DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C: P–SIA–D–UPGI PRESTORMINGTM TEST BOOKLET

Serial: 848302 CSAT

A
TEST - 2

Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box.
Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions
in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to
that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1
 S.(1-2) Directions for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
The IPCC Land Report estimates that land serves as a large CO2 sink. There is a growing
body of evidence that a large proportion of the required removals could be achieved by
conserving natural sinks, improving biodiversity protection, and restoring ecosystems.
Preserving earth’s cyclical processes by protecting terrestrial ecosystems and natural sinks
and transformative agricultural practices under the leadership of indigenous people and
local communities is a far more equitable and cost-effective way of tackling the climate
crisis than it is being done now. We need to realize that the climate crisis is just a
symptom; our real problem is that human consumption and activity have exceeded the
regenerative. Technology, at best, can assist us, not lead us, on the pathway to a
sustainable, regenerative and equitable world.

1. Which of the following is the most rational and logical inference from the above passage?
(a) Climate crisis can be best handled with the help of technology.
(b) Real problem that has to be addressed on priority is the excessive human consumption
and unbridled capitalism.
(c) Afforestation and conservation measures aided with technology and people’s
involvement could address the climate crisis effectively.
(d) Preserving earth’s cyclical processes by protecting terrestrial ecosystems and natural
sinks is a far more equitable and cost-effective way of tackling climate crisis than it is
being done now.
SOLUTION:
(c) Addresses the main takeaway.

2. According to the author of the above passage which of the following is the real problem of
which climate crisis is only a symptom:
(a) Not using technology to assist us on the pathway to a sustainable regenerative and
equitable world.
(b) Excessive consumerism and unbridled capitalism.
(c) Not protecting earth’s cyclical processes and natural sinks.
(d) Over exploitation of natural resources beyond the point of no return spurred by
man’s greed and deed.
SOLUTION:
(d) Straight from the passage but with different words.

2
 S.(3-5) Directions for the following 3 (three) item: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
World Food Day is a reminder to ‘Leave No One Behind’, and is an opportunity – perhaps
the most urgent one in recent history – for nations to strengthen food security nets, provide
access to essential nutrition for millions and promote livelihood for vulnerable communities.
One of India’s greatest contributions to equity in food is its national Food Security Act
(NFSA) 2013 which anchors the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), the PM
POSHAN scheme (earlier known as the Mid-Day Meals scheme), and the Integrated Child
Development Services (ICDS). Today, India’s food safety nets collectively reach over a billion
people. The WFP works with State and national governments to strengthen these systems to
reach the people who need them most. The Government continues to take various measures
to improve these programmes with digitisation and measures such as rice fortification,
better health, and sanitation.
Food safety nets and inclusion are linked with public procurement and buffer stock policy –
visible during the global food crisis (2008-12) and the COVID-19 pandemic fallout, whereby
vulnerable and marginalized families in India continued to be buffered by the TPDS which
became a lifeline. An International Monetary Fund paper titled ‘Pandemic, Poverty, and
Inequality: Evidence from India’ asserted that ‘extreme poverty was maintained below 1% in
2020 due to the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). India’s upcoming
G20 presidency is an opportunity to bring food and nutrition security to the very centre of a
resilient and equitable future.
Nutrition and agricultural production are not only impacted by climate change but also
linked to environmental sustainability. Soil degradation by the excessive use of chemicals,
non-judicious water use, and declining nutritional value of food products need urgent
attention.
Millets have received renewed attention as crops that are good for nutrition, health, and the
planet. As climate-smart crops, they are hardier than other cereals. Since they need fewer
inputs, they are less extractive for the soil and can revive soil health. Additionally, their
genetic diversity ensures that agrobiodiversity is preserved.

3. Which of the following is the most important message of the above passage?
(a) Nutrition, agricultural production and environmental sustainability are vital for
providing food security.
(b) Nations have to focus on climate-smart crops like millets as they are good for nutrition,
health and the planet.

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 (c) India should use the upcoming G20 presidency to bring food and nutrition security to
the very centre of a resilient and equitable future.
(d) Providing nutrition and food security for all citizens in addition to livelihood
should be the urgent focus for nations.
SOLUTION:
(d) ‘Leave No One Behind' by strengthening food security nets, providing access to nutrition
and promote livelihood is the important of the passage.

4. From the above passage following assumptions have been made :

I. Millet conservation and promotion aligns with sustainable Development goals.
II. Millet will soon become the staple diet in India.
Which of the above assumption is/are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II.
SOLUTION:
(a) Passage does not talk anything about staple food. However it talks about Millet as a
climate smart crops and hence option I can be inferred as a valid assumption.

5. Which of the following is the biggest food security contributor in India?

(a) World Food Programme (WFP)
(b) Millet and other climate smart crops
(c) Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana
(d) National Food Security Act
SOLUTION:
(d) The passage clearly stakes one India’s greatest contributors to equity in food is National
Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013.

6. In a box of pens, there are three less red pens than the black ones and five more red pens
than the blue ones. If there are a total of 10 Red pens, how many pens are there in the
box?
(a) 26
(b) 28
(c) 32
(d) 36

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 SOLUTION:

The number of red pens = 10

The number of black pens = 10 + 3 = 13
The number of blue = 10 - 5 = 5
Total number pens in the box = 10 + 13 + 5 = 28
Hence, 28 pens are there in the box. (Option B)

7. From a metal rod of 30 m long, a person cuts off as many pieces as possible, each 31/4 m
long. What fraction of the whole will be left?
(a) 1/40
(b) 3/4
(c) 8/13
(d) 7/13
SOLUTION:
Length of each piece = 31/4 = 13/4 m
Maximum pieces that can be cut = 30/(13/4) = 9
∴ Rod left = 30 – (13/4 )x 9 = (120 – 117)/4 = 3/4 m
∴ Required fraction = 3/4/30 = 1/40 (option a)

8. 30 Rose plants, 45 Hibiscus plants and 60 Jasmine plants have to be planted in rows such
that each row contains the same number of plants of one variety only. What is minimum
number of row in which the plants may be planted?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 9
SOLUTION:
Maximum number of plants in each row = HCF of (30,45 and 60) = 15
∴ Number of rows = (30 + 45 + 60)/15 = 9(option d)

9. The average salary of the entire staff in a school is 200 per day. The average salary of
teaching staff is 550 and that of non-teaching staff is 120. If the number of teaching staff
is 16, then find the number of non-teaching in the office.
(a) 72
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 65

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 SOLUTION:
Let the number of non-teaching staffs be y.
Then number of entire staff = 16 + y
Sum of total salary = 200(16 + y)
=16 x 550 + 120y
⇒ 120y + 550 x 16 = 200x16 + 200y
⇒ 3y +220 = 80 + 5y
⇒ 2y = 140
∴ y = 140/2 = 70(option c)

10. The tank-full of water in an apartment lasts for 10 days. If the people start using 25% more
every day, how many days will the tank-full of water last?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
SOLUTION:
Let the people uses 100 litres of water every day
water uses in 10 days = 10 × 100 ⇒ 1000
If people start using 25% more every day, then water used in one day = 100 +25⇒ 125
Now, number of days = 1000/125 ⇒ 8 days (option d)

Directions for (Questions 11 to 13): Study the following information and answer these
questions.
Eight Optional books are arranged in a row one above the other. Two books are on Physical
Geography, two books are on Governance, three books on Sociology and one book is on
Economics. Counting from the top, the second, fifth and sixth books are on Sociology. Two
books on Sociology are between two books on Governance. One book Sociology is between
two books on Physical Geography while the book above the book of Economics is a book of
Governance.

11. Which book is the last book from the top?

(a) Economics
(b) Governance
(c) Sociology
(d) Physical Geography

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12. Which of the following book is not present within bottom four rows?
(a) Economics
(b) Governance
(c) Sociology
(d) Physical Geography

13. Which of the following books are available in both odd and even positions?
(a) Governance & Economics
(b) Sociology and Governance
(c) Physical Geography and Sociology
(d) Economics and Physical Geography
SOLUTION:
Sl. No. from Top
Books
to Bottom
1 Physical Geography
2 Sociology
3 Physical Geography
4 Governance
5 Sociology
6 Sociology
7 Governance
8 Economics

14. Introducing a girl, Prabhu said “She is the only daughter of only daughter of my
grandparents”. How is the girl related to prabhu?
(a) Daughter
(b) Niece
(c) Sister
(d) Grand daughter
SOLUTION:

Answer Option C – Sister

7
 S.(15) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
The boom of India’s service sector as well as the success of the educated Indian diaspora
was made possible thanks to the proficiency of Indians in English. The link language of the
world is English. India’s beauty and stability lie in its plurality and unity in diversity. Any
attempt to destroy this via the imposition of one language will threaten India’s unity. You
can either have unity or uniformity; you cannot have both. The Union government must
understand that the Indian Union is an agglomeration of ethno-linguistic nationalities that
have their own languages and cultures and let them live in peace.

15. What is the most rational and logical conclusion of the above passage?
(a) You can either have unity or uniformity
(b) The boom of India’s service sector as well as success of education. Indian diaspora was
made possible thanks to proficiency in English.
(c) The Union government must not impose one language and destroy the beauty and
stability of nations plurality and unity in diversity.
(d) The Union government must understand that the Indian Union is an agglomeration of
ethno linguistic nationalities.
SOLUTION:
(c) The relevant answer from the passage is option (c).

S.(16) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Activists of the Right to Food Campaign have accused the Centre here on Friday of diverting
the issue of hunger away from the real situation on the ground and the food and nutritional
insecurity in the country. Countering the Centre’s stand on the Global Hunger Index that it
overlooked Central schemes and that the sample size of the survey was too small, the
activists argued that the survey was validated by the national data on unemployment and
stagnant wages.

16. What are the contentions of the activists of Right to Food campaign according to the above
passage?
I. Centre instead of countering Global Hunger Index should address the reasons for the
poor showing.
II. The said survey had been validated using national data.

8
 III. The sample size of the survey was too small and central schemes were overlooked.
IV. Activists of the right to food campaign are anti government.
Select the right answer using the following codes.
(a) All of the above
(b) I, III and IV only
(c) III and IV only
(d) I and II only
SOLUTION:
(d) Statements I and II are valid.

S.(17) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 3
Kamalpreet Kaur, the 26 year-old Indian discus thrower, was banned for three years with
effect from March 29 after she tested positive for a prohibited substance earlier this year.
With Kaur, 62 Indian athletes have been caught doping or in possession of banned
substances, according to the Athletics Integrity Unity (AIU) of World Athletics. Only Russia
has recorded more doping violations than India with 87 athletes receiving punishment.

17. The following assumptions have been made from the above passage:
I. The integrity of the Athletics Integrity Unity (AIU) of world Athletics is questionable.
II. Most of the Indian Athletics desire to win by questionable means.
Which of the above assumptions are/is valid:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
(d) Option (d) is the correct option as both assumptions are invalid.

S.(18) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 4
Credai Chennai has welcomed the decision to expand the Chennai Metropolitan Planning
Area and demanded speedy implementation of development projects. According to a press
release from Credai Chennai, the population of the city is currently estimated at 1.2 crore,
and by 2050, it is projected to touch 1.8 crore. “The speedy rollout of the new master plan,

9
 detailed development plans and implementation of the same is of utmost importance. A
replay of the OMR situation should be avoided at all cost. Even today, OMR residents lack
access to drinking water and sewage systems. This kind of slow infrastructure development
is unacceptable,” the release said.

18. Based on the above passage the followings assumptions have been made:
I. Once the New Master Plan is rolled out OMR issues will be resolved.
II. The speedy rollout of the New Master Plan is of utmost importance.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
(d) Statement I is not valid while statement II is only partially valid.

Directions for (Questions 19 to 23): Study the following information and answer these
questions.
A group of seven friends, Ajay, Bala, Chandru, Dinesh, Ezhil, Farook and Guna work as
Engineer, Accounts Officer, Doctor, Call center Assistant, Teacher, Hotel manager and Quality
Inspector for Institutions L, M, N, P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. Chandru
works for Institution N and is neither a Quality Inspector nor a Teacher. Ezhil is a Doctor and
works for Institution R. Ajay works as Hotel manager and does not work for Institution L or Q.
The one who is an Accounts officer works for Institution M. The one who works for Institution L
works as a Call center assistant. Farook works for Institution Q. Guna works for institution P as
a Quality Inspector. Dinesh is not an Accounts officer.

19. Who amongst the following works as an Accounts Officer?

(a) Chandru
(b) Bala
(c) Farook
(d) Dinesh

20. For which institution does Dinesh work ?

(a) Q
(b) L
(c) N
(d) S

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21. What is the profession of Chandru?
(a) Call center assistant
(b) Accounts Officer
(c) Engineer
(d) Cannot be determined

22. Who amongst the following works as a Teacher?

(a) Chandru
(b) Bala
(c) Farook
(d) Dinesh

23. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and Institution is correct ?
(a) Ajay – Hotel Manager - M
(b) Dinesh - Teacher - L
(c) Farook - Accounts Officer - Q
(d) None of the above
SOLUTION:
Friend Profession Name of the Bank
Ajay Hotel manager S
Bala Accounts Officer M
Chandru Engineer N
Dinesh Call Center Assistant L
Ezhil Doctor R
Farook Teacher Q
Guna Quality Inspector P

24. Which of the following conclusions follows based on the given statements?
Statements:
Some Vegetables are Fruits.
Some Fruits are Nuts.
All Nuts are Seeds.
Conclusions:
I. Some Nuts are Vegetables.
II. Some Seeds are Fruits.
III. Some Seeds are Vegetables.

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 (a) Only I Follows
(b) Only II Follows
(c) Only III Follows
(d) Either II or III Follows
SOLUTION:

25. In a certain code, ‘ZOOM’ is written as ‘FEEL’ and ‘BEAD’ is written as ‘ROCK’. How would
‘ZEOD’ be coded in that code language?
(a) ROEL
(b) CEDM
(c) FOEK
(d) BACE
SOLUTION:
Z-F B- R ZEOD => FOEK
O-E E -O
O-E A -C
M-L D -K

S.(26) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
The National Livestock Policy (NLP) of 2013, aimed at increasing livestock production and
productivity in a sustainable manner, rightly states that around 70% of the labour for the
livestock sector comes from women. One of the goals of this policy was the empowerment of
women. The National Livestock Mission (NLM) of 2014-15 was initiated for the development
of the livestock sector with a focus on the availability of feed and fodder, providing
extension services, and improved flow of credit to livestock farmers. However, the NLM
doesnot propose any shames or programmes specific to women livestock farmers. The policy
proposes that the State government allocates 30% of funds from centrally-sponsored
schemes for women. There is no logic for the 30% quota.

12
26. What is the most logical and rational conclusion from the above passage?
(a) Women’s labour is critical to the livestock economy and hence they should be
included in every stage of decision making and development of livestock’s sector.
(b) NLP and NLM need to synchronise their data.
(c) More funds need to be allocated to women livestock farmers.
(d) NLM should propose more schemes and programmes specific to women livestock
farmers
SOLUTION:
(a) Option (a) encompasses option (c) and (d). Option (b) is irrelevant.

S.(27) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
To allay fears and anxieties in patients and families, alongside treatment of any illness, is
not something new in the medical profession. A 16th century aphorism describes the duty of
every physician: “To cure sometimes, to relieve often, to comfort always.” This age-old
concept of a holistic approach is of immense importance but has been forgotten over the
years. This missing link – the palliative approach – is now fortunately getting its due
importance and being reintroduced into our medical curriculum and practice across the
country.

27. What is the crux of the above passage?

(a) Duty of every physician is to “To cure sometimes to relieve often, to comfort always”.
(b) Palliative care stresses the humane aspects of medical care and is now getting its
due back again.
(c) To allay fears and anxieties alongside treatment of any illness is not new in the medical
profession.
(d) Medical profession has now become more of a business.
SOLUTION:
(b) Palliative care and its reintroduction is the main focus of the passage.

S.(28) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 3
I rarely experience as much undiluted joy as at the euphoric moment when I strike a terrific
bargain. Only seasoned campaigners will understand this. Non-bargainers will ask irritating
questions such as how much money did you save after all the wrangling, but that is beside

13
 the point. Those who have cut their teeth on Mumbai’s Linking Road or in the legendary
Chor Bazaar or their matches in other cities will vouch that winning an intense mind game
of negotiation feels like a million dollars even if it is only a matter of a few rupees.

28. According to the above passage what is the most important reason why people bargain?
(a) To save some hard earned money
(b) The exhilaration of being successful in the battle of wits.
(c) Being ruthless and selfish.
(d) Winning attitude.
SOLUTION:
(b) The passage states winning an intense mind game of negotiation feels good.

Directions for (Questions 29 to 30): Study the following information and answer these
questions.
Three girls Sonia, Radhika & Poonam and three boys Rakesh, Arun & Praveen are sitting in
a circular table facing the center. Radhika is sitting to the left of Praveen. Sonia and
Poonam are sitting together. Similarly, Arun and Radhika are sitting together. There are two
persons between Rakesh and Arun. Sonia and Arun are not together.

29. In the question given below, three out of four options are somehow similar and therefore
form a group. Find the option which is odd one out which does not form a group.
(a) Radhika – Sonia
(b) Radhika – Rakesh
(c) Poonam – Praveen
(d) Rakesh – Arun
SOLUTION:

Option (b). Except Radhika and Rakesh, all other group members pair are opposite to each
other.

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30. Who is sitting to the second left of rakesh?
(a) Sonia
(b) Poonam
(c) Radhika
(d) Praveen
SOLUTION:
Option (c).

31. 3 boys take three more days for a work which can be completed in 2 days by 5 men. How
much time it would take for the same work to be completed by 10 men and 3 boys?
(a) 1/6
(b) 5/6
(c) 7/6
(d) 10/6
SOLUTION:

General form : m1  d1 = m2  d2

Men complete work in 2 days whereas boys take 2 days more than men. So 3 boys take 5
days to compete the same work. Convert all values in terms of men or boys
m1=5m, d1=2 :: m2=3b, d2=5
5m  2 = 3b  5
2m = 3b
3b
m=
2
Substitute m value in 10m+3b =?

 3b 
10   + 3b = ?
 2 
15b + 3b = ?
18b = ?
If 3 boys (m1) take 5 days (d1) to complete a work, then 18 boys (m2) takes how many
days? (d2)

m1  d1 = m2  d2
3  5 = 18  d2 (option b)
5
d2 =
6

15
32. A second-hand motorbike was bought on marked at Rs. 25000 with successive discounts of
20% and 10%. If the buyer spends Rs. 3000 for its repair and sells it for Rs. 28000, what
would be the profit or loss percentage?
(a) 21.22%
(b) 26.66%
(c) 33.33%
(d) 42.22%
SOLUTION:
Marked price = Rs. 25000 Formula for successive discounts is
D1  D2
Total Discount = D1 + D2 −
100
20  10
= 20 + 10 − = 30 − 2 = 28%
100
100% = 25000, After applying 28% discount, 72% of 25000 = 18000.
Amount spent on repair = 3000.
Total cost price is = 18000 + 3000 = 21000.
Given that selling price is 28000.
Since SP > CP it is profit.
Profit = SP – CP = 28000-21000 = Rs 7000
Profit
Profit%=  100
CP (option c)
7000 100
=  100 = = 33.33%
1000 3

33. The average weight of 5 types among 6 types of vegetables is 95 kg. The weight of 6 th type
vegetable is 10 kg more than the average weight of all 6 types vegetables. The weight of 6 th
type vegetable is
(a) 106 kg
(b) 107 kg
(c) 108 kg
(d) 109 kg
SOLUTION:
Sum of weight of 5 type vegetables = 5 x 95 = 475
Let the average weight of all 6 types vegetable be x
The weight of 6th type vegetable = x+10.
Acc to the question,

16
 ( Average weight of 5 type vegetables ) + ( weightof6th type vegetable)
Average weight of all 6 types =
6
475 + x + 10
=x
6
485 = 6x − x
5x = 485
x = 97
Weight of 6th type = x+10 = 97+10 = 107. (option b).

34. Santhosh invested his income in two separate Schemes at rate of interest 12% and 9%
respectively. What would be his income if both schemes are in simple interest and after 2
years he received a total sum of Rs 21780?
(a) 9600
(b) 9000
(c) 8400
(d) 8000
SOLUTION:
According to Formula,
Amount = P + SI
 PNR1   PNR2 
21780 =  P +  +  P + 100 
 100   
 24   18 
21780 = P 1 +  + P 1 + 100 
 100   
 124 118 
21780 = P  + 
 100 100 
 242 
21780 = P  
 100 
P=9000 (option b)

1 1
35. If x + y = 72, what would be + if LCM and HCF of x and y is 6 and 210?
x y
(a) 1/35
(b) 3/37
(c) 5/37
(d) 2/35
SOLUTION:
Given x + y = 72
We know that

17
 LCM x HCF = Product of the two numbers (xy)

1 1 x +y
+ =
x y xy
72
=
6  210
2
=
35

36. Vignesh drives his bike and goes to office for 13 km which is northwest to his house. He

come back home in the same route. He again drives from his home towards north and

reaches the theatre which is 12 km from his home. What is the direction and distance of his

office with respect to the theatre?

(a) 5 kms East

(b) 5 kms West

(c) 4 kms East
(d) 4 kms West

SOLUTION:

Since it is a right angles triangle,

AC2 = AB2 + BC2

BC2 = AC2 - AB2

BC2 = 132 - 122 = 169 – 144 = 25

BC = 5kms (option b)

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 Directions for (Questions 37 to 39): Study the following information and answer these
questions.
Akshita, Shreya, Vineetha, Ramya and Swetha belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T
(not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city. Further it is
given that:
1. Shreya and Vineetha do not belong to Q.
2. Shreya and Swetha do not belong to P and R.
3. Akshita and Vineetha do not belong to R, S, and T.
4. Ramya and Swetha do not belong to Q and T.

37. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Vineetha belongs to P
(b) Ramya belongs to R
(c) Akshita belongs to Q
(d) Shreya belongs to S

38. Who belongs to city T?

(a) Vineetha
(b) Shreya
(c) Ramya
(d) Akshita

39. Swetha belongs to which of the following cities?

(a) P
(b) R
(c) S
(d) T
SOLUTION:

Cities
Persons
P Q R S T

Akshita X ✓ X X X

Shreya X X X X ✓

Vineetha ✓ X X X X

Ramya X X ✓ X X

Swetha X X X ✓ X

19
 S.(40) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
Mr. Modi said India had been combating trans-national terrorism for several decades. “Long
before the world woke up to it, we knew the price of safety and security. Thousands of our
people made the ultimate sacrifice in this fight. But, it is no longer enough that terrorism is
fought only in the physical space. It is now spreading its presence through online
radicalization and cyber threats,” he said.
“At the click of button, an attack can be executed or systems can be brought to their knees.
Each nation is working on strategies against them. But what we do within our borders is no
longer enough,” said the Prime Minister.

40. What is the most rational and logical inference from the above passage:
(a) India is well aware of the cost of trans-national terrorism as it has suffered due to it for
decades.
(b) Today terrorism is spreading across cyber space in addition to the physical realm.
(c) Terrorism across all spectrums needs to be countered by more international
cooperation.
(d) India due to past experiences garnered over years is well kitted to address terrorism in
all formats.
SOLUTION:
(c) The passage starts with trans-national terrorism and closes with the thought what we do
within our borders is not enough and hence option C is the best inference.

S.(41-44) Directions for the following 4 (four) item: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the item should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 2
On average, India’s coal mines use only two-thirds of the capacity, with some large ones
using only 1%, says an analysis by Global Energy Monitor (GEM), a firm that tracks
utilization of the fuel-source internationally. This suggests that 99 of India’s coal mine
projects, expected to yield 427 million tonnes per annum (MTPA), under development are
unnecessary, and opening new coal mines would not contribute to easing short-term
supply-crunches.
At least twice last year, India experienced severe coal crises, with more than 100 of 285
thermal power plants witnessing coal stocks fall below the critical mark of 25% of the
required stock. In over 50 plants, it fell below 10%. This led to power shortages in several
States, including Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand and Madhya Pradesh.

20
 GEM performed its analysis by surveying annual reports o Coal India, the largest coal
producer in the world, and its subsidiaries and underlines that the company has not listed
capacity constraints as among the reasons it fails to reach production targets.
Instead, it blames “..competition from renewables, infrastructure impasses, and land-use
concerns for hindering output…” the report notes. Coal mines under development threaten
to displace at least 165 villages and affect 87,630 families, of which 41,508 live in areas
where the predominant population is tribal communities. These also threaten 22,686
hectares (ha) of agricultural land and 19,297 ha of forest, and will consume at least
168,041 kiloliters of water per day, comparable to the daily water needs of over one million
people, according to GEM.

41. What is the tone of the above passage?

(a) Critical
(b) Descriptive
(c) Pessimistic
(d) Laudatory
SOLUTION:
(a) The author has given facts, analysed the same and countered the existing policy with an
alternate thought/opinion.

42. According to the author what was the main reason that led to coal crisis last year:
(a) State development of new coal mine projects.
(b) Under utilization of existing capacity.
(c) Competition from renewables, infrastructure impasses and land use concerns.
(d) Political and bureaucratic hurdles.
SOLUTION:
(b) Capacity constraints is mentioned as the main reason as per GEM analysis which the
author agrees with.

43. What is the main message of the above passage:

(a) Renewable sources of energy is the way forward for India.
(b) The coal mine projects under development need to be hastened to increase overall coal
availability.
(c) Coal mines are environmental nightmares and hence should not be encouraged
(d) Instead of developing new coal mines the capacity of underutilised mines have to
be stepped up.
SOLUTION:
(d) The main thrust of the passage is to increase the capacity utilization of existing coal
mines.

21
44. From the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
I. Developing new coal mines is not in keeping in line with PM’s Zero Net emission Target
by 2070.
II. Developing new coal mines is a short sighted measure, more for the sake of economic
gain of some entrepreneurs.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) Both I and II
(b) Neither I nor II
(c) I only
(d) II only
SOLUTION:

(a) The last paragraph suggests the environmental damages and also instead of increasing
capacity of existing miens developing few mines is more of an economics measure.

Directions for (Questions 45 to 46): Study the following information and answer these
questions.

In chennai, there are 3 local train routes 1, 2 and 3 between A and F. Route 1 has
intermediate stops B and D. Route 2 has stops at C and D. The shortest route is 3 with
length 10 km and stops at C which is exactly at eh middle of the route. The difference
between longest and shortest route is 3km. The distance between C and D, B and D and F
and D are 4, 3 and 2 kms respectively.

45. Find the distance between A and B.

(a) 5 km
(b) 6 km
(c) 7 km
(d) 8 km

46. What is the length of route 2?

(a) 11 km
(b) 12 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 14 km

22
 SOLUTION:

The shortest route 3 = 10km(A-C-F)

The longest route 1 = 13kms(A-B-D-F)

Route 2= (A-C-D-F) =11 kms

Direction for (Questions 47): Study the following information and answer these questions.

In each of the following questions, a number series is given. After the series the first
number of another series is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Compete the series and
answer the given questions.
47.
9 7 10 24 88 430
12 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in the place of (e)?

(a) 630
(b) 850
(c) 790
(d) 920
SOLUTION:

9 x 1 - 2 = 9 -2 = 7

7 x 2 - 4 = 14 -4 = 10

10 x 3 - 6 = 30 - 6 = 24

24 x 4 - 8 = 96 - 8 = 88

88 x 5 - 10 = 440 -10 = 430

Similarly

12 x 1 - 2 = 12 -2 = 10(a)

10 x 2 - 4 = 20 -4 = 16(b)

16 x 3 - 6 = 48 - 6 = 42(c)

23
 42 x 4 - 8 = 168 - 8 = 160(d)

160 x 5 - 10 = 800 -10 = 790(e)

Answer Option (c)

48. A shopkeeper sells two shirts at Rupees 1500 each. He earned a profit of 20% on one shirt
however suffered a loss of 20% on the other. Net profit or loss on this deal is:
(a) 4 % profit
(b) 4 % loss
(c) 10% profit
(d) 10% loss
SOLUTION:
A shopkeeper sells two shirts at Rupees 1500 each
Calculation: Let be assume the cost of shirts X and Y respectively
⇒ X × 1.2 = 1500, X = 1250
⇒ Y × 0.8 = 1500, Y = 1875
⇒ The required (loss/profit)% = (1500 + 1500)/(1250 + 1875) × 100 = 96%
⇒ The loss % = 100 - 96 = 4% ∴ The required result will be 4%. (option b)

49. A hostel of 3000 students has food provision for 60 days. After 15 days how many students
must leave so that the remaining provision may last for 75 days?
(a) 1200
(b) 1400
(c) 1300
(d) 1500
SOLUTION:
After 15 days, 3000 students have provision for 45 days.
On solving, we get
Let the number of students be x.
More days, less students (indirect proportion)
Days Students
45 3000
75 x
x = (45 x 3000)/75 = 1800
.. Number of students that should leave
= (3000-1800) = 1200 students (option a)

24
50. A mixture of 70 litres of tea and honey contain 10% honey. How much more honey should
be added to the mixture to make 30% honey in the resulting mixture?
(a) 35 litres
(b) 33 litres
(c) 20 litres
(d) 25 litres
SOLUTION:
Mixture of tea and honey = 70 litres
Initial honey concentration = 10%
Calculations:
Amount of honey in 70 litre of mixture = 10% of 70 = 7 litres
Let x litres of honey is added to the mixture
According to question,
⇒ 7 + x = 30/100 × (70 + x)
⇒ 100(7 + x) = 30 (70 + x)
⇒ 700 + 100x = 2100 + 30x
⇒ 70x = 1400
⇒ x = 1400/70 = 20
∴ x = 20 litres (option c)

51. Sharan can do a piece of work in 15 days and Karthick alone can do it in 10 days. Karthick
works at it for 5 days and then leaves. How much time will Sharan take to complete the
remaining work alone?
(a) 7
(b) 7.5
(c) 8
(d) 8.5
SOLUTION:
Karthick's 5 days work =(1/10)×5 =1/2
Remaining work =1−(1/2) =1/2
Sharan can finish work =15×(1/2) = 7.5 days (option b)

52. A boy in train notices that he can count 25 trees in 1 min. If they are known to be 40 m
apart, then at what speed is the train travelling?
(a) 52.4 km/h
(b) 57.6 km/h

25
 (c) 48.2 km/h
(d) 44.9 km/h
SOLUTION:
Number of gaps between 25 trees = 24
Distance travelled in 1 min = 40 x 24 = 960 m
Speed = (960 /60) x (18/5) = 57.6 km/h

53. Pavithra walking at a speed of 20 km/hr reaches her college 1hr late. Next time she
increases her speed by 5 km/hr, then she reaches her college 30 min early. What is the
distance of her college from her house?
(a) 100 km
(b) 125 km
(c) 150 km
(d) None of the above
SOLUTION:
1 1
Forumula = 𝐷 ( − ) = 𝑇𝐷
𝑆1 𝑆2

1 1
= 𝐷( − ) = 1.5 ℎ𝑟𝑠
20 25

5−4
= 𝐷( ) = 1.5
100

D = 150 km (option c).

54. Prakash invests Rs. 3,000 at the rate of 5% per annum. How much more should he invest at the
rate of 8% so that he can earn a total of 6% per annum?
(a) 1200
(b) 1,300
(c) 1,500
(d) 2,000
SOLUTION:
The correct option is C
(c) 1,500
This can be done by allegation as follows. Thus, we find that the ratio of the amounts
invested in both the rates = 2: 1. Since he has invested Rs. 3,000 at 5% he should further
invest Rs. 1,500 at 8% to earn a total interest of 6% per annum

26
 S.(55) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

PASSAGE 1

“India is seen as an emerging manufacturing hub in global value chains, as a growing

consumer market and as a hub for ongoing digital transformation. In addition, in a rapidly

changing geopolitical environment, India’s large and stable democracy and consistent
reform measures are recognized by the MNCs (multinational company),” the report said.

55. What is the main inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) India due to the present geopolitical environment will overtake China as a

manufacturing hub.
(b) India’s stable democracy and consistent reform measures ensures rapid growth of the

economy.
(c) Global geopolitical winds favour Indian economic growth.

(d) Present all around Indian environment combined with geopolitics is likely to

attract hugh FDI.

SOLUTION:
(d) The last sentence supports the inference at (d) than other options. Other options are

good but the passage leads to option (d).

S.(56) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

PASSAGE 2
Cyber threats are not confined to merely one set of conflicts – such as Ukraine, where no

doubt cyber tools are being extensively employed – extending well beyond this and other

conflicts of a varied nature. The cyber threat is in this sense all-pervading, embracing many

regions and operating on different planes. Hence, dealing with the cyber threat calls for
both versatility and imaginative thinking. Demands for a cyber command by the Indian
military ignore the widely varying nature of the cyber threat. That a group of United nations

government experts have been deliberating endlessly on how to promote responsible

behavior of states in cyber space, without much success is testimony to the difficulties that
prevail.

27
56. What are the important and urgent implications of the above passage:
I. Create a National Cyber Command to identify, deter and defeat any and all cyber
threats.
II. UN to facilitate formulator of rules and norms amongst nations for regulating cyber
space.
III. Reduce dependency on technologically driven, remote accesses functioning day to day
activities.
IV. Create a Military Cyber Communal to take care of all and any cyber threats to the
nation.
Select the right answer using the following code.
(a) All of the above
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) I, II and III only
SOLUTION:
(b) Statement III is not practical. Statement IV not recommended by the author. I & II are
important.

S.(57-58) Directions for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following passages and
answer the items that follows. Your answer to the items should be based on the passages
only.
PASSAGE 3
Concerns over the pricing and availability of oil and gas in the wake of the Ukraine crisis
continue to fuel global policy debates on energy security. However, the fragility of clean
energy supply chains obscures pathways for countries to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
Imported inflationary pressures through exposure to volatile oil and gas markets also pose
risks to macroeconomic growth and stability, particularly for India, import-dependent for
around 85% of its oil and half of its gas needs. Therefore, securing access to key minerals
such as lithium, cobalt, nickel and rare earth metal is critical for building resilient and
indigenous supply chains for clean energy technologies.

57. What is the most logical and rational conclusion of the above passage?
(a) Build strategic oil reserves across India to prevent volatile oil and gas markets impeding
India’s macroeconomic growth.
(b) Encourage enhanced use of ethanol based/mixed oil across the board
(c) Clear energy supply chains for key minerals like lithium, cobalt and rare metals are
fragile and hence needs to be secured
(d) Increasing renewable energy sources and building robust and secure pathways for
procurement of needed rare earth metals is imperative.

28
 SOLUTION:
(d) Option (d) alone addresses the two key issues of decreasing fossil fuel dependency and
securing supply chains for clear energy.

58. From the above passage the following assumptions have been made :
I. Due to India’s standing procuring rare earth metal from other nations for its clean
energy technologies will never be a challenge.
II. Dwindling multilateral corporation can impact supply chains for clear energy
technologies.
Which of the above assumptions are/is valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
(b) II alone is a realistic assumption based on the passage.

S.(59) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 4
The world is increasingly turning into a virtual arena, with cyber attacks becoming a norm.
As technology has become more intertwined with out daily lives, every day, we come across
news of some kind of cyber attack or data breach.

59. What are the likely implications of the above passage?

I. Demand of professionals for protecting data integrity and threat of security breaches
will increase.
II. Governments and corporations will incur heavier expenditure to ensure data security.
III. Online scams, ransomware, phishing and hacking will cease once cybersecurity exports
are employed.
IV. Newer forms of cyber attacks will keep surfacing.
Select the right answer using the following code:
(a) All of the above
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) I and III
SOLUTION:
(c) All options are likely to happen except III as always robbers find new ways to be ahead of
cops.

29
60. A student has to opt for 2 subjects out of 5 subjects for a course, namely, GS1, GS II, GS

III, Elective I and Elective II. Elective II can be offered only if Elective I is opted. The number

of different combinations of two subjects which can be opted is

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 8

SOLUTION:

If Elective I is not opted, then two subjects out of four subjects have to be chosen.

Number of ways in which two subjects can be chosen out of four is nC 2 = (4 х 3)/2 = 6

If Elective II is opted, then it can be offered only if Elective I is also opted. So there is only

one way=1.

Number of ways in which two subjects can be opted is = 6 +1 = 7.

Hence, there are total 7 ways to choose two subjects. (Option c)

61. A student has 60% chance of passing in Bank exams and 54% chance of passing in both

Bank exams and SSC. What is the fraction probability that he will fail in SSC?

(a) 1/12

(b) 1/36

(c) 1/4

(d) 1/10

SOLUTION:

Chances of passing in Bank exam = 60%

Chances of passing in Bank exam and SSC = 54%

Chances of passing in Bank exam and SSC

Chances of passing SSC =
Chances of passing Bank exam

60
= = 0.9 (90% in terms of percentage)
54

Chances of failing in SSC = 1 – 0.9 = 0.1 or 1/10 (option d)

30
62. A room has to be painted around the four walls. On one wall of the room, a door is present
which has to be excluded from painting. The length, breadth and height of the room are 8m,
10m, and 4m respectively and the dimensions of the door is 3m and 1.5m. Find the cost of
painting the room if the cost per sq.m is 200 Rs.
(a) Rs. 26700
(b) Rs. 25300
(c) Rs. 27900
(d) Rs. 28200
SOLUTION:
Painting for 4 walls = Lateral surface area of Cuboid
= 2[ l + b] h = 2[8 + 10] 4
= 144 m2
Door to be excluded = Area of Rectangle = l x b = 1.5 x 3
= 4.5m2
Painted area = 144 – 4.5 =139.5 m2
Cost = 200 x 139.5 = 27900(option c)

Directions for (Questions 63 to 66): Study the following table and answer these questions.
The following table shows the amount for Cash on delivery from one state to another.
From Cities to
Uttar
Gujarat Maharashtra West Bengal Delhi
Pradesh
Gujarat -NIL- 100 50 150 100
Maharashtra 100 -NIL- 70 250 200
West Bengal 50 70 -NIL- 200 150
Delhi 150 250 200 -NIL- 100
Uttar
100 200 150 100 -NIL-
Pradesh

63. Among the following, the charges will be the least for sending in COD from
(a) Gujarat to Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra to Delhi
(c) Uttar Pradesh to Delhi
(d) West Bengal to Maharashtra
SOLUTION:
Gujarat to Uttar Pradesh – 100 Rs
Maharashtra to Delhi – 250 Rs

31
 Uttar Pradesh to Delhi – 100 Rs
West Bengal to Maharashtra – 70 Rs (Option d)

64. For sending in COD from West Bengal, the least charges will be for sending to
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Delhi
(d) Uttar Pradesh
SOLUTION:
From West Bengal, the charges are Gujarat (50) Maharashtra (70) Delhi (200) Lucknow
(150)
Answer option (a)

65. If the cost per kg is directly proportional to the distance between the states, it can be
inferred that Maharashtra is farthest from
(a) Gujarat
(b) West Bengal
(c) Delhi
(d) Uttar Pradesh
SOLUTION:
Charges from Maharashtra
States Charges
To Gujarat 100
To West Bengal 70
To Delhi 250
To Uttar Pradesh 200
Answer option (c)

66. Which of the following stop routes will have no extra cost even if the parcel had been sent
directly from origin to destination state?
(a) Maharashtra – Gujarat – Delhi
(b) Maharashtra – Gujarat – Uttar Pradesh
(c) West Bengal – Gujarat – Uttar Pradesh
(d) All of the above

32
 SOLUTION:
Cities Via Charges Direct Charges
Maharashtra – Gujarat – 100+150 = 250 250
Delhi
Maharashtra – Gujarat – 100+100 = 200 200
Uttar Pradesh
West Bengal – Gujarat – 50 + 100 = 150 150
Uttar Pradesh
Answer option (d)

S.(67-68) Directions for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has asked the Uttarakhand government not to proceed
with the Pakhro tiger safari project inside the Corbett Tiger Reserve until a committee
submits its final report on the alleged illegal cutting of trees inside the reserve for the
project. The tribunal had earlier taken cognizance of The Hindu report on felling of trees at
the Reserve. The report had quoted a Forest Survey of India (FSI) report saying that over
6,000 trees were illegally felled to facilitate the project against the permission given for
cutting 163. The NGT Bench consisting of Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel, Justice Sudhir
Agarwal and Professor A.Senthil Vel (expert member) maintained that the FSI report
acknowledges the illegality in cutting of trees. “Thus, accountability needs to be fixed for
such violations and the damage to the environment restored, following due process of law.
Accordingly, we constitute a three member committee comprising the Directors-General of
the Forest Department, Wildlife Department and Project Tiger to identify the violators and
the steps required for restoration of environment,” the NGT said. It further ordered the
State government not to proceed with the project until the committee submits its report
with specific recommendations that may be furnished to the Secretary of the Ministry of
Forest, Environment and Climate Change within one month. The report should also include
steps for further course of action, the Bench ordered.

67. What are the directions / orders given by National Green Tribunal (NGT) in the case of
Pakhro Tiger Safari Project inside the Corbett Tiger Reserve according to the above passage?
I. Uttarakhand government not to proceed with the project until the nominated
committee submits its final report on the alleged illegal cutting of trees inside the
reserve for the project.

33
 II. Uttarakhand government, to replant over 6000 trees that have been alleged to have
been felled illegally.
III. Constituted a three-member committee to fix accountability for the violations and steps
needed for restoration.
IV. The Committee to submit its report at the earliest.
Select the right answer using the code below :
(a) All of the above
(b) I and III only
(c) I and IV only
(d) I, II and III only
SOLUTION:
(b) Based on the passage the correct option is (b).

68. How did the NGT take up the case referred to in the above passage?
(a) The Hindu Newspaper reported the matter of illegal felling of trees to NGT.
(b) NGT took note of the newspaper report regarding the illegal felling of trees to
facilitate the project and followed us.
(c) The Forest and Wildlife Departments reported the matter to NGT.
(d) It was Project Tiger which initiated the case.
SOLUTION:
(b) Option (b) is clearly stated in the passage. Other options are not correct.

S.(69-70) Directions for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Arguing that the line between the legislature and the administration has already blurred,
what with things like the anti-defection laws, Mr. Thiaga Rajan said the line between the
judiciary and the administration was now getting blurred in good and bad ways. While
there is an overreach in some cases, there are also instances in which judges refuse to step
into something that they should look into. Referring to the recent issue over a public
interest litigation petition on freebies, he asked how can that be considered a justifiable
matter.

69. According to the passage what is the line that is getting blurred?
(a) The line between the legislature and administration.
(b) The separator between the executive and judiciary.
(c) The line between judiciary, legislature and executive.
(d) The overlap between judiciary and administrator.

34
 SOLUTION:
(b) Passage clearly mentions that the line between the judiciary and administration
(executive) is getting blurred.

70. From the above passage what is the grudge Mr. Thiaga Rajan has against the Judges?
(a) Some judges are good and some bad.
(b) In some cases judges do not do what they should and in some they overdo.
(c) Issues like freebies have become a justifiable matter.
(d) They focus on public interest litigation.
SOLUTION:
(b) The passage says that there is overreach in some cases and in some refusal to take
cognizance.

71. If every alternate letter in the word ‘SOLITARY’ starting from the 1st letter is replaced by the
previous letter and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the next letter in the English
alphabet, which of the following will be the 3rd letter from the right end after the
substitution?
(a) B
(b) S
(c) Z
(d) K
SOLUTION:
After making the change as given in the question, we get the following arrangement

Hence, the 3rd letter from the right end is ‘B’

72. If > denotes +, < denotes -, + denotes ÷, ^ denotes ×, - denotes =, × denotes > and = denotes
<, choose the correct statement of the following
(a) 28+4^2=6>4+2
(b) 13>7<6+2=3^4
(c) 9>5>4-18+9>16
(d) 9<3<2>1×8^2
SOLUTION:
From option (c)
9>5>4-18+9>16

35
 By interchanging the signs,
9+5+4=18÷9+16= 18
=18
Thus, option (c) is correct.

Direction for (Question 73): Study the following information and answer the following
question.
In each of the following questions, a group of five figures following a certain sequence is
given as problem figures. Problem figure are followed by another group of five figures known
as answer figures marked as (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Find out the figure from the answer
figures which when placed next to the problem figures will continue the sequence of
problem figures.

73. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

(a) c
(b) d
(c) a
(d) b
(e) e
SOLUTION:
(b) The number of sides in the outer figure is increased by one and number of sides in the
inner figure is decreased by one side successively in each block.

S.(74) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
The annual CSR budget is 15,000 crore, of which a substantial portion goes unutilized.
CSR has traditionally been utilized for the social sector. However, this growing corpus

36
 should also be used for the development of strategic technology. Large corporations can be
incentivized to use some of this budget to serve the strategic needs of the nation. The
Government should allow these funds to flow into certain strategic tech startups.

74. The following assumptions are drawn from the above passage:
I. The social sector does not need additional funds as CSR funds go unutilized.
II. Strategic tech startups needs additional funding.
Select the valid assumption(s) using the codes below:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II
SOLUTION:
(b) Assumption I is not a correct assumption as unutilized funds in CSR does not mean the
social sector does not need funds.

S.(75-77) Directions for the following 3 (three) item: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follows. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage
only.
PASSAGE 2
“Till 1993, every judge in India was appointed by the Law Ministry in consultation with the
Chief Justice of India. We had very eminent judges at that time,” Mr.Rijiju said. “The
Constitution is clear about it. It says that the President of India will appoint judges, which
means the Law Ministry will appoint judges in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
The Supreme Court in 1993 defined consultation as concurrence. In no other field has
consultation been defined as concurrence but in judicial appointments,” he noted, adding
that the Collegium system was expanded by the judiciary in 1998. The Supreme Court
Collegium is headed by the CJI and comprises four senior most judges of the court.
Nowhere in the world except India is there a practice that judges appoint their brothers as
judges,” he said. He noted the process of consultation for the selection of judges is so
intense that groupism develops in it. “People can see politics among leaders but they do not
know the politics going on inside the judiciary.” Noting that the executive and the
legislature are bound and regulated by the judiciary, he said, “But if the judiciary goes
astray, there is n o mechanism to control it”.

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75. What is the main thrust of the passage?
(a) Law Ministry should recommend appointment of judges to the President based on
deliberations in the legislature.
(b) The Supreme Court collegium is mired in politics and hence note in a position to select
suitable judges.
(c) Judges should focus on rendering justice and not spend precious time in selecting
judges.
(d) Appointment of judges should be as it was being done prior to 1993.
SOLUTION:
(d) The main thrust is option (d) based on the passage.

76. The Supreme Court defined in 1993 consultation as concurrence for appointment of judges.
It means the following:
I. Law Ministry does not have the final say in appointment of judges.
II. Supreme Court Collegium gets the right to recommend the appointment of judges.
III. President of India appoints judges in consultation with CJI
IV. Judiciary unlike Legislature and Executive will have no checks.
Select the right answers using the code below :
(a) All of the above
(b) I, III and IV only
(c) I and II only
(d) III and IV only
SOLUTION:
(c) Statements III and IV are not in line with what is meant.

77. “Nowhere in the World except India is there a practice that Judges appoint their brothers as
judges”.
The following assumptions have been drawn from the above quote.
I. Judiciary selects the judges without approval of Law Ministry.
II. Law Ministry seeks unfettered power to nominate judges.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II
SOLUTION:
(d) Both the assumptions flow from the quote.

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78. How many minimum number of straight lines are there in the following figure?

(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 8
SOLUTION:

Horizontal lines = AC, LD, KE, JF, IG = 5

Vertical lines = AI, BH, CG = 3
Slant lines = AG, IC = 2
Total number of straight lines = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10

79. From the given four position of a single dice, find the colour at the face opposite to the face
having green colour.

(a) Orange
(b) Red
(c) Silver
(d) Violet
SOLUTION:
From the given four positions of a single dice, Faces adjacent to face having green colour
= Orange, red, white, silver
Clearly, violet is opposite to green.

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 Direction for (Questions 80): Study the following table and answer these questions.
The question given below consists of six statements followed by options consisting of three
statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid
argument containing logically related statements that is, where the third statement is a
conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.

80. A: All synopses are poets

B: Some synopses are mentors
C: Some X are not mentors
D: All X are poets
E: All synopses are mentors
F: All synopses are X
(a) ACB
(b) AEC
(c) FEC
(d) DFA
SOLUTION:

It is clearly shown from the above figure that DFA is correct argument.
D- All X are poets
F- All synopses are X.
A- All synopses are poets.

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