BIOLOGY HOLIDAY HOMEWORK

The Living World

Question 1.
In a scientific name, the name of the author is printed in
(a) Abbreviated
(b) Capital letters
(c) Bold
(d) Italics

Answer – (a)
Question 2.
As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of
common characteristics
(a) Remain same
(b) Will increase
(c) Will decrease
(d) May increase or decrease

Answer- (c)
Question 3.
The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to
which hierarchical level in classification of plants?
(a) Class
(b) Order
(c) Family
(d) Division

Answer- (d)
Question 4
Phylogenetic classification is based on
(a) utilitarian system
(b) habits
(c) overall similarities
(d) common evolutionary descent

Answer- (d)
Question 5
Example of interspecific hybrid is
(a) Liger and dog
(b) Tigon and tiger
(c) Cat and lion
(d) Tigon and liger

Answer- (d)
Question 6.
In nomenclature,
(a) The genus is written after the species.
(b) Genus and species may not be of the same name.
(c) Both genus and species are printed in italics.
(d) The first letter is capital in both genus and species.

Answer- (c)
Question 7.
The term “New Systematics” was introduced by
(a) Bentham and Hooker
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Julian Huxley
(d) A.P. de Candolle

Answer- (c)
Question 8
Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
(a) de Vries
(b) Carlous Linnaeus
(c) Huxley
(d) John Ray

Answer- (b)
Question 9.
The branch connected with nomenclature, identification and classification is
(a) Ecology
(b) Taxonomy
(c) Physiology
(d) Morphology

Answer- (b)
Question 10.
The Darwin of 20th century is
(a) Aristotle
(b) Ernst Mayr
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Theophrastus
Answer- (b)
Q.1. Assertion : Botany deals with the study of plants and zoology
deals with the study of animals.
Reason : Biology is the study of living beings.

Answer – (a)
Q.2. Assertion : Study of internal structure is called anatomy.
Reason : It is useful for phylogentic study.

Answer – (b)
Q.3. Assertion : The science of classifiying organisms is called
taxonomy.
Reason : Systematics and taxonomy have same meaning.

Answer- (c)
Q.4. Assertion : Chemotaxonomy is classifying organisms at
molecular level.
Reason : Cytotaxonomy is classifying organisms at cellular level.

Answer- (b)
Q.5. Assertion: Living organisms are regarded as closed systems.
Reason: Energy of living organisms can not be lost or gained from
external environment.

Answer- (d)

BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
Question 1.
Sexual reproduction is by copulation of male and female followed by
embryological development is characteristic feature of
(a) Animalia
(b) Fungi
(c) Mucor
(d) Plantae

Answer-a

Question 2.
The blue-green algae are also referred as
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Eubacteria
(c) Archaebacteria
(d) Heterotrophic bacteria

Answer-a

Question 3.
Antibiotics cure disease by
(a) Competitive Inhibition
(b) Fighting with the disease causing organism
(c) Turning the pathogen out of the body
(d) Removing the pain

Answer-a
Question 4.
The organism that completely lack a cell wall and are smallest living cell
know, can survive without oxygen is
(a) Bacteriophages
(b) Yeast
(c) Mycoplasmas
(d) Virus

Answer-c
Question 5.
Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and saprophytic are the characteristics of
(a) Monerans
(b) Slime moulds
(c) Fungi
(d) Protists

Answer-b
Question 6.
Wine turns sour because of
(a) Heat
(b) Aerobic bacteria
(c) Anaerobic bacteria
(d) Exposure to the light

Answer-b
Question 7.
Which among the following is not included in the three domains system?
(a) Bacteria Domain
(b) Archaea Domain
(c) Viral Domain
(d) Eukara Domain

Answer-c
Question 8.
Which one of the following is true for fungi?
(a) They are phagotrophs
(b) They lack a rigid cell wall
(c) They are heterotrophs
(d) They lack nuclear membrane

Answer-c
Question 9.
Which Archaebacteria is present in the guts of ruminant animals such as
cows and buffaloes?
(a) Speculums
(b) Methanogens
(c) Heterogens
(d) Holophiles

Answer-b
Question 10.
Which of the following is an exception of monera kingdom –
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Cyanobacteria
(d) Mycoplasma

Answer-b
Q.1. Assertion : Bacteria are prokaryotic.
Reason : Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell
organelles.

Answer - a
Q.2. Assertion : Bacterial photosynthesis occurs by utilizing wavelength
longer than 700 nm.
Reason : Here reaction centre is P-890.

Answer - b
Q.3. Assertion : Sand fly transmits Kala-azar.
Reason : In Kala-azar, the parasite damages the brain.

Answer - c
Q.4. Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and Salmonella sp. are all
responsible for diarrhoeal diseases.
Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and
adequate supply of
fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.

Answer - b
Q.5. Assertion : Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the stain when
washed with alcohol.
Reason : The outer face of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
contains lipopolysaccharides, a part of which is integrated into the
membrane lipids.

Answer - a

PLANT KINGDOM
Question 1.
Lichens show
(a) Symbiosis
(b) Commensalism
(c) Parasitism
(d) Cooperation

Answer - A
Question 2.
In chlorophyta the mode of sexual reproduction is
(a) Isogamy
(b) Anisogamy
(c) Oogamy
(d) Isogamy, Anisogamy and oogamy

Answer - D
Question 3.
The zygospore of Spirogyra produces-
(a) 2-zoospores
(b) 4-zoospores
(c) 2-4 zoospores
(d) None of these

Answer - D
Question 4.
An evolutionary characteristic is found in selaginella:
(a) Presence of ligule
(b) Heterophilly habits
(c) Sporangia present in cone
(d) Heterospory

Answer - D
Question 5.
By which type of leaf is found in selaginella
(a) Aligulate and microphyllous
(b) Ligulate and megaphyllous
(c) Ligulate and microphyllous
(d) Aligulate and megaphyllous

Answer - C
Question 6.
Bioluminescence is a phenomenon associated with
(a) chrysophyta
(b) phaeophyta
(c) pyrrophyta
(d) chlorophyta
Answer - C
Question 7.
No Zoospore formation has been observed in the Algal members belonging
to:-
(a) Chlorophyceae
(b) Xanthophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) Cyanophyceae

Answer - D
Question 8.
Irish moss, is a member of:
(a) True moss
(b) Lichen
(c) Algae
(d) Bryophyte

Answer - C
Question 9.
Yeast is different from penicillium and Rhizopus in being
(a) Acellular
(b) Unicellular
(c) Having unseptate hyphae
(d) multicellular

Answer - B
Question 10.
Cephaleuros, which causes “Red rust of tea” is a:
(a) Red Algae
(b) Brown Algae
(c) Dinoflagellate
(d) Green Algae

Answer - D

Q.1. Assertion : Algae and fungi are grouped in thallophyta.

Reason : Algae and fungi show no differentiation in thallus.

Answer – A
Q.2. Assertion : Chlorella could be utilised to keep the air pure in space vehicles.
Reason : The space travelers feed on Chlorella soup.

Answer – B

Q.3. Assertion : Members of phaeophyceae vary in colour from olive green to various shades
of brown
Reason : Phaeophyceae possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls. [AIIMS
2006]

Answer – A

Q.4. Assertion: Rhodophyta is red in colour of due to abundant formation of r-phycoerythrin.

Reason: r-phycoerythrin is able to absorb blue green wavelength of light and reflect red
colour.

Answer – A

Q.5. Assertion: The colour of brown algae varies from olive green to brown.
Reason: In brown algae, fucoxanthin is responsible for colour variation.

Answer – B

ANIMAL KINGDOM
Question 1.
Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are:
(a) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(b) Green gland and tracheae
(c) Book lungs and antennae
(d) Compound eyes and anal cerci

Answer - A

Question 2.
Number of excretory pores in Ascaris is-
(a) 6
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 5

Answer - B
Question 3.
In Ascaris tufted epithelium occurs in
(a) Intestine
(b) Body wall
(c) Uterus
(d) Pineal sac

Answer – C

Question 4
The lips of Ascaris are-
(a) Bony
(b) Smooth
(c) Cartilagenous
(d) Denticulate

Answer - D
Question 5.
Chenopodium oil destroys:
(a) Adult Ascaris
(b) Larva
(c) Eggs
(d) Toxins

Answer - A
Question 6.
One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body:
(a) Homeothermy
(b) Presence of diaphragm
(c) Four chambered heart
(d) Rib cage

Answer -B
Question 7.
Ascaris male is:
(a) Didelphic
(b) Monodelphic
(c) Polydelphic
(d) None of the Above

Answer - D
Question 8.
Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general
characteristics?
(a) Arthropoda – Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and
respiration by tracheae
(b) Chordata – Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary
openings to the outside
(c) Echinodermata – Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal
fertilization
(d) Mollusca – Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore
or veliger larva

Answer – D
Question 9.
Externally male Ascaris can be differentiated from female Ascaris by-
(a) 5 pairs of postanal papillae
(b) 50 pairs of papillae
(c) Pineal setae
(d) All of the above

Answer – D
Question 10.
Ascaris is characterized by
(a) absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
(b) presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
(c) presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
(d) presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)

Answer – B

Q.1. Assertion: Radial symmetry in animal helps in detecting food and danger.
Reason: It enables the animal to respond to stimuli from any direction.

Answer – A

Q.2. Assertion: Animals that have an exoskeleton, lacks an endoskeleton.

Reason: Skeleton cells in the embryonic stage migrate to either stage and produce
exoskeleton
or endoskeleton but never both.

Answer – D
Q.3. Assertion : Cold blooded animals do not have fat layer.
Reason : Cold blooded animals use their fat for metabolic process during hibernation.
[AIIMS 1997]

Answer – C

Q.4. Assertion : The skeleton of sponges is made up of spicules.

Reason : Composition of spicules help in classification of sponges.

Answer – B

Q.5. Assertion : Sponges belong to Porifera.

Reason : Sponges have canal system.

Answer – B

MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS

Question 1.
Blue dye is obtained from the leaves of
(a) Indigofera tinctoria
(b) Opium
(c) Aloe
(d) Delbergia sissoo

Answer – A
Question 2.
Which of the following is a correct pair?
(a) Cuscuta – parasite
(b) Dischidia – insectivorous
(c) Opuntia – predator
(d) Capsella – hydrophyte

Answer – A
Question 3.
Cymose inflorescences commonly occurs in
(a) Cruciferae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Liliaceae

Answer – C
Question 4.
The embryo in sunflower has
(a) one cotyledon
(b) two cotyledons
(c) many cotyledons
(d) no cotyledon

Answer – B
Question 5.
The aleurone layer in maize grain is especially rich in
(a) auxins
(b) proteins
(c) starch
(d) lipids

Answer – B
Question 6.
Spinous xerophytic herb belonging to solanceae is
(a) Solanum tuberosum
(b) S. nigrum
(c) S. xanthocarpum
(d) S. melongena

Answer – C
Question 7.
Dry indehiscent single seeded fruit formed by bi-carpellary syncarpous
inferior ovary is
(a) Cremocarp
(b) Berry
(c) Caryopsis
(d) Cypsela

Answer – D
Question 8.
Flowers are zygomorphic in:
(a) mustard
(b) gulmohur
(c) ioruato
(d) Datura

Answer – B
Question 9.
Heterospory and seed habit are often discussed in relation to a structure
called
(a) spathe
(b) bract
(c) petiole
(d) ligule

Answer – D
Question 10.
What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea?
(a) Axile
(b) Free central
(c) Marginal
(d) Basal

Answer – C

Q.1. Assertion : Apical meristem of root is subterminal.

Reason : At the terminal end of root, root cap is present.

Answer - A

Q.2. Assertion: Fibrous root stem.

Reason: Fibrous root system is found in dicots only.

Answer – C

Q.3. Assertion : Ginger has a prostrate-growing rhizome.

Reason : Shoot growth is not effected by gravity.

Answer – B

Q.4. Assertion: Avicennia has pneumatophores.

Reason: Pneumatophores help the plant to get oxygen for respiration.

Answer – A

Q.5. Assertion: Roots do not possess nodes but no leaves or buds.

Reason: Root branches arise endogenously.

Answer – B

ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS

Question 1.
A meristematic region present between the xylem and the phloem of open
vascular bundles is called
(a) Pericycle
(b) Pith
(c) Intrafascicular cambium
(d) Medullary ray

Answer - C
Question 2.
Mechanical tissue consisting of living cells is
(a) Sclerenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Chlorenchyma
(d) Parenchyma

Answer – B
Question 3.
“Patua” is obtained from Hibiscus sabdariffa is
(a) Secondary phloem
(b) Collenchymatous hypodermis
(c) Pericycle
(d) Epidermis

Answer – A
Question 4.
Which type of fibres mainly occur in phloem
(a) Fibre tracheids
(b) Libriform
(c) Sclereids
(d) Wood fibres

Answer – B
Question 5.
Quiescentcentre is found in the plant at
(a) Root tips
(b) Cambium
(c) Shoot tips
(d) Leaf tip

Answer – A
Question 6.
Most conspicuous annual rings form in:
(a) Temperate evergreen plants
(b) Tropical deciduous
(c) Temperate deciduous plants
(d) Tropical evergreen
Answer – C
Question 7.
A wood with scattered parenchyma is called
(a) Paratracheal
(b) Apotracheal
(c) Syntracheal
(d) None of the Above

Answer – B
Question 8.
Formation of secondary xylem and phloem respectively
(a) Centrifugal and centripetal
(b) Centripetal and centrifugal
(c) Both centripetal
(d) Both centrifugal

Answer – B
Question 9.
Bark includes all the tissues
(a) Lying outside the vascular cambium
(b) Formed by vascular cambium
(c) Formed by phellogen
(d) Phellem & phelloderm

Answer – A
Question 10
Jute fibres are obtained from the
(a) Pith
(b) Endodermis
(c) Xylem
(d) Secondary phloem

Answer – D

Q.1. Assertion : Apical meristem of root is subterminal.

Reason: At the terminal end of root, root cap is present.

Answer – A

Q.2. Assertion : Histogen theory is not applicable to shoot apex.

Reason : The shoot apex is not clearly divided into three layers.

Answer – A
Q.3. Assertion : Higher plants have meristematic regions for indefinite growth.
Reason : Higher plants have root and shoot apices. [AIIMS 1997]

Answer – A

Q.4. Assertion: Apical meristem and intercalary meristem both are primary meristems.
Reason: Both of these meristems appear early in life of a plant and help in the formation of
the primary plant body.

Answer – A

Q.5. Assertion: Lateral meristems include fascicular vascular cambium, interfascicular

cambium and cork-cambium.
Reason: These are responsible for forming the secondary tissues.

Answer -B

STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS.

Question 1.
Glands of Zeis are associated with eyelashes. These are modified-
(a) Sweat glands
(b) Mucous glands
(c) Sebaceous glands
(d) Sudoriferous glands

Answer – C
Question 2.
The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is
(a) Muscle tissue
(b) Nervous tissue
(c) Connective tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue

Answer – C
Question 3.
Ciliated Epithelium occurs in frog
(a) Oviduct & Buccal cavity
(b) Stomach & urinary Bladder
(c) Blood vessels & Lymph vessels
(d) Kidney & stomach
Answer – A
Question 4.
The innermost layer of epidermis in mammals is termed-
(a) Stratum granulosum
(b) Stratum lucidum
(c) Stratum spinosum
(d) Stratum germinativum

Answer – D
Question 5.
The first milk secreted following child birth is called-
(a) Infant milk
(b) Colostrum
(c) Casein
(d) None of these

Answer – B
Question 6.
Which part of hairs have pigment granules of melanin
(a) Hair follicle
(b) Hair papilla
(c) Medulla
(d) Cortex

Answer – D
Question 7.
The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is
(a) Squamous epithelium
(b) Cuboidal epithelium
(c) Columnar epithelium
(d) Ciliated columnar epithelium

Answer – C
Question 8.
In mammals maximum energy is lost by the
(a) Respiration
(b) Urine
(c) Skin
(d) Stool

Answer – C
Question 9.
Which organ of the body is known as “Jack of all trades”
(a) Kidney
(b) Brain
(c) Skin
(d) All of the above

Answer – C
Question 10.
Covering membrane around muscle fibre is known as
(a) Neurilemma
(b) Plasmalemma
(c) Sarcolemma
(d) Myolemma

Answer – C

Q.1. Assertion : Specialization of cells is advantageous for the organisms.

Reason : It increases the operational efficiency of an organism.

Answer – A

Q.2. Assertion : The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells
with irregular boundaries.
Reason : They are found in walls of blood vessels and air sacs of wings. [AIIMS 2017]

Answer – B

Q.3. Assertion : Urinary bladder can considerably expand to accommodate urine.

Reason : It is lined by stretchable squamous epithelium.

Answer – C

Q.4. Assertion : Columnar epithelium lining the intestinal mucosa appears to have a brush
like appearance.
Reason : A large number of microvilli are present on brush bordered columnar epithelium.

Answer – A

Q.5. Assertion : Surface of skin is impervious to water.

Reason : Surface of skin is covered by stratified cuboidal epithelium.

Answer – C

CELL : THE UNIT OF LIFE

Question 1.
In eubacteria, a cellular component which resembles a eukaryotic cell is
(a) Ribosomes
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Nucleus
(d) Cell wall

Answer – B

Question 2.
A cell membrane shows fluid behavior due to
(a) Mosaic of lipid and proteins
(b) Presence of fluid protein
(c) Mosaic of fat and glucose
(d) Sandwich of protein between lipids layer

Answer – A

Question 3.
Plastids which store fats and oils are called:-
(a) Aleuroplast
(b) Amyloplast
(c) Etioplast
(d) Elaioplast

Answer – D
Question 4.
Which one is not a difference between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cell?
(a) Presence of membrane bounded organelles
(b) Number of chromosomes
(c) Presence of nuclear membrane
(d) Presence of cell wall

Answer - D
Question 5.
Which of the following statements with reference to cytoskeleton is not
correct?
(a) Cytoskeleton helps in motility.
(b) Cytoskeleton maintains the shape of the cell.
(c) Cytoskeleton helpful in production of ATP.
(d) Cytoskeleton helpful in mechanical support.
Answer – C
Question 6.
The nucleus was first described by
(a) Schwann
(b) Flemming
(c) Palade
(d) Robert brown

Answer – D
Question 7.
Cytoskeleton is made of
(a) Cellulose microfibrils
(b) Protienaceous filaments
(c) Callose deposit
(d) Calcium carbonate granules

Answer – B
Question 8.
Mitochondria and chloroplast are considered to be endosymbionts of cell
because they:
(a) Possess their own nucleic acid
(b) Have capacity of ATP synthesis
(c) Do not reproduce
(d) All the above

Answer – A
Question 9.
Sphaerosome are involved in:
(a) Synthesis and storage of lipid
(b) Synthesis of protein
(c) β–oxidation of fatty acids
(d) Synthesis and storage of carbohydrate

Answer - A
Question 10.
Longest cell in human body are
(a) Muscle cell
(b) Nerve cells
(c) Blood cells
(d) Mast cells

Answer – B
Q.1. Assertion: Organisms are made up of cells.
Reason: Cells are structural unit of living organisms. A cell keeps its chemical composition
steady within its boundary.

Answer - A

Q.2. Assertion: Specialization of cells is useful for organism.

Reason: It increases the operational efficiency of an organism.

Answer – A

Q.3. Assertion: The number of cells in a multicellular organism is inversely proportional to

size of body.
Reason: All cells of biological world are alive.

Answer – D

Q.4. Assertion : Living organisms possess specific individuality with the definite shape and
size.
Reason : Both living and non living entities resemble each other at the lower level of
organisation.

Answer – B

Q.5. Assertion : It is important that the organisms should have cell.

Reason : A cell keeps its chemical composition steady within its boundary.

Answer – A

BIOMOLECULES
Question 1.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Enzyme – Lipopolysaccharide
(b) Phospholipid – Plasma membrane
(c) ATP – Nucleotide derivative
(d) Antibody – Glycoprotein

Answer – A
Question 2.
A functional protein is
(a) Collagen
(b) Ossein
(c) Vitamin
(d) Enzyme

Answer – D
Question 3.
Nitrogenous bases present in DNA
(a) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
(b) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
(c) Adenine, thymine, uracil
(d) Guanine, uracil

Answer – B
Question 4.
Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for
growth and life is called___________
(a) Saponins
(b) Tannins
(c) Secondary metabolite
(d) Primary metabolites

Answer – D
Question 5.
DNA differs from RNA in having
(a) Thymine but no uracil
(b) Uracil but no thymine
(c) Thymine but no cytosine
(d) Cytosine but no guanine

Answer – A
Question 6.
Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to
(a) R groups of amino acids
(b) Sequence of amino acids
(c) Peptide bonds
(d) Amino groups of amino acids

Answer – B
Question 7.
Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action:
(a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site.
(b) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic
dehydrogenase by malonate.
(c) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that
which binds the substrate.
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase.

Answer – B
Question 8.
Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that
(a) One strand turns anticlockwise
(b) Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in
opposite position
(c) Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same
position
(d) One strand turns clockwise

Answer – B
Question 9.
The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves:
(a) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
(b) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
(c) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
(d) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer – D
Question 10.
Double hydrogen bond occurs in DNA between
(a) Adenine and guanine
(b) Thymine and cytosine
(c) Adenine and thymine
(d) Uracil and thymine

Answer – C

Q.1. Assertion: The living state is a equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work.
Reason : Living process is a constant effort to prevent falling into non-equilibrium.

Answer – D

Q.2. Assertion: Living organisms have more nitrogen and oxygen per unit mass than
inanimate objects (e.g., earth crust).
Reason: Living organisms have more Ca, Mg, Na in them than inanimate object.

Answer – C

Q.3. Assertion: In living system, all the metabolic conversions are aided by catalyst.
Reason: The catalyst which hasten the rate of a given metabolic conversion are not proteins.
Answer – C

Q.4. Assertion: Secondary metabolites are produced in small quantities and their extraction
from the plant is difficult and expensive.
Reason: Secondary metabolites can be commercially produced by using tissue culture
technique.

Answer – B

Q.5. Assertion : Comparative biochemistry provides a strong evidence in favour of common

ancestory of living beings.
Reason : Genetic code is universal.

Answer – B

CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

Question 1.
Meiosis is evolutionary significant because it result in
(a) genetically similar daughters
(b) four daughter cells
(c) eggs and sperms
(d) recombinations

Answer – D
Question 2.
Synapsis occurs between
(a) A male and female gametes
(b) Ribosome and m-RNA
(c) Spindle fibres and centromeres
(d) Two homologous chromosomes

Answer – D
Question 3.
Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into
(a) Phargmoplast
(b) Polyploidy
(c) Uninucleate condition
(d) Multinucleate condition

Answer – D
Question 4.
A cell plate is laid down during
(a) Cytokinesis
(b) Interphase
(c) Karyokinesis
(d) None of these

Answer – A
Question 5.
Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs
between
(a) Non-sister chromosomes
(b) Sister chromatids
(c) Non-homologous chromosome
(d) Homologous chromosomes

Answer – D
Question 6.
The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in
(a) Metaphase and M phase
(b) Anaphase and S phase
(c) Interphase and S phase
(d) None of these

Answer – B
Question 7.
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to
mutations?
(a) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.
(b) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
(c) Mutations inactive the cell control.
(d) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.

Answer – D
Question 8.
In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in
(a) G1 phase
(b) G2 phase
(c) Mitotic metaphase
(d) S phase

Answer – D
Question 9.
Which of the phases of mitosis is the longest?
(a) Telophase
(b) Prophase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Metaphase

Answer – B
Question 10.
Chromosome appeared beaded during
(a) Diplotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Panchytene

Answer – B

Q.1. Assertion : Interphase is resting stage.

Reason : The interphase cell is metabolically inactive.

Answer - C
Q.2. Assertion : Histones are basic proteins of major importance in
packaging of eukaryotic DNA.
DNA and histones comprise chromatin, forming the bulk of eukaryotic
chromosome.
Reason : Histones are 5 major types H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4.

Answer – B
Q.3. Assertion : DNA synthesis occurs in G1 and G2 periods of cell cycle.
Reason : During G1 and G2 phase, the DNA content become double.

Answer – D
Q.4. Assertion: Due to inactivation of the cell cycle, some cells undergo
G0 phase.
Reason : G0 phase occurs due to non-availability of mitogen and energy
rich compounds.

Answer – A
Q.5. Assertion: G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of
DNA replication.
Reason : The cell is metabolically inactive during G1 phase.

Answer – C
 PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS
Question 1.
During the process of photosynthesis the raw materials used are:–
(a) Glucose
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Starch
(d) CO2 and H2O
Answer – D
Question 2.
During photochemical reaction of photosynthesis–
(a) liberation of O2 takes place
(b) Formation of ATP and NADPH2 take place
(c) Liberation of O2, formation of ATP, and NADPH2 takes place
(d) Assimilation of CO2 takes place
Answer – C
Question 3.
It is only the green part of the plant, which takes part in
(a) Respiration
(b) Transpiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Osmosis

Answer – C
Question 4.
In the half-leaf experiment of photosynthesis, KOH solution is used
because
(a) It provides O2 to the leaf.
(b) It provides moisture to the leaf.
(c) It helps in CO2 fixation.
(d) It absorbs CO2.
Answer - D
Question 5.
Photosynthesis is most active in
(a) Sun light
(b) Yellow light
(c) Red light
(d) Green light

Answer – C
Question 6.
Structurally, chlorophyll a and b are different as
(a) Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
(b) Chl a has an aldehyde group and Chl b has a methyl group.
(c) Chl a has an ethyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
(d) Chl a has a carboxyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.

Answer – A
Question 7.
Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle requires:
(a) 1 ATP and 2NADPH2
(b) 2ATP and 2NADPH2
(c) 3ATP and 2NADPH2
(d) 2ATP and 1NADPH2
Answer – C
Question 8.
During ATP synthesis electron pass through
(a) Water
(b) Cytochromes
(c) O2
(d) CO2
Answer – B
Question 9.
The concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere is approximately
(a) 0.003%
(b) 0.03%
(c) 0.30 %
(d) 3.00 %
Answer – B
Question 10.
Which one of the following statements about cytochrome P-450 is wrong?
(a) It is a colored cell
(b) It is an enzyme involved in oxidation reaction
(c) It has an important role in metabolism
(d) It contains iron

Answer – A

Q.1. Assertion: Chloroplasts mostly occur in mesophyll cells along their

walls inside the leaves.
Reason : The membrane system of chloroplast is responsible for trapping
the light energy and also for the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.
Answer – B
Q.2. Assertion : Rhoeo leaves contain anthocyanin pigments in epidermal
cells.
Reason : Anthocyanins are accessory photosynthetic pigments. [AIIMS
2002]

Answer – C

Q.3. Assertion: Leaf colouration is due to the presence of four pigments –

Chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, xanthophylls and carotenoids.
Reason : Chlorophyll b is the chief pigment associated with
photosynthesis.

Answer – C
Q.4. Assertion: Bacterial photosynthesis occurs by utilizing wavelength
longer than 700 nm.
Reason: Here reaction centre is B-890. [AIIMS 2002]

Answer – B
Q.5. Assertion : There is a decrease in photosynthesis, if the
photosynthetic cells are illuminated by light
of P680 nm or more wavelength.
Reason : In red drop phenomenon the rate of photosynthesis decreases.

Answer – B

THANK YOU