulations. The Weight and Balance Report applies to
the aircraft in the condition in which it is to be delivered from the manufacturer to the operator.
The Weight and Balance Report is the primary document used during weighing.
The Weight and Balance Report is divided into three parts:
• Part A – Basic Weight
• Part B – Variable Load
• Part C – Loading Information

ATA 09:
1. Describe basic Towing procedure with the man-power requirement.
• Make sure the area around the aircraft is clear for towing (wing tip clearance also), cowls and landing
gears are closed, and equipment is positioned securely.
• Make sure the LG down lock pins is installed.
• Install the nose LG bypass pin and connect the tow bar.
• Make sure that you have electrical power available either through APU or ground power from tow
truck or battery.
• If using APU make sure you have sufficient fuel quantity
• Make sure the communication with ATC is established and navigation and beacon lights are on
• Once the aircraft is ready for towing, request ATC for instructions to move to set location and
communicate with towing personnel
• Remove the chocks and release the parking brake.
• Once reached, inform the ATC, and switch off the nav and beacon lights and set the parking brakes.
• There should be 4 technicians on ground – one on each wing, one at the rear and one at the nose on
headset. There should also be an engineer on ground overseeing the operation and two engineers in
cockpit for communication and brakes, along with the personally operating the tow truck.

2. Is it possible to tow without power and with power? What is the difference?
Towing with power is done using ground power from the tow truck and the APU. Towing without power is
done using batteries. In power, all electrical and electronic systems are active, as well as backup hydraulic
control is available. You also don’t have a time limit unlike with batteries. When operating without power,
you can only two for 20min and have access to essential systems like emergency systems, navigation lights
and communication.

3. What is the safety procedure for towing aircraft?

the towing angle on the NLG should not be exceeded (60 degrees each side from center)
The bypass pin should be installed, and down lock pins installed.

4. Is there any EPM covering towing aircraft?

yes, EPM 11-08: towing procedures

5. Basic communication between aircraft and tower?

ATA 10:
1. Parking aircraft after towing (off stress main wheel)
Move the aircraft in a straight line 20m or 66ft after towing is finished.

2. What is chock distance during parking?

Chocks should be placed 2” away during normal parking.

3. Diff. between metal chock and normal plastic chock

Metal chocks are used for high power engine runs and are kept 6’’ away from the wheel.

4. What is long term parking? Describe simple work required for difference type of storage.
4 types of parking:
• Normal parking: stored for a few hours to a few days. The aircraft is kept in an immediate ready-to-fly
condition, often requiring only visual checks and servicing tasks to be performed.
• Short term parking: storage period ranging from a few days to several weeks. The aircraft can be in a
ready to fly condition on short notice. The aircraft is blanked and safety and down lock pins installed.
• Long term parking: duration of up to 6 months. Return to flight on short notice is not possible.
• Aircraft storage: storage period greater than 6 months. All emergency and auxiliary equipment is
removed. Fuel (90%) and oil are removed, and engine oil replaced with preservatives fluid. Storage
tires are used.
In long term parking and storage, the interval of tasks is reduced, depending on duration. Such as engine
run, and inspections don’t need to be carried out as frequently as short term. Probes and inlets are
blanked, Aircraft is preferably parked on a flat surface into the wind, LG pins installed, outflow valves
closed, equipment removed, chocks installed and if there is a risk of winds, manila ropes and tie down
ropes being used to tie down the flight controls and aircraft.

ATA 11:
1. Aircraft placard –where can you find the reference?
ATA 11

2. What is the mandatory placard around aircraft?

cargo handling, rat stowage, potable water, hydraulic servicing etc.

Give min 5 mandatory placard/Decal.

Placards: oleo placards, door operating instruction (cabin and cargo)
Decals: cabin door caution, do not cross, engine operation safe zone

3. Diff between Placard and Decal

Placard are used to give information and decals are visual in nature, using pictures.
ATA 12:
1. Hydraulic system servicing
To accurately check hydraulic fluid level, the hydraulic system pressurized or non-pressurized, the spoilers in
down position, for center: landing gear doors closed. For left thrust reversers retracted, for right: thrust
reverser retracted, brake accumulator pressurized, brake surge accumulator pressurized. There are 3
methods to check fluid level: using EICAS/ ECAM, checking level on ground service bay or on the reservoirs
itself.
When filling the reservoir, along with the precautions taken above, you should also release parking brake as
the quantity can change when released. But make sure you have enough pre-charge.
There are 3 filling methods on 777: manual and pressure and manual and pressure cart for a380.
For manual:
• remove the suction hose from stowage tube and clean and put one end into a hydraulic fluid
container.
• Remove the manual pump handle from the stowage bracket. Push the handle aft and turn to release
it and insert into the socket of the pump.
• Turn the knob to the desired system and operate the handle to fill the system. Do not operate at off
as this can cause overpressure in the fill system, damaging the equipment. Also don’t overfill as this
can cause fluid to flow out the vent through pressure relief valve.
For pressure, connect the hose to the pressure fill port and turn the knob to the selected system and
operate the hydraulic cart.

2. Landing gear oleo servicing

The fluid level is checked by measuring the strut dimension and pressure at two different extensions. This can
be done by using two aircraft weights (fuel and defuel) or on jacks. The extension and pressure measurements
must lie within the respective strut servicing band for continued operation.
Note: before you do anything on the landing gear, make sure the down lock pins are installed.
• On first extension, remove the gas valve cap and connect a pressure gauge, loosen the swivel nut, and
measure the gas pressure and extension. If the pressure and/or extension is more than that on the
band, deflate the oleo until within limits. If below limit, inflate the strut with dry nitrogen.
• At the second extension, check the fluid quantity by checking if pressure and extension is within limits.
If it is below the limit, you must service the oleo strut.
Note: gas swivel nut is at the top and fluid charging valve at the bottom.

Oleo servicing:
Caution:
• make sure the down lock pins are installed.
• Clear the area around the aircraft before you deflate the shock strut.
• Do not remove the valve body until deflated fully as this can cause the body to fly out and cause injury or
damage.
Process:
• First deflate the air by slowly loosening the swivel nut to a max of two turns so that there is no fluid
leak.
• Loosen the nut completely when fully deflated by checking the extension.
 • Remove the cap of the oil charging valve and connect a drain tube to an oil resistant container and
loosen the valve to drain the oil (draining the oil, not necessary, when oil contaminated)
• Connect the fluid servicing cart to the fluid charging valve, loosen the gas valve and connect a tube
with the other end in a bucket. Fill until fluid flows out through the gas valve and the fluid is free of
bubbles. (Gas valve should be loose). Tighten the valve and connect the cap and tighten the cap.
• Remove the hose and connect a strut inflator to the gas valve until a certain extension or pressure is
reached. Use a pressure gauge to measure the pressure of the strut. Inflate or deflate as necessary
to make it within limit. Disconnect the inflator and tighten the valve and cap.

3. Engine oil servicing

Caution:
• Don’t touch components of the oil system if engine is hot, these are hotter.
• Don’t open the cap until pressure reaches zero (after 5 minutes)
• Don’t let hot oil get on you. Wear PPE. And don’t let it stay on your skin
• Don’t let oil get on the engine or other components
• Make sure there is no fuel in the oil tank, if you smell fuel or a combustible gas detector unit indicates
the presence of fuel, replace the oil/fuel heat exchanger, and flush the oil system
to get access to the oil tank you must open the left fan cowl oil tank access door. You must check the engine
oil quantity between 5 and 60min after engine shutdown. If more time has passed, dry motor the engine for
4 minutes. Make sure the filler cap and surrounding area is clean and dry to prevent oil contamination. (Note:
Oil is hygroscopic and can absorb water in the atmosphere. don’t fill from dirty or open can or a fill cart
exposed to the atmosphere).
Open the cap and put it in locked position and move the lever on the cap to open. Pull the dipstick until it is
above the oil tank cap. Fully fill the engine oil until the scupper base which is at the same level as the filler
port neck.
Lower the dipstick and close the cap and return to normal.

4. IDG/VFG servicing
Caution:
• Don’t let hot oil get on your body
• Shut down the engine and wait for 5-60 min before checking IDG level, if more time has passed, do a
dry motor.
• Put a rag around the overflow drain hose fitting to prevent hot oil spray
• Don’t disconnect overflow drain until you finish servicing and flow through the hose stops. If excess
oil remains, the IDG/VFG can get damaged
• Engine oil is hygroscopic

You can either fully drain and fill the oil as part of scheduled task or when replacing the IDG/ VFG oil filter.
Connect a drain hose to the drain/overflow port to release excess pressure. Cut the lockwire and loosen the
drain plug to drain all the oil. Remove the filter cover and the filter and inspect for any contamination. Put a
new filter and torque the cover. Tighten and lockwire the drain plug. Connect the cart hose to the fill side and
fill until a min 1qrt comes out through the overfill hose. This is to make sure the overfill/drain is open. Remove
the hose from the fill port and when flow decreases to a few drops per minute or stops, remove the drain
hose, and install the dust cap.
 5. APU Oil servicing
APU oil level can be checked either from EICAS/ECAM or on the oil tank sight gauge
Same cautions as engine oil servicing. Make sure the APU selector is off and APU not running. Disengage the
retaining clamp and open the cap. Slowly fill until the level reaches the Full line on APU offside. Close the cap,
engage the clamp, and pull it down.

6. Water servicing
the potable water system should be drained or used a minimum of once every three days, bacteria can grow
in the tank. Close the related CBs. turn the isolation/drain valve on aft service panel to drain position and
isolation valve on aft LH cabin door to open position. Move the shutoff valve in each galley to open position.
Make sure the drain valve in galleys is set to ON, and coffee makers are drained. Put a drum and hose below
each drain port on the belly. On the aft panel, turn preselect switch to OFF/reset. Pull the handle on the fwd.
and aft service panels. Wait for 5 minutes after flow stopped to let residual water drain. Push the handle back
in. wait for the compressors to pressurize the system again for 20min. pull the handles again. And let the
water flow out. If you’re not filling the tank immediately, open the CBs I.A.W amm. Move the galley, lavatory
and coffee maker drain to closed position and move isolation valve on cabin door LH2 to open. Push the
handles back in. closes the CBs. before filling make sure the lavatory drain is in closed as leaving in open can
freeze the line. Open the water fill cap and connect pressure hose to the fitting. Turn preselect switch to
desired position. The preselect handle will extend to show it is in open position. After you’re done filling, turn
the preselect switch to off and make sure valve is closed. Disconnect the hose and let the residual water flow
out before closing the cap. Pull the fwd. and aft handle and make sure no water comes out to confirm that
drain valves are closed.

7. Lavatory servicing
Open the cap of the drain assembly on the waste tank service door and connect the drain hose. Push the
“push to open” lever and pull a handle to open the waste drain ball valve. Open the rinse cap and connect a
rinse hose and make sure there is a min pressure of 30psi. flush the tanks with 10 to 50gal of water and make
sure all liquid drains. Close the drain ball valve. Add the pre-charge. Note: the pre-charge is corrosive and
poisonous. Don’t add precharge in cold condition as it can freeze and damage the system. You can either add
liquid precharge through the rinse fitting for each tank or from the Lav using dry precharge and operating the
Lav for each tank. Make sure there is no leakage and sealing disc on rinse cap is present. Close the cap and
panel

ATA 20:
1. How do you do Torque loading with extension?

T1= (T2 X L1) / L2

T1 is the torque setting on the wrench
T2 is the torque applied on the nut. (Torque required)
L1 is the length of the wrench
L2 is the combined length of wrench and extension
 2. Precautions during Wire locking activity
• when cutting lockwire make sure to hold the other side or point the other way so as not to cause injury
• Refer to the AMM or standard procedures to make sure you’re using the correct lockwire type and size
• Make sure to twist properly. There should be 7-12 turns per inch. Do not overtwist as this can break the
wire and don’t under twist as this can render it meaningless.
• Make sure the wire is locked in the correct direction around the bolt so that the wire prevents the bolt
from turning anticlockwise.
• The wire end should be cut off and bent inwards into a pigtail shape so that the next person or surrounding
area doesn’t get damaged

3. NDT inspection can be done by aircraft engineer?

it can be done only by an appropriately trained and authorized engineer.

4. How to do dye penetrant check?

• Thoroughly clean the surrounding of the inspection area.

• Apply penetrant on the inspection area and let it soak for several minutes
• Clean the area (rinse it with water and let it dry).
• Apply developer and after a few minutes the cracks are visible

5. Diff between lock nut /castellated nut / wing nut / tab washer
Self-Locking Nut:
The inner threads are smaller than the outer threads. It locks the bolt or screw in
place and prevents vibration or loosening without the need of applying a torque.
Self-locking nuts shouldn’t be over-torqued as this can damage the threads of the
nut

Castellated Nut:
A castle nut has slots (notches) cut into it on one end. Castle nuts are used in low
torque applications and are used in conjunction with another form of locking such
as cotter pins to secure the bolt.

Wing nut:
A nut with two large metal wings on each side to allow it to be turned without the
need for a tool. Used in extremely low torque applications

Tab washer:
A locking washer that works by having a side tab that can be bent into place
against a castle nut. Metallic or non-metallic, the tab washer notch prevents
rotation relative to the shaft or fastener. It can also have a spline tab to align it
and hold it relative to the nut, bolt or bearing.
ATA 21:
1. What are the subsystems in ATA 21 (e.g., ventilation system)?

• Cabin Pressurization and control

• Pack cooling and mix manifold
• Temperature control
• Ventilation system
• Air distribution
• Recirculation system
• Equipment cooling system
• Cargo compartment conditioned air distribution
• Fwd. and bulk cargo heating system
• Pressure indicating and warning system
• Pack flow control
• Trim air regulation
• Zone temperature monitoring and control
• (For 777) Ozone Control

2. How aircraft is pressurization is done and control?

Aircraft is pressurized by air inflow from the air conditioning system and controlling outflow through the fwd.
and aft outflow valve.

3. What is cabin differential pressure?

It is the difference between cabin internal pressure and ambient pressure

4. What is the safety requirement for aircraft ground pressurization test?

• Make sure the entire travel range of the outflow valves is clear
• DO NOT START A "TEST WITH CAUTION" IF THERE IS A "TEST WITH CAUTION" IN PROGRESS.
• DURING OPERATION OR TESTS OF THE VALVE, KEEP AWAY FROM THE PARTS OF THE OUTFLOW VALVE
THAT CAN MOVE OR ARE ENERGIZED. THESE PARTS CAN CAUSE INJURY TO PERSONS.
• Make sure no bleed air or hp air is supplied to the a/c system. Hot air can cause injury
• On the a380, the Fwd avionics comp access door must be open otherwise accidental aircraft
pressurization can occur.

5. What is difference between following items?

• Condenser/reheater: it has two functions. It cools air in the pack before it enters the water collector to
remove the condensed water from the air. It also adds pack energy to the air by heating it so that the
turbine can extract more energy from the air and move the compressor more efficiently. They are cooled
by air moving from turbine 1 and 2.
• Ram air inlet door: two-part hinged door which controls the amount of air cooling the heat exchangers.
This functions with other components to control air temperature from the pack.
• Flow control valve: these control the airflow from the pneumatic systems into the packs.
• Trim air valve: controls and distributes trim air flow into the trim air modulating valves. The trim air
modulating valves controls the amount of trim air going into individual zones to reach selected
temperature.
• Mix manifold: mixes air from the recirculation system and pack flow and distributes air into the cabin,
cargo, flight deck and if present the CRC.
• Outflow valve: the outflow valves control the internal pressure of the aircraft by controlled deflection of
the valve from the flight deck, controlling the amount of exhausted air. They can be manually controlled
or automated.
• Negative relief valve: it opens when the cabin pressure is less than ambient pressure. It is spring loaded.
Starts to open at diff. pressure of 0.2psi and fully open at diff. pressure of 0.5psi.
• Positive relief valve: it opens when the cabin pressure is higher than ambient pressure by a set value. It
has an air filter and two sense lines. The air filter supplies cabin pressure and sense lines give ambient
pressure. One sense line is integral, and the other is remote, aft of the valve.

6. What is the difference between ACM and heat exchanger?

heat exchanger provides air to air cooling by using ram air to cool the pack air. The ACM uses a compressor
and turbine to compress and cool the air by expanding it.

7. What do we use the ram air in air-conditioning system?

to cool the air entering the dual heat exchanger cores.

8. On ground there is no ram air. How outside air coming across the heat exchanger to cool it?
a plenum fan sucks the air into the ram air ducts on ground to provide cooling.

9. What air can be use as source of air conditioning system?

bleed air from the APU or engines, or LP ground air.

10. Please give brief description of air-conditioning Pack operation with a system schematic diagram.

11. How is the cabin zone temperature control in cabin?

each zone temperature is monitored and controlled from the FAP. The computer selects the lowest
temperature of each zone and sets this temperature for all zones. It then controls the trim air into each zone
to reach the desired temperature.

12. What is recirculation system in cabin and why we need it?

recirculation system takes the air from cabin and cargo, passes it through HEPA (High Efficiency Particulate
Air) filters and supplies it back into the mix manifold or cabin. The recirculation system reduces the load on
the engine by taking less bleed air, increasing engine efficiency.

13. What is the diff between low pressure air-conditioning Connection and HP pneumatic connection?
LP Connection supplies air to the A/C system just before the mix manifold. HP connection supply high
pressure for use instead of bleed air for pneumatic systems.
 14. What is Galley / Lav. ventilation system?
The Gal/Lav ventilation system removes the warm and foul-smelling air from the lavatories and galleys and
ducts them overboard through the aft outflow valve

15. Diff between SCS and Galley chillers?

The Supplemental Cooling system is used on the a380. The liquid refrigerant is stored in a reservoir in the
belly and passed through air chiller units in each galley and the upper avionics compartment. The galley chiller
unit in 777 use the air-conditioned air to cool the galley.

16. How does water extracted from air conditioning system and what do you do with this water?
Water is extracted by first condensing the air in the condenser and then passing it through a water collector
to extract the water. The water is then sprayed into the plenum inlet duct to decrease the temperature of
the air, increasing pack efficiency.

ATA 22:

1) What is fly by wire philosophy?

fly by wire is a concept in which the aircraft is flown purely using electronic controls and computer systems
rather than manual methods such as control cables. The pilot’s input is converted to electrical signals.

2) What is FMC?
it is a multi-purpose navigation, performance, and aircraft operations computer designed to provide virtual
data and operational harmony between closed and open elements associated with a flight from pre-engine
start and take-off, to landing and engine shutdown. It uses a large data base to allow routes to be pre-
programmed and fed into the system by means of a data loader. The system is constantly updated with
aircraft position by reference to available navigation aids. The most appropriate aids are automatically
selected during information update.

3) How do you normally disconnect autopilot? Any other autopilot disconnects?

it is disconnected by pressing autopilot pushbutton (A/P DISENGAGE for 777 and AP1/AP2 for A380) on the
glareshield panel. It can also be disconnected by pushing a switch behind the control column on 777. A/P also
disengages on going into reverse idle and deploying the T/R.

4) What is difference between Auto throttle and auto thrust?

AUTO THROTTLE is used on the B777. It moves the Throttle lever in the cockpit to give thrust changes.
AUTO THRUST is used on the a380 in which the thrust changes are computed by the FADEC on the engine
and there is no throttle movement in cockpit.

5) What is the diff. between Flight director and Autopilot?

AUTOPILOT controls the aircraft without pilot input in longitude and altitude.
FLIGHT DIRECTOR computes and displays the proper pitch and bank angles required for the aircraft to follow
a selected flight path. Taking the information from FMC.
 6) What is Nav Data Base in aircraft and how often you do this?
The navigation database allows an FMS or GPS navigator to create a continuous display of navigational data,
thus enabling an aircraft to be flown along a specific route. Vertical navigation can also be coded. The data
included in an airborne navigation database is organized into ARINC 424 records. A series of leg types are
coded into a navigation database to make a flight procedure. The NAV database is updated every 28 days to
make sure its contents are current.

7) How many programs (NAV data base) can an FMC store?

28 programs

8) With autopilot engaged which control surface will be control by autopilot?

all the primary control surfaces

9) In autopilot Mode does the control column move?

Yes
10) What ground based transmitters can give inputs to Navigation system?
non-directional beacons (ADF), VOR ground stations, ATC.

11) What is the status of auto-throttle (engaged) if reverse thrust deployed on landing?
It is disengaged.

12) What do you Understand about auto Landing Categories?

Category of Operation Decision Height (DH) (2) RUNWAY VISUAL Instrument used

Barometric
CAT I not lower than 60 m (200 ft) not less than 550 m altimeter, DH can be
used

lower than 60 m (200 ft), but not Radio altimeter used

CAT II (low visibility) not less than 350 m
lower than 30 m (100 ft) with DH

Radio altimeter used

CAT IIIA (low to none) lower than 30 m (100 ft) or no DH not less than 200m
with DH

less than 200m but Radio altimeter used

CAT IIIB lower than 15 m (50 ft) or no DH
not less than 50 m with DH

Radio altimeter used

CAT IIIC no DH no RVR limitation with DH

A PILOT MUST USE ILS FOR CAT 3.

ATA 23:
1. Diff between VHF and HF systems?
High Frequency, HF, system is used for extra long-range communication between the aircraft and ground
and aircraft and satellites. Very High Frequency, VHF, is used for long range communication between aircraft
to aircraft and aircraft to ground.

2. What is the Diff. between?

• Passenger Address (PA): for announcement to all cabin zones and flight deck
• Cabin Interphone: cabin to cabin and cabin to flight deck
• Flight Interphone: between pilots, pilot and ground and pilot and tower.
• Service Interphone: between mechanic and flight crew

3) What is Mechanic call?

By pressing the mechanic call button, the flight crew can alert the ground crew by a chime and red light on
the NLG.

4) What is ELT / how many types we have in aircraft?

Emergency Locator Transmitter broadcasts distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on
application, may be automatically activated by impact, or be manually activated. An ELT may take any of the
following forms:
Automatic fixed ELT. An automatically activated ELT which is permanently attached to an aircraft.
Automatic portable ELT (ELT(AP)). An automatically activated ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft but
readily removable from the aircraft.
Automatic deployable ELT (ELT(AD)). An ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft, and which is automatically
deployed and activated by impact, and, in some cases, also by hydrostatic sensors. Manual deployment
capability is also provided.
Survival ELT (ELT(S)). An ELT which is removable from an aircraft, stowed to facilitate its ready use in an
emergency, and manually activated by survivors.

5) What is Static discharger any test for replacement of static discharges?

The static charges that build up on an aircraft during flight (due to friction between air and aircraft structure)
tent to accumulate near sharp edge like the trailing edge of wings and tail surfaces. The purpose of static
wicks is to provide a conductive path for these excess electrons to flow or from the aircraft back into the
atmosphere. This prevents HIRF and sparks/arcing. Also provides a exit path for lightning. Resistance test is
used to check the condition of static dischargers.

6) What is the emergency frequency?

121.5MHz

7) What is CVR, number of channels, what recorded in channel 4? General Location?

Cockpit Voice Recorder records the audio in the flight deck. It records and stores the audio signals of the
microphones and earphones of the pilots’ headsets and of an area microphone installed in the cockpit.
Channel 4 records the audio of the 4th occupant seat or the general area of the cockpit. Duration is two hours.
Usually installed on the tail of the aircraft. First channel is for the first observer. Second channel is for first
officer, third is captains’ seat and fourth is general environment. The location of channel 4 mic is on the P5
overhead panel.
 8) What is DFDR for and how long is the recording? General Location?
Digital Flight Data Recorder records the parameters required to determine accurately the airplane flight path,
speed, attitude, engine power, configuration, and operation. Types II and IIA FDRs record the parameters
required to determine accurately the airplane flight path, speed, attitude, engine power and configuration of
lift and drag devices. Stored in the tail section. Records for 17-25hrs.

ATA 24:
1. Describe Main AC power Generation systems?
the main AC power generation systems generate and distribute ac voltage of 115v 400htz in all flight stages.
They are the IDG/VFG, APU, BUG, RAT, main and APU battery, external power

2. What is the main DC generation source?

main battery, external power.

3. What is the Main Battery use for?

used in emergency to supply vital and essential systems such as cockpit essential and cabin essential lighting,
navigation and communication systems etc. only sustains for 20min.
4. What is the diff. between?
• Static invert: used to change dc to single phase ac.
• Transformer: used to step up or step down the voltage
• Rectifiers: used to change sine wave ac to pulsating dc

5. What is the diff. between AC and DC power?

AC power – current flows in both directions. DC – current flows in only one direction.

6. What is a transformer used for?

step up or step down the voltage. TRU in aircraft is used to step down and change 115vac to 28vdc.

7. Where is AC and DC power used in EK aircraft (generally)?

all aircraft systems use AC. Backup and essential systems use dc. During starting some motors and pumps
use dc.
8. What is a circuit breaker (CB)?
A circuit breaker is an automatically operated electrical switch designed to protect an electrical circuit from
damage caused by excess current from an overload or short circuit. Unlike a fuse, which operates once and
then must be replaced, a circuit breaker can be reset.
9. What is external power used for?
used for supplying electrical power on ground, without running the APU or engine.

10. An external power plug has two short pins. These pins are for?
interlock pins, so that when the plug is removed, the plugs disconnect and break the circuit first before the
4 large pins are removed, to prevent arcing.

11. What loads on ground service bus/ground handling bus?

on ground primary external power loads are taken and inflight the bus is disconnected from the main bus.
12. When resetting/reconnect the CSD on the ground, what is the precaution must be taken?
push the GEN DRIVE disconnect button for more than 3 seconds and wait for 60sec before pushing again
Slowly pull the ring to the outer limit and you should hear a click. If you don’t, replace the IDG.
Release the ring and it should go back to its position. Pull it again and this time it should pull with less force,
again no clicks. If the force is same or more, replace the IDG.
Do an engine idle run and perform a load test. Make sure the shaft is connected to the gearbox before doing
a test. The disconnect ring lets you reset the drive disconnect mechanism. The switch is armed when the fuel
cutoff is in run. A thermal plug automatically melts and disconnects the shafts in case of over temperature
due to low oil pressure. Shafts disconnected manually can be reset on ground. Thermally disconnected can’t
be reset and need to be sent to shop

Q. How many batteries are there in a380/777

Ans. B777: 3 batteries main, essential and APU
A380: 4 – 2 main, essential and APU

13. How’s battery rated

amperage-hour. The capacity of an aircraft battery is usually based on a one-hour discharge rate. A 17-
ampere hour battery will supply a current of approximately 17 amperes for a period of one hour. The capacity
of an aircraft battery is usually based on a one-hour discharge rate. A 17-ampere hour battery will supply a
current of approximately 17 amperes for a period of one hour.
14. What is the unit of frequency?
Hertz (Hz)

15. Diff between APU GEN/IDG/VFG - Which is used on which aircraft

APU is used to provide electrical and pneumatic power on ground and in flight in emergencies.
IDG is the primary power generation source on 777 while the VFG is used on a380. The main difference
between them is that IDG has an integrated CSD to give a fixed frequency output while the vfg has no csd and
gives variable output.

16. What power is generated by IDG/VFG and how many cables are attached to them?
115VAC 400Htz. There are 6 cables: three phase cables and one ground.

17. In what units are static inverters rated?

VA

18. What is RAT and its function?

the Ram Air Turbine is used in emergency in flight. In case of the loss of both primary and auxiliary power
sources the RAT will power vital systems (flight controls, linked hydraulics, and flight-critical instrumentation).
They can be deployed manually or automatically.

19. What is Emergency light and how does it work?

emergency lights in cabin are used to illuminate aisle path, and emergency signs in case of emergency and is
operated on essential hot bus which can be ac or dc. Activated by a switch in cockpit.
20. What is the diff. between RVDT and LVDT and where is it used in aircraft?
Rotary variable differential transducer is used to measure angular movement and is used in landing gear
steering. Linear variable differential transducer is used to measure linear movement and is used to measure
the movement of actuators such as extension of flight controls.

21. What is the diff between EPSU/FCDC batt/Main batt and APU batt?
EPSU: Emergency power supply unit powers the emergency lights and signs in case of emergency if the normal
aircraft power is lost.
FCDC battery: Flight control data computers (FCDC) To keep power available for the computer.
Main battery: nickel cadmium (Ni-Cd), powers up aircraft before engines, provides backup power for critical
systems during flight in the extremely unlikely event of a power failure.
APU battery: to operate autonomously without reliance on ground support equipment such as a ground
power unit, an external air-conditioning unit or a high-pressure air start cart.

22. What is a schematic diagram?

a representation of the elements of a system using abstract, graphic symbols rather to provide a more
simplified map of the system. This may be combined with a wiring diagram, which lets you know how each
component in the system is connected and communicates with the others.

23. How do you do a continuity check? Tool used?

performed by placing a small voltage across the chosen path. Place one probe on end of the line and the
other on the other end. It should show an extremely low or no voltage drop. Using safety ohmmeter or
ohmmeter.

24. How do you do resistance check? Tool used?

measuring the Insulation resistance of a device under test, while phase and neutral are short circuited
together. Using megohmmeter. The testing point are identified in the associated manual (amm/espm). A
voltage is passed through the center conductor and a probe is placed outside next to the insulation. There
should be no voltage.

25. How do you do a bonding check? Tool used?

determines electrical ground has been established between two points. Conductive parts are bonded
together. Using an ohmmeter or safety ohmmeter, if in a flammable zone. Performed by connecting one
probe to a conductive path and the other to a surrounding structure.

26. What is FIN (Functional Identification Number) / Component number?

used to identify the exact location of components and differentiate between multiple components within the
same location/zone in an aircraft.

ATA 25:
1. Emergency equipment in aircraft?
fire extinguisher, PBE, crash axe, portable oxygen bottle, main and spare life vests, first aid kit, SRAK, smoke
hood.
2. What Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) and how to use it?
PBE or smoke hood is used by flight crew in emergency when there is smoke in the cabin. You place it over
your head, tighten and breathe through it.
3. What is the main difference between cockpit seat’s belt and cabin seat’s belt?
cockpit is 5 point and cabin are 1 point.

4. What is trash compactor?

compacts trash to save space. 2 on 777 and 4 on A380

5. What Type of oven use in B777/A380 aircraft?

conventional, steam and toaster.

6. What is the precaution opening aircraft door?

make sure the door is in disarm position, the area outside is clear to open and there is a stair or sky bridge.
Don’t open the door on a380 when the red pressurized light is blinking

7. Life jackets and escape slides are pressurized by?

life jackets are pressurized by CO2 cartridges
Escape slides are pressurized by nitrogen cylinders initially and then ambient air through suction. Slide inflate
with an initial boost from a canister of compressed CO2 and nitrogen. A canister provides only one third of
the volume of the slide. The remaining volume is supplied by the ambient air which is channeled to aspirator.

8. Type of Slide, location and how is it deployed (where does the air inside fully deployed slide come from)
there are two types: slides and slide rafts. Over wing slides are attached to fuselage and rafts are attached to
cabin doors. The sides are initially inflated by nitrogen cylinder inside and the suction pulls the rest of air in
from outside atmosphere. (Aspirator)

9. How will you disarm slide from outside?

by pulling on the door handle.

10. What is cockpit escape rope

used by cockpit crew to escape from the aircraft in case of emergency or hijacking.

ATA 26
1. What is Fire Detection system /Fire Protection System?
Fire Detection: Designed to discover fires in the aircraft’s pressurized and unpressurized areas early in their
development.
• Fire Protection: Include fire suppression, sprinklers, smoke detectors and other fire protection equipment
that works in tandem (bootstrap) to protect against fire. Fire protection includes fire extinguishing system
that uses fixed or portable extinguishing systems. The fixed bottes are operated automatically or manually.
The portable ones are obviously manually.

2. How is duct leak or fire detected?

Hot air leak detection loops are routed in conjunction with the duct pathways and they employ thermocouple
lines that provide a feedback loop (LOOP A & LOOP B).
3. How does smoke detector work?
Photoelectric cell/LDR/Infra-red sensor. Smoke particles reflect light shining it on photoelectric cells,
generating a voltage. As smoke enters the chamber the smoke particles will cause the light inside to scatter
causing the sensor (adjacent) to sense a change thereby registering a possible smoke condition.

4. Avionics compartment smoke detected. How is it protected?

Uses a duct-based smoke detector that particles will be transported through the smoke detector, in the case
the smoke density is above the specified limit then the warning signal is generated. Sucked air is dumped out
the outflow valve.

5. What is engine internal fire and external fire?

external fire is between the engine and nacelle and internal fire is inside the core, tail and compressor.

6. How does Engine fire protection work?

Each detector location has two heat-sensing elements along with associated support tubes, brackets, and
electrical connectors. Sufficient area coverage is required to ensure prompt detection of a fire within the fire
zone. The detector elements of the fire- or overheat-detection system are configured to form two redundant
loops, with each detector loop monitored by a separate control card or a controller. Signals from the detectors
are processed through an automatic fire-and-overheat-logic-and-test system to generate flight-deck displays
and aural warnings to alert the crew in the event of an engine fire. Alerts are displayed in the form of lights
(red MASTER WARNING for fire and an amber CAUTION for overheat), together with the simultaneous
illumination of the associated engine-fire handle and fuel-shutoff switch for an engine fire. On airplanes with
engine-indication-and-crew-alerting-system (EICAS) capability, EICAS messages are shown on the integrated
flight-deck displays. An EICAS message also appears in the event of a detector system failure.

Q. What are the two types of fire detections continuous loops?

Systron donner and Lindberg system. Lindberg: consists of a stainless-steel tube with an inert gas inside and
a discrete metal capable of absorbing a portion of the gas. Systron donner: a stainless-steel tube filled with
helium and a titanium wire running through the center. A380 uses Lindberg system.

7. In case of Engine fire warning - On pulling the fire handle what happen?
the engine will be isolated from the aircraft systems and the bottle gets armed.

8. What are we checking when a cockpit checks on the engine firewire system carried out (Test)?
aural and visual warnings in the cockpit along with a test pass indication on EICAS/ECAM (Engine Indicating
and crew alerting system/Electronic centralized aircraft monitoring system)

9. How does Toilet/Lav. fire extinguisher work?

Bottle has 2 leads due to heat it will melt and extinguish the agent. There is a thermochromic sticker which
changes temperature from grey to black with increase in temperature.

10. Is cargo comp. protected by fire protection system/ how is work?

it is. Upon getting a warning, the pilot can push the guarded cargo fire extinguishing switch to release the
agent into the cargo.

11. Which place having fire detection without protection?

wheel well.
 12. Can you run APU with the APU door open?
yes, you can

13. Do we have fire detection in cabin?

no, passengers are the detection.

ATA 27:
1. Aircraft controlled by what axis?
aircraft is controlled on three axes. Longitudinal (aileron), lateral (elevator), and vertical (rudder).

2. Flight Control System operation:

• Manually: using mechanical cables and quadrants to operate the flight controls.
• Electrically and hydraulically combined: electrically controlled and hydraulically operated actuators, used
as primary or as backup in case the main hydraulic system fails.
• Electrically: inputs taken from FMC, autopilot, pilot input and feedback from the flight control surface,
electric signals are used to control hydraulic actuator output
• Fly-by-wire: using electronic computers, servo control actuators and transducers to move control
surfaces. There is no mechanical connection between the pilot and flight control.
• Artificial feel: A type of feedback incorporated in the control system of an aircraft whereby a portion of
the forces acting on the control surfaces are transmitted to the cockpit controls. This prevents the pilot
from giving excessive inputs i.e., overstressing.
• Yaw damper: reduces the tendency of an aircraft to oscillate in roll and yaw motion, thus preventing Dutch
roll. Also reduces pilot workload. The yaw damper system consists of a series of accelerometers and
sensors that monitor the aircraft rate of yaw; these are electronically interconnected to a flight computer
that processes these inputs and automatically controls actuators connected to the rudder.
• Mach trim: reduces the nose down tendency of an aircraft when it reaches Mach speed as the CoP moves
aft
• Rudder limiter: limits the max deflection of the rudder reducing load on vertical stabilizer.

3. Which is Primary flight control surface?

Aileron, elevator, and rudder

4. Which is Secondary flight control?

flaps, slats/slots, and spoilers

5. How spoiler use as primary flight control

Assists in roll with the ailerons (#4 & #11) There are total of 14 spoilers on b777 and 16 on a380.

6. Diff between horizontal stabilizer control and elevator control?

HS gives long term lateral axes control and elevator controls pitching moment and gives short term movement

7. What is rudder trim?

counteract aerodynamic forces and stabilize the vertical stabilizer to get a hands-off condition. Can be ground
adjustable (fixed trim) or inflight adjustable (trim tab) through the control wheel.
 8. Diff between rudder operations and brake operations?
pushing on one pedal gives rudder input and pressing on both applies brakes. One lower is rudder and upper
both is brakes

9. What is flaperon?
a combination of aileron and flaps. They can be used to increase lift and drag or provide roll control
depending on how they are used. At high speeds, flaperons are usually used in place of ailerons.

10. What is the diff. between? (Can draw for explanation)

• Split flap: The rear portion of the lower surface of the airfoil hinges
downwards from the leading edge of the flap, while the upper surface
stays immobile. This can cause large changes in longitudinal trim,
pitching the nose either down or up. At full deflection, a split flap acts
much like a spoiler, adding significantly to drag coefficient. It also adds a
little to lift coefficient.
• Slotted flap: A gap between the flap and the wing forces high pressure
air from below the wing over the flap helping the airflow remain attached
to the flap, increasing lift compared to a split flap. Additionally, lift across
the entire chord of the primary airfoil is increased as the velocity of air
leaving its trailing edge is raised.
• Double-slotted flap: a fowler flap with a slot on the trailing edge on the
flap to provide a huge increase in coefficient of lift with a relatively
small increase in drag.
• Fowler flap: A split flap that slides backwards, before hinging
downward, thereby increasing first chord, then camber. It also
provides a slot providing the same benefits as the slotted flap in
addition to an increase in the coefficient of lift and drag
• Krueger flap: A hinged flap which folds out from under the wing's
leading edge increasing the camber and thickness of the wing. On
the 777, the gap between extended slats and pylon causes
disturbances and drag, the Krueger flap smoothens this flow.
• Droop nose: Droop flaps function with other high-lift devices on an
aircraft to increase the camber of the wing and reduce the stalling
speed. The A380's designers found that the airflow between the
engines was separating from the wing surface prior to the airflow between the engine and the fuselage,
an undesirable characteristic. Adding droop between the engine and the fuselage fixed the problem;
whereas using a leading-edge slat would not have done so because of the gap (or slot) created between
a slat and the wing when a slat is deployed.

11. What is Dutch roll?

uncontrolled roll and yaw oscillation of an aircraft.

12. What is the function of slats?

re-energize the boundary layer over the wing, increasing the stalling angle of wing.

13. Difference between flight spoiler and ground spoiler?

flight spoilers assist in roll control and ground spoilers assist in dumping the lift and braking the aircraft.
14. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, how will spoiler move if aircraft roll to right?
the spoiler on the right will move up.

15. Why we need artificial feel system in power operated control systems?
so that pilot doesn’t move the control surfaces beyond the recommended limitations and damage the control
surface or stabilizer.

16. What do a stick shaker device do?

warns the pilot of an impending stall

17. What is a differential aileron control system?

one aileron moves more upward than the other aileron. The aileron on the descending wing moves slightly
more up than the one moving down on the ascending wing. This further increases the drag almost or
completely balancing the lift induced drag, reducing adverse yaw.

ATA 28
1. What type of fuel used on EK aircraft?
JET A-1 Kerosene. Jet A-1 has a lower max freeze point than Jet A.

2. What is the max refueling pressure?

approx. 50 psi and defueling is 11-20.

3. How to convert Fuel quantity from KG to Liters

KG= LITRES X S.G
For e.g., S.G of fuel is 0.74. so, one liter would give us 1x0.74=0.74kg

4. How is fuel measured and why?

using ultrasonic transmitter and receivers or by measuring the capacitance. Fuel measurements are taken so
that the amount of weight a fuel will add to an aircraft for a certain trip can be calculated and passenger
weight and cargo load can be determined.

5. What is the diff between?

• Fuel boost pump known as an auxiliary electric pump, is responsible for delivering fuel to the aircraft
engine before the engine starts. Supplies fuel to the spar valve before it is sucked by the main fuel pump.
• Engine fuel pump: always deliver a continuous supply of fuel at the proper pressure during all modes of
operation of the aircraft engine.
• Centre tank ejector pump: a jet pump with no moving parts. It uses motive fuel flow from the boost pump
to suck the fuel from the low points in the center tank back into its main tank to increase useable fuel in
the center tank. Only on 777.
• Override jettison pumps supply high pressure fuel to the engine from the center tank and also supply
center tank fuel to the jettison system in case the system becomes active. The center tank empty is
prioritized to reduce LG impact loads.

Q. Why is the center tank emptied first?

a) the loads due to weight on the fuselage is reduced
b) the flexing of the wings will increase, and the control surfaces will become less effective as the wing tanks
empty.
6. Fuel Boost pumps are accessible from outside tank. Can we remove this boost pumps without fuel been
drain from the tank? Explain.
No, we can’t. In some cases, the control unit can be accessed from outside, but the pump body and lines can
only be accessed from inside, while in others the pump assembly can be removed from outside but the fuel
in that tank must be drained.

7. How to identify fuel tank panel -by location?

by looking at the access panel number and comparing it with the access panel chart.

8. What is impact resistance fuel tank panel?

inboard panels near the LG or exposed to engine debris so that upon shrapnel hitting the panel, there are no
fuel leaks.

9. How do you Leak check on fuel tank panel?

fuel dripping or smell. By spraying developer on it.

10. What is the requirement for Fuel tank entry?

• Fuel tank entry permit authorization
• Fuel tank entry form
• List of tools to be carried
• Fuel tank to be drained and purged
• Adequate ventilation
• No flammable sources around the aircraft
• Fuel tank mat
• 2 Safety people
• Safety torch or safety ohmmeter only
• LEL to be checked and make sure that TWA is not exceeded.
• You can’t wear petroleum-based clothing.
• During dry tank entry (less than 5% fuel) the electric power can be on but for both cases, the weather
radar, strobe light and HF couplers must be off.

11. Brief explanation on how to carry out Refueling and location?

refueling carried out at the Integrated Refuel Panel (IRP) on the left wing or if IRP faulty or no power, at the
Auxiliary Refuel Panel (ARP). The bowser is parked near the aircraft and a fire fighter is on standby. No
flammable sources or electronic/radio devices around the aircraft. The adaptor is checked for any damages.
The aircraft is grounded, the refuel adaptor is grounded to the aircraft and the hose to the adaptor. The
amount is preselected at the panel or in the cockpit, or the person can manually refuel by opening and closing
each tank valve. After refueling is done, the grounding is removed in reverse order and panel closed

12. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, what should you do to fuel?
fuel should be kept at 10% capacity and put biocide to prevent microbial growth.

13. What is the difference between?

• Cross-feed valve: used for transferring fuel between wing tanks on each side and if present between
center tank/ THS tank.
• Transfer valve: used for transferring valve between tanks on the same wing. Outer is taken first.
14. What is the difference between?
• Dumping (jettison system): used by pilots in flight to dump excess fuel when performing an emergency
landing to land safely
• Venting: taking in air from atmosphere or NGS to prevent negative pressure in the tank
• Draining (Fuel/water drain): done on ground to remove fuel/water in the tank

15. What is useable fuel/unusable fuel?

USABLE: Fuel that can be used and fed to the engine.
UNUSABLE: Fuel that are trapped on the fuel tank due to the complex shape of the fuel tank.
16. Why does fuel water drain have to be done often?
Water can freeze, water mixed with fuel reduces the efficiency of fuel and it can cause microbial growth
which can lead to metal corrosion
17. What is?
• Main tank: used to store fuel
• Stab tank: used for balancing
• Surge tank: used to collect any fuel during rolling or due to expansion due to temperature changes
• Vent tank: used to induce positive pressure into the tanks upon usage of fuel to prevent them from
imploding and pump cavitation
• Dry bay: there is no fuel in this tank. It is used to collect any fuel leakage when there is wing damage due
to high-speed runway excursion.

18. What is longitudinal balancing with fuel systems?

you fill the THS tank with the necessary amount of fuel to make the tail as heavy as needed to balance the
aircraft longitudinally.
19. What is last component before fuel go to engine (separation between ATA 28 and ATA 73) and how is this
control?
spar valve. It is controlled by the fuel cutoff switch in the cockpit
20. What is Drip stick?
a thin hollow tube installed below the wing, used for measuring the quantity of fuel. When the top of the
stick goes below the fuel level, fuel drips into the stick giving a measurement. Tends to leak fuel so not used
anymore
21. What is magnastick?
also called float sticks. Used in modern large aircraft. It consists of a closed tube rising from the bottom of
the fuel tank. Surrounding the tube is a ring-shaped float, and inside it is a graduated rod indicating fuel
capacity. The float and the top of the rod contains magnets. The rod is withdrawn from the bottom of the
wing until the magnets stick, the distance it is withdrawn indicating the level of the fuel.

ATA 29
1. What is the safety procedure for working with Hydraulic System?
The applicable system must be depressurized
Pumps switched off and CBs pulled
Flight control locks and warning notice in place to not operate
PPE
Use spillage kit to dispose of hydraulic spill
2. Draw a Basic Hyd. system diagram
Refer to the last page for diagrams

3. How to depressurize Hydraulic reservoir?

B777: Pressure relief valve on top of the reservoir. (Center wheel well area / left and right from the pylon)
A380: From hydraulic servicing panel, cockpit, or pressure relief valve on top of the reservoir.

4. What are the following items used for?

• System Accumulator: hold the pressure in the system when the pumps are not running and compensate
for volumetric changes due to temperature. 4 system accumulators (1 for center and right and 2 for left)
• Brake Accumulator: used as backup for the brake systems and used for parking brake systems. One on
777 and 4 on a380.
• Check valve: one-way valve used to make sure that fluid flows in only direction.
• Sequence valve: is a mechanically actuated hydraulic valve causing a sequential action of certain
actuators.
• Priority valve: pressure actuated hydraulic valve that allows certain actuations before others.
• Quick disconnect valve provides fast and easy connect/disconnect of lines and closes on disconnect to
prevent leaks
• Hyd. Fuse: is a safety feature which stops flow to a system/component when there is a sudden pressure
loss (measures by high flow rate) downstream of the fuse. In the basic sense, it is a flow meter with a ball
inside. The ball will get pushed and jam at excess flow to prevent catastrophic loss.
• Relief valve: relieves excess pressure in the system by bypassing it back into the reservoir or pump.
• Pressure reducer: maintains outlet pressure to make it usable by the component. Has an integral relief
valve with a line back into the reservoir. Designed to reduce pressure before reaching preset value.
• Shuttle valve: take the flow and pressure from two different sources and direct the highest pressure to a
single outlet port. Shuttle valves are typically used in Load Sensing circuits as well as Brake circuits.

5. What is a backup ring and how do you install it?

They are designed to prevent O-ring protrusion and rotation and are installed in the clearance between the
O-ring and the pressure side groove. The backup ring is pushed into the slot on one end and using O-
ring/backup ring installation tool or poker that ring is slid into the slot and then the ring is checked for correct
seating.

6. What is the diff. between?

• Press filter: High pressure filters between the pump and actuators to remove any foreign particles coming
from the pump.
• Return filter: low pressure filters for collecting any F.P from the actuator to the reservoir
• Case drains filter cleans the fluid of any F.P from the pump casing and sends it back to reservoir. Cools the
pump
• Servicing filter (Reservoir Fill Filter): on the servicing cart for A380 and low bypass filter for 777 and for air
on the pressure fill line(aircraft). Prevents any dust or foreign particles from going into the reservoir.

7. What hydraulic fluid used in B777/A380?

b777 uses P5 or hyjet5 and a380 uses Hyjet 5.

8. How to depress. brake accumulator

Depressurizing the hydraulics and pressing on the brake pedals repeatedly or depressurize at the charging
point of the accumulator by loosening the Schrader valve.
 9. What is the difference between Hyd. Pump and how to control it?
• EDP: the main pump on the left and right systems. Connected to the accessory gearbox and supplies
power when the engines are running. Can be switched on/off from the cockpit switch or mechanically
disconnected by drive disconnect
• ADP: supplies on-demand power in the center system and is driven by air. Controlled by switch in cockpit.
• EMDP (ACMP). Electric motor pump that supplies primary power to center system and backup or on
demand power to the left and right when electrical power is available. Controlled by switch in cockpit.

10. What is swash plate in Hyd.? pump (use to control EDP)?

The EDP has a rotating cylinder containing pistons. A spring pushes the pistons against a stationary swash
plate, which sits at an angle to the cylinder. When the plate is at angle the varying length of piston movement
provides an increase in pressure. When the plate is parallel. There is no angular displacement so no increase
in pressure and output equals input. When the Engine RPM is high the swash plate is straight to prevent
excessive pressure. At low RPM, the swash plate is at an angle, to increase volume intake at one end and
decrease at the other end and thus increase pressure.

11. How is Hyd. fluid cooled?

Either through fuel/hydraulic H.E in the fuel tank or air hydraulic H.E on the fairing #5
12. Give 5 system use Hyd. force for movement?
• LG retraction
• Aileron movement
• Spoiler movement
• Rudder movement
• Brake application
• Steering
• T/R deployment

ATA 30
1. Give brief description of different De-icing/anti ice systems
• Electrical: a form of de-icing using heated mats to provide either intermittent or continuous heating
on the leading edge to melt away the ice and prevent buildup. Also present on probes and windows.
• Hot air: anti ice system used on wing and leading-edge slats where hot air is ducted though the cowl
and slats and ducted overboard through small holes.
• Pneumatic: a form of de-icing in which rubber boots are filled with air upon detection of ice to dislodge
it from the wing.
• Chemical: a form of anti-icing in which glycerol mixture is sprayed over the areas susceptible to
formation of ice. It is critical to note down time sprayed and ambient temperature when sprayed as
anti-icing wears off after some time, and type of chemical used, and temperature sprayed at depends
on ambient temperature.
• Mechanical: a piece into the airflow where ice will tend to build up is set at an offset so that upon
formation of ice, it will start vibrating dislodging the ice. Ice shaver on probes act as ice detectors.
Spinner on 777 have this type of de-icing.
Q. Types of Ice formation?
clear ice, rime ice, mixed ice and frost. Clear ice forms when large drops cool slowly over time. Rime ice looks
like thick frost and is formed by small drops freezing rapidly. Mixed ice is a combination of both. Frost is
formed by sublimation when dew point goes below freezing temperature. Frost must be removed before
takeoff.
 2. Describe how following system works?
• Wiper systems: it operates when it’s raining and the windshield is wet, the wipers are operated, the
wipers must not be operated when the windshield is dry as the repellent coating and wiper can get
damaged. There are 3 modes: off, 1 and 2. Manual control only. They are run by electric motor with
one kept as redundant.
• Engine anti-ice system: it’s used to prevent buildup of ice on the inlet cowl. Air is taken from the IP/HP
compressor and is sent into the inlet cowl through an anti-ice duct and engine anti-ice valve. It is then
circulated around the cowl through a swirl vane (GP7200) and pipe with holes before being ducted
overboard through holes on the anti-ice access panel. Engine anti-ice doesn’t go through the
precooler.
• Wing anti-ice system: bleed air from the engine is passed through anti-ice ducts and is controlled by
anti-ice valve. This valve is controlled by a switch in the cockpit, which can be pushed on once a visual
alert for wing ice formation shows on the glareshield and ECAM/EICAS. Air is then passed through a
telescopic duct and through ducts under the leading-edge slats with holes in them to melt the ice.

3. Why are the following items heated?

• Drain mast: to prevent freezing of the water being drained from the potable water system drain.
• windshield: the windshield can become brittle when cold and shatter on impact. Also protects from
thermal shock.
• Pitot probe: to prevent blockage of line leading to incorrect readings on the flight display
• Waste tank drain line: to prevent water from freezing the line and damaging the line or drain valve.

ATA 31
1. In commercial aircraft - flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?
There is transition level and transition altitude for every country. Up to transition altitude we set to local
QNH. and above transition level set to QNE, standard altimeter (1013.25mbar, 76.9hg mercury or 14.69psi).

Q. what is QNH, QFE, QNE?

QFE (Query field elevation): aerodrome elevation, QNH (Query nautical height): pressure altitude below 3000ft
for different pressure changes as the altimeter is sensitive. QNE (Query nautical elevation) is used for above
3000ft and gives standard pressure.

2. What are the primary colors for use in CRT displays?

Red, green, and blue.

3. What is RVSM stand for?

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima – reduction in the vertical separation between aircraft. Due to
advancement in technology the RVSM has been reduced over the years from 2000ft to 1000ft for flight
levels between 29000ft and 41000ft to achieve more flight levels allowing more aircraft to fly over a
certain route. Minimum RVSM Compliance requirements for the critical systems are:
(• 2 Primary Air Data systems.
• 1 Autopilot Altitude Hold system.
• 1 ATC Transponder system.
• 1 Altitude Alert system.
• No damage outside the SRM limits in the RVSM critical areas (mostly areas around the pitot and static
port)
 4. What is the function of pitot/static in a basic airspeed indicator capsule?
IAS: a pressure diaphragm is connected to the pitot tube, and the airtight case around the diaphragm vents to
the static port. As the aircraft goes faster, increased pressure is experienced by the diaphragm, providing the
pitot pressure portion of the reading. Slower speeds result in decreased diaphragm pressure.
For VSI, External air is collected through the static pressure ports and flows through the static line into the case
and diaphragm. The air flows into the case through the port with the calibrated leak while the diaphragm receives
air directly from the static line. When the aircraft climbs, the static pressure outside the aircraft decreases. This
lower pressure air flows through the static line and the pressure in the diaphragm decreases. Since the calibrated
leak slows the pressure change inside the case, the case will initially be at a higher pressure than the diaphragm.
The diaphragm collapses down on itself due to the pressure differential, giving VSI indication. accelerometer
actuated pumps are used to remove the lag in the VSI indication. Once the aircraft flies’ level, the needle goes
down because the pressures eventually equalize
Combined speed indicator is IAS plus Mach
Altimeter has a pre-calibrated diaphragm (QNE/QNE) in a case open to static.

5. Gyro rigidity is proportional to?

gyro rigidity is the ability of the gyro to maintain its axis of rotation in free space unless an external force is applied
to it. It is affected by the gyro RPM, mass, and radius of the rotor.

Q. what is gyro precession?

it causes the gyro to react to an externally applied force at a point 90o away from the point of location. Two
types: real and apparent. Real is caused by imbalance of the gyro and apparent is divided into earth rate, transport
rate and grid rate precession. Total precession is a combination of both precessions.

6. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to?

29.92in. HG, 1013.25mbar or 14.69psi

7. Diff between FDR and CVR and location

Refer to Q7 and Q8 in ATA23.

8. Diff between PFD /ND general description

PFD is the pilot's primary reference for flight information. The unit combines the information traditionally
displayed on several electromechanical instruments onto a single electronic display reducing pilot workload
and enhancing Situational Awareness. An attitude indicator (AI) and flight director is in the center, airspeed,
and vertical navigation from Glidescope on the right of the AI and altitude, VSI on the left and lateral
navigation from ILS, VOR or FMS and compass indication at the bottom of the AI. Auto throttle, auto pilot and
approach modes are annunciated at the top.
ND also called the EHSI displays heading, map, airport and airfield locations and weather information along
with bearing to or from a nav beacon, lateral deviation, ground speed, distance, and time to go.
 9. EFIS General Understanding
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) is a flight deck instrument display system in which the display
technology used is electronic rather than electromechanical. Earlier systems used CRT displays but now LCD
is used allowing most or all conventional instruments to be integrated into one display. The PFD, ND and
ECAM/EICAS are part of the EFIS, and the flight crew can change the mode on each panel between these
displays.

ATA 32:
How nose steering and main wheel steering work
Nose steering is accomplished through two hydraulic steering actuators on the nose gear assembly. From cockpit
via tiller.
In main steering, the rear wheels follow behind the front wheels and are steered by a computer and actuators.
The computer senses the Nose wheel movement through RVDTs and LVDTs and then moves the steering
actuators connect to the aft two wheels, which is why they don’t have brakes. The rear wheels generally cannot
turn as far as the front wheels. **If the nose steering steers beyond a set angle the main landing gear will actuate
to aid the turn.

Nose gear -Bypass pin –What is it for?

to disconnect the steering system from the NLG to allow free movement of the wheel. Done before towing the
aircraft.

LG down lock pins – what is it for / where is it kept?

used to lock the landing gear down lock arms in the extended position to prevent them from collapsing and
retracting. In most cases they are stored in the cockpit of the aircraft.

What is over centering lock in landing gear? (Not centering CAM)

it prevents the LG from deploying due to gravity, In the Down position, the secondary over-center locked strut
moves into position and prevents the aircraft weight and landing loads from collapsing the landing gear.

Give brief description of Basic brake system operation- piston/stator/rotor

The rotor and stator carbon discs are mounted on a carrier assembly consisting of a torque tube, which resists
and transmits brake torque to the landing gear structure. Sandwiched together between the carrier assembly
housing and a backing plate, the discs are arranged in an alternating pattern of rotors and stators. Notch and
groove geometry around the circumference of each rotor fits into corresponding geometry in the wheel, keying
the rotors to the wheel so that they rotate with it. The stators are keyed to the torque tube and are thus held
stationary since the torque tube is connected to the axle and landing gear structure.
Cylindrical spaces within the carrier assembly hold actuator pistons. Actuators in the brake move a piston to
squeeze the discs together, generating a frictional force that slows the rotation of the wheel.
During each application of the brakes, disc material is worn away by frictional forces. A wear indicator in the form
of a pin that protrudes out of the carrier assembly indicates the thickness of the stack of discs. (Min 1mm).
Carbon disks dissipate heat faster and are lighter.

Wheel servicing - which gas?

Nitrogen or dry air with 0.05% of oxygen.

What is thermal/fusible plug in the wheel?

Tires often overheat if maximum braking is applied during an aborted takeoff or an emergency landing. The fuses,
built into the wheel, provide a safer failure mode that prevents tire explosions by deflating in a controlled manner,
thus minimizing damage to aircraft and objects in the surrounding environment.
Explain how a basic antiskid system works
Electrohydraulic valves called antiskid valves are inserted between the pilot's pedals and each set of brakes. An
antiskid control computer senses wheel speeds all the time. If a locked wheel is sensed, that brake is completely
released. If an approaching skid is sensed, that brake has somewhat reduced pressure applied to it to allow its
associated wheel to “spin up” and go back to the normal design skid value. Anti-skid prevents wheel dragging due
to bad braking and inertia.

How simple landing gear oleo work?

An oleo strut consists of an inner cylinder which moves up and down in an outer or upper cylinder. The cavity
within the lower cylinder is filled with oil and upper cylinder is filled with compressed nitrogen separated by a
small orifice with a metering pin. When the aircraft is stationary on the ground, its weight is supported by the
compressed gas in the cylinder. During landing, the lower cylinder moves into the upper cylinder which causes
air to be compressed absorbing the impact and the air after landing pushes the oil back through the orifice, which
acts as a damper. A tapered rod is used on some designs to change the size of the orifice as the piston moves,
providing greater resistance as compression of the strut increases so that damping during compression is less
than during rebound, allowing a slow extension compared to a fast retraction

How is nose gear mechanically centered for retraction and landing?

Centering cams built into the shock strut structure accomplish this. An upper cam is free to mate into a lower
cam recess when the gear is fully extended. This aligns the gear for retraction.

How does the landing gear freefall system work? Simple explanation.
in the event that a landing gear doesn’t open, or the main extension system fails, the emergency extension
system lowers the LG. The pilot can push the red guarded gravity switch which causes the LG uplock and door
uplock to open causing the LG to fall, open the doors and lock by gravity.

Q. What is the max steering angle of NLG and MLG

nose is 72degrees and 6degrees for MLG. The MLG moves in opposite direction to NLG

ATA 33:
1. Color of NAV LT and the locations?
Left is Red. Right is Green and Tail is White.

2. What is LOGO light and where is it?

Aircraft logo lights are located on the horizontal stabilizer and when turned “ON” it will shine the vertical
stabilizer to indicate the Airline LOGO.

3. How is emergency light powered?

by EPSU, Emergency Power Supply Unit for 17min.

4. Give example of some external lights

Anti-collision lights, taxi lights, strobe lights, beacon, logo lights, navigation lights, wing lights, landing lights.

5. What are star lights in cabin?

also called mood lights are used to set an artificial mood or an environment in the cabin. Fitted in the cabin
ceiling.
ATA 34:
1. What color is ILS marker beacon lights?
• Outer beacon, 400hertz, blue
• Middle beacon, 1300hertz, amber
• Inner beacon, 3000hertz, white

2. What frequency are VOR and ILS?

• ILS localizer (108-112Mhz, VHF), Glidescope (329-335Mhz, UHF)
• VOR (108-118Mhz) (Used for heading, VOR antennae on ground)

3. What are the components of an ILS? Location?

• DME (strips under the aircraft)
• LOCALIZER BEACON (radome)
• GLIDESCOPE BEACON (radome)
• Radio altimeter (6 at bottom)
• VOR at top of Vert stab

4. When can a Radio Altimeter be used?

it can be used until the plane reaches 2500ft above ground level. Because the ADIRU becomes less responsive
above that. Sends an ultrasonic signal and calculates distance based on the delay.

5. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?

there are two, one on top and one on bottom.

Q. how many modes in the TCAS system?

there are 3 modes: intruder, traffic advisory and resolution advisory

6. What signal GPWS use?

it uses the radio altimeter to give terrain alert. The radio altimeter uses radio signal response time to calculate
terrain distance.

Q. what happens in a GPWS system test?

along with visual warning, you get aural sound “pull up, terrain”.

7. What is GPS?
GPS is a space-based positioning, velocity, and time system. Composed of space, control, and user segments. The
space segment is composed of 21 satellites (plus three operational spares) in six orbital planes. The control
segment consists of five monitor stations, three ground antennas and a master control station. The user segment
consists of antennas and receiver-processors that provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing to the flight
computers.

8. Is there any warning that has priority over TCAS warnings?

TA can be overridden by ATC instruction, but RA must be complied with, even if it conflicts with ATC instructions,
unless doing so would danger the aircraft. GPWS takes priority over all modes of TCAS.
 9. What system use by Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) to identify threat
It is based on Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder signals and airborne beacon transponders. TCAS
works independently of the aircraft navigation, flight management systems, and ATC systems. While assessing
threats it doesn’t account for ATC clearance, pilot’s intentions, or Flight Management System inputs. TCAS is not
connected to autopilot.

10. How does TCAS work?

It interrogates the Mode C and Mode S transponders of nearby aircraft and from the replies, tracks their altitude
and range and issues alerts to the pilots, as appropriate. It will not detect non-transponder equipped aircraft and
will not issue any resolution advice for traffic without altitude reporting transponder. Two types of alerts can be
issued by TCAS - TA (Traffic Advisory) and RA (Resolution Advisory). The former is intended to assist the pilot in
the visual acquisition of the conflicting aircraft and prepare the pilot for a potential RA. Once an RA has been
issued, the vertical sense (direction) of the RA is coordinated with other TCAS equipped aircraft via a mode S link,
so that two aircraft choose complementary maneuvers. RA aim for collision avoidance by establishing a safe
vertical separation (300 - 700 feet), rather than restoring a prescribed ATC separation. TCAS operates on relatively
short time scales. The maximum generation time for a TA is 48 seconds before the Closest Point of Approach
(CPA). For an RA the time is 35 seconds.

11. What is ADM (Air Data Modules)

An air data module is a component of the navigation system. It is a gas pressure sensor which converts the
mechanical forces from air pressure information from a pitot tube or a static port into digital signals which is sent
on a data bus. This pressure information is received and processed by the Air Data Reference (ADR) component
of the Air Data Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU). This processed information is then sent to one or more display
management computers that present information on the cockpit's primary flight display, flight computers, auto
flight and other systems. ADM uses capacitance and piezo electric crystals.
ADIRU: AD – Air data information, IRU – gyro. The IRU gives attitude.

Q. Flare angle and Glidescope angle?

flare angle is the optimum angle the aircraft will land at, considering the weight and speed of the aircraft.
Glidescope angle (3o) is the angle of approach of the aircraft given by the Glidescope. Glidescope set at 3 degrees.

ATA 35:
1. What is the Safety requirement for working with oxygen system?
isolate or remove all flammable sources near the area. Use on oxygen servicing tool kit. don’t allow oil, dust, or
grease to come in contact with the system. Use ESD protection. Handle cylinders or chemical generators carefully
to avoid damaging them or triggering them. Ensure not to open valve beyond stated limits to prevent ice buildup
and blockage. Open the valve slowly and don’t open below 50psi to prevent moisture ingression. Before working
on any line, make sure the relevant CBs are pulled and the oxygen cylinder pressure regulator is closed. When
loosening connections, make sure you do it slowly, to prevent heat buildup.

2. Describe the various oxygen systems.

• Crew Oxy. System: separated from the passenger oxygen system and used by flight crew in the event of
cabin pressure loss. Oxygen stored in cylinders. (1500-1800psi)
 • Passenger Oxy. System: supplies oxygen to passengers in the event of cabin pressure loss. Can be chemical
generators or stored in cylinders. Deploys masks automatically in the event of depressurization and
Supplies for 15min
• Potable Oxy.: small, portable oxygen cylinders stored onboard the aircraft for emergency use by cabin
crew.
• Therapeutic Oxy.: used for medical purposes only. White in color

3. What is the color of Oxygen charging cylinder? – ground equipment

black with a white neck

4. What is Diluter-demand oxygen system?

Depending upon user selection, the diluter-demand regulator can provide 100% oxygen, 100% oxygen under
positive pressure or a mixture of oxygen "diluted" with cabin air on a specific, altitude-based schedule. As an
example, at 8000', the regulator might send 100% ambient air to the mask whereas at 34000', it would provide
100% oxygen. The regulator also works on "demand". That is, the oxygen or air-oxygen mixture only flows into
the mask during inhalation, conserving oxygen. Can be used up to 40,000ft. Can be selected on the stowage box.

Q. What are the three types of oxygen flow:

continuous flow, diluter demand and pressure flow.

5. What is green disc associated with Oxy. System?

used to indicate overpressure discharge from the oxygen cylinder. The green disc blows out when the cylinder
pressure exceeds the safety valve preset pressure.

ATA 36:
1. What is Engine bleed air used for?
• ECS / Aircon
• Anti-ice systems (wing and engine)
• Engine starting
• Reservoir pressurization
• Running ADP
• NGS
• Turbine clearance control

2. Draw simple pneumatic system diagram

refer to the last page

3. Diff between Precooler/Heat exchanger – location and function?

the precooler is located between the engine and pylon and cools the bleed air from the engine using fan bypass
air. The HX is in the ECS system and cools the bleed air from the precooler using ram air. There is also a HX for
NGS and ADP. (PRECOOLER = BYPASS AIR, HX=RAM AIR)
 4. What is the diff between?
• IP check valve: it allows one-way bleed flow from the IP compressor to the PRSOV but doesn’t allow HP
air into the IP compressor.
• HP valve: it controls the amount of bleed air tapped from the HP compressor. Spring loaded closed
• Bleed valve (PRV/PRSOV): regulates the amount of bleed air tapped from the engine and closes if low or
reverse flow is detected upstream of the valve. Spring loaded closed.
• Over-press valve (OPV): closes at overpressure to protect the precooler and downstream users and ducts.
Located at the precooler. Butterfly pressure valve spring loaded open
• Fan Air valve: regulates the amount of fan air used for cooling the bleed air in the precooler, thus
controlling precooler outlet temperature.

ATA 38:
1. How does waste system work?
Aircraft lavatory systems move the waste from the lavatories to the tank through differential pressure, generated
by vacuum generators below 18000ft and by cabin differential above that. Water is taken from the potable water
system and used to flush the toilet bowl. When the toilet flush switch is pressed, the Flush Control Unit (FCU)
starts the flush sequence. The rinse valve and the flush valve open in sequence, controlled by the FCU, to evacuate
the waste material. At the same time, the Flush Control Unit (FCU) sends a signal to the VSCF, which will operate
the vacuum generator to generate differential pressure. The vacuum generator creates the necessary differential
pressure between the cabin and the waste holding tank to move the waste from the toilet bowl. Above 16,000
ft, the vacuum generator will not be started by the VSCF as the differential pressure is sufficient.

2. How does water system work?

Potable water system delivers fresh water to every needed part in the plane (including every component
between the water tank and sinks). Water tank pressurization system focuses on the pressurization of the water
tank and air dealing with the tank, including air compressor, pressure regulator filter, and pressure relief valve.
The tank has to be pressurized to move water into the lines and is pressurized by the pneumatic system. A water
heater is installed under the washbasin in each toilet unit to supply hot water to the water tap. It is also installed
in each galley where hot water is required. Water drains out from the fwd. and aft drain masts.

3. How does grey water system work?

grey water system collects water from the lavatory and galley sinks and drip pans at the cargo PDU. It also collects
drain water from cargo compartment floor drain. It is drained overboard through the heated drain mast.

4. How to clean Waste line with ice and vinegar?

a diluted solution of vinegar is first poured into the toilet bowl and left for some time (10-15min) to soften the
waste. Crushed ice is then poured into the bowl and flushed to dislodge any stuck waste. The toilet is then flushed
again with water to remove the vinegar and ice from the line.
ATA 42-46:
Diff between MAT and PMAT/LMAT (B777)
PMAT: Loads software parts into avionics systems, EFBs, navigation databases and safety systems, provides
configuration control for all software parts in an airline fleet, provides remote access to onboard maintenance
systems, Collects, and returns data from the aircraft to the operator. Yellow in color and on the RHS of main
battery
LMAT: between the observer seats. To obtain operator documents and resources.
MAT: for ground maintenance. It's the primary interface with the Central Maintenance Computer. it displays a
readout of aircraft faults and affected components, run ground tests, "unlatch" permanent EICAS messages, and
it's also the interface to update the Primary Flight Computers. Located in the cockpit. Password is the MSN.

Printer paper change and location of spare paper

loosen the 4 screws on the case and open the panel. Move the left side of the slide support. Disengage the empty
roll and remove it. Make sure no paper remains. The spare paper and the support have an arrow for correct
orientation. Make sure the roll moves smoothly. Manually engage the roll into the manual roller. Close the door
until you hear a click. Tighten the screws. Push the slew P B/W switch to move paper forward. Stored in the
storage cabinet in cockpit.

Differentiate the on-board maintenance systems on A380 & B777. (terminology)

777 uses the MAT to view fault messages, unlatch faults and run ground tests from the cockpit
A380 uses the OMT for these tasks in addition to opening and closing soft CBs unique to the A380.

ON/OFF IFE system

through the FAP/ supervisory panel.

Can B1 do software loading in aircraft?

they can, provided that:
• the system has a discrete ‘self-test’ facility to confirm success of the updating (e.g., software load part
number)
• the serviceability of any other system affected by the updating is also confirmed
• only simple tests are necessary to verify the serviceability of the system and any other system affected
by the updating.

If in doubt, where would you confirm the software required to load apart from the IPC?
From the MAT/OMT/ CDU.

Cabin Video Monitoring System (CVMS) (A380)

The CVMS is mainly designed to help the cabin and cockpit crew in video surveillance of the whole cabin (main
and upper deck) and of some other areas like the staircases, the crew rest areas, and the lower deck facilities.
The CVMS is installed to detect unruly passengers, suspicious behaviors or other potential threats occurring in
these areas.

Cockpit Door Surveillance System

The CDSS is designed to help the cockpit crew to identify a person requesting entrance to the cockpit and to
survey the doors 1 hidden cross section via video camera observation.
ATA 47:
1. What is nitrogen gas generation system?
the NGS reduces the oxygen content of the air mixture in the center tank to a level which will not support
combustion. The system controls air pressure into the system, changes ozone into oxygen, decreases the
temperature, removes oxygen and contaminants, sends NEA into the tank and monitors system performance.
The center tank can catch on fire due to the heat produced by the ACM.

2. How does it work?

the NGS uses bleed air from the left side of the pneumatic manifold. The NGS shutoff valve (controlled by system
pressure and voltage from the NGS controller) controls airflow into the manifold. The ozone in the air then gets
converted to oxygen by ozone converters, as it can decrease the performance and degrade the mechanical
properties of the ASM. The HX then decreases the temperature using ram air. A temperature control valve
controls the amount of bypass bleed around the HX. A filter removes contamination before bleed air goes into
the ASM. The ASM decreases the oxygen to a level where combustion can’t take place and releases the oxygen
overboard. The NEA goes through the high flow valve and ejector nozzles into the right side of the center tank. A
float valve on the left side makes sure the concentration of the NEA is constant. A cross vent check valve makes
sure ambient air doesn’t dilute N2 concentration during descent. You use the bite display to do a bite test of the
system.

3. Why A380 don’t have it?

because the A380 doesn’t have a center tank.

ATA 49
1. What is APU used for?
it is used to provide electrical and pneumatic power on ground and in flight up to 20,000ft.

2. Does APU produce thrust?

yes, but the thrust is minimal as there is no fan and most of the energy is extracted by the turbine.

3. Is APU an ETOPS item? Explain

yes, if the APU is not installed, the plane can’t fly on ETOPs transit routes.

4. APU starting sequence?

An APU start requires either the aircraft batteries or external power to be switched ON. The start sequence is
initiated by momentarily pressing the START switch light and then moving to on, sending a start signal to the ECB
to commence APU start and acceleration. The STARTER segment of the switch light illuminates to indicate the
starter is engaged. The APU BLEED switch must be in AUTO position to do a pneumatic start. During the APU
spool-up the ECB energizes the APU ignition system and opens the fuel valve at 7% RPM. As the APU accelerates
through 70% RPM following light up the ECB disengages the starter (STARTER light goes out), and de-energizes
the ignition system. At 90% rpm the ECB configures the APU fuel system for automatic speed governing and arms
the bleed air and generator systems for activation.

5. Can APU use on ground and in flight?

yes, on ground, it can be used to provide bleed air and electrical power and in flight it can be used to supply
bleed, electrical power (primary and backup) and also reignition if engines fail.
 6. Where does APU get fuel from?
from the left-wing inboard tank.

7. Does APU have fire protection system?

yes, it has both detection (fire loops) and extinguishing system, so it has protection.

8. How do you service APU oil?

make sure the APU is off and put a do not operate tag on the APU pushbutton switch. Open the APU doors and
get access to the gearbox. Disengage the retaining clamp and open the fill cap. Slowly fill the oil until the level is
at FULL on offside of the gauge. Close the cap and engage the retaining ring. Close the APU doors and remove
the warning tag.

9. Can aircraft fly without APU install?

Yes.

10. Where can you find MCD?

there are 5: 3 on the gearbox assembly, one on the lube cluster and one on the air turbine starter (for 777).

11. What is surge control valve?

it maintains stable pressure and surge free operation (preventing stall and surges) by exhausting the excess
pneumatic air overboard.

12. How is APU compartment cooled?

On the 777, part of the ram air from the air inlet plenum duct is tapped to cool the APU compartment, oil cooler
and generator. On the A380, external air from the cooling duct is used to cool the air/oil heat exchanger and the
APU compartment after which it is exhausted overboard through the exhaust educator.

ATA 50:
1. What is this ATA for?
Cargo and accessory for A380

2. What is the safety protection of PDU operation in flight? - Can cargo loading be operated in flight?
No, it can’t be operated in flight. PDU only operates when there is an object on top of it. Cargo loading only
operates when on ground with cargo doors open. If even one of the door sill latches is in the UP position, the CLS
is isolated from electrical power.

3. How is cargo protected from fire?

there are smoke detectors in the cargo. On getting a fire warning in the cockpit, the pilot can press the cargo fire
pushbutton switch to discharge the bottle into either the fwd. or aft cargo. Cargo liners are fiberglass impregnated
to contain the fire.

4. How does Cargo loading system work?

there is a control unit next to the cargo door to operate the loading system. The pallet is moved into the cargo
and moved onto roller PDU by the ball mat unit. They are then moved fwd. or aft and left or right using the control
unit. There are lateral stops, guide stops. And guide rollers to make sure pallets are moved and stored correctly
and securely.
 5. What is ball mat unit?
a panel with several balls seated in a bearing case allowing them to rotate freely. They are installed across the
entire width of the entrance of the cargo to allow easy movement of the pallets during loading and unloading
procedures.

ATA 51:
1. How do you measure a dent in aircraft?
by measuring the length, width, and depth of the dent.

2. Where is the limit written about a dent?

in the structural repair manual for airframe and for dents on components, the related CMM.

ATA 52:
1. How is cargo door locked?
on the 777, door latches hold the door closed against cabin pressure loads. The latch cams are locked in position
with lock pawls by the lock power unit. Linkage from the lock power unit closes the vent door and prevents it
from opening. The door is unlatched manually initially and then electrically, and the door is opened by electric
motors, torque tubes and gearbox. It also has provision to open manually. A yellow color on the sight glass will
show that the door is locked.
On the a380, the cargo door is opened/closed hydraulically from the green system, with one actuator. The
locking/unlocking mechanism is operated manually. The door stop bolt prevents inboard movement of the cargo
door and transfers loads to the fuselage in ditching condition. The handle flap is pushed to release the locking
handle and rotating the rod, operates the hooks engaged with the door frame fitting, unlatching the door. The
interlock mechanism prevents movement of the handle when the door is open and a red indicator flag comes
into view.
2. How many main doors in A380 / B777 and how to open it?
B777-200LR has 8 doors and the B777-300ER has 10 doors.
From the exterior, pulling the handle outward and rotating it anticlockwise, unlatches the door. From the inside,
making sure there is sufficient clearance outside and the disarm pin is installed, if there is no emergency, the
handle is moved anti clockwise to open the door.
The A380 has 10 main deck & 6 upper deck doors
Exterior: by pulling the handle upwards
Interior: Check pressure, Move the handle anticlockwise to unlock it. Once it’s unlocked, you can electrically open
the door by pressing the open button next to the door.

How do you open bulk cargo door and how do you keep it open?
pull the handle turn it clockwise and push it inwards and upwards until the piston can retain the door, to get
access to the bulk compartment.

ATA 53:
1. What is the meaning of “a fail-safe structure”?
a fail-safe structure is the attribute of the structure that permits it to retain its required residual strength for a
period of unrepaired use after the failure or partial failure of the principal structural element. That is, in the event
of a specific type of failure, it inherently responds in a way that will cause minimal or no harm to other equipment,
to the environment or to people
 2. How is a radome protected from static electricity build-up?
grounding brackets and lightning diverter strips.

3. What is inside radome

The weather radar, localizer, glide scope antennae, underwater locater beacon and wave guide.

4. How do you open a radome (B777 and A380)

on the 777, the radome is opened by removing hex head bolts with an Allen key and on the A380, it is opened
by removing the bolts, using a wrench, around the radome.

5. How are the various parts of the aircraft airframe maintained at the same potential?
by grounding various components or by joining them together.

ATA 54:
1. What is pylon drain
it drains all leaks in the pylon overboard through the drain, either at the end of aft pylon fairing, or at the bottom
of the engine through the pylon drain mast.

2. What is the function of pylon?

houses the integral attachment points for airframe to engine, provides pathways for electrical, fuel, pneumatic
and hydraulic lines and provides an aerodynamic streamlined shape to reduce drag

How is the pylon over pressure protected? (Incase Bleed duct Leak)
there are blowout panels across the sides of the pylon which open to release the excess pressure.

ATA 55:
1. Is there fuel in stabilizer?
Yes, on the A380, fuel is stored in the THS tank to trim the aircraft.

2. Diff between elevator and horizontal stabilizer –what is it used for

elevator is used to give short term changes in pitch of the aircraft. THS is used to trim the aircraft and give long
term pitch changes.
3. What is the marking on fuselage fwd. of horizontal stabilizer?
neutral position of the THS and to show the angle of deflection.

ATA 56:
1. How many movable windows in cockpit and how to open it?
there are 2 windows, one on each side. They are opened by pressing the button on the lock and moving it aft to
unlock the window and then rotating the tiller to move the window aft.

2. Are cockpit windows heated?

yes, they are. To prevent fog and icing and make the window rigid.
 3. Basic contraction of cabin window - vent hole
the cabin windows are made of acrylic and are divided into 3 parts: inner, middle and outer pane. The outer pane
is flush with the fuselage. The window is installed from the inside. There is a rubber seal with a condensation
channel to remove water from the air before it passes through the panes. There is also a vent hole at the bottom
of the middle pane to equalize the pressure between the inner pane and outer pane.

4. Safety during cockpit windshield replacement.

• Use only tack free sealant
• Always install a nylon wire before installing sealant to allow clean sealant removal.
• Use only non-magnetic screws near the compass.
• Cross load the screws and torque according to OEM requirements
• Make sure the screws are installed in the same location
• Use proper care and lifting tool as the windshield is heavy

ATA 57
1. The principal load bearing members of the wing is?
The wing box, the front, and the aft spar.

2. Where is a leading-edge slat attached to?

to Front Spar of the wing.

3. Where is the blow out panels and why we need it

there are multiple blow-down panels along the leading edge of the wing with 2 being on the refuel panel due to
AGU being on the wing root. On the 777, there are 2 blowout panels, one on each wing refuel panel.

4. Why do you need winglet?

vertical extensions of wingtips that improve an aircraft's fuel efficiency and cruising range. Designed as small
airfoils, winglets reduce the aerodynamic drag associated with vortices that develop at the wingtips as the
airplane moves through the air. They provide a less turbulent pathway for air.

5. Does wing move in flight (flexing)

Yes.

ATA 70:
1. What engine on B777/A380:
b777 has GE90
A380 has GP7200 and Trent 900

2. What is the major diff between RR engine and other engines:

the RR engine is triple spool, and the rest are twin spool. A lot of the components of the acc gearbox and the
gearbox itself is on the fan cowl on the RR 900. The Trent 900 also has a larger diameter. Trent 900 gearbox
is spooled from the IPC and the other two turned by the HPC.
 ATA 71:
1. Difference between
Air inlet cowl guides the airflow into the engine at the proper angle and slows it down to provide a proper
transition into the engine. It also attenuates the noise.
Fan Cowl: encloses the fan case, protecting the engine components and reduces drag.
T/Rev cowl: encloses the engine core and contains the fire in the core. Can also have provisions for the
Translating cowl to guide the reverse fan air outboard

2. Difference between?
Wet motoring: Engine is motored, and fuel is included into the engine, fuel cutoff switch set to run, Ignition
is set to off. Performed to check fuel leaks. Followed by a dry run to remove all the fuel preventing hot starts.
Dry motoring: engine is rotated on the starter motor, with fuel and ignition cutoff.
Both can only be motored for 5min and then wait for 10min and again turn on, and this can be done up to 3
times after which you need to wait for 30min.

Q. what is PDOS/COS?
PDOS (power door operating system) used by 777 is a system in which the cowls are opened using hydraulic
power (MOBIL JET2) it has provisions for servicing and manual operation from top of the pylon.
COS (Cowl Opening System). Used by A380, is an electric cowl opening system using 2 electric motors with an
adaptor for manual operation.

ATA 72:
1. Difference between High/low bypass engine?
in high bypass engine the fan is bigger, and more air is bypassed around the core, while in low bypass, most
of the air enters the core and the fan is smaller. In large bypass engine, the TSFC is lower than low bypass
engine, and most of the thrust is generated by the fan. Turbojet engines have zero bypass and turbofan have
high bypass with modern engine having a BPR of 15:1.
2. Diff between axial flow and centrifugal flow compressor?
Axial flow: air flows parallel to the axis of rotation. Air is the working fluid and accelerated through rotors and
diffused at stators to give a pressure rise. Axial flow compressors have the advantage of being more efficient
and having a larger mass flow rate in relation to their size and cross-section. However, they do require several
rows of airfoils to give a large pressure rise, making them expensive and more complex.
Centrifugal: also called radial flow, air flows perpendicular to the axis of rotation, and pressure rise is given by
adding velocity to a continuous flow of air through a rotor/impeller and then adding pressure by slowing it at
the diffuser. They are inexpensive and give a large pressure rise in a single stage but become less effective
over subsequent stages.

3. Diff between stage/spool?

one spool is a series of stages to make a section and connect a compressor and turbine section using a drive
shaft. While one stage can be one rotor and one stator.

4. Compressor wash?
Compressor wash schedules will vary from one operator to the next. The frequency of wash events relates
to the amount of contaminants being ingested into the engine. Operating environment, as well as the types
of flight profiles, both affect contaminant levels. A typical compressor wash involves three steps — a chemical
wash, a water rinse, and an engine run.
After connecting the appropriate fixtures to the engine, a chemical is injected in the engine while the compressor
is turned. The chemical breaks down the contaminants and the water rinse, only de-ionized or de-mineralized,
flushes out the chemical and contaminants. this is followed up by an engine run. The airflow from the engine run
helps further clean out the dislodged contaminants and dries out the engine. The temperature and pressure
requirements of the chemical and water are given by the manufacturer

5. Basic turbine engine operation

The basic operation of the gas turbine is a Brayton cycle with air as the working fluid. A continuous mass of Air
flows into the air intake where it is subject to temperature, pressure and velocity changes. It is then directed at
the optimal angle into the compressor using IGV and increases in pressure and velocity along each stage and then
is slowed down at the diffuser just before the combustion chamber to give a large increase in pressure. The air is
then mixed with fuel and ignited to give a large increase in temperature, volume, and (potential energy to kinetic
energy) velocity. The air then enters the turbine section at the proper angle through the NGV and flows through
the turbine section where pressure decreases and velocity is increased, and a part of the energy is absorbed to
drive the compressor section. The air flows out at a high velocity, moving the engine forward, producing thrust.

6. Diff between stall and surge in engine?

Stall: A compressor stall in a jet engine is a circumstance of abnormal airflow resulting from the aerodynamic stall
of airfoils within the compressor. This occurs when the angle of attack of the blades of the compressor exceed
their critical angle of attack resulting in one or more stages of rotor blades failing to pass air smoothly to the
succeeding stages. A compressor stall will result in a loss of thrust and is likely to produce a "backfire" like sound
due to reverse airflow. It may also be accompanied by flame from either or both of the engine inlet and engine
exhaust. A sustained compressor stall can result in engine damage and can lead to engine failure.
Surge: A stall that results in the complete disruption of the airflow through the compressor is referred to as a
compressor surge. The severity of the phenomenon ranges from a momentary power drop barely registered by
the engine instruments to a complete loss of compression in case of a surge, requiring adjustments in the fuel
flow to recover normal operation. It is due to the compressor's inability to continue working against the already-
compressed air behind it. The compressor either experiences conditions which exceed the limit of its pressure
rise capabilities or is highly loaded such that it does not have the capacity to absorb a momentary disturbance,
creating a rotational stall which can propagate in less than a second to include the entire compressor. A surge
can cause very high levels of vibration causing accelerated engine wear and possible damage, even the total
destruction of the engine through the breaking of compressor and stator vanes and their subsequent ingestion,
destroying engine components downstream. A surge is caused by excessive rich mixture during acceleration,
excessive lean during deceleration, contamination, or not within designed speed limits.

7. What mechanical problems can lead to compressor stalls?

• FOD
• Worn, dirty or contaminated compressor components
• Icing
• Faulty VSV/VBV/FCU/HMU
• High engine RPM

8. What is borescope check?

it is a scheduled inspection in which the internal components of the engine are inspected for contamination or
damage. The engine is cranked with the N2 crank pad and using a flexible fiber optic cable or a rigid Borescope,
the engineer can view inside the engine.
 9. Gearbox mounted components?
• Hydraulic pump
• Lube/Scavenge oil pump
• PMA.
• Dedicated alternator (EEC)
• Manual crank pad
• IDG/VFG
• Air turbine starter
• Fuel pump
• Fuel metering unit for HMU

10. What is drain mast in engine for?

the drain mast collects fluids from the HPTACC and the LPTACC valve (fuel), start bleed valve (fuel), bleed actuator
(fuel), VSV, EDP, fuel pump, servo valve assembly, No.3 bearing, VFG, lube and scavenge pump, pylon drains and
drains it overboard. The drain mast has holes for individual drain sources to identify the source of leakage. Larger
expected drains are forward and less expected drains are aft.

ATA 73:
1. What is Volatility?
how readily a substance vaporizes. At a given temperature and pressure, a substance with high volatility is
more likely to exist as a vapor, while a substance with low volatility is more likely to be a liquid or solid.
Volatility can also describe the tendency of a vapor to condense into a liquid or solid; less volatile substances
will more readily condense from a vapor than highly volatile ones

2. What is Flashpoint and the relationship with temp?

the flash point of a volatile material is the lowest temperature at which its vapors ignite if given an ignition
source. Auto ignition temperature, the temperature that causes spontaneous ignition. The fire point is the
lowest temperature at which the vapors keep burning after the ignition source is removed. It is higher than
the flash point, because at the flash point more vapor may not be produced fast enough to sustain
combustion. Neither flash point nor fire point depends directly on the ignition source temperature, but
ignition source temperature is far higher than either the flash or fire point.

3. What is thrust rating, and can a same type of engine have diff thrust rating?
the rated or maximum thrust that the engine will produce. Engines are flat rated by the manufacturer by
referencing a specific environmental limit or flat rated temperature. The principal limitations of a jet engine
are the maximum internal pressure that the casing can withstand and the maximum allowable operating
temperature. At low altitudes and cooler outside air temperatures (OAT), engine pressure is the limiting factor
as the engine is capable of producing more pressure and, consequently, more thrust than the engine can
contain. The FADEC will be programmed to flat rate the engine at a thrust corresponding to a safe internal
engine pressure. Thrust settings can be adjusted but the thrust rating can’t be changed. The same type of
engine can have different ratings determined by the manufacturer. The data plug contains information on
thrust rating and thrust settings and gives this information to the FADEC/EEC

4. Basic engine fuel system diagram.

Check last page
5. How is fuel heated?
using fuel/oil heat exchanger. Engine oil for A380 and IDG oil for 777.

Q. how many types of combustion chamber are there?

• The multiple can type consists of a series of multiple combustor cans which act as individual burner
units. Best suited for centrifugal compressors as the airflow is equally divided at the diffuser. Cans are
interconnected with a small propagation tube. Two cans have ignitor plugs.
• Can-annular consists of an outer lining with multiple liners located radially around the axis of the
engine. Flame propagation tubes connect the liners and two liners have ignitor plugs. It is designed
for ease of maintenance allowing case to slide back for liner inspection. Their short length provides
low pressure drop and the combination of gases from all cans provides a uniform temperature at the
turbine.
• Single annular is the most commonly used chamber as in terms of thermal efficiency, weight and
physical size, it is the most efficient. It consists of a housing and a perforated inner liner, or basket.
The liner is a single unit that encircles the outside of the turbine shaft housing. The shroud can be
shaped to contain more than one basket. A shroud with two baskets is called double annular
combustor.
• Reverse flow annular works in the same way except air flows around the chamber and enters from
the rear. This results in combustion airflow moving in the opposite direction to compressor flow. The
turbine wheels are inside the combustion chamber, downstream of ignition, as compared to being
downstream in conventional designs, giving a lighter and shorter engine. The compressor discharge
air is heated by the combustor flow, making up for the loss of efficiency cause by reverse airflow.

6. Type of fuel nozzle?

Simplex (normal and spill), duplex, air blast and vaporizing fuel nozzles.
Simplex has one line and a single spray pattern with a check valve to prevent fuel dribbling into the
combustion chamber after shutdown. Spill type simplex are used in high power operations and have a spill
passage before the swirl chamber to guide excess fuel back to nozzle inlet

Duplex have two flows: primary (pilot flow) with a wide pattern for engine starting and secondary flow for
above idle operations. Combined flow of both gives a narrow spray which prevents fuel from impinging on
the liner. The duplex can either have a single inlet with a flow divider (single line) or two inlets (dual line). Air
blast use high velocity compressor discharge air to provide more atomization giving finer droplets (ideal for
starting). Vaporizing nozzles premix the fuel with the air and combustor heat causes the mixtures to vaporize
before going into the chamber.

Q. How many fuel nozzles on each aircraft and what type?

There are 28 nozzles on A380, 26 normal and 2 pilot. There are 30 nozzles on 777, 20 from manifold 1 and 10
from manifold 2, while 2 have connection to both. Both aircraft use single and dual line duplex fuel nozzles,
where each nozzle has one connector and 2 spray tips. The Trent 900 uses simplex fuel nozzles.
 ATA 74:
1. How do igniter work?
the ignition system supplies the electric spark required to ignite the fuel/air mixture during starting or inflight.
There are two separate redundant systems, A and B. The FADEC/EEC gives essential power to A and normal
power to B. During engine start one or both channels are energized once the fuel cutoff switch is set to Run.
During auto-start, one channel is used for two starts in a row and for the next two, the other channel is used.
The second channel can be turned on for delayed or no light condition. Both channels are used during manual
start, auto-restart and in-flight starts. The crew can also select continuous ignition. The exciter is a capacitor
discharge type ignition power source that supplies starting and continuous power on demand. Each system
is isolated from the other. When operation stops, a resistor bleeds out the residual charge. The high voltage
discharge pulse is then transferred to the ignitor plugs through igniter leads. The energy is discharged as a
spark between the electrodes in the combustion chamber. The ignitor plug is a gap surface type with ceramic
between the electrode and plug shell. The EEC removes power to the exciter at 56% N2 speed.

2. How is the system cooled?

the ignition leads have an air-cooled and non-air-cooled section. The air-cooled section connects to the
ignitor plug. Fan air is taken from the CCC manifold and flows between the lead and the shroud to the
connection with the plug. The non-air-cooled section connects to the exciter. On the 777, fan air cools the
exciter.

3. What is igniter depth check?

it is performed when replacing an old ignitor plug with a new one. This is done using a depth gauge and is
performed to check if the correct length of ignitor plug is inside the chamber. When installing the same plug,
use the same adjustment washers. When installing a new plug, you must set the adjustment depth and use
new adjustment washers.

4. Safety before replacement of igniter plug?

• Open the CBs and wait for a min of 5 minutes before you remove any component
• Do not twist or bend the ignition lead
• Make sure the ignitor adaptor bolts are not removed. This can cause bolt shear and engine damage
• Engine components can stay hot up to an hour after shutdown
• Use lint free gloves when handling the plug. Skin oil and dirt can cause hot spots on the ceramic
insulator and decrease plug life
• To remove an ignitor plug, disconnect the exciter lead and wait for manufacturer guideline minutes
then remove the ignition lead and ground the center electrode to safely remove the plug
• Exercise great caution when disposing damaged plugs as they are highly toxic (aluminum oxide and
beryllium oxide)

ATA 75:
1. What is?
• VIGV (variable inlet guide vane): they regulate airflow into the LPC to optimize engine efficiency at
part loads. They can also increase power at full load. The angle of the vane is changed to meet the
requirement of the engine operating conditions. They are closed during engine starting and low RPM
but gradually open as RPM is increased
 • VSV (variable stator vane): angular vanes which are moved to close at low engine RPM or during
starting to keep compression low and prevent piling up of air in the rear stages, blocking the airflow.
• VBV (variable bleed valve): they increase efficiency and prevent possible stalls at starting, idling and
low RPM operations. When the engine starts to crank, there is a mass flow intake into the engine.
However, combustion is yet to happen, so the excess air needs to be dumped overboard to prevent a
surge/ stall. They work with VSVs so that when the VSV closes the VBV will dump the excess air out of
the engine.
• Nozzle Guide Vane: NGV’s direct the exhaust gases onto the turbine blades at the optimum angle of
attack for efficient operation while at the same time converting pressure energy into kinetic energy.

2. How is combustor cooled?

Airflow through a combustion chamber is divided into 2 flows: primary and secondary. Approximately 25-35% of
air is primary and 65-75% of air is secondary. Primary flow is directed at the center of the chamber through swirl
vanes, where it slows down to about 5-6 ft/s, due to kerosene having a low propagation rate (high speeds can
cause flameout) where it ignites with fuel in a single-annular chamber. The combustion is completed in the first
third of the chamber. Secondary airflow flows at around several hundred ft/s around the combustion chamber’s
periphery (2/3 chamber). This flow of air forms a cooling blanket on both sides of the liner and centers the
combustion chamber, so they don’t contact the liner. The secondary flow also mixes with the burnt and cool air
to provide an even energy distribution to the turbine nozzle at a temperature that the turbine section can
withstand.

3. How is NGV cooled?

they are cooled by air from the HP compressor (stage 3 for IP NGV and stage 6 for HP NGV). Air bleeds through
openings in the platforms of the annulus outer wall, at the rear of the HP3 stator vane. This air flows around the
HP compressor drum and keeps the front face of the HP turbine disc cool. It then flows internally through the
leading edges of HP turbine blades to keep their temperature in limits. This air bleeds through holes in the leading
and trailing edges and into the exhaust gas flow. It also bleeds out of holes in the top of the HP turbine blade tip
platform. Air also flows between the inner case of the combustion chamber and the combustion liner and bleeds
out through the HP turbine NGVs and into the exhaust flow.

4. What is LPTACC and HPTACC system?

Active clearance control (ACC) is a method used in gas turbines to improve fuel efficiency. This is achieved by
dynamically controlling the turbine tip clearance
The purpose of the HPTACC system is to control cooling air flow (fan discharge air) to the exterior of the HP
turbine case. This air is used to minimize the clearances between the shrouds and the rotor blades. The reduced
clearances improve engine Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC) and reduce the Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT)
overshoot during rapid acceleration. Based on sensor inputs, the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) controls servo
valve assembly fuel to the fuel operated HPTACC valve to modulate cooling air flow during all power conditions.
The LPTACC works in the same way to cool the exterior of the LP turbine case and is air controlled or fuel
controlled.

Q. types of compression/expansion process?

• Adiabatic is when all the energy utilized in the c/e process is converted without any losses
• Isothermal is when there is zero temperature change
• Polytropic is the actual process where energy will be lost due to overcoming friction and heat transfer.
The energy required to compress/expand is greater than the potential of the result.
Q. Brayton cycle analysis:

• In the compressor assembly, air pressure and temperature increase while velocity decreases.
• At the diffuser, just prior to combustion chamber entry, there is a final dramatic increase and pressure
and temperature and a sharp decrease in velocity for flame stabilization
• In the combustion chamber, the temperature increases greatly, however the pressure and velocity
remain fairly constant (hence called Brayton “constant pressure cycle”)
• In the turbine, velocity will increase and decrease across the stages and due to energy extraction, the
pressure and temperature will gradually decrease
• At the propelling nozzle, the velocity will greatly increase, and pressure will decrease.

ATA 76:
1. How is engine power controlled?
The Throttle Control Assembly (TCA) is the primary flight deck controller for engine thrust control. Each engine
has its own throttle lever. You can operate them independently or together. For A380 because only the two
inboard engines have thrust reversers, the TCA includes four throttle levers but only two inboard thrust-reverser
levers. The thrust lever and auto throttle assembly work together to supply thrust commands to the EEC. You use
the thrust levers to make manual inputs. The auto throttle servo motor (ASM) makes automatic inputs.

2. What is?
• Idle power: it is the lowest possible thrust setting of a running engine
• Flight idle: it is the lowest possible speed of engine at a given altitude, usually in the 70-80% for
minimum flight thrust
• Reverse idle: thrust setting in which the T/R sleeve is deployed, it is usually at a lower setting than
flight idle.

Q. Engine thrust ratings

• Take-off wet thrust
• Take-off dry thrust
• Maximum continuous thrust
• Maximum climb thrust
• Maximum cruise thrust
• Idle speed
• Flat rating
Q. Engine efficiencies and ratios:
Engine efficiency
• Adiabatic efficiency
• Thermal efficiency
• Propulsive efficiency
• Overall efficiency

Engine ratios
• Fan pressure ratio: fan inlet to outlet pressure
• Bypass ratio: mass airflow bypassed through fan to mass airflow into core
• Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR): inlet pressure to outlet pressure

Thrust ratios
• Gross (static) thrust
• Net thrust
• Thrust distribution

ATA 77:
Diff between N1/N2/N3/EGT/TGT:
• N1 spool and system connects the fan and LPC and the LPT
• N2 spool and system connects the HPC/HPT (2 spool) or the IPC/IPT (3 spool)
• N3 spool and system connects the HPC/HPT
• EGT is the exhaust gas temperature and measures turbine outlet temperature and is an engine
operating limit used to monitor turbine mechanical performance and overall engine performance.
High EGT values result in further deterioration and wear in the engines. EGT uses thermocouples
probes for indication (8 probes)
• TGT is the turbine gas temperature and measures turbine inlet temperature. It is a critical variable of
engine operation, and it is essential to provide an indication of this temperature.

ATA 78:
1. Types of T/revs: explain
•Target Type: The target thrust reverser uses a pair of hydraulically operated 'bucket' type doors to reverse
the hot gas stream.
•Clam-shell type: The clam-shell door system is pneumatically operated. When activated, the doors rotate to
open the ducts and close the normal exit, causing the thrust to be directed forward
•Cold stream type: During thrust reverser activation, a sleeve mounted around the engine nacelle moves aft
to expose cascade vanes and blocker doors which act to redirect the engine fan flow.

2. How does a normal t/rev. work (with cascade vane and blocker doors)
Thrust reversers provide 20% of the braking force under normal conditions. They are rated to provide 50%
of the rated thrust in the reverse direction. When aircraft touches down (on ground), from cockpit, the
throttle lever is pulled in the reverse direction and the T/R is deployed. Translating sleeve will move backwards
showing the cascade vanes and the blocker doors which will block air flow path and reverse the flow thus
producing reverse thrust to slow down the aircraft.
 3. Diff between cascade vane and blocker door?
• Cascade Vane: The cascade segments have multiple rows of vanes which direct the gas stream in the
forward direction.
• Blocker Door: they rotate to uncover the cascade vanes and mechanically block the normal gas stream exit.

ATA 79:
1. What is Viscosity?
measure of fluid’s resistance to flow.

2. What is Flash Point?

The flash point is the lowest temperature at which there will be enough flammable vapor to induce ignition when
an ignition source is applied.

3. What is the function of Lubrication system? Describe the individual functions.

Lubrication system uses Engine oil to reduce friction on moving parts, seal and cushion moving parts, reduce
and remove heat, carry away contaminants and prevent corrosion.
• Lubrication: moving engine parts rub against one another, the resulting friction wearing away the
metal. A thin film of oil between the moving parts converts this solid friction to liquid friction, reducing
heat and abrasion on the moving surface.
• Cooling: oil absorbs some of the heat produced during combustion as it circulates through the engine.
The turbine bearings are especially reliant on this function of the lube system. heat from the oil is
dissipated in the heat exchanger
• Cleaning: Long-term use of systems may lead to corrosion or wear, producing foreign substances that
it is likely to shorten the life of systems and make them fail to work properly. These particles are
suspended in oil and trapped and removed at the filter.

4. Describe the functions of the subsystems of aircraft lubrications system?

• Storage
• Distribution
• Cooling
• Return
5. How do you do engine oil servicing?
Shutdown the engine and check if there is enough oil within 5-60min of shutdown. If oil servicing is necessary,
make sure the engine has cooled down before working on the engine. open the oil tank access door on the left
fan cowl and make sure the tank scupper is clean and dry (engine oil is hygroscopic). Make sure the oil pressure
is at zero and open the filler cap (pull up the dipstick). Fill the tank with oil till the scupper base and close the cap
and door.
6. What is sniff check and why do you do this?
It is done to check for any traces of fuel in the oil. This informs you of a contamination of oil and damage
downstream in the system, most likely on the heat exchanger.

7. What is engine oil system for and how is it cooled?

Supplies oil to lubricate, cool, cushion and clean the engine bearings and gearboxes. Engine oil is cooled by
exchanging the heat with the cold fuel. Heat exchanger is mounted on the fan case area.
 8. Draw a Basic turbine engine oil system:
Last page

9. What is Labyrinth seal in engine oil system?

It is commonly used for main bearing chamber sealing. It has no contacting parts and prevents oil leakage by
controlling airflow into the chamber. Compressor bleed air which is at a higher pressure than bearing chamber
vent pressure, causes airflow into the chamber. It also induces a positive pressure which assists the oil return
system and can be used as a metering device to control internal airflows.

10. How is debris monitoring system work with MCD?

The MCD attracts and holds ferrous particles collected by the oil. It also incorporates an electric circuit that
shows an indication in the cockpit when metallic debris bridges the gap between the positive and ground
electrodes

ATA 80:
1. Diff between pneumatic starter and electrical starter?
• Pneumatic starters are lighter, simpler, and more economical than electric starter. The turbine is rotated
by high-volume high-pressure air taken from the GPU, APU or cross bleed. The valve is controlled by a
starter valve which closes at a predetermined speed
• Electric starters supply high transmit torque using an electric motor supplied by a DC battery. The torque
is then transmitted through reduction gears to the clutch. They contain an automatic clutch release
mechanism with over-run protection to disengage the starter at self-sustaining speeds. More commonly
used on APUs.

2. How is starter works?

Bleed air for the Air starter can be provided by the APU, Ground Support or from the other Engine. Upon moving
the engine start knob to START, the Air starter bleed valve is open, compressed air (at high pressure) is received
at its input. Turbine extracts energy from this pressurized air and makes the motor shaft rotate. The air starter
motor shaft is coupled with the engine’s accessory gearbox which in turn is connected to the HP compressor.
Once the engine reaches self-sustaining speed, the valve closes, and starter disengages.

3. How to start an engine?

Bleed air is tapped from the APU, Ground or the other engine. Upon start selection, Air starter valve opens, Bleed
air is used to run the Air Starter. Air Starter is coupled to the accessory gearbox. The accessory gearbox is
connected to the HP compressor (N2) using gear mechanism. The fuel cutoff switch is set to RUN. The ignition
system is energized. After that EEC will open the shutoff valve in the HMU and lets the fuel flow to the engine.
After ignition, The EEC de-energizes the ignition system.
At some point, when the N2 is rotating at self-sustaining speed starter disengages from the engine. In Normal
Auto Start EEC will automatically start the Engine but during a Manual Start EEC only monitors some start
sequence.
 4. What is engine start safety corridor?
Ground personnel must use only the designated entry/exit corridor when it is necessary to be near an operating
engine.

5. What is starter Duty cycle?

The maximum a starter motor is allowed to be energized. The duty cycle has to be followed by a cooling down
period before the starter motor can be re-energized. The starter motor can be run for 5min, cooling period of
10min and this can be done thrice after which a 30min cool down period is required.

6. Describe what is the type of abdominal start?

• Hot start: if there is any fuel in the combustion chamber, maybe due to wet motoring and then the engine
is started, a hot start can occur. EGT shoots up
• Hung start: if an engine is not supported to the correct speed, that is, the engine stabilizes at or near
starter cut-off, it is referred to as a hung start. Can be due to faulty starter or ignitor.
• False start: this occurs when an engine doesn’t reach self-sustaining speed. Hung starts are also called
false starts
• Wet start: A wet start occurs when the engine fails to light up in a certain period of time when fuel is
introduced into the combustion chamber and unburnt fuel is exhausted through the tail pipe. The
indication of a wet start to the pilot is a positive rise and stabilization of high-pressure compressor with
no rise in engine exhaust temperature.