MCQs for NURS 1112 Unit 1: Infectious Disease Process

1. What is the term for the natural progression of a disease in an individual without
medical intervention?
a) Pathogenesis
b) Pre-pathogenesis
c) Natural history
d) Chain of infection
2. In the natural history of disease, which phase occurs before the onset of active
disease?
a) Pathogenesis
b) Pre-pathogenesis
c) Recovery phase
d) Incubation period
3. Which of the following best defines infectivity?
a) The ability of an agent to invade and multiply in a host
b) The ability of an agent to cause disease
c) The immune response generated by a host
d) The duration of infection in a host
4. What is the minimum infection prevention practice applied to all patient care settings?
a) Universal precautions
b) Standard precautions
c) Barrier nursing
d) Isolation protocol
5. Which of the following is NOT an element of standard precautions?
a) Hand hygiene
b) Use of personal protective equipment
c) Routine vaccination of healthcare workers
d) Environmental cleanliness
6. What type of precautions assumes that all human blood and body fluids are
potentially infectious?
a) Standard precautions
b) Transmission-based precautions
c) Universal precautions
d) Reverse isolation
7. What is the term for the site where microorganisms thrive and reproduce?
a) Infectious agent
b) Reservoir
c) Susceptible host
d) Portal of exit
8. Which of the following describes the mode of transmission through a contaminated
source such as food or equipment?
a) Airborne transmission
b) Common vehicle transmission
c) Vector-borne transmission
d) Direct contact transmission
9. Which mode of transmission involves microorganisms that are <5 microns in size and
can remain suspended in air?
a) Droplet transmission
b) Airborne transmission
 c) Vector-borne transmission
d) Contact transmission
10. What describes the means by which an infectious agent gains access to a host?
a) Mode of transmission
b) Portal of exit
c) Portal of entry
d) Reservoir
11. Which transmission method occurs when droplets ≥5 microns in size are propelled a
short distance (<1 meter)?
a) Airborne transmission
b) Droplet transmission
c) Vector-borne transmission
d) Common vehicle transmission
12. A susceptible host is one who:
a) Has been previously exposed to the infectious agent
b) Lacks immunity or resistance to the infectious agent
c) Is currently undergoing treatment for an infection
d) Cannot transmit the infectious agent to others
13. What is the term for infections caused by animals and insects?
a) Direct contact transmission
b) Indirect contact transmission
c) Vector-borne transmission
d) Airborne transmission
14. Which of the following involves transfer of microorganisms via an object?
a) Direct contact transmission
b) Indirect contact transmission
c) Common vehicle transmission
d) Droplet transmission
15. In the chain of infection, which step involves microorganisms leaving the reservoir?
a) Portal of entry
b) Portal of exit
c) Mode of transmission
d) Susceptible host
16. What is the primary purpose of aseptic techniques?
a) To enhance microorganism growth
b) To prevent contamination and infection
c) To improve antibiotic efficacy
d) To promote immune system function
17. Transmission-based precautions are specifically designed for:
a) Preventing infections in healthy populations
b) Managing patients with known or suspected infectious diseases
c) Preventing healthcare worker injuries
d) Enhancing environmental sanitation
18. Which term refers to infections acquired in a healthcare setting?
a) Community-acquired infection
b) Nosocomial infection
c) Opportunistic infection
d) Vector-borne infection
19. What is the most effective method for preventing the spread of infections in
healthcare settings?
 a) Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
b) Hand hygiene
c) Isolation of all patients
d) Air purification systems
20. Which of the following is a common vehicle for infection transmission?
a) Airborne particles
b) Infected wounds
c) Contaminated IV fluids
d) Mosquitoes

21. What is the definition of infection according to the IPC Manual 2020?
a) The ability of an agent to cause disease in multiple hosts
b) The entry, establishment, and immune response induced by a microorganism in the
host
c) The spread of infectious agents through contact with bodily fluids
d) The capacity of a host to resist infection
22. What does "infectivity" specifically refer to in the context of infection?
a) Ability to grow and multiply in a host
b) Ability to cause symptoms in a susceptible host
c) Capacity to be transmitted through multiple reservoirs
d) Ability to survive in environmental conditions
23. Which of the following is a reservoir for infectious agents?
a) Immune cells
b) Dust particles in the air
c) Infected individuals, animals, or inanimate objects like water
d) Antibiotics
24. Which of the following is a portal of exit for microorganisms?
a) Intact skin
b) Feces from an infected bowel
c) Clean surgical instruments
d) Sterile gloves
25. What are examples of airborne transmission of microorganisms?
a) Pathogens carried by droplets ≥5 microns in size
b) Microorganisms carried by dust particles or aerosols <5 microns in size
c) Pathogens transmitted by direct skin-to-skin contact
d) Microorganisms transferred through shared medical equipment
26. Which of the following describes droplet transmission?
a) Microorganisms are carried long distances by air currents.
b) Droplets >5 microns are propelled a short distance and enter nasal or oral mucosa.
c) Microorganisms are transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food or water.
d) Transmission occurs through insect bites.
27. How does indirect contact transmission occur?
a) Through contaminated vectors such as mosquitoes
b) Through physical touch with an infected individual
c) By transfer of microorganisms via objects like doorknobs or medical equipment
d) Through respiratory droplets
28. Which of the following is an example of common vehicle transmission?
a) Sneezing or coughing in close proximity to a susceptible host
b) Consumption of contaminated food or medication
 c) Skin-to-skin contact with an infected individual
d) Bite from an infected animal
29. A patient who is immunocompromised is more likely to be classified as a:
a) Reservoir
b) Susceptible host
c) Infectious agent
d) Portal of exit
30. Universal precautions are primarily aimed at preventing the transmission of:
a) Airborne diseases
b) Bloodborne pathogens like HIV and Hepatitis B
c) Vector-borne diseases
d) Nosocomial infections in hospital settings
31. Which of the following is a feature of standard precautions?
a) Only used for patients with confirmed infections
b) Treats all patients as potentially infectious
c) Focuses solely on airborne pathogens
d) Applies only in surgical settings
32. In the chain of infection, which step must be addressed to prevent the transfer of
pathogens via indirect contact?
a) Reservoir management
b) Proper handling of sharps and waste
c) Improving host immunity
d) Minimizing environmental air pollution
33. What term describes infections acquired during hospital stays?
a) Community-acquired infections
b) Nosocomial infections
c) Airborne infections
d) Vector-borne infections
34. Which of the following practices is part of medical asepsis?
a) Sterilizing surgical instruments
b) Using antiseptics to clean skin before surgery
c) Reducing the spread of microorganisms in everyday patient care
d) Wearing sterile gloves in a surgical suite
35. What is the primary goal of barrier nursing?
a) To ensure patient comfort during medical procedures
b) To isolate patients with communicable diseases and prevent the spread of infection
c) To enhance environmental cleanliness in healthcare settings
d) To implement universal precautions for all patients
36. What is the primary characteristic of surgical asepsis?
a) Reducing microorganisms to a safe level in a non-surgical setting
b) Eliminating all microorganisms from an object or area during invasive procedures
c) Washing hands before patient interaction
d) Ensuring safe waste disposal in healthcare environments
37. Which of the following is NOT a mode of disease transmission?
a) Airborne
b) Droplet
c) Susceptible host
d) Vector-borne
38. Which of the following is considered a vector in disease transmission?
a) Contaminated food
 b) Mosquito
c) Intravenous fluid
d) Air currents
39. Which component in the chain of infection is targeted by proper respiratory hygiene
and cough etiquette?
a) Portal of exit
b) Portal of entry
c) Mode of transmission
d) Susceptible host
40. The term “reverse isolation” refers to:
a) Isolating healthcare workers exposed to infectious diseases
b) Protecting immunocompromised patients from external pathogens
c) Quarantining individuals with airborne diseases
d) Implementing universal precautions for visitors
MCQs Based on NURS 1112 UNIT 2: Management of Infection Prevention &
Control

1. What is a key objective of infection prevention and control?

a) Ensuring immunity in all healthcare workers
b) Implementing vaccination programs for patients
c) Maintaining a safe patient care environment
d) Providing all staff with advanced medical training
2. Which entity is responsible for infection prevention and control policies at a regional
level?
a) Infection Prevention and Control Officer
b) Regional health authorities
c) Individual healthcare workers
d) Professional organizations
3. What role does the Infection Prevention and Control Committee (IPCC) play?
a) Enforcing clinical documentation policies
b) Educating the public about chronic illnesses
c) Establishing, monitoring, and maintaining infection prevention and control policies
d) Approving hospital budgets for infection control programs
4. Who is responsible for daily infection prevention activities in a healthcare facility?
a) Regional health authorities
b) Infection Prevention and Control Officer
c) Quality assurance managers
d) Community health educators
5. What is included in the quality assurance framework for infection prevention and
control?
a) International healthcare standards
b) Policies, roles, and responsibilities for infection prevention
c) Funding for medical equipment
d) Education on chronic disease management
6. What is the purpose of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
a) To outline patient rights in healthcare settings
b) To provide information on chemical hazards and safe handling procedures
c) To document infection rates in healthcare facilities
d) To ensure proper training for healthcare providers
7. Which of the following is NOT a component of occupational control measures?
a) Elimination of hazards
b) Universal healthcare access
c) Administrative controls
d) Engineering controls
8. What is the primary role of professional organizations in infection prevention?
a) Funding healthcare initiatives
b) Developing guidelines and education for health professionals
c) Conducting patient satisfaction surveys
d) Managing healthcare facility budgets
9. How many policy statements are included in the infection prevention and control
manual?
a) 15
b) 18
 c) 23
d) 30
10. What is the main focus of the policies outlined in the infection prevention and control
framework?
a) Designing patient-centric healthcare programs
b) Comprehensive infection prevention and control practices
c) Eliminating occupational hazards in the community
d) Enhancing communication among healthcare teams
11. What does "work practice controls" refer to in occupational control measures?
a) Modifying how tasks are performed to reduce exposure risks
b) Ensuring healthcare workers wear PPE at all times
c) Installing air filtration systems in healthcare facilities
d) Limiting patient access to certain treatments
12. What is an example of an engineering control for infection prevention?
a) Using respirators for staff handling infectious patients
b) Implementing proper hand hygiene practices
c) Installing physical barriers like safety shields
d) Providing training programs for staff
13. What is the significance of the Infection Prevention and Control Officer being a
member of the IPCC?
a) Ensuring daily infection prevention activities align with committee guidelines
b) Managing financial resources for infection control programs
c) Overseeing vaccination programs for healthcare workers
d) Leading public health education campaigns
14. What are standard precautions designed to prevent?
a) Transmission of only airborne pathogens
b) Transmission of bloodborne and other infectious agents
c) Spread of infection through medical equipment only
d) All hospital-acquired infections
15. Which of the following is a professional responsibility for maintaining a safe patient
care environment?
a) Reporting non-compliance with infection control measures
b) Assigning infection prevention duties to administrative staff
c) Conducting research unrelated to infection control
d) Focusing solely on community-level education
16. What is the purpose of isolation precautions in infection prevention?
a) To eliminate the need for PPE
b) To prevent the transmission of infectious agents in healthcare settings
c) To replace standard precautions in high-risk situations
d) To identify susceptible hosts in a population
17. What is one primary responsibility of the Ministry of Health in infection control?
a) Developing vaccine mandates
b) Overseeing community-level infection prevention strategies
c) Conducting daily infection monitoring activities in hospitals
d) Providing individual training to healthcare workers
18. What is a key responsibility of healthcare facilities in infection control?
a) Enforcing hand hygiene compliance among visitors
b) Ensuring proper implementation of policies developed by the IPCC
c) Training community leaders on infection prevention
d) Supervising regional health authorities
19. What is the primary purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
a) To eliminate the need for environmental cleanliness
b) To protect healthcare workers from exposure to infectious materials
c) To prevent healthcare workers from interacting with patients
d) To ensure safe medical equipment handling
20. What is the focus of administrative controls in occupational health?
a) Designing infrastructure to minimize hazards
b) Establishing policies and procedures to reduce infection risks
c) Ensuring PPE availability for all staff
d) Eliminating environmental contaminants
 What is a key objective of infection prevention and control?
a) Ensuring immunity in all healthcare workers
b) Implementing vaccination programs for patients
c) Maintaining a safe patient care environment
d) Providing all staff with advanced medical training

 Which entity is responsible for infection prevention and control policies at a regional
level?
a) Infection Prevention and Control Officer
b) Regional health authorities
c) Individual healthcare workers
d) Professional organizations

 What role does the Infection Prevention and Control Committee (IPCC) play?
a) Enforcing clinical documentation policies
b) Educating the public about chronic illnesses
c) Establishing, monitoring, and maintaining infection prevention and control policies
d) Approving hospital budgets for infection control programs

 Who is responsible for daily infection prevention activities in a healthcare facility?

a) Regional health authorities
b) Infection Prevention and Control Officer
c) Quality assurance managers
d) Community health educators

 What is included in the quality assurance framework for infection prevention and control?
a) International healthcare standards
b) Policies, roles, and responsibilities for infection prevention
c) Funding for medical equipment
d) Education on chronic disease management

 What is the purpose of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

a) To outline patient rights in healthcare settings
b) To provide information on chemical hazards and safe handling procedures
c) To document infection rates in healthcare facilities
d) To ensure proper training for healthcare providers

 Which of the following is NOT a component of occupational control measures?

a) Elimination of hazards
b) Universal healthcare access
c) Administrative controls
d) Engineering controls

 What is the primary role of professional organizations in infection prevention?

a) Funding healthcare initiatives
b) Developing guidelines and education for health professionals
c) Conducting patient satisfaction surveys
d) Managing healthcare facility budgets
 How many policy statements are included in the infection prevention and control manual?
a) 15
b) 18
c) 23
d) 30

 What is the main focus of the policies outlined in the infection prevention and control
framework?
a) Designing patient-centric healthcare programs
b) Comprehensive infection prevention and control practices
c) Eliminating occupational hazards in the community
d) Enhancing communication among healthcare teams

 What does "work practice controls" refer to in occupational control measures?

a) Modifying how tasks are performed to reduce exposure risks
b) Ensuring healthcare workers wear PPE at all times
c) Installing air filtration systems in healthcare facilities
d) Limiting patient access to certain treatments

 What is an example of an engineering control for infection prevention?

a) Using respirators for staff handling infectious patients
b) Implementing proper hand hygiene practices
c) Installing physical barriers like safety shields
d) Providing training programs for staff

 What is the significance of the Infection Prevention and Control Officer being a member
of the IPCC?
a) Ensuring daily infection prevention activities align with committee guidelines
b) Managing financial resources for infection control programs
c) Overseeing vaccination programs for healthcare workers
d) Leading public health education campaigns

 What are standard precautions designed to prevent?

a) Transmission of only airborne pathogens
b) Transmission of bloodborne and other infectious agents
c) Spread of infection through medical equipment only
d) All hospital-acquired infections

 Which of the following is a professional responsibility for maintaining a safe patient care
environment?
a) Reporting non-compliance with infection control measures
b) Assigning infection prevention duties to administrative staff
c) Conducting research unrelated to infection control
d) Focusing solely on community-level education

 What is the purpose of isolation precautions in infection prevention?

a) To eliminate the need for PPE
b) To prevent the transmission of infectious agents in healthcare settings
c) To replace standard precautions in high-risk situations
d) To identify susceptible hosts in a population
 What is one primary responsibility of the Ministry of Health in infection control?
a) Developing vaccine mandates
b) Overseeing community-level infection prevention strategies
c) Conducting daily infection monitoring activities in hospitals
d) Providing individual training to healthcare workers

 What is a key responsibility of healthcare facilities in infection control?

a) Enforcing hand hygiene compliance among visitors
b) Ensuring proper implementation of policies developed by the IPCC
c) Training community leaders on infection prevention
d) Supervising regional health authorities

 What is the primary purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

a) To eliminate the need for environmental cleanliness
b) To protect healthcare workers from exposure to infectious materials
c) To prevent healthcare workers from interacting with patients
d) To ensure safe medical equipment handling

 What is the focus of administrative controls in occupational health?

a) Designing infrastructure to minimize hazards
b) Establishing policies and procedures to reduce infection risks
c) Ensuring PPE availability for all staff
d) Eliminating environmental contaminants

 Which of the following occupational control measures aims to physically eliminate

hazards?
a) Engineering controls
b) Work practice controls
c) Elimination of hazards
d) Administrative controls

 What is the primary goal of engineering controls in infection prevention?

a) To provide training on infection control practices
b) To reduce or eliminate exposure by isolating hazards
c) To implement proper work practices
d) To ensure compliance with standard precautions

 How does the Infection Prevention and Control Committee (IPCC) contribute to infection
prevention?
a) By training community health workers
b) By organizing national awareness campaigns
c) By monitoring infection control practices and conducting surveillance
d) By enforcing vaccination mandates

 What is the purpose of infection prevention and control policies in healthcare facilities?
a) To improve patient satisfaction scores
b) To ensure all patients receive the same treatments
c) To provide a framework for minimizing the risk of infections
d) To standardize healthcare worker certifications
 Which of the following is NOT included in standard precautions?
a) Hand hygiene
b) Use of personal protective equipment
c) Environmental cleanliness
d) Mandatory patient isolation

 What is the role of the regional health authorities in infection control?

a) Conducting research on infection trends
b) Overseeing and implementing infection prevention policies at the regional level
c) Training healthcare workers in infection prevention
d) Managing national policies for chronic diseases

 What does the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) provide?

a) Safety measures for handling infectious patients
b) Guidelines on handling hazardous chemicals
c) Instructions for disposing of medical waste
d) Protocols for isolating infected individuals

 Which control measure focuses on modifying how tasks are performed to minimize risks?
a) Administrative controls
b) Work practice controls
c) Engineering controls
d) PPE controls

 Why is it essential for infection prevention and control to have a quality assurance
framework?
a) To allocate funding for staff training programs
b) To ensure compliance with infection control policies and practices
c) To reduce the workload of healthcare staff
d) To track the effectiveness of vaccination programs

 What is one of the 23 policy statements included in infection prevention and control?
a) Infection prevention policies are optional for non-critical facilities
b) Standard precautions must be implemented when in contact with blood or body fluids
c) Only healthcare workers in high-risk areas need infection control training
d) PPE use should be limited to outbreak situations

 What is the primary function of administrative controls in occupational health?

a) Implementing policies and procedures to minimize exposure risks
b) Ensuring all healthcare facilities have access to vaccines
c) Increasing patient awareness of infection risks
d) Designing workspaces to isolate hazards

 Which precaution applies to all patients, regardless of known infection status?

a) Isolation precautions
b) Transmission-based precautions
c) Standard precautions
d) Contact precautions
 Which occupational control measure involves removing infectious hazards entirely?
a) Personal protective equipment (PPE)
b) Engineering controls
c) Elimination of hazards
d) Administrative controls

 What is the role of professional organizations in infection prevention and control?

a) Providing funding for infection control research
b) Setting guidelines and educating healthcare professionals
c) Enforcing policies at the national level
d) Developing vaccines for infectious diseases

 Why is personal protective equipment (PPE) an essential occupational control measure?

a) It ensures the elimination of infectious agents
b) It provides a barrier between the healthcare worker and potential infectious material
c) It eliminates the need for environmental cleanliness
d) It replaces the need for engineering controls

 Which document is the primary source of information for chemical classification and
handling?
a) Infection Prevention and Control Policy Manual
b) Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
c) Quality Assurance Framework for Infection Prevention
d) Occupational Control Guidelines

 What is a key responsibility of the Infection Prevention and Control Officer?

a) Training healthcare professionals at a national level
b) Conducting daily infection prevention and control activities
c) Implementing engineering controls in healthcare facilities
d) Developing policies for national health programs

 What is one advantage of implementing engineering controls in healthcare facilities?

a) They eliminate the need for work practice controls
b) They isolate or reduce the exposure to infectious hazards
c) They replace the need for personal protective equipment
d) They increase the workload of the staff

 What is the significance of maintaining environmental cleanliness in infection control?

a) It reduces healthcare workers' need to wear PPE
b) It minimizes the risk of transmitting infections via surfaces
c) It eliminates the need for occupational controls
d) It focuses only on patient care areas

 How does the Ministry of Health ensure infection prevention policies are effective at the
community level?
a) By developing individual training modules
b) By overseeing health promotion and community-based initiatives
c) By implementing administrative controls nationwide
d) By managing healthcare worker PPE distribution
 What is the main objective of occupational controls in infection prevention?
a) To eliminate all microorganisms in healthcare settings
b) To reduce the opportunity for contact with infectious materials
c) To train healthcare workers in advanced medical procedures
d) To enforce hand hygiene protocols

 Which of the following is NOT a method for preventing injury in a healthcare

environment?
a) Hand hygiene
b) Use of PPE when indicated
c) Implementing medication guidelines
d) Maintaining a clutter-free environment

 What is the difference between cleaning, disinfection, and sterilization?

a) Cleaning involves elimination of all microorganisms
b) Disinfection destroys most microorganisms except spores
c) Sterilization removes visible dirt and debris
d) All are equivalent in infection prevention

 What is the role of sharps bins in healthcare wards?

a) To store medical supplies securely
b) To prevent the spread of infection through proper sharps disposal
c) To ensure easy access to equipment
d) To label faulty equipment for repairs

 Which of the following is NOT an essential ward measure for infection prevention?
a) Maintaining adequate stock of consumables
b) Using faulty equipment cautiously
c) Decluttering and maintaining cleanliness
d) Making policies readily accessible to staff

 What is the first step in risk assessment and management?

a) Assessing risks
b) Reviewing control measures
c) Controlling risks
d) Identifying hazards

 What is the focus of engineering controls in infection prevention?

a) Educating healthcare workers about hazards
b) Reducing risks at the source using ventilation, screening, and safety equipment
c) Ensuring proper hand hygiene practices
d) Providing PPE to all staff

 Why is hand hygiene important in healthcare environments?

a) It prevents physical injuries to healthcare workers
b) It reduces the spread of microorganisms
c) It eliminates the need for PPE use
d) It ensures compliance with administrative policies

 What is an example of decontamination and reprocessing of medical devices?

a) Using PPE during a procedure
b) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment after use
c) Disposing of medical waste in sharps bins
d) Maintaining drug inventory records

 Which category of healthcare waste poses the highest risk for spreading disease?
a) General waste
b) Infectious waste
c) Chemical waste
d) Recyclable waste

 Which of the following measures ensures that faulty equipment does not compromise
infection control?
a) Using equipment cautiously
b) Maintaining proper documentation
c) Labeling and rectifying hazards promptly
d) Training staff on infection control protocols

 What is the purpose of the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?

a) To outline patient care procedures
b) To provide safety information for handling chemicals
c) To document infection rates
d) To manage hospital waste

 What is the correct sequence of steps in risk assessment and management?

a) Control risks → Identify hazards → Assess risks → Review controls
b) Identify hazards → Assess risks → Control risks → Review controls
c) Assess risks → Control risks → Identify hazards → Review controls
d) Review controls → Assess risks → Control risks → Identify hazards

 Which hierarchy of control focuses on reducing exposure risks directly at the source?
a) Work practice controls
b) Administrative controls
c) Personal protective equipment
d) Engineering controls

 What is the role of accurate documentation of stocks in infection control?

a) To prevent overuse of equipment
b) To maintain an audit trail for consumables and medications
c) To reduce the need for cleaning and sterilization
d) To standardize hospital waste disposal practices

 What does the protocol for healthcare waste disposal primarily aim to prevent?
a) Equipment malfunctions
b) The spread of disease through improper waste management
c) Stock shortages in healthcare facilities
d) Misuse of medical devices

 Which is an example of an administrative control in infection prevention?

a) Implementing ventilation systems
b) Establishing protocols for waste disposal
c) Using PPE during high-risk procedures
d) Maintaining clutter-free workspaces

 What is the purpose of maintaining decluttered and clean wards?

a) To enhance patient satisfaction
b) To reduce the risk of infection and injury
c) To meet legal compliance standards
d) To simplify waste disposal procedures

 What is the main use of sterilizers in healthcare settings?

a) Cleaning patient care areas
b) Destroying microorganisms on medical equipment
c) Reducing the spread of airborne infections
d) Disposing of hazardous waste

 What should healthcare staff do when they encounter faulty equipment?

a) Report it for repairs immediately
b) Use it cautiously until it is replaced
c) Dispose of it in the sharps bin
d) Keep it isolated in storage

 What is the function of disinfectants in medical settings?

a) Removing visible dirt from surfaces
b) Killing most microorganisms except spores
c) Lubricating medical devices
d) Reducing the spread of airborne pathogens

 Why is it essential to review control measures regularly in risk management?

a) To eliminate the need for risk assessment
b) To ensure the ongoing effectiveness of safety controls
c) To train staff on updated policies
d) To identify new potential hazards

1. What is the primary purpose of reprocessing medical devices?

a) To make them reusable without additional cleaning
b) To ensure the safety and integrity of patient care equipment
c) To reduce hospital waste
d) To increase the lifespan of equipment
2. What is the difference between an antiseptic and a disinfectant?
a) Antiseptics are used on inanimate objects; disinfectants are used on living tissue
b) Antiseptics reduce microorganisms on living tissue; disinfectants reduce them on
inanimate objects
c) Antiseptics kill spores; disinfectants do not
d) Antiseptics and disinfectants are interchangeable in infection prevention
3. Why should Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) be accessible in healthcare
facilities?
a) To document patient histories
b) To provide staff with safety guidelines for handling chemicals
c) To guide the disposal of infectious waste
d) To outline procedures for cleaning equipment
4. What does "adequate spacing" as an engineering control aim to achieve?
a) Prevent overcrowding of patients and healthcare workers
b) Ensure sufficient storage for medical supplies
c) Eliminate the need for ventilation systems
d) Reduce the need for personal protective equipment
5. Why is it important to maintain a cleanliness and decluttered ward environment?
a) It promotes faster recovery times for patients
b) It reduces the risk of cross-contamination and physical injuries
c) It allows for better inventory tracking
d) It minimizes waste production
6. Which step in the risk assessment process involves determining how likely exposure
to a hazard is?
a) Identifying hazards
b) Controlling risks
c) Assessing risks
d) Reviewing controls
7. What is a common characteristic of work practice controls?
a) Altering how tasks are performed to minimize risks
b) Implementing ventilation systems in high-risk areas
c) Using PPE to prevent exposure
d) Eliminating hazards through structural changes
8. Which of the following is NOT an example of healthcare waste?
a) Infectious waste
b) General waste
c) Electronic waste
d) Chemical waste
9. What is the focus of lubrication in reprocessing medical devices?
a) To clean surgical instruments
b) To extend the functionality of mechanical parts
c) To sterilize reusable equipment
d) To disinfect non-critical surfaces
10. What should staff do when encountering a labeled hazard?
a) Report it and rectify the situation according to protocol
b) Ignore it unless it becomes a direct issue
c) Isolate it from patient areas
d) Wait for higher authorities to address the problem
11. Which of the following best describes sterilization?
a) Removal of visible debris from surfaces
b) Destruction of most microorganisms except spores
c) Elimination of all forms of microbial life
d) Reduction of microbial contamination to safe levels
12. What is an example of a control measure used to prevent exposure to chemical
hazards?
a) Wearing gloves while handling chemicals
b) Disposing of waste in sharps bins
c) Maintaining accurate stock records of solutions
d) Ensuring proper ventilation in storage areas
13. Why is risk control a critical step in the risk management process?
a) To identify potential hazards in advance
b) To implement measures that reduce or eliminate the risk of exposure
 c) To assess the effectiveness of safety training
d) To report safety incidents to higher authorities
14. How can healthcare staff ensure the safety of faulty equipment?
a) Use it cautiously until replacement
b) Dispose of it in regular waste bins
c) Label it and follow institutional protocols for repair or disposal
d) Isolate it in an unoccupied area of the ward
15. What does the term "decontamination" encompass?
a) Cleaning only
b) Cleaning, disinfection, and sterilization
c) Disinfection and sterilization only
d) Sterilization only
16. Which of the following factors is critical when using disinfectants?
a) Concentration of the disinfectant solution
b) Type of antiseptic applied beforehand
c) Equipment manufacturer recommendations
d) Availability of PPE
17. What does maintaining an adequate stock of consumables help prevent?
a) Misuse of medical devices
b) Interruptions in infection prevention practices
c) Overuse of disinfectants
d) Decluttering of patient areas
18. What should be prioritized during healthcare waste disposal?
a) Minimizing waste production
b) Categorizing waste to prevent disease spread
c) Reducing costs associated with waste disposal
d) Encouraging recycling of infectious materials
19. Which component of the hierarchy of controls is the most effective in reducing risk?
a) Administrative controls
b) PPE
c) Elimination of hazards
d) Engineering controls
20. What is the purpose of labeling hazardous materials in healthcare environments?
a) To meet legal documentation requirements
b) To inform staff and patients about potential risks
c) To prioritize waste disposal procedures
d) To improve patient satisfaction
21. Which of the following best describes detergents used in medical settings?
a) Substances used for sterilizing medical equipment
b) Agents used for cleaning by removing dirt and organic matter
c) Solutions for disinfecting wounds
d) Chemical agents designed to kill all microorganisms
22. What is the main benefit of ventilation systems as an engineering control?
a) Eliminating the need for regular disinfection
b) Controlling airborne pathogens at the source
c) Enhancing the effectiveness of PPE
d) Reducing humidity in healthcare environments
23. What is the significance of the correct application of cleaning and disinfection?
a) It enhances the aesthetic appeal of medical devices
b) It ensures patient care equipment remains sterile at all times
 c) It preserves the safety and integrity of the equipment
d) It eliminates the need for risk assessment
24. What is an essential step in reviewing control measures?
a) Disposing of faulty equipment
b) Assessing how well risks are being managed and improving as needed
c) Identifying new hazards in the workplace
d) Implementing new cleaning protocols
25. Which of the following is a critical focus in maintaining accurate records of drugs and
solutions?
a) Reducing healthcare costs
b) Enhancing inventory control and ensuring patient safety
c) Preventing overstocking of medical equipment
d) Standardizing cleaning and disinfection practices

1. What is the definition of "best practice" according to the Oxford Dictionary?

a) A procedure that has been shown to be the least effective
 b) A professional procedure that has been proven to produce optimal results
c) A procedure that is mainly based on tradition
d) A procedure with no need for standardization
2. Which organization outlines the best practice steps for injection safety?
a) World Health Organization (WHO)
b) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
c) National Institutes of Health (NIH)
d) American Medical Association (AMA)
3. What is the first step in the seven best practice steps for injection safety?
a) Sterile and new syringe and needle
b) Hand hygiene
c) Clean workspace
d) Skin disinfection
4. What is included in the best practice for injection safety regarding syringes?
a) Reusing syringes to save resources
b) Using sterile and new syringes with a re-use prevention feature
c) Using syringes without an injury protection feature
d) Disinfecting used syringes before reuse
5. What does "adverse event" refer to in a healthcare context?
a) A favorable outcome following a procedure
b) An untoward or unexpected occurrence associated with a patient's care that may
cause harm
c) A routine procedure with no risk of harm
d) An expected complication during treatment
6. What are common adverse events that may result in avoidable patient harm, according
to WHO?
a) Medication errors and unsafe surgical procedures
b) Improved patient identification and safe blood transfusions
c) Routine diagnostic procedures
d) Increased patient satisfaction and reduced risk of falls
7. What does the term "patient safety" refer to?
a) Minimizing staff injuries in healthcare settings
b) Preventing unnecessary harm and reducing risks associated with healthcare
c) Providing comfort and luxury for patients in care
d) Ensuring that all patients are treated in private rooms
8. Which of the following is an example of a common adverse event in healthcare?
a) Safe surgical procedures
b) Unsafe blood transfusions
c) Healthy patient falls
d) Accurate patient misidentification
9. What does "skin disinfection" in the context of injection safety aim to do?
a) Remove dirt from the skin
b) Prevent infections at the injection site
c) Increase blood circulation around the injection area
d) Enhance the efficacy of medications administered
10. Why is hand hygiene important in the injection safety process?
a) It is required to prepare medications
b) It prevents the spread of microorganisms during the procedure
c) It ensures the healthcare worker's hands are warm
d) It enhances the effect of the injections
11. What is the purpose of having a sterile vial of medication and diluent in injection
safety?
a) To reduce the cost of healthcare supplies
b) To ensure medications are administered safely without contamination
c) To improve the color of the medication
d) To enhance the taste of the medication for patients
12. What does "appropriate collection of sharps" in the context of injection safety
involve?
a) Disposing of sharps in general waste bins
b) Properly disposing of needles and syringes to prevent injury and infection
c) Recycling sharps for future use
d) Disposing of sharps in a non-labeled container
13. What is the significance of "appropriate waste management" in the seven best practice
steps for injection safety?
a) It involves reducing the cost of waste disposal
b) It ensures that waste is disposed of in a manner that prevents harm and infection
c) It encourages reuse of medical waste
d) It focuses solely on non-sharp waste
14. What is the role of the WHO's "Smart Injection Choices" document?
a) It provides guidelines for healthy eating in healthcare
b) It outlines the best practices for safe injection procedures
c) It details medication administration techniques for specific illnesses
d) It offers dietary suggestions for hospital patients
15. What type of injury does the re-use prevention feature on a syringe primarily aim to
prevent?
a) Medication overdose
b) Needlestick injuries
c) Skin irritation
d) Muscle strains
16. According to WHO, what is one of the risks associated with unsafe injection
practices?
a) Unnecessary needlestick injuries
b) Increased patient satisfaction
c) Improved medication absorption
d) Reduced healthcare worker workload
17. Which of the following is the third step in the WHO's best practice for injection
safety?
a) Skin disinfection
b) Hand hygiene
c) Clean workspace
d) Sterile syringe and needle
18. What is the definition of a "medication error" in healthcare?
a) Incorrect storage of medications
b) A delay in administering medications
c) An unintended error in prescribing, dispensing, or administering medications
d) A healthcare worker forgetting to provide medication instructions
19. Why is the WHO's focus on "clean workspace" important for injection safety?
a) It ensures that the medication is properly labeled
b) It minimizes the risk of contamination during the injection process
 c) It helps increase the efficiency of healthcare workers
d) It improves the aesthetic appeal of the healthcare environment
20. What is an example of a healthcare-associated infection that could be prevented by
following best practices in injection safety?
a) Pneumonia
b) Urinary tract infection
c) Hepatitis B transmission
d) Seasonal influenza
1. What is the definition of "decontamination"?
a) A process to remove pathogens from surfaces making them safe to handle
b) A process of sterilizing medical devices for reuse
c) A method of cleaning surfaces to increase aesthetic appeal
d) A technique for storing medical equipment in a sterile environment
2. Which of the following is NOT a step involved in decontamination?
a) Cleaning
b) Disinfection
c) Sterilization
d) Repairing medical devices
3. Why is decontamination important in healthcare?
a) It is part of quality assurance and infection prevention
b) It increases the longevity of medical equipment
c) It reduces the cost of medical supplies
d) It enhances the aesthetic appeal of healthcare facilities
4. What is the primary goal of cleaning in healthcare settings?
a) To reduce the bioburden on devices and surfaces
b) To disinfect surfaces
c) To sterilize equipment for reuse
d) To enhance the appearance of medical devices
5. Which of the following best describes the process of cleaning?
a) The physical removal of dust, foreign materials, and body fluids
b) The complete destruction of microorganisms, including bacterial spores
c) The process of reducing microorganisms to a non-harmful level
d) The physical removal of all contaminants from medical devices
6. What is the general principle of cleaning?
a) Dirt helps microorganisms thrive
b) Cleaning eliminates large quantities of microorganisms associated with soil
c) Cleaning is not necessary before disinfection or sterilization
d) Cleaning must be done without following any guidelines
7. Which of the following is a factor that contributes to successful cleaning?
a) Duration of cleaning only
b) Temperature and water quality
c) Chemical agents for sterilization
d) Biofilm presence on medical devices
8. What is the definition of disinfection?
a) The complete removal of microorganisms, including bacterial spores
b) The destruction or removal of microorganisms to a level safe for handling
c) The process of cleaning medical devices
d) The sterilization of instruments using high heat
9. Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when selecting a disinfection
process?
a) Resistance of microorganisms to the chemical agent
b) Concentration of agents used
c) Duration of exposure
d) The patient’s age
10. What does the presence of biofilm affect in the disinfection process?
a) It increases the effectiveness of chemical disinfectants
b) It prevents microorganisms from being killed
 c) It makes cleaning easier
d) It has no effect on disinfection
11. What is the goal of sterilization?
a) To remove dirt and debris from medical devices
b) To destroy all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores
c) To reduce the amount of microorganisms on medical devices
d) To prevent contamination during the disinfection process
12. Which of the following methods is NOT used for sterilization?
a) Chemical sterilization
b) Dry heat sterilization
c) Steam sterilization
d) Hand washing
13. What is an advantage of steam sterilization (moist heat)?
a) It is fast, economical, and non-toxic
b) It is suitable for heat-sensitive instruments
c) It leaves residues of the sterilizing agent
d) It takes longer than dry heat sterilization
14. What is a disadvantage of steam sterilization?
a) It is too slow for most healthcare settings
b) It can damage heat-sensitive instruments
c) It is too expensive to implement
d) It leaves behind toxic residues on instruments
15. What is one of the responsibilities of a nurse concerning cleaning, disinfection, and
sterilization?
a) To ensure proper sterilization of all medical instruments
b) To choose the disinfection agents used in the facility
c) To manage the disposal of chemical agents used in sterilization
d) To ensure that all patients are sanitized before their procedures
16. What is the role of the SSD/CSSD (Central Sterilizing Services Department) in
healthcare?
a) To dispose of medical waste
b) To manage the sterilization of medical instruments
c) To monitor patient health after surgery
d) To conduct routine hand hygiene training
17. What is the mechanism of action in steam sterilization?
a) Denaturation of proteins through the action of saturated steam
b) Destruction of microbes using dry heat
c) Dissolution of contaminants using chemical agents
d) Freezing and thawing of microorganisms to destroy them
18. What does the WHO’s document "Decontamination and Reprocessing of Medical
Devices for Health-Care Facilities" focus on?
a) Safe handling and disposal of medical waste
b) Guidelines for cleaning, disinfection, and sterilization of medical devices
c) Patient care protocols for surgical procedures
d) Guidelines for medication administration in healthcare
19. Which type of sterilization method is considered most economical and fast?
a) Chemical sterilization
b) Dry heat sterilization
c) Steam sterilization (moist heat)
d) Radiation sterilization
20. What is a critical factor when cleaning medical equipment to ensure effective
disinfection or sterilization?
a) Disassembling all objects completely before cleaning
b) Only using chemical agents for cleaning
c) Cleaning without following manufacturer recommendations
d) Using water that is not sterile
21. What is the main purpose of cleaning in the decontamination process?
a) To sterilize medical equipment
b) To remove dirt and foreign materials
c) To disinfect surfaces
d) To reduce microbial resistance
22. Which of the following is an example of a chemical agent used in sterilization?
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Soap
c) Alcohol
d) Detergent
23. What type of microorganisms does disinfection aim to remove or destroy?
a) All microorganisms, including bacterial spores
b) Non-pathogenic microorganisms
c) Harmful microorganisms that could cause infection
d) Only bacterial spores
24. What is the most common method of sterilization in healthcare facilities?
a) Chemical sterilization
b) Steam sterilization (moist heat)
c) Dry heat sterilization
d) Radiation sterilization
25. Which of the following is true about the cleaning process?
a) Cleaning only involves chemical agents
b) Cleaning reduces the number of microorganisms and prepares surfaces for
disinfection or sterilization
c) Cleaning eliminates all microorganisms, including spores
d) Cleaning is not necessary if disinfection is performed
26. What is a factor that influences the effectiveness of the disinfection process?
a) The color of the disinfectant
b) The resistance of microorganisms to the chemical agent
c) The time of day the disinfection occurs
d) The temperature of the cleaning environment
27. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the nurse regarding cleaning,
disinfection, and sterilization?
a) Performing the actual sterilization process
b) Ensuring medical equipment is safe to handle
c) Cleaning and disinfecting surfaces before procedures
d) Monitoring patient reactions to chemical disinfectants
28. What is the action that occurs when microorganisms are exposed to sterilization using
steam?
a) The microorganisms are broken down into smaller particles
b) Proteins in the microorganisms denature due to the high heat and saturated steam
c) The microorganisms are frozen and then thawed for destruction
d) Microorganisms are chemically neutralized by disinfectants
29. Why is it important to follow the manufacturer's recommendations during the
cleaning process?
a) To ensure the equipment is cleaned at the correct temperature
b) To avoid damaging medical equipment
c) To ensure that proper chemicals are used for disinfection
d) All of the above
30. Which of the following is true regarding sterilization by dry heat?
a) It is ideal for heat-sensitive medical devices
b) It requires a longer exposure time compared to steam sterilization
c) It uses saturated steam as the primary sterilizing agent
d) It is a more economical method than steam sterilization
31. What does the term "bioburden" refer to in the cleaning process?
a) The number of microorganisms present on a surface
b) The total weight of medical equipment
c) The number of harmful chemicals present in a device
d) The microbial resistance to disinfectants
32. Which of the following is a characteristic of high-level disinfectants?
a) They destroy all microorganisms, including bacterial spores
b) They are effective at lower concentrations and temperatures
c) They are used for sterilization only
d) They are effective for cleaning but not for disinfection
33. What is the disadvantage of using chemical sterilization methods?
a) They can cause damage to heat-sensitive instruments
b) They are time-consuming and require special equipment
c) They may leave behind toxic residues on instruments
d) They are not effective in destroying bacteria and spores
34. Which of the following is the correct order of processes in decontaminating medical
devices?
a) Sterilization, Cleaning, Disinfection
b) Disinfection, Sterilization, Cleaning
c) Cleaning, Disinfection, Sterilization
d) Disinfection, Cleaning, Sterilization
35. How does biofilm formation on medical devices affect the cleaning and disinfection
process?
a) Biofilm makes microorganisms easier to remove
b) Biofilm does not affect the cleaning process
c) Biofilm protects microorganisms from being effectively removed or killed
d) Biofilm enhances the effectiveness of chemical disinfectants
36. What is the primary disadvantage of dry heat sterilization?
a) It is less effective than steam sterilization
b) It cannot be used for metal instruments
c) It is not effective for heat-sensitive items
d) It requires expensive chemicals
37. When should sterilization be applied to medical instruments?
a) Before every use, regardless of the risk of infection
b) Only when cleaning and disinfection are not feasible
c) Only to items that have been cleaned and disinfected
d) Only when the instruments are visibly soiled
38. What is the primary advantage of steam sterilization?
a) It is safe for all types of medical instruments
 b) It is quick, economical, and effective for most instruments
c) It leaves no residue on medical equipment
d) It does not require special equipment
39. What should be done to ensure the effectiveness of steam sterilization?
a) Use water with high mineral content
b) Seal and pack all items tightly to prevent steam contact
c) Ensure the items are disassembled and placed in a way that allows steam to reach
all surfaces
d) Clean the items with a chemical disinfectant before steam sterilization
40. What is the main purpose of high-level disinfectants?
a) To sterilize instruments
b) To reduce the microbial load to a non-harmful level
c) To remove dirt and contaminants from surfaces
d) To break down the structure of biofilms on devices
1. Which of the following is a key requirement for storing whole blood?
a) It should be stored at room temperature.
b) It should be stored between +2°C and +6°C.
c) It should be frozen at -4°C.
d) It should be stored at 0°C.
2. What is the blood cold chain process?
a) The process of sterilizing blood before transfusion.
b) The systematic process for the safe storage and transportation of blood from the
donor to the patient.
c) The process of freezing blood to maintain its viability.
d) The method of administering blood to the patient.
3. What information must be labeled on blood products according to WHO?
a) Blood donor's contact information.
b) Blood group, Rh factor, storage requirements, and expiry date.
c) Patient's medical history.
d) All of the above.
4. Which of the following blood products must be stored at a temperature of +2°C
to +6°C?
a) Platelets
b) Plasma
c) Whole blood and red cells
d) Cryoprecipitate
5. Which of the following is a responsibility of the nurse during the blood
transfusion process?
a) Ordering blood products without confirming with the physician.
b) Verifying the 5 rights of transfusion with another licensed practitioner.
c) Administering the transfusion without checking vital signs.
d) Storing blood products at room temperature before transfusion.
6. Which of the following is NOT a part of the "Rights of Transfusion"?
a) Right blood/blood product
b) Right temperature of transfusion
c) Right environment
d) Right donor contact information
7. What is the purpose of the anticoagulant/preservative solution in blood bags?
a) To increase the volume of blood.
b) To stop the blood from clotting and provide nutrients during storage.
c) To help the blood carry oxygen more efficiently.
d) To sterilize the blood before transfusion.
8. What is the primary risk of not storing blood at the proper temperature (+2°C to
+6°C)?
a) The blood will clot.
b) The oxygen-carrying ability of the blood will be greatly reduced.
c) The blood will lose its nutrients.
d) The blood will become contaminated.
9. Which of the following is the first step in the blood transfusion process?
a) Establish baseline vital signs.
b) Verify the patient's blood type and Rh factor.
c) Identify the patient and explain the procedure.
d) Begin the transfusion slowly.
10. What is the correct transfusion rate for blood products?
a) Rapid transfusion to quickly increase blood volume.
b) Slow transfusion to prevent increased load on the heart.
c) No specific transfusion rate is required.
d) Transfuse all at once for immediate effect.
11. Which of the following is NOT a component of the "Five Rights of
Transfusion"?
a) Right patient
b) Right equipment
c) Right time
d) Right blood product
12. Which blood product requires the use of sterile equipment during the
transfusion process?
a) Platelets
b) Plasma
c) Whole blood
d) All blood products
13. What should be done after identifying the patient and explaining the procedure
for blood transfusion?
a) Begin transfusion immediately.
b) Wash hands and gather all equipment.
c) Administer a painkiller.
d) Check the patient's medical history.
14. What is the purpose of a blood request form in the transfusion process?
a) To record the patient's medical history.
b) To request blood products for elective surgery or emergency cases.
c) To confirm the blood type of the patient.
d) To check the availability of blood in the hospital blood bank.
15. Which blood product is typically stored and transported using the blood cold
chain?
a) Cryoprecipitate
b) Packed cells
c) Plasma
d) All blood products
16. What must be verified by two licensed practitioners before administering a blood
transfusion?
a) The patient's insurance information.
b) The five rights of blood transfusion.
c) The hospital discharge report.
d) The blood transfusion equipment.
17. Which of the following blood products is primarily used to treat clotting
disorders?
a) Plasma
b) Cryoprecipitate
c) Platelets
d) Packed red cells
18. How should a unit of blood be prepared before transfusion?
a) The blood must be stored at body temperature before transfusion.
b) The blood should be warmed to a higher temperature for faster delivery.
 c) The blood should be mixed with additional fluids before transfusion.
d) The blood can be transfused at any temperature.
19. What is the primary purpose of blood testing before transfusion?
a) To ensure the blood is free from infections and compatible with the patient.
b) To test the patient's response to anesthesia.
c) To determine the blood volume required for transfusion.
d) To identify potential allergic reactions to the blood.
20. Which of the following should be closely monitored during the transfusion
process?
a) The patient's blood pressure, temperature, and oxygen levels.
b) The patient's mood and emotional state.
c) The patient's eating habits.
d) The patient's family members.
21. Which of the following is the correct temperature range for storing whole blood
and red cells?
a) +1°C to +5°C
b) +2°C to +6°C
c) -2°C to -6°C
d) 0°C to 4°C
22. Which of the following blood products is specifically used to treat clotting
disorders?
a) Whole blood
b) Cryoprecipitate
c) Plasma
d) Packed red cells
23. What is the first step when preparing for a blood transfusion?
a) Verify the blood type and Rh factor.
b) Wash hands and gather all necessary equipment.
c) Establish baseline vital signs.
d) Administer the transfusion.
24. What is the primary goal of the blood cold chain?
a) To increase the shelf life of blood products.
b) To ensure the safe transportation and storage of blood products.
c) To maintain blood at room temperature during storage.
d) To sterilize blood products during transport.
25. Which of the following is a common reason for transfusion-related adverse
events?
a) Incorrect storage temperature of the blood product.
b) Administering the transfusion at the wrong rate.
c) Incompatible blood transfusion.
d) All of the above.
26. In the transfusion process, why is it important to verify the "Five Rights" with
another licensed practitioner?
a) To confirm the patient's medical history.
b) To ensure the transfusion is being carried out correctly and safely.
c) To check the availability of blood products.
d) To ensure the equipment is sterile.
27. Which of the following blood components should be stored at a temperature
between +2°C and +6°C?
a) Platelets
 b) Plasma
c) Cryoprecipitate
d) Whole blood and red cells
28. What is the main reason for performing a group and cross-match test before a
blood transfusion?
a) To ensure the blood product is free of infections.
b) To confirm the blood product is compatible with the patient's blood.
c) To check the blood volume required for the patient.
d) To test the patient's immune system.
29. Which of the following is NOT a part of the "Five Rights" of blood transfusion?
a) Right blood/blood product
b) Right patient
c) Right procedure
d) Right time
30. Which of the following is a responsibility of the nurse before starting a blood
transfusion?
a) Confirm the patient's blood type and Rh factor without checking the transfusion
order.
b) Explain the procedure to the patient and obtain consent.
c) Skip the handwashing process to save time.
d) Begin the transfusion without verifying the blood type.
31. Which of the following best describes the role of the anticoagulant/preservative
solution in blood storage?
a) It ensures the blood remains sterile during storage.
b) It maintains the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.
c) It prevents clotting and provides nutrients during storage.
d) It enhances the blood's ability to transport oxygen.
32. What must be done after identifying the patient for blood transfusion?
a) Verify the blood product with another licensed practitioner.
b) Begin transfusion immediately.
c) Skip the pre-transfusion testing.
d) Recheck the patient’s medical history.
33. Which of the following is an advantage of using whole blood for transfusion?
a) It can be stored for a longer period.
b) It is used to treat specific blood component deficiencies.
c) It is beneficial for patients with severe blood loss.
d) It is more effective than platelets for clotting disorders.
34. What should be the temperature of the blood product before transfusion?
a) The blood should be stored at room temperature.
b) The blood should be at body temperature.
c) The blood should be cooled to prevent clotting.
d) The blood should be frozen and thawed before transfusion.
35. Which of the following is essential to ensure the safety of blood transfusions?
a) Blood products should always be administered rapidly.
b) Blood transfusions should be administered by non-licensed personnel.
c) Blood products must be sourced from healthy donors and free from infections.
d) Blood transfusions should be performed without pre-transfusion testing.
36. Why is monitoring the patient closely during the first 10-15 minutes of a blood
transfusion important?
a) To ensure the transfusion is being administered at the correct rate.
 b) To identify any early signs of transfusion reactions or complications.
c) To determine if the patient needs additional blood.
d) To check if the patient's vital signs are stable.
37. Which of the following statements about the rights of blood transfusion is true?
a) It is not necessary to verify the right time for transfusion.
b) The right blood product is the most important factor in transfusion.
c) The right environment is essential for the safety of the transfusion.
d) The right documentation is optional for the transfusion process.
38. Which of the following blood products is most commonly used for the treatment
of shock or severe blood loss?
a) Plasma
b) Packed red cells
c) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate
39. What is the primary risk of using improperly stored blood products?
a) Increased risk of infection.
b) Blood clotting.
c) Reduced oxygen-carrying ability of red cells.
d) Incompatible blood transfusions.
40. Which of the following blood components is most commonly used for treating
patients with bleeding disorders?
a) Plasma
b) Whole blood
c) Platelets
d) Packed red cells
 Which of the following is a mild reaction to blood transfusion?
a) Acute intravascular hemolysis
b) Febrile-non-hemolytic reaction
c) Hives and itching
d) Anaphylaxis

 What is the management for a mild allergic reaction (e.g., hives, itching) during a
blood transfusion?
a) Continue the transfusion and monitor the patient
b) Stop transfusion, change line, and administer antihistamines
c) Administer corticosteroids and oxygen therapy
d) Perform a hemolysis test immediately

 Which of the following reactions is categorized as life-threatening during a blood

transfusion?
a) Anaphylactic reaction
b) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
c) Mild hypersensitivity
d) Delayed hemolytic reaction

 What is the first step in managing an anaphylactic reaction during a blood

transfusion?
a) Administer an antihistamine
b) Administer oxygen therapy
c) Stop transfusion, change line, and administer vasopressors
d) Place the patient in an upright position

 Which of the following is a sign of circulatory overload during a blood transfusion?

a) Fever and chills
b) Dyspnea and dry cough
c) Facial flushing and low back pain
d) Respiratory distress and cardiovascular collapse

 What is the management for febrile non-hemolytic reaction during a blood

transfusion?
a) Administer vasopressors
b) Stop transfusion, change line, and keep vein open with normal saline
c) Treat with antibiotics immediately
d) Administer corticosteroids and monitor vital signs

 Which of the following is a delayed complication of blood transfusion?

a) Acute intravascular hemolysis
b) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
c) Graft vs Host Disease
d) Anaphylactic reaction

 What should be done if a bacterial infection is suspected during a blood transfusion?

a) Continue transfusion and monitor for symptoms
b) Stop transfusion immediately, inform the physician, and administer antibiotics
c) Slow down the transfusion and keep the patient under observation
d) Administer vasopressors and monitor vital signs

 Which of the following is NOT a sign of a hemolytic reaction during a blood

transfusion?
a) Fever
b) Headache
c) Facial flushing
d) Severe bradycardia

 How should the nurse respond to a suspected hemolytic reaction?

a) Continue the transfusion, as the reaction will resolve on its own
b) Stop transfusion, change IV line, and monitor vital signs
c) Administer antihistamines to treat symptoms
d) Send a sample of blood to the lab for culture immediately

 Which of the following blood-transmitted infections can be delayed and occur after a
blood transfusion?
a) HIV
b) Hepatitis B
c) Syphilis
d) All of the above

 What is the management for a transfusion-associated lung injury (TALI)?

a) Administer antibiotics and continue transfusion
b) Stop transfusion, keep the vein open with normal saline, and monitor vital signs
c) Administer vasopressors and corticosteroids
d) Increase the transfusion rate and monitor the patient's temperature

 What is the correct action when managing a delayed hemolytic reaction after blood
transfusion?
a) Perform a transfusion immediately after stopping the blood product
b) Observe and report the symptoms without interrupting the transfusion
c) Send blood samples for serologic testing and inform the physician
d) Administer corticosteroids and antihistamines to prevent further reactions

 Which of the following reactions is commonly associated with fever, chills, and
headache during a blood transfusion?
a) Hemolytic reaction
b) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
c) Anaphylactic reaction
d) Circulatory overload

 In the event of a transfusion reaction, what must be documented according to legal

requirements?
a) Only the start and finish time of the transfusion
b) Observations, actions taken, and the completion of transfusion
c) The type of blood product used
d) The patient's blood pressure throughout the transfusion
 Which of the following is NOT a sign of anaphylactic shock during a transfusion
reaction?
a) Respiratory distress
b) Sudden severe bronchospasms
c) Headache and low back pain
d) Cardiovascular collapse

 How is a post-transfusion purpura typically managed?

a) Immediate cessation of the transfusion
b) Administering corticosteroids
c) Monitoring vital signs and treating shock if necessary
d) No specific treatment required

 Which of the following is a possible cause of transfusion-related bacterial infection?

a) Improper blood storage or handling
b) Failure to observe the Five Rights of blood transfusion
c) Use of unsterile transfusion equipment
d) All of the above

 What is the appropriate response if a transfusion reaction leads to the development

of fever and chills?
a) Continue transfusion at a slower rate
b) Stop the transfusion, change the IV line, and keep the vein open with normal saline
c) Administer antibiotics immediately
d) Increase the transfusion rate to compensate for fluid loss

 Which of the following is a common delayed complication of blood transfusion

associated with iron accumulation?
a) Graft vs Host Disease
b) Post-transfusion purpura
c) Iron overload
d) Delayed hemolytic reaction

 Which of the following is a common cause of a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion

reaction?
a) Antibodies to white blood cells
b) Blood contamination with bacteria
c) Severe allergic reactions
d) Acute intravascular hemolysis

 What is the main factor that differentiates a hemolytic reaction from a febrile non-
hemolytic reaction?
a) Timing of onset
b) Presence of fever
c) Onset of severe hypotension
d) All of the above

 Which of the following is the first step in managing a transfusion reaction associated
with bacterial infection?
a) Administer antibiotics immediately
b) Stop the transfusion, inform the physician, and monitor vital signs
c) Slow down the transfusion and observe the patient
d) Change the IV line and keep the vein open with normal saline

 In the event of a severe allergic reaction during a transfusion, which medication

would most likely be administered?
a) Vasopressors
b) Antihistamines
c) Corticosteroids
d) Antibiotics

 Which of the following complications occurs when blood is transfused from a donor
with HIV to a patient?
a) Delayed hemolytic reaction
b) Transfusion-transmitted infection
c) Post-transfusion purpura
d) Iron overload

 What is the main characteristic of an anaphylactic reaction during a blood

transfusion?
a) Fever and chills
b) Sudden severe bronchospasms and respiratory distress
c) Headache and malaise
d) Low back pain and facial flushing

 Which blood product is most likely to cause a delayed hemolytic reaction due to an
immune response?
a) Whole blood
b) Packed red blood cells
c) Plasma
d) Platelets

 What action should be taken if circulatory overload is suspected during a blood

transfusion?
a) Increase the transfusion rate to help with fluid balance
b) Place the patient in an upright position and monitor vital signs
c) Stop the transfusion and administer antibiotics
d) Continue transfusion while monitoring for fever

 What is the cause of a transfusion-associated lung injury (TRALI)?

a) Bacterial contamination of blood
b) Immune response to the transfused blood product
c) Hemolytic reaction
d) Circulatory overload

 Which of the following is NOT a delayed complication of blood transfusion?

a) Post-transfusion purpura
b) Graft vs Host Disease
c) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
d) Iron overload
 Which transfusion reaction is most likely to result in shock and requires immediate
intervention?
a) Mild allergic reaction
b) Anaphylactic reaction
c) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
d) Post-transfusion purpura

 What is the first action when a hemolytic reaction is suspected during a blood
transfusion?
a) Administer antihistamines
b) Stop the transfusion and change the IV line
c) Increase the transfusion rate
d) Notify the patient’s family

 Which of the following is an appropriate action when managing an iron overload

after multiple blood transfusions?
a) Administer vasopressors and monitor vital signs
b) Stop transfusion, administer iron chelation therapy
c) Start corticosteroid treatment
d) Send blood sample for serological testing

 Which of the following statements is true about transfusion-transmitted infections?

a) They always occur immediately after transfusion
b) They include infections like HIV, syphilis, and hepatitis B
c) They are only caused by bacterial contamination
d) They do not affect the patient’s health long term

 How should a nurse manage a febrile non-hemolytic reaction during a transfusion?

a) Monitor vital signs and slow the transfusion rate
b) Stop the transfusion and give antibiotics
c) Administer oxygen therapy
d) Continue the transfusion and observe for symptoms

 Which of the following is true about the management of anaphylaxis during blood
transfusion?
a) The patient should be placed in a supine position
b) Blood should be transfused at a slow rate
c) Medications such as vasopressors and bronchodilators should be administered
d) Transfusion should continue while monitoring vital signs

 In the event of a transfusion reaction, which of the following must be reported by the
nurse?
a) The time the transfusion began and ended
b) The temperature of the blood prior to administration
c) Any adverse occurrences and completion of the transfusion
d) The exact cause of the transfusion reaction

 Which of the following delayed complications can occur after a blood transfusion
and involves destruction of transfused red blood cells?
a) Graft vs Host Disease
b) Post-transfusion purpura
c) Delayed hemolytic reaction
d) Circulatory overload

 What is the key sign of a bacterial contamination during a blood transfusion?

a) Dyspnea
b) Fever and hypertension
c) Facial flushing
d) Headache and low back pain

 Which of the following should be done if the patient is experiencing a circulatory

overload due to a blood transfusion?
a) Administer corticosteroids
b) Slow or stop the transfusion and place the patient upright
c) Administer iron supplements
d) Continue the transfusion at the same rate