Clat Mock Test - 6

CLAT TEST
MOCK - 6
Duration: - 120:00 Min.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• Total Question 120 questions.

• Each question carries 1 mark.
• There is a negative marking of .25 for every wrong answer.
• This test contains 120 questions in five sections as follows:
1. Section I - English
2. Section II - Current Affairs including GK
3. Section III - Legal Reasoning
4. Section IV - Logical Reasoning
5. Section V - Quantitative Technique
SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage(Q.1-Q.5): With thick smoke in his throat and the roar of flame in his ears, Pete Noël awoke,
shaking as if in the grip of a nightmare. He sat straight up in his bunk. Instantly he felt his face scorching.
The whole cabin was ablaze. Leaping from his bunk, and dragging the blankets with him, he sprang to the
door, tore it open, and rushed out into the snow.
But being a woodsman, and alert in every sense like the creatures of the wild themselves, his wits were
awake almost before his body was, and his instincts were even quicker than his wits. The desolation and
the savage cold of the wilderness had admonished him even in that terrifying moment. As he leaped out
in desperate flight, he had snatched with him not only the blankets, but his rifle and cartridge-belt from
where they stood by the head of the bunk, and also his larrigans and great blanket coat from where they
lay by its foot. He had been sleeping, according to custom, almost fully clothed.
Outside in the snow, he stood, blinking through scorched and smarting lids at the destruction of his shack.
For a second or two, he stared down at the things he clutched in his arms and wondered how he had
come to think of them in time. Then, realizing with a pang that he needed something more than clothes
and a rifle, he flung them down on the snow and made a dash for the cabin, in the hope of rescuing a
hunk of bacon or a loaf of his substantial woodsman’s bread. But before he could reach the door a licking
flame shot out and hurled him back, half blinded. Grabbing up a double handful of snow, he buried his
face in it to ease the smart. Then he shook himself, coolly carried the treasures he had saved back to a
safe distance from the flames, and sat down on the blankets to put on his larrigans.
His feet, clothed only in a single pair of thick socks, were almost frozen, while the rest of his body was
roasting in the fierce heat of the conflagration. It wanted about two hours of dawn. There was not a breath
of air stirring, and the flames shot straight up, murky red and clear yellow intertwisting, with here and
there a sudden leaping tongue of violet white. Outside the radius of the heat, the tall woods snapped
sharply in the intense cold. It was so cold, indeed, that as the man stood watching the ruin of his little,
lonely home, shielding his face from the blaze now with one hand and then with the other, his back
seemed to turn to ice.
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1. What was the profession of the protagonist in the passage above?
(a) Carpenter (b) Woodsman (c) Mechanic (d) Farmer
2. ‘ Outside in the snow, he stood, blinking through scorched and smarting lids at the destruction of his
shack.’ In the context of the passage, which of the following is an apt interpretation of the sentence?
(a) The protagonist saw the destruction of his shack through his eyelids which were heavy due
to the stinging burns.
(b) The protagonist saw with blurry eyes the destruction of his shack from behind the woods.
(c) The protagonist saw the destruction of his shack through his constantly blinking eyelids that
had thickened due to the snow.
(d) The protagonist saw through his half-opened eyes the destruction of the shack because of
the conflagration.
3. Which of the following is an accurate adjective to describe the protagonist according to the
passage?
(a) Instinctive (b) Intellectual (c) Insightful (d) Ingenious
4. Which of the following can be inferred as not true from the passage?
(a) The protagonist lived alone in the woods.
(b) It was winter when the narrative of the story began.
(c) It's a custom for the woodsmen to sleep almost fully clothed.
(d) His rifle and cartridge-belt were laying by his foot when he grabbed those and rushed out of
the cabin.
5. Then he shook himself, coolly carried the treasures he had saved back to a safe distance from the
flames, and sat down on the blankets to put on his larrigans.
Why did the author use the word 'treasure' in this context?
(a) Because he indeed meant the word treasure literally as the protagonist was carrying treasure
that he saved from the fire.
(b) Because the things his protagonist carried with him were as heavy as carrying a lot of
treasure.
(c) Because the things his protagonist was carrying were extremely valuable in order to survive
in the cold woods, hence the word treasure was used metaphorically to portray the value of
the belongings he took with him.
(d) Because his protagonist was a greedy man who only saved some of his belongings from the
fire and was carrying it with him for materialistic value.
Passage(Q.6-Q.10): Come Budget time and the chorus for tax cuts to spur demand growth seems to
grow louder by the day. If predicting new excise duty rates, both manufacturers and consumers end up
completely confused till the final revelation.
Policies designed to spur economic growth are more beneficial for the auto industry in the long run than
mere tinkering with tax rates. Broad-spectrum economic growth puts more purchasing power in
consumers' hands, and if the overall interest rate regime works with lower real rate structures, consumers
will accept higher levels of future indebtedness for durable consumption today. What tax cuts tend to do is
primarily move consumers up the value chain. This causes a shifting of the price points of used cars to a
level where they could arguably compete with two-wheelers.
A budget that encourages higher levels of more productive investments in the manufacturing industry and
infrastructure would be the cornerstone of a 'dream budget'.
It would be ideal if the budget were to progressively incentivise investments in the manufacturing sector. If
a 25 percent capacity expansion brought a 25 percent rebate in the income tax payable, a 50 percent
capacity expansion could bring a 75 per cent rebate in the income tax payable.
Large capacity increases and investments in new technology could spawn a fiercely competitive industry
in terms of both quality and price. Productivity improvements and competition could translate into lower
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consumer prices yes, even without excise rate cuts and a consequent expansion of the local market
place. In turn, that volume could engender the growth of a global scale component sector that could
provide significant export competitiveness. Maybe a similar move and progressive incentives for exports
but only for manufacturer exporters could provide a further impetus to growth.
Junk technology doesn't find a place here. Indian companies ought to be selling global safety or emission
standards even to their home consumers. Second, the implicit protection the steel industry gets will have
to be done away with so that the component and auto manufacturers get truly competitive. There is an
insidiously articulated argument that global steel prices if made available to Indian consumers could
render the Indian steel sector's finances in a perilous state and impact the financial institutions in turn.
If we are indeed agreed that rapid growth is the only way forward to ensure poverty alleviation, can we
ignore the call for higher productivity any longer or protect the inefficient?
I do realise that with the CMP providing the broad framework, it is more likely that Budget 2004 will see a
greater reliance on direct taxation. Left economists have argued, somewhat convincingly over the years,
that since indirect taxes are less equitable in their impact, governments would be well advised to increase
the share of direct taxes. One can only hope that this is achieved through better tax administration and a
widening of the tax base-rather than by hiking rates, which could in turn impact on compliance levels.
Ultimately, all one can ask of the budget is that every rupee raised in incentivising productivity and
investment, and every rupee spent ensures that productivity and infrastructure investments are given top
billing. Having said that, perhaps budget-making is best left to the economists, particularly the duo in
South Block and Yojana Bhavan.
6. According to the author, tax rates:
(a) need not go down for the growth of the automobile industry
(b) should be altered on a big scale rather than merely tinkering with them
(c) do not move consumers up in the value chain
(d) are not the be-all and end-all of the budgeting exercise.
7. In the context of the passage, the word’ tinkering’ would mean
(a) Repairing (b) Tampering (c) Interfering (d) Messing around
8. Which of the following does the author not have in mind in order to give a major boost to the
automobile industry?
(a) the automobile companies should be allowed to set up big houses
(b) innovation in technology can lead to an improvement in productivity
(c) manufacturer exporters should be given progressive incentives
(d) there should be a relaxation in emission norms for the Indian manufacturers
9. The author favours a stimulus to the automobile industry:
(a) as a quid pro quo for the contribution of the industry to taxation.
(b) in a fair, open, competitive atmosphere.
(c) to have more productive investments in the manufacturing industry.
(d) None of the above
10. According to the communists, direct taxes should be increased because:
(a) this leads to a better tax administration
(b) this brings more people under the tax net
(c) this does not affect the poor
(d) this leads to better compliance
Passage(Q.11-Q.15): Uttapal Dutt was one of India’s most accomplished actors in both cinema and
theatre. His facial expressions, his ability to become one with the character he was portraying and his
delivery were simply outstanding. In a more globalised world, Dutt would probably have made it big in
international cinema. Of course, he did make the grade in Bollywood where he was appreciated but
perhaps not adequately. One of the facets of Dutt that was known in Bengal but underplayed in the rest of
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India was that he was a man of very strong political convictions. Dutt was a diehard communist. I don’t
think he was formally a member of CPM or any other Left outfit, but his commitment to the Red flag was
open and explicit. His theatre productions, in particular, were bluntly partisan. I even recall one play where
Nadir Shah was portrayed as a revolutionary of sorts in his crusade against a decrepit Mughal empire. In
my younger days, I tried to see as many of Dutt’s performances on the stage, even though I found the
propaganda somewhat overbearing. Dutt’s political preferences were well known. Yet, his talent as an
actor was what was admired by all middle-class Bengalis, regardless of their voting preferences. Most of
Dutt’s early professional career coincided with the time same party was in power, both at the Centre and
in West Bengal. During the period 1972-77 when the heavy-handedness of an influential political party
was so visible, Dutt’s productions were often the targets of physical attacks. His politics notwithstanding,
Dutt was ever short of opportunities to prove his mettle as an actor. Producers and directors were only too
willing to sign him, particularly when difficult character roles were involved. As far as they were
concerned, he could do what he wanted in his own time.Despite the political turbulence that hit Bengal
after 1967, there was a broad consensus over the boundaries of politics. Yes, culture doubtless had a
political dimension but politics had its place. It wasn’t allowed to intrude into the studios. Like Bollywood,
Tollywood was as professional as you could get in an over-politicised country.
11. What is the prime purpose of the author in the passage?
(a) To highlight the achievements of Dutt.
(b) To expose the political aspirations of Dutt.
(c) To uncover the political face of Dutt behind an actor.
(d) To show actors get involved in politics at ease now a day.
12. Which of the following is analogical to the story of Utpal Dutt?
(a) Plays written by Shakespeare gave him fame only after his death.
(b) Charlie Chaplin was criticised for his acts of comedy when he was alive.
(c) Nelson Mandela was put in jail for his principal demand for justice.
(d) Donald Trump successfully isolated his business from his political standing.
13. Which of the following quality of Dutt is not discussed in the passage?
(a) Audacious in reflecting his convictions.
(b) Undervalued in the North Indian film industry.
(c) Admired by the bourgeois but criticised by classes.
(d) Successful as an actor but wandering as a politician.
14. What is the critical point of discussion in the passage?
(a) Uttapal Dutt’s career (b) Political orientation of actors
(c) Collusion of politicians and actors. (d) Influence of politics in the film industry.
15. Which of the following options shows the writing style of the author?
(a) Using a person’s story as a metaphor.
(b) Developing the main idea based on illustrations.
(c) A sharp turn from the individual’s story to a larger horizon.
(d) Convincing style hammering the message in the end.
Passage(Q.16-Q.20): To say that India is polluted is like stating a potato is a tuber. Environmental
contamination is virtually part of the definition of the country. Dust, open defecation, banana peels, plastic
packets, exhaust pipe fumes, paan spit, smokestacks and chemical effluents are but some elements of
the individual- industrial-vehicular pollution complex that has the nation’s cities drowning in a cesspit of
filth. Amidst the dirty air and fetid water, aural pollution often goes under the radar, ironically so, given its
loudspeaker-enhanced ubiquity. The noise levels of Indian cities—big and small—are uber-sonic. During
the day, it’s the horns that are the worst offenders. As of 2021, there were 122.53 lakh motor vehicles on
the roads of Delhi alone. And all of them seem to have their horns permanently pressed down. The horn,
in India, has superpowers. It’s able to stand in for indicator, rear-view mirror, traffic light, brake and even,
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you would be forgiven for thinking, the driver herself. Of all the countries that I’ve lived in, the one closest
in soundscape to India is its maritime neighbour, Indonesia, the capital of Jakarta, is a massive urban
concatenation of some 30 million people and its streets are notorious for their permanent gridlock. I
spent four years living there, the majority of which unfolded while waiting in traffic jams. And yet, relative
to their Indian counterparts, drivers in Indonesia used their horns sparingly.
Whereas in Delhi, people start honking at the slightest slowdown, like racehorses champing at the bit, in
Jakarta it was only under extreme gridlock duress that scattered protests of tepid horn-blowing would
break out. Jakarta’s horns were like a middle school’s angklung recital compared to the Wagnerian
operas of Delhi. The result was less stress and aggression overall in Indonesia, given how noise pollution
adds to a sense of the apocalyptic; it’s the pressure cooker whistle signalling that the pot is about to
explode.
16. The first sentence of the passage is –
(a) a satirical statement (b) an exaggeration
(c) an expository statement (d) a parody
17. What can be concluded about the aural backdrop of Indians?
(a) It is worse than they conceive. (b) It is lost in the ubiquity of sound.
(c) It is accepted as a norm. (d) It is melodious as folk music.
18. While discussing horns, the author has –
(a) lampooned Indians in their attitude toward a serious issue.
(b) raised a serious issue in a lighter vein.
(c) Intimidated people of the consequences of regular honking.
(d) simple observation of the unjustified use of horns by Indian drivers.
19. What does the expression imply-‘a massive urban concatenation of some 30 million people’?
(a) Interconnected individuals
(b) Cacophony generated due to collective activities.
(c) Enormous population to sustain
(d) Disciplined citizens without any supervision
20. What can be conveniently assumed from the last line of the passage?
(a) Indians are more aggressive due to their exposure to continuous high-decibel sound.
(b) Aural exposure is leading to stressful life and can prove suicidal.
(c) There is a lesson that can be learnt from Indonesia about the use of honks.
(d) A solution to the problem of sound pollution has to be found soon.
Passage(Q.21-Q.25): Comedy, the cliché goes, is tragedy plus time. But the tragic absurdities that mark
the Indian penal system have managed to show that the reverse too can be true. Gautam Navlakha - an
accused in the Elgaar Parishad case - moved the Bombay High Court because of the alleged
mistreatment he has faced in Taloja jail. Among other basic facilities, Navlakha was twice denied a copy
of a book by 20th century English humourist PG Wodehouse: Jokes at the expense of English
aristocracy, it seems, are a "security risk" in India. The high court called the prison's highhandedness
"really comical", while pulling up the jail authorities for the many lapses in their treatment of Navlakha.
Unfortunately, it is no laughing matter. It is also part of a disturbing pattern. In 2020, Stan Swamy - also
an accused in the Elgaar Parishad case - was denied a sipping cup. The elderly Swamy suffered from
Parkinson's disease and could not grasp a glass. He died in custody, still an accused awaiting a verdict.
Navlakha, in the same year, was not allowed to take possession of a pair of reading glasses for over
three weeks.
Those who have read Wodehouse can attest to the joy he provides. Full of farce and silliness, the
adventures at Blandings Castle, the hijinks of Jeeves and Wooster and the musings of Mr Mulliner are
the perfect antidote to melancholy. The obvious criticism of jail authorities could be that they don't know
what they seek to ban. Perhaps. But the more important question is why they sought to prevent a senior
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citizen from reading - the second time in almost as many years - while he is incarcerated. The likely
answer to that question tells a sad tale about the Indian carceral system. And not even Wodehouse can
make light of it.
21. Out of the following options, what could be the best suited title to this passage?
(a) To laugh or not to laugh (b) The comics of an Indian jail
(c) The comical 'serious risk' (d) None of the above
22. What is the meaning of the phrase 'high-handedness'?
(a) Being illogical and irrational
(b) Acting in a rash manner
(c) Having no regard for others' rights or concerns
(d) Having no sympathy for imprisoned persons
23. What conclusion is the author trying to logically draw from the passage?
(a) The Indian state is becoming authoritarian in nature.
(b) Indian prison officials need to be sensitized.
(c) Reading humorous novels is becoming difficult in India.
(d) All of the above.
24. Which of the following is the synonym of 'hijinks'?
(a) Escapades (b) Romps (c) Shenanigans (d) All of the above
SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.25-Q.28): Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman made the remarks while addressing
the International Monetary Finance Committee (IMFC) during the ongoing annual meeting of the World
Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) here on Friday.
The drop in the reserves for the week that ended on September 30 was on account of a dip in the Foreign
Currency Assets (FCAs), a major component of the overall reserves, the Weekly Statistical Supplement
released by the RBI stated.
Indeed, inflation has ruled at or above the upper tolerance limit of 6% since January 2022, she said.
25. Which one of the following is considered a major characteristic of FDI?
(a) Investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
(b) Involves debt-servicing.
(c) Investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government securities.
(d) Largely non-debt creating capital flow.
26. What are the reasons behind surge in forex reserves? Choose the incorrect options from the
following –
I) Rise in capital flows II) High credit takeoffs
III) Narrowing Current Account Deficit IV) Favourable BoP
(a) Both I & II (b) Both II & III (c) Only II (d) I,II & IV
27. Fill in the blanks:-
RBI accumulated reserves at an accelerated pace between _______ and early_______, which
helped India deal with the consequences of the 2008 global financial crisis.
(a) 2004 and early 2007 (b) 2005 and early 2008
(c) 2006 and early 2008 (d) 2002 and early 2008
28. What are the benefits behind surge in forex reserves? Choose the correct options from the following –
I) The ability to absorb shocks from external sources and the volatility in the global economy
will increase.
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II) Also the surge in forex reserves will lead to an appreciation of the value of the rupee which
will help India in reducing the import bill.
III) With that the special drawing rights with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) will go up.
(a) Only I is correct (b) Both I & II are correct
(c) Both II & III are correct (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.29-Q.33): Our food systems are inseparably linked to the unprecedented climate crisis,
which threatens the food security, nutrition, and health of billions of people. Food systems are not only
severely impacted by climate change, requiring an urgent focus on adaption, but also play a role in
causing global greenhouse gas emissions. Investing in food systems transformation is a key piece of the
climate change puzzle, but recent efforts fall far short of what is urgently needed.
This year’s Global Food Policy Report on food systems transformation and climate change echoes the
som- ber warning issued by recent IPCC reports: as we continue to degrade the environment and push
beyond our planetary boundaries, we are entering a “Code Red for Humanity.” Food systems are
inseparably linked to this unprecedented crisis, which threatens the food security, nutrition, and health of
billions of people. Our food systems are not only severely impacted by climate change, requiring an
urgent focus on adaption, but also play a role in causing about one-third of global greenhouse gas
emissions, with two-thirds of that resulting from agriculture, forestry, and other land use. Investing in food
systems transformation is a key piece of the climate change puzzle, yet it is vastly underfunded, with only
a small part of climate finance directed toward this goal.
India’s food production could drop ______and the number of those at risk for hunger could increase
______by 2030 due to climate change.
(a) 10%, 30% (b) 16%, 23% (c) 12%,28% (d) 14%, 32%
30. According to the report, global food production will grow by how much per cent over 2010 levels by
2050 in the context of climate change?
(a) 50% (b) 70% (c) 60% (d) 30%
On anaemia, the National Family Health survey-5, found that ______ per cent of children in the 6-59
months age group were anaemic.
(a) 24% (b) 39% (c) 15% (d) 67%
32. What is the Global Scenario regarding the Global Food Policy Report? Choose the correct
statements from the following –
I) Per capita consumption levels in developing countries will remain less than half of those in
developed countries.
II) Production and demand are projected to grow more rapidly in developing countries.
III) Diets are shifting towards more Junk & Unhealthy foods.
33. Choose the incorrect Recommendations made on Global Food Policy Report from the following
options –
I) Investments in R&D for innovation.
II) Improved governance of resources.
III) Healthier diets and more sustainable production.
(a) Only I (b) Both II & III (c) All of the above (d) None of the above
Passage (Q.34-Q.38): Heat waves are known to have been a reality for hundreds of years. But the long-
term effects of climate change have exacerbated them, making the waves more extreme, frequent and
prolonged. As India continues to grapple with the unrelenting waves, it becomes pertinent to unpack two
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strands of environmental philosophy that reinvent the relationship between nature and humans — shallow
and deep ecologism.
In all, Næss cautions humans against adopting a ‘vague, global’ approach to the environmental crisis.
A holistic perspective to the crisis is one which acknowledges regional differences and the disparities
between under and over-developed nations.
Næss stresses that the political potential of the movement be realised, and that those in positions of
power be held accountable. The responsibility of solving the climate crisis falls on policy-makers as much
as it does on scientists and ecologists.
34. The concept of “Shallow and Deep Ecologism” emerged in which year?
(a) 1940s (b) 1970s (c) 1950s (d) 1990s
Shallow ecologism is also referred as __________.
(a) Weak ecologism (b) Small ecologism
(c) Battered ecologism (d) Destroyed ecologism
36. What is deep ecologism? Choose the correct options from the following –
I) It basically aspires to sustain nature by making large-scale changes to our lifestyle.
II) All these may include limiting the commercial farming of meat to preserve forest areas and
reduce the artificial fattening of animals.
(a) Only I is correct (b) Only II is correct
(c) either I or II is correct (d) All of the above
37. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution states that it shall be the Fundamental Duty of
every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests and Wildlife?
(a) Article 48 A (b) Article 51 A (g) (c) Article 49 B (d) Article 64 A (f)
38. What are the issues with shallow ecologism? Choose the correct options from the following –
I) Its proponents reject shallow ecologism for prioritising humans above other forms of life, and
subsequently preserving the environmentally destructive way of life in modern societies.
II) Despite constituting only five per cent of the world’s population, the U.S. accounts for 35% of
the world’s energy consumption and is the second largest consumer of electricity after China.
(c) Either I or II is correct (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.39-Q.43): The Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update was published May 9, 2022. In it,
the WMO also states that there is a 93 per cent chance that at least one year between 2022 and 26 will
replace 2016 as the warmest year on record.
The 1.5°C target is enshrined in the Paris Agreement, which aims to “limit global warming to well below 2,
preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.”
1.5°C is the difference between the Earth’s average temperature in the late 1800s and average
temperatures today. Crossing this limit would cause irreversible damage to the planet’s fragile
ecosystems and unleash harsh impacts on human, plant and animal life.
“A single year of exceedance above 1.5°C does not mean we have breached the iconic threshold of the
Paris Agreement, but it does reveal that we are edging ever closer to a situation where 1.5°C could be
exceeded for an extended period,” report lead author Leon Hermanson, was quoted as saying in a WMO
press statement.
There is a _____ per cent chance that the world may temporarily breach ______of warming in one
of the next five years.
(a) 25%, 3oC (b) 50%, 1.5oC (c) 40%, 1oC (d) 55%, 2.5oC
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40. Name the place where compared to the 1991-2020 average, is predicted to be more than three
times as large as the global mean anomaly when averaged over the next five northern hemisphere
extended winters?
(a) The Arctic Temperature (b) The Antarctic Temperature
(c) The Alaska Temperature (d) The Siberian Temperature
41. Choose the correct options based on major findings of WMO Global Annual to Decadal Climate from
the following –
I) There is a 93 per cent chance that at least one year between 2022 and 26 will replace 2016
as the warmest year on record.
II) The annual mean global near-surface temperature for each year between 2022 and 2026 is
predicted to be between 1.1 °C and 1.9 °C higher than preindustrial levels (the average over
the years 1850-1900).
III) There is no signal for the El Niño Southern Oscillation for December-February 2022/23, but
the Western Oscillation index is predicted to be positive in 2022.
42. Every year Earth Day is celebrated on:
(a) 22 April (b) 21 April (c) 23 April (d) 24 April
43. India established the Green Grids Initiative-One Sun One World One Grid (GGI-OSOWOG) project
in collaboration with which of the following country?
(a) Germany (b) United Kingdom (c) Brazil (d) Namibia
Passage (Q.44-Q.48): The idea of Open RAN is to change this, and enable operators to mix and match
components.
It goes a step further by opening the interfaces inside the base station. The Open RAN architecture allows
for the separation - or disaggregation - between hardware and software with open interfaces.
RAN has been based on proprietary technologies of original equipment makers such as Ericsson, Nokia,
etc. With Open RAN, telecom players would have the flexibility to use in-house solutions or solutions from
multiple vendors for RAN services.
This would allow telecom operators to look beyond traditional vendors, thus creating opportunities for
lesser-known vendors from abroad as well as from home to be part of the growing 5G ecosystem, based
on their innovation competence.
Short for Open Radio Access Network, Open RAN, is critical to _______________deployment.
(a) Download Speed Experience (b) Upload Speed Experience
(c) 5G (d) 5Gi
45. What is Open RAN? Choose the correct statements from the following –
I) Open Radio Access Network, or Open RAN, is a key part of a mobile network system that
uses cellular radio connections to link individual devices to other parts of a network.
II) It comprises antennae, which transmits and receives signals to and from our smartphones or
other compatible devices. The signal is then digitised in the RAN-base station and connected
to the network.
III) O-RAN basically uses software to make hardware manufactured by different companies work
together.
(a) Only II is correct (b) Both I & II are correct
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46. What are the advantages of Open-RAN? Choose the correct statements from the following –
I) An open environment expands the ecosystem, and provides more Options to the Operators.
II) It is expected to make 5G more flexible and cost-efficient.
III) It will boost new opportunities for the Foreign entities to enter into the network equipment
market.
47. Internet was introduced in which year?
(a) 1983 (b) 1985 (c) 1990 (d) 2000
48. Choose correct statements based on Radio access network (RAN) from the following –
I) It is a part of a mobile telecommunication system, It basically implements a radio access
technology.
II) RAN functionality is typically provided by a Logic chip residing in both the core network as
well as the user equipment.
(c) Either I or II is correct (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.49-Q.51): Noting that years of delay in conducting elections to over 23,000 local bodies in
Madhya Pradesh "borders on the breakdown of the rule of law", the Supreme Court on Tuesday declared
that State Election Commissions across the country cannot skip its constitutional obligation to conduct
polls to Local Bodies every five years.
A Bench led by Justice A.M. Khanwilkar, in a judgment, said election commissions cannot reel out
grounds like ongoing delimitation or formation of new wards to delay elections where it was due or even
overdue.
"Ongoing activity of delimitation or formation of ward cannot be a legitimate ground to be set forth by any
authority, much less the State Election Commission, to not discharge its constitutional obligation in
notifying the election programme at the opportune time and to ensure that the elected body is installed
before the expiry of the [1] term of the outgoing elected body," the Supreme Court held.
The Supreme Court has declared that polls in each state must be conducted before expiry of the
____________ term as per the constitutional mandate.
(a) 2 Years (b) 4 Years (c) 5 Years (d) 3 Years
50. What was the logic behind introduction of election symbol?
(a) Symbol symbolizes party’s ideology
(b) Symbols can also be identified by illiterate people
(c) Different symbols will represent India’s culture
(d) None of the above
51. Who is heading the most recent committee on the status of OBC reservations in India?
(a) Justice Mohini (b) Justice Chandrachud
(c) Justice Verma (d) Justice Rohini
Passage (Q.52-Q.54): The revised procedures have been intimated to MPs by Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha secretariats. CPI(M) MP John Brittas has strongly objected to the new procedures and urged
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman to roll back the decision.
Copies of the letter were also sent to the Rajya Sabha Chairman, Lok Sabha Speaker and the Minister of
Statistics and Programme Implementation."It simply shows how the government takes unilateral and
arbitrary decisions without discussing with the stakeholders. The finance ministry has issued the
memorandum on MPLADS without discussing with the nodal ministry or the Parliament," Brittas told.
10
52. What is the Revised norms of MPLADS?
(a) The interest that the fund accrues will be deposited in the Consolidated Fund of India.
(b) The interest that the fund accrues will be deposited in the PM Care Fund of India.
(c) The interest that the fund accrues will be deposited in the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
(d) The interest that the fund accrues will be deposited in the Contingency Fund of India.
53. In which year the MPLAD Scheme was launched?
(a) 1995 (b) 1993 (c) 1987 (d) 2000
The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. ________.
(a) 2 Crore (b) 50 Lakhs (c) 5 Crore (d) 1 Crore
SECTION - C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions(Q.55-Q.105): Read the comprehension and answer the questions:

Passage (Q.55 – Q.60): Free consent is the most essential component of a valid contract, if the consent
given is not free there cannot be a valid contract. Consent is said not to be free when obtained by the
following:
Section 15 of the Indian Contract Act,1872 states that coercion is committing or threatening to commit,
any act is forbidden by the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) or the unlawful detaining or threatening to
detain any property, to the prejudice of any person whatever, with the intention of causing any person to
enter into an agreement.
Coercion means forcing an individual to enter into a contract. When intimidation or threats are used under
pressure to gain the party’s consent, i.e. it is not free consent. Coercion may involve the actual infliction of
physical and psychological harm in order to enhance the credibility of a threat. Then the threat of further
harm can lead to the threatened person’s cooperation or obedience.
Undue Influence is defined under Section 16 of the Indian Contract Act. When one party is in a position to
dominate the will of others and actually misuses the power, then it is a case of undue influence, and the
contract becomes voidable. According to Section 16 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 an influence will be
considered as Undue Influence when:
One party to the contract is in a position of trust and controls the other party wrongfully.Such a person
uses his dominant position to gain an unfair advantage over the other.Coercion and Undue Influence
have the effect of making the contract voidable at the option of party whose consent was not free. The
aggravated party will, therefore, determine whether to enforce the contract or to cancel the contract.
Bilateral Mistake (Section 21) -When both the parties to a contract are under a mistake of fact, essential
to the agreement, such a mistake is known as a bilateral mistake. Bilateral mistakes are also sometimes
referred to as mutual or common mistakes. All the parties do not agree to the same thing and in the same
way, which is the concept of consent. Since there is no consent, the contract is null and void.
55. Mr. Amit an engineering graduate was working in an IT company and earning a hefty amount of
salary so much so that he was confused as to what to do with it, one day he decides to invest it but
having no knowledge about investing he was clueless as where to invest, so he calls up his
investment banker friend Mr. Vijay working at Axis Asset Management to get some advice on where
to invest. Mr. Vijay assessed Amit’s financials and suggested that he should invest in equity mutual
fund and also provided that the fund he managed that was the Axis Equity Bluechip Fund gave the
best returns for last five years, Amit convinced by this decides to invest in the Axis Fund and put Rs.
10 lakhs in it. Unfortunately due to recession Mr. Amit suffered huge losses, aggrieved by this he file
a suit against Axis Asset Management for compensation and claimed that he entered the contract in
undue influence. Decide:
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(a) Mr. Amit will succeed in the suit as Mr. Vijay being his friend had a position of trust thus
exerting undue influence.
(b) Mr. Amit will succeed in the suit as Mr. Vijay having the knowledge that Amit was eager to
invest exploited that need.
(c) Mr. Amit will not succeed in the suit as he himself agreed to the terms of contract.
(d) Mr. Amit will not succeed in the suit as there was no unfair advantage to Mr. Vijay and thus
no undue influence.
56. Amazoo.com an online retailer enters into a contract with Haldibaam for selling their edible products
on their site, they negotiated the price and quality of products that they were going to deal in and the
agreement was signed between them. Next month when the first consignment of goods were
delivered to Amazoo they refused to take the delivery and also pay for the same, owing to this
Haldibaam filed a suit in the district court for breach of contract where an argument was put forth by
Amazoo that Haldibaam had not complied to their condition of packing, that is Amazoo only
delivered products in a paper packing but Haldibaam used plastic packaging, Haldibaam stated that
they believed that plastic packaging was to be done and that it was a mistake of fact. Amazoo
argued that since there was a bilateral mistake the contract becomes null and void. Decide:
(a) The argument put forth by Amazoo is valid and thus Haldibaam will not succeed in the suit.
(b) Mistake of fact in this case will not make the contract void as in this case packing is not of
essential to the contract.
(c) Haldibaam will succeed in the suit as the terms of contract were silent on the packing of
goods.
(d) Haldibaam will not succeed the suit as plastic packaging is banned by the government owing
to environmental protection.
57. Mrs.Bena and Mr.Vasu a happily married couple who were expecting their first child in a few
months, unfortunately a couple of weeks prior to the delivery Mr.Vasu met with an accident and
couldn’t survive. Upon the death of Mr.Vasu his brother Babu was to acquire the oil business which
he was managing, Babu with the greed of having it all and being desperate to have the business
reaches to Bena with proposal that she shall sign an agreement that she and her child will have no
interest in property and business of Vasu and also threatened that if she doesn’t sign he won’t let
her complete the final rights of her husband, owing to the threat Bena signs the agreement. Later
Bena files a suit for declaring the agreement void as she was coerced into signing it claiming that
obstruction of dead body from cremation is an offence punishable under IPC. Decide:
(a) Bena will not succeed in the suit because denial of final rights is no offense under IPC.
(b) Bena will not succeed in the suit as she should have not signed the contract and approached
the police.
(c) Bena will succeed in the suit as the contract was entered via coercion and can be void at her
option.
(d) Bena will succeed in the suit as wife and unborn son have a right over Vasu’s property as per
succession rules.
58. Mr.Shara a farmer owning around a couple of acres of land was heavily in debt cause of the poor
irrigation facilities and lack of rains, his condition was so that he had no money to even sow seeds
for the present season, he gets a news that this year there will be bumper rains and there’s going to
be huge acquiring by government, so he approaches Mr.Sahu who was already one of his creditors
to ask for money for the seeds. Mr.Sahu was resilient to give any further debt to Mr.Shara as he had
not been able to pay the previous loans for the past two years, but later seeing this as a profitable
opportunity agrees to give him a loan on the condition that Mr.Shara signs a sale deed of his land
and if he defaults to pay the principal amount with an additional interest of 13% within 6 months and
if he fails to do so the farmland would be transferred to him. Mr.Shara signs the agreement,
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unfortunately he did not earn so much that year that he could repay his loan, in order to save his
land he approaches the court to get the sale deed void. Decide will he succeed in the case or not:
(a) Mr.Shara cannot get the contract declared void as he himself accepted the terms of contract.
(b) Mr.Shara will not succeed in the suit as Mr.Sahu was neither in position of trust or control
over him.
(c) Mr.Shara will succeed in the suit and the contract can be declared void as it was entered out
of undue influence
(d) Mr.Shara will not succeed as he should have approached a Gramin Bank to take loan and
not form some lender.
59. Try and Buy an online fashion retailer reaches out to Mr.Arun who was an Instagram influencer and
selling homemade kurtas to sell his kurtas on their site, Mr.Arun also thought this was a great
opportunity for him to expand his reach and expand his business and thus he agrees to it. While
they were negotiating the terms and conditions of their contract Try and Buy stated that Mr.Arun
should fulfil every order which he get within a couple of weeks from the date it was placed, Mr.Arun
accepted this thinking of that couple of weeks was used in a general parlance to deliver as soon as
possible and not literal terms as stated by Try and Buy. Arun completed every order within 10 days
in the initial months of the business but later when the orders increased he couldn’t complete it in
the requisite time of two weeks and owing to this Try and Buy cancelled the orders. Aggrieved by
this Mr.Arun filed a suit for breach of contract. Decide:
(a) Mr.Arun will succeed in the suit as time was not of essence to the contract.
(b)Mr.Arun will not succeed in the suit as the time of delivery was of essence to the contract and
thus null and void.
(c) Mr.Arun will not succeed in the suit because it was him who defaulted at the terms of
contract.
(d) Mr.Arun will succeed in the suit as the terms of contract were vague and thus he cannot be
bound by them.
60. Which of the following statements are true with respect to free consent:
I. Unlawful detention of property or threat of unlawful detention of property does amount to
coercion.
II. For undue influence one need to only establish that the other party was in a position of trust
or control.
III.Only mistake of facts can amount to bilateral mistake under Section 21
IV.The party whose consent was not free can perform the contract if he/she deems fit.
(a) I&II (b) Only II (c) III&IV (d) I,III&IV
Passage (Q.61 – Q.66): Generally, in India, the President and Governor are regarded as a rubber stamp;
they are considered to be the titular head of the state. Therefore, the governor has been made just a
nominal official; the real official comprises the committee of ministers headed by the chief minister. The
official intensity of the state will be vested in the governor and will be practised by him either legitimately
or through officers subordinate to him as per this Constitution (Article 154).
The Supreme Court in the case of U.N. Rao v. Indira Gandhi held that the position of the President and
that of the Governor are just titular in nature and that the real power is actually exercised by the Council of
Ministers. Wherever the Constitution requires the satisfaction of the Governor for the exercise of any
power vested upon him by the mandate of the Constitution, the satisfaction required by the Constitution is
not to be construed as the personal satisfaction of the Governor but is the satisfaction of the Governor in
the constitutional sense under the Cabinet system of Government. This essentially implies that it is the
satisfaction of the Council of Ministers as conveyed to the Governor, on the basis of which the Governor
acts, that is, satisfaction of his Council of Ministers on whose aid and advice the President or the
Governor exercises all his powers and functions.
13
The Court opined that the Tribunal concerned in this case had come to a wrong conclusion that the
sanction required under the relevant rule is the sanction of the Governor. In the case of Shamsher Singh
v. State of Punjab Justice K. Iyer put forth a very fundamental question regarding the bare basics of the
Constitution; he posed the question (at 92) that— Does our legal political system approximate to the
Westminster style Cabinet Government or contemplate the President and the Governor, unlike the British
Crown being real repositories of actually exercising power in its comprehensive Constitutional
significance?
However, the expression required found in Article 163(1) is stated to signify that the Governor can
exercise his discretionary powers only if there is a compelling necessity to do so. The necessity to
exercise such powers may arise from the express provision of the Constitution or a statute or by
necessary implication like violation of constitution.
61. The State Investigation Authority of the State of Kendra Pradesh had made multiple request to
initiate criminal machinery against and prosecute Mr. B Raja. Mr. B Raja, a minister in the State
government, was accused of corruption by taking bribes for allocation of telecom spectrums. As per
the Criminal Procedure Code of the State a sitting minister can be prosecuted for an offense in their
official capacity only after a sanction by the government. Since, the government seemed a bit
hesitant to sanction prosecution without being fully aware of the matter, the investigating agency
made an application for sanction before the Governor. The governor sanctioned the prosecution,
and reprimanded the government for protecting their minsters from legitimate penal actions following
offenses commit by them. Decide:
(a) The governor has rightly sanctioned the prosecution as the government is misusing its
powers to shed its own ministers from criminal liability.
(b) The governor has wrongly sanctioned the prosecution as unless it is established in the court
that not sanctioning the prosecution is unconstitutional.
(c) The governor has rightly sanctioned the prosecution as the Council of Ministers did not
express any advice against the sanctioning which was binding on him.
(d) The governor has wrongly sanctioned the prosecution as exercising such discretion is
function of the government, and the Governor can exercise discretion upon advice of the
Council of Ministers only.
62. The Government of Goa decided to decrease the minimum age of drinking from 21 to 18 by means
of a notification to lure more tourists and increase the GDP of the State. Governor being the
executive authority had to finally issue the notification. The Governor was a little apprehensive that
the notification would set a wrong precedent, and is more likely to set the youth of the State on the
wrong path. Therefore, the Governor refused to issue the notification. Decide the legitimacy of the
decision in light of the discretionary powers of the Governor.
(a) The Governor has legitimately declined to issue the notification as it was out of his concern
for fair share of State’s population which is a compelling necessity.
(b) The Governor has illegitimately declined to issue the notification as they have defied the aid
and advice of the Council of Ministers.
(c) The Governor has legitimately declined to issue the notification as the government has failed
to balance out the interest and welfare of all the stakeholders of this policy.
(d) The Governor has illegitimately declined to issue the notification as economic necessities far
outweigh the moral factor in the decision making.
63. The State passes an order allowing unrestrained arrest of people the Police suspects of being
involved in riots that took place in the State recently. While the nature of the riots was communal,
there is no certainty of it being started by any particular community. However, the order of the State
targeted specific areas which were populated by people from only one community, who can be
apprehended and kept in custody without being produced before the magistrate for 6 months which
14
is contrary to Article 22. The Governor sensing the vested motives of the State government passed
another order revoking the initial order. Choose the correct option?
(a) The Governor could pass the revoking order as being the executive head it is well within their
right to keep a check on the governmental policies.
(b) The Governor could not pass the revoking order as Governor has to abide by the order of the
Council of Ministers.
(c) The Governor could pass the revoking order as there was a compelling necessity in the light
of violation of constitutional principles.
(d) The Governor could not pass the revoking order as the matters of law and order fall within
the Home Ministry of a State and is under its direct control.
64. The Governor of Gujarat, appoints Shyam Bhai Patel as the new Lokayukt after due discussion with
the Chief Justice of India and Attorney General of India. The appointment has been done by him
under the Indian Lokayukt Act, which vests the power of appointment with the Governor only after
due consultation with the above two authorities. The State government has challenged the
appointment citing the Supreme Court Cases that the Governor exercises their power as per the aid
and advice of the Council of Ministers. Choose the correct option:
(a) Governor has rightly taken the decision as he is not bound by the aid and advice of the
Council of Ministers in making appointment of the Lokayukt.
(b) Governor has wrongly taken the decision as the Governor is always bound by the advice of
the council of ministers.
(c) Governor has rightly taken the decision as the appointment powers of the Governor are
beyond the control of the Council of Ministers.
(d) Governor has wrongly taken the decision as merely because if the statute does not seek to
consult the council of ministers before the appointment it is unconstitutional.
65. Which of the following is incorrect:
I. Personal satisfaction of the Governor is not the actual requirement in executive functions.
II. The power to sanction prosecution is exercised by the governor on their sole discretion as
per the constitutional mandate.
III. Governors can exercise discretionary powers in true sense if there is compelling necessity or
under constitutional provision.
IV. The advice of the Council of Minister can be defied where the Governor realises excessive
use of power by them.
Choose the correct option:
(a) II and IV (b) IV only (c) II and III (d) II, III and IV
66. As per the Indian Constitution amongst many functions discharged by the Governor as per his
satisfaction, one is the appointment of members to the district councils with distinct contribution to
art, literature, science etc. The Maharashtra Government recommended a list of competent persons
eligible to be appointed as members to the Governor. The Governor has returned the list for
reconsideration to the State government. Decide:
(a) The Governor has rightly done so as the power to appoint members in the districts councils
does not fall within the bound of their constitutional powers where under they are bound by
the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
(b) The Governor has wrongly done so as the Governor has to exercise their discretion as per
the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
(c) The Governor has rightly done so as the list sent by the State was only recommendatory in
nature and therefore not binding on the Governor.
(d) The Governor has wrongly done so as the position of Governor is a mere rubber stamp who
has to mandatorily abide by the will of the Council of Ministers in every matter under the Sun.
15
Passage (Q.67 – Q.70): Section 5 in Chapter II of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 lays down the conditions
for a Hindu marriage. The provision consists of five conditions that are to be followed to solemnize a
marriage between two Hindus. Marriage solemnized between the two Hindus, any one already married
subsequent marriage was void. The two parties should not marry at the time of marriage. The parties
were unsound mind at the time of marriage, the marriage was void. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
incorporated Monogamy and strictly prohibits a Hindu from getting involved in a marital relationship with
more than one person. Bigamy and Polygamy, if proved are strictly punishable under the Indian Penal
Code and is a ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act. The party was of sound mind, but the party
was facing any recurrent attacks or unfit for the procreation of child in these marriages cannot enter into a
valid marriage. The bridegroom was complete age of 21 and the bride was complete age of 18 after only
fix the marriage. The status of the marriage is solely dependent on the intention of the parties. The act
further prohibits marriage between sapindas except if the customs allow. Under the present law no
requirement that the bride should be younger than bridegroom. Section 7 says ceremonies of Hindu
marriage; A Hindu marriage may be solemnized in accordance with the customary rites of either party
satisfied. All Hindu customary rites including the saptapadi (that is the taking seven steps by the
bridegroom and the bride jointly before the sacred life) has to be fulfilled if customs provide.
67. Ashima, an 18 year of Hindu woman, was married to Yakib, a 22-year-old Hindu man. Ashima and
Yakib solemnised their marriage under Yakib’s customary tribal rites. Yakib’s customary rites had
“chittori” has the necessary ceremony which included 9 steps taken by the bridegroom and the bride
before the holy ganga water. Due to distinct cultures, minor stifles used to crop up between the two.
These arguments got intensified and took the form of domestic violence against Ashima. Due to this,
Ashima started living separately. Yakib apologized and called her back but she did not respond.
Ashima got to know that Yakib had married one Asha after Ashima left. Ashima filed for divorce on
the basis of bigamy. What must be considered while deciding the case.
(a) Ashima cannot file for divorce from Yakib since she deliberately started living separately
rupturing possible matrimonial relations with him. Yakib tried rekindling the relationship but
Ashima did not respond.
(b) Ashima can file for a divorce since she had a valid Hindu marriage and holds full rights to
divorce. Moreover, her staying separately cannot act as an impediment to Yakib’s unlawful
act of bigamy.
(c) Ashima cannot file for divorce as their marriage was never solemnised according to the
Hindu Marriage Act. A marriage that has not been solemnised according to Hindu marriage
cannot be dissolved on the grounds mentioned in the Hindu marriage.
(d) Ashima can file for divorce from Yakib since their marriage was solemnised according to
Yakib’s customs. “Chittori” can be considered as an alternative to saptapadi since it involves
similar conduct as laid down by the Hindu marriage Act.
68. Facts in continuation: After Ashima denied Yakib’s proposal of rekindling the relationship, Yakib
wanted to take revenge. Yakib quickly went to a temple and married his ex-girlfriend Moeena by
asking the priest to solemnise the marriage by reciting chants. Yakib started living with Moeena in
the same house where Ashima and Yakib used to live and subsequently sent Ashima pictures of his
new wife. Aggrieved by the same, Ashima filed a divorce. What must be considered while deciding
the case.
(a) Ashima cannot file for divorce since Yakib has the right to personal liberty. On being denied
conjugal rights, Yakib had the right to marry anybody based on his will.
(b) Ashima can file for divorce since Yakib did not dissolve his first marriage before solemnising
his second marriage. His second marriage is an act of bigamy prohibited under the Hindu
Marriage Act.
16
(c) Yakib’s second marriage cannot be considered as an act of bigamy since solemnisation of
both the marriage must happen in accordance with the Hindu Marriage Act.
(d) Yakib cannot be divorced by Ashima since his marriage with her was invalid under the Hindu
marriage Act. Therefore, his second marriage was not an act of bigamy.
69. Ramesh and Madhu had been married since 1997 under the Hindu Marriage Act. The couple
shared an amicable relationship with each other throughout their marriage. However, due to an
unidentified genetic medical condition diagnosed after 5 year of marriage, Ramesh suffered an
insanity attack while attending a family function. During that attack, Ramesh shouted at Madhu in
front of the gathering. Madhu, ashamed and furious by the act, left the scene. Later, Ramesh
apologised for his unconscious behaviour. Madhu wants to file for divorce because of the humiliation
and defamation faced by her. Decide if Madhu’s marriage was valid.
(a) Madhu’s marriage with Ramesh is invalid since Ramesh was not mentally fit to consent the
marriage owing to the genetic medical condition. This condition deems him unfit for a valid
marriage.
(b) The marriage solemnised between Madhu and Ramesh is a valid marriage since the medical
condition was unidentified at the time of the marriage and thus, cannot be deemed as an
invalid ground for a valid marriage.
(c) Ramesh’s aggressive behaviour towards Madhu was not an intentional or repeated event. It
was under insanity attack that he acted in the manner.
(d) Ramesh’s insanity was an impediment to Madhu’s and Ramesh’s procreation during
marriage. Thus, his insanity attack negated the validity of their marriage.
70. Yaksha and Abhinav were sapindas to each other. They moved to a new city and intended to start
over their lives after legally solemnising their marriage. Yaksha was a Hindu tribal woman and her
customs allowed marriage with any person irrespective of their relationship by Saptapadi custom
only. Abhinav’s Hindu customs allowed him to marry with proper Hindu customs and rites. Since
Yaksha’s father was reluctant to intercaste marriage, she convinced Abhinav to marry him with her
customs. Their marriage was solemnised according to those tribal customs including Saptapadi.
Later Abhinav’s family argued that the marriage is void since the marriage was not solemnised as
per Hindu personal laws. Can the argument stand in the court of law?
(a) The argument is legitimate since the parties were sapindas to each other and as per Hindu
Marriage Act, Sapinda marriage is prohibited. Therefore, their marriage stands void.
(b) The argument is illegitimate since Yaksha and Abhinav agreed to marrying as per her tribal
personal laws that allowed marriage with Abhinav. Moreover, the condition of Saptapadi was
also satisfied.
(c) Abhinav’s family’s argument is legitimate since Hindu marriage includes other customs and
rites in addition to Saptapadi that must be followed to a valid marriage under the Hindu
Marriage Act.
(d) Abhinav’s family’s argument is illegitimate since Yaksha’s tribal customs allow intercaste
marriage. Thus, any marriage solemnised properly according to the law cannot be
contended.
Passage (Q.71 – Q.74): As of December 6, 2021, the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
(Amendment) Bill, 2021 was introduced in the LokSabha. According to Section 3 of the NDPS Act, the
Central Government has the right to add or remove such substances or natural materials or salts or
preparations of such substances or materials from the list of psychotropic substances. In Section 41 of
the Act, magistrates have the authority to issue search warrants as well as specially designated Gazetted
officers of the central excise department, narcotics department, customs department, revenue intelligence
unit, or any other department of the state. Sections 35 and 54 impose a reverse burden on the accused to
prove innocence and are constitutional. That means the court shall presume the existence of such mental
17
state but it shall be a defence for the accused to prove the fact that he had no such mental state with
respect to the act charged as an offence in that prosecution. A fact is regarded as proved for purposes of
this section only when the court is of the opinion that it exists beyond a reasonable doubt and not just
when its existence of it can be demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence. Under said section, the
operative part prescribes that no person accused of commission of an offence under the Act is entitled to
an extension of bail unless both of the following conditions are met: The prosecution must have a chance
to object to the application. The accused has reasonable grounds to believe that he is not guilty of the
offence and the fact that if bail is granted, the defendant is unlikely to commit any crime while out on bail.
There is no explicit mention of the term ‘conscious possession’ in the NDPS Act however, it is used to
reason. ‘Conscious’ refers to a deliberate or intended state of mind. ‘Possession’ refers to the right to
possess and it has a multitude of different meanings and must be applied according to the factual matrix.
71. Rukhmani was a chemist and she dealt with different kinds of chemicals in her laboratory. She had
7 different kinds of amorphous powders stored in packets inside her drawers. Animesh, an officer
directed by the local police, was checking Rukhmani’s laboratory in apprehension of finding
substances prohibited under the act. Such information was given by a co-worker at rukhmani’s lab
who was also a stark competitor. Assuming that Animesh finds a substance of questionable nature
with respect to the ambit of the Act, what is the correct course of action to deal with the situation?
(a) The courts must presume the culpable mental state of Rukhmani since she was operating at
a chemical laboratory and had enough opportunity to violate the law regarding Narcotic
substances laid down in the Act.
(b) Rukhmani must be arrested and presented before the court since there were reasonable
grounds to believe that she was possessing narcotic substances in her laboratory which
amounts to conscious possession.
(c) Animesh must arrest Rukhmani and seize the suspected substance since the suspicion
existed beyond reasonable doubt that Rukhmani possessed substances prohibited under the
act.
(d) The state must prove that Rukhmani did possess the suspected substance that is prohibited
under the law being an offence against the society.
72. Through CCTV recordings, Rukhami got to know about the search in her laboratory and the seizure
of suspected substances. Rukhmani’s friend Mony dealt with narcotic substances to sustain herself.
Rukhmani was aware of this and quite occasionally visited Mony to consume the substances and
was soon going to join her business. After watching the recordings, she surrenders to Animesh
about her guilt although the suspected substance was not prohibited substance. What must be the
legal standing on this issue.
(a) Since Rukhmani herself surrendered to Animesh, Rukhmani’s friend Mony cannot prove her
innocence with respect to her possessing such substances and earning a livelihood out of it.
(b) Rukhmani, by surrendering, will be held for consciously possessing narcotic substances as
prohibited by the Act.
(c) Mony’s conscious possession of the drug can be proved beyond reasonable doubt since she
made a living out narcotic substances.
(d) The accusation against Rukhmani of consciously possessing the narcotic substances are
prima facie incorrect.
73. At the time of the search, Animesh had suspected those hidden substances to be prohibited and
subsequently, had seized them. The substances found by Animesh proved to be prohibited by the
Act. He revealed that narcotic substances were kept behind similar coloured and textured chemicals
in a drawer which could only be accessed by Rukhmani. Moreover, it was kept in the same bottle as
other similar looking chemicals. What is the legal stance of search and seizure in such a scenario?
18
(a) Since upon Animesh’s search of the laboratory and seizure of a substance that proved to be
narcotic, Rukhmani has to prove her innocence beyond reasonable doubt to satisfy the court.
(b) Rukhmani can question Animesh’s conduct as he was not authorised in accordance with law.
(c) The search by Animesh was legal as he found prohibited substance in Rukmani’s laboratory.
(d) The ‘conscious’ aspect of conscious possession is fulfilled since only Rukhmani could access
the drawer where the narcotic substance was found.
74. Sheila used to deal in narcotic substances for personal use as well as for business. She used her
brother’s salt business as disguise to her substance dealings. An authorised officer revealed this
and arrested her. She was tried and was imprisoned. Her legal legal counsel is trying to find
loopholes in her detention and are trying to get her out of the prison. Is there any way they can do
that?
(a) Yes, Sheila can argue that the state did not prove her guilt and held her guilty merely on
preponderance of evidence.
(b) No, Sheila’s legal counsel can apply for bail by alleging that she is free of guilt by
demonstrating by the preponderance of evidence.
(c) Yes, Sheila’s legal counsel must apply for bail by proving that the conduct was done under
the influence of an externality and she was not acting with free will.
(d) Yes, Sheila’s legal counsel must distribute the blame on her brother by proving that he let
Sheila use her business for illegal business.
Passage (Q.75 – Q.79): Tort is concerned with civil wrongs caused by individuals and other legal entities.
Tort has two main objectives. One is to offer compensation to the victims of civil wrongs for the loss,
damage or injury that they have suffered. The most common remedy for tortuous conduct is money,
referred to as damages. Tort also acts as a deterrent, and aims to reduce the harm caused by making the
tortfeasor responsible for providing a remedy. Another type of remedy is an injunction, where the court
orders a person not to do something, for example, not to publish an article in a newspaper. It may also be
used to compel a person to do something, although this is less common. There are three main elements
to a tort claim. First, it must be proved that there was a wrongful act or omission (failure to act) by the
defendant. Second, it must be proved that the claimant suffered loss, damage or injury as a result. Third,
it must be proved that the defendant had a legal duty to act in a certain way but didn’t abide, meaning he
was at fault. An assault is a threat or attempt to cause a corporeal hurt to another, coupled with an
apparent physical ability and intention to do the act. Actual contact isn’t necessary in an assault. But it is
not that every threat, where there is no actual personal violence, constitutes an assault; there must, in all
cases, be means of carrying that threat into effect. Any gesture calculated to excite, in the party
threatened, a reasonable apprehension that the party threatening intends immediately to offer violence.
The intention as well as the act makes an assault. Three elements must be established in order to
establish tortuous assault: first, the plaintiff apprehended immediate physical contact, second, the plaintiff
had reasonable apprehension (the requisite state of mind) and third, the defendant's act of interference
was intentional (the defendant intended the resulting apprehension). Threats of future harm are
insufficient to establish assault.
75. H had lost both of his legs in a horrific accident while boarding a train. One day, while walking in his
wheelchair, he stumbled across P, who had shoved him over the train track, causing him to lose his
legs. He dashed towards P, snatching up a rod that lay nearby. P was only 100 meters away when
he noticed H and became so terrified that he couldn't determine what to do. Fortunately, other
individuals passing by on the same roadway stopped H. As a result, P filed an assault complaint
against H. Do you suppose his allegation will be accepted in court?
(a) P's claim can be allowed because the requirements for the tort of assault are met in the
particular circumstance.
(b) P's claim will be rejected since what H did was a result of what P had previously done to him.
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(c) P's claim will fail since all of the requirements for the tort of assault are not satisfied in the
present scenario.
(d) P's claim can be permitted since H had the necessary purpose to inflict damage on P that he
reasonably anticipated.
76. M used to attend frequent swimming lessons. He'd been doing it for the previous four years. M and
his friends were on a cruise from one country to another when they decided to leap and swim to the
shore because it was just a few meters away. K, one of M's friends, became unable to breathe and
started drowning. M made no attempt to save him and swam to the shore alone. K's other friends
rescued him and safely brought him to the shore. K became enraged with M and filed a complaint. Is
M accountable for any wrongdoing?
(a) M is liable for failing to fulfil his commitment as a friend by rescuing K when he was drowning.
(b) M is not liable for any tort because the necessary elements of a tort are not met in this
circumstance.
(c) M should be held responsible for K's death because he was the only professional swimmer
amongst his friends who could have rescued K.
(d) M is not liable for anything because K plunged into the ocean on his own free will, which
places no obligation on anybody else.
77. Y used to be a cook at W's house. He'd only been with W for a few months. He was unable to
incorporate the flavour that W required. W once urged him to discontinue because the family didn't
enjoy the flavour, but Y resisted because he didn't have another work at the time. Even after four
months, the flavour was still unpleasant. W came to Y in a rage at the end of the month, and since a
pair of knives were kept there, Y assumed W would strike at him now. He fled the residence as soon
as he could and filed an assault report against W. Comment on the veracity of his claim.
(a) Y's allegation is valid because it is obvious that W was about to attack him.
(b) Y's objection is invalid because he was at fault for constantly preparing food that W did not
like.
(c) Y's complaint is invalid since the requirements for the tort of assault are not attained in the
given case.
(d) W possessed the required intention, which gave Y a reasonable fear of attack; hence Y's
complaint is justified.
78. T was not very good at arithmetic, so he had to rely on his friend S, who was very brilliant at math. S
despised T because of a previous feud, but T believed that there was no bad blood between them
because he had already apologized for his mistake. To exact vengeance, S taught T all the incorrect
principles. When T returned from the test room, he saw that all of his answers were erroneous.
When he walked out of the exam room, he yelled at him and threatened to send his entire gang to
his house in the evening to beat the snot out of him. S became terrified and filed an assault report
against T. Analyse.
(a) T cannot be held accountable because he was simply making S pay for his unethical
behaviour, which caused T to fail his examinations.
(b) T is accountable because he intimidated S, causing a reasonable fear of assault.
(c) T cannot be held accountable because T's actions do not qualify under the tort of assault.
(d) T can be held accountable because he had the required intent to strike S, which scared S
and caused him to make a complaint as a precaution.
79. Choose the option that best corresponds to the information in the passage?
(a) Tort law deals with criminal wrongdoing committed by persons and other legal entities. It
seeks to compensate victims for their losses while also acting as a deterrent by attempting to
limit the harm caused by holding the tortfeasor accountable for providing a remedy.
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(b) An injunction is one sort of remedy in which the plaintiff instructs someone not to do
something, such as not to print an article in a newspaper.
(c) An assault is defined as a threat or effort to do bodily harm to another, combined with the
evident physical ability and purpose to do so. In an assault, physical contact is required.
(d) A torturous assault requires the plaintiff to anticipate impending bodily contact, have a
reasonable fear, and the defendant's act of interference must be deliberate.
Passage (Q.80 – Q.84): “Can we decide the legitimacy of those reasons without giving [the petitioner]
access to those reasons?”, Justice Chandrachud asked Natarajan. Even in the case of detention under
the National Security Act, the subjective satisfaction of authorities is allowed. But there also, some
reasons are required to be given for detention. Here, you merely say that the [Union Ministry of Home
Affairs] has denied the security clearance”, Justice Dr.Chandrachud told Additional Solicitor General
(‘ASG’) K.M. Natarajan.
The bench was hearing a petition filed by MediaOne TV challenging the Kerala High Court’s division
bench’s order upholding the Union Ministry of Home Affairs’ (‘MHA’) ban on the channel. On March 15,
the Supreme Court stayed the MHA’s order denying security clearance to the channel on grounds of
national security. The court also allowed the channel to operate till further orders.
Appearing for the channel, senior advocate Dushyant Dave mounted an attack on the decision of the
Union Government to deny security clearance to the channel. He termed the decision as an attack on
press freedom only for a reason that the channel is run by people from minority communities.
Dave relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in Subramanian Swamy versus Arun Shourie (2014)
in which the court had observed that the procedure to get information in a sealed cover was not an
acceptable procedure and was inconsistent with recognised form of pleadings. He also cited the decision
of the Supreme Court in P. Chidambaram versus Directorate of Enforcement (2019), in which, the court
refused to go through a sealed cover, observing that “…if we peruse the matersials collected by the
respondent and make some observations thereon, it might cause prejudice to the appellant and the other
co-accused who are not before this court when they are to pursue the appropriate relief before various
forum”.
The company argued before the high court that it had never been given reasons as to how it violated
national security, and was therefore denied clearance, in violation of the principles of natural justice as
they were not given an opportunity of hearing. Besides, it was contended by the petitioner that the action
of the government violated press freedom.
80. On 10 may, Maya channel, a renowned journalist TV channel has submitted an application to MI&B
seeking renewal of permission of their TV channel for a further period of ten years. The application
was forwarded to the MHA by the MI&B on November 29 last year. However, on December 29 last
year, the MHA denied security clearance to the company relating to the proposal, that is, the
renewal of uplinking and downlinking permission for a further period of ten years with respect to
Maya Channel. Following this, the MI&B issued a show-cause notice on January 1 to the petitioner
asking as to why permission seeking renewal should not be denied. In response, the petitioner on
January 19 stated that they were never granted an opportunity of being heard while denying the
clearance. Is the contention of the petitioner valid?
Choose an appropriate response.
(a) The petitioner’s cannot claim mistake of law as a defence and claim that they were never
granted an opportunity of being heard while denying the clearance.
(b) The petitioner’s should be provided with enough opportunity to present the case as per the
principles of natural justice.
(c) The petitioner’s cannot say that they were never granted an opportunity of being heard while
denying the clearance as they were issued a show case notice as to why permission seeking
renewal should not be denied.
(d) The petitioner hasn’t been denied the clearance yet. Thus, the petition filed by the petitioner
is not maintainable.
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81. DV National is an autonomous public service broadcaster founded by the Government of India,
which is one of two divisions of PrasarBharati.It is one of India's largest broadcasting organizations
in terms of studio and transmitter infrastructure, having been established on 15 September 1959.
The channel airs “Dhartike Veer” on every fortnight, wherein retired army personnel tell the host and
its listeners the stories from war time and what all tactics they used at that time. The Channel was
asked to go off air and remove all the content on ground that such talk show might get the country’s
army tactics out and can be a matter of national security. DV national challenge the order and
claimed freedom of press. Will they succeed?
(a) They will succeed as the reason given is not satisfactory enough beside the channel has
been established from a long time now and the current order will harm its reputation.
(b) They will not succeed as a satisfactory reason for withdrawal of the channel has been given
by the authorities.
(c) They will succeed as freedom of press will prevail over national security.
(d) They won't be successful since the order was valid and cannot be contested because the
authorities cited security concerns as their justification for restricting the channel’s content.
82. The Bharat daily's principal editor was Nandu. In his company, the article is reviewed by a reviewer
before and only after his approval it is published in the editorial part. Nandu's office is targeted of a
raid without his knowledge, and following the raid, his newspaper agency was ordered by the
authorities not to print any pieces claiming national security. Resolve the issue.
(a) The ban on the printing is a serious threat to freedom of press.
(b) The ban is valid as cases of national security should be dealt with utmost care.
(c) The bam is valid as even though the authorities cited no reason for banning the printing and
mere citing national security is enough.
(d) The ban is not valid as the company had never been given reasons as to how it violated
national security.
83. Suppose, in the instance given above, Nandu also files an application so as to seek reasons for his
arrest, as the authorities merely cited national security as a reason for his arrest and that had never
been given reasons as to how it violated national security. Choose an appropriate statement:
(a) The entire procedure employed to arrest the petitioner was faulty and amounted to empty
formality to comply with natural justice.
(b) The entire procedure was unlawful and that petitioner should be provided with valid reasons
for his arrest.
(c) The entire process was faulty and was done in non compliance of the principles of natural
justice.
(d) The arrest was not unlawful as arrest on basis of security reason was a self sufficient reason.
84. The passage states that “the procedure to get information in a sealed cover was not an acceptable
procedure and was inconsistent with recognised form of pleadings”, what possible inference can be
drawn out from the quoted lines.
(a) Sealed cover practice is not an acceptable procedure and was inconsistent with recognised
form of pleadings.
(b) Sealed cover practice used by the Supreme Court and sometimes lower courts, of asking for
or accepting information from government agencies in sealed envelopes that can only be
accessed by judges.
(c) The court has reiterated its intention to examine the legality of the government filing
incriminating material in sealed covers without sharing the information with the accused/other
party.
(d) Information can be kept confidential if its publication is not considered to be in the interest of
the public.
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SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.106-Q.135): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow-
Passage (Q.85-Q.89): The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the National Commission
for Women (NCW) have done well to initiate action by taking suomotu notice of a newspaper report which
says that men in Rajasthan are selling their young daughters and sisters to repay loans. CM Ashok
Gehlot, who initially tried to dismiss the report as an ‘old one’, has had to bow down as clamor grew over
the horrible happenings. Along with the CM’s promise of catching and punishing the guilty, the NHRC and
NCW intervention should instill fear of the law of the land into anyone commodifying women.
Inevitably, the sold girls end up being sexually abused, tortured, enslaved and trafficked. One such girl, a
minor whose father had to sell her for Rs 6 lakh, is reported to have been sold three times and become
pregnant four times. The moneylenders are rich sharks who exploit poverty-ridden families stuck in the
quagmire of loans taken for the treatment of a sick family member or other exigencies. The scenario is the
main reason for the prevalence of an organized trafficking ring run by the high and mighty, enjoying
impunity. A thorough investigation and exemplary action against the criminals are warranted.
This regressive mode of justice is being delivered by caste panchayats, whose writ still runs in many rural
areas of North India. The disputing parties prefer to approach these kangaroo courts; non-compliance of
the verdict is a crushing ostracism from the community. Settling matters of marriage, inheritance and also,
apparently, loans, these panchayats have been largely known for ordering the ‘honor killing’ of couples
who opt for inter-caste or inter-faith marriages. It is abominable that such practices giving ownership
rights over girls and women to men should still be around in this age. Education of both boys and girls is
the key to gender equality and justice. It can change notions of what constitutes right and wrong. That
some khaps in Haryana are tilting towards progressive ideas is encouraging and should inspire
Rajasthan.
85. Why do people in rural areas of north India comply with the verdict of caste panchayats?
(a) They would be taken to the courts and prosecuted.
(b) They fear being shunned from their social life.
(c) Caste panchayats are an established institution.
(d) They would be highly regarded for compliance.
86. Which of the following is the most crucial logical course of action according to the author to prevent
trafficking in Rajasthan?
(a) To disperse and dismiss the proceedings of the caste panchayats
(b) To ensure that all moneylenders are put behind bars
(c) To ensure that all girls who have been sold are taken to safety
(d) To find a way to minimize the loans taken by the villagers
87. The best representation of the main concern of the passage is:
(a) Education and gender equality would help to minimize the issue of the Rajasthan incidents
and even similar ones.
(b) Preventive measures are more relevant than curative ones in human trafficking.
(c) Selling of girls is inhuman and intolerable in present times.
(d) Administration must admit responsibility for its blunders in Rajasthan.
88. What can be inferred from the information present in the passage?
(a) The CM of Rajasthan had tried to evade the issue by calling it false.
(b) The caste panchayats in villages is a novel form of justice delivery system.
(c) Education would help the villagers to avoid taking loans from money-lenders.
(d) It sometimes takes uproar for the authorities to react to miss-happenings.
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89. Out of the following, which incident is furthest from the incidents in Rajasthan where men sell their
sisters and daughters to repay loans?
(a) A man borrowed Rs. 15 lakhs from his neighbor and was forced by the Caste panchayats to
give their daughter.
(b) A man had to subject his mother to rape for not being able to repay loan that he took for his
child’s good health.
(c) A man was made to hand over his daughter to the creditor to settle the debt he took for his
mother’s health costs related to an accident.
(d) None of the options listed here.
Passage (Q.90-Q.94): Indian sport is on the cusp of a new age. If recent trends are anything to go by,
Indian stars are now winning medals in almost every international competition across sports and the
fundamental reason why this is now a reality is that there is a lot more money in sports. With direct
intervention from the prime minister, sport is now a priority for the government and the results have
started to show.
And all this has been possible because of the money that has come into sports. Even rewards have
grown exponentially for medal winners and sports stars now earn considerable wealth in the course of a
successful career; take the case of Neeraj Chopra. He is now one of India’s highest-paid stars. Chopra
received nearly `15 crore in the form of rewards after winning a gold medal in Tokyo and is now one of
India’s most sought-after celebrities. The same applies to PV Sindhu. Her two Olympic medals have
made her one of India’s best-known global stars and these athletes now come close to film personalities
in terms of earnings.
What is also a welcome sign is how some states have taken to sport and are now investing considerable
wealth in creating world-class infrastructure. The one state that has taken the lead in this regard is
Odisha. After multiple visits to the state and seeing the infrastructure, I can say with certainty that Odisha
will soon be the sporting capital of India in terms of infrastructure. With 22 hockey pitches spread across
sundargarh, Rourkela, and Bhubaneswar, football, shooting, badminton, and India’s first athletics indoor
stadium, the direct involvement of Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik has gone a long way to making the state
stand out in the sporting domain.
90. What is the intention of the author in the sentence, ‘all this has been possible because of the money
that has come into sports’?
(a) He is hinting at the increased investment in sports.
(b) He is enthusiastic about the increased private interest in sports to make profit.
(c) He is informing that nowadays sportsman being rewarded handsomely.
(d) He is informing about the increased budget of governments for sports facility.
91. What can be assumed in the opening statement of the passage?
(a) India is doing well in on-going international events.
(b) Indian sport is picking up with change of attitude.
(c) Now Indian public is opening up to other sports as well.
(d) Indian sportsmen are giving results despite lack of facilities.
92. What can be concluded from the passage?
(a) Will power of sportsmen can produce flying results.
(b) Vision of people in important positions can lead to growth of a field.
(c) Money is main motivational factor in the field of sports.
(d) Indian sports have come out of age of desperation.
93. What can be concluded about ‘celebrities’ from the passage?
(a) Celebrity status is temporary. (b) Celebrity can come from any field.
(c) Celebrity fame is instantaneous. (d) A lot of money comes with celebrity status.
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94. The advent Odisha as the sporting capital of India can translate in –
(a) Odisha getting an international sports event to host soon.
(b) Other states would follow the suit.
(c) It will be hosting majority of national championships.
(d) More quality sportsman can rise from Odisha in future.
Passage (Q.95-Q.99): National databases can prove to be quite helpful in increasing the efficiency of
administration. In India, there were several means of verifying identity, for e.g., electoral identity cards,
income-tax PAN cards, passports, ration cards, driving licenses, etc. But they weren’t capable to handle a
large population such as India’s. The concept behind Aadhaar was to formulate a centralized system for
India with one form of recognizable ID. Thus, reducing the use of birth certificates and ration cards which
were prone to lose and damage. The old system also left marginalized people especially the rural poor
struggling to obtain state services. Thus, the Aadhaar card scheme was started in 2010 by the then PM
Dr Manmohan Singh. The basic intention of the card is the identification of citizens and give them the
terminal benefits of the government schemes. Additionally, people can use the Aadhar card pan India as
an identity card. They can also link it with bank accounts, insurance, and pension. It is more than 12 years
since the first Aadhaar ID was issued and the technological backbone of the service has proved to be
robust and reliable. There has not been a single case of leakage of biometric information while the
Aadhaar rollout became the building block of India’s UPI and digital payments revolution. Now, the
Unique Identification Authority of India is looking at Aadhaar over the next 10 years as issuance of fresh
identities has levelled off and its expert panel, comprising faculty from the IITs and Indian Institute of
Science, is looking at the latest advances in AI, quantum and blockchain, to make Aadhaar more secure
and reduce user complaints. As of now, a staggering 1,000 schemes are being run using Aadhaar, with a
majority of two-thirds rolled out by the states. This is evidence of state-Centre cooperation that does not
make headlines as most chief ministers have recognised the value—and political benefits—of the
Aadhaar-based schemes.
95. What is true according to the passage?
(a) AADHAR has eliminated Ration cards, passports and driving licences as proof of identity
everywhere.
(b) Digital payments done through Aadhar linked platforms are safest mode of payments in
India.
(c) It is mandatory to link the personal and financial data with the Aadhar card.
(d) All of these.
96. What is the best argument against integration of all personal data with Aadhar platform?
(a) International hackers can steal the data from common platforms to initiate frauds.
(b) Government wants to spy on the activities of citizens to gather positive sentiments.
(c) Aadhar UPI does not provide a safe and user-friendly platform for transactions.
(d) Contract for making Aadhar cards has been given to private contractor by the government.
97. In the passage, the author has not-
(a) approved Aadhar as the proof of Indian citizenship.
(b) Informed about the updating of Aadhar technology.
(c) justified the need of Aadhar for financial inclusion.
(d) identified the purpose of government in introducing Aadhar.
98. Which of the following, if true, would be construed as misuse of Aadhar as per the passage?
(a) Electronic digital Aadhar cards that can be utilized to deter an accused to leave the country.
(b) Use of Aadhar with bank accounts and financial transactions to trace the income tax
obligations.
(c) Government procuring and selling the Aadhar data to companies to offer products to
individuals based on transactions and activities.
(d) All of the above
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99. Which of the following is a strong conclusion on basis of reading the passage?
(a) Aadhar is here to stay for ages to come.
(b) Aadhar is now a necessity and norm for every functioning citizen.
(c) With integration of data and adoption of AI, Aadhar make governments eye in the sky.
(d) None of these.
Passage (Q.100-Q.105): Ideas are of two kinds-primary and secondary: the first being the manifestation
of objective realities; the second, of the mental constitution. In both cases, they may be said to be self-
affirmed, that is, they carry in themselves their own evidence.
Yet these Ideas have no living energy in themselves. They are but the forms through a higher Power
manifests to the consciousness the supreme truth of all things real, in respect to the first class; and, in
respect to the second, the imaginative truths of the mental products, or mental combinations. Of the
nature and mode of operation of the Power we know nothing; we should be content with the assurance
that we have in it a sure guide to a reverent knowledge of the beauty and grandeur of his own reality. This
mysterious Power is essentially immanent in that "breath of life," by which man becomes "a living soul"?
Ideas are limited only by the number of kinds, without direct relation to degrees; every object, therefore,
having in itself a distinctive essential, has also its distinct idea; while two or more objects of the same
kind, however differing in degree, must consequently refer only to one and the same. For instance,
though a hundred animals should differ in size, strength, or colour, yet, if not one of these peculiarities are
essential to the species, they would all refer to the same supreme idea.
The same law applies equally, and with the same limitation, to the essential differences in the intellectual,
the moral, and the spiritual. All Ideas, however, have but a potential existence until they are called into the
consciousness by some real object; the required condition of the object being a predetermined
correspondence, or correlation. Every such object we term an assimilant. Though the assimilants
required are supplied by the senses, the senses have in themselves no productive, cooperating energy,
being but the passive instruments through which they are conveyed. That the senses, in this relation, are
merely passive, admits of no question, from the obvious difference between the idea and the objects. The
senses can do no more than transmit the external in its actual forms, leaving the images in the mind
exactly as they found them; whereas the intuitive power rejects, or assimilates, indefinitely, until they are
resolved into the proper perfect form. Now the power which prescribes that form must, of necessity, be
antecedent to the presentation of the objects which it thus assimilates, as it could not else give
consistency and unity to what was before separate or fragmentary. And every one who has ever realized
an idea of the class in which alone we compare the assimilants with the ideal form, be he poet, painter, or
philosopher, well knows the wide difference between the materials and their result.
When an Idea is thus realized and made objective, it affirms its own truth, nor can any process of the
understanding shake its foundation; it is to the mind an imperative truth, emerging from the dark potential
into the light of reality.
The relation between the actual and the ideal is one of necessity, and therefore, also, is the
predetermined correspondence between the prescribed form of an idea and its assimilant.
100. “The wide difference between the materials and the results” refers to
(a) the difference between the real object and the object conveyed by the senses.
(b) the difference between the object conveyed by the senses and the idea assimilated by our
consciousness.
(c) the difference between the idea and its assimilated form.
(d) the difference between the perfect idea and the assimilated idea.
101. The term ‘assimilant’ as used in the passage can best be described as:
(a) an idea that has a potential existence.
(b) an idea that exists in the consciousness only.
(c) the object that draws an idea into consciousness.
(d) the object that is drawn out of consciousness into the real world.
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102. The author uses the example of animals of varying sizes, strengths, and colour in order to illustrate
(a) the biggest limitation of ideas.
(b) the criteria for differentiating ideas.
(c) the difference in degrees of ideas.
(d) the unity in diversity of ideas.
103. It can be inferred that the author capitalizes the word “Idea”
(a) because he wants to draw the reader’s attention to the word.
(b) because he is writing on an abstract topic and wanted to keep the abstract style consistent.
(c) because he has used the word in a different sense than the normal meaning of the word.
(d) because he did not care about rules of punctuation.
104. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the senses and Ideas?
(a) The senses are passive while ideas are active and productive.
(b) The senses and objects together bring ideas into existence.
(c) The senses are antecedent to ideas and give consistency and unity to ideas.
(d) The senses are the medium of transmission; ideas are the objects transmitted.
105. Pointing to a man in a photograph a woman said, "His brother's father is husband of my son's
maternal grandmother" then how that woman is related to man in photograph?
(a) Mother (b) Sister (c) Aunt (d) Wife
Passage (Q.106-Q.108): The future of Indian cities has played out in horrifying detail over the past 48
hours. Unprecedented rainfall has inundated one poorly planned neighbourhood after another in
Bengaluru, forcing authorities in India’s information technology capital to use rafts, tractors, and dinghies
to help people wade through waist-high sheets of slush and water. The civic administration appears to
have been caught unawares. Unfortunately, Bengaluru is not an outlier. The toxic combination of poor
urban planning, rampant flouting of rules, lax governance hindered further by red tape, and intensifying
effects of the climate crisis has brought our cities to their knees. India has been here several times before
— in Mumbai in 2005, Chennai in 2015, Gurugram in 2016, Hyderabad in 2020, Kolkata in 2021, and
Delhi in 2021 — with authorities conveniently blaming the climate crisis each time.
India’s cities are drivers of commerce and the nodes of economic activity. Rapid urbanisation is likely to
drive more people into the country’s already stretched cities, which are estimated to hold four of every 10
Indians in another decade. In earlier times, untrammelled development would be the response of
administrators to house people and set up more industrial units. But repeated flooding and increasing
vagaries in climate patterns mean that the cities of tomorrow will not only have to balance development
with environmental protection, but also implement robust climate protection plans. Indian cities,
irrespective of where they are located, need to plan and invest more in climate resilience for their survival,
also because disruptions will have a domino effect on other
cities too in the form of migration. To do so, first, cities must reduce their carbon footprint, strengthen
natural defences (such as mangroves and wetlands), audit drainage networks — in many cities,
stormwater pipes and sewers are from the colonial era — focus on creating transport and urban
infrastructure that adapt to a changing climate, and protect natural water bodies and run-offs instead of
choking them with debris. Policymakers will also need to look at safeguarding poor and marginalised
communities, which bear the brunt of climate vagaries but are seldom considered while drawing up
master plans.
106. What is the best representation of the passage’s main idea?
(a) Bangalore’s current plight may be the future of Indian cities if climate action is not core to
urban planning.
(b) The authorities must ensure that the catastrophe in Bangalore is not repeated in any other
city.
(c) At present times, Bangalore gives the other cities an important lesson on the consequences
of neglecting climate change.
(d) The future of Indian cities is at stake, especially when the authorities refuse to learn from the
warnings from nature.
27
107. Which among the following follows from the passage, if the information in the passage is assumed
to be true?
(a) Going forward, the number of people residing in non-urban areas of India is going to reduce.
(b) The number of people residing in urban areas is sure to increase in the foreseeable future.
(c) Bengaluru is not the only city to suffer due to climate crisis, there are others as well.
(d) All of the above
108. Which of the following is explicitly mentioned as a reason for focussing on climate action going
forward?
i. Rapid urbanisation will bring in more people to the cities.
ii. Climate patterns have become more and more varied in recent times.
iii. Disruptions in one city would affect other cities as well.
(a) Only i and ii (b) Only ii and iii (c) Only i and iii (d) All of the above
SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions(Q.109-Q.113): A manufacturing company ‘ABC’ produces a product which has five months
demand cycle.
In January, units demanded are 100 more than that is demanded in May. Units demanded in April and
March is half and twice of the units demanded in May respectively. Units demanded in February are 25%
more than that is demanded in March.
Average units demanded in five months are equal to total units demanded in January.
Working days/month: Average of working days/month in these five months is 20.8 days. Working days in
January is equal to total working days in May and working days in February, March and April are equal
which is 2 days less than that in May.
Company maintains safety stock of 20% of total units demanded in that particular month and each month
safety stock becomes the opening stock for the next month and opening stock for January is 30 units.
→ 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 = 𝐷𝑒𝑚𝑎𝑛𝑑 + 𝑠𝑎𝑓𝑒𝑡𝑦 𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑐𝑘 − 𝑜𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑐𝑘
109. Find the ratio of opening stock of April to the safety stock of February month.
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 4 : 5
110. Find the total units required to produce in March and May together are what percent of total units
demanded in February?
(a) 120% (b) 100% (c) 80% (d) 125%
111. Sum of number of units produced per day in January and March are what percent more or less than
the total number of working days in February and April together?
(a) 10% (b) 12 12% (c) 15% (d) 20%
112. In which of the given five months, production required is highest?
(a) January (b) February (c) March (d) April
113. Number of units in opening stock of January and May month together is how much more or less
than that of opening stock of June, if company manufactures product throughout the year?
(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 10
28
Directions(Q.114-Q.116): Number of students studying in different faculties in Seven institutions
Institution Faculty
Art Commerce Science Engineering Management
A 125 187 216 98 74
B 96 152 198 157 147
C 144 235 110 164 127
D 165 138 245 66 36
E 215 196 287 86 66
F 184 212 195 112 97
G 225 206 182 138 89
114. What is the percentage of students studying Science to the total number of students studying in the
institute G?
(a) 17.20 (b) 12.70 (c) 2113 (d) 2123
115. Out of the total students of the institute D, approximately, what percentage of students are studying
Management?
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 5
116. The total number of students studying Art in institutes A, B and C together is approximately what per
cent of total number of students studying Commerce in institutes D, E, F and G together?
(a) 50 (b) 45 (c) 42 (d) 55
Directions (Q.117-Q.120): Answer the question based on the information given below.
Four shoe companies (Puma, Adidas, Reebok and Nike) sold two types of shoes i.e. sports shoes and
sneakers, in March. Number of sports shoes and number of sneakers sold by Puma in March are in the
ratio of 3:4, respectively. Total number of shoes sold by Puma in March is 30% less than the total number
of shoes sold by Adidas in March. Total numbers of shoes sold by Reebok, Adidas and Nike in March are
in the ratio of 4:5:7, respectively. Number of sneakers sold by Reebok in March is 40% less than the
number of sports shoes sold by Reebok in March. Number of sports shoes sold by Adidas in March is
twice the number of sneakers sold by Reebok in March. Equal number of sports shoes and sneakers are
sold by Nike in March. Average number of sports shoes sold in March are 450 more than the average
number of sneakers sold in March.
117. Number of sports shoes sold by Nike in March is what percentage less/more than the number of
sneakers sold by Adidas in March?
(a) 42.85% (b) 54% (c) 66.66% (d) 75%
118. What is the average number of shoes sold by all the four companies in March?
(a) 5650 (b) 5750 (c) 5850 (d) 5950
119. If the number of sneakers and the number of sports shoes sold by Nike in April are 25% less and
20% less than the respective number of sneakers and sports shoes sold by Nike in March, then find
the total number of shoes sold by Nike in April.
(a) 6480 (b) 6510 (c) 6540 (d) 6570
120. What is the ratio of the number of ports shoes sold by Adidas in March to the total number of shoes
sold by Nike in March?
(a) 1:3 (b) 2:5 (c) 3:7 (d) 5:11
29

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CLAT TEST

• Total Question 120 questions.

SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

SECTION - C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions(Q.55-Q.105): Read the comprehension and answer the questions:

SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

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