INSTA STATIC QUIZ

SEPTEMBER 2024

WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM INSIGHTSIAS
 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Table of Contents

1. GEOGRAPHY ...................................................................................................................................... 2

2. HISTORY............................................................................................................................................. 9

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. Geography
1) Consider the following statements. 1. More diversity of landforms can be
1. Along much of the Pacific Ring of Fire, observed in oceans than continents.
tectonic plates move towards each other creating 2. Continental crust is denser than ocean
subduction zones. crust.
2. Subduction zones are also where most of 3. Pacific Ocean is the largest ocean and it is
the violent earthquakes on the planet occur. almost equal to the area of all other oceans
3. In the past 50 years, the Indian Plate has combined.
been stable and has not seen any subduction. How many of the above statements are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one
a) 1, 2 b) Only two
b) 1 only c) All three
c) 1, 3 d) None
d) 1, 2, 3
6) Which of the following statements best defines
2) Which of the following regions of the world Landforms of First Order?
is/are seismically active? a) Landforms that are formed primarily due
1. Mid-Atlantic Ridges to erosion and deposition processes
2. Alpine-Himalayan belt b) Landforms that include small features
3. Central Africa such as valleys, ridges, and floodplains
Select the correct answer code: c) The largest landforms formed by tectonic
a) 1, 2 processes, including continents and ocean
b) 1, 2, 3 basins
c) 1, 3 d) Landforms formed exclusively by volcanic
d) 1 only activity

3) Arrange the following elements of the Earth’s 7) Which of the following is most presented as
crust in the decreasing order of their weights (in evidence for the Continental Drift Theory?
%). a) Ocean floor spreading at mid-oceanic
1. Silicon ridges
2. Iron b) The mirror image of the coastlines of
3. Aluminium South America and Africa
4. Calcium c) Similar mountain ranges found on
5. Magnesium different continents
Select the correct answer code: d) Volcanic activity along tectonic plate
a) 1-3-4-2-5 boundaries
b) 1-3-2-4-5
c) 1-3-5-2-4 8) Consider the following statements related to
d) 1-3-4-5-2 Alfred Wegener’s theory of continental drift:
1. Wegener proposed that the centrifugal
4) The iron catastrophe was a postulated major force increases towards the poles,
geological event early in the history of Earth. It contributing to the drift of continents.
refers to 2. Wegener suggested that tidal forces
a) Erosion of minerals from earth’s crust due caused by the gravitational pull of the moon
to solar winds acted from west to east, influencing
b) Large scale homogenization of Iron continental drift.
deposits due to repeated ice ages 3. According to Wegener, the Earth's
c) Widespread dispersion of iron and nickel gravitational pull was responsible for the
from the interior of the earth towards crust eastward drift of the continents.
d) Sinking of heavy metals such as iron and Which of the above statements is/are correct?
nickel in the core during a geologically brief period. a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
5) Consider the following statements.
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) 1 only 1. All volcanoes are formed at tectonic plate
d) None of the above boundaries.
2. Subduction zones are where two tectonic
9) Consider the following statements about sea- plates move away from each other.
floor spreading and ocean floor topography: 3. Hotspot volcanism occurs only at plate
1. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is the longest boundaries.
continuous mountain chain on Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Deep-sea trenches are formed at a) 1 only
divergent plate boundaries where new b) 2 only
ocean floor is created. c) 3 only
3. Sea-floor spreading leads to the recycling d) None of the above
of oceanic crust into the mantle at
subduction zones. 13) Consider the following statements about the
4. Earth’s magnetic studies have provided Ring of Fire:
evidence to support the hypothesis of sea- 1. The Ring of Fire forms a complete circle
floor spreading. around the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. A volcanic eruption in one part of the Ring
a) 1 and 2 only of Fire can trigger eruptions elsewhere in the
b) 2 and 3 only ring.
c) 1 and 4 only 3. The majority of the world’s active
d) 3 and 4 only volcanoes are located along the Ring of Fire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
10) Consider the following statements regarding the a) 1 and 2 only
theory of plate tectonics: b) 3 only
1. The lithosphere consists of tectonic plates c) 1 and 3 only
that are in continuous motion due to mantle d) 2 and 3 only
convection.
2. Earthquakes and volcanic activity 14) Which of the following features is NOT
primarily occur within the interior of associated with a convergent plate boundary?
tectonic plates, far from their boundaries. a) Mid-ocean ridges
3. Divergent plate boundaries are where b) Ocean trenches
tectonic plates move towards each other, c) Volcanic arcs
leading to the formation of mountain d) Subduction zones
ranges.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 15) Consider the following statements regarding
a) 1 only convergent plate boundaries:
b) 1 and 2 only 1. Convergent boundaries always result in
c) 2 and 3 only the formation of volcanic islands.
d) 1, 2, and 3 2. The Aleutian Islands are formed due to
the subduction of the North American Plate
11) Which of the following processes is mainly beneath the Pacific Plate.
responsible for the formation of volcanoes at 3. Subduction at convergent boundaries can
subduction zones? create deep ocean trenches.
a) The collision of tectonic plates releases 4. The Andes Mountains are a result of the
carbon dioxide that forms magma. subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the
b) The melting of the Earth's core causes South American Plate.
magma to rise to the surface. Which of the statements given above are correct?
c) Water released from rocks lowers the a) 1 and 2
melting point of the overlying rock, forming b) 3 and 4
magma. c) 1 and 3
d) Earth's magnetic field draws magma d) 2 and 4
toward the surface.
16) Consider the following statements regarding the
12) Consider the following statements about relationship between air pressure and weather:
volcano formation:
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1. High air pressure usually indicates calm 3. Isohyets are used to indicate changes in
and clear weather conditions. air pressure.
2. Low air pressure is often associated with Which of the above statements is/are correct?
stormy and unsettled weather. a) 1 only
3. Air pressure decreases when the weight of b) 1 and 2 only
the air particles increases. c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) None of the above
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only 20) Which of the following regions is associated with
c) 2 and 3 only the absence of surface winds and is known as
d) 1, 2 and 3 the doldrums?
a) Polar regions
17) Consider the following statements about the b) Subtropical high-pressure belt
Equatorial Low Pressure Belt: c) Equatorial Low Pressure Belt
1. The Equatorial Low Pressure Belt extends d) Temperate low-pressure belt
from 10º N to 10º S latitudes.
2. It is characterized by strong horizontal 21) What is the primary source of energy that fuels a
surface winds. tropical cyclone's intensity?
3. This region is also known as the Inter- a) Friction between air and water surfaces
Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). b) Solar radiation heating the ocean surface
4. The belt experiences significant seasonal c) The condensation process in
variation in its location due to the shifting of cumulonimbus clouds
the sun’s rays. d) Heat released from the Earth’s core
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only 22) What happens when a cold air mass moves over
b) 2 and 4 only a warmer region?
c) 1 and 4 only a) The air mass gets trapped near the
d) 3 and 4 only surface, creating dense fog
b) The warmer ground heats the bottom
18) Consider the following statements regarding the layer of the cold air mass, causing it to rise,
relationship between wind and the Coriolis forming clouds and potentially
force: thunderstorms
1. The Coriolis force is responsible for c) The cold air mass cools the ground,
deflecting winds towards their right in the leading to frost formation
Northern Hemisphere. d) The cold air mass retains its
2. The pressure gradient determines the characteristics and does not affect the new
direction of the wind across isobars. region
3. The Coriolis force is absent along the
equator but increases toward the poles. 23) Consider the following statements about air
4. The greater the pressure gradient, the masses and their role in weather patterns:
lower the wind speed. 1. The transport of latent heat by air masses
Which of the above statements are correct? helps reduce the temperature gradient
a) 1 and 3 only between the equator and the poles.
b) 2 and 4 only 2. Air masses originating over oceans tend to
c) 1 and 2 only have higher moisture content and are more
d) 3 and 4 only likely to cause precipitation over land.
3. When two air masses with similar
19) Consider the following statements: temperature and moisture content meet,
1. Latent heat of vaporization is released storms and atmospheric disturbances are
when water changes from vapor to liquid likely to occur.
form. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. Sublimation occurs when water changes a) 1 and 2 only
from a liquid to a solid state without b) 2 and 3 only
becoming vapor. c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
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where new oceanic crust is formed.
24) Consider the following statements regarding the d) They can extend 8-11 km below sea level.
formation and development of extratropical
cyclones: 28) Consider the following statements about air
1. Extratropical cyclones have both warm masses and their influence on regional weather:
and cold fronts. 1. The characteristics of an air mass are
2. The warm air in an extratropical cyclone determined by the region over which it
moves from the north towards the south in forms, known as the source region.
the northern hemisphere. 2. When a warm air mass moves over colder
3. The cold front in an extratropical cyclone ground, the air mass is heated from below,
moves faster than the warm front, causing it to rise and potentially form
eventually causing occlusion. thunderstorms.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 3. Cold air masses tend to flow toward the
a) Only one equator, while warm air masses tend to flow
b) Only two toward the poles, helping balance global
c) All three temperatures.
d) None How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
25) Consider the following statements regarding b) Only two
tropical cyclones: c) All three
1. The eye of a tropical cyclone is a region of d) None
intense storms with the highest wind
speeds. 29) Consider the following statements about the life
2. Cyclones continue to gain strength after cycle of an extratropical cyclone:
making landfall because of the increased 1. A stationary front is the initial stage in the
friction with land surfaces. development of an extratropical cyclone.
3. Tropical cyclones are more frequently 2. The cyclonic circulation in the northern
developed over oceans between 5°N and 5°S hemisphere is clockwise due to the
latitude. interaction between warm and cold air
Which of the above statements is/are correct? masses.
a) 1 and 3 only 3. Extratropical cyclones dissipate after the
b) 2 and 3 only cold front overtakes the warm front, leading
c) 1, 2, and 3 to the occlusion of the cyclone.
d) None of the above Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
26) Which of the following statements correctly b) 2 only
describes the movement of extratropical c) 1 and 2 only
cyclones? d) 1, 2, and 3
a) Extratropical cyclones generally move
from east to west 30) Consider the following statements regarding the
b) Extratropical cyclones move from west to differences between tropical and extratropical
east cyclones:
c) Extratropical cyclones move north to 1. Tropical cyclones are characterized by a
south clear frontal system, unlike extratropical
d) Extratropical cyclones remain stationary cyclones.
over their origin 2. Extratropical cyclones generally form in
low-latitude tropical regions, while tropical
27) Which of the following is NOT true about deep- cyclones form in mid-latitudes.
sea trenches? 3. The wind velocity in extratropical cyclones
a) They are formed by the process of is typically higher than in tropical cyclones,
subduction. making them more destructive.
b) They are often associated with volcanic How many of the above statements is/are correct?
activity and earthquakes. a) Only one
c) They are located near mid-ocean ridges b) Only two
c) All three
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
d) None 35) Consider the following statements regarding the
abyssal plains:
31) Consider the following statements about the 1. Abyssal plains are devoid of any geological
continental shelf: features such as seamounts or submarine
1. The depth of the water over the plateaus.
continental shelf ranges between 120 and 2. The sediments covering the abyssal plains
370 kilometers. near continents are primarily volcanic in
2. Continental shelves are always wider origin.
along coasts that do not have fold 3. Abyssal plains with abundant marine life
mountains running parallel to them. are often covered with oozes, sediments
3. Continental shelves are primarily formed formed from the remains of marine
by the erosional work of waves or by glacial organisms.
deposits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only
a) Only one b) 2 only
b) Only two c) 3 only
c) All three d) 1 and 3 only
d) None
36) What is the primary factor responsible for the
32) Why are continental shelves particularly formation of waves on the ocean surface?
important for the fishing industry? a) The gravitational pull of the Moon
a) They have strong ocean currents that trap b) The movement of ocean currents
large quantities of fish c) The blowing of wind and transfer of
b) The shelves are deeper than the open energy through friction
ocean, attracting more fish species d) The temperature difference between
c) Fish migrate from deep waters to breed ocean layers
on the shelves
d) The shallow waters allow sunlight to 37) Which of the following statements is true about
reach the ocean floor, promoting plankton the size of ocean waves?
growth a) The largest waves are usually found near
coastal regions where the land meets the
33) Which of the following resources is not ocean.
commonly found on continental shelves? b) Waves can only form in shallow water
a) Petroleum close to the shoreline.
b) Gold c) Rogue waves are the result of normal
c) Natural gas oceanic wave patterns and are common in
d) Sand and gravel all oceans.
d) The smallest category of waves is called
34) Consider the following statements about the ripples, which are less than one foot high.
continental slope:
1. The gradient of the continental slope is 38) Consider the following statements about
generally about 15 degrees. tsunami waves:
2. The continental slope is characterized by 1. Tsunami waves in the deep ocean are
significant sediment deposition due to its usually much higher than those near the
proximity to the coast. shore.
3. The continental slope is the most 2. A tsunami is a single wave created by
biologically rich region of the ocean due to underwater disturbances like earthquakes.
the abundance of sunlight and nutrients. 3. Tsunami waves can travel at speeds of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? hundreds of kilometers per hour in deep
a) 1 only ocean waters.
b) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
c) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only
d) None of the above b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
39) Consider the following statements regarding the d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
impact of freshwater influx on ocean salinity:
1. Freshwater influx from rivers and rainfall 43) With reference to the formation of oil, gas, and
lowers ocean salinity in coastal regions. minerals, consider the following statements:
2. Freezing and thawing of ice in polar 1. Oil forms when marine plants and animals
regions have no effect on ocean salinity. are buried under layers of sediment and
3. The surface salinity at river mouths such subjected to heat and pressure.
as the Amazon and Ganga is higher than the 2. Natural gas is formed from marine plants
average ocean salinity. and animals under conditions of higher heat
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? and pressure compared to oil.
a) 1 only 3. Minerals generally form from the
b) 1 and 2 only solidification of lava from volcanoes.
c) 2 and 3 only 4. Sand and gravel are products of slow-
d) None of the above moving rivers depositing sediments into the
ocean.
40) Which of the following correctly describes the How many of the above statements is/are correct?
impact of tides on the intertidal zone of a marine a) Only one
ecosystem? b) Only two
a) Tides have no effect on the organisms in c) Only three
the intertidal zone. d) All four
b) Tides submerge and expose the intertidal
zone, requiring organisms to adapt to both 44) With reference to the problem of
underwater and dry conditions. bioaccumulation and biomagnification in marine
c) The intertidal zone remains permanently environments, consider the following
underwater regardless of tidal activity. statements:
d) Tides reduce biodiversity in the intertidal 1. Toxic contaminants accumulate on the
zone by limiting the availability of food. surface of plastic materials in the ocean.
2. Marine organisms that ingest
41) Which of the following statements about the microplastics or nano plastics can experience
evolution of marine life forms is correct? bioaccumulation of toxic substances.
a) Fish were the first marine life forms to 3. Biomagnification leads to higher
evolve. concentrations of toxins in predators higher
b) Marine plants evolved before marine up the food chain.
animals. 4. The ingestion of plastics by marine life has
c) Most marine life forms have not changed no impact on human health.
much in the last billion years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d) Marine life began in shallow waters and a) 1 and 4
later moved to deeper oceans. b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 2 and 4
42) Match the following marine features with their d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
descriptions:
Feature Description 45) The Red Sea is a strip of water and an inlet of the
A. Fringing 1. Forms around an underwater Indian Ocean occupying the area separating the
reef volcano and becomes a circular atoll. continent of Africa from Asia. The countries
bordering the Red Sea are
B. Barrier 2. Forms along the shore but at a 1. Saudi Arabia
reef distance with deep water in between. 2. Djibouti
C. Atoll 3. Forms when coral larvae attach to 3. Ethiopia
reef rocks along the coastline. 4. Yemen
D. Coral 4. Tiny creatures that attach to rocks 5. Egypt
larvae underwater to form coral. How many of the above options is/are correct?
Select the correct answer code: a) Only two
a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 b) Only three
b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 c) Only four
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d) All five 2. It has marshy land and supports luxurious
vegetation and varied wildlife.
46) Which of the following mountain ranges is 3. This region is known for the cultivation of
parallel to the main Himalayan range and lies to sugarcane, rice, and wheat.
the north of the Yarlung Tsangpo River? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Zanskar Range a) 1 and 2 only
b) Trans Himalayas b) 2 only
c) Pir Panjal Range c) 1 and 3 only
d) Karakoram Range d) 1, 2, and 3

47) Consider the following statements about the 51) Consider the following statements about the
Trans Himalayas: influence of jet streams on weather patterns:
1. They are mainly composed of sedimentary 1. Jet streams can help steer weather
rocks. systems such as cyclones.
2. The Trans Himalayas are divided by deep 2. They form at the boundaries of high and
river gorges, similar to the main Himalayas. low pressure systems.
3. The Trans Himalayas represent an Island 3. Jet streams influence both summer and
Arc. winter monsoon seasons in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. They generally blow at altitudes of 1-2 km.
a) 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
b) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3, and 4 only
d) None of the above c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
48) Consider the following statements about the
Tethys Himalayas: 52) Consider the following statements regarding the
1. They are composed of marine-origin sub-tropical westerly jet stream:
sediments. 1. It is active during the summer season in
2. Zaskar and Kailash ranges are part of the the northern hemisphere.
Tethys Himalayas. 2. It splits into two over the Indian
3. The Tethys Himalayas are clearly subcontinent due to the Himalayan
separated from the Greater Himalayas. mountain system.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 3. It descends over the north-western part of
a) Only one India, causing atmospheric stability.
b) Only two How many of the above statements is/are correct?
c) All three a) Only one
d) None b) Only two
c) All three
49) Which of the following best describes the d) None
Bhabar plains?
a) A marshy tract with rich vegetation and 53) Match the following jet streams with their
wildlife features:
b) A region formed by younger alluvium Jet Stream Features
from rivers, ideal for agriculture A. Sub-tropical 1. Prominent during Indian
c) A narrow belt of 8-10 km parallel to the westerly jet monsoon
Shiwalik foothills where streams deposit
heavy materials like rocks and boulders B. Equatorial easterly 2. Splits due to the
d) A deltaic region with marshy lands known jet Himalayan mountains
as Bils C. Polar front jet
3. Found in the polar region
stream
50) Consider the following statements about the D. Tropical easterly 4. Associated with winter
Tarai region: jet stream weather in India
1. The Tarai region is located south of the Options:
Bhabar plains. a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
b) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
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c) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 1. Continental shelves are important for
d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 fisheries because plankton growth is
abundant in these shallow waters.
54) Consider the following statements about 2. Petroleum extraction is primarily done in
Western Disturbances: deep ocean waters and not on continental
1. They cause unseasonal rainfall in northern shelves.
India during the winter months. 3. Coral reefs are commonly found in the
2. They help in maintaining moderate winter deep ocean, far from continental shelves.
temperatures across the Indian Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
subcontinent. a) 1 and 2 only
3. They originate as extra-tropical cyclones b) 2 and 3 only
in the Mediterranean region. c) 1 only
4 They bring cold wave conditions to d) 1, 2, and 3
southern India during the monsoon.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 58) Which of the following statements is correct
a) Only one about the sediments found on abyssal plains?
b) Only two a) All abyssal plains are covered with
c) Only three volcanic sediments.
d) All four b) The red clay found on some abyssal plains
is composed of material from land and
55) Consider the following statements about the volcanic origin.
impact of the southwest monsoon: c) The ooze that covers the abyssal plains is
1. The southwest monsoon is responsible for formed from non-organic material
the majority of annual rainfall in India. transported by ocean currents.
2. The intensity of monsoon rainfall d) Abyssal plains do not have any significant
increases with distance from the sea. sediment accumulation.
3. Monsoonal rainfall is crucial for the Kharif
crops in India. 59) Which of the following factors does NOT affect
4. Breaks in the monsoon often coincide the size of ocean waves?
with cyclonic activity in the Bay of Bengal. a) Wind speed
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? b) Wind duration
a) 1, 3, and 4 only c) The fetch (distance over which the wind
b) 2 and 3 only blows)
c) 1 and 4 only d) The depth of the ocean at the point of
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 wave formation

56) Consider the following statements regarding the 60) Consider the following statements about the
influence of air masses on weather: factors influencing salinity:
1. The moisture content of an air mass 1. Atmospheric pressure has no effect on
determines its ability to cause precipitation ocean salinity.
when it moves over land. 2. Anti-cyclonic conditions with stable air
2. Cyclones and storms often develop in the and high temperatures increase salinity.
contact zones between different air masses. 3. Wind direction does not influence salinity
3. Stable air masses are more likely to cause distribution in the ocean.
storms and precipitation due to their vertical Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
temperature profile. a) 2 only
How many of the above statements is/are correct? b) 1 and 3 only
a) Only one c) 1 and 2 only
b) Only two d) 2 and 3 only
c) All three
d) None 61) The characteristic red colour of Laterite soils
comes from
57) Consider the following statements regarding the a) The phyllosilicate group of minerals found
importance of continental shelves: in it

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
b) Their high calcium component
c) The iron oxide present in the soil
d) The poor content of phosphoric acid

62) Consider the following statements.

1. Alluvial soil is also known as ‘self-
ploughing’ soil.
2. Saline soils are found in arid and semi-arid
regions, and in waterlogged and swampy
areas.
3. Black soil is important for growing of
plantation crops.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3

63) Consider the following statements.

1. The laterite soils develop in areas with
high temperature and high rainfall.
2. Red soil develops on crystalline igneous
rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern
and southern part of the Deccan Plateau.
3. The black soil retains the moisture for a
very long time.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

64) Which of the following vegetation is/are found

in Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
1. Moist deciduous forest
2. Tropical evergreen forest
3. Sub-montane forest
4. Littoral forest
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3, 4

65) Consider the following statements.

1. ‘Shadow zone’ of an earthquake refers to
the zone where the tendency of experiencing an
earthquake is the maximum.
2. S-waves produced by an earthquake can
travel only through solid materials.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
4) Which of the following was a significant
2. History outcome of the Provincial elections held in
British India in 1936-37?
1) Consider the following statements regarding the a) The Congress formed governments in all
Communal Award of 1932: eleven provinces.
1. The Communal Award was based on the b) The elections led to the complete boycott
recommendations of the Indian Franchise of British institutions by the Congress.
Committee, also known as the Lothian c) The Congress successfully formed
Committee. governments in seven out of eleven
2. The Communal Award provided for provinces.
separate electorates for multiple d) The elections resulted in the revival of the
communities, including Muslims, Sikhs, and Civil Disobedience Movement.
the depressed classes.
3. The seats in the provincial legislatures 5) Consider the following statements regarding
were to be distributed equally among all India's participation in the Second World War:
communities. 1. Viceroy Linlithgow declared India’s
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? participation in WWII without consulting
a) 1 and 2 only Indian political leaders, leading to
b) 2 and 3 only widespread discontent.
c) 1 and 3 only 2. The Indian National Congress supported
d) 1, 2, and 3 the British war effort unconditionally, hoping
to gain favor for independence after the
2) The Poona Pact of 1932 primarily focused on war.
which of the following issues? 3. The Congress Working Committee
a) The division of electoral seats among resolution condemned fascist aggression and
various religious communities imperialism while offering conditional
b) The reservation of electoral seats for the support to the British war effort.
Depressed Classes in the legislature of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
British India a) 1 and 2 only
c) The abolition of untouchability in British b) 1, 2, and 3
India c) 2 and 3 only
d) The formation of separate electorates for d) 1 and 3 only
Muslims and Sikhs
6) Consider the following statements about the
3) Consider the following statements regarding the early and public trials of Indian National Army
Government of India Act, 1935: (INA) personnel:
1. The Act provided for the establishment of 1. Early trials of INA personnel were
an All India Federation consisting of conducted in secrecy and did not receive
provinces and princely states as units, but much publicity or political attention.
the federation never came into being. 2. The public trials at the Red Fort involved
2. The Act introduced diarchy at the key figures like Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem
provincial level while abolishing it at the Sahgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon.
Centre. 3. All INA personnel were charged and tried
3. The Act extended communal under Section 121 of the Indian Penal Code,
representation by providing separate which pertains to waging war against the
electorates for Scheduled Castes, women, King.
and labourers. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) All three d) None
d) None
7) Consider the following statements regarding the
Rajagopalachari Formula:

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. The formula proposed cooperation 3. The Wavell Plan did not provide any
between the Muslim League and Congress in guarantee of Indian independence or
forming a provisional government at the address the issue of a future constituent
center. assembly.
2. It called for a plebiscite in Hindu-majority Which of the above statements is/are correct?
areas to decide whether they wanted to a) 1 and 3 only
remain part of India or join a separate b) 2 and 3 only
sovereign state. c) 3 only
3. The Rajagopalachari Formula was d) 1, 2, and 3
accepted by both the Congress and the
Muslim League as the basis for future 11) Which of the following statements about the
negotiations. later Mughals is correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. The later Mughal emperors were able to
a) 1, 2, and 3 suppress the Maratha expansion.
b) 1 and 3 only 2. Nadir Shah’s invasion had little impact on
c) 2 and 3 only Mughal military strength.
d) 1 only 3. The successors of Aurangzeb were weak
rulers who were often manipulated by
8) Consider the following statements regarding the nobles.
Cabinet Mission Plan: Select the correct answer using the codes below:
1. The Plan proposed a federal structure a) 1 only
with a Union government controlling Foreign b) 2 and 3 only
Affairs, Defence, and Communications. c) 3 only
2. The Plan allowed provinces to form d) 1 and 3 only
groups with their own Executives and
Legislatures. 12) Which of the following best explains the failure
3. The Plan gave the Princely States the of Aurangzeb’s policies in sustaining the Mughal
option to either join the Union or remain Empire?
independent of both the Union and the a) He expanded the empire too rapidly
British government. b) He ignored the threat of foreign invasions
How many of the above statements is/are correct? c) He spent too much on architectural
a) Only one projects
b) Only two d) He alienated key allies like the Rajputs
c) All three
d) None 13) Consider the following statements regarding
British supremacy in India:
9) Which of the following was a key feature of the 1. The British recruited soldiers based on
Wavell Plan regarding the composition of the merit rather than caste or clan.
Executive Council? 2. Indian rulers often relied on personal
a) Equal representation for Caste Hindus and connections rather than merit in the
Muslims selection of military officers.
b) Dominance of the British members in the 3. The British lacked experienced leadership,
Council but still managed to overpower Indian forces
c) Exclusion of Muslims from the Council due to financial strength.
d) Complete control of the Council by the How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Indian National Congress a) Only one
b) Only two
10) Consider the following statements regarding the c) All three
Wavell Plan: d) None
1. The Wavell Plan proposed the immediate
Indianization of the Executive Council with 14) Match the following events from the Anglo-
no British members. French rivalry with their outcomes:
2. The Plan suggested that the governor-
general’s veto would no longer be applicable
in the Executive Council’s decisions.
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Event Outcome 1. Police action was taken in Hyderabad
A. First Carnatic 1. Madras returned to the after negotiations with the Nizam failed.
War British 2. The military operation in Hyderabad is
known as "Operation Polo."
B. Second Carnatic 3. Travancore was annexed through military
2. Robert Clive captured Arcot
War action due to its refusal to join India.
C. Battle of St. 3. French defeated Nawab of How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Thome Carnatic a) Only one
D. Treaty of 4. Status quo of territories at b) Only two
Pondicherry the end of the war c) All three
Options: d) None
a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 18) Consider the following statements regarding the
c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 post-independence integration of princely
d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 states:
1. The Indian government offered privy
15) Consider the following statements about the purses to the rulers of major states as
Anglo-French rivalry in India: compensation for surrendering their
1. The First Carnatic War demonstrated the sovereignty.
importance of naval power in colonial 2. The smaller princely states were granted
conflicts. complete autonomy after independence.
2. The Treaty of Pondicherry, which ended 3. The privy purse arrangements were not
the Second Carnatic War, restored all guaranteed by the Constitution.
territories to their pre-war status. Which of the above statements is correct?
3. The French successfully established a) 1 and 2 only
dominance in the Carnatic region following b) 1 only
the Second Carnatic War. c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is correct? d) 1, 2, and 3
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only 19) Consider the following statements regarding the
c) 2 and 3 only People’s Plan (1945) and the Bombay Plan
d) 3 only (1944):
1. The People’s Plan advocated the
16) Consider the following statements regarding the collectivization of agriculture and consumer
Government’s stance on the princely states’ goods industries.
integration: 2. The Bombay Plan emphasized the
1. The government rejected the establishment of a balanced economy by
independence aspirations of princely states reducing the predominance of agriculture.
like Travancore and Hyderabad. 3. Both plans emphasized the nationalization
2. The Instrument of Accession was signed of land and industries.
by princely states to merge their territories How many of the above statements is/are correct?
with Pakistan. a) Only one
3. The majority of princely states willingly b) Only two
joined the Indian Union due to the c) All three
overwhelming support of their residents. d) None
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only 20) Consider the following statements about
b) 2 only linguistic reorganization of states in India:
c) 1 and 3 only 1. The Indian nationalist movement
d) 3 only advocated for linguistic states even during
the colonial period.
17) Consider the following statements regarding 2. The creation of linguistic states was
military action taken by the Indian government opposed by all central leadership after
during the integration of princely states: independence due to fears of fragmentation.

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
3. The formation of linguistic states helped 3. The treaty was signed just before the
democratize politics by breaking the Bangladesh Liberation War, aligning Soviet
dominance of the English-speaking elite. support with India’s position.
Which of the above statements is correct? Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) 2 only c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 d) None of the above

21) Which of the following statements regarding the 24) Which of the following statements regarding the
Tashkent Agreement is/are correct? causes of insurgency in Northeast India is
1. The Tashkent Agreement was signed correct?
between India and Pakistan following the 1. The insurgency in Northeast India
Indo-Pakistani War of 1965. primarily began due to ethnic and linguistic
2. The agreement was facilitated by the differences between the local tribes and the
United Nations, and it led to the creation of rest of India.
a permanent international peacekeeping 2. The economic underdevelopment of the
force along the India-Pakistan border. region has played no role in the growth of
3. Under the agreement, both countries insurgency in the Northeast.
agreed to withdraw their armed forces to Select the correct answer code:
positions held before the conflict, and to a) 1 only
restore diplomatic relations. b) 2 only
Select the correct answer code: c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only 25) Which of the following statements regarding the
d) 1, 2, and 3 JP Movement led by Jayaprakash Narayan is
correct?
22) Which of the following statements regarding the 1. The JP Movement started as a protest
Green Revolution in India is correct? against corruption and misgovernance in
1. The Green Revolution led to an increase in Bihar but soon expanded into a nationwide
the production of all major crops, including demand for Total Revolution.
pulses, oilseeds, and coarse cereals. 2. The movement led to the imposition of
2. The Green Revolution primarily benefitted Emergency in 1975.
regions with access to irrigation 3. The JP Movement primarily focused on
infrastructure, such as Punjab and Haryana. economic reforms, and its demands did not
3. The Green Revolution led to a significant include political or social changes.
increase in agricultural productivity in all Select the correct answer code:
Indian states. a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above statements is/are correct? b) 1 and 3 only
a) Only one c) 2 and 3 only
b) Only two d) 1, 2, and 3
c) All three
d) None 26) Consider the following statements regarding the
response to the Communal Award of 1932:
23) Which of the following statements about the 1. The Indian National Congress neither
Indo-USSR Treaty of Peace, Friendship, and accepted nor rejected the Communal Award
Cooperation (1971) is correct? outright.
1. The treaty was signed in response to 2. Gandhi believed that separate electorates
China’s increasing influence in South Asia for the depressed classes would help in
and the Indian Ocean region. abolishing untouchability by giving them
2. The treaty ensured that India would join political power.
the Soviet military alliance in case of a 3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar supported the
conflict with Pakistan. Communal Award because it granted

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
separate electorates to the depressed 30) What was the condition under which the
classes. Rajagopalachari Formula would become
How many of the above statements is/are correct? operative?
a) Only one a) The formation of a permanent Hindu-
b) Only two Muslim alliance
c) All three b) The establishment of a British
d) None protectorate over Muslim-majority regions
c) The immediate partition of India
27) Consider the following statements about the d) The transfer of full powers to India by the
Government of India Act, 1935: British
1. The Act provided for the establishment of
a Federal Court, which became the Supreme 31) Consider the following statements regarding the
Court of India soon after independence. Mughal Empire’s decline:
2. The Act abolished separate electorates for 1. Aurangzeb’s policies alienated both
minorities and introduced joint electorates Hindus and Rajputs, who were key
across the board. supporters of the empire.
3. The Act extended the voting rights from 2. The wars of succession weakened the
3% to 14% of the total population of India. empire as they allowed nobles to
Which of the statements given above is correct? consolidate power.
a) 1 only 3. The Marathas remained neutral during
b) 2 only the Mughal decline and did not challenge
c) 3 only imperial authority.
d) None of the above How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
28) Which of the following was a significant b) Only two
outcome of the 1937 provincial elections in c) All three
British India? d) None
a) The Congress won a majority in all
provinces, including Punjab and Sindh. 32) What was the primary outcome of the First
b) The Congress formed ministries Carnatic War (1746-1748) between the British
immediately after the elections without any and the French in India?
conditions. a) The British permanently lost Madras to
c) The Congress emerged as the single the French
largest party in Bengal, NWFP, Assam, and b) The French gained control over all British
Bombay. territories in India
d) The Congress rejected the formation of c) The Nawab of Carnatic defeated the
ministries in provinces where they had won French and regained control of his territory
a majority. d) Madras was returned to the British in
exchange for Louisburg in North America
29) Consider the following statements regarding the
British government's reaction to the Indian 33) Consider the following statements regarding the
National Congress during World War II: Government of India Act, 1935:
1. The British government immediately set 1. The Act provided a rigid constitution with
up a "consultative committee" to discuss the right of amendment reserved with the
India’s future political arrangements. British Parliament.
2. The Defence of India Rules were 2. The Federal portion of the Act came into
promulgated to check defiance of British effect immediately upon its passage.
authority and to exploit Indian resources for 3. The Act was unanimously accepted by all
the war effort. political parties in India, including the Indian
Which of the above statements is/are correct? National Congress.
a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is correct?
b) 2 only a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 3 only
d) None of the above
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
34) Which of the following was a significant action a) 1 only
taken by the Congress ministries in the provinces b) 2 and 3 only
during their 28 months of rule from 1937-1939? c) 1 and 2 only
a) Complete abolition of the zamindari d) 3 only
system
b) Introduction of universal adult franchise 38) Consider the following statements about the
c) Repeal of laws giving emergency powers Third Carnatic War:
and easing curbs on civil liberties 1. The Seven Years War in Europe was a key
d) Nationalization of all industries cause of the Third Carnatic War in India.
2. The French had better financial resources
35) Consider the following statements regarding the and trade opportunities compared to the
features of the Cabinet Mission Plan: British.
1. The Plan provided that any question 3. The British were supported by a superior
raising a major communal issue in the Union naval force, allowing them to sustain
Legislature would require a majority vote supplies and reinforcements from Europe.
from both the Hindu and Muslim How many of the above statements is/are correct?
representatives. a) Only one
2. The Plan grouped the existing provincial b) Only two
assemblies into three sections based on c) All three
religious majorities. d) None
3. The Plan stipulated that the Constitutions
of the Union and the groups could not be 39) What was the significance of the Battle of
reconsidered for at least twenty years. Wandiwash (1760) during the Third Carnatic
How many of the above statements is/are correct? War?
a) Only one a) It ended the French presence in India
b) Only two b) It marked the final defeat of the Dutch in
c) All three India
d) None c) It ended the Anglo-French rivalry in India,
establishing British supremacy
36) Consider the following statements about the d) It resulted in the division of India between
First Carnatic War: the French and British
1. The French successfully captured Madras
from the British during this war. 40) Consider the following statements regarding the
2. The Battle of St. Thome saw the defeat of significance and downsides of the Poona Pact:
the French forces by the Nawab of Carnatic. 1. The Poona Pact acknowledged the
3. The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle marked the discrimination faced by the Depressed
end of the war. Classes and provided them with reserved
How many of the above statements is/are correct? seats in the legislatures.
a) Only one 2. The Poona Pact led to the Depressed
b) Only two Classes being politically subordinated to the
c) All three Hindu majority, preventing them from
d) None developing independent leadership.
3. The Poona Pact was wholeheartedly
37) Which of the following statements regarding the accepted by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and was
Treaty of Paris (1763) and its impact on French never criticized by him after its signing.
possessions in India is correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The French were allowed to retain their a) 1 only
territories in India but could not fortify b) 1 and 2 only
them. c) 2 and 3 only
2. The British handed over Bengal to the d) 1, 2, and 3
French after the treaty.
3. The French were allowed to retain all their 41) Consider the following statements regarding
former territories without any restrictions. British administration in Bengal after the Battle
of Buxar:
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. The British established a system of Dual 44) Consider the following statements regarding
Government in Bengal, where Indian officials colonial policies and Indian famines:
functioned under British supervision. 1. The export of crops such as rice, jute, and
2. After 1857, British policies were focused cotton displaced land that could have been
primarily on improving the well-being of used for domestic subsistence farming.
Indian citizens. 2. The British government's laissez-faire
Which of the above statements is/are correct? policy during famines ensured sufficient
a) 1 only grain distribution within India.
b) 2 only 3. Indian exports of opium and other cash
c) Both 1 and 2 crops generated vital foreign currency for
d) Neither 1 nor 2 the British Empire, particularly from China.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
42) Consider the following statements regarding the a) Only one
Government of India Acts: b) Only two
1. The Act of 1909 introduced provincial c) All three
autonomy, giving provinces complete d) None
independence in their legislative and
executive functions. 45) Consider the following statements regarding the
2. The Act of 1919 introduced direct North-West Frontier Policy of British India:
elections and bicameralism at the central 1. The Sindh frontier adopted a closed
level in India for the first time. frontier system, while the Punjab frontier
3. The Act of 1935 provided for the remained an open frontier.
establishment of a Provincial Public Service 2. The policy under Lord Dalhousie was
Commission in addition to the Federal Public centered on punitive expeditions and
Service Commission. blockades to control tribal raids.
4. The Act of 1919 separated provincial 3. The ‘butcher and bolt policy’ was
budgets from the central budget for the first characterized by fostering peaceful
time. negotiations with the tribes.
Which of the above statements are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 and 3 only incorrect?
b) 2 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
43) Consider the following statements about the
Permanent Settlement system: 46) Which British official played a pivotal role in the
1. The system ensured that the land revenue establishment of the North-Western Frontier
paid by zamindars was fixed permanently, Province (NWFP) after the Durand Line
but they could collect fluctuating rent from agreement?
the peasants. a) Lord Dalhousie
2. It encouraged zamindars to invest in b) Lord Lansdowne
improving the productivity of their land. c) Mortimer Durand
3. The system led to absentee landlordism, d) Lord Curzon
where zamindars often lived in cities and
ignored land management. 47) Regarding British relations with Nepal and Tibet,
4. Mahalwari and Ryotwari systems consider the following statements:
introduced in other parts of India also 1. The Treaty of Sagauli was significant in
featured absentee landlordism. securing British control over regions such as
Which of the above statements are correct? Kumaon and Garhwal from Nepal.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. The British considered Nepal to be a
b) 2 and 4 only stable buffer between British India and Tibet
c) 1 and 3 only or China.
d) 3 and 4 only 3. Nepal's foreign policy was primarily
dictated by its formal alliance treaty with the
British.
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
How many of the above statements is/are correct? while recognizing its ruler as sovereign in all
a) Only one other matters?
b) Only two a) Treaty of Sagauli
c) All three b) Simla Accord
d) None c) Treaty of Yandabo
d) Treaty of Punakha
48) Regarding the North Eastern Frontier Agency
(NEFA) and British policy in the region, consider 52) Consider the following statements regarding
the following statements: Lord Macaulay’s educational policy in India:
1. NEFA was home to warlike hill tribes who 1. Macaulay believed that Indian knowledge
raided the plains, prompting British systems were superior to European learning.
intervention. 2. The British government under Macaulay
2. The McMahon Line was established to emphasized mass education for all social
demarcate the British frontier with Tibet. classes.
3. The British pacified the hill tribes by 3. English was made the medium of
engaging in a series of major wars with instruction in government schools and
them. colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
incorrect? a) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only
b) 3 only c) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
53) Consider the following statements regarding the
49) Consider the following statements about the Wood’s Dispatch:
impact of British colonial policies on Indian 1. Wood’s Dispatch recommended the
famines: establishment of a Department of Public
1. British colonial policies neglected Instruction in each province.
agricultural investment, contributing to the 2. Its recommendations on vernacular high
vulnerability of Indians to food crises. schools and universal literacy were
2. The expansion of export agriculture by the effectively implemented.
British provided stability to India’s food 3. It recommended the introduction of
consumption and prevented famines. graded education systems from elementary
3. British military needs during times of to university levels.
famine often took priority over the needs of How many of the above statements is/are correct?
the civilian population. a) Only one
4. The policy of rack-renting led to the b) Only two
abandonment of lands by Indian farmers, c) All three
worsening food production. d) None
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only 54) Which of the following institutions were
b) 2 and 3 only established as a result of Wood’s Dispatch?
c) 1 and 3 only a) The Indian Institutes of Technology
d) 3 and 4 only b) The Royal College of Surgeons in India
c) Universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and
50) Who was the British official responsible for Madras
initiating the first official missions to Tibet to d) Indian Agricultural Universities
establish trade relations?
a) Warren Hastings 55) Consider the following statements regarding the
b) Lord Curzon Hunter Commission of 1882:
c) Lord Dalhousie 1. The Commission recommended the
d) Francis Younghusband diversification of school education into
academic and vocational streams.
51) Which treaty was signed in 1910, granting the
British control over Bhutan's foreign relations
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
2. The Commission’s recommendations were a) John Shore
widely implemented in both colonial and b) William Bentinck
post-independence India. c) Warren Hastings
3. It was the first commission to focus on d) Cornwallis
vocational education in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are 60) After the Battle of Buxar (1764), the East India
incorrect? Company appointed Residents in Indian states.
a) 2 only They were
b) 1 and 2 only a) Ex-Governors of British Presidencies who
c) 1 and 3 only controlled the states.
d) 1, 2, and 3 b) Representative natives of the Princely
states who were also a part of the British
56) Consider the following statements. Legislative council
1. President of the Servants of the People c) Political and commercial agents of the
Society. company in the states.
2. Participated in the non-cooperation d) Heads of Contingent army units placed
movement and the Salt Satyagraha. under Subsidiary alliance in the states.
3. Promoted the White Revolution
4. Signed Tashkent Declaration with Pakistan
The above statements are related to
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Charan Singh
c) Indira Gandhi
d) Lal Bahadur Shastri

57) Which of the following regions were integrated

by referendum in India?
1. Nagaland
2. Sikkim
3. Junagarh
4. Hyderabad
Select the correct answer code:
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 3, 4

58) Consider the following statements regarding

Mahalwari system.
1. Warren Hastings was associated with the
conception of this system.
2. Village lands, forestland and pastures
were included under the system.
3. Under the system, ryots paid a variable
sum to the Zamindars who then paid to the British.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3

59) Who among the following Governor General

followed the policy of non-interference with
native states?

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