POINTERS IN ELS QUARTER 2

NOTE: THE HIGHLIGHTED LETTER IS THE ANSWER.

1. All of the following are types of ecological relationship EXCEPT:

A. Mutualism B. Competition C. Parasitism D. Behaviorism
2. How old is Earth, according to radioactive decay studies of rocks?
a. 3.5 billion years b. 4.5 billion years c. 5.5 billion years d. 3 billion years
3. What is the name of the theory that suggests life originated on another planet and was brought to Earth by a
meteorite or asteroid?
a. Panspermia b. Extraterrestrial Origin c. Abiogenesis d. Divine Creation
4. What type of reproduction does not need two parents to produce an individual?
A. sexual reproduction C. external fertilization
B. asexual reproduction D. internal fertilization
5. It is a type of asexual reproduction wherein two individuals will form as the parent divides in half.
A. fragmentation B. budding C. regeneration D. fission
6. Which concept proposes that life can be propagated through the universe via seeds or microorganisms carried by
comets?
a. Abiogenesis b. Divine Creation c. Extraterrestrial Origin d. Panspermia
7. Which theory suggests that life was placed on Earth by divine forces?
a. Panspermia b. Abiogenesis c. Extraterrestrial Origin d. Divine Creation
8. What best explains the situation below?
Statement: Some members of a species have a genetic change that causes them to survive in their environment. They
have survived to reproduce and pass these genetic changes to their offspring.
A. All living organisms are made up of cells.
B. Living things evolve through time.
C. Living things interact with their environment to survive.
D. Different organisms must maintain different internal conditions.
9. What evidence supports the idea that many life forms existed on Earth over the past 3.5 billion years?
a. Radiocarbon dating b. Fossils c. Meteorite samples d. DNA studies
10. What is the process by which the sun's energy is trapped as the source of energy and is converted into chemical
energy?
A. adaptation B. evolution C. photosynthesis D. homeostasis
11. What is one of the strongest pieces of evidence supporting the idea that life existed on Earth billions of years ago?
A) Fossils of advanced life forms B) Studies on radioactive decay of rocks
C) Fossils such as bones and shells D) Observations of extraterrestrial life
12. Which of the following sequences is likely to be observed in an elephant, going from smallest to largest?
A. cell, organ, tissue, organism B. cell, organ, system, tissue
C. organism, system, organ, tissue D. cell, tissue, system, organism
13. Which hypothesis has not been proven according to the text?
A) Divine Creation B) Extraterrestrial Origin
C) Panspermia D) Origin from Nonliving Matter
14. Which of the following refers to the process by which changes occur in the characteristics of species of organisms
over time?
A. evolution B. homeostasis C. regulation D. metabolism
15. A lion hunting and killing a zebra for food is an example of which ecological relationship?
A) Mutualism B) Parasitism C) Predation D) Competition
16. What do you call the smallest unit that can live on its own and that makes up all living organisms and the tissues
of the body and sometimes called as the basic unit of life?
A. Cell B. DNA C. Eukaryotes D. Prokaryotes
17. If two animals are fighting over the same food source, which type of ecological relationship is being displayed?
A) Mutualism B) Parasitism C) Competition D) Predation
18. What is the branch of biology that deals with the study of living organisms and their relationships with each other
and their environment?
A. Botany B. Genetics C. Ecology D. Zoology
19. Which of the following is the correct order of levels of organization from simplest to most complex?
A) Tissues → Cells → Organs → Organ Systems → Organism
B) Cells → Tissues → Organs → Organ Systems → Organism
 C) Organ Systems → Organism → Organs → Cells → Tissues
D) Organism → Organ Systems → Organs → Tissues → Cells
20. What ensures the survival of species?
A. Hibernation B. Mating C. Migration D. Reproduction
21. What is the main reason living organisms interact with their environment?
A) To reproduce B) To obtain energy C) To maintain homeostasis D) To survive
22. What is the process by which organisms produce offspring by combining genetic information from two individuals
of different sexes?
A. Asexual reproduction B. Cloning C. Budding D. Sexual reproduction
23. What is the relationship between organisms and their environment?
A) Organisms depend on their environment for survival and must adapt to changes
B) Organisms can live without interacting with their environment
C) Organisms live independently from other organisms
D) Organisms are only affected by their own genetic makeup
24. What is the type of reproduction where an outgrowth called a bud grows and develops from the parent animal and
eventually separates to become a new individual?
A. Fission B. Budding C. Fragmentation D. Internal fertilization
25. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. planaria – fragmentation C. hydra – budding
B. corals – fission D. frogs – external fertilization
26. Which of the following statements is true about sexual reproduction?
A) Offspring inherit genes from a single parent.
B) It is only found in simple organisms like bacteria.
C) Offspring inherit genes from two individual parents.
D) It does not involve the combination of genetic material.
27. All the following animals reproduce asexually EXCEPT
A. frogs B. corals C. starfish D. flatworms
28. What would most likely happen if an organism fails to adapt to changes in its environment?
A) It will thrive and grow. B) It will maintain homeostasis.
C) It will become extinct. D) It will evolve into a new species.
29. Which of the following statements best describes a key difference between asexual and sexual reproduction?
A) Asexual reproduction results in offspring with genetic diversity, while sexual reproduction results in
identical offspring.
B) Sexual reproduction requires only one parent, while asexual reproduction requires two parents.
C) Asexual reproduction produces genetically identical offspring, while sexual reproduction combines
genetic material from two parents to create genetic diversity.
D) Asexual reproduction involves fertilization, while sexual reproduction does not.
30. While walking at your favorite beach, you have noticed an organism. From time to time, one of its appendages
detach and gradually grow into a whole new organism, like the first. This is an example of
A. fission B. budding C. fragmentation D. internal fertilization
31. Which of the following characteristics describe oviparity?
a. This is found in some bony and cartilaginous fish, most reptiles, some amphibians, all birds, and a few
mammals.
b. The eggs are developed internally and receive nourishment directly from the mother’s blood through
placenta rather than from the yolk.
c. The egg would receive its nourishment through its yolk.
d. After the eggs are fertilized internally, it would complete its development outside the mother’s body.
32. How does external fertilization differ from internal fertilization?
A) External fertilization involves the union of egg and sperm inside the female reproductive tract, while
internal fertilization happens outside the female body.
B) External fertilization occurs inside the female reproductive system, while internal fertilization occurs
outside the body.
C) External fertilization happens outside the female body, while internal fertilization occurs inside the
female body.
D) There is no difference; both occur inside the female body.
33. Which of the following animals fertilize the eggs outside the female reproductive tract?
A. Frogs B. Humans C. Turtles D. Cows
34. How does fragmentation differ from regeneration in asexual reproduction?
A) Fragmentation results in a new individual from an outgrowth, while regeneration involves the regrowth of
lost body parts.
B) Fragmentation involves the division of a single organism into parts that grow into new individuals,
while regeneration involves the regrowth of lost body parts.
C) Fragmentation is a form of sexual reproduction, while regeneration is a form of asexual reproduction.
D) There is no difference; both terms describe the same process.
35. Which of the following characteristics describe sexual reproduction?
I. Sexual reproduction needs two parents to produce an offspring.
II. The union of egg and sperm occurs outside the female reproductive tract.
III. Usually on prokaryotes (single-celled organisms like bacteria).
IV. The combination of the genes from both parents increases the chances of species variation.
A. Both II and III B. Both I and III C. Both I and IV D. Both I and II
36. Which of the following best describes the process of "budding" in asexual reproduction?
A) A new individual grows from the parent and eventually detaches to live independently.
B) The parent cell divides into two identical cells.
C) A piece of the organism breaks off and regenerates into a new organism.
D) The parent regenerates lost body parts to form a new individual.
37. What is the term used to refer to the process of producing two identical replicas of DNA from one original DNA
molecule?
A. Gene splicing B. Translation C. Transcription D. Replication
38. What is the key difference between oviparous and viviparous animals?
A) Oviparous animals lay eggs that develop outside the mother's body, while viviparous animals give
birth to live young that develop inside the mother's body.
B) Oviparous animals give birth to live young, while viviparous animals lay eggs that develop outside the
mother's body.
C) Oviparous animals do not need fertilization, while viviparous animals do.
D) Oviparous animals rely on external fertilization, while viviparous animals use internal fertilization.
39. It is the process in which fragments of DNA from one or more different microorganism are combined to form rDNA
(recombinant DNA) and are made to function within the cell of a host organism.
A. Gene Splicing B. Gene Transfer C. Gene Therapy D. Gene
40. A biologist is researching the potential for creating hypoallergenic pets through genetic modification. This
research would most likely use which of the following applications of genetic engineering?
A) To enhance animal health through disease resistance
B) To produce industrial products such as fibers
C) To improve the interactions between animals and humans
D) To produce human therapeutic products like insulin
41. A new strain of genetically modified corn is created to withstand drought conditions. This is an example of which
application of genetic engineering?
A) To produce pharmaceuticals B) To enhance food production
C) To create cosmetic products D) To create biofuels
42. What do you call the enzymes that cut DNA molecule at some given location
A. Exonucleases B. Endonucleases C. Ligase D. Plasmid
43. What is the term used to refer to the process of converting information in mRNA into a sequence of amino acids in
a protein?
A. Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. Gene splicing
44. A company develops a genetically modified fish that grows at a faster rate than wild-type fish. This modification is
an example of genetic engineering being used for which of the following purposes?
A) To enhance the fish's resistance to disease B) To improve food quality and production
C) To create hypoallergenic pets D) To generate human therapeutic products
46. What is one of the benefits of genetic engineering in medicine?
A) Creation of new plant species for food B) Production of human insulin for diabetic patients
C) Enhancement of animal fur quality D) Improvement of animal health by changing their behavior
47. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found only in RNA but not in DNA?
A. Adenine B. Thymine C. Cytosine D. Uracil
48. Which of the following are the DNA complimentary strand of ATT CGG GGC ACG GCT?
A. TAA GCC CCG TGC CGA C. TAA GCC CGG TGC CGA
B. UAA GCC CCG UGC CGA D. UAA GCC CCG UGC CGT
49. What do you call the process of artificial manipulation, modification, and recombination of DNA or other nucleic
acid molecules in order to modify an organism.
A. Artificial Selection C. Genetic Engineering
B. Cloning D. Selective Breeding
50. What do you call the organisms whose genetic material has been altered using genetic engineering.
A. Genetically Engineered Organism C. Genetic Engineered Organism
B. Genetically Modified Organism D. Genetic Modified Organism
51. Which of the following is a risk associated with genetic engineering, particularly in crops?
A) Creation of crops with more nutrients B) Unpredictable genetic alterations in organisms
C) Increased crop resistance to diseases D) Reduction of pesticide use in agriculture

For numbers 52-55, refer to the following choices.

A. The statement is correct.
B. The statement is incorrect.
C. The statement is either correct or incorrect.
D. The statement cannot be determined as to whether it is correct or incorrect.
A52. Transcription is the process of copying DNA sequence into RNA.
B53. Artificial organisms are the term used to refer to organisms whose genetic material has been altered using
genetic engineering
A54. Cloning is a technique of creating an organism that is an exact genetic copy of the other organism.
A55. Genetically modified organisms (GMO) are products of genetic engineering.

56. What is one of the benefits of genetic engineering in agriculture?

A) Decreasing the number of pests in crops without harming helpful organisms
B) Creating more genetically identical plants to avoid genetic diversity
C) Producing crops with less nutritional value
D) Preventing any changes to the genetic makeup of plants
57. Why are genetically modified plants beneficial in agriculture?
A) They are less nutritious than traditional crops
B) They require less water for growth
C) They can be designed for pest control and weed management
D) They grow without the need for any external resources
58. How does genetic engineering benefit the field of agriculture regarding crop production?
A) By making crops resistant to all diseases
B) By making crops more nutritious and pest-resistant
C) By making crops less sensitive to weather changes
D) By reducing the need for fertilizers
59. What is the main function of the circulatory system?
A) To regulate body activities through hormones
B) To transport nutrients and gases to cells and tissues
C) To break down food into smaller molecules
D) To protect the body from infection and radiation damage
60. Ovaries produce and secrete hormones in addition to eggs. To what human body systems do ovaries belong?
A. Integumentary and Reproductive C. Excretory and Muscular
B. Endocrine and Reproductive D. Nervous and Digestive
61. Which organ is NOT part of the digestive system?
A) Stomach B) Liver C) Heart D) Rectum
62. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. circulatory – heart C. nervous – brain
B. respiratory – lungs D. reproductive – egg cell
63. What is the primary role of the endocrine system?
A) To regulate body activities through electrical impulses
B) To secrete hormones that influence growth and development
C) To enable movement through the contraction of muscles
D) To break down food for energy
64. The skeletal system provides:
A) A framework for the body B) Oxygen to the cells
C) Hormones for growth and development D) Nutrients to the body through digestion
65. The largest human body organ which regulates temperature and serves as a barrier against harmful microorganisms
belongs to the –
A. Integumentary System C. Nervous System
B. Digestive System D. Circulatory System
66. Which system is responsible for providing the body with oxygen through gas exchange?
A) Muscular System B) Skeletal System
C) Respiratory System D) Nervous System
67. When a person’s body needs food, the brain helps maintain homeostasis by sending signals that make the person.
A. Feels hungry B. Perspires C. Put on a sweater/jacket D. Feels tired
68. The primary organs of the digestive system include:
A) Heart, lungs, and intestines B) Mouth, stomach, intestines, and rectum
C) Liver, kidneys, and pancreas D) Lungs, trachea, and bronchi
69. Lou Gehrig’s disease disrupts the function of motor neurons (nerve cells) that control the movement of the limbs
and other body parts. Which body system is most likely to be directly affected by this disease?
A. The endocrine system C. The circulatory system
B. The digestive system D. The muscular system
70. All of the following are primary organs of digestive system EXCEPT:
A. Urinary bladder B. Stomach C. Intestine D. Rectum
71. The reproductive system is primarily responsible for:
A) Transporting nutrients and oxygen B) The production of offspring through sexual reproduction
C) Filtering waste from the blood D) Providing structural support to the body
72. A deer hears a predator approaching and begins to run for safety. The deer has primarily engaged what body system
to escape?
A. Muscular, reproductive and circulatory system C. Nervous, respiratory, and muscular system
B. Muscular, digestive, and immune system D. Respiratory, endocrine and excretory system
73. A deer hears a predator approaching and begins to run for safety. Analyze the systems that are most actively
involved in this response.
A) Muscular, reproductive, and circulatory system B) Muscular, digestive, and immune system
C) Nervous, respiratory, and muscular system D) Respiratory, endocrine, and excretory system
74. The digestive system is responsible for absorbing nutrients. In a similar way, the circulatory system is primarily
responsible for what function related to nutrient management?
A) Removing nutrients B) Distributing nutrients
C) Attracting nutrients D) Fighting infections
75. The digestive system is to absorbing nutrients as the circulatory system is to?
A. Removing nutrients C. Distributing nutrients
B. Attracting nutrients D. Fighting infections
76. Hormones increase the heart rate of an animal in danger. This is a function of what organ system?
A. Skeletal and Muscular C. Circulatory and Endocrine
B. Digestive and Integumentary D. Endocrine and Nervous
77. Hormones increase the heart rate of an animal in danger. Based on your understanding of organ systems, which
two systems are working together to cause this response?
A) Skeletal and Muscular B) Circulatory and Endocrine
C) Digestive and Integumentary D) Endocrine and Nervous
78. Which body system is responsible for taking in oxygen and getting rid of carbon dioxide?
A. Cardiovascular System C. Lymphatic System
B. Lung System D. Respiratory System
79. Which of the following statements are correct?
A) Muscular System is responsible for maintaining the internal heat of the body.
B) Excretory System is for immune defense.
C) Digestive System consists of different glands that produce hormones.
D) Respiratory System is responsible for framework.
80. Which body system is the central processing unit that affects the other organ system?
A. Cardiovascular System C. Lymphatic System
B. Nervous System D. Endocrine System
81. Mang Jose’s blood sugar is high, predict the body’s response in order to maintain homeostasis.
A. Mang Jose’s brain will be stimulated and will alert the pancreas to release insulin in the blood.
B. Mang Jose’s brain will be stimulated and will alert the blood to pump faster.
C. Mang Jose’s brain will no longer function.
D. Mang Jose’s brain will alert the lungs to stop the breathing.
82. Which of the following statements are correct.
A. Muscular System is responsible for maintaining the internal heat of the body.
B. Excretory System is for immune defense.
C. Digestive System are consists of different glands that produces hormones.
D. Respiratory System is responsible for framework
83. Lou Gehrig’s disease disrupts the function of motor neurons (nerve cells) that control the movement of the limbs
and other body parts. Given this information, which body system is most likely to be directly affected by this disease?
A) The endocrine system B) The digestive system
C) The circulatory system D) The muscular system
84. Who is the Father of Evolution?
A. Alfred Russel Wallace B. Carolus Linnaeus
C. Charles Darwin D. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
85. Which term refers to a change over time in species or organisms?
a) Evolution b) Gradualism c) Migration d) Mutation
86. The following are viviparous animals EXCEPT;
A. Elephant B. Cows C. Humans D. Duck
87. Who proposed the Theory of Use and Disuse?
a) Alfred Russel Wallace b) Carolus Linnaeus
c) Charles Darwin d) Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
88. The following are oviparous animals EXCEPT;
A. Birds B. Reptiles C. Mammals D. Fish
89. Analyze the following options and determine which one correctly lists the levels of classification in the current
taxonomic system.
a) Phylum, kingdom, class, order, family, genus, species
b) Class, kingdom, phylum, order, family, genus, species
c) Phylum, kingdom, class, order, family, genus, species
d) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
90. Internal Fertilization refers to?
A. It is the union of egg and sperm occurs outside the female reproductive tract.
B. Usually on prokaryotes (single-celled organisms like bacteria)
C. It is the union of an egg and sperm cell during sexual reproduction inside the female body.
D. This is common among most species of bony fish and amphibians.
91. Analyze the following scenario: A biologist finds an insect that doesn’t resemble anything seen before. Based on
this information, which of the following possibilities would you consider, and why?
A) It may be a new species.
B) It may be an undescribed life history stage of an already known species.
C) It may be a member of the other gender of a known species.
D) All of the above.
92. All of the following are characteristics of DNA EXCEPT:
A. is a double-stranded molecule that has a long chain of nucleotides.
B. It is considered as the blueprint of life.
C. It cannot replicate on its own.
D. It is located in the nucleus of a cell.
93. Analyze the following biological classifications and determine which one covers a greater number of organisms.
Consider the hierarchy and the scope of each classification.
A) Species B) Genus C) Family D) Class
94. It is a group of tissues that perform the same functions.
A. Organ B. Tissue C. Cell D. Organ System
95. Which of the following demonstrates an understanding of environmental resistance?
A) Predators struggle for a similar prey.
B) Adequate food and water supply for the people.
C) The health condition of the organisms is stable.
 D) Suitable habitat increases the growth of producers.
96. All of the following are examples of animals that undergo asexual reproduction EXCEPT:
A. Earthworms B. Hydra C. Bacteria D. Mammals
97. Which of the following factors would you consider if you were assessing the impact on a population's growth? Apply
your knowledge of environmental resistance to identify which factor would not limit population growth.
A) Competitors B) Diseases C) Predators D) Reproduction
98. Arteriosclerosis is a disease which clogs arteries in the human body. In arteriosclerosis, artery walls become thick.
Fatty deposits build up on inner 19 walls of arteries. This condition reduces the ability of arteries to perform their
function. Which body system is most affected by arteriosclerosis?
A. The Endocrine System C. The Circulatory System
B. The Digestive System D. The Muscular System
99. What factors would most likely contribute to the increase in population growth of a species? Consider the
following factors:
I. Disease V. Predation
II. Unsuitable habitat VI. Water
III. Adequate food VII. Sunlight
IV. Competitors VIII. Temperature
a. II, IV, V, VII C. I, III, IV, V
b. I, III, V, VIII D. I, II, IV, V