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Mock Uceed Sample Paper-02

Uceed mock test paper

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
536 views24 pages

Mock Uceed Sample Paper-02

Uceed mock test paper

Uploaded by

naveenmehra194
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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1

UNDERGRADUATE
COMMON ENTRANCE
EXAM FOR DESIGN

(UCEED) Sample Paper


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UNDERGRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE EXAM FOR DESIGN


(UCEED) Sample Paper
Paper Specific Instructions : -
1. The total duration of the examination is 3 hours. The question paper contains two parts – Part A and Part B. The
duration of Part A is 2 hours. Part B will begin after Part A ends. The duration of Part B is 1 hour.
2. Part A is divided into three sections: 1, 2 and 3. All sections are compulsory. Questions in each section are of different
types. There are a total of 57 questions in Part A carrying a total of 200 marks. Questions of Part A will appear on
the computer for the first 2 hours. Answers to Part A have to be entered in the computer within the first 2 hours.
3. Part B is also compulsory and contains 2 drawing questions of 50 marks each. Questions of Part B will appear on
the computer after 2 hours. Answers to Part B have to be given in the answer book provided by the invigilator.
4. Marking scheme of Part A is as follows:
Number Marks For Marks For Marks For Each Total Marks
Section Type Of Questions Of Correct Wrong Question Not For The
Questions Answer Answer Attempted Section
Numerical Answer
1 14 4 0 0 56
Type (NAT)
Multiple Select
2 15 Partial Marking -1 0 60
Question (MSQ)
Multiple Choice
3 28 3 -0.71 0 84
Question (MCQ)
Total 57 20
5. Section 1: Numerical Answer Type (NAT): 14 questions (4 marks each; no negative marks). For these questions,
the answer is a number that needs to be entered using the virtual keyboard on the computer screen. No choices
will be shown for these questions. Questions from 1 to 14 belong to this section.
6. Section 2: Multiple Select Questions (MSQ): 15 questions. Each MSQ may have one or more than one correct
choice(s) out of the four given. The following is the marking scheme:
Full Marks: (+4) If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen and NONE of the incorrect options is chosen.
Partial Marks: (+3) If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen and NONE of the incorrect
options is chosen.
Partial Marks: (+2) If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct
and NONE of the incorrect options is chosen.
Partial Marks: (+1) If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option and
NONE of the incorrect options is chosen.
Zero Marks: (0) If NONE of the options are chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks: (-1) In all other cases.
Questions from 15 to 29 belong to this section.
7. Section 3: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ): 28 questions (3 marks each for the correct answer; 0.71 negative
marks for incorrect answers). Each MCQ has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is the correct answer. Questions
from 30 to 57 belong to this section.
8. Part B (100 Marks) contains two drawing questions of 50 marks each. Both questions in Part B are mandatory.
There is NO NEGATIVE marking in this section. Questions 58 and 59 belong to this section.
9. Calculators, charts, graph-sheets, mathematical tables, mobile phone, watches of any type and other electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
10. Blank sheets of paper will be provided for rough work.

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PART A
Section 1: Numerical Answer Type (NAT)
1. The figure ABCD on the right is bounded by a semicircle ADC and a quarter-circle ABC. Given that shortest distance
between A and C = 18 units. What is the area of region bounded by this figure?

2. Haw many different circles appear below?

3. In a row of boys, If A who is 10th from the left and B who is 9th from the right interchange their positions, A becomes
15th from the left. How many boys are there in the row?
4. In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle of length 42 cm and breadth 14 cm. G and L are mid-points of sides AB and
DC respectively. AEF is quarter sector of circle, GKLH is square and KMN is a semicircle whose diameter is KN. AE =
AD = GL = KN. What is the area (in cm2) of the shaded region?

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5. A square T- 2 is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of another square T-1 of side 16 cm. A third square T3
is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of T-2. Find the sum of areas of all the squares (including T-1) formed
by repeating this process infinitely.
6. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to draw the given figure.

7. How many people are standing in the below picture?

8. Imagine letters are extruded into three-dimensional objects (as shown below), if the word TREE were to be extruded,
how many surfaces would it have?

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9. How many triangles are shown in the figure below:

10. How many symbols are there which show a mode of transport?

11. Below is the net of an open regular cylinder. Find the volume (approximate) of this box when it is closed and forms a
cylinder.

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12. A metallic sheet given below is transformed to form a cone by joining points A and B along the lines OA and OB, find
the curved surface area of the cone (in cm2).

13. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G can sit down for a meal at a round table as shown. Each person has two neighbours
at the table: for example, A’s neighbours are B and G. There are other ways in which the people can be seated round
the table. Last month they dined together on a number of occasions, and no two of the people were neighbours more
than once. How many meals could they have had together during the month?

14. A group of 165 children buy different soft toys among Teddy Bear, Puppy and Rabbit, 26 children buy only Teddy Bear,
63 children buy only Puppies, 10 children buy all the three and 40 buy only Rabbits. How many children buy exactly
two different soft toys?

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Section 2: MSQ Type

15. Which of the objects in the following image is/ are arranged around a perfect circle?

(a) Yellow (b) Blue (c) Pink (d) Green


16. Four solid pieces P, Q, R and S are arranged to form a cube. Which of the cubes shown in the options is/are possible?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

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17. Identify which of the following is Indian traditional folk music style?
(a) Maand (b) Alha (c) Bihugeet (d) Shlok
18. What are the common "Perceptual channels"?
(a) Visual (b) Communication (c) Auditory (d) Kinesthetic
19. Which of the given figures can be drawn without either lifting the pen or retracing any line?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D


20. Which of the following terms is/are NOT related to textile design?
(a) Gauge (b) Dyeability (c) Bobbin (d) Shocker
21. Light bulbs are usually filled with inert gas, which of the following can be used
(a) Nitrogen (b) Helium (c) Krypton (d) Argon
22. Which of the following relationship represents by the given diagram?

(a) Liquids, Milk, River water (b) Dogs, Friendly animals, Cats
(c) Criminals, Pick-pocketers, Arsonists (d) Educated, Employable , Female
23. Which of the following terms are related to painting?
(a) Mural (b) Fresco (c) Panorama (d) Portrait

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24. Which of the following figures among I, II, III and IV NOT depict the correct cube obtained on folding the given
unfolded hollow cube?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
25. Which material is not eco-friendly?
(a) Polystyrene foam (b) Ceramic (c) PVC (d) Wood
26. In each of the following questions, from amongst the figures marked (1), (2), (3) and (4), select the one which NOT
satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dot as in fig. (X).

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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27. A train has four cars in four colors: red, green, white and yellow. The green car is neither the first nor the last. The
yellow car is neither next to the white car nor next to the red car. What is the order of the cars in that train?
(a) WRGY (b) GWYR (c) WRYG (d) YGRW
28. Each ⋆ shown in the following multiplication cryptarithm is a single digit prime number. Find the value of final
product.

(a) 25575 (b) 53572 (c) 72535 (d) 35725


29. Identify the function of the tool below.

(a) Measure volume of cuboids


(b) Draw arcs
(c) Measure angles
(d) Measure lengths

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Section 3: MCQ Type


30. Find the area of the shaded region (in cm2), if ABC is (c) 2 (d)
3
4 2
an equilateral triangle having sides (2 √3) cm and D, E
and F are the mid-points of the sides AB, AC and BC 31. What is the name of the solid in the given image (net)?
respectively.

(a) Triangular
(b) Prism
(c) Triangular Pyramid
(d) Triangular Prism
5
(a) 3 (b)
2

32. If a paper is folded in a particular manner and a punch is made, when unfolded this paper appears as given below in
this question figure. Find out the way the paper is folded, and the punch is made from the answer figures given.

(a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4)

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33. Which of the following pictures demonstrates the correct application of the typographic principle of kerning?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
34. Which of the following is the primary function of the below tool?

(a) Leveling the surface


(b) Only measuring lengths
(c) Measurement and layout of drawings
(d) Only measuring angles

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35. In each of the following questions, from amongst the figures marked (1), (2), (3) and (4), select the one which satisfies
the same conditions of placement of the dot as in fig. (X).

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4


36. Which of the following is the odd one out from the above figures?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

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37. In the grid below, one box is missing. You must work 38. Choose the alternative which closely resembles the
out what rules are being applied in the other boxes in mirror image of the given combination.
order to work out which of boxes A to F will complete
the grid.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(a) (b)
39. Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in
a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one
out.
(a) 25 : 49 (b) 64 : 100
(c) 196 : 256 (d) 361 : 440

(c) (d)
40. The boxes run in a sequence from left to right. You must determine which box goes in the missing part of the sequence.

(a) (b) (c) (d)


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41. In the pattern below, one image is missing. Please select which is the correct option from A to D to complete it.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

42. The bottom boxes create a rule that has to be applied in the box directly above them. Select which of options A to D
correspond to the rule below the box with the question mark.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
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43. There are eight rules which when applied to the


sequence will transform it to one of the four options
shown below. Identify the correct option.
HJ Reverse the whole sequence of letters
HI Delete the fifth character
AB Delete the first character
CB Replace the second character with the next in the
alphabet
CD Insert the letter R between the third and fourth
characters
DE Exchange the second and last characters
YIDNSKWKXM = DE + HI + BC + JH
(a) IXKWKSNDNY (b) IXKWKNDMY
(c) IXKWKNDNY (d) YNDNKWKXI
44. Spot the difference. Below are two apparently
identical pictures. Identify the number of differences
between the two-Spot them.
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
46. Choose the alternative which closely resembles the
mirror image of the given combination.

(a) (b)
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
45. Complete the sequence.

(c) (d)

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47. Which one of the answer figure is the correct mirror


image of the problem figure with respect to X-X?

(c) (d)
49. The 3-D figure shows the view of an object. Identify
the correct view in the direction of the arrow, from
amongst the answer figures.

(a) (b)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
48. Which element from the option figure will replace the
question mark?
(c) (d)
50. Shahid is feeling very sleepy. He yawns and stretches.
Identify the correct image.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(a) (b)
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51. The 3-D figure shows the view of an object. Identify the correct view in the direction of the arrow, from amongst the
answer figures.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
52. The given series consist of four figures. One of the four figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) does not fit into the series. Find out
the figure.

(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d

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53. A triangle is cut into 6 pieces as shown on the extreme left of the image. Identify which of the options can be made
using all 6 pieces.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D


54. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Man, Woman and Manager?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
55. A specific analogy is given in the question below. Understand the logic behind it and choose the correct option for the
next part:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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56. How many triangular faces are there in the given figure?

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9


57. Which of the suggested shapes Does NOT shares a feature with the given shapes?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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PART B
(60 minutes-100 marks)
1. Drawing [50 Marks]
On a Sunday morning, 5-year-old Geet, her grandmother and father are cleaning their old garage. It is a big garage with
large open windows near the ceiling. It has an old bicycle, a football and other objects. The father is cleaning the
cobwebs. The grandmother while cleaning, finds her old guitar which she used to play during her college days. She
gets excited and starts playing it as Geet starts dancing around. The garage also has a lot of old memories of Geet’s
sporty grandmother and her studious father. Geet’s school friend stands at the door of the garage watching this
whole scene.
Draw this scenario from the friend’s point of view.
Note:
 Use only pencil
 Do not use colours
Evaluation Criteria:
 Perspective
 Proportion
 Composition
 Observation
 Imagination
 Quality of sketch
 Attention to detail
2. Design Aptitude [50 Marks]
A six-year old girl is going to school for the first time. She needs to carry a lunch box in her school bag. Her lunch can
contain typical Indian food items (both dry as well as liquid food items, such as Roti, Rice, Dosa, Dal, Sambar, etc.).
Design a lunch box for her, considering her needs. Sketch your design, and visually explain the features of your
design along with clear labels.
Note:
Use only pencil. Do not use colours.
Explain your design only through visuals and short labels.
Do not write separate explanations.
Evaluation Criteria:
 Appropriateness of three-dimensional form and visual graphics
 Provisions for fulfilling functional requirements
 Considerations for product usability by the user
 Attention to detail and explanation of features through visuals only
 Clarity of the sketch and quality of presentation, and uniqueness of design.

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