June Static S

INSTA STATIC QUIZ
JUNE 2024
WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM INSIGHTSIAS
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Table of Contents
1. POLITY ...................................................................................................................... 2
2. GEOGRAPHY ............................................................................................................. 10
3. ECONOMY................................................................................................................ 19
4. ART AND CULTURE ..................................................................................................... 28
5. HISTORY .................................................................................................................. 36
6. ENVIRONMENT.......................................................................................................... 46
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1. Polity
1) Consider the following statements regarding President’s rule that is imposed under Article 356 of the
Constitution.
1. It cannot be imposed without the written recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state.
2. Every proclamation of President’s rule must be approved by both the houses of Parliament within a
stipulated time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which
the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without
the governor’s report).
A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months
from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six
months.
2) Consider the following statements.

1. Prices of milk in the country are decided entirely by market forces.
2. ‘Preservation of cattle’ is a matter on which the legislature of the States has exclusive powers to
legislate.
3. Improving animal husbandry and the quality of cattle breed is one of the Directive Principles of State
Policy in the Constitution of India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Prices of milk in the country are decided by the Cooperative and Private dairies based on cost of production.
Under the distribution of legislatives powers between the Union of India and States under Article 246(3) of the
Constitution, the preservation of cattle is a matter on which the legislature of the States has exclusive powers
to legislate.
As per article 48 of Indian Constitution the state shall endeavour to organize agriculture and animal husbandry
on modern and scientific lines and shall in particular take steps for preserving improving the breed, and
prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle.
3) Consider the following statements regarding None Of The Above (NOTA) provision in EVMs in India.
1. It was introduced according to the directions of Supreme Court.
2. The right to say “none of the above” constituted a basic right of the voters.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
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b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
In 2013, the Supreme Court, in a landmark verdict, introduced ‘None of the Above’ or NOTA to allow voters to
cast a “negative vote” to reject all candidates as unworthy.
The court held that the right to vote as well as the right to say “none of the above” constituted a basic right of
the voters, and said the option would foster “purity” and “vibrancy” in elections. It also expressed hope that
NOTA would force political parties to choose better candidates, and negative voting would lead to systematic
change in polls.
4) The NOTA voting option is applicable in

1. Lok Sabha elections
2. State Legislative Assembly Elections
3. Election of the President
4. Election of the Vice-President
How many of the above options is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: b)
Statement 3 and 4 is incorrect.
"None of the Above" (or NOTA) has been provided as an option to the voters of India in most elections since
2009. The Supreme Court in PUCL vs. Union of India Judgement 2013 directed the use of NOTA in the context of
direct elections to the Lok Sabha and the respective state assemblies.

1. Any member of the Parliament can oppose the introduction of a bill by stating that it initiates
legislation outside the legislative competence of the Parliament.
2. All Government bills automatically go to Parliamentary committees for examination.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Any member of the Parliament can oppose the introduction of a bill by stating that it initiates legislation
outside the legislative competence of the Parliament. There is limited debate, and the house in which the bill is
getting introduced does not delve into constitutional niceties. MPs also get an opportunity to discuss a bill’s
constitutionality while debating it in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. But on both these occasions, the strength of
the argument does not determine the legislative outcome. The Parliament’s decision depends on the numbers
that the treasury and opposition benches command on the house floor. So, when the treasury benches have the
numbers, the government faces no difficulty getting its legislative proposals through Parliament.
The real opportunity for probing a bill’s constitutionality arises when a parliamentary committee is examining it.
The committee process also has the advantage of drawing on constitutional expertise outside of the law ministry.
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Government bills do not automatically go to committees for examination. Ministers get an option to refer their
bill to a select committee. They often don’t exercise this option and request the presiding officers to not send the
bill to a ministry specific departmentally related committee.
6) Who among the following filed the Writ petition that led to the famous verdict of the Supreme Court of India
recognizing the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right?
a) Justice Rohinton Fali Nariman
b) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
c) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy
d) Justice Anil R. Dave
Solution: c)
Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. vs. Union of India & Ors. (2017), also known as the Right to Privacy
verdict, is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India, which holds that the right to privacy is protected as
a fundamental right under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India.
7) Through the Forty Second Amendment to the Constitution of India, which of the following was/were inserted
into its preamble?
1. The expression ‘Unity of the Nation’ was substituted by ‘Unity and Integrity of the Nation’.
2. ‘Liberty of thought, expression and belief’ was substituted by ‘Liberty of thought, expression, belief,
faith and worship’.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
The 42nd Amendment changed the description of India from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a "sovereign,
socialist secular democratic republic", and also changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of
the nation".
8) As per the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the States have jurisdiction over
agricultural land in connection with which of the following subjects?
1. Taxes on agricultural income.
2. Duties in respect of succession to agricultural land.
3. Estate duty in respect of agricultural land.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The State List is a list of 66 subjects in the Schedule Seven to the Constitution of India. The respective state
governments have exclusive power to legislate on matters relating to these items. Some include:
• Agriculture, including agricultural education and research; protection against pests and prevention of
plant diseases.
• Taxes on agricultural income.
• Duties in respect of succession to agricultural land.
• Estate duty in respect of agricultural land.
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9) Which of the following factors contributed to the elephantine size of our Constitution?
1. Single Constitution for both the Centre and the states
2. Population of India
3. Influence of the Government of India Act of 1935
4. Dominance of legal luminaries
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Four factors have contributed to the elephantine size of our Constitution.
(a) Geographical factors, that is, the vastness of the country and its diversity.
(b) Historical factors, e.g., the influence of the Government of India Act of 1935, which was bulky.
(c) Single Constitution for both the Centre and the states except Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Dominance of legal luminaries in the Constituent Assembly
10) A Constitution usually does not serve this function:

a) Ensuring some kind of coordination between members of a nation
b) Specifies allocation of power in the nation in a skeletal form
c) Brings in Rule of Law in a society
d) Distributes economic resources within the population
Solution: d)
Most constitutions refrain from doing so, and only provide a larger set of principles on which of the state should
endeavour ensuring economic welfare.
In India, we follow principles of equity and fairness, as a part of DPSP, in the desirable distribution of economic
resources in the society.
11) Consider the following statements with reference to the Preamble of the Constitution?
1. Taking inspiration from the American model, India has chosen to begin its constitution with a
preamble.
2. Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle are embedded in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution.
3. It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of government.
4. It is the soul of the Indian Constitution.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle and were in turn nurtured by it, formed the foundation for
India’s democracy. These values are embedded in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. They guide all the
articles of the Indian Constitution.
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Taking inspiration from American model, most countries in the contemporary world have chosen to begin their
constitutions with a preamble.
It contains the philosophy on which the entire Constitution has been built. It provides a standard to examine and
evaluate any law and action of government, to find out whether it is good or bad. It is the soul of the Indian
Constitution.
12) Consider the following statements about the provisions of Article 13 and related judgments of the Supreme
court with regards to its implementation.
1. Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation come under the ambit of Article 13.
2. A constitutional amendment is not to be recognized as a law and thus cannot be challenged under this
Article.
3. Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law can be challenged under
Article 13.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall
be void. In other words, it expressively provides for the doctrine of judicial review.
This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can
declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye -law, rule,
regulation or notification; and
(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Thus, not only a legislation but any of the above can be challenged in the courts as violating a Fundamental Right
and hence, can be declared as void.
Further, Article 13 declares that a constitutional amendment is not a law and hence cannot be challenged.
However, the Supreme Court held in the Kesavananda Bharati case2 (1973) that a Constitutional amendment can
be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the
Constitution and hence, can be declared as void.

1. The issue of personal laws falls in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of
India.
2. For entries in the Concurrent List, the Constitution of India allows states the power to legislate on the
subject but only in the absence of a central law.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
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The issue of personal laws falls in List III —the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
While subjects in the Union lists fall within the purview of the Parliament, states can legislate on subjects in the
State List.
For entries in the Concurrent List, Article 162 of the Constitution gives state governments the power to legislate
on subjects where a central law does not occupy the field. If there is a central law, it automatically gains
precedence over the state law on the subject.
Entry 5 of the Concurrent lists “Marriage and divorce; infants and minors; adoption; wills, intestacy and
succession; joint family and partition; all matters in respect of which parties in judicial proceedings were
immediately before the commencement of this Constitution subject to their personal law.”
This allows states the power to legislate on the subject but only in the absence of a central law.
14) Consider the following statements regarding Cooperatives.

1. Cooperatives fall in the Concurrent list of the 7th Schedule.
2. Forming Cooperatives is a fundamental right under 107th Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. Promotion of Cooperatives is also a constitutional directive to the state mentioned under the DPSP.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Only Statement 1 is correct.
15) The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on:

a) public cooperation
b) an effective opposition in Parliament
c) resources available to the Government
d) the Courts
Solution: c)
The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on resources available to the government. The Directive
Principles are covered from Article 36 to Article 51 of the Indian Constitution. The provisions contained in this
Directive Principles cannot be enforced by any court, but these principles are fundamental in the governance of
the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
16) Substantive equality adopted by some countries, means that

a) Abolition of all special rights and privileges
b) All people must be equally treated at all times.
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c) Providing equal opportunities for disadvantaged and marginalized groups
d) Absolute equality in all spheres and to every person.
Solution: c)
Substantive equality is a fundamental aspect of human rights law that is concerned with equitable outcomes
and equal opportunities for disadvantaged and marginalized people and groups in society.

1. Access to justice for the weaker sections of the society is a constitutional mandate to ensure fair
treatment under Indian legal system.
2. Equal justice and free legal aid is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) under the Indian
Constitution.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Access to justice for the poor is a constitutional mandate to ensure fair treatment under our legal system.
Hence, Lok Adalats (literally, ‘People’s Court’) were established to make justice accessible and affordable to all. It
was a forum to address the problems of crowded case dockets outside the formal adjudicatory system.
The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976, inserted Article 39A to ensure “equal justice and free legal aid”.
To this end, the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was enacted by Parliament and it came into force in 1995 “to
provide free and competent legal services to weaker sections of the society” and to “organise Lok Adalats to
secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity”.

1. B.R. Ambedkar asserted that Article 32 is the very soul of the Constitution.
2. Under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has the power to issue writs
appropriate for enforcement of all the Fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.
3. No Act of Parliament can exclude or curtail the powers of the Constitutional Courts with regard to the
enforcement of fundamental rights.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The words of the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee, B.R. Ambedkar who asserted, inter alia, that
Article 32 is the very soul of the Constitution and the most important Article in the Constitution.
Under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has the power to issue writs appropriate for
enforcement of all the Fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.
The top court, on various instances, ruled that in view of the constitutional scheme and the jurisdiction conferred
on the Supreme Court under Article 32 and on the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution that “the
power of judicial review being an integral part of the basic structure of the Constitution, no Act of Parliament
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can exclude or curtail the powers of the Constitutional Courts with regard to the enforcement of fundamental
rights”.

1. The concepts of faith, belief and worship are the foundations of Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution
of India.
2. The Supreme Court under Article 142 of the Constitution can pass any order to carry out for doing
complete justice being in the public interest, while upholding the Constitution of India.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The Preamble in the Constitution gives prominent importance to liberty of belief, faith and worship to all citizens.
The concepts of faith, belief and worship are the foundations of Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India.
The Supreme Court under Article 142 of the Constitution can pass any order to carry out for doing complete
justice being in the public interest, while upholding the Constitution of India.
20) Consider the following statements regarding Lok Adalat.

1. The first Lok Adalat was organised as a voluntary and conciliatory agency with statutory backing for its
decisions.
2. Lok Adalat is based on Gandhian principles.
3. It is an Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) system that delivers informal and expeditious justice to
the common people.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
• The first Lok Adalat camp was organised in Gujarat in 1982 as a voluntary and conciliatory agency without
any statutory backing for its decisions.
• In view of its growing popularity over time, it was given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities
Act, 1987. The Act makes the provisions relating to the organisation and functioning of the Lok Adalats.
• The term ‘Lok Adalat’ means ‘People’s Court’ and is based on Gandhian principles.
• It is one of the components of the Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) system and delivers informal, cheap
and expeditious justice to the common people.
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2. Geography
1) Consider the following statements regarding Earthquakes and Volcano.
1. Earthquake normally occurs along with the volcanoes.
2. Volcanoes occur only where ocean crust collides with continental crust.
3. Volcanoes are one of the best sources of sulphur.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Earth quakes are usually associated with volcanoes, since both are related to plate movements.
Volcanoes can also happen with ocean-ocean crust collision. Best example is South East Asian Archipelago.
Volcanoes are one of the best sources of sulphur.
2) Without a magnetic field, our planet will lose its atmosphere as per researchers. How is Earth’s magnetic field
helping to hold the atmosphere?
a) Magnetic field supports the gravitation forces in increasing the escape velocity of gas particles
b) The charged particles in the Earth’s atmosphere are being held by this magnetic field
c) It deflects ionizing particles from the Sun which would otherwise wear atmosphere away
d) None of the above
Solution: c)
It is the magnetic field of earth that protects earth from harmful solar winds or else earth would have been
washed away of the atmosphere like other planets.

1. The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface of the earth.
2. Uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences the gravitational force as
experienced within the earth.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Statement 1: It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre
at the equator being greater than that at the poles.
Statement 2: Distribution of mass affects the effective mass that is applying the gravitational force. Since not all
earthly mass has same density, there is bound to be a difference in the way gravitational force is experienced
within the earth.
4) The most prominent feature in the oceans, forming an almost continuous mountain range, is the
a) Abyssal plain
b) Deep ocean trench
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c) Seamount
d) Mid-ocean ridge
Solution: d)
A mid-ocean ridge or mid-oceanic ridge is an underwater mountain range, formed by plate tectonics.
This uplifting of the ocean floor occurs when convection currents rise in the mantle beneath the oceanic crust and
create magma where two tectonic plates meet at a divergent boundary.
The mid-ocean ridges of the world are connected and form a single global mid-oceanic ridge system that is part of
every ocean, making the mid-oceanic ridge system the longest mountain range in the world, with a total length of
about 60,000 km.
5) Consider the following statements:

1. Area of Pacific Ocean is almost equal to area of all other oceans combined.
2. More diversity of landforms can be observed in oceans than continents.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Although Pacific Ocean is the largest ocean than other oceans, its area is far lesser than all other oceans area
combined.
Continental slope, Guyots, Trenches and other landforms can be observed in the ocean which is far diverse than
the continents.
6) Consider the following statements:

1. The northward movement of the Indian plate continues till date.
2. A part of the Western peninsular region of India is submerged beneath the sea.
3. The river valleys in the Peninsular region are deep with high gradients.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Over millions of years, the Indo-Australian plate broke into many parts and the Australian plate moved towards
the south-eastern direction and the Indian plate to the north. This northward movement of the Indian plate is
still continuing and it has significant consequences on the physical environment of the Indian subcontinent.
The Peninsula has been standing like a rigid block with the exception of some of its western coast which is
submerged beneath the sea and some other parts changed due to tectonic activity without affecting the original
basement. As a part of the Indo-Australian Plate, it has been subjected to various vertical movements and block
faulting. The rift valleys of the Narmada, the Tapi and the Mahanadi and the Satpura block mountains are some
examples of it. The Peninsula mostly consists of relict and residual mountains like the Aravali hills, the Nallamala
hills, the Javadi hills, the Veliconda hills, the Palkonda range and the Mahendragiri hills, etc. The river valleys here
are shallow with low gradients
7) Which of the following factors contribute to the evolution of landforms on earth?
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1. Movement of magma within the earth
2. Growth and decay of vegetation
3. Erosion and deposition
4. Frost action
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
Statement 1: It causes plate movements (tectonics), results in volcanic eruptions and is therefore a significant
factor in the evolution of landforms on earth.
Statement 2: If Vegetation cover is high, it protects the surface from rain splash as root mass is sufficient to
stabilize the materials on the slope.
Even surface runoff become less effective in carving out landforms in areas where there is dense vegetation, since
there is little scope for soil erosion.
Statement 3: Self-explanatory. For e.g. all the plains that you are the result of active erosion and deposition by
water.
Statement 4: When water freezes to ice, its volume increases. Under specific circumstances, this expansion is able
to displace or fracture rocks where water exist in its pores. Repeated frost action thus weathers (breaks) the
rocks.
•In some mountains, there are permanently frozen rivers of ice. They are called glaciers. Glaciers move at a very
slow rate. When they do, they erode the soil beneath them.
•Also, formation of glaciers and their retreat affects the soil profile of the region and thus the landforms.
8) With reference to properties of lava, consider the following statements

1. Basic lavas are the hottest lavas and are highly fluid
2. When Basic lava flows from a volcano, it is very explosive
3. Acid lavas are highly viscous and cause less explosive volcanoes
4. Acid lava are also called as felsic lava
a) 1, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 3, 4
Solution: a)
Highly fluid ones are less viscous, hence less explosive while the acidic ones are explosive due to high viscosity.
9) Why the eastern and western boundaries of the Pacific Ocean experience frequent earthquakes?
a) Due to the presence of deep ocean trenches along these margins.
b) Due to presence of high mountain stretches along the continental belts
c) Due to continuous wave and current action
d) Due to these margins coinciding with the plate margins.
Solution: d)
The region in question is the Ring of Fire.

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The Ring of Fire is a direct result of plate tectonics/ movement and collisions of lithospheric plates
Since the margins coincide with the plate margins, the continous tectonic movements cause earthquakes.
This region is also prone to high volcanism.
10) The major prevailing wind type resulting in hot desert landscape is
a) Westerlies that blow throughout the year
b) Light and variable winds in summer
c) North-east trade wind throughout the year
d) South-westerly winds throughout the year
Solution: c)
11) Consider the following statements regarding barrier islands.

1. These are small chain of sand islands that form offshore, far from the coast.
2. Lagoons or shallow marshes separate the barrier islands from the mainland.
3. Such locations are hazardous for settlements because they are easily swept by storms and hurricanes.
a) Only one
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b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Barrier islands are a coastal landform, a type of dune system and sand island, where an area of sand has been
formed by wave and tidal action parallel to the mainland coast. They usually occur in chains, consisting of
anything from a few islands to more than a dozen. They are subject to change during storms and other action,
but absorb energy and protect the coastlines and create areas of protected waters where wetlands may flourish.
A barrier chain may extend for hundreds of kilometers, with islands periodically separated by tidal inlets.
The barrier island body itself separates the shoreface from the backshore and lagoon/tidal flat area.
12) Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristic.
1. High, thin, puffy white clouds of ice crystals that look like ripples.
2. They appear between 20000 feet and 40000 feet above the Earth’s surface.
3. One of its types is called a ‘mackerel sky’ because the clouds resemble large fish scales, especially when
they are coloured pink at sunset.
Select the correct answer
a) Altocumulus
b) Altostratus
c) Cirrostratus
d) Cirrocumulus
Solution: d)
Cirrocumulus is one of the three main genus types of high-altitude tropospheric clouds, the other two
being cirrus and cirrostratus. They usually occur at an altitude of 5 to 12 km.
Unlike other high-altitude tropospheric clouds like cirrus and cirrostratus, cirrocumulus includes a small amount
of liquid water droplets, although these are in a supercooled state. Ice crystals are the predominant component,
and typically, the ice crystals cause the supercooled water drops in the cloud to rapidly freeze, transforming the
cirrocumulus into cirrostratus.
Cirrocumulus patches take on a finer appearance, sometimes also referred to colloquially as "herringbone" or
as a "mackerel sky".

1. Low pressure systems are usually characterized by dry and settled weather.
2. High pressure systems usually bring severe wind and precipitation.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
A low-pressure area is commonly associated with inclement weather, while a high-pressure area is associated
with light winds and fair skies.
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14) Places in the mountains are usually cooler than places on the plains due to the presence of
a) Leeward wind flow on the mountains
b) Moisture-laden winds on the mountains
c) Thin air on the mountains
d) All of the above
Solution: c)
Temperature decreases with height. Due to thin air, places in the mountains are cooler than places on the
plains. For example, Agra and Darjiling are located on the same latitude, but temperature of January in Agra is
16°C whereas it is only 4°C in Darjiling.
15) As per the Koeppen classification, which of the following regions of India has a Steppe Climate?
a) Central India
b) Parts of North-western India and leeward side of Western Ghats
c) Coastal regions of south-eastern India
d) North-eastern India
Solution: b)
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16) Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh is known for

a) Solar Energy
b) Bio Energy
c) Wind Energy
d) Geothermal Energy
Solution: d)
Manikaran is famous for its hot springs. Manikaran at an altitude of 1,829 mt. and 40 kms from Kullu has the
finest hot water springs.
17) In India, the period of steady population growth refers to the decades of
a) 1911 – 1921
b) 1921 – 1951
c) 1951 – 1981
d) 1981 – 2011
Solution: b)
The period from 1901-1921 is referred to as a period of stagnant or stationary phase of growth of India’s
population.
The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the period of steady population growth. An overall improvement in
health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate.
The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India, which was caused by a
rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country.
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1. A geosynchronous satellite has an orbital period same as the Earth's rotation period.
2. A Geostationary Orbit (GSO) is a geosynchronous orbit with an inclination of zero, meaning, it lies on
the equator.
3. All geosynchronous satellites are geostationary.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
A geosynchronous satellite is a satellite in geosynchronous orbit, with an orbital period the same as the Earth's
rotation period.
Different orbits:
● A Geosynchonous Orbit (GEO) takes a satellite around the Earth at a rate of once per day, keeping it roughly in
the same area over the ground.
● A Geostationary Orbit (GSO) is a geosynchronous orbit with an inclination of zero, meaning, it lies on the
equator.
All geostationary satellites are geosynchronous. Not all geosynchronous satellites are geostationary.
19) Consider the following statements regarding Coronal holes.

1. These are regions on the sun’s surface from where fast solar wind gushes out into space.
2. They have higher temperatures compared to their surroundings.
3. They can be seen in ultraviolet light but are typically invisible to naked eyes.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
What are coronal holes?
These are regions on the sun’s surface from where fast solar wind gushes out into space . Because they contain
little solar material, they have lower temperatures and thus appear much darker than their surroundings. Here,
the magnetic field is open to interplanetary space, sending solar material out in a high-speed stream of solar
wind. Coronal holes can last between a few weeks to months.
While it is unclear what causes coronal holes, they correlate to areas on the sun where magnetic fields soar up
and away, without looping back down to the surface as they do elsewhere. “Scientists study these fast solar wind
streams because they sometimes interact with earth’s magnetic field, creating what’s called a geomagnetic
storm, which can expose satellites to radiation and interfere with communications signals.
Coronal holes, which can be seen in ultraviolet light but are typically invisible to our eyes.
20) Consider the following statements regarding Delhi’s geography and weather conditions that contributes to air
pollution.
1. During the southwest monsoon, the prevalent direction of the wind is easterly.
2. Once the monsoon withdraws, the predominant direction of the winds changes to north -westerly.
3. The fall in temperature also contributes to increased pollution levels.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: d)
During the southwest monsoon, the prevalent direction of the wind is easterly. The winds travel from over the
Bay of Bengal, carrying moisture and rainfall to this part of the country. Once the monsoon withdraws, however,
the predominant direction of the winds changes to north-westerly. These winds carry particulate matter
(essentially smoke and soot) from crop-burning in Punjab to the area above Delhi, and then onward down the
Gangetic basin.
The fall in temperature also contributes to increased pollution levels. As it gets cooler, the inversion height —
which is the layer beyond which pollutants cannot disperse into the upper atmosphere — comes down. When
that happens, larger concentrations of pollutants in the air hang closer to the surface, and lead to worsenin g
AQIs.
The point to note here is this: The direction of the wind is north-westerly in summer too, but it is the very high
temperature over the Indo-Gangetic basin that ensures the pollutants that it brings (dust etc. from Rajasthan and
sometimes Pakistan and Afghanistan) does not hang low.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
3. Economy
1) International Development Association (IDA) funds are allocated to the recipient countries in relation to their
1. population
2. per capita income
3. human development potential
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Only option 2 is correct.
For a country to access IDA resources, it must be in a situation of relative poverty as indicated by its per capita
income falling below the IDA operational cut-off, $1,255 in FY23, and/or lack creditworthiness for IBRD
borrowing. IDA funds are allocated to the recipient countries in relation to their income levels and record of
success in managing their economies and their ongoing IDA projects. IDA's lending terms are highly concessional,
meaning that IDA credits carry no or low interest charges.
2) Consider the following statements regarding Fixed Capital Formation.

1. Fixed capital includes construction of dwellings, which may not add to the productive capacity of the
economy.
2. Fixed capital formation is directly related with economic growth rate.
3. Long term growth will be achieved if resources from Fixed Capital are diverted towards consumption.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Fixed capital is assets used in the productive process. Examples of Fixed Capital Formation include - Building or
expanding existing factory, Road and bridge construction, Purchase of transport equipment, Office equipment,
such as computers, printers, Machinery used in the productive process, Energy infrastructure etc.
Generally, the higher the capital formation of an economy, the faster an economy can grow its aggregate
income. Increasing an economy's capital stock also increases its capacity for production, which means an
economy can produce more. Producing more goods and services can lead to an increase in national income levels.
Fixed capital formation (growth of productive infrastructure etc.) is directly related with economic growth rate.
Only short-term growth may be achieved if resources from Fixed Capital are diverted towards consumption. In
the long-term quality and quantity of infrastructure is a major determinant of economic growth.
Dwellings (a house, flat, or other place of residence) are not directly utilised by businesses and the government to
produce output. Since dwellings do not add to the productive capacity of the economy, even if its growth rate
reduces, the economy can still grow.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
3) Who among the following formulated the concept of poverty as a measurable development indicator in the
Indian subcontinent?
a) V.K.R.V Rao
b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
c) Dadabhai Naoroji
d) M. Ranade
Solution: c)
Dadabhai Naoroji through his book, “Poverty and unBritish Rule in India” made the earliest estimation of
the poverty line.
4) Economic depression is best defined as a period of

a) stagnation in economic growth
b) negative economic growth rate
c) prolonged slowdown in economic growth rate
d) high unemployment rate even in a growing economy
Solution: b)
Depression is defined as a severe and prolonged recession. A recession is a situation of declining economic
activity. Declining economic activity is characterized by falling output and employment levels. Generally, when an
economy continues to suffer recession for two or more quarters, it is called depression.
The level of productivity in an economy falls significantly during a depression. Both the GDP (gross domestic
product) and GNP (gross national product) show a negative growth along with greater business failures and
unemployment.

1. Product taxes and subsidies are paid or received per unit or product.
2. Production taxes and subsidies are paid or received in relation to production and are independent of
the volume of production.
3. Factor cost includes only the payment to factors of production including tax.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
In India, the most highlighted measure of national income has been the GDP at factor cost. The Central Statistics
Office (CSO) of the Government of India has been reporting the GDP at factor cost and at market prices.
The distinction between factor cost, basic prices and market prices is based on the distinction between net
production taxes (production taxes less production subsidies) and net product taxes (product taxes less product
subsidies). Production taxes and subsidies are paid or received in relation to production and are independent of
the volume of production such as land revenues, stamp and registration fee. Product taxes and subsidies, on the
other hand, are paid or received per unit or product, e.g., excise tax, service tax, export and import duties etc.
Factor cost includes only the payment to factors of production, it does not include any tax.
6) Which one of the following statements is not correct for National Income Accounting for India?
a) Imports are subtracted in calculating Gross Domestic Product
b) Inventories are included in Gross Domestic Capital Formation
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) Purchase and Sale of second-hand goods are not included in Gross Domestic Product
d) Net factor payments earned from abroad are included in Gross Domestic Product
Solution: d)
• National income of a country means the sum total of incomes earned by the citizens of that country during
a given period, over a year.
• National income accounting refers to the set of methods and principles that are used by the government for
measuring production and income, or in other words economic activity of a country in a given time period.
• The various measures of determining national income are GDP (Gross Domestic Product), GNP (Gross
National Product), and NNP (Net National Product) along with other measures such as personal income and
disposable income.
• It should be noted that national income is not the sum of all incomes earned by all citizens, but only those
incomes which accrue due to participation in the production process.
• Individuals participate in the production process by supplying factors of production which they possess.
• According to Marshall: “The labour and capital of a country acting on its natural resources produce annually a
certain net aggregate of commodities, material and immaterial including services of all kinds. This is the true
net annual income or revenue of the country or national dividend.” In this definition, the word ‘net’ refers to
deductions from the gross national income in respect of depreciation and wearing out of machines. And to
this, must be added income from abroad.
National income accounting equation is an equation that shows the relationship between income and expense of
an economy and other categories. It is represented by the following equation:
Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
Where
Y = National income
C = Personal consumption expenditure
I = Private investment
G = Government spending
X = Net exports
M = Imports
7) Which of the following are included in M1 definition of money for the Indian economy?
1. Reserves
2. Currency
3. Demand Deposits
4. Time Deposits
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 4
b) 2, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3, 4
Solution: c)
M1 is the money supply that is composed of currency, demand deposits, other liquid deposits—which includes
savings deposits. M1 includes the most liquid portions of the money supply because it contains currency and
assets that either are or can be quickly converted to cash.
8) Which of the following components of Central Government taxes on petroleum products is/are not sharable
with the States?
1. Basic Excise Duty
2. Additional Excise Duty
3. Special Additional Excise Duty
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a) 1, 2
b) 3 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Excise duty and VAT on fuel constitute an important source of revenue for both the Centre and the
states. Petroleum taxes with states are shared out of basic excise duty. The Centre also levies additional excise
duty and cesses on petroleum products.
9) Along with the Budget and Demands for Grants, which of the following document is presented by the GoI
before the Parliament in each financial year:
1. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
2. Monetary Policy Strategy Statement
3. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
4. Macroeconomic Framework Statement
5. Fiscal responsibility framework statement
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Solution: b)
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
Fiscal Reforms and Budget Management Act (FRBMA):

The FRBM Bill, 2000 was passed by the Parliament in 2003. It was considered as a watershed in the area of fiscal
reforms in the country.
As per the provision of FRBMA, 2003, the GoI to lay following three
statements before the Parliament along with the Budget and Demands for Grants in each financial year:
(a) Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement (FPSS);
(b) Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement (MTFPS);
(c) Macroeconomic Framework Statement (MFS).
10) Consider the following statements

1. The deficit requirements for lower revenue expenditures and higher capital expenditures are the best
situation for deficit financing.
2. High domestic borrowing by the government for increasing capital expenditure would impart a
‘crowding-in effect’ spurring more investment.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Composition of Fiscal Deficit

Out of the two broad expenditure obligations of a government—revenue expenditure and capital expenditure—
the following combinations of expenditure composition are suggested:
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
A fiscal deficit with a surplus revenue budget or a zero-revenue expenditure is the best composition of fiscal
deficit and the most suitable time for deficit financing.
The deficit requirements for lower revenue expenditures and higher capital expenditures are the next best
situation for deficit financing, provided revenue deficit is eliminated soon.
The last could be the situation when major part of deficit financing is to fulfil revenue expenditures and a minor
part to go for capital expenditures. The total money of the deficit might go to fulfil revenue expenditure, which
could be the worst form of it.
Crowding out effect: -

as per Economic survey in a developing country like India: -
Concerns about high government borrowings crowding out the private sector’s fund -raising efforts were
misplaced and not based on evidence,
“It’s a very tempting argument to make but the data does not support it,”
On the contrary, the government’s increased capital spending would impart a ‘crowding-in effect’ spurring more
investment.
11) Currently, the US dollar is said to enjoy an ‘Exorbitant Privilege’, which refers to the innumerable benefits
that accrue to the US on account of all other countries of the world using the US dollar as their currency in
most of their international transactions. The dollar’s position is currently supported by which of the
following factors?
1. size of the US economy
2. reach of its trade and financial networks
3. depth and liquidity of US financial markets
4. history of macroeconomic stability
5. currency convertibility
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Solution: d)
Currently, the US dollar is said to enjoy an ‘Exorbitant Privilege’, which refers to the innumerable benefits that
accrue to the US on account of all other countries of the world using the US dollar as their currency in most of
their international transactions, among global currencies.
The dollar’s position is supported by a range of factors, including the size of the US economy, the reach of its
trade and financial networks, the depth and liquidity of US financial markets, and a history of macroeconomic
stability and currency convertibility. Dollar dominance has also benefited from the lack of viable alternatives.

1. In a free-market economy, the exchange rate is decided by the supply and demand for rupees and
dollars.
2. If the rupee’s exchange rate falls, it implies that buying American goods would become cheaper.
3. In India, the exchange rate is fully determined by the market.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Only statement 1 is correct.
The rupee’s exchange rate vis-a-vis a particular currency, say the US dollar, tells us how many rupees are required
to buy a US dollar. To buy (import) a US product or service, Indians need to first buy the dollars and then use
those dollars to buy the product. The same holds true for Americans buying something from India.
If the rupee’s exchange rate “falls”, it implies that buying American goods would become costlier. At the same
time, Indian exporters may benefit because their goods now are more attractive (read cheaper) to the American
customers.
In a free-market economy, the exchange rate is decided by the supply and demand for rupees and dollars.
In India, the exchange rate is not fully determined by the market. From time to time, the RBI intervenes in the
foreign exchange (forex) market to ensure that the rupee “price” does not fluctuate too much or that it doesn’t
rise or fall too much all at once.
13) Consider the following statements regarding Vostro accounts.

1. A Vostro account is an account that a domestic bank holds for a foreign bank in the domestic bank’s
currency.
2. For an Indian entity, In case of trade with a foreign country, payments in rupee for the export and
import of goods will go to these Vostro accounts.
3. The objective behind permitting Vostro accounts is to promote growth of global trade with emphasis
on exports from India and to support the interest of the global trading community in the rupee.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Vostro accounts are opened to facilitate trade in rupee.
A Vostro account is an account that a domestic bank holds for a foreign bank in the domestic bank’s currency —
which, in the case of India, is the rupee.
Payments in rupee for the export and import of goods will go to these Vostro accounts. The owners and
beneficiaries of this money will be the exporters and importers in both the countries. The banks will keep the
record of money transferred.
What is a Nostro account?

Two kinds of accounts, Vostro and Nostro, are often mentioned together. Both Vostro and Nostro are technically
the same type of account, with the difference being who opens the account and where.
So, if an Indian bank like the SBI wants to open an account in the United States, it will get in touch with a bank in
the US, which will open a Nostro account and accept payments for SBI in dollars.
The account opened by the Indian bank in the US will be a Nostro account for the Indian bank, while for the US
bank, the account will be considered a Vostro account.
What led to creation of the Vostro accounts?

RBI put in place a mechanism to settle international trade in rupees “in order to promote growth of global trade
with emphasis on exports from India and to support the increasing interest of the global trading community in
the rupee”.
According to the central bank, AD (authorised dealer) banks in India have been permitted to open rupee Vostro
accounts. Accordingly, for settlement of trade transactions with any country, an AD bank in India may open
special rupee Vostro accounts of correspondent banks of the partner trading country.
14) Consider the following statements regarding BSE SENSEX.

INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. The BSE SENSEX is a free-float market-weighted stock market index of 100 well-established and
financially sound companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange.
2. It is considered the benchmark index of the Indian stock market.
3. DOLLEX-30, launched by BSE, is a dollar-linked version of the SENSEX.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Sensex is the benchmark index of the BSE in India. It was launched on January 1, 1986 as a basket of 30 stocks
representing the country's largest, financially-sound companies listed on the BSE.
The Sensex reflects the movements in the Indian stock market. It is considered the benchmark index of the
Indian stock market.
In 2001 BSE launched DOLLEX-30, a dollar-linked version of the SENSEX.

1. If the real exchange rate is equal to one, currencies are at purchasing power parity.
2. Real exchange rate of a currency directly depends on the relative inflation levels in the respective
economies.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The practice in economic literature, however, is to use the former definition – as the price of foreign currency in
terms of the domestic currency. This is the bilateral nominal exchange rate – bilateral in the sense that they are
exchange rates for one currency against another and they are nominal because they quote the exchange rate in
money terms, i.e. so many rupees per dollar or per pound.
However, if one wants to plan a trip to London, she needs to know how expensive British goods are relative to
goods at home. The measure that captures this is the real exchange rate – the ratio of foreign to domestic prices,
measured in the same currency. It is defined as the Real exchange rate = ePf divided by P, where P and Pf are the
price levels here and abroad, respectively, and e is the rupee price of foreign exchange (the nominal exchange
rate).
The numerator expresses prices abroad measured in rupees, the denominator gives the domestic price level
measured in rupees, so the real exchange rate measures prices abroad relative to those at home. If the real
exchange rate is equal to one, currencies are at purchasing power parity.
16) Consider the following statements regarding Subsidies.

1. A subsidy shall be deemed to exist if there is a financial contribution by a government or any public
body where government practice involves a direct transfer of funds.
2. Tax preferences are considered as implicit subsidies to preferred tax payers.
3. It also includes taxes and charges that are not collected by the Government.
a) Only one
b) Only two
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
A subsidy shall be deemed to exist if there is a financial contribution by a government or any public body where
government practice involves a direct transfer of funds (e.g., grants, loans and equity infusion), and/or
government revenue that is otherwise due is foregone or not collected, and/or a government provides goods or
services.
What is included in subsidy?

• Income and Price support: Subsidy can also be any form of income or price support granted by the
government.
• Taxes and charges: It include not only direct transfer payments by the governments but also taxes
and charges that are not collected.
• Tax preferences: which are built into both direct and indirect tax regimes for realizing specific benefits
serving the greater public good.
Tax preferences are considered as implicit (indirect) subsidies to preferred tax payers.

1. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) obligates countries not to impose tariffs beyond bound
rates.
2. Bound rate is the maximum rate of duty (tariff) that can be imposed by the importing country on an
imported commodity.
3. Bound rate agreed for any commodity at WTO is same for all the members of WTO.
4. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) allows countries to deviate from their trade obligations
on grounds of national security.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Bound rate is the maximum rate of duty (tariff) that can be imposed by the importing country on an imported
commodity. Here, each country commits itself to a ceiling on customs duties (tariff) on a certain number of
products.
These rates vary from country to country and commodity to commodity. But no country can raise duties above
the bound rate it has committed, and the rate of customs duty actually applied may be lower than the bound
rate.
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) obligates countries not to impose tariffs beyond bound rates.
Article XXI of GATT which allows countries to deviate from their trade obligations on grounds of national
security. Specifically, Article XXI(b)(iii) of GATT allows a country to take any action ‘which it considers’ necessary
for the protection of its essential security interests taken in time of war or other ‘emergency in international
relations’.
18) Consider the following statements regarding interest coverage ratio.

1. The interest coverage ratio is a debt and profitability ratio used to determine how easily a company can
pay interest on its outstanding debt.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
2. For calculating interest coverage ratio, a company's earnings before interest and taxes is considered.
3. Generally a lower value of interest coverage ratio shows greater ability of a company to meet its
interest obligations from earnings.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
The interest coverage ratio is a debt and profitability ratio used to determine how easily a company can pay
interest on its outstanding debt. The interest coverage ratio is calculated by dividing a company's earnings
before interest and taxes (EBIT) by its interest expense during a given period.
Generally, a higher coverage ratio is better.

1. In India, the Constitution gives the government the right to levy taxes on individuals and organisations.
2. As per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, Union and the States have concurrent power of
taxation.
3. In India, any tax being charged has to be backed by a law passed by the state legislature or Parliament.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
In India, the Constitution gives the government the right to levy taxes on individuals and organisations, but
makes it clear that no one has the right to levy or charge taxes except by the authority of law. Any tax being
charged has to be backed by a law passed by the legislature or Parliament.
Taxes in India come under a three-tier system based on the Central, State and local governments, and the
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution puts separate heads of taxation under the Union and State list. There is no
separate head under the Concurrent list, meaning Union and the States have no concurrent power of taxation.

1. Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax
(GST).
2. To give effect to GST regime, entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the Constitution were either
deleted or amended.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax (GST), and
that the Goods and Services Tax Council’s recommendations were just that: recommendations that could never
be binding on a legislative body.
When, in July 2017, the Union government introduced the GST regime through the 101st constitutional
Amendment, it did so based on an underlying belief that tax administration across India needed unification. ‘One
Nation, One Tax’, was the mantra. To give effect to this idea, many entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the
Constitution were either deleted or amended.
4. Art and Culture

1. The Gadag style of architecture is also called Western Chalukya architecture.
2. Sun temple Konark is a famous example of Kalinga architecture.
3. Maru-Gurjara architecture originated in Medieval India during the reign of Delhi Sultanate.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 1: The Gadag style of architecture is also called Western Chalukya architecture. The style flourished
for 150 years (1050 to 1200 CE). Some examples are the Saraswati temple in the Trikuteshwara temple complex
at Gadag, the Doddabasappa Temple at Dambal, the Kasivisvesvara Temple at Lakkundi, and the Amriteshwara
temple at Annigeri.
Statement 2: The design which flourished in eastern Indian state of Odisha and Northern Andhra Pradesh are
called Kalinga style of architecture.
The prominent examples of Rekha Deula are Lingaraj Temple of Bhubaneswar, Sun Temple of Konark and
Jagannath Temple of Puri. Another prominent example is Khakhara Deula is Vaital Deula.
Statement 3: Maru-Gurjara architecture originated somewhere in the 6th century in and around areas of
Rajasthan. It shows the deep understanding of structures and refined skills of Rajasthani craftsmen of bygone era.
2) Which of the following chronological order for the construction of the monuments is correct?
1. Taj Mahal
2. Qutab Minar
3. Agra Fort
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 3, 2, 1
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 1
Solution: d)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Qutb ud Din Aibak, founder of the Delhi Sultanate, started construction of the Qutb Minar's first storey around
1192. In 1220, Aibak's successor and son-in-law Shamsuddin Iltutmish completed a further three storeys.
Agra Fort is a historical fort in the city of Agra in India. It was built in 1573. It was the main residence of the
emperors of the Mughal Dynasty until 1638, when the capital was shifted from Agra to Delhi.
The Taj Mahal is an ivory-white marble mausoleum on the south bank of the Yamuna River in the Indian city of
Agra. It was commissioned in 1632 by the Mughal emperor, Shah Jahan.
3) Which of the following monuments were constructed by Shah Jahan?

1. Red Fort
2. Panch Mahal
3. Jama Masjid
4. Bibi-ki-Maqbara
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: b)
Option 1 and 3 is correct.
Diwan-i-Am and Diwan-I-Khas, Red Fort at Delhi, Jama Masjid, Taj Mahal were constructed by Shah Jahan.
Panch Mahal is constructed by Akbar in Fatehpur Sikri and Bibi-ki-Maqbara is constructed by Aurangazeb.
4) An interesting feature of medieval India was the sarais which ringed cities and dotted a vast space of the
Indian subcontinent. Sarais were
1. Local private godowns which provided grain storage facility to adjoining farms
2. Dargahs that hosted religious and spiritual discussions
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Solution: d)
Sarais were largely built on a simple square or rectangular plan and were meant to provide temporary
accommodation to Indian and foreign travellers, pilgrims, merchants, traders, etc.
In effect, sarais were public domains which thronged with people of varied cultural backgrounds. This led to cross -
cultural interaction, influences and syncretic tendencies in the cultural mores of the times and at the level of the
people.
5) Consider the following statements regarding Chalukyan architecture.

1. They built cave temples depicting both religious and secular themes.
2. No Chalukyan age mural paintings can be found.
3. The temples under the Chalukyas are an example of the Vesara style of architecture.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Solution: b)
Chalukyas ruled large parts of southern and central India between the 6th and the 12th centuries.
They built cave temples depicting both religious and secular themes. The temples had beautiful mural paintings
also.
The temples under the Chalukyas are a good example of the Vesara style of architecture. This is also called the
Deccan style or Karnataka Dravida or Chalukyan style. It is a combination of Dravida and Nagara styles.

1. Buddhist monks went from place to place throughout the year except rainy season, teaching people.
2. Earliest Viharas served as a permanent shelter for the wandering monks and nuns during rainy season.
3. Viharas and chaityas are synonymous, the early Buddhist tradition uses the term ‘viharas’ whereas the
later Mahayana tradition uses ‘chaitya’.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Buddhist monks went from place to place throughout the year, teaching people. The only time they stayed in
one place was during the rainy season, when it was very difficult to travel. Then, their supporters built
temporary shelters for them in gardens, or they lived in natural caves in hilly areas.
As time went on, many supporters of the monks and nuns, and they themselves, felt the need for more
permanent shelters and so monasteries were built. These were known as viharas.
There was no Buddhism when the earliest Viharas were made. Buddhism, as an organized religion, came into
being after the death of the Buddha. So, the purpose of preaching dhamma was a later purpose, and not the
reason for establishing viharas.
S3: Chaityas were prayer halls, whereas viharas were monasteries built for residential purposes. Both the early
and the later tradition used chaityas and viharas.
7) Who propounded Kashmir Shaivism?

a) Ramakantha
b) Vasugupta
c) Ranganathacharya
d) Abhinavagupta
Solution: d)
The Kashmir Shaivism tradition, also called Trika Shaivism, is a non-dualist branch of Shaiva-
Shakta Tantra Hinduism that originated in Kashmir after 850 CE.
It later spread beyond Kashmir, with its great scholar Abhinavagupta calling it "Trika" (meaning "the Trinity"). It
particularly flourished in the states of Odisha and Maharashtra.
8) Bhaja, Junnar, Karla and Kanheri caves are associated with the images belonging to which of these religious
sects?
a) Virashaivas
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
b) Only Hinduism
c) Buddhism
d) Only Alvars
Solution: c)
• The stupas in the fourth and fifth centuries CE have Buddha images attached.
• Junnar has the largest cave excavations— more than two hundred caves around the hills of the town—
whereas Kanheri in Mumbai has a hundred and eight excavated caves.
• The most important sites are Ajanta, Pitalkhora, Ellora, Nashik, Bhaja, Junnar, Karla, Kanheri. Ajanta, Ellora,
and Kanheri continue to flourish.
9) Who among the following was not a court poet of King Krishnadevaraya?
a) Mallana
b) Thimmana
c) Dhurjati
d) Siddheshvara
Solution: d)
Ashtadiggajas is the collective title given to the eight great Telugu scholars and poets in the court of Emperor
Krishnadevaraya.
The Ashtadiggajas Allasani Peddana, Dhurjati, Nandi Thimmana, Madayyagari Mallana and Ayyalaraju
Ramabhadrudu were from Rayalaseema. Pandit Ramakrishna hailed from Tenali in the Guntur district of Andhra
Pradesh. Ramarajabhushanudu and Pingali Surana were the other two Ashtadiggajas.
10) Variety of metals such as copper, gold, silver was extensively used by the Harappan metal workers. Which of
the following could be a reason(s) for the same?
1. These materials were easily available locally obviating the need to import other metals from distant
places.
2. The tradition of using alloys in place of metals did not pick up until the very end of the mature
Harappan civilization.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Solution: c)
Statement 1: While some of the raw materials that the Harappans used were available locally, many items such
as copper, tin, gold, silver and precious stones had to be brought from distant places.
The Harappans probably got copper from present-day Rajasthan, and even from Oman in West Asia. Tin, which
was mixed with copper to produce bronze, may have been brought from present-day Afghanistan and Iran. Gold
could have come all the way from present-day Karnataka, and precious stones from present-day Gujarat, Iran and
Afghanistan.
Statement 2: The field of metal and metallurgy is among the key technologies mastered by the civilization.
Minor metals like tin, arsenic, lead, antimony etc. were used for alloying.
The earliest evidence of metallurgy in the Indian subcontinent comes forth from the site of Mehrgarh in
Baluchistan dated to circa 6500 BCE, a part of early Harappan civilization. It is recovered in the form of a tiny
copper bead from grave of a child.
Over the centuries, during the Mature Harappan period, the metal workers perfected the metallurgical skill, so
the metallurgical techniques including the alloying technique developed much before. S2 is wrong.
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11) The Konark Sun Temple is usually associated with which of the following?
1. Rule of Ganga dynasty
2. Kalinga architecture
3. Odisha’s Golden triangle
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
• Built in the 13th century, the Konark temple was conceived as a gigantic chariot of the Sun God, with 12 pairs
of exquisitely ornamented wheels pulled by seven horses.
• It was built by King Narasimhadeva I, the great ruler of Ganga dynasty. The temple is included in UNESCO
World Heritage Site in 1984 for its architectural greatness and also for the sophistication and abundance of
sculptural work. The temple is perfect blend of Kalinga architecture, heritage, exotic beach and salient
natural beauty.
• Konark is the third link of Odisha’s Golden Triangle. The first link is Jagannath Puri and the second link is
Bhubaneswar (Capital city of Odisha). This temple was also known as ‘BLACK PAGODA’ due to its dark colour
and used as a navigational landmark by ancient sailors to Odisha. Similarly, the Jagannath Temple in Puri was
called the “White Pagoda”.
12) With reference to the Group of Monuments at Pattadakal, a World heritage site, consider the following
statements.
1. It hosts both Hindu temples and a Buddhist Sanctuary.
2. It was constructed by the Cholas.
3. It represents architectural forms both from the north and south of India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
• Pattadakal represents the high point of an eclectic art which, in the 7th and 8th centuries under the Chalukya
dynasty, achieved a harmonious blend of architectural forms from northern and southern India. An
impressive series of nine Hindu temples, as well as a Jain sanctuary, can be seen there.
• Three very closely located sites in the State of Karnataka provide a remarkable concentration of religious
monuments dating from the great dynasty of the Chalukya (c. 543-757). There are the two successive capital
cities - Aihole (ancient Aryapura), Badami, and Pattadakal, the 'City of the Crown Rubies' (Pattada Kisuvolal).
• The latter was, moreover, for a brief time the third capital city of the Chalukya kingdom; at the time the
Pallava occupied Badami (642-55). While Aihole is traditionally considered the 'laboratory' of Chalukya
architecture, with such monuments as the Temple of Ladkhan (c. 450) which antedate the dynasty's political
successes during the reign of King Pulakeshin I, the city of Pattadakal illustrates the apogee of an eclectic art
which, in the 7th and 8th centuries, achieved a harmonious blend of architectural forms from the north and
south of India.
13) They introduced the art of excavating temples from the rock, and the Dravidian style of temple architecture
began with their rule. They were?
a) Cheras
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b) Pallavas
c) Eastern Chalukyas
d) Jaffna
Solution: b)
• Pallava age was a great age of temple building.

• It was a gradual evolution starting from the cave temples to monolithic rathas and culminated in structural
temples.
• The development of temple architecture under the Pallavas can be seen in several stages, which started with
Mahendravarman I introducing rock-cut temples.
• This style of Pallava temples are seen at places like Mandagappattu, Mahendravadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur,
Tiruchirappalli, Vallam, Siyamangalam and Tirukalukkunram.
14) In Vijayanagara temple architecture

1. Tall Raya Gopurams or gateways and the Kalyanamandapam with carved pillars can be found in the
temple premises
2. No animal figurines were to be found on the pillars of these temples
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Solution: b)
Statement 1: The chief characteristics of the Vijayanagara architecture were the construction of tall Raya
Gopurams or gateways and the Kalyanamandapam with carved pillars in the temple premises. The sculptures on
the pillars were carved with distinctive features.
Large mandapams contain one hundred pillars as well as one thousand pillars in some big temples.
Statement 2: The horse was the most common animal found in these pillars.
These mandapams were used for seating the deity on festival occasions.
Also, many Amman shrines were added to the already existing temples during this period.
15) The State Emblem of India is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Asoka. Consider the following
about the Sarnath figure.
1. In the original figure, the Lion Capital has six lions mounted back-to-back on a circular abacus.
2. The abacus of the figure rests on a bell-shaped lotus.
3. Apart from Lion, only horse and elephant are the other animals that have been depicted on the figure.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Statement 1: There are only four lions resting on the circular abacus in the original figure.
Statement 2 and 3: The frieze of the abacus is adorned with sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping
horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening Dharma Chakras. The abacus rests on a bell shaped lotus.
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16) Consider the following pairs

List I List II
1. Brihaddeshi Sarangadeva
2. Sangeeta Makaranda Narada
3. Swaramela-Kalanidhi Ramamatya
Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
Solution: b)
Brihaddeshi written in the 9th century by Matanga focused on the definition of the word ‘raga’.
The 11th century text, Sangeeta Makaranda was composed by Narada (Nanda) who enumerated 93 ragas and
classified them into feminine and masculine forms.
Swaramela-Kalanidhi written by Ramamatya in the 16th century which again deals primarily with ragas.
17) Consider the following about Purandara Dasa, a major figure associated with Carnatic music.
1. He was a contemporary of Kanakadasa.
2. He was a staunch opposer of idol worship as practiced in Vaishnavism.
3. He is associated with the introduction of Svaravalis and Alankaras in Carnatic music teaching.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
There is much speculation about where Purandara Dasa, regarded as the pitamaha of Carnatic music, was born.
An expert committee was constituted by Kannada University, Hampi.
Purandara Dasa (1484–1564) was a Haridasa, great devotee of Lord Krishna and a saint (S2 is wrong). He was a
disciple of the celebrated Madhwa philosopher-saint Vyasatirtha, and a contemporary of yet another great
Haridasa, Kanakadasa.
Purandaradasa was the pioneer who blended the rich musical streams, namely the Dravidian and Aryan music,
into a single stream known as Carnatic music. Prior to his initiation to Haridasa tradition, Purandara Dasa was a
rich merchant and was called as Srinivasa Nayaka.
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Contributions to Indian Music: He formulated the basic lessons of teaching Carnatic music by structuring graded
exercises known as Svaravalis and Alankaras.
He introduced the raga Mayamalavagowla as the first scale to be learnt by beginners in the field – a practice that
is still followed today. He also composed Gitas (simple songs) for novice students. He is noted for composing Dasa
Sahithya, as a Bhakti movement vocalist, and a music scholar.
18) Match the following folk traditions to their main feature.

1. Pankhida is sung by peasants of Assam during harvest.
2. The tradition of singing Rasiya Geet flourished in Braj.
3. In Pandavani, tales from Mahabharata are sung as a ballad and one or two episodes are chosen for the
performance.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
Statement 1: Sung by the peasants of Rajasthan while doing work in the fields, the peasants sing and speak even
while playing algoza and manjira. The literal meaning of the word ‘Pankhida’ is lover.
Statement 2: The rich tradition of singing Rasiya Geet flourished in Braj which is the sacred land of Lord Krishna’s
charming leelas from time immemorial.
This is not confined to any particular festival, but is closely woven into the very fabric of daily life and day to day
chores of its people.
‘Rasiya’ word is derived from the word rasa (emotion) because rasiya means that which is filled with rasa or
emotion.
Statement 3: In Pandavani, tales from Mahabharata are sung as a ballad and one or two episodes are chosen for
the night’s performance. The main singer continuously sits throughout the performance and with powerful
singing and symbolic gestures he assumes all the characters of the episode one after another.
19) With reference to the ‘Sugam Sangeet’, consider the following statements
1. It is the genre of devotional music, which brings classical and modernity together.
2. Sugam Sangeet is a form of Ghazal.
3. Tevaram is sung in the praise of Lord Vishnu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: b)
Sugam Sangeet is one such form of music which combines classicism and modernity in right balance. Of great
lyrical quality, the Sugam Sangeet is a Gujarati form of the Ghazal and is extremely soothing to the ears and the
soul as well.
Tevaram denotes the first seven volumes of the Tirumurai, the twelve-volume collection of Lord Shiva devotional
poetry. All seven volumes are dedicated to the works of the three most prominent Tamil poets of the 7th century,
the Nayanars - Sambandar, Tirunavukkarasar and Sundarar.
20) As per classical texts, to present nritya and natya effectively, a dancer should be trained to communicate
the navarasas. Which of the following is NOT a navarasa?
a) Karuna
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b) Bibhatsa
c) Shaanta
d) Lasya
Solution: d)
As per the ancient treatises, dance is considered as having three aspects: natya, nritya and nritta. Natya highlights
the dramatic element and most dance forms do not give emphasis to this aspect today with the exception of
dance-drama forms like Kathakali. Nrityais essentially expressional, performed specifically to convey the meaning
of a theme or idea. Nritta on the other hand, is pure dance where body movements do not express any mood
(bhava), nor do they convey any meaning. To present nritya and natya effectively, a dancer should be trained to
communicate the navarasas. These are: love (shringaara), mirth (haasya), compassion (karuna), valour(veera),
anger (roudra), fear (bhayanak), disgust (bibhatsa), wonder (adbhuta) and peace (shaanta).
Option D: An ancient classification followed in all styles is of Tandava and Lasya. Tandava the masculine, is heroic
bold and vigorous. Lasya the feminine is soft, lyrical and graceful. Abhinaya, broadly means expression. This is
achieved through angika, the body and limbs, vachikasong and speech and aharya, costume and adornment; and
satvika, moods and emotions.
5. History
1) With respect to Indian freedom struggle, how is the word “Swadeshi” different from “boycott”?
1. While Swadeshi attracted the lower strata of Indian society, Boycott attracted the higher strata.
2. Swadeshi was essentially economic movement, boycott was not.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The people had adopted the twin programme of 'Boycott' and 'Swadeshi ' as parts of one and the same
movement. These two words are two sides of the same coin and both were used as economic as well as political
tools. Boycott referred to the boycott of British goods in order to register protest with the British public against
the grave injustice inflicted upon Bengal. Boycott was a seemingly negative programme and Swadeshi as its
positive corollary was accepted along with. Swadeshi meant use of, and encouragement to, native products as
against foreign goods. Thus, the Boycott and Swadeshi movement brought all classes of Indian society,
particularly in Bengal to a common platform for a national cause.
2) Consider the following statements regarding Home Rule League Movement.

1. Home Rule League Movement was the Indian response to the First World War.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru, Mohammad Ali Jinnah and Madan Mohan Malaviya supported the Home Rule
agitation.
3. The Russian Revolution of 1917 led to the decline of the Home Rule League Movement.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
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Solution: b)
The Home Rule Movement was the Indian response to the First World War.
The Indian Home Rule Leagues were organized on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented
the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics. Annie Besant and Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend.
The Home Rule agitation was later joined by Motilal Nehru, Jawaharlal Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai, Chittaranjan Das,
Madan Mohan Malaviya, Mohammad Ali jinnah, Tej Bahadur Sapru and Lala Lajpat Rai. Some of these leaders
became heads of local branches.
The League campaign aimed to convey to the common man the message of Home Rule as self -government. The
Russian Revolution of 1917 proved to be an added advantage for the Home Rule campaign.

1. A Khilafat Committee was formed in 1915 to defend the Khalifa’s temporal powers.
2. Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, two prominent leaders, decided to boycott the Khilafat Committee.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The Khilafat committee was formed in the aftermath of the First World War (ending in 1919).
Post-war, there were rumours that a harsh peace treaty was going to be imposed on the Ottoman emperor – the
spiritual head of the Islamic world (the Khalifa).
To defend the Khalifa’s temporal powers, a Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in March 1919.
A young generation of Muslim leaders like the brothers Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, began discussing with
Mahatma Gandhi about the possibility of a united mass action on the issue.
Gandhiji saw this as an opportunity to bring Muslims under the umbrella of a unified national movement.
At the Calcutta session of the Congress in September 1920, he convinced other leaders of the need to start a non -
cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as for swaraj.
4) The Ghadar party was

1. A revolutionary organization
2. Founded in Punjab
3. Aiming at securing India's independence from British rule
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Ghadr Party was a revolutionary group organized around a weekly newspaper The Ghadr with its
headquarters at San Francisco and branches along the US coast and in the Far East with the aim of securing
India's independence from British rule.
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Key members included Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Abdul Hafiz Mohamed Barakatullah, Kartar Singh
Sarabha, and Rashbehari Bose.
5) Consider the following statements regarding Morley-Minto Reforms

1. It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative
councils to have non-official majority.
2. It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate
electorate’.
3. It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax or education.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Features of Act of 1909:

• It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils
to have non-official majority.
• It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate
electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters.
Government of India Act of 1919 granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property,
tax or education.
6) Which of the following were the action programme of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
1. Boycott of government affiliated schools and colleges
2. The congress organization was to reach down to the village and Mohalla level
3. Surrender of titles and honours given by the government
4. Taking control of the law-and-order machinery of the State by the Congress Working Committee
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
The non-cooperation movement was a political campaign launched on August 1, 1920, by Mahatma Gandhi to
have Indians revoke their cooperation from the British government, with the aim of persuading them to
grant self-governance.
The Congress's goal was shifted from achieving self-government through constitutional and legal means to
achieving Swaraj through peaceful and legal means.
By forming village and mohalla or ward committees, the Congress organisation was to reach down to the village
and mohalla level. The annual membership fee was reduced to four annas to allow the poor to join.
Through non-violent means, or ahimsa, protesters would refuse to buy British goods, adopt the use of local
handicrafts (by spinning khadi, etc.), and picket liquor shops. Moreover:
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• all offices and factories would be closed;
• Indians would be encouraged to withdraw from Raj-sponsored schools, police services, the military,
and the civil service, and lawyers were asked to leave the Raj's courts;
• public transportation and English-manufactured goods, especially clothing, was boycotted; and
• Indians returned honours and titles given by the government and resigned from various posts like
teachers, lawyers, civil and military services.
7) Consider the following statements regarding the events that took place after Mahatma Gandhi’s return to
India from South Africa.
1. On Nehru’s advice, Gandhiji spent a year travelling around British India, getting to know the land and
its peoples.
2. His first major public appearance was at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in 1916.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
On Gokhale‘s advice, Gandhiji spent a year travelling around British India, getting to know the land and its
peoples. His first major public appearance was at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in
February 1916. Also present were important leaders of the Congress, such as Annie Besant. Compared to these
dignitaries, Gandhiji was relatively unknown. He had been invited on account of his work in South Africa, rather
than his status within India.
8) Ahmadabad Mill Strike 1918 led by Gandhiji was based on the issue of
a) Large-scale layoffs of mill workers
b) Inhuman treatment of mill workers by the management
c) Objection of management on participation of workers in the freedom struggle
d) Plague Bonus of the previous year to workers
Solution: d)
• In 1918, there was a situation of conflict between the Gujarat Mill owners and workers on the question of
Plague Bonus of 1917.
• The Mill Owners wanted to withdraw the bonus while the workers demanded a 50% wage hike. The Mill
Owners were willing to give only 20% wage hike.
• In March later, under the leadership of Gandhi, there was a strike in the cotton mills. In this strike Gandhi
used the weapon of Hunger strike.
• It was carried out in pure non-violent disciplined way. The result was that the strike was successful and the
workers got a 35% wage increase.
9) Which of the following was/were the recommendations of the Simon Commission setup in 1927?
1. India’s constitution should be unitary in nature.
2. The provincial governments should devolve financial powers to the local bodies.
3. Separate electorates should be abolished.
4. Elections to the legislative assemblies will be based on Universal adult franchise.
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None
Solution: d)
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As per the commission, there should be a constitutional reconstruction in the form of a federal constitution. The
provinces should be given full autonomy including law.
Other major recommendations include:
• The number of members of provincial legislative council should be increased. Governor- general should
have complete power to appoint the members of the cabinet.
• The governor should have discretionary power to relate to internal security and administrative powers to
protect the different communities.
• The government of India should have complete control over the high court.
• There were no Indian members in the commission. No universal franchise was proposed and the position
of governor-general remained unaffected.
• There was no provision to abolish separate electorate but it was rather extended to other communities
as well. No financial devolution was proposed.
10) In Modern India, Yugantar Ashram was

a) The headquarters of the Gadar party
b) An Ashram adopted by the Indian National Congress in the memory of Mahatma Gandhi
c) A war memorial established by the British government for Indian freedom fighters in 1948
d) A seditious publication of the India House, London
Solution: a)
The Hindustan Association of the Pacific Coast, known as the Gadar Party was founded in 1913 to free India from
British slavery.
The headquarters of the association was established initially at 436 Hill Street, San Francisco and named as
“Yugantar Ashram.” The GoI decided in 2013 to convert this memorial into a library and Museum.
11) Which of the following organized ‘Pledge Movement’?

a) The Madras Mahajana Sabha
b) The British Indian Association
c) Indian Social Conference
d) Servants of India society
Solution: c)
Indian (National) Social Conference was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It was virtually the social
reform cell of the Indian National Congress. The Conference met annually as a subsidiary convention of the Indian
National Congress, at the same venue, and focused attention on social reform. The Conference advocated inter-
caste marriages and opposed kulinism and polygamy. It launched the famous “Pledge Movement” to inspire
people to take an oath to prohibit child marriage.
12) Consider the following statements regarding Home Rule League Movement.
1. Home Rule League Movement was the Indian response to the First World War.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru, Mohammad Ali Jinnah and Madan Mohan Malaviya supported the Home Rule
agitation.
3. The Russian Revolution of 1917 led to the decline of the Home Rule League Movement.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
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The Home Rule Movement was the Indian response to the First World War.
The Indian Home Rule Leagues were organized on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented
the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics. Annie Besant and Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend.
The Home Rule agitation was later joined by Motilal Nehru, Jawaharlal Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai, Chittaranjan Das,
Madan Mohan Malaviya, Mohammad Ali jinnah, Tej Bahadur Sapru and Lala Lajpat Rai. Some of these leaders
became heads of local branches.
The League campaign aimed to convey to the common man the message of Home Rule as self -government. The
Russian Revolution of 1917 proved to be an added advantage for the Home Rule campaign.
13) Arrange the following events chronologically starting from the earliest:
1. Champaran satyagraha
2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
3. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
4. Foundation of Satyagraha Sabha
a) 1-3-4-2
b) 1-3-4-2
c) 3-1-4-2
d) 3-1-2-4
Solution: a)
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first satyagraha movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in British India.
Gandhiji's second struggle was at Ahmedabad in 1918 when he had to intervene in a dispute between the
workers and the mill-owners.
Satyagraha Sabha founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1919. Satyagraha Sabha was founded in the protest against
the Rowlatt Act.
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13 April 1919.
14) Who among the following were associated with the Berlin Committee for Indian independence?
1. Bhupendranath Dutta
2. Lala Hardayal
3. Virendranath Chattopadhyay
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The Berlin Committee for Indian Independence was established in 1915 by Virendranath Chattopadhyay,
Bhupendranath Dutta, Lala Hardayal, and others.
Revolutionaries aimed to mobilise the Indian settlers abroad to send volunteers and arms to India to incite
rebellion among Indian troops there and to even organise an armed invasion of British India to liberate the
country.
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15) Consider the following statements regarding C. Rajagopalachari Formula.

1. It proposed that Muslim League shall endorse Congress's demand for independence.
2. After the end of the Second World war, the entire population of Muslim majority areas in North -West
and North-East India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state.
3. Gandhiji did not support the formula.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Rajagopalachari’s formula (or C. R. formula or Rajaji formula) was a proposal formulated

by C.Rajagopalachari to solve the political deadlock between the All India Muslim League and the Indian National
Congress on the independence of British India.
The League’s position was that the Muslims and Hindus of British India were two separate nations and
henceforth the Muslims had the right to their own nation.
The Congress, which included both Hindu and Muslim members, opposed the idea of partitioning India.
The Rajagopalachari Formula

• The main points in the CR Plan were:
• Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for independence.
• League to cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at centre.
• After the end of the war, the entire population of Muslim majority areas in the North-West and North-East
India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state.
• In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defence, commerce,
communications, etc.
• The above terms are to be operative only if England transferred full powers to India.
Reactions to the formula

• The formula was a tacit acceptance of the League’s demand for Pakistan. And Gandhiji supported the
formula.
• Jinnah wanted the Congress to accept the two-nation theory.
• He wanted only the Muslims of North-West and North-East to vote in the plebiscite and not the entire
population. He also opposed the idea of a common centre.
16) Arrange the following early political associations in British India, in the chronological order of their formation.
1. East India Association, London
2. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
3. The British Indian Association
4. The Bombay Association
a) 3-4-1-2
b) 3-4-2-1
c) 4-3-1-2
d) 4-3-2-1
Solution: a)
The British Indian Association – 1851 Bengal
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Madras Native Association 1852
The Bombay Association — 1852 Dadabhai Naoroji
East India Association 1866 London
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha —1870
The Madras Mahajana Sabha—1884
17) Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organized in London.
1. It was founded by Devendranath Tagore.
2. The organization aimed to present correct information about India to the British Public and voice Indian
Grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru
incident.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Statement 1: Dadabhai Naoroji initiated establishment of East India Association, at London. It was one of the
predecessor organizations of the Indian National Congress in 1867.
Statement 2: Over the course of its existence, the Association would listen to lectures from a wide range of
Indian and British men and women on matters ranging from the economic development of India to literature to
suffrage.
It superseded the London Indian Society and was a platform for discussing matters and ideas about India, and to
provide representation for Indians to the Government.
Statement 3: The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association in 1949 and became the
Britain, India and Pakistan Association. In 1966 it amalgamated with the former India Society, now Royal India,
Pakistan and Ceylon Society, to become the Royal Society for India, Pakistan and Ceylon.
18) Powerful newspapers emerged during the years before the Swadeshi movement. Match the following
newspapers and their editors.
1. Swadesamitran: G. Subramaniya Iyer
2. Amrita Bazar Patrika: Motilal Ghosh
3. Voice of India: N. N. Sen
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Option 3 is incorrect.
Swadesamitran under the editorship of G. Subramaniya Iyer; Kesari and Mahratta under B.G. Tilak; Bengalee
under Surendranath Banerjea; Amrita Bazar Patrika under Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh; Sudharak
under G.K. Gokhale; Indian Mirror under N.N. Sen; Voice of India under Dadabhai Naoroji.
In fact, there hardly existed a major political leader in India who did not possess a newspaper or was not writing
for one in some capacity or the other.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
19) During the Swadeshi Movement, which of the following leader declared that “Political Freedom is the life breath
of a nation”?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Bipin Chandra Pal
c) Aurobindo Ghose
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Solution: c)
The militant nationalists tried to transform the anti-partition and Swadeshi Movement into a mass struggle and
gave the slogan of India’s independence from foreign rule. “Political freedom is the life breath of a nation,”
declared Aurobindo. Thus, the Extremists gave the idea of India’s independence the central place in India’s
politics. The goal of independence was to be achieved through self -sacrifice.
20) Indian National Liberal Federation was founded by

a) Virendranath Chattopadhyay
b) Surendranath Banerjee
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Maulana Azad
Solution: b)
Indian National Liberal Federation 1920:

When Gandhi assumed leadership of INC and launched Noncooperation movement. Several leader left congress
like Muhammad Ali Jinnah, Annie Besant, G.S. Kharpade, and B.C. Pal.
At this stage Surendranath Banerjea founded the Indian National Liberal Federation and played a minor role in
national politics henceforward.
21) Which of the following are the sites of Indus Valley Civilisation?
1. Sutkagen Dor
2. Rakhigarhi
3. Manda
4. Daimabad
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
Sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation have been found in a large area extending from Sutkagen Dor in Balochistan
near the Pakistan-Iran border to Rakhigarhi in Haryana’s Hisar district, and from Manda in Jammu to Daimabad in
Maharashtra. Other important sites of the Harappan civilization in India are at Lothal and Dholavira in Gujarat,
and Kalibangan in Rajasthan.
22) Consider the following statements regarding Lothal.

1. Lothal was a thriving trade centre in ancient times, with its trade of beads, gems and ornaments
reaching West Asia and Africa.
2. Lothal had the world’s earliest known dock, connecting the city to an ancient course of the Sabarmati
River.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Lothal was a thriving trade centre in ancient times, with its trade of beads, gems and ornaments reaching West
Asia and Africa.
Excavation work was carried out in Lothal between February 1955 and May 1960. According to the Archaeological
Survey of India (ASI), Lothal had the world’s earliest known dock, connecting the city to an ancient course of the
Sabarmati River.
23) Consider the following statements regarding Treaty of Alinagar.

1. It was signed by Nawab Siraj ud Daula with the English East India Company.
2. The Treaty strengthened the position of the British in Bengal.
3. It laid the foundations for the Battle of Plassey.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The Treaty of Alinagar, signed on February 9, 1757, was a reluctant agreement signed by Bengal’s Nawab Siraj ud
Daula with the English East India Company. An outcome of decades of tension that bubbled over into armed
conflict between the two parties, the Treaty strengthened the position of the British in Bengal and laid
foundations for the Battle of Plassey a few months later.
The treaty set the stage for British colonial expansion in India.
24) Consider the following statements regarding Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

1. At Jallianwala Bagh people gathered for a public meeting against the arrest of Dr Satyapal and Dr
Saifuddin Kitchlew for opposing the Ilbert Bill.
2. Hunter Committee was set up to investigate the Jallianwala bagh incident.
3. Rabindranath Tagore gave up his knighthood as a response to the incident.
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 3 only
Solution: b)
April 13 saw celebrations for the Sikh festival of Baisakhi, which marks the onset of Spring and the harvest of
winter crops. Simultaneously, the movement for independence from British rule had been steadily gaining
ground.
By 4 pm, many gathered for a public meeting against the arrest of Dr Satyapal and Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew for
opposing the Rowlatt Act.
Without giving the crowd any warning to disperse, Dyer ordered his troops to fire.
Indian leaders expressed their anger and protested in response to the killings. Notably, Nobel laureate poet
Rabindranath Tagore gave up his knighthood.
A Committee named Hunter Committee was set up to investigate the Jallianwala bagh incident.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
25) 'Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas' is celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of

a) Rani Gaidinliu
b) Birsa Munda
c) Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu
d) Alluri Seetha Ram Raju
Solution: b)
November 15 is celebrated as 'Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas' to mark the birth anniversary of Tribal Freedom Fighter
"Birsa Munda" from year 2021 onwards, who was not only a freedom fighter but also social reformer and led
tribal movement, namely Ulgulan (Revolt) against exploitative systems of British Colonial Govt. He is also known
as Dharti Abba as he encouraged tribals to understand their cultural roots & observe unity.
6. Environment
1. A “carbon credit” is an electronic and serialized unit that represents one ton of CO equivalent that is
reduced, avoided, or sequestered from projects applying an approved carbon credit methodology.
2. Decarbonization refers to the conversion of the economic system or individual carbon emitting entity
reducing the carbon intensity of its emissions over time.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
A “carbon credit” (also known as a “carbon offset”) is an electronic and serialized unit that represents one ton of
CO2 equivalent that is reduced, avoided, or sequestered from projects applying an approved carbon credit
methodology.
Decarbonization means the reduction of carbon. More specifically, the term refers to the conversion of the
economic system or individual carbon emitting entity converting to reduce the carbon intensity of its (direct or
value chain) emissions over time.
2) When coal is burned, it releases a number of airborne toxins and pollutants like
1. Nitrogen oxides
2. Lead
3. Sulfur dioxide
4. Mercury
5. Heavy Metals
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Solution: d)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
When coal is burned it releases a number of airborne toxins and pollutants. They include Carbon dioxide,
mercury, lead, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, particulates, and various other heavy metals. Health impacts can
range from asthma and breathing difficulties, to brain damage, heart problems, cancer, neurological disorders,
and premature death.
3) While burning hydrocarbon fuels, if we see a blue flame it means that the fuel is
a) Wet
b) made of saturated hydrocarbons
c) made of unsaturated hydrocarbons
d) burning completely
Solution: b)
In saturated hydrocarbons complete combustion of the fuel takes place but in the unsaturated hydrocarbons
incomplete combustion takes place.
Hence saturated hydrocarbons give a blue flame while unsaturated hydrocarbons burn with a sooty flame.
4) Consider the following statements regarding Biogas.

1. It is formed by the decomposition of cow dung in the absence of oxygen.
2. It is a non-renewable source of energy.
3. It burns without smoke and leaves no residue.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Biogas is a renewable fuel produced by the breakdown of organic matter such as food scraps and animal waste
by microorganisms in the absence of oxygen. It burns without smoke, leaves no residue like ash in wood,
charcoal and coal burning. Its heating capacity is high.
5) Which one of the following is an exhaustible but renewable natural resource?

a) Nuclear energy
b) Solar energy
c) Soil
d) Water in usable condition
Solution: d)
Water in usable condition is an exhaustible but renewable natural resource.
6) The phenomenon of increasing concentration of a substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of
tolerant organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain is known as:
a) Biosparging
b) Biodilution
c) Biomagnification
d) Bioaccumulation
Solution: c)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Biomagnification, also known as bioamplification or biological magnification, is the increasing concentration of
a substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of tolerant organisms at successively higher levels in a food
chain.
7) Due to improper / indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are
released into the environment as e-waste?
1. Cadmium
2. Lead
3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury
6. Beryllium
7. Plutonium
a) 1, 3, 4, 6, 7
b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 7
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
Solution: b)
Heptachor is an insecticide. Plutonium is radioactive and hence not used in day to day computer/electronic items.
8) Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Earth’s crust. Its widespread use has resulted in
extensive environmental contamination, human exposure and significant public health problems in many
parts of the world. Which of the following can contribute to Lead pollution?
1. Cosmetics and traditional medicines
2. Paints
3. Batteries of motor vehicles
4. Ceramic glazes
5. Smelting
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: d)
• Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Earth’s crust. Its widespread use has resulted in
extensive environmental contamination, human exposure and significant public health problems in many
parts of the world.
• Important sources of environmental contamination include mining, smelting, manufacturing and recycling
activities, and, in some countries, the continued use of leaded paint, leaded gasoline, and leaded aviation
fuel. More than three quarters of global lead consumption is for the manufacture of lead-acid batteries for
motor vehicles. Lead is, however, also used in many other products, for example pigments, paints, solder,
stained glass, lead crystal glassware, ammunition, ceramic glazes, jewellery, toys and in some cosmetics
and traditional medicines. Drinking water delivered through lead pipes or pipes joined with lead solder may
contain lead. Much of the lead in global commerce is now obtained from recycling.
9) Consider the following statements regarding Desertification.

1. Desertification refers to the expansion of existing deserts.
2. Desertification is caused primarily by human activities alone.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
3. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification is the only internationally legally binding
framework set up to address the problem of desertification.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Desertification is the degradation of land in arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas. It is caused primarily by
human activities and climatic variations. Desertification does not refer to the expansion of existing deserts.
It occurs because dryland ecosystems, which cover over one third of the world‘s land area, are extremely
vulnerable to overexploitation and inappropriate land use.
Established in 1994, the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the sole legally binding
international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. The Convention
addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where some of the
most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.
10) Consider the following statements regarding Eutrophication.

1. Excess of phosphorous and nitrogen in a water body may cause eutrophication.
2. Unoxygenated “dead zones” appear in waterways due to eutrophication.
3. Eutrophication in the ocean can lead to ocean acidification.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: d)
Eutrophication describes a big problem in the nation's estuaries. Harmful algal blooms, dead zones, and fish kills
are the results of a process called eutrophication—which begins with the increased load of nutrients to estuaries
and coastal waters.
The primary culprits in eutrophication appear to be excess nitrogen and phosphorus —from sources including
fertilizer runoff and septic system effluent to atmospheric fallout from burning fossil fuels —which enter
waterbodies and fuel the overgrowth of algae, which, in turn, reduces water quality and degrades estuarine and
coastal ecosystems.
Eutrophication can also produce carbon dioxide, which lowers the PH of seawater (ocean acidification). This slows
the growth of fish and shellfish, may prevent shell formation in bivalve mollusks, and reduces the catch of
commercial and recreational fisheries, leading to smaller harvests and more expensive seafood.
11) Consider the following agriculture practices.

1. Zero-Tillage helps in carbon sequestration and requires minimum labour compare to traditional
farming method.
2. Zero-Tillage reduces the soil erosion and crop duration.
3. Vertical farming method is different from hydroponic or aeroponic growing methods.
4. Mixed farming is a multiple cropping practice involving growing two or more crops in proximity.
a) Only one
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: b)
Statement 1 and 2 is correct.
Zero tillage is the process where the crop seed will be sown through drillers without prior land preparation and
disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles are present.
Zero tillage not only reduce the cost of cultivation it also reduces the soil erosion, crop duration and irrigation
requirement and weed effect which is better than tillage. Zero Tillage (ZT) also called No Tillage or Nil Tillage.
Mixed farming is a type of farming which involves both the growing of crops as well as the raising of livestock.
Intercropping is a multiple cropping practice involving growing two or more crops in proximity.
Vertical farming is the practice of growing produce in vertically stacked layers. The practice can use
soil, hydroponic or aeroponic growing methods. Vertical farms attempt to produce food in challenging
environments, like where arable land is rare or unavailable.
12) Which of the following are the advantages of phytoremediation?

1. It protects the soil from erosion due to wind and water.
2. No external energy source is required since the plants grow with the help of sunlight.
3. It enriches the soil with organic substances.
4. It is cost-effective in comparison with other remediation methods.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
Phytoremediation refers to the usage of “hyperaccumulator” plants to absorb the toxic materials present in the
soil and accumulate in their living tissue. Even though most plants do sometimes accumulate toxic substances,
hyperaccumulators have the unusual ability to absorb hundreds or thousands of times greater amounts of these
substances than is normal for most plants.
What are the advantages of phytoremediation with hyperaccumulators?

One of the primary advantages of phytoremediation is the fact that it is quite cost-effective in comparison with
other remediation methods. The only major costs attached are related to crop management (planting, weed
control, watering, fertilisation, pruning, fencing, harvesting etc.). This method is also relatively simple and
doesn’t require any new kinds of specialised technology. Also, no external energy source is required since the
plants grow with the help of sunlight.
Another important advantage of this method is that it enriches the soil with organic substances and
microorganisms which can protect its chemical and biological qualities. Also, while the plants are growing and
accumulating toxic heavy metals, they protect the soil from erosion due to wind and water.

1. Electrostatic precipitator can remove most of the particulate matter present in the exhaust from a
thermal power plant.
2. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use leaded petrol because lead in the petrol
activates the catalyst.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
3. A scrubber can remove gases like sulfur dioxide from the exhaust of coal-fired power plants.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
There are several ways of removing particulate matter; the most widely used of which is the electrostatic
precipitator, which can remove over 99 per cent particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal
power plant.
A scrubber can remove gases like sulphur dioxide. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed through a spray of water
or lime.
Catalytic converters, having expensive metals namely platinum-palladium and rhodium as the catalysts, are fitted
into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic
converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric
oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic
converter should use unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
14) Consider the following statements regarding Aerosols.

1. Aerosols are solid particles suspended in a gaseous environment.
2. Aerosols are only situated in the lower layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km) since aerosol sources are
located on the terrestrial surface.
3. They affect the atmospheric chemical composition.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Aerosols:
• Aerosols are defined as a combination of liquid or solid particles suspended in a gaseous or liquid
environment.
• In the atmosphere, these particles are mainly situated in the low layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km)
since aerosol sources are located on the terrestrial surface.
• certain aerosols can still be found in the stratosphere, especially volcanic aerosols ejected into the high-
altitude layers.
• The origin of atmospheric aerosols is either natural or the result of anthropogenic activities
Effects of aerosols:
• They affect the atmospheric chemical composition.
• They can reduce visibility.
• They have important impacts on air quality and human health (e.g., aerosols can cause damage to heart
and lungs).
• They serve as nuclei for cloud droplets or ice crystals in ice clouds.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ

1. Any oil or gas project that will result in at least a billion tonnes of CO2 emissions over its lifetime can be
called as carbon bombs.
2. Net zero emissions means that all carbon emissions into the atmosphere must be absorbed by methods
like increasing the forest cover, and decreasing man-made emissions.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The usage of the term ‘carbon bombs’ picked up after an investigative project of The Guardian from May this
year. The project reported the plans of countries and private companies all over the world to engage in 195
‘carbon bomb’ projects. Each such project, it is believed, will release huge amounts of CO2 emis sions into the
atmosphere.
What are carbon bombs?

Defining the term in its report, The Guardian said that it is “an oil or gas project that will result in at least a
billion tonnes of CO2 emissions over its lifetime.”
Whenever coal, oil, or gas is extracted it results in pollution and environmental degradation. Further, carbon
emissions take place in particularly large amounts when fuel is burned.
Net zero emissions means that all carbon emissions into the atmosphere must be absorbed by methods like
increasing the forest cover, and decreasing man-made emissions.

1. In the aquatic environment, the sediment-characteristics often determine the type of benthic animals
that can thrive there.
2. Like humans, plants also have mechanisms to maintain internal temperature.
3. Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions since thermoregulation is energetically expensive
for these animals.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The mechanisms used by most mammals to regulate their body temperature are similar to the ones that we
humans use. We maintain a constant body temperature of 37 degree C. In summer, when outside
temperature is more than our body temperature, we sweat profusely.
The resulting evaporative cooling, similar to what happens with a desert cooler in operation, brings down the
body temperature. In winter when the temperature is much lower than 37 degree C, we start to
shiver, a kind of exercise which produces heat and raises the body temperature. Plants, on the other hand, do
not have such mechanisms to maintain internal temperatures.
Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many organisms. This is particularly true for small animals like
shrews and humming birds. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area. Since small animals have a larger
surface area relative to their volume, they tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside ; then they
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
have to expend much energy to generate body heat through metabolism. This is the main reason why very small
animals are rarely found in polar regions.
17) Consider the following statements regarding Phosphorus and Phosphorus Cycle.
1. Phosphorus cycle is largely atmospheric and easily dissolves in water from air.
2. Phosphorus occurs as a mineral in phosphate rocks and enters the Phosphorus cycle from erosion and
mining activities.
3. Phosphorus is responsible for excessive growth of rooted and free -floating microscopic plants in water
bodies.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Phosphorous cycle is mainly terrestrial. The main storage for phosphorus is in the earth's crust. On land
phosphorus is usually found in the form of phosphates.
It occurs in large amounts as a mineral in phosphate rocks and enters the cycle from erosion and mining
activities.
By the process of weathering and erosion phosphates enter rivers and streams that transport them to the ocean.
Being an important nutrient, phosphorous promotes eutrophication in lakes. Along with nitrogen related
compounds it leads to undesirable situations like algal bloom.
18) Why do exotic species post a threat to an indigenous ecosystem such as in a Lake or an isolated island in the
Andamans?
1. Such species compete with the local or native species for food.
2. They may be predators of local species.
3. Such species may cause diseases in native species.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
• Exotic species introduced to new environments often reset the ecological conditions in that new habitat,
threatening the species that exist there; this is the reason that they are also termed invasive species.
• Invasive species that are closely related to rare native species have the potential to hybridize with the native
species; harmful effects of hybridization have led to a decline and even extinction of native species.
• Invasive species can change the food web in an ecosystem by destroying or replacing native food sources.
The invasive species may provide little to no food value for wildlife.
• Lakes and islands are particularly vulnerable to extinction threats from introduced species.
19) Which of the following are the modern-day people’s movements for environmental protection in India?
1. Appiko movement
2. Chipko movement
3. Jungle Bachao Andolan
4. Silent Valley movement
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Chipko movement (1973) in Uttarakhand and the Silent Valley movement (the late 1970s) in Kerala are two
of the most well-known modern-day people’s movements for environmental protection in India that inspired
several other environmental movements during the last five decades.
The Chipko movement gave rise to many similar resistance groups in India, including Appiko in Karnataka.
The Jungle Bachao Andolan took shape in the early 1980s when the government proposed to replace the natural
sal forest of Singhbhum District, Bihar, with commercial teak plantations.
20) To be classified as a wetland under Ramsar Convention, the wetland should have which of the following
properties?
1. It should be a natural wetland and not artificially formed
2. The depth of the marine water at low tide must not exceed six meters
3. The water in the wetland can be static or flowing
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands defines wetlands as “areas of marsh, fen, peat land or water, whether
natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt,
including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six meters”.

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INSTA STATIC QUIZ

4. ART AND CULTURE ..................................................................................................... 28

2) Consider the following statements.

4) The NOTA voting option is applicable in

Statement 3 and 4 is incorrect.

5) Consider the following statements.

Four factors have contributed to the elephantine size of our Constitution.

10) A Constitution usually does not serve this function:

13) Consider the following statements.

14) Consider the following statements regarding Cooperatives.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

15) The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on:

16) Substantive equality adopted by some countries, means that

17) Consider the following statements.

18) Consider the following statements.

19) Consider the following statements.

20) Consider the following statements regarding Lok Adalat.

3) Consider the following statements.

5) Consider the following statements:

6) Consider the following statements:

7) Which of the following factors contribute to the evolution of landforms on earth?

8) With reference to properties of lava, consider the following statements

The region in question is the Ring of Fire.

This region is also prone to high volcanism.

11) Consider the following statements regarding barrier islands.

13) Consider the following statements.

16) Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh is known for

18) Consider the following statements.

19) Consider the following statements regarding Coronal holes.

Only option 2 is correct.

2) Consider the following statements regarding Fixed Capital Formation.

4) Economic depression is best defined as a period of

5) Consider the following statements.

Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Fiscal Reforms and Budget Management Act (FRBMA):

10) Consider the following statements

Composition of Fiscal Deficit

Crowding out effect: -

12) Consider the following statements.

13) Consider the following statements regarding Vostro accounts.

Vostro accounts are opened to facilitate trade in rupee.

What is a Nostro account?

What led to creation of the Vostro accounts?

14) Consider the following statements regarding BSE SENSEX.

In 2001 BSE launched DOLLEX-30, a dollar-linked version of the SENSEX.

15) Consider the following statements.

16) Consider the following statements regarding Subsidies.

What is included in subsidy?

17) Consider the following statements.

18) Consider the following statements regarding interest coverage ratio.

Generally, a higher coverage ratio is better.

19) Consider the following statements.

20) Consider the following statements.

4. Art and Culture

3) Which of the following monuments were constructed by Shah Jahan?

Option 1 and 3 is correct.

5) Consider the following statements regarding Chalukyan architecture.

6) Consider the following statements.

7) Who propounded Kashmir Shaivism?

Only Statement 3 is correct.